Ratio, Proportion & Variation: N M N M N M

Where there is faith, Victory prevails 1
1. Ratio, Proportion & Variation

1 If the ratio of n to m is 3 and the sum of n and m is 80. What is the value of n?
(a) 60 (b) 10 (c) 2 (d) 5

2. One year ago the ratio between Amit and Sumits salary was 3:4. The ratio of their individual salaries between last years
and this years salaries is 4:5 and 2:3 respectively. At present the total of their salary is Rs.4160.What is the present salary
of Amit?
(a) Rs.1250 (b) Rs.1600 (c) Rs.2560 (d) Rs.3120

3. A club had 3 men and 5 women. During a membership drive the same number of men and women joined the club. How
many members does the club have now if the ratio of men to women is 3:4?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 21

4. If
4
3
=
n
m
find the value of |
.
|
\
|
+
n m
n m
2 7
3 5
?
(a) 3/27 (b) 5/33 (c) 5/29 (d) 3/29

5. Two numbers are in the ratio M:N. When 1 is added to both numerator and denominator, the ratio becomes O/P. Again
when 1 is added to both the numerator and denominator it becomes 1/2. Find the sum of M and N?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6

6. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4. If each of the numbers gets increased by 6, the ratio becomes 4:5. Find the two numbers?
(a) 18, 24 (b) 24, 36 (c) 30, 40 (d) 60, 80

7. If P can make 3 boards in 50 minutes, how many boards can he make in 5 hours?
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19

8. Assuming that on a blue print 1/8 inch equals 12 inches of actual length, the actual length in inches of a steel bar
represented on the blue print by a line 3
4
3
inches long is,
(a) 3
4
3
(b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 360

9. What is the ratio of 2feet 3inch to 2yds?
(a) 3/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

10. 2 girls can mow a lawn in 2hrs 30mins. If 3 other girls join them, how many hours will it take to mow the lawn?
(a) 1
4
1
hr (b) 1 hr (c) 1
2
1
hr (d) 1
4
3
hr

11. If the system of equations c = 0, a + 2b c = 1, 3a 2b 8c = -1. What is the ratio of a to c?
(a) -9/4 (b) 9/4 (c) -1/3 (d) 1/3

12. If a sprinter take 30 steps in 9 seconds. How many steps does he take in 54 seconds?
(a) 130 (b) 180 (c) 170 (d) 173

13. If
3
2
=
n
m
and
5
4
=
o
n
, then
o n
n m
+
+
is equal to?
(a) 20: 27 (b) 8: 15 (c) 27: 20 (d) 3: 4

14. 60 meters of a uniform wire weighs 80 kg. What will be 141 meters of the same wire weight?
(a) 190 kg. (b) 188 kg (c) 144 kg (d) 62 kg

15. If the ratio of two numbers is 6 and their sum is 21, what is the value of the larger number?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 18 (d) 17


16. If 25% of the vehicles sold by an automobile dealership are buses and the rest are trucks, what is the ratio of trucks to
buses sold by this dealership?
(a) 1: 3 (b) 1: 4 (c) 3: 4 (d) 3: 1

17. If 10 men can clean 10 floors in 10 days, in how many days 8 men can clean 8 floors?
(a) 12 days (b) 8 days c) 10 days (d) 10
4
1
days

18. If 0 < y < 1 which of the following must be true?
I. y
2
< y II. y <
2
1
y
III. y y <
(a) II, I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I only

19. If 7 persons can assemble a bus in 8 hrs, how long would it take 12 persons to assemble the same bus?
(a) 4
3
2
(b) 3 hrs (c) 3
2
1
hrs (d) 5 hrs

20. The sum of three numbers is 102, the ratio between the first and the second is 2:3 and that between the second and the
third is 5:3. Find the second number?
(a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45

21. The ratio of two numbers is 10 and their difference is 18. What is the value of smaller number?
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 21

22. If the degree measures of two angles of an isosceles triangle are in the ratio 1:3, what is the degree measure of the largest
angle if it is not a base angle?
(a) 26
0
(b) 108
0
(c) 36
0
(d) 51
0

23. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2:3:4. If the sum of the reciprocals of the first and third numbers exceeds the reciprocal
of the second number by 5/12, find the second number?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

24. The sum of salaries of M and N is Rs.2,100. M spends 80% of his salary and N spends 70%. If their savings are now in the
proportion of 4:3, what is the salary of M?
(a) Rs.1000 (b) Rs.1200 (c) Rs.1400 (d) Rs.1000

25. Find the fraction, which bears the same ratio to
7
3
that
5
1
does to
15
7
?
(a)
47
6
(b)
49
9
(c)
49
7
(d)
49
6

26. The ratio of number of girls to boys in a party was 1:2, but when 2 girls and 2 boys left, the ratio becomes 1:3. How many
people were originally present at the party?
(a) 13 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 11
27. In a graduate class there are four times as many students aged 25 or older as there are students under 25. The ratio of
students age under 25 to the entire class is.
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

28. Divide 1162 into three parts such that 4 times the first part, 5 times the second part and 7 times the third part are equal.
What is the second part?
(a) 280 (b) 490 (c) 392 (d) 400

29. If
b a
c y
a c
b y
c b
a y
+
+
+
+
+
= 3, then y is
(a) a + b + c (b) a b + c (c) a + b c (d) a b c


30. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 12.If the digits are reversed the new number is
7
4
times the original
number, what is the original number?
(a) 66 (b) 84 (c) 75 (d) 78

Answer Key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A b C d b A a D a b
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B b A b c D c A a d
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B b B c b C b C a b

2. Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership

1. Ragini receives a salary raise from Rs.25,000 to Rs.27,500. Find the percent of increase?
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 90 (d) 15

2. The population of Delhi has increased from 80,000 to 100,000 in the last 20 years. Find the percent of increase?
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 80 (d) 60

3. The value of super company stock dropped from Rs. 25 a share to Rs. 21 a share. Find the percent of decrease?
(a) 16 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12

4. The Shyams bought their home for Rs. 30,000 and sold it for Rs.60,000. What was the profit percentage?
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 200% (d) 200%

5. During the pre-holidays rush, Sohans department store increased its sales staff from 150 to 200 persons. By what percent
must it now decrease its sales staff to return to the usual number of sales persons?
(a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 20% (d) 40%

6. m% of n + n% of m is equal to __
(a) mn% of 2 (b) mn% of 3 (c) 2% of (m+n) (d) n% of m

7. An article is bought for Rs.20 and sold Rs.25. What is the gain%?
(a) 5% (b) 75% (c) 10% (d) 25%

8. What percent of 25 is 5?
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35%

9. 2 is 10% of what number?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 12 (d) 24

10. 200% of 800 equals __
(a) 1600 (b) 800 (c) 200 (d) 16

11. Express 4/5 as a percentage.
(a) 20% (b) 80% (c) 60% (d) 90%

12. After a discount of 15%, the price of a pair of jeans is Rs.102. What is its price before discount?
(a) Rs.120 (b) Rs.124 (c) Rs.113 (d) Rs.184

13. If there are 15 men and 25 women in a class, what percent of the class are men?


(a) 10 % (b) 37.5% (c) 18 % (d) 25 %

14. K spent Rs.25, which is 15% of his monthly wage. What is his monthly wage?
(a) Rs.80 (b) Rs.166
3
2
(c) Rs.225 (d) Rs.12.
15. If m = 4n, what percent of 2m is 2n?
(a) 26 % (b) 25% (c) 20 % (d) 36 %

16. In a company with 180 employees, 108 of the employees are female. What % of the employees are male?
(a) 25 % (b) 40% (c) 35 % (d) 5 %

17. Last month the price of a particular pencil was Rs.1.20. This month the price of the same pencil is Rs.1.50. What is the
percent increase in the price of the pencil?
(a) 5 % (b) 25 % (c) 10 % (d) 30 %

18. A paid Rs.1,500 for a computer after receiving a 20% discount. What was the price of the computer before the discount?
(a) Rs.300 (b) Rs.1,850 (c) Rs.1,875 (d) Rs.2,000

19. At Amans Bargain Basement everything is sold for 20% less than the price marked. If Aman buy chair for Rs.80, at what
price should he mark them if he wants to make a 20% profit on his cost?
(a) Rs.96 (b) Rs.110 (c) Rs.120 (d) Rs.112
20. If the ratio of girls to boys in a meeting is 4 to 1. What percent of the persons in the meeting are boys?
(a) 25 % (b) 20 % (c) 33.33% (d) 80 %

21. A clerk divided his 35 hour work week as follows; 1/5 of his time was spent in sorting mail, 1/2 of his time in filing letters,
and 1/7 of his time in reception work. The rest of his time was devoted to messenger work. The percent of time spent on
messenger work by the clerk during the week was most nearly:
(a) 16% (b) 6% (c) 20% (d) 10%

22. If by selling 110 apples, the cost price of 120 apples is realized, what is the gain percent?
(a) 11
9
1
% (b) 9
11
1
% (c) 9
9
1
% (d) 10
11
10
%

23. In measuring the side of a square an error of 5% in excess was made. What was the error percent in the calculated area?
(a) 8% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 10.25%

24. Maya bought a T-shirt, a pair of jeans, and a pair of skirt, which cost Rs.10, Rs.20 and Rs.30 respectively. What percent of
the total expense was spent for the jeans?
(a) 16.66 % (b) 33.33% (c) 20 % (d) 30 %

25. Last year Anu was 5 feet tall, and this year she is 5 feet 6 inches. What is the percent increase of her height?
(a) 5 % (b) 40 % (c) 10 % (d) 20 %

26. A city has a population growth rate of 10% per year. The population in 1990 was 2000. What was the population in 1992?
(a) 1600 (b) 2400 (c) 2200 (d) 2420

27. In a class of 200 students, 40% are girls. 25% of the boys and 10% of the girls signed up for a tour to Mumbai. What
percent of the class signed up for the tour?
(a) 19 % (b) 18 % (c) 25 % (d) 27 %

28. Last year Jyotis annual salary was Rs.20,000. This years raise brings her to an annual salary of Rs.25,000. If she gets the
same percent raise every year, what will be her salary for next year?
(a)32000 (b)31000 (c)31250 (d)35000

29. In one class in a school, 30% of the students are boys. In a second class that is half the size of the first, 40% of the students
are boys, what percent of both classes are boys?


(a) 33
3
1
% (b) 32% (c) 25 % (d) 80 %
30. During his second week on the job, P earned Rs.110. This represented a 25% increase over his earnings of the previous
week. How much did he earn during his first week of work?
(a) Rs.82.50 (b) Rs.85.00 (c) Rs.88.00 (d) Rs.137.50

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A a a a a c d b b a
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B a b b b b b c c b
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A b d b C d a c a c

3. Number System
1. If x and y are integers and xy = 10. Which of the following cant be a value of x+y?
(a) 25 (b) 29 (c) 50 (d) 52

2. If m and n are integers such that m
3
= n
2
, which of the following could not be the value of n?
(a) 16 (b) 1 (c) 8 (d) None of these

3. If x is equal to the sum of y and z. Which of the following is equal to the difference of y and z?
(a) x-y-z (b) x-y+z (c) x-2z (d) x-y-2z

4. If the remainder is 1, when m is divided by 2 and the remainder is 3, when n is divided by 4, which of the following must
be true?
(a) m is even (b) n is even (c) m+n is even (d) mn is even

5. If 3 =
+
b a
b a
and a and b are integers, then which one of the following must be true?
(a) a is divisible by 4 (b) a is an even number (c) b is an odd number (d) b is even number

6. If m>2, then the sum P, of the integers from 1 to m can be calculated by the following P =
2
) 1 ( + m m
which one of the
following statements about P must be true?
(a) P is always odd (b) P is always even
(c) P must be a prime number (d) P must not be a prime number

7. If m and n are non-zero integers and m > n, which of the following must be positive?
(a) mn (b) m+n (c) m/n (d) m-n

8. Find the sum of all numbers divisible by 6 in between 100 to 400?
(a) 12,450 (b) 12,500 (c) 13,000 (d) 1,000

9. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as remainder. The
number is __
(a) 220030 (b) 22030 (c) 220000 (d) 220300

10. In a division sum of the divisor is 10 times the quotient which is 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, determine
the dividend?


(a) 5000 (b) 5446 (c) 5336 (d) 5335

11. There are 48 students in a class. If three fourth of the students are boys and two thirds of the boys are from neighboring
states, how many boys in the class are from neighboring states?
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 26 (d) 28

12. The simplification of .
4
3
8
7
2
1
-
4
3

2
1
2
1
(
(
)
`
|
.
|
\
|
+ yields?
(a) 0 (b) 29/42 (c) 27/32 (d) 42/49

13. If x and y are negative, and z is positive, which of the following statements are true?
I. x y < x z II. If x < y then
z
x
<
z
y
III.
y
1
<
z
1

(a) I only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) None of these

14. The product of x consecutive integers equals Q, which of the following is true for x > 2?
(I) Q is an even number (II) Q is an odd number (III) Q is positive
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II only

15. If m and n are integers such that 2 < n < 25 and 5 < m < 13 then the largest possible value of n/m +m/n=?
(a)
2
1
(b) 4 (c) 4
4
1
(d) 8

16. If m and n are prime numbers greater than 2, which of the following must be true?
I. m + n is even II. mn is odd III. m
2
- n
2
is even.
(a) I only (b) I, II & III (c) I & II only (d) I & III only

17. If two numbers have only the number 1 as a common divisor, then they are called Relatively prime. Which of the
following are not relatively prime?
I. 3 II. 4 III. 7 IV. 12
(a) I & IV, II & IV (b) I & II, I & III (c) II & III, II & IV (d) II & IV, III & IV

18. What will be the remainder obtained when 9
6
+ 1 will be divided by 8?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2

19. Two different numbers when divided by a certain divisor leave remainders 547 and 349 respectively. When sum of the
two numbers is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 211. Find the divisor?
(a) 675 (b) 685 (c) 680 (d) 655

20. HCF of 2873 and 5083 is 221, and then their LCM is?
(a) 66089 (b) 66079 (c) 6679 (d) 66089

21. Find the unit digit of the expansion 25
6251
+ 36
528
+ (7 - 1)
54
?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 5

22. If the number k is even, which of the following will be true?
(a) 3k + 5 will always be divisible by 11
(b) 3k will always be divisible by 6
(c) (k
2
+ 3)/4 will be divisible by 7
(d) None of these

23. A number 15k is divisible by 6. Which of the following will be true about the integer k?
(a) k will be even (b) k will be odd (c) k will be divisible by 6 (d) both (a) & (c)

24. A gardener wants to plant trees in a garden. If the number of trees in each row is the same and there are 35 or 14 or 21
rows, then no tree is left. Find the least number of trees that can be planted?
(a) 210 (b) 350 (c) 140 (d) 280

25. Find the HCF of 124/136 and 186/36?


(a) 30/102 (b) 48/512 (c) 214/165 (d) 31/102

26. A shopkeeper had to arrange a certain number of tables in rows, when he put 5 tables in a row he was left with 1 table.
Then he tried 6 in a row, then 8, then 9, then 12 but always he was left with 1 table. Next he put 13 tables in a row and
then he was left with none. What is the least number of tables?
(a) 4320 (b) 2340 (c) 3601 (d) 3610

27. In a number of two digits, the digit in the ones place is the square of the digit in the tens place and the number formed by
reversing the digits exceeds twice the number by 15. Find the number?
(a) 39 (b) 24 (c) 11 (d) 46

28. If s is an even integer, then which of the following is the sum of the next two even integers greater than 4s + 1?
(a) 8s+2 (b) 8s+4 (c) 8s+6 (d) 8s+8

29. If the average of consecutive even integers x, y and z is less than
3
1
x, which of the following best describes the value of x?
(a) x is prime (b) x is negative. (c) x is zero (d) x is positive

30. If K divided by 9 leaves a remainder of 1, which of the following must be true?
I. K is even II. K is odd III. K = 3x + 1 for some integer
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II & III only (d) III only

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C a c c b d d a a c
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A c c a d b a d b b
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B b c a d c a c b d

4. Averages, Mixtures & Allegations

1. Rams average in 6 mathematics tests making period is 75. Fortunately for Mohan, his teacher drops each students lowest
grade, and this raises his average to 85. What was his lowest grade?
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40

2. At central state college the ratio of the number of students taking Spanish to the number of students taking French is 7:2.
If 140 students are taking French, how many students are taking Spanish?
(a) 490 (b) 470 (c) 390 (d) 360

3. The average of 50, 150 and 400 is twice the average of 50, 150 and
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200

4. The average of 6 observations is 12. A new 7
th
observation is included and the new average is decreased by 1. What is the
seventh observation?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 7

5. The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5kgs, when one of them whose weight is 56kgs is replaced by a new
man. Find the weight of the new man?
(a) 72kgs (b) 77kgs (c) 76kgs (d) 56kgs

6. A clerk filled 73 forms on Monday, 85 forms on Tuesday, 54 on Wednesday, 92 on Thursday, and 66 on Friday, what was
the average number of forms filled per day?
(a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 370 (d) 74


7. If the average of two numbers is m, and one of the numbers is equal to n, then the other number is equal to?
(a) 2m n (b) 27 m (c) m+n/2 (d) n-m

8. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs.6.10 per kg must be mixed with 126 kgs of sugar costing Rs.2.85 per kg, so that
20% may be gained by selling the mixture at Rs.4.80 per kg?
(a) 69 kgs (b) 70 kgs (c) 63 kgs (d) 65 kgs

9. 5 litres of 20% Sulfuric acid is added to 5 litres of 100% pure sulfuric acid. What is the strength of the acid in the mixture
now?
(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 80% (d) 50%

10. 6kgs of tea at Rs.6 per kg and 4kgs of tea at Rs.7 per kg are mixed together and the mixture is sold at 10% profit. What is
the selling price per kg of the mixture?
(a) Rs.7.05 (b) Rs.7.01 (c) Rs.7.04 (d) Rs.7.08

11. The average of 9 numbers is 7 and the average of 7 other numbers is 9. What is the average of all 16 numbers?
(a) 7
8
7
(b) 7
8
1
(c) 7
4
1
(d) 17
2
1

12. The average age of an adult in a class is 40 years. 12 new students with an average of 32 years join the class, thereby
decreasing the average by 4 years. What was the original strength of the class?
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 13

13. The average weight of a class of 40 students is 40kgs. If the weight of the teacher be included, the average weight
increases by 500 grams. Find the weight of the teacher?
(a) 60kgs (b) 70kgs (c) 70.5kgs (d) 60.5kgs

14. Find the average of sum of squares of natural numbers till 9?
(a) 99 (b) 95/3 (c) 191/6 (d) 199/8

15. The average age of M and N is 20 years. If P were to replace M, the average would be 19 and if P were to replace N, the
average would be 21. What are the ages of M, N and P?
(a) 18, 22, 34 years (b) 22, 18, 20 years (c) 21, 17, 25 years (d) 15, 24, 30 years

16. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is 16. The highest of these numbers is
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 17

17. The average age of 40 students in a class is 15 years. When 10 new students are admitted, the average is increased by 0.2
years. Find the average age of the new students?
(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 16

18. If a mixture is 3/7 alcohol by volume and 4/7 water by volume, what is the ratio of the volume of alcohol to the volume of
water in this mixture?
(a) 3/7 (b) 4/7 (c) 3/4 (d) 4/3

19. A container contains 80 kgs of milk. From this container 8 kgs of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process
was further repeated two times. How much milk is now contained in the container?
(a) 58.34 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 59 kg (d) 56 kg

20. On a map, 1 inch represents 150 miles. What is the actual distance between two cities if they are 3
2
1
inches apart on the
map?
(a) 600 (b) 525 (c) 300 (d) 450

21. On mixing two classes of students having average marks 25 and 40 respectively, the overall average obtained is 30
marks. Find the ratio of students in the class.
(a) 3:4 (b) 1:2 (c) 4:5 (d) 2:1


22. A certain hostel room costs Rs.120 per night for the first week. Each additional day beyond the first week is half price to
the nearest rupee. What is the average cost per night of a 3 week stay at this hotel?
(a) Rs.77 (b) Rs.90 (c) Rs.80 (d) Rs.100

23. The average of three numbers is 55, the second is 1 more than twice the first and the third is 4 less than three times the
first. What is the largest number?
(a) 88 (b) 55 (c) 57 (d) 80

24. The average of 8 numbers is A and one of the number is 14. If 14 is replaced with 28, then what is the new average in
terms of A?
(a)
2
1
+ A
(b)
4
7
+ A
(c) A + 2 (d) 2A + 1

25. The average of a batsman after 25 innings was 56 runs per innings. If after the 26
th
inning his average increased by 2 runs,
then what was his score in the 26
th
inning?
(a) 108 (b) 100 (c) 56 (d) 52

26. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 38
0
and that of Tuesday, Wednesday,
Thursday and Friday was 40. If the temperature of Monday was 30
0
, the temperature of Friday was
(a) 40
0
(b) 39
0
(c) 38
0
(d) 48
0

27. X can type a sheet in 5 minutes, Y in 6 minutes and Z can in 8 minutes. Find the number of sheets typed per hour per
person?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11

28. A jet uses 80 gallons of fuel to fly 320 miles. At this rate, how many gallons of fuel is needed to fly 700 miles for a flight?
(a) 150 (b) 170 (c) 155 (d) 175

29. A mixture consists of 15 parts of coffee, purchased at Rs.2.10 per kg and 1 part of chicory, purchased at 98paise per kg. If
it is sold at Rs.2.25 per kg, what profit would be made on the sale of 5 quintals?
(a) Rs.90 (b) Rs.110 (c) Rs.100 (d) Rs.120

30. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 :2. If 4 liters of water is added to the mixture, ratio of milk and water in
the mixture becomes equal. Find the quantity of milk in the mixture, in litres?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 10

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a a b a c c a A b c
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer d b d b b c d C a b
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer d c d b a c c D b a

5. Time, speed & distance

1. Mohan travelled 40 percent of the distance of the trip alone, went another 20 miles with Sohan and then finished the last
half of the trip alone. How many miles alone was the trip?
(a) 240 (b) 200 (c) 160 (d) 100

2 A truck departed from Mumbai at 11:53AM arrived in Delhi, 240 miles away at 4:41PM on the same day. What was the
approximate average speed of the truck on this trip?
(a)
1200
16
mph (b)
280
240
mph (c)
240
1494
mph (d) 50 mph


3 A boy covers 800 miles in 10 hour. Then speed of a boy is
(a) 80 mph (b) 90 mph (c) 100 mph (d) 60 mph

4 A runs 200 meters at a speed of 8mt/s. In how much time he will finish the race?
(a) 20 sec (b) 25 sec (c) 30 sec (d) 40 sec

5 M runs at 5miles/hour. How much distance he was cover in 4 hour?
(a) 45 miles (b) 20 miles (c) 22 miles (d) 18 miles

6 K walks at 3 km/hour. How much time he will cover 900 meters?
(a) 25 min (b) 16 min (c) 20 min (d) 18 min

7 Two cars P and Q start from the same point but move in opposite direction speeds of 40miles/ hr and 35 miles/hr
respectively. What is their relative speed?
(a) 15 m/hr (b) 75 m/hr (c) 40 m/hr (d) 35 m/hr

8 A is 100 meters ahead of B. They are running in same direction. As speed is 8m/s, while that of Bs is 6m/s. How much
would be the distance between them after 10 more seconds?
(a) 80 m (b) 20 m (c) 100 m (d) 120 m

9 A man leaves his home in the morning for office and return to his home in the evening. In the morning he travels at a
speed of 35 miles / hr, but during return in the evening his speed is only 25 miles / hr. Find his average speed for the
whole journey.
(a) 29
6
1
miles/hr. (b) 29
6
5
miles/ hr. (c) 30
6
1
miles/hr. (d) 25
6
1
miles/ hr.
10 Cyclist A leaves point O at 12 noon and travels in a straight both at a constant velocity of 20 miles per hour. Cyclist B
leaves point O at 2 PM, travels the same path at a constant velocity, and overtakes at 4 pm. What was the average speed of
B?
(a) 40 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 35

11 Two cars start at the same point and travel in opposite directions. If one car travels at 45miles per hour and the other at
60 miles per hour, how much time will pass before they are 210 miles apart?
(a) 0.5 hrs (b) 1 hr (c) 1.5 hrs (d) 2 hrs

12 A car runs at 60 miles/hours. A person runs at one fourth the speed of the car and reaches office from his house in 15
minutes. How far is his office from his house?
(a) 3
4
3
miles (b) 5 miles (c) 4 miles (d) 3 miles
13 Two cars start from two cities Lucknow and Delhi which are 500 miles apart and move towards each other at 60 miles/hr
and 40 miles/hr respectively. After how much time they will meet if they meet at P? What is the distance from Lucknow
to P?
(a) 6 hr. 240 miles (b) 4 hr, 160 miles (c) 5hr, 300 miles (d) 4hr, 240 miles

14 P covers the distance between his house and office at 50m/h. He is late by 20 min. But when he travels at 60m/hr, he
reaches 10min early. What is the distance between his house and office?
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 120 (d) 140

15 Walking at 4/5 of the usual speed, a person is 2 hours late. How much time he usually takes to travel the same distance?
(a) 6hr (b) 2 hr (c) 10 hr (d) 8 hr

16 H walks to his college at 4 miles / hour and return to his college at 2 miles/hr. If he spends total 6 hours on his up and
down traveling, what is the distance between his house and college?
(a) 6
2
1
(b) 6 (c) 8
2
1
(d) none


17 A cyclist covers a distance of 27 miles in 4 hours. If his average speed during first 15 miles is 6 m/hr. What is his average
speed during later remaining part of his journey?
(a) 8 m/hr (b) 6m/hr (c) 4 m/hr (d) 5 m/hr

18 Pipes P and Q can fill a cistern alone in 12 and 15 hour respectively. Pipe R can empty the full cistern in 18 hours. If all the
three pipes are open simultaneously. How much time it will take them to fill the cistern completely?
(a) 10
17
10
(b) 12
17
10
(c) 11
17
10
(d) 10
17
11

19 Pipes M and N can fill a cistern in 36 and 48 hours respectively. Both pipes are open, after some time pipe N is closed and
the tank is full in 24 hours. For how much time was the pipe N opens?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12

20 A boy covers 10 miles at 4 miles/hr and they travel further 21 miles at 6 miles /hr. Find his average speed for the total
journey.
(a) 5
1
6
m/hr (b) 4
2
1
m/hr (c) 5m/hr (d) 6m/hr

21 R covers one-third of his journey at 30 miles/hr and the remaining two-third at 45 miles/hr. If the total journey is 150
miles, what is his average speed for the whole journey?
(a) 38
7
4
(b) 38
7
3
(c) 38
7
5
(d) 37
7
4

22 A and B are 4 miles apart. If A starts walking toward B at 3 mph and at the same time B starts walking toward A at 2mph,
how much time will pass before they meet?
(a) 50 min (b) 48 min (c) 40 min (d) 35 min

23 If Ram walks at 5 miles/hr, he misses the train by 7 minutes. If he walks at 6 miles/hr, he reaches 5 minutes before the
departure of the train. What is the distance of the station from the Rams house?
(a) 7 kms. (b) 8 kms. (c) 10 kms (d) 6 kms.

24 M leaves Horsely Hills at 8.00am and drives north on the highway at an average speed of 50 miles per hour. N leaves
Horsely hills at 8.30 am and drives north on the same highway at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. N will:
(a) Overtake M at 9.30 am.
(b) Overtake M at 10.30 am.
(c) Overtake M at 11.00 am.
(d) Be 30 miles behind at 8.35 am

25 A car leaves from Delhi at 9.00 am, traveling east at 50 mph. At 1.00 pm, a plane leaves Delhi traveling east at 300 mph.
At what time will the plane overtake the car?
(a) 12.45pm (b) 1.10pm (c) 1.40pm (d) 1.48pm

26 Sita can read 50 pages per hour. At this rate, how many pages can she read in 50 minutes?
(a) 41
3
2
(b) 25 (c) 45
2
1
(d) 48

27 M and P both assemble component rods of a uniform length for manufacturing air craft. When working alone M can
assemble a certain component in 24 minutes. When they work together, they can assemble the same component in 15
minutes. How many minutes would it take P to assemble the component alone?
(a) 40 (b) 39 (c) 30 (d) 48

28 If it takes Rohit 16 minutes to run c miles, how many minutes would it take him to run b miles at the same rate?
(a)
c
16b
(b)
bc
16
(c)
16
bc
(d)
b
16c


29 Ram runs from city M to city N in 2 hrs at a constant rate. He then turns around and runs back to city M of a constant rate,
which is two miles per hour slower than his rate on the way to city N. If the return trip takes an hour longer, what is the
distance between city M and city N?
(a) 12 miles (b) 4 miles (c) 6 miles (d) 3 miles

30 If an object is moving at a speed of 36 km/h, how many meters does it travel in one second?
(a) 10 (b) 36 (c) 100 (d) 360

Answer Key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b d a b c d b d a A
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer d a d b a d a a b A
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a b c c d a a a a A

6. Work Based Problems

1. G and N, working together at the same rate, can mow the estates lawn in 12 hours. Working alone, what fraction of the
lawn can G mow in three hours?
(a) 1/24 (b) 1/12 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/4

2. 20 men can do a job in 5 days. How many men are required to do the same job in 25 days?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

3. A labour is paid Rs.8 per hour working 8 hrs/day and 1 times of that rate for each hour in excess of 8 hours in a single
day. If the labour received Rs.80 for a single days work. How long did he work on that day?
(a) 6 hr.40 min (b) 9hr. 20 min (c) 9hr. 30 min (d) 9hr. 40 min

4. A certain number of boys can complete a job in 30 days. If there were 5 boys more, it could be completed in 10 days less.
How many boys were there in the beginning?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15

5. Mohan can dig trench in 60 days. How much can he dig in 40 days?
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/4 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/4

6. P, Q and R enter into a contract for Rs.550. P and Q working together can complete 7/11th of the work. How much should
be the share of R?
(a) Rs.100 (b) Rs.150 (c) Rs.200 (d) Rs.250

7. Ram and Shyam can do a work in 10 days and 8 days respectively. Both of them work together to complete the work. If
the total amount paid for work is Rs.180, how much is Rams share?
(a) Rs.75 (b) Rs.150 (c) Rs.120 (d) Rs.80

8. M and N together can do a work in 10 days. M alone can do the same work in 30 days. In how many days can N alone do
this work?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 25

9. X and Y can do work in 15 days, Y and Z can do it in 20 days, Z and X can do it in 12 days. In how many days can they
complete the work, if they work together?
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 12

10. Meena can do a work in 20 days and Ram in 30 days. They work together for 10 days. After that Ram leaves and rest of the
work is completed by Meena alone. How much time will Meena take to finish the remaining work?


(a)
3
2
3 (b)
3
1
3 (c) 4 (d)
3
1
4

11. Pawan works twice as fast as Vinit. If both of them working together can finish the work in 12 days. How much time will
Vinit alone take to complete the work?
(a) 48 days (b) 36 days (c) 27 days (d) 24 days

12. M and P can do a piece of work in 16 days. M can do the same work in 24 days. In how many days P alone finish the job?
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 14

13. L and R can complete a work in 10 days and 15 days respectively. L starts the work and after 5 days R also join. In all how
many days the work will be completed?
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

14. M, N and P can do a piece of work in 8, 10 and 12 days respectively. In how many days can they finish the job, working
together?
(a) 3
37
7
(b) 3
37
8
(c) 3
37
9
(d) 4
37
9

15. Mohit can complete a work in 10 days and Rohit in 20 days. They start the work together but after 5days Mohit leaves
and the remaining work is completed by Rohit alone. How many days Rohit will take to finish the remaining work?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 5

16. Mohan and Sohan undertake to complete a piece of work for Rs.300. Mohan alone can do it in 8 days and Sohan alone in
12 days. But with the help of Amit they finish it in 4 days. How much is Amits share?
(a) Rs.300 (b) Rs.120 (c) Rs.150 (d) Rs.50

17. P, Q and R together earn Rs.900 in 10 days. P and Q together earn Rs.350 in 5 days. Q and R together Rs.400 in 8 days.
Find the earnings of Q?
(a) Rs.40 (b) Rs.50 (c) Rs.30 (d) Rs.30

18. Wages of 20 boys for 15 days is Rs.9000. If the daily wage of a man is one and half times that of a boy, how many men
must work for 30 days to earn Rs.13500?
(a) 20 (b) 8 (c) 15 (d) 10

19. M, N and P undertake to complete a piece of work for Rs.2574. M works for 8 days, N works for 9 days, P works for 12
days to complete the work. If their daily wages are in the ratio of 3:5:4, then what is the share of P?
(a) Rs.1056 (b) Rs.1000 (c) Rs.528 (d) Rs.990

20. If two workers can assemble a car in 8 hrs and a third worker can assemble the same car in 12 hrs. Then how long would
it take if all the three workers together assemble the car?
(a) 2
5
4
hrs (b) 2
5
2
hrs (c) 4
5
4
hrs (d) 3
2
1
hrs

21. Raman can do a work in 10 days and Mohan can do a work in 12 days. How many days will they take to do the same work
if both of them work together?
(a) 5
11
5
(b) 5
11
7
(c) 4
11
6
(d) 4
12
7

22. X, Y and Z can do a piece of work in 6, 8 and 10 days respectively. They start the work together. Y and Z leave the work 2
days and 3 days respectively before completion, while X works till the end. In how many days, the remaining work gets
finished?
(a) 4
47
45
(b) 3
47
45
(c) 2
47
45
(d) 5
47
45


23. 3 monkeys and 8 tigers do a piece of work in 4 days. If 8 horses and 2 donkeys do the same job in 2 days, how many tigers
and 5 monkeys can do a job twice as large in 4 days?
(a) 14 (b) 20 (c) 17 (d) 23

24. The work done by a woman in 8 hours is equal to the work done by a man in 6 hours and by a boy in 12 hours. If working
6 hours per day 9 men can complete a work in 6 days. Then in how many days can 12 men, 12 women and 12 boys
together finish the same work, working 8 hours per day?
(a)
3
1
3 days (b)
3
1
3 days (c) 3 days (d)
3
1
4 days

25. A particular job can be completed by a group of 10 men in 12 days. The same job can be completed by a group of 10
women in 6 days. How many days are needed to complete the job if the two groups work together?
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 9

26. Sohan can do 1/3
rd
of a work in 5 days, Jyoti can do 2/5
th
of the work in 10 days. In how many days both of them can
complete the work?
(a) 9
8
5
(b) 9
4
3
(c) 9
8
3
(d) 9
8
5

27. Kirti can do a work in 80 days. She works at it for 10 days. Then Anita alone finishes the work in 42 days. In how many
days working together can complete the work?
(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 42

28. P and Q can do a certain work in 10 days, Q and R in 12 days, R and P in 20 days. In how many days Q alone can complete
the work?
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 15

29. 12 men can complete a work in 8 days. Three days after they started the work, three more men joined them. In how many
days will all of them together complete the remaining work?

30. Rajesh completes a work in 4 days where as Amit completes the same work in 6 days. Aman works 1 times as fast as
Rajesh. How many days it will take for the three together to complete the work?
(a) 2
19
7
(b) 1
19
6
(c) 2
19
5
(d) 1
19
5

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer c A b B c c D a b B
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer b C c C d d d d a A
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a B d B b c c d d D

7. Simple Interest & Compound Interest

1. A sum of money doubles itself in 4 years at compound interest. In how much time will it become 8 times of itself?
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) none of these

2. A loan is discharged in three equal installments of Rs.121 each. If the rate of interest is 10%. Find the amount of loan.
(a) 318 (b) 440 (c) 210 (d) 330

3. The compound interest on a certain sum for two years is Rs.41 and simple interest is Rs.40. Find the sum and rate of
interest.


(a) 5%, 400 (b) 4%, 500 (c) 6%, 500 (d) 5%, 600

4. M and N lent equal money at compound interest. M lent at the rate of 5% payable yearly, while N lent at 5% payable half
yearly, then Ms income is?
(a) equal to that of N (b) less than that of N
(c) greater than that of N (d) none of these

5. If a person borrows money at 2% per annum, interest payable yearly and lends it immediately at 4% per annum, interest
being payable half yearly and thereby gains Rs.616 at the end of one year. What was the sum borrowed?
(a) 40,000 (b) 16,000 (c) 32,000 (d) 20,000

6. A person borrows Rs.5,000 at 5% per annum compound interest. If he repays Rs.1000 at the end of each year, find the
amount outstanding at the beginning of third year?
(a) 4055 (b) 3462.5 (c) 4255 (d) none of these

7. If a person lost 20% of his money and after spending 80% of the remaining he has rupees 160 left over. How much money
he initially had?
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) 1000

8. If the simple interest on Rs.900 for 4 months is Rs.30, what is the rate of interest per annum?
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%

9. A boy borrows Rs.1500, Rs.1000 at 4% and the remaining at 5%. How much interest will he have to pay after 6 years?
(a) Rs.390 (b) Rs.180 (c) Rs.120 (d) Rs.360

10. Deepak deposited Rs.5,000 in a bank on 1
st
January and at the end of 6 months he withdrew Rs.3,000. Find the interest
due to him at the end of the year at 4% per annum.
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.90 (c) Rs.140 (d) Rs.75

11. A sum of Rs.1,000 doubles itself every 5 years at a certain rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest?
(a) 15% (b) 12% (c) 16% (d) 20%

12. What is the difference between simple and compound interest on Rs.5,000 lent at 10% per annum for three years?
(a) 155 (b) 140 (c) 160 (d) 150

13. What will be the difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a sum of Rs.3,000 for 6 years at 10%
per annum?
(a) 600 (b) 520.5 (c) 514.68 (d) 590.68

14. A certain sum amounts to Rs.2,240 in 2 years and Rs.2,600 in 3 years. Find the rate of interest.
(a) 10% (b) 16.07% (c) 10.98% (d) 11%

15. A sum was invested at a certain rate of simple interest for 2 years. Had it been invested at 1% higher it would have
fetched Rs.24 more. Find the sum.
(a) Rs.1,200 (b) Rs.800 (c) Rs.1,500 (d) Rs.1,200

16. What discount can be offered on a bill of Rs.800 at 5% due 6 months from now?
(a) Rs.19.51 (b) Rs.19 (c) Rs.20 (d) Rs.18.51

17. Raman purchases a computer under a 3 year annual installment plan. If the cost of the computer is Rs. 14,000 and he
makes a down payment of Rs.2,500, then what is the annual installment he has to pay if the bank rate is 15% per annum?
(a) Rs.5,000 (b) Rs.5,036.50 (c) Rs.5,400 (d) Rs.4800

18. Two girls invested their equal inheritance in 10 year bonds at varying interest rates of 6% and 8%. At the end of 10 years
the amount earned by the later exceeded the amount earned by the former by Rs.960. How much money did each inherit?
(a) Rs.4,000 (b) Rs.5,000 (c) Rs.4,800 (d) Rs.5,400

19. At a loan mela, Akash avails a loan of Rs.758 at 20% interest per annum. He has to repay his entire debt in 3 equal
installments, each payable at intervals of one year after a previous payment. What is the installment amount the person
will have to pay every year?


(a) Rs.360 (b) Rs.350 (c) Rs.400 (d) Rs.480
20. The population of a country increases at 2% every year. In what time will the population doubles itself?
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 25 years (d) 36 years

21. A certain sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to Rs.2,809 in 2 years and to Rs.2977.54 in 3 years. What
is the rate of interest?
(a) 10% (b) 7% (c) 6% (d) 8%

22. On a certain sum of money the compound interest for 2 years is Rs.420 and the simple interest is Rs.400. Find the sum
and rate of interest.
(a) Rs.2000, 10% (b) Rs.1600, 10% (c) Rs.2000, 15% (d) Rs.1600, 16%

23. A certain sum of money invested in a bank earns simple interest and trebles itself in 16 years and 8 months. In how much
time will the money double itself?
(a) 5 years 4
1
2
months (b) 8 years 4 months (c) 8 years (d) 10 years

24. Sumit borrows Rs.500 from a bank at 4% per annum compound interest and invests the amount in car which he sells at
Rs.700 which he recovered from the buyer after two years. How much money did the Sumit gain in the deal as a
percentage of his investment?
(a) 30% (b) 31.5% (c) 31.84% (d) 24%

25. A girl bought a television for Rs.8,000. She paid half the money at once and promised to pay the balance after 8 months
with interest at 10%. Find the amount paid after 8 months.
(a) Rs.4,266.66 (b) Rs.6,720 (c) Rs.6,625 (d) none of these
26. Parth invested Rs.6,400 in a bank paying interest at 5% per annum. 1
1
2
year later he withdrew the interest on this
investment together with Rs.2,880 of his principal. He closed his account 15 months later. Find the total interest he
received from the bank.
(a) Rs.720 (b) Rs.264 (c) Rs.630 (d) Rs.744

27. K invested Rs.2,400 in a bank paying 6 % per annum simple interest. At the end of a certain time he withdrew the
principal and interest amounting to Rs.3,120. L invested of Ks principal in another bank which paid 8% simple interest
per annum for the same time. Find how much L would receive from his bank (interest only).
(a) Rs.720 (b) Rs.1,248 (c) Rs.576 (d) none of these

28. A sum of money invested at 5% per annum simple interest amounts to Rs.3,000 in 5 years. In what time will it amount to
Rs.4,320 at 10% per annum?

29. A principal of Rs.750 amounts to Rs.907.50 in 3
1
2
years. How much will Rs.1,100 amount to in 5 years at the same rate?
(a) Rs.1,430 (b) Rs.1,420 (c) Rs.1,300 (d) Rs.2,175.50

30. G lent a sum of money for 15 months at 4% per annum simple interest and H lent the same sum for 6 months at 6% per
annum simple interest. If Hs interest is Rs.60 less than that of G, find the sum lent.
(a) Rs.3,600 (b) Rs.2,500 (c) Rs.3,000 (d) Rs.3,200

Answer key

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a c a b b b d b a c
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer d a c b d a b c a d
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer c a b c a a a b a c


8. Simple Equations

1. Find the number such that the difference between five times the number and two times the number is 24.
(a) 85 (b) 32 (c) 15 (d) 8

2. A two digit number is equal to two times the product of the digits, and the digit in the tens place is less by 2 than the digit
in the units place. Find the number.
(a) 16 (b) 35 (c) 46 (d) 38

3. In a certain family eleven times the number of the children is greater by 12 than twice the square of the number. How
many children are there?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

4. A mother is now three times as old as her son. Six years ago she was six times as old as her son. Find the present age of
son.
(a) 25 yrs (b) 15 yrs (c) 10 yrs (d) 20 yrs

5. In an election, there are 3 candidates and the successful candidate received five times as many votes as the bottom
candidate and 2000 votes more than the second candidate. The total number of votes was 6800. How many votes did the
successful candidate obtain?
(a) 3540 (b) 4000 (c) 2348 (d) 5675

6. I have a certain number of toffees to divide equally amongst six boys. If the number of toffees and the number of boys
were each increased by three, each boy would receive three toffees less. How many toffees have I to distribute?
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 50 (d) 60

7. There are 30 book cases in a library. One third of the cases each contain 2p books, two fifth of the cases each contain q
books, and the remainder each contain 3r books. How many books are there in the library?
(a) 20p + 12q + 24r (b) 12p + 20q + 24r (c) (p+q+r) 20 (d) none of these.

8. In a factory a boy gets Rs.40 per day and a girl gets Rs.30 per day. 100 people are employed and the wages are Rs.32 per
day. How many boys are employed at the factory?
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 75

9. Find the two whole numbers such that, in each case, seven times the square of the next whole number above exceeds
eight times the square of the next whole number below by 40.
(a) 11, 13 (b) 13, 15 (c) 11, 12 (d) 15, 17

10. A dealer sells 7 chairs and buys 9 tables, thus increasing his cash by Rs.60. Then at the same prices, he buys 9 chairs and
sells 13 tables, thus decreasing his cash by Rs.20. Find the price of each tables.
(a) Rs.13 (b) Rs.14.50 (c) Rs.45.00 (d) Rs.40.00

11. Find 3 consecutive positive integers such that the square of their sum exceeds the sum of their squares by 292.
(a) 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 5 (c) 4, 5, 6 (d) 6, 7, 8

12. A mothers age is equal to those of her three children together. In 5 years it becomes equal to that of the two eldest .After
another 5 years, it becomes equal to that of the eldest and youngest, and after another 5 years it becomes equal to those
of the two youngest. Find the present age of mother.
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 38

13. Find a fraction which reduces to half, if the numerator and denominator are each diminished by 1 and is reduced to 3/5, if
the numerator and denominator each are increased by 2.
(a)5/9 (b)2/5 (c)3/2 (d)1/8

14. A battalion of soldiers, when formed in to a solid square, present sixteen men fewer in the front than they do when
formed in a hollow square four deep. Find the required number of men.
(a) 485 (b) 576 (c) 398 (d) 748

15. In the first half of a foot ball match India scored x goals and England scored y goals. In the second half India did not
score but England scored z goals and won the match by 3 goals. Write the equation connecting x, y & z.


(a) x+y = z+2 (b) x = y+z+2 (c) x+3 = y+z (d) x+y = z

16. P distributes Rs.180 equally amongst a certain number of people. Q distributes the same sum but gives to each person
Re.1 more than P, and gives to 15 persons less than P does. How much does P give to each person?
(a) Rs.6 (b) Rs.5 (c) Rs.8 (d) Rs.3

17. One man and four children can do a piece of work in 15 days which would be done by 6 men and 6 children in 5 days. How
long would it take one man to do it?

18. M has Rs.2 and N has 25paise. How much must M give to N in order that he may have just two times as much as N?
(a) 50paise (b) 30paise (c) 20paise (d) 25paise

19. The sum of a certain number and its square root is 156. What is the number?
(a) 25 (b) 81 (c) 120 (d) 144

20. Find two numbers which are such that one fifth of greater exceeds one-sixth of lesser by 9, and such that one half of the
greater plus one third of the lesser equals 63.
(a) 42, 34 (b) 55, 48 (c) 54, 90 (d) 54, 80

21. The difference between a number consisting of two digits and the number formed by reversing the digits is 27. The sum of
three times the tens digit and five times the units digits is 33. Find the number.
(a) 63 (b) 80 (c) 58 (d) 75

22. Find m, if (m 7)
3
+ (m 9)
3
+ (m 8)
3
= 3(m-4) (m-9) (m-8)
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12

23. A mans property of $19,000 is divided between his wife, three sons and two daughters. Wife gets twice of what each son
gets and thrice of what each daughter gets. What is each daughters share?
(a) 650 (b) 2345 (c) 654 d) 2000

24. There are three consecutive numbers whose sum is 123. Find the square of the middle one.
(a) 1681 (b) 1764 (c) 1829 (d) 1936

25. How old is a man now, who 20 years ago, was five times as old as his son, who will be 45 years old 16 years after?

26. P and Q each had a certain number of apples. P said to Q. If you give me 30 of your apples, my number will be twice of
yours. Q replied If you give me 10, my number will be thrice of yours. How many mangoes P and Q had?
(a) 45, 68 (b) 44, 88 (c) 34, 62 (d) 28, 68

27. The ratio of Ms present age to Ns present age is 7:9. Nine years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 2:3. Find the present
age of M.

28. Which one of the following values of a will satisfy the equation
a 4 a 6 a 10 a 12

a 5 a 7 a 11 a 13

=

?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

29. If a man travels at the rate of m kmph, in what time will he finish a journey of n km?
(a) n/m hrs (b) (m+n) hrs (c) mn hrs (d) (n m) hrs

30. The number 90 is divided into two parts such that three times of one part and four times the other may be together equals
to 335. Find the parts.
(a) 25, 65 (b) 35, 55 (c) 32, 58 (d) 31, 59


Answer key

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer d a B c b D a b c d
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer d c A b c D b a b c
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a a D a b C b d a A

9. Quadratic Equations

1. Find the roots of y
2
22 + 120 = 0.
(a) 12, 1 0 (b) 12, 8 (c) 12, -10 (d) 12, 10

2. The roots of the quadratic equation 3K
2
K 4 = 0 are
(a) 1, 2/7 (b) -1, 3/4 (c) 1, 2/7 (d) 1, -2/7

3. The value of y in (y+7) (y-7) = 15
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) none

4. A(Y
2
+1) = Y(A
2
+1) then Y = ?
(a) a, a
2
(b) a
2
, a
3
(c) a
2
, 1/a (d) a, 1/a
5. If one root of the equation y
2
12y + k = 0 is three times the other then find the value of k.

(a) 27 (b) 14 (c) 9 (d) 21

6. If the sum of the roots of quadratic equation is 5, and sum of their squares is 97 find the equation.
(a) m
2
3m+ 10 = 0 (b) m
2
5m 36 = 0 (c) m
2
+ 3m 10 = 0 (d) m
2
+ 3m + 10 = 0

7. If o and | are the roots of the equation 3x
2
4x + 2 = 0 then the value of o
3
+ |
3
is .
(a) 116/125 (b) 113/125 (c) -8/27 (d) none of these

8. Find p so that the sum of the roots of equation px
2
+ 8x + 12p = 0 may be equal to their product.
(a) 1/3 (b) -1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) -4/3

9. If 2x
2
8x + q = 0 has equal roots then the value of q is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 7

10. If a = b = c, find the nature of the roots of (x a) (x b) + (x b) (x c) + (x c) (x a)=0
(a) roots are real & unequal (b) roots are real & equal (c) roots are imaginary (d) none of these

11. If
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
+ +
+
=
+ +
+
a a
a a
x x
x x
then x = ?
(a) a
2
, a (b) a,
a
1
(c) a,
a
1
(d) a,
a
1

12. For what values of n will the equation x
2
2 (5+2n)x+3(7+10n) = 0 have equal roots?
(a)
2
1
, 2 (b)
2
1
, -2 (c)
a
1
, -2 (d) 2,
2
1

13. One root of (x 1) (x 3) (x 4) (x 6) + 8 = 0 is:

14. If (x 1)
3
+ x
3
+ (x + 1)
3
= 3x
2
(x 1) then x is


(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3

15. In a certain family, eleven times the number of children is greater by 12 than twice the square of the number of children.
Then find the number of children in the family?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 9

16. A two digit number is equal to three times the product of the digits and the digit in the tens place is less by 2 than the digit
in the unit place. Then the number is?
(a) 36 (b) 68 (c) 24 (d) 12

17. The sum of digits of a certain number and its positive square root is 9. What is the number?
(a) 71 (b) 61 (c) 63 (d) 81

18. One root of a quadratic equation is 5 + 3 . The quadratic equation is
(a) x
2
6x 7 = 0 (b) x
2
+ 6x 7 = 0 (c) x
2
+ 6x + 7 = 0 (d) x
2
10x + 22 = 0

19. Find the roots of the equation m
2
+ 5m + 6 = 0
(a) -2 or -5 (b) -2 or -3 (c) -1 or 4 (d) none of these

20. If o, | are the roots of the equation 4x
2
+ 15x + 5 = 0, find the value of
2 2
1 1
| o
+
(a) 289/25 (b) 25/36 (c) 302/36 (d) 37/5

21. If the equation x
2
2px 2x + p
2
= 0 has equal roots the value of p must be:
(a) zero (b) either zero or
2
1

(c)
2
1
(d) either
2
1
or
2
1

22. Find k, if one root of the equation (x - k)
2
4k = 12 is zero.
(a) 6, - 2 (b) 6, 2 (c) 10, 2 (d) 10, - 2

23. The value of the discriminant 7k
2
8k + 4 is
(a) 6 2 (b) 2 7 (c) 8 (d) 12

24. The sum of a fathers age and his daughters age is 100 years. Also one tenth of the product of their ages, in years exceeds
the fathers age by 180. How old is the daughter?
(a) 60 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 45

25. Find three positive consecutive integers such that the square of their sum exceeds the sum of their squares by 148.
(a) 4, 5, 6, (b) 10, 11, 12 (c) 9, 10, 11 (d) 7, 8, 9

26. For what value of m will x
2
(3m 1)x + 2m
2
+ 2m = 11 have equal roots.
(a) 9, -5 (b) 9, 5 (c) 9, 5 (d) 9, - 5

27. A and B attempt to solve a quadratic equation of the form ax
2
+ bx + c = 0. A starts with a wrong value of b and get roots
as 3 and 5. B starts with a wrong value of C and get the roots as 6 and 2. Find the correct roots.
(a) 3, 4 (b) 3, 5 (c) 4, 6 (d)2,3

28. If the equation 4x
2
+6x+k=0 has exactly one root, what is the value of k?
(a) 9/4 (b)3/4 (c) 0 d) (3/4)
29. The difference between the roots of the equation 6x
2
+ nx + 1 = 0 is
6
1
. If n > O, then the value of n is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

30. If the roots x1 and x2 of the quadratic equation x
2
2x + c = 0 satisfy the condition, 7x2 4x1 = 47 which of the following is
true?
(a) x1 = 4.5, x2 = -2.5 (b) x1 = -5, x2 = 3 (c) c = -15, (d) none of these


Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a b C D a b c d a b
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer c d B A b c d d b d
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer c a C B a c b a c c

10. Indices & Surds

1. If
( )
( ) ( )
P a P
a P P P
a
a x a a x
+ +
+ +
=
+ + +
2
2 2

1
, then which of the following is the relation between x and p for
a= 0.
(a) x = p (b) p = x + a (c) x = -p + a (d) none of these

2. Find x if p
x p
x p x p
x

2
=
+
+
+ +
.
(a) 0 (b) 4p (c)
3
2
2 2
x p p +
(d) 2p
3.
2 2
1 1
n m
n m
+

is equal to
(a)
mn
m n
(b)
mn
m n +
(c)
n m
mn
(d)
) (
1
n m mn

4. The correct order in ascending order of the values is:
(a) ( ) ( ) ( )
5 / 1 4 / 1 3 / 1
5 , 4 , 3 (b) ( ) ( ) ( ) 3 , 5 , 4
1/3 5 / 1 4 / 1

(c) ( ) ( ) ( ) 3 , 4 , 5
3 / 1 4 / 1 5 / 1
(d) none of these
5. What is the difference in the sum of the squares and the difference of squares of n and a when
2 n
2
1
2 2
2 2
1

2
6
3 .
=
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|

+
n
n
a n
a
a
and
sum of a and n is 12.
(a) 50 (b) 98 (c) 4 (d) 2

6. If 60
a
= 3, 60
b
= 5 then 12
| |
( ) | | b
b a
+ +
1 2
1
= ?
(a) 3 (b) 30 (c) 5 (d) 3

7. The largest integer m for which m
200
> 6
300
is:
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 14

8. The value of
q p q p
pq
+ +
4
is:
(a) pq q p + + (b) ( ) p q p + + 2


(c) q p q p + + (d) q p q p +

9. The number of digits in
2 2
5 2
5 . 4 (in base 10 form) is:
(a) 30 (b) 29 (c) 20 (d) 27

10. A keyboard has a key which replaces the displayed entry with its square and another key which replaces the displayed
entry with its reciprocal. Let y be the final result, if one starts with an entry x = 0 and alternately squares and reciprocates
n times each. Assuming the case is completely accurate.
(Ex: no round off errors / over flow errors) then y = ?
(a)
( )
n
x
2
(b)
n
x
2
(c)
( )
( )
n
x
2
(d)
( )
( )
n n
x
2 1

11. Arrange in ascending order 3
6
1
, 2
5
1
, 5
8
1

(a) 3
6
1
, 2
5
1
, 5
8
1
(b) 5
8
1
, 2
5
1
, 3
6
1
(c) 2
5
1
, 5
8
1
, 3
6
1
(d) 2
5
1
, 3
6
1
, 5
8
1

12. Which of the following is true?
(a) 15 19 5 11 > (b) 15 19 5 11 <
(c) 15 19 5 11 = (d) 15 19 5 11 s

13. If p > q, then which of the following need not be true?
(a) p < -q (b) p
3
> q
3
(c) 5p > 5q (d) p
n
> q
n

14. If (m
2n
+m
2n+2
) is divisible by 10 where m and n are both natural numbers, then what can be said about the unit digit of m?
I. The last digit of m cannot be 1 or 6 or 4.
II. The last digit of m can be 5 only
III. The last digit of m can take any value from 2, 3, 5, 7 and 8
(a) i & ii only (b) i & iii only (c) ii only (d) iii only

15. Which of the following is the smallest positive number?
(a) 10 11 3 (b) 51 26 10 (c) 11 3 10 (d) 18 13 5

16. If 2
m
+ 3
n
= 35 and 2
m+3
3
n+1
= 49. Then what are the respective values of m and n?
(a) 3, 4 (b) 5, 7 (c) 16, 27 (d) 8, 9

17.
( ) y x
x
=
, then x = ?
(a) y
x
(b) y
x
1
(c) y
x
2
(d) none of these.

18. A number P ends in k. Then what is the last digit of the number P
m
where m is of the form 4n + 3?
(a) k + 1 (b) k 1 (c) data insufficient (d) k

19. If
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) 81
1
2 3
177147 3 3 9
3 2
3
2
2
2
=
|
|
.
|
\
|

m
n
n
n
then:

(a) mn+2 = 0 (b) 6m+11n6 = 0 (c) 4m11n8 = 0 (d) m n 2 = 0

20. Find x if x > 0 and 4 2
x(x-3)
2
4
= 2
2(x+1)
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 2 (d) 8


21. Find the value of expression
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
+
+ +
+
+ +
+
c
a b b c b a a c b a
x
x x
x x x x
1
1
1
1
1
1

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

22. The value of
10
01 . 0
4 4
256
p
is:
(a) (10p)
36
(b)
3
6
10
p
(c)
10
16
p
(d) none of these
23. The square root of 31 + 10 6 is:
(a) 7 + 6 (b) 5 + 3 6 (c) 8 + 2 6 (d) 5 + 6

24. If 3
2m
+9 = 10(3
m
), find m.
(a) (0, 1) (b) (3, 1) (c) (0, 2) (d) (-2, 1)

25. What is the relation between
4
5 and
3
11 is:
(a)
4
5 <
3
11 (b) 5 <
3
11 (c) 5 =
3
11 (d) 5 >
3
11

26. b a + =
+
+
+
+
3 2
6 1
3 2
6 1
. Find the value of b.
(a) 16 (b) 5 (c) 40 (d) 96

27. Simplify
2 12 17 +
.
(a) 2 15 + (b) 7 10 + (c) 8 9 + (d) 5 12 +

28. 2 7 675 3 8 128 2 3 + + + = + n m . Find the value of n-m.
(a) 8 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) none of these.

29. Simplify
1 1
2 2 1
16 . 25 4
8 . 5 . 4 . 2
+ +
+
n m m
n n n m

(a)
m
5
4
(b)
m n
m

10 .
5
4
(c)
m n
m
+
10 .
5
4
(d)
n m
n

10 .
5
8

30. 196 130 213 + + = ?
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 11 (d) 15

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer c C d c a b d b c a
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer d A d b b a c c c a
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer b C d c a d c b c d


11. Progressions
1. Find the sum of 20 terms of the series 5 + 9 + 13 + .
(a) 860 (b) 870 (c) 970 (d) 780

2. If sn = n(n+8) then tn is:
(a) 3n + 7 (b) 2n + 7 (c) n + 7 (d) 4n + 9
3. Find the sum of the first 25 natural numbers?
4. If the 4
th
and 9
th
term of a Geometric progression are
1
4
and 256 respectively, Find the first term.
(a) 256 (b)1/27 (c) 27 (d)1/256

5. How many terms of the series 2 + 7 + 12 + .must be taken in order, so that the sum may be 245.
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 13

6. Find the Geometric progression whose sum to infinity is
16
3
and the second of which is 4.
(a) 6, 3, 2 .. (b) 8, -4, 2, -1,
1
2
. (c) 6, -2, 1.. (d) none of these

7. The number of bacteria in a culture triples in every 15 minutes. Find the number of bacteria in the culture of 105 minutes,
if there were 10,000 bacteria initially.
(a) 6560 10
4
(b) 6560 10
3
(c) 6560 10
5
(d) none of these

8. Find the value of p so that 4p + 2, 4p 1 and 3p + 5 are in arithmetic progression.
(a) 5 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 9.5

9. Find the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence 5, 5.5, 5.55, 5.555..
(a) 100 (b) 101.5 (c) 110.5 (d) 111.5

10. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the sequence whose n
th
term is 3n 8.
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 285

11. Find the 100
th
term of the sequence 3, 6, 9, 12,
(a) 103 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) none

12. Find the sum of first 8 terms of the sequence 3, 9, 27..
(a) 9840 (b) 9820 (c) 9800 (d) 9830

13. How many terms of the series 5 + 7 + 9 + must be taken in order that the sum may be 480.
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25

14. Find the sum of infinite series 9 6 + 4 .
(a) 27/5 (b) 26/5 (c) 25/4 (d) none of these

15. A boy saves Rs.5 more each year than the preceding year. If he saves Rs.10 in the first year, after how many years will his
saving amount to Rs.325?

16. The sum of first n even numbers is
(a) 2n (b) n(n+1) (c) n
3
(d) cant be determined

17. A ball dropped from a height of 24m rebounds two third of the distance it falls. How much distance will it travel before
coming to rest?
(a) 240 m (b) 60 m (c) 72 m (d) cant determined

18. Find the sum of all numbers between 100 and 500 divisible by 5.


(a) 67 (b) 600 (c) 30,000 (d) 23,700

19. Find four numbers in arithmetic progression such that their sum is 40 and the product of the first and last term is 64.
(a) 2, 6, 10, 14 (b) 8, 12, 16, 20 (c) 4, 8, 12, 16 (d) 1, 5, 9, 15

20. Find the sum of the squares of the first twenty natural numbers:
(a) 2120 (b) 2885 (c) 2506 (d) 2870

21. Find the n
th
term of the series 2.3.4 + 3.4.5 + -----
(a) n(n+1) (b) (n+1)(n+ 2)(n+3) (c) n(n+1)(n+3) (d) none

22. Three numbers are in Geometric progression such that their product is 512. Find the middle number.
(a) 1 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 2

23. A ball dropped from an airplane falls 10 meters in the first second of its motion. 15 meter in the second 20 meter in the
third, 25 meter in the fourth and so on. Find the distance traveled by the ball if it hits the earth in 120 seconds.
(a) 73.8 km (b) 40 km (c) 36.9 km (d) 1428 km

24. The third term of AP is 8 and 12
th
term is 80, what is its 15
th
term?
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 76 (d) 104

25. Find the next term of the sequence 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, .
(a) 308 (b) 244 (c) 217 (d) 343

26. If the 3
rd
term of H.P (Harmonic progression) is 1/7 and the 7
th
term is 1/5. What is the 15
th
term?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1/3

27. Find the n
th
term of the following series, S = 3
2
+ 5
2
+ 7
2
+
(a) 4n
2
+ 4n + 1 (b) 2n
2
+ 1
(c)
4
3 3 3
2 3
+ + n n n
(d)
4
4 2 4 4
2 3 4 5
+ + n n n n

28. Find the next number of the sequence 66, 36, 18, ..
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

29. There is a sequence of real numbers S = a0, a1, a2 an such that a0 < a1 .an. Define [x] = greatest integer less than or
equal to x. A new sequence T is constructed which goes as [-a0], [-a1], [-a2] .[an] Then T is an .
(a) increasing sequence (b) decreasing sequence (c) first decreases then increases (d) either (a) or (b)

30. Find the sum till n terms of the series 7 + 77 + 777 +
(a) ] 10 9 10 [
81
2
1

+
n
n
(b)
n
7 10(10 1)
n
9 9
| |

|
\ .

(c)
( )
(
(
1
9
10 10
9
6
1 n
(d)
(
(

+
9
9 10 10
9
6
1
n
n

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a b C d a b a b C d
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer c a C a d b c d C d
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer b b C d c a a d B B


12. Binomial Theorem

1. What is the coefficient of p
3
in the Binomial expansion of (3p+4)
6
(a) 35460 (b) 34560 (c) 36450 (d) 35406
2. What is the independent term of x in the Binomial expansion of (x-
x
1
)
6
(a) 20 (b) 20 (c) 64 (d) 46
3. What is the middle term in the expansion of
6
|
.
|
\
|
+
b
y
a
x

(a)
3 3
3 3
10
b a
y x
(b)
3 3
3 3
16
945
b x
a y
(c)
3 3
3 3
8
2835
b a
y x
(d)
3 3
3 3
20
b a
y x

4. What is the 5
th
term in the Binomial expansion of
8
3
1
2
|
|
.
|
\
|

y
x
(a)
4
4
81
32
y
x
(b)
4
4
y
x
(c)
4
4
81
1120
y
x
(d)
4
4
16
1120
y
x

5. What is the 4
th
term in the Binomial expansion of
5
2
2
3
|
|
.
|
\
|
y
x
(a)
6
4
270
y
x
(b)
6
4
135
y
x
(c)
6
4
405
y
x
(d)
6
4
90
y
x

6. What is the middle term in the expansion of
4
2
1
3
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
y
x

(a)
2
2
23
27
y
x
(b)
2
2
2
27
y
x
(c)
2
2
13
52
y
x
(d) none of these
7. What is the term independent of x in the expansion (1+x)
n
. (1+
x
1
)
n
is
(a) (
n
C0)
2
+ (
n
C1)
2
+..+(
n
Cn)
2
(b)
n
C0+
n
C1+.

+
n
Cn
(c)
n
C2+
n
C4+
n
C6+.

+
n
Cn (d) (
n
C2)
2
+ (
n
C4)
2
+..+(
n
Cn)
2

8. In the expansion of
1 2
1
+
|
.
|
\
|
+
n
a
a , which of the following statements is true?
(a) tn+1 = tn+2 (b) tn+1 = a
2
tn+2 (c) a
2
tn+1 = tn+2 (d) none of these

9. What is the sum of coefficients of odd powers of p in the expansion of (1+p)
50.
(a) 2
41
(b) 2
29
(c) 2
31
(d) 2
49

10. What is the greatest term in the expansion of (2m + 5n)
12
when m = 8 and n = 3
(a) 6
th
term (b) 7
th
term (c) 5
th
term (d) 8
th
term
11. What is the term independent of x in the expansion of |
.
|
\
|

x
x
3
1
2
3
2
is
(a)3/2 (b)1/3 (c)7/18 (d) none of these

12. Find the middle term of the expansion of polynomial (1+x)
10

(a)
10
C4X
4
(b)
10
C5X
5
(c)
10
C5X
6
(d) none


13. What is the middle term of the expansion of
4
3
1
2
|
.
|
\
|
+
k
k is:
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/2 (c) 7/18 (d) 11/13

14. What are the 2 successive terms in the expansion of (1+m)
24
whose coefficients are in the ratio 4 : 1
(a) 18
th
and 19
th
terms (b) 19
th
and 20
th
terms (c) 20
th
and 21
st
terms (d) 21
st
and 22
nd
terms
15. What is the coefficient of m
4
in the expansion of (1+2m+3m
2
+. )
2
1
?
(a) 0 (b)1/2 (c)3/2 (d) 1
16. What is the greatest co-efficient in the expansion of (1+p)
10

(a) 252 (b) 512 (c) 1024 (d) 64

17. Which term contains k
8
in the expansion of
10
2
1
|
.
|
\
|

k
k
?
(a) 4
th
term (b) 5
th
term (c) 6
th
term (d) 7
th
term

18. What is the middle term of the expansion of
6
2
1
|
|
.
|
\
|
p
p

(a) 20p
3
(b) p
3
/7 (c) 20p
3
(d) - p
3
/7

19. The number of terms in the expansion of (m + n)
50
+ (m n)
50
after simplification are
(a) 26 (b) 34 (c) 82 (d) 43

20. The number of terms in the expansion of (3p+2q 4r)
20
.
(a) 21 (b) 231 (c) 43 (d) 462
21. Find the coefficient of x
10
in the expansion of polynomial
( )
6
2
2 3x +
(a) 2916 (b)2880 (c)4850 (d)450

22. C0 - = + + .......
4 3 2
3 2 1
C C C

(a)
( )
2
1 + n n
(b)
1
1
+ n
(c)
( )
4
1 2 + n n
(d)
( )
6
1 + n n

23. What is the ratio of m
n
in (1+m)
2n
and (1+m)
2n-1
?

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 7 (c) 2 :1 (d) none of these
24. What is the constant term in the expansion of
5
2
3
7
7
3
|
.
|
\
|

m
m ?
(a) 630 (b) 243 (c) 243 (d) 630

25.
1 2
3
3
1
2
2
0
1
. ..........
+ + +
n
n
n
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
=
(a)
( )
2
1 + n n
(b)
( )
6
1 2 + n n
(c)
( )( )
6
1 2 1 + + n n n
(d)
( )
2
5 + n n

26. The expansion of (1+k)
-2
is valid only if

(a) k s 1 (b) k < 1 (c) 1 s k s 1 (d) 1 < k< 1
27. What is the constant term in the expansion of
10
|
.
|
\
|
+
m
n
n
m


(a)
10
C4 (b)
10
C5 (c)
10
C7 (d)
10
C6

28. What is the number of non zero terms in the expansion of ( ) ( )
9 9
2 3 1 2 3 1 p p + + ?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7

29. What is the coefficient of m
17
in the expansion of (m
2
+ 3m)
9
?
(a) 63 (b) 32 (c) 87 (d) 27

30. 1 - ?
4
1
3
1
2
1
= + +
(a) log |
.
|
\
|
2
3
(b) log 2 (c) 1 (d) log |
.
|
\
|
3
2

Answer Key

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b b A c A b a B d b
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer c b A d D a b C a b
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a b C d A d b C d b

13. Geometry- lines, planes, circles...

1. A rectangular box is 4 meters in depth, 5 meters in height and 20 meters in width. What is the largest possible straight
line drawn in meters, between any two points on the box?
(a) 20 meters (b) 21 meters (c) 25 meters (d) 20 2 meters

2. A rectangular poster 9 inches wide by 12 inches high is to be enlarged so that the width will be 42 inches and the ratio of
width to height will remain the same. What is the height, in inches, of the enlarged poster?
(a) 88 inches (b) 56 inches (c) 38 inches (d) 24 inches

3. If 40 percent of a rectangular ballroom floor is covered by a rug that is 5 meters by 8 meters. What is the area in square
meters of the ballroom floor?
(a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 100 (d) none

4. A road runs 1200 feet from M to N, and then makes a right angle going to P, a distance of 500 feet. A new road is being
built directly from M to P. How much shorter will the new road be?
(a) 400 feet (b) 600 feet (c) 850 feet (d) 1000 feet

5. The area of a 2 foot wide walk around a garden that is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide is?
(a) 104 sq. feet (b) 216 sq. feet (c) 680 sq. feet (d) 704 sq. feet

6. In the figure given blow, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PSQR. If ZQ = 78
0
, then ZS.

78
0

P
Q
S
R


(a) 78
0
(b) 100
0
(c) 104
0
(d) 102
0

7. Find the area of a Rhombus one side of which measure 20 cm and one diagonal 24 cm.
(a) 400 cm
2
(b) 384 cm
2
(c) 240 cm
2
(d) 320 cm
2

8. A woman has a stick 1m 50cm long. She wants to break it into three equal parts. Find the length of each part?
(a) 40cm (b) 50cm (c) 50.5cm (d) 45cm

9. One cubic meter of aluminum sheet is extended by hammering so as to cover the roof with an area 10,000 square meters.
Find the thickness of sheet?
(a) 1cm (b) 0.001cm (c) 0.01cm (d) 0.1cm

10. Raman walking at the speed of 4 kilo meter per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The area of the field
is?
(a) 2.510
4
m
2
(b) 1.510
4
m
2
(c) 410
4
m
2
(d) 210
4
m
2

11. If the total surface area of cube is 22. What is the volume of cube?
(a)
3
11
3
1
(b)
3
11
(c)
3
11
3
11
(d)
3
11

12. Two poles 15 m and 30 m high stand upright in a playground. If they are 36 m apart, find the distance between their tops.

(a) 98 feet (b) 32feet (c) 39feet (d) 30

feet

13. In the figure given below, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at O. If ZRPQ = 45
0
and ZRQS = 50
find ZQRS.

(a) 85
0
(b) 75
0
(c) 65
0
(d) 60
0

14. What is the measure of each interior angle in a regular decagon?
(a) 36 (b) 72 (c) 144 (d) 108

15. In the figure, AP = 5cm, AB = 3cm and PC = 6cm then the length of CD is?

O

P

S
R

Q
P

D

B

30 feet
15 feet

E
B
B


(a) 5cm (b) 4cm (c) 4.33cm (d) 13cm

16. If PQ is the diameter of a circle with a point R (distinct from P to Q) on the circumference, which of the following is true?
I. ( ) ( )
2 2
QR PR + = PQ II. ZPRQ = 90
0
III. PQ QR + + PR
(a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) i, ii & iii

17.

If each square in the above figure has a side of length 3, what is the perimeter of the figure?
(a) 36 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 30

18. If the areas of three different sized faces of a rectangular solid are 6, 8 and 12 then what is the volume of the solid?
(a) 24 (b) 288 (c) 144 (d) 48

19. A rectangular bin 4 feet long, 3 feet wide and 2 feet high is solidly packed with bricks whose dimensions are 8 inches, 4
inches and 2 inches. The number of bricks in the bin is?
(a) 54 (b) 320 (c) 848 (d) 648

20. ABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 8cm and BC = 6 cm. A circle with center O and radius r is inscribed in AABC, what
is the value of r.
(a) 2cm (b) 30 m (c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm

21. If P is the point (-4,1) and Q is the point (2,1). What is the area of the circle which has AB as a diameter?
(a) 9[ (b) 6[ (c) 12[ (d) 15[

22. Find the co-ordinates of the point that divides the join of the points (3, 4) and (2, 1) internally in the ratio 2 : 3
(a) (1, 2) (b) (1, 2) (c) (2, 1) (d) (2, 1)

23. If the distance between p(x, y) and A(0, 0) is a + x, then y
2
=?
(a) 4ax (b) 3ax (c) ax (d) a/x

24. The area of a circle whose center is at (0, 0) is 16. The circle passes through each of the following point, except.
(a) (0.4) (b) (4,0) (c) (4,4) (d) (-4,0)

25. Find the points that divide the line segment joining (2,5) and (-1,2) in the ratio 2 : 1?
(a) (0, 3) (b) (3,0) (c) (1,2) (d) (-3,2)

26. Find the angle made by a line joining the points (3,4) and (6,7) with the x-axis is
(a) 90
0
(b) 60
0
(c) 45
0
(d) 30
0

27. Find the third vertex of the triangle if two of its vertices are (2, 4) and (5, 2) and the centroid is (4, 8)?
(a) |
.
|
\
|
4
12
7
, (b) |
.
|
\
|
4
1
7
12
, (c) |
.
|
\
|
4
7
12
, (d) |
.
|
\
|
7
12
4,

28. The midpoint of the sides of triangle are (1, 2) (0, 1) and (2, 1). Find the co-ordinates of the vertices of the triangle?
(a) (6, 4) (8, 4) and (3, 2) (b) (6, 4) (8, 4) and (3, 2)
(c) (4, 6)(3, 2) and (6,2) (d) (1, 4) (3, 2) and (1, 2)

29. A circle whose center is at (6, 8) passes through the origin. Which of the following points is not on the circle?
(a) (12, 0) (b) (6,-2) (c) (16, 8) (d) (-2, 12)


30. Find the equation of a straight line which passes through the point (0,3) and whose slope is 2
(a) 2x-y+3=0 (b) y-2 =0 (c) 3x+y-4=0 (d) x-2=0

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b c c a b d d b c d
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
answer c b a c c d a a d a
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a b a c a c c d d a

14. Mensuration

1. What is the area of the circle passing through the vertices of a square of side 14 cms?

(a) 85 cm
2
(b) 89 cm
2
(c) 92 cm
2
(d) 308 cm
2

2. If 100 blocks of cube having volume of 27 cm
3
are placed one above the other, find the height of pillar so formed.
(a) 202 cm (b) 300 cm (c) 125 cm (d) 96 cm

3. The ratio of radii of two spheres is 4 : 3, What is the ratio of their volumes?
(a) 5 : 65 (b) 3 : 27 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 64 : 27

4. The length of metallic wire is 6.25 m and its diameter is 4 cm. What will be the radius of a new wire if the same is
extended in length to 10m?
(a) 1.25 cm (b) 1.118 cm (c) 1.9 cm (d) 2.3 cm

5. When the radius of the circle is tripled, the area is required to be multiplied by
(a) 2 (b) 9 (c) (d) 2

6. The radius of a roller is 63 cm and its width 80 cm. The roller makes 1000 complete revolutions in pressing a ground
once. Find the expenditure of pressing the ground at the rate of $ 1.5 per m
2
.
(a) $ 1397.2 (b) $ 2850 (c) $ 2350 (d) $ 4792

7. What is the area of the shaded portion of the radius r = 14 inches?

(a) 990 sq. inc (b) 156 sq. inc (c) 152 sq. inc (d) 133 sq. inch

8. Calculate the number of revolutions per mile of a wheel whose radius is 3ft (1 miles = 5280 ft)
(a) 415 (b) 160 (c) 280 (d) 285

P
Q
14
R
S
O
- -
r r
14
14
14


9. How many square tiles each of 4 sq. ft are required to fill the floor of a room 48 ft 28 ft?
(a) 158 (b) 336 (c) 200 (d) 1526

10. Find the cost of painting the four sides and the bottom of a tank 7ft long, 6 ft wide and 4.5ft deep at $ 1.5 per ft
2
?
(a) $ 185.2 (b) $ 510 (c) $ 200 (d) $ 220

11. A rectangular tank measures 9 in length 8 in breadth, and 2.4 in depth. How many ft
3
of water will it contain?
(a) 124 (b) 172 (c) 115 (d) 117

12. Through a wooden pipe, whose cross-section is a square of side 4 cm, water flows uniformly at the rate of 20m a minute.
How long will it take to discharge a million liters?
(a) 68.5 hours (b) 86 hours (c) 56 hours (d) 32.5 hours

13. A wire can be bent to form a circle of radius 21 inch. If the same wire was bent into the form of a square, What would be
the length of its sides?
(a) 33 inch (b) 84.54 inch (c) 86.54 inch (d) 90 inch

14. How many spherical bullets, each 4 inch diameter, could be moulded from a rectangular block of lead 11 inch long 8inch
wide, 5 inch thick?
(a) 110 (b) 115 (c) 120 (d) 13

15. The largest possible sphere is covered out of a cube of side 7 cm, then the volume of the sphere is
(a) 232.3cm
3
(b) 179.6cm
3
(c) 241.3cm
3
(d) none of these

16. Each edge of cube is increased by 25%. How much percentage increase in the surface area of the cube.
(a) 75% (b) 225% (c) 56.25% (d) 415%

17. The area of circular road is 770 cm
2
and diameter of outer circle is 42 cm. Then what is the width of road .
(a) 14 m (b) 10m (c) 7m (d) 8 m

18. A tank 144 cm long, 120 cm wide and 60 cm high contains water to a depth of 36 cm. A 96 cm long, 72cm wide and 30cm
high metal block is immersed wholly into the tank. Calculate the rise in the water level.
(a) 8cm (b) 12cm (c) 3 cm (d) 9 cm

19. In the figure given below, A regular hexagon of side 4cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the area of the shaded region?
(a) 19.42cm
2

(b) 13.14 cm
2

(c) 17.64 cm
2
(d) 19.53 cm
2

20. In the figure given below, if the radius of the circle is 3 cm, then the area of the shaded portion of the circle is?

O

60
0

S
(a) 42.32 cm
2
(b) 24.32 cm
2
(c) 9.42cm
2
(d) none of these

21. In the figure given below, find the area of the shaded region. If O is the center of the circle and radius of the circle is 2.

-
O
P

Q


M N

(a)
7
3 [
(b) 7
4
3
[
(c) 3
3
2
[ (d)
6
3
4

[

22. An equilateral triangle and a regular hexagon have equal perimeters, then the ratio of their areas is?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 5

23. The figure ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 5 units and AE = EB. EF is perpendicular to DB and is half of DF. If the area of the
A DEF is 18 sq. units, what is the area of ABCD in sq units?

(a) 42 5 (b) 50 5 (c) 40 5 (d) 30 5
24. A rectangular grassy plot measures 56 ft by 39 ft. It has a gravel path 1
2
1
ft wide all round it on the inside. The cost of
constructing the path at the rate of 36 paise per square yard will be
(a) Rs.923 (b) Rs.7811 (c) Rs.6666 (d) Rs.37

25. In a trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to SR, PQ = 2SR and the diagonals of the trapezium intersect at O. The ratio of the area
of A ORS to the area of AOPQ is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) cannot be determined.

26. In the figure given below, PQRS is a square. If the shaded area is P, the side of the square is.
(a)
[ 1
4P

(b) ( )P [ 4 4
(c) ( ) [ 4 16
(d)
[ 4
16P

27. In the figure given below, If the perimeter of the square ABCD is 120 and that of the square EFGH is one third that of
ABCD, find the perimeter of EFCB.

A

5

D
E B

F

C

Q
A B

D C

H E
O

G F

O
2 2
P


(a) 40 + 60 2 (b) 60+40 2 (c) 40+80 2 (d) 40+20 2

28. The area of the rectangle PTUR in the figure is

(a) 10 cm
2
(b) 12 cm
2
(c) 36 cm
2
(d) 24 cm
2

29. The wheel of a racer is 13 inches in diameter and that of an ordinary bicycle is 14 inches in diameter. Two friends one on
a racer and the other on ordinary bicycle, traveled a certain distance in which the wheel of the racer turned round 1127
times. How many revolutions did the wheel of the ordinary bicycle make in the same distance?
(a) 2628 (b) 1856 (c) 2356 (d) 1046.5

30. A 17 m long and 10 m wide lawn is surrounded by a 2m wide path. Find, in cubic meters, the volume of gravel needed to
cover the path to a depth of 6 cm.
(a) 4.74m
3
(b) 5.21m
3
(c) 5.58m
3
(d) 4.5m
3

Answer key

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer d b d b b b a c b d
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer b d a d b c a b c c
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer c A c b a d d c d c

15. Relations & Functions

1. If f(m) = m
2
5m + 6, g (n) = n
2
+ 2n +1 and (n = -1), for f(m). g(n) to be negative, the value of m and n must be
(a) 2 < m < 3, n e R (b) 3 < m < - 2, n < 1
(c) 5 < m < 6, n > 1 (d) 6 < m < - 5, 0 < n < 1
2. f(y) =
1 + y
y
then f(y+1) = ?
(a) f(y) 1 (b) 1 -
y
1
(c)
2
1
+
+
y
y
(d) y
y

2

3. If f(x) = x
3
1 then this function is
(a) odd function (b) even function (c) cant say (d) none

Direction for question No. 4 to 5
f (m) = g(m) + 2m
g(m) = 2f(m) + 5m
h(m) = f(m) g(m)

4. Find the value of [ h(4) ]
(a) 100 (b) 32 (c) 300 (d) 504

5. Find the value of f(6)
P
T
Q
U
6 cm


(a) g(9) (b) g(3) (c) f(7) (d) g(5)

6. If f(m) =
m + 1
1
then what is the value of f(f(f(m)))) = ?
(a)
m
y
+ 1
(b)
m
m
3 5
2 3
+
+
(c)
m
m
5 8
3 5
+
+
(d)
m
m
4 5
3 4
+
+

Directions for question No. 7 to 8
ab (x) denotes the absolute value of x
mi (x, y) denotes the minimum value of x and y
mo (x, y) denotes the maximum value of x and y.

7. Find mo [ab(x), mi (z, mo(y, mi(x, ab(z))))] for x = -4, y = 6, z = -7.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 8

8. When could mi [x, mo(x,y)] be equal to mo [y, mi (x, y)]?
(a) x = 2y (b) x =
2
y
(c) x = -y (d) x = y
9. If y = f(m) =
1
2
+
m
m
then if is correct to say
(a) m =
1
2
+
y
y
(b) f(o) = - 2 (c) f(1) = 0 (d) none of these

10. If f(m) = 6m 8 and f(g(m)) = 8m+2 then what is g(m) = ?
(a)
3
5 4 + m
(b)
3
5 2 m
(c)
3
4 3 + m
(d)
3
4 3 m

11. If R is a relation on a finite set, having x elements, then the no. of relations on A is
(a) ( )
2
x
x (b)
x
x |
.
|
\
|
2
(c)
2
2
x
(d) x
x

12. Let R is a relation on a set A such that R = R
-1
the R is
(a) symmetric (b) transitive (c) reflexive (d) none

13. If set U has got p elements, set V has got q elements then the number of relations from set U into V are
(a)2
pq
(b) p
q
(c) (p
q
)
2
(d) q
p

14. If A = {a,b} and B = {c,d} then Ax B = ?
(a) {a,b} (b) {(a,c),(a,b),(b,c),(b,d)} (c) {(a,a),(b,b),(c,c),(d,d)} (d) None

15. If a set A contains m elements and B contains n elements then the number of elements in AxB=?
(a)2
mn
(b) m
n
(c) mn (d) n
m

16. If f(p) = p/1-p with p > o then q = f(1/p)
(a) as p increase q decreases (b) as p increases q increases
(c) as p decreases q decreases (d) as p decreases q increases

Direction for question 17 20: a and b are any integers, c and d are non negative integer. The following operations
are defined.
c/d c d
gr (a) smallest integer > a
lo(a) greatest integer s a
rem (c, d) remainder when C is divided by d.

17. gr(7.8) remainder (19, 15) = ?


(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 9

18. Let f(k) = k
2
+2: g(k) = k
2
-2: find (fog)(k)
(a)k
4
+4k
2
+6 (b)6k+2 (c)6k
2
+3k+4 (d) k
3
3

19. Given f(m) = m+2: g(m) = 2m+3 h(m) = 3m+4 find (fog)oh
(a)4m+12 (b) 6m+13 (c) 5m-4 (d) 6m-7

20. Given f(x) = x-1: g(x) = x
2
-2: h(x)= x
3
3 find (fog)oh
(a) x
2
+2 (b) x
4
+4x
2
+6 (c)x
6
-6x
3
+6 (d)5x

21. (a) (f(t(m)))
2
= f(m
2
) (b) f(m-1) = f(m) = f(1) (c) f |
.
|
\
|
m
1
= m.f(m) (d) f(f(m))= ) (
2
1
m f

22. Define a relation R by x1Rx2 if x1
x2 = N in a set of real numbers where N is a fixed number then which of the following is
true?
(a) anti-symmetric (b) symmetric (c) transitive (d) reflexive

23. Find the domain of the definition of the form y =
( )
2
1
2
2
1
x x +

(a) (-, -2) (b) (2, ) (c) (-, 0) (d) (-, ) except [0, -2]

24. Which of the following is not an odd function?
(a) m m 5
2
(b) m
4
+ m
5
(c) e
2m
+ 2
2m
(d)
m
m
2

25. Which of the following functions are identical?
I) f(x) =
1
2
+ x
x
II. g (x) = ( )
2
x III. h(x) = (x)
4
1

(a) i & ii (b) ii & iii (c) i & iii (d) none of these

26. If f(m) =
m
m 1
, g(m) =
m + 1
1
, h (m) = m
2
then find f O g O h(4)
(a) 1 (b) +1 (c)
2
1
(d) none of these
27. Find the domain of definition of the function y = ( )
2
m

(a) 0 s m (b) m < + (c) - < m < + (d) 0 s m s
28. Find the domain of the following function: y = (x - 3)
2
1
+ (7 -x)
2
1

(a) all real number except 2 s x s 8 (b) 2 s x
(c) 3 s x s 7 (d) x < +
29. Find the domain of the definition of the function y =
6 5
1
2
+ k k

(a) 1s k s 3 (b) k = 1,3
(c) (-, -3) ( 3,) (d) - < k < + excluding 2, 3

30. If f(m) = e
m
then the value of 9. f(m) will be equal to
(a) e
9m
(b) 7e
m
(c) 7e
7m
(d) none of these


Answer Key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a c a b c b b c d a
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer c a c c c a c a b c
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer d b d c d d b c d a

16. Permutations & Combinations

1. A cube cuts into smaller cubes by dividing each edge into thrice equal parts. How many more such smaller cubes will be
needed to form a bigger cube just encompassing the smaller cubes totally?
(a) 64 (b) 152 (c) 98 (d) 189

2. A box contains a number of mangoes when the mangoes are divided into groups of 5, 4 are left; when divided into groups
of 4, 3 are left, when into group of 3, 2 are left. What is the minimum possible number of mangoes there?
(a) 49 (b) 59 (c) 61 (d) 84

3. If m+
n
P4 = 3024 and m-
n
P4 = 120, then find the value of m, n where m, n are integers.
(a) 7, 2 (b) 2, 7 (c) 4, 5 (d) 5, 4

4. Find the number of diagonals of a polygon of 12 sides.
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 48 (d) 54

5. If 7 parallel lines are intersected by another 7 parallel lines, then find total number of parallelogram?
(a) 441 (b) 400 (c) 841 (d) none

6. How many different arrangements of word MATHEMATICS can be formed beginning with C?
(a) 45,000 (b) 4,53,600 (c) 44,400 (d) none

7. How many different arrangements of word MATHEMATICS can be formed ending with T?
(a) 1,20,200 (b) 8,40,000 (c) 9,07,200 (d) none

8. The total number of way of selecting zero or more things from k different things are-
(a) 2
k 1
(b) 2
k 1
+ 1 (c) 2
k
(d) none

9. The total number of way of selecting zero or more things from p identical things are-
(a) p (b) 2p + 1 (c) 2p 1 (d) p + 1

10. The total number of way of dividing m + n different things into two groups containing m, n things respectively are-
(a)
( ) m n !
2m!n!
+
(b)
( ) 2 m n !
m!n!
+
(c)
( ) m n !
m!n!
+
(d) none

Question 11 14 based on following information.
In how many ways 5 Indians and 4 English men can be seated into a round table.

11. If there is no restriction?
(a) 9! (b) 4! 5! (c) 8! (d) none

12. All English men sit together
(a) 9! 2! (b) 5! 4! (c) 5! + 4! (d) none

13. All four English men do not sit together
(a) 8! 5! 4! (b) 2! 8! (c) 5! 4! (d) none


14. No two English men sit together
(a) 8! + 4! (b) 9! 2! (c) 5!
5
P4 (d)
5
P4

15. What is the sum of all three-digit numbers formed by digit 1, 2, 3 if repetition is not allowed?
(a) 1,450 (b) 1,332 (c) 8,000 (d) 900

16. Find the sum of four-digit numbers formed by the digit 1, 2, 3, 4 if repetition is not allowed?
(a) 27,000 (b) 33,330 (c) 66,660 (d) none

17. What is the total number of diagonals in a polygon of n side?
(a) n
2
n (b)
( ) n n 3
2
(c)
2n 2
3
(d) none
18. There are n points in a two dimensional plane, in which no three points are collinear. If we join all points to all, find total
number of lines.
(a) n(n 1) (b)
( ) n n 1
2
(c)
3 2
n n
2
(d) none

19. There are n points in a plane of two dimensions, in which r points are collinear where r > 3. If we join all points to all, find
total number of lines.
(a) n-
r
C2 (b)
n
C2+
r
C2 (c)
n
C2-
r
C2+1 (d) none

20. There are n points in a plane of two dimensions. No three points are collinear. If we join all points to all, find total number
of triangles.
(a)
n
C3 (b)
n
C2+
n
C3 (c) n(n+1)/2 (d) none

21. What is the total number of squares in chessboard?
(a) 380 (b) 204 (c) 64 (d) 65

22. Find total number of space in chessboard from where knight cannot have its all 8 moves?
(a) 48 (b) 32 (c) 20 (d) 36

23. Find total number of rectangles in chessboard?
(a)
16
C2+
8
C2 (b)
9
C2.
9
C2 (c)
8
C2.
8
C2 (d) 400

24. Find total number of ways of selecting one or more fruits from 3 mangoes, 2 apples and 4 pineapples.
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 59

25. There are seven letters and seven address envelopes. What is the total number of ways in which all letters can be put in
right addressed envelope?
(a) 1 (b) 7
7
(c) 7! (d) none

26. If there are p things, q things, and r things, which are alike, in how many ways a person can choose one or more things?
(a)
( ) p q r !
p!q!r!
+ +
(b) (p + q + r)! (c) p + q + r (d) (p + 1)(q + 1)(r + 1) 1

27. Pankaj wanted to call his friend through his mobile, but he forgot the last two digits of his friend's mobile number. What
will be the maximum number of calls to get his friend?
(a) 89 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 20

28. There are 10 men and 10 women in a hall. They have to sit in a row. What is the total number of ways in which no two
women sit together?
(a) 10!
11
P10 (b) 10! + 10! (c) 20! (d) 2! 10! 10!

29. From 12 contest entries, one entry is chosen for first prize, one for second and one for third. In how many ways can the
winner be selected?
(a) 960 (b) 480 (c) 1200 (d) 1320


30. After graduation, the students exchanged autographs with every student in the class. If total of 1596 autographs were
exchanged, find how many students were there?
(a) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58

Answer key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C b a D a b c c d c
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C b a D b c b b c a
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B a b D a d c a d c

17. Probability

1. A bag contains 22 tickets numbered 1 to 22. Two tickets are drawn. Find the chance that both are prime.
(a) 4 (b) 4/33 (c) 18/242 (d) none of these

2. 4 alternate answers are given for a question of which 1 answer is correct. The probability that a student ticks one correct
answer is.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) none

3. A box has 8 green chips, 9 pink chips and 5 white chips. What is the probability that, if two chips are drawn from the box
in succession, one is pink and the other is green?
(a) 9/121 (b) 7/50 (c)20/26 (d) none of these

4. From a bag containing 5 blue and 6 pink balls, what is the probability of drawing 2 pink balls?
(a) 4/210 (b) 3/11 (c) 6/35 (d) 4/41

5. If the letters of the word PAVAN are arranged to form another 5 digit word. What is the probability that two As will
never be together?
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.54 (d) 0.4

6. Two dice are thrown, and then a coin is tossed if the sum of the numbers on the two dice is even, else another die is
thrown. Find the probability of getting heads.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/8

7. Find the probability that the sum of the points is greater than 10 when two dice are rolled.
(a) 7/8 (b) 7/36 (c) 5/36 (d) 1/12

8. Two cards are drawn at a random from a pack of 52 cards what is the probability that one may be a king and another
queen?
(a) 7/665 (b) 6/665 (c) 8/663 (d) none of these

9. In a shooting competition the probability of hitting the target by P is 2/5, by Q is 2/3 and by R is 3/5. If all of them fire
independently at the same target calculate the probability that only one of them will hit the target.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 4/25

10. Find the probability that the birthday of Ram is a Wednesday or Thursday?
(a) 2/7 (b) 3/7 (c) 1/7 (d) 4/7

11. Find the probability of getting a prime number in the throw of a die.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c)1/4 (d)2/5
12. Find the probability that the sum of the score is even in a throw of two dice.
(a) 31/36 (b) 2/7 (c) 1/2 (d)1/12

13. A committee of 4 persons is to be chosen from 5 boys and 3 girls. Find the probability that the committee contains exactly
two girls.


(a) 2/7 (b) 1/5 (c) 11/21 (d) 3/7

14. A bag contains 6 yellow, 5 pink, 5 green and 3 black balls. Find the probability that a ball drawn at random is yellow or
green?
(a) 1/2 (b) 9/20 (c) 11/19 (d) 13/20

15. A box contains 8 green balls and 4 yellow balls and another box contains 6 green balls and 5 yellow balls. Find the
probability that a ball selected from one of the box again selected at random is a green ball.
(a) 2/9 (b) 1/3 (c) 4/9 (d) 14/33

16. In a garden, 50% of the flowers are roses and the rest are carnations. If 30% of the roses and 20% of the carnations are
pink, find the probability that a pink flower selected at random is a rose.
(a) 3/85 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/8 (d) 7/8

17. Two girls M and N appeared for an audition. The probability of selection of M is 1/5 and that N is 2/7. Find the probability
that anyone of them is selected.
(a) 1/35 (b) 13/35 (c) 3/35 (d) 33/35

18. In a race where 12 horses are running, the chance that horse P will win is 1/6, that Q will win is 1/10 and R will win is
1/8. Assuming that a dead heat is impossible, find the chance that one of them will win.
(a) 147/120 (b) 102/480 (c) 112/160 (d) 130/240

19. M speaks truth in 35% cases and N speak truth in 65% what is the probability that both M and N agree. With each other in
standing the same feed.
(a) 91/400 (b) 91/200 (c) 31/200 (d) none

Information for Question 20 and 21: In a script having 10 alphabets, the probability of finding a consonant is 4 times
the probability of finding a vowel.

20. An unbiased die with faces marked 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 is rolled 4 times: Out of four face values obtained, the probability that
the minimum face value is not less than 2, and the maximum face value is not greater than 5 is
(a) 15/18 (b) 51/81 (c) 16/81 (d) 21/65

21. A class has 12 boys and 4 girls. Suppose 3 students are selected at random from the class. Find the probability that they
are all boys.
(a) 11/88 (b) 11/32 (c) 26/45 (d) 32/65

22. A die is rolled until 4 occurs on the top face. What is the probability that it will occur in the 6
th
trail?
(a) 5
6
. 6
6
(b) (5/6)
5
(c) 2
6
/3
6
(d) (5/6)
6

23. If 4 letters have to placed into 4 addressed envelopes, find the probability that no letter goes to wrong envelops.
(a) (4/5)
5
(b) 4!/5! (c) 1/4! (d) none

24. From above information, what is the probability that at least one letter is placed in the wrong envelope?
(a) 23/24 (b) 1/5! + 1/5! (c) 1/10 (d) none

25. If a problem is given to K and L independently. The probability that they will solve the problem is 2/3, 3/5 respectively.
Then what is the probability that none of them will solve the problem?
(a) 3/14 (b) 2/15 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/5

26. From the information given in the above question, what is the probability that at least one of them will solve the problem?
(a) 13/15 (b) 10/15 (c) 4/5 (d) 1/3

27. If 5 coins are tossed find the probability of obtaining no heads.
(a) 1/25. (1/2)
6
(b) 1/128 (c) 1/32 (d) 1/256

28. If 4 coins are tossed, find the probability of obtaining at least two heads.
(a) 11/16 (b) 17/18 (c) 14/128 (d) none


29. A box contains 4 Green, 5 Pink and 3 Blue chips. What is the probability that randomly selected two chips are of same
color?
(a) 3/5 (b) 1/4 (c) 19/66 (d) none
30. If odds favor of an event K is 3:5 and odds against of an event L is 3:2, find the probability that at least one of them would
happen.
(a) 31/40 (b) 30/35 (c) 4/5 (d) none

Answer Key

Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b A a b c a d d b a
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer a C d c d a b a b c
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer a C c a b a c a c a

18. Inequalities

1. 3p
2
7p + 4 s 0 solve for p:
(a) p > 0 (b) p < 0 (c) all p (d) no solution.

2. 3m
2
7m 6 < 0 solution set of m.
(a) 0.66<m<3 (b) 2 < m < 7 (c) 3 < m < 7 (d) m<-0.66 or m>3

3. 2 y y
2
> 0 the value of y
(a) 2 s y s 1 (b) 2 < y < 1 (c) y < - 2 (d) y > 1

4. (y 1) 2
2
y y > 0 solve for y:
(a) y s 2 (b) y > 2 (c) y s - 2 (d) y> 0

5. (m
2
1)
2
2
m m
> 0
(a) m s -1 (b) m > -1 (c) m > 2 (d) 1 and 3

6.
1
2 1
2
>
y
y

(a) 0.5 > y (b) y> 2 (c) both 1 & 2 (d) 0.5 < ys 2

7.
3x 1
1
2 x
>

(a) 0 < > x < 2 (b) 0.75 < x < 4 (c) 0.75 < x < 2 (d) 0 < x < 4

8.
p p > 6 10 3

(a) 4 < p s 6 (b) p < 4 or p > 6 (c) p < 4 (d) p > 8

9.
1 3 2
2
< x x

(a)
( )
1 5 x 3 < (b)
( )
1 x 5 1 s < (c) x > 1 (d) both 1 & 2


10.
3
2 2
1
2
<
+
x
x

(a)
6
x 1 or 2 x 3
5
| |
< s s <
|
\ .
(b) 1
5
6
< s |
.
|
\
|
x
(c) 3 2 < s x (d) 3
5
6
< s |
.
|
\
|
x
11. 2
1 m
< m :
(a) m >1 (b) m> 1, m= 2 (c) m < 1 (d) none of these

12. Solution set of y in 2 1 2 < y y
(a) y < 5 (b) y > 5 (c) y>5 or y<-5 (d) 5 < y < 15

13.
6 78 + < + y y

(a) y < 3 (b) y>3 or y<2 (c) y > 3 (d) 3 < y < 10

14.
5 2x 6x 1 >

(a) 0.5 < x (b) x < 2.5 (c) 0.5<x<2.5 (d) x > 2.5

15.
9x 20 x >

(a) x < 4 (b) x > 5 (c) xs4 or x>5 (d) 4 < x < 5

16. m + 2 <
14 + m

(a) 14 s m < 2 (b) m > -14 (c) m < 2 (d) 11 < m < 2

17. For what real numbers is 3
p
< 0?
(a) all p < 1 (b) all p < 0 (c) all p > 0 (d) no. p

18. x < (1+ 2 )
2
< x + 1. if x is an integer what is the value of x.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

19. If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle and m =
2 2 2
a b c
ab bc ac
+ +
+ +
then
(a) m = 1 (b) 1 < m < 2 (c) 0 < m < 1 (d) 1 < m < 1

20. Solve for y; 5y+2< 7y (4-y)
a) y= 2 b) y> 2 c)y< 2 d) y< 2

21. If y
2
3y 4 < 0 then
(a) 3 < y < 4 (b) 1 < y < 4 (c) y > 5 (d) 4 < y < 3

22. y
2
3y 10 > 0 then
(a)-2 < y < 5 (b) y < -2 (c) y > 5 (d) y > 5 or y < -2

23. Solve: 2-3m> 8 for m
(a) m > 1 (b) m > 4 (c) m > -7 (d) m <-2

24. The inequality y
2
< 0 (y is real) has?
(a) only one solution (b) two solutions
(c) no solution (d) it may have any number of solutions.

25. If x > 1, which of the following increase as y increase


i. y -
y
1
ii. y - y iii.4y
3
2y
2

(a) i only (b) i & ii only (c) i,ii and iii (d) i & iii only

26. The region which represents the region of x > 0, 2x + y < 4, y < 3, x + y > 2 is

(a) outside the quadrilateral ABCD (b) inside the quadrilateral ABCD
(c) on and inside the quadrilateral ABCD (d) none of these

27. Find the restrictions on the values of m if 3m + 5 s 17 s 6m 1
(a) m > 4 (b) 2 s m s 3 (c) 3 s m s 4 (d) m s 4

28. Solve the inequality y
2
-3y<0
(a) 0<y<3 (b) 0<y<3 (c) 0<y<4 (d) 0<y<-3

29. (m 1) (3 m) (m 2)
2
> 0
(a) 1 < m < 2 (b) 1< m < 3 (c) 3 < m < - 1 (d) 1 < m < 3, m = 2.

30. 0
1
5 . 0
2
<
y y

(a) y > 0 (b) y s 0 (c) y > 0 (d) for all real y

Answer key
Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer d a A b d d c a d a
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer b b C c d a d b b b
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer b d C c d b c a d d

19. Logarithms

1. y is a large positive integer. What is the value of the expression.
log |
.
|
\
|
1
y
+ log |
.
|
\
|
2
1 y
+ log |
.
|
\
|
3
2 y
+ . + log
|
|
.
|
\
|
y
1
?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) log (y!) (d) log [y]

2. What is log 243 to the base 3 3 ?
(a) 0.5 (b)
2
3
(c)
3
10
(d) 2
3. If n = 50!, then what is the sum of the series S = (log2n)
-1
+ (log3n)
-1
+.. (log50n)
-1

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 50 (d) 50!
1 2 3 4
5
4
3
2
1
x
y
A B
C
D


4. What is the value of
1 log
1
+ bc
a
+
1 log
1
+ ac
b
+
1 log
1
+ ab
c
?
(a) 0 (b) abc (c)
1 log
log
+ abc
abc
(d) 1

5. If log (l+m) = log l - log m, then l = ?
(a)
m 1
1
(b)
1
1
m
(c)
m
m
+ 1
2
(d)
m
m
1
2

6. If x
10
log =
7 log
343 log
10
10
then x is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 1000

7. 2 log
2
5
log
125
128
log
8
5
+ + = ?
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 4
8. log
x
y
, log
2
3 z
x
=?

9. (log m)
3
- (log n)
3
=
(a) log (m + n) . log (m n) (b) log (m + n) log (m n
2
)
(c) log
n
m
[(og m)
2
+ log mn + (log n)
2
] (d) none of these
10. If a = 10
c
10
log 1
1
, b = 10
a
10
log 1
1
then c is
(a) 10
b
10
log 1
1
(b) 10
( ) ab
10
log 1
1
(c) cant be determined (d) none of these

11. If a, b and c are 3 consecutive natural numbers than.
(a) log (2 + ab) = 2 log b (b) log (1 + ab) = 2 log c
(c) log (2 + bc) = 2 log a (d) log (1 + ac) = 2 log b

12. If a
4 - x
.b
3x
= a
x+3
b
4
they x =
(a)
b a
a
log log
log
(b)
a b
a
log log
log 3
(c)
b a
b
log log
log 4
(d)
3
log log 4 a b

13. If x
2
+ y
2
= z
2
then
x x
y z y z +
+
log
1
log
1
3
= ?
(a) more than 2 (b) less than 2 (c) 2 (d) none of these

14.
4 log 1
8 log
3
3
+
=
(a) log76 (b) log67 (c) log83 (d) log72

15. log8 log5 ( ) x x + + 5 =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c)
12
2 log 3 log 29 +
(d)
12
2 log 13 3 log +


16. If log10
5
= 0.4771 and log1011 = 0.8457, then log10 2
5
1
=
(a) 0.3686 (b) 0.2304 (c) 0.3846 (d) 0.2846

17. If log107 = 0.7782, then log1049 is
(a) 1.6243 (b) 1.5564 (c) 2.1021 (d) 0.6342

18. 7 log10 |
.
|
\
|
15
16
+ 5 log |
.
|
\
|
24
25
+ 3 log |
.
|
\
|
80
81
=?
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) log 2 (d) none of these

19. log10
4
18 25
27 4
=
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) log3- log2 (d) none of these
20. The value of log is
(a) (b) 0 (c) log (d) 1.5564
21. If (3.4)
m
= (0.034)
n
= 10000 then the value of
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d)

22. log111331 log832768 =
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 12 (d) 15

23. logm5 + logm25+logm125+logm625 = 10, then a =

24. If log y + log(y+5) = 1, then the value(s) of y will be, the solution of the equation.
(a) y+y+5 = 1 (b) y+ y+5 = 10 (c) y(y+5) = 10 (d) y(y+5) = 1

25. If log 3 = 0.4771, log 2 = 0.3010 then the value of
(a) 2.689 (b) 0.10886 (c) 2.2402 (d) none of these

26. If log32 log3(2
x
-5) log3(2
x
- ) are in a. p. then x =
(a) 3 (b) 14 (c) 9 (d) 7

27. If log2 (9-2
x
) = 10 log (3 x) then x =
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) both a and b (d) 0 and 6

28. If log10242 = a, log1080 = b and log1045 = c, express log1036 in terms of a, b and c
(a) (b)
(c) (d) none of these
29. log + log + log =
3
1
5
6
x
x x x x
8
15
6
5
n m
1 1
2
1
2
1
4
3
2
1
| | 6 12 108 48 log
3

2
7
( ) ( )
2
4 3 1 + b c c ( ) ( )
3
4 3 1 + b c c
( ) ( )
2
4 3 1 b c c
m
m
y
x
m
m
z
y
m
m
x
z


(a) 1 (b) n (c) 0 (d) none of these

30. , then x =
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these

Answer key
Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a c b d d d b c c c
Q.no 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer c d c c b a b c d a
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer d d a c b a a d c a

2
10
33
= |
.
|
\
|
x
1 - log11 log3
log2
+ 1 log11 log3
log2
+ + 1 - log11 log2
log3
+


- VERBAL REASONING/ ABILITY/ ART OF READING COMPREHENSION...

ANALOGIES
SECTION I
Instruction for question 1:
From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous relationship as the first pair.
1. PLANTS: BOTANY:: INSECTS:
2. 1) Epidemiology 2) Entomology 3) Helminthology 4) Carpology 5) Ornithology
Instructions for question 2:
From the five options given below, identify the analogous relationship shared by both the pairs.
3. VIGOUR: LASSITUDE:: LETHARGY: VITALITY
4. 1) Noun: Adjective 2) Synonyms 3) Degree 4) Antonyms 5) Adjective: Verb
Instructions for question 3:
From the following pair of words, identify the pair that shares the same relationship as the given pair.
5. SATURN: PLANET
1) Star: Sun 2) Fig: Apple 3) Moon: Satellite 4) Europe: Asia 5) Comet: Meteor
Instructions for questions 4-7:
From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous relationship as the first pair.
6. PULP: PAPER:: HEMP:
1) Basket 2) Yarn 3) Cotton 4) Rope 5) Cloth

7. HORSES: NEIGH:: HYENAS:
1) Chatter 2) Talk 3) Laugh 4) Howl 5) Roar

8. BREW: BEER:: DISTILL:
1) Milk 2) Oil 3) Wine 4) Tea 5) Bread

9. NEEDLES: KNIT:: LOOM:
1) Weave 2) Sew 3) Thimble 4) Stitch 5) Darn
Instruction for questions 8-9: From the following pair of words, identify the pair that shares the same relationship as
the given pair.
10. INDEX: INDICIES
1) Object: symbol 2) Male: Female 3) Worker: Tool 4) Female: Male 5) Singular: Plural

11. WHITE: PEACE
1) Object: Symbol 2) Male: Female 3) Singular: Plural 4) Female: Male 5) Worker: Tool
Instructions for questions 10: Choose the odd pair out from the following pairs of words:
12. 1) Wheel: Revolve 2) Fountain: Spout 3) Bomb: Explode 4)Barbell: Gym 5 ) Clock: Tick
SECTION II
Instruction for questions 11-24: This question consists of two capitalized words that have a certain relationship to each
other, followed by a certain pair of words. Choose the pair that is RELATED to each other in the same way as the
capitalized pair.
13. ANVIL: SMITH
1) Fire: Mason 2) Cement: Mortar 3) Shoes: Cobbler 4) Wickets: Cricketer 5) Hammer: Carpenter

14. FOX: VIXEN
1) Goose: Gander 2) Drake: Duck 3) Thoroughbred: Stallion 4) Horse: Colt 5) Sheep: Coyote


15. FISH: PISCES
1) Air: Libra 2) Elements: Zodiac 3) Crab: Cancer 4) Lion: Capricorn 5) Libra: October

16. SNIFTER: BRANDY
1) Champagne: Flute 2) Stein: Beer 3) Pilsner: Lager 4) Wine: Glass 5) Tavern: Alcohol

17. CAVIAR: ROE
1) Venison: Deer 2) Calf: Veal 3) Pork: Lamb 4) Meat: Chops 5) Fillet: Fish

18. GLOVE: HAND
1) Hat: Head 2) Gumboots: Rain 3) Rings: Phalanges 4) Cavity: Tooth 5) Prosthesis: Limb

19. HELLENIC: GREEK
1) Irish: Celtic 2) Elvis: Fantasy 3) Aztec: Mexican 4) Neanderthal: Eurasia 5) Apostles: Jewish.

20. CELLO: STRING
1) Cymbal: Percussion 2) Wind: Flute 3) Pan: Pipe 4) Bongo: Drum 5) Chimes: String

21. CORPULENT: EMACIATED
1) Sport: Recreation 2) Tall: Gaunt 3) Happy: Despondent 4) Olympics: Greece 5) Walk: Run

22. CADAVER: CORPSE
1) Dismembered: Mutilated 2) Brave: Weak 3) Pygmy: Lilliputian
4) Waiver: Reimbursement 5) Adroit: Gauche

23. XENOPHOBIA: FOREIGNERS
1) Acrophobia: Acrobatics 2) Arachnophobia: Spiders 3) Attilophobia: Huns
4) Agoraphobia: Land 5) Everything: Pantophobia

24. INFERNAL: HELLISH
1) Encore: Repeat 2) Abysmal: Hopeless 3) Sylvan: Woody
4) Ethereal: Celestial 5) Diabolical: Angelic

25. BENEDICTION: CURSE
1) Blatant: Overt 2) Laughter: Comedy 3) Boon: bane 4) Pirouette: Swivel 5) Laugh: Smile

26. ADMONISH: CASTIGATE
1) Chuckle: Guffaw 2) Sever: Cleave 3) Whine: Pine 4) Anarchy: Insurgency 5) War: Skirmish

27. DILETTANTE: VIRTUOSO
1) Savant: Polymath 2) Knave: Rogue 3) Puerile: Precocious 4) Intrepid: Brave 5) Bizarre: Eccentric

28. SPIRE: CHURCH
1) Belfry: Tower 2) Lightning rod: Building 3) Gothic: Dome 4) Stone: Lattice 5) Statue: Spout
SECTION III
Instruction for questions 27-34: From the following pair of words, identify the pair that shares the same relationship as
the given pair.
29. QUIXOTIC: IMPRACTICAL
1) Gargantuan: Huge 2) Bleach: Whiten 3) infinitesimal: Tiny
4) Draconian: Mild 5) Nonconformist: Maverick

30. EPISTLE: POST-SCRIPT


1) Book: Abstract 2) Preamble: Constitution 3) Novel: Epilogue
4) Performanance: Encore 5) Song: Rendition

31. CONFLAGRATION: FIRE
1) Gale: Storm 2) Earthquake: Tremor 3) Catechism: Doctrine
4) Cataclysm: Flood 5) Tsunami: Cyclone

32. ELLIPSIS: WORD
1) Apocope: Letter 2) Abbreviation: Alphabet 3) Mistake: Erase
4) Blunt: Tact 5) Mime: Language

33. MURDER: CROW
1) Tears: Corn 2) Swarm: Birds 3) Girls: Gang
4) Flock: Sheep 5) Pie: Blackbirds

34. VERACITY: CHICANERY
1) Summit: Apex. 2) Sophistication: Sparkle 3) Loyalty: Perfidy
4) Vacuum: Emptiness 5) Exact: Demand

35. DILATORY: EXPEDITIOUS
1) Dearth: Scarcity 2) Squander: Dissipate 3) Exile: Banish
4) Tortuous: Convoluted 5) Circumlocutory: Concise

36. ESOTERIC: SCHOLARLY
1) Meandering: Accurate 2) Dogmatic: Anomalous 3) Honourable: Shameless
4) Profuse: Plentiful 5) Pertinent: Superfluous
Instruction for question 35-39: From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous
relationship as the first pair.
37. COHERENT: CONSISTENT:: IRATE:
1) Rage 2) Irritated 3) Unreasonable 4) Cantankerous 5) Hostile

38. ELEPHANT: CALF:: FISH:
1) Fawn 2) Fry 3) Cub 4) Roe 5) Fillet

39. MISOGYNIST: WOMEN:: MISANTHROPE:
1) Boys 2) Mechanics 3) Humans 4) Religion 5) Men

40. PUGILIST: BOXER:: PARSIMONIOUS:
1) Expert 2) Wastrel 3) Stingy 4) Regulations 5) Spurious

41. HARBINGER: SOOTHSAYER:: DESPOT:
1) Traitor 2) Healer 3) Solicit 4) Debtor 5) Tyrant

- Indian Economy is the 12th largest in the word with 1.124 trillion dollar GDP (2008). We are the third largest in terms of
PPP and the second fastest growing economy with a consistent 9.5% GDP growth across years. However, the per capita
income is just less than $500 and $189 in nominal terms. The World Bank and the IMF classify us as a low economy, not to
mention the agriculture-service mismatch, the one of livelihood v/s capitalist debate. We are the largest democracy and
the second largest population with a huge number of highly qualified but not essentially educated, English speaking,
unemployed graduates before the BPO boom picked up and gave us $50 billion transforming our exports 20 years back
from being majorly into jute, bauxite, mangoes, tea to software professionals and MBAs; financial services and software,
doctors and lawyers, tourism and all are here to stay. Transition from the land of snake charmers and fakirs to software
programmers and computer gurus, our per capita income is poised to increase by 100% over the next decade, assuming
services replace products big time. It is sad that we had 50 years of a license raj that killed front line entrepreneurship in
India. We are a much more liberalized country today thanks to the opening up of our economy. Amidst this, a debate


regarding inefficiency & leadership crisis of our political system continues, population continues to swell and becomes
vociferous while inequality grows.

1. Which of the following will the author agree with?
a) Other growing economies of the BRIC have a higher per capita income.
b) Education levels must increase to supply skilled labour federate continuously.
c) Poverty may have declined post-independence but continues to be our curse.
d) Booming stock markets are always a good sign.
e) Service sector needs and demands should be taken care of by the government
2. Which of the following would strengthen the argument about liberalization?
a) Growth is not inclusive in India.
b) Avg. GDP growth rate in the last 20 years has been 7 % compared to 3% for 50 years post independence.
c) Communist policies without corruption are the best way to run the economy.
d) Capitalists will be pre- reforms as they are benefitted
e) Even though the debt GDP ratio goes on increasing, overall debt has decreased.
3. The author mentions which of the following:
a) No country has the skilled labour to compete with us in services.
b) The IMF is a leading authority on global economic growth.
c) Liberalization has been forced on us.
d) Growth has not been inclusive.
e) None of these.
Directions for the questions given below:
A statement below is provided followed by arguments. You have to identify if the arguments are strong/weak and select
the correct alternative. Strong arguments are important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments may not be
directly related to the question or may speak about trivial aspects.
In the following, identify the strong arguments:
1. The latest initiative of the TATAs is an affordable blessing to INDIA.
- Yes, the vociferous Indian middle class will be content.
- No, more cars that are affordable will add to the traffic directly, which is frustrating for any class.
- Yes, four wheelers are safer than two wheelers.
- No, the production of the car will be delayed due to socio- political events.

2. Conservation of forests is extremely important for any country.
- Yes, we have been allocating more budgets towards forests.
3. India should be a hub for higher education as against the west.
- Yes, education here is economical than the west.
- No, quality of education overseas is better than in India.
- Yes, we have among the best global B schools.
- No, we are just into coaching and not into quality building.

4. Ban child labor across the globe immediately.
- Yes, the WHO and the UN has no work these days.
- No, its a form of employment of the people below poverty line.
- Yes, this will lessen prostitution.
- No, provide electricity all over the globe instead.

5. Low cost airlines are blessing to the common man.
- Yes, they are affordable and fast.
- No, tickets here are all online and we have less than 12 % penetration of the net.
- Yes, mass production always leads to mass consumption and profits.
- No, trains are safer than air travel.

6. Least cost suppliers are always maximum volume providers
- Yes, Reliance Infocom is the best example.
- No, this happens only in perfect competition.


7. We need more trains across more destinations.
- Yes, ours is the largest network of railways globally.
- Yes, places where only air travel happens need to be linked by trains so as to cut costs for the middle class.
- Yes, this will hail the tourism industry thereby hailing the GDP.
- Yes, hilly areas cannot be connected through trains.

8. Schools should make aptitude classes compulsory.
- Yes, we will create more grand masters.
- Yes, kids who are better at aptitude perform well in competitive exams.
- No, these days parents dont have enough time for kids.

9. Bann bi- cycles on highways.
- Yes, they are too slow and a complete mismatch with technology.
- No, they are the easiest to drive.
- No, create separate by- lanes for them instead.
- No, the poor will not to travel on highways as they have no other means of economical transport.

10. Singapore is a better tourism destination than India is.
- Yes, they earn 7 times in tourism compared to what we do despite being a miniscule of what we are.
- No, Japan is a far more preferred location as per the WTO.
- No, the high cost of hotels in Singapore keeps tourists away.


Passage 1

One of Indias most industrialized states, Gujarat boasts a variety of industries, the principle ones being general and
electrical engineering and the manufacture of textiles, vegetable oils, chemicals, soda ash, and cement. New industries
include the production of fertilizers and petrochemicals. Major resources produced by the state include cotton, peanuts,
dates, sugarcane, and petrol. The state is rich in calcite, gypsum, manganese, lignite, bauxite, limestone, agate, feldspar
and quartz sand and successful mining of these minerals is done in their specified areas. Gujarat produces about 90% of
Indias required amount of Soda Ash and gives the country about 66% of its national requirement of salt. It is one of
Indias most prosperous states, having a per-capita GDP significantly above Indias average. Kalol Khambat and
Ankaleshwar are today known for their oil and natural gas production. Dhuvaran has a thermal power station, which
uses coal, oil and gas. The Tarapur nuclear station in Maharashtra supplies the remaining power. Also on the Gulf of
Khambat, 50kms south-east of Bhavnagar, is the Along Ship Recycling Yard (the worlds largest). General Motors produces
the Astra car near Vadodara. Jabalpur is a large town in Gujarat, where several small and large textile industrial units
have been established. Surat, a city by the Gulf of Khambat, is a hub of the global diamond trade.

1. Give a suitable title for the above passage
2. What is the central idea of the given passage?
3. Summarize the entire passage in the space given below

Passage 2

Historians have long recognized the Japanese sword as one of the finest cutting weapons ever created. But to consider the
sword that is synonymous with the samurai as merely a weapon is to ignore what makes it so special. The Japanese sword
has always been considered a splendid weapon and even a spiritual entity. The traditional Japanese saying The sword is
the soul of the samurai not only reflects the swords importance to its wielder but also is indicative of its importance to
its creator, the master smiths.
Master smiths may not have been considered artists in the classical sense, but every one of them took great care in how
he created a sword, and no sword was created in exactly the same way. The forging process of the blade itself took
hundreds of hours as two types of steel were heated, hammered and folded together many times. This created a blade
consisting of thousands of very thin layers that had an extremely sharp and durable cutting edge; at the same time, the
blade was flexible and therefore less likely to break. It was common, though optional, for a master smith to place a
physical signature on a blade; in addition, every master smith had a structural signature due to his own secret forging
process. Each master smith brought a high level of devotion, skill, and attention to detail to the sword-making process,
and the sword itself was a reflection of his personal honor and ability. This effort made each blade as unique as the
samurai who wielded it; today the Japanese sword is recognized as much for its artistic merit as for its historical
significance.

1. Give a suitable title for the above passage.
2. What is the central idea of the given passage?
3. Summarize the entire passage in the space given below.

Passage 3

An acoustic guitars sound is largely dependent on the vibration of the guitars body and the air within it; the sound of an
electric guitar is largely dependent on a magnetically induced electrical signal, generated by the vibration of the metal
strings near sensitive pickups. The signal is then shaped on its path to the amplifier by using a range of effect devices or
circuits that modify the tone and characteristics of the signal. In the 1960s, some guitarists began distorting the sound of
the instrument by increasing the gain, or volume, of the preamplifier. This produces a fuzzy sound, and when viewed
with an oscilloscope the wave forms appear to have had their peaks clipped off. This was not actually a new
development in the instrument, but rather a shift of aesthetics. This sound was not generally recognized previously as
desirable. In the 1960s, the tonal palette of the electric guitar was further modified by introducing an effects box in its
signal path. Traditionally built in a small metal chassis with an on/off foot switch, such stomp boxes have become as
much a part of the instrument for many electric guitarists as the electric guitar itself.

1. A suitable title for this passage can be:
a) The evolution of the electric guitar.
b) Sound and effects in an electric guitar.
c) Noise becomes music.
d) The making of a stomp box.
e) How sound is created in an electric guitar.
2. What is the central argument of this passage?


a) The creation of sound and development of tonal effects in the electric guitar.
b) The contrast between sound creation in an acoustic guitar and an electric guitar.
c) The explanation of the distortion sound effect of an electric guitar and how it gained popularity.
d) The integration of the stomp box as part of the electric guitar.
e) The journey of the electric guitar from a tool of science to a mainstream musical instrument.
3. Which of the following options best summarizes the passage given above?
a) Unlike the acoustic guitar that produces sound due to its hollow space and vibrating body, the electric guitar creates
signals that get amplified to produce sound.
b) Electric guitars produce electric signals that can be played to create a whole range of effects like the fuzzy effect that
has gained popularity after the 1960s.
c) The electric signal that produces the fuzzy sound, when looked through an oscilloscope, is in the form of clipped
waves. This effect later gained popularity as a form of music.
d) The acoustic guitar cannot come close to being as versatile as an electric guitar when it comes to variety of sound.
e) The sensitive pickups of an electric guitar produce induction currents that are amplified to produce sound. These
signals can be shaped to produce a variety of tonal effects.

Passage 4

Apart from the use of strictly legal criteria, however, the problem of determining which groups and individuals are tribal
is both subtle and complex. Because it concerns economic interests and voting blocs, the question of who are members of
Scheduled Tribes rather than Backward Classes or Scheduled Castes is often controversial. Scholarly opinions also remain
divided on this matter. In other parts of the world, the Adivasis or indigenous people are those who predate the
colonizers. Many scholars, especially the westerners, claim that the Adivasis of India predate other communities of India.
Indian scholars remain divided on this issue, for reasons best known to them. If one accepts that Adivasis predate all
other mainstream societies one has to accept that other communities, including Hindus, are migrants in India. It would
function as proof-text on Aryan Invasion Theory which most scholars (being its members) would vehemently deny it. At
best, Adivasis have no say about their own identity. It has been decided politically as Scheduled tribe. But even this title
is controversial since it accepts them as a tribe. Will the Adivasis lose their tribe if they lose their Scheduled tribe status?
The issue requires further clarification. Despite all these challenges there are specific traits of Adivasis that distinguish
them from other Indian communities. A number of traits have customarily been seen as establishing tribal rather than
caste identity. These include language, social organization, religious affiliation, economic patterns, geographic location,
and self-identification. Recognized tribes typically live in hilly regions somewhat remote from caste settlements; they
generally speak a language recognized as tribal.

1. What can be a suitable title for the given passage?
a) Aryan Colonization in India.
b) The Adivasi problem.
c) The history of Adivasis.
d) Backward castes of India.
2. What is the main idea of the given passage?
a) The author talks about the issue of the exact origin of Adivasis and their current societal status.
b) The author attempts to understand the current situation of Adivasis by analyzing their background.
c) Adivasis are tribals who used to live in India before the Aryan invasion.
3. Which of these options best summarizes the above passage?
a) Scholarly opinions remain divided when it comes to the history of Adivasis. They have been branded politically as
Scheduled Tribe as most of their traits have a tribal identity.
b) Adivasis have no say in their identity as they have been branded politically as Scheduled Tribe by the Aryan
migrants who are in majority.
c) Adivasis have been in the country before the rule of Hinduism and so, it is unfair that they are considered as
Scheduled Tribe.

Passage 5

Inequality between women & men can appear in many different forms-it has many faces. Gender disparity is, in fact, not
one affliction but a multitude of problems. Sometimes the different asymmetries are quite unrelated to each other. Indeed,
there may be no significant inequality in one sphere but a great deal of inequality in another. For example, Japan has no
particular gender bias in nutrition or health care or school education, but men do seem to have considerable relative
advantage in securing high leadership positions in administration or business.
However, in other cases, gender inequality of one type tends to encourage and sustain gender inequality of other kinds.
Consequential analysis can then be critically important even within the large corpus of gender relations in general, in
order to examine and scrutinize how the different aspects of gender inequality relate to each other. For while gender
inequality has many faces, these are not independent (like those in the austere image of Brahma in early Indian


iconography). Rather, they speak to each other, and sometimes strongly encourage each other. For example, when women
lack decisional power within the family, which amounts to a deprivation of womens effective agency, this can also affect
adversely their own well-being. The two kinds of deprivation may not only move together; be co-variant, but they may be
linked to each other through casual connections.

1. Which among the following is the most suitable title for the above passage?
a) Men & Women can never be equal.
b) Many faces of Gender Inequality.
c) Gender Inequality & Its Independent Faces.
d) Unrelated Asymmetries.
2. What is the central idea of the passage?
a) Inequality tends to affect women more than men.
b) Japan is a land of partial inequalities.
c) Gender bias has many shades - from a subtle cut into the society to a more blatant invasion into the social fabric.
d) The fairer sex seems to form a larger section of the population victimized by gender inequality.
3. Write a summary for the given passage in not more than 4 lines.

Passage 6

Philosophy of mind is the branch of philosophy that studies the nature of the mind, mental events, mental functions,
mental properties, consciousness and their relationship to the physical body, particularly the brain. The mind-body
problem, i.e., the relationship of the mind to the body, is commonly seen as the central issue in philosophy of mind,
although there are other issues concerning the nature of the mind that do not involve its relation to the physical body.
Dualism and monism are the two major schools of thought that attempt to resolve the mind-body problem. Dualism is the
position that mind and body are in some categorical way separate from each other. It can be traced back to Plato, Aristotle
and the Sankhya and Yoga schools of Hindu philosophy, but it was most precisely formulated by Rene Descartes in the
17
th
century. Substance dualists argue that the mind is an independently existing substance, whereas, Property dualists
maintain that the mind is a group of independent properties that emerge from and cannot be reduced to the brain, but
that it is not a distinct substance.
Monism is the position that mind and body are not ontologically distinct kinds of entities. This view was first advocated in
Western Philosophy by Parmenides in the 5
th
century BC and was later espoused by the 17
th
century rationalist Baruch
Spinoza. Physicalists argue that only the entities postulated by physical theory exist, and that the mind will eventually be
explained in terms of these entities as physical theory continues to evolve. Idealists maintain that the mind is all that
exists and that the external world is either mental itself, or an illusion created by the mind. Neutral monists adhere to the
position that there is some other, neutral substance, and that both matter and mind are properties of this unknown
substance. The most common monisms in the 20
th
and 21
st
centuries have all been variations of physicalism; these
positions include behaviourism, the type identity theory, anomalous monism and functionalism.

1. What is the style of the passage?
a) Descriptive b) Narrative c) Abstruse d) Argumentative
2. What is the tone of the author in the given passage?
a) Objective b) Satirical c) Buoyant d) Caustic

Passage 7

Many harbor the illusion that science, dealing with facts as it does, is beyond the petty rivalries that trouble the rest of the
world. Nikola Tesla was one of those. He believed science had nothing to do with politics, and claimed not to care for fame
and riches. As he grew older, though, this ruined his scientific work. Not associated with any particular discovery, he
could attract no investors to his many ideas. While he pondered great inventions for the future, others stole the patents he
had already developed and got the glory for themselves. He wanted to do everything on his own, but merely exhausted
and impoverished himself in the process.
Edison was Teslas polar opposite. He wasnt actually much of a scientific thinker or inventor; he once said that he had no
need to be a mathematician because he could always hire one. That was Edisons main method. He was really a
businessman and publicist, spotting the trends and the opportunities that were out there, then, hiring the best in the field
to do the work for him. If he had to, he would steal from his competitors. Yet his name is much better known than Teslas,
and is associated with more inventions.
The lesson is twofold: First, the credit for an invention or creation is as important, if not more important, than the
invention itself. You must secure the credit for yourself and keep others from stealing it away, or from piggy-backing on
your hard work. To accomplish this you must always be vigilant and ruthless, keeping your creation quiet until you can be
sure there are no vultures circling overhead. Second, learn to take advantage of other peoples work to further your own
cause. Time is precious and life is short. If you try to do it all on your own, you run yourself ragged, waste energy, and do
work others have done, and find a way to make it your own.


1. What style of writing is used in the above passage?
a) Argumentative b) Narrative c) Data-driven d) Descriptive
2. What is the tone of the passage?
a) Laudatory b) Didactic c) Cynical d) Satirical

Passage 8

What have we achieved so far? We have achieved nothing, but that has to be a condition of decriminalization. We need to
have a progressive fine schedule, which has to be a condition, whether it is $200, $400, $600 or whatever. The
inconsistency in the courts today is a serious problem. We need to have a consequence of the payment of fines. Fine
revenues should be directed to the communities where they were collected. We made that recommendation in the drug
strategy itself. We also need a national advertising program on the problems with drugs, which was not in the budget. We
asked for it to be in the budget. What is the point of going through all this stuff if we are not telling the young people that
there is something wrong with it?
The whole process of implementing these kinds of strategies in this nation, which are very important, is being ignored on
the other side. Unless there is something to back it up with money and action, it is lip service.
We asked for a national advertising program but it was not done. We need drug driving laws and roadside assessments to
be in place before we decriminalize. That has not been done. These things are all left alongside because some minister
blurts out what the government will do and the amount that it will do it with, with absolutely no forethought to all the
other issues.
I will talk very briefly, because I will have time to talk about it a little later, about the national sex offender registry, which
I, quite frankly, wrote about two and a half years ago and modeled it after Christophers Law in Ontario. It takes money
and some commitment to do that. I note that the government has tabled a bill for a national sex offender registry, which
was like pulling teeth.

1. What tone is used in the passage?
a) Sympathetic b) Equivocal c) Cynical d) Conceited
2. What style is used to convey the main idea in the passage?
a) Narrative b) Data-driven c) Argumentative d) Descriptive

Passage 9

The theological reaction which followed close on this movement led to the neglect of the chapel, and obviated the
necessity of maintaining it as a place of worship. It had probably greatly decayed; that Dean Gardiner(1573-89), no longer
needing it for services, was tempted to pull it down, as a cheaper expedient than keeping it in repair. In 1271 Norwich was
visited by a terrific thunderstorm, when the tower was struck by lightning. The damage, however, was not great, as,
fortunately, the excessive rains which followed quenched the fire that had been kindled. This incident, however, was the
precursor of one of the stormiest periods in the history of the city and its cathedral church. Roger de Skerning occupied
the Episcopal chair, and the Prior was one William de Burnham, a man of fierce and truculent disposition. An outbreak of
hostilities between the citizens on the one hand and the monks on the other, was brought about by his arbitrary
assumption of power; the bishop throughout, ostensibly preferring the safer game of a somewhat anomalous position of
neutrality, is nevertheless believed to have covertly sanctioned his proceedings. A fair was held in Tomb land-to the west
of the precincts-annually on Trinity Sunday, and by right of ancient custom the Priors reaped large revenues by the
imposition of tolls on the sales. Tomb land, derived from Tome land, a vacant space, had originally formed part of the
estate bequeathed by Herbert, the founder, to the monks; the boundaries in course of time had become matters of
controversy, and it is probable that the citizens felt the imposition of these tolls and dues to be real and serious grievance.
A riot broke out and the monks were driven within their gates. Had the Prior at this juncture at this juncture chosen to act
peacefully, it is probable that history would contain no record of the sacrilege that followed. He, however, decided to
resist force by force, and carefully generated his monks, disposing them at the various strategic points of his domain. At
the same time he sent to Yarmouth for mercenaries-these arrived and the tables were turned; the Priors forces sallied
forth from the gates and robbed and pillaged the town. The citizens, roused to a pitch of madness, drove them and the
soldiers back again within the walls of the monastery; the bishop, instead of acting as peacemaker, appears to have
preserved his position of neutrality and quietly stopped in his palace. There was a short interval of truce, but it only
served as a breath to fan the flames; the citizens besieged the cathedral precincts, and by the means probably of slings
succeeded in hurling combustible materials into the buildings, with a result that the whole of the monastery and the
cathedral itself was soon in flames. It seems to be an established fact that the Prior had placed men in the tower to shoot
at the citizens, and it is conjectured that they, and not the citizens, were the cause of the outbreak here.
The accounts which have come down to us are as varied as might be expected, the chroniclers of the one party, of course,
blaming the other side. Bishop Roger de Skerning had died in retirement on the 22
nd
of January 1277, and in the


meantime the work of reparation had proceeded with such vigor that on Advent Sunday 1278 his successor, Bishop
Middleton, was inaugurated with great state; Edward I. and his Queen with the Bishops of London, Hereford, and
Waterford being present. He does not seem to have done much in the way of building, though the work of reparation was
carried on; he died in 1287, and it was left to his successor, Bishop Ralph de Walpole, to begin the work of rebuilding the
cloisters. The original Norman cloisters, which had endured until the time of the great fire in 1272, were probably of
wood. It was determined to rebuild them in stone in the prevailing style. The cloisters are described in more detail in the
notes on the interior of the cathedral, so that it will be sufficient to state here that their building spread over a period of
one hundred and thirty-three years, and that they were finished during the episcopate of Bishop Alnwick. Bishop Walpole
built the eastern walk of the cloisters, together with the chapter-house; he was translated to Ely about 1299, and the work
carried on by his successor, Bishop Salmon, who built the South walk, also a chapel and hall attached to the bishops
palace. Of this nothing remains in the garden of the palace except a grand ruin, which is supposed to have formed the
entrance or porch to the hall. He founded also the chapel dedicated to St. John the Evangelist, converted by Edward VI.
Into, and now used as, a grammar school; below it was a charnel-house. Continuing the history of the fabric, we can pass
on to the episcopate of Bishop Percy, during which, about 1361, the wooden spire and parts of central tower of the
cathedral were blown down by a violent gale of wind, and the presbytery was greatly damaged by the falling material.
This bishop rebuilt the present clerestory, designed in the transitional style between Decorated and Perpendicular; the
vault is later. It is also probable that he repaired the spire. During Bishop Wakerings time the Erpingham gate of the close
was erected, and as well the cloister that formerly connected the palace on the North side with the cathedral. He also
founded a chantry for one monk at his tomb. His successor, Alnwick, completed the cloisters. The gateway to the palace
was built by him about 1430, and probably replaced an earlier structure. He also began the work of remodeling the
central compartment of the west front. He left directions in his will to his executors to make a large west window, the cost
to be charged to his estate. The doorway under this window, built over the old Norman one, and encroaching on the side
arcading, was executed during his episcopate, the window being eventually added during the time of Bishop Lyhart to
throw additional light on to the vault he erected, and its wonderful sculptures.
In 1446, on February 27
th
, Walter Lyhart, or le Hart, was consecrated, and it is to him that Norwich Cathedral owes the
superb lierne vault that now spans the nave. Other important works were carried out by him; the spire which had been
blown down in 1362 (and had probably been re-constructed by Bishop Percy-though there is no record of such work),
was struck by lightning in 1463, and the burning mass fell through the presbytery roof, which up till this period was still
in wood, completely destroying it, and making necessary the vault added by Lyharts successor. During this episcopate the
rood screen was erected, and a sumptuous monument placed over the grave of the founder. The stone spire must have
been added about this time, replacing the former wooden construction. Bishop Lyhart left to his successor, Bishop
Goldwell, in his will 2200 marks for repairing the dilapidations caused by the fire of 1463. During this bishops episcopate
we find that the cathedral was brought nearly to that state in which we have it.

1. The Bishops from the latest to the earliest(according to their lifetime) would be in the order:
a) Bishop Goldwell, Bishop Lyhart, Bishop Alnwick, Bishop Wakering, Bishop Percy, Bishop Salmon, Bishop Walpole,
Bishop Middleton, Bishop Skerning.
b) Bishop Middleton, Bishop Walpole, Bishop Wakering, Bishop Percy, Bishop Lyhart, Bishop Goldwell.
c) Bishop Goldwell, Bishop Percy, Bishop Walpole, Bishop Wakering, Bishop Middleton, Bishop Skerning.
d) Bishop Skerning, Bishop Middleton, Bishop Wakering, Bishop Percy, Bishop Lyhart, Bishop Goldwell.
e) Bishop Goldwell, Bishop Percy, Bishop Wakering, Bishop Walpole, Bishop Middleton, Bishop Skerning, Bishop Lyhart.
2. It cannot be deduced from the passage that:
a) The cathedral in question had a historic role to play during its times.
b) The cathedral is standing tall to this date.
c) The cathedral had a chantry for one monk at the tomb.
d) Nature played its part in erecting the cathedral.
e) One of the Chapels is used as a grammar school today.
3. Why were the cloisters rebuilt in stone and not in wood?
a) To save them from fires in the future.
b) To be in consonance with the style of those times.
c) Bishop Walpole believed that the wood had earlier caused the fire.
d) Bishop Walpole believed that a place of worship should be stylized.
e) The wooden cloisters were probably destroyed in the fire of 1272.
4. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) The Bishops were allowed to keep money and possess land unlike the priests and monks of some other religions.
b) The cathedral has changed in form and size and is quite unlike how it was when first built.
c) The one time that the cathedral ever caught fire was due to lightning in 1463.
d) Bishops were liable to be transferred for their services, from one place to another.
e) Works of art were incorporated while restructuring the cathedral.


Passage 10

We are all aggrieved by the illegal opulence of the profiteers, but we are all liable to the infection. The feudalistic Fronde
awaits its opportunity. The aristocracy of office endeavors to monopolize the State-machine. The migrs of culture find
themselves looked askance at, on suspicion of intellectual arrogance, and they insist that the country cannot get on
without them. The agriculturalists are feared, when they show a tendency to revolt against the towns. The ruling class,
that is to say the more or less educated masses of the city-democracy, looks in impatient discontent for the state of
general well-being which refuses to be realized, lays the blame alternately on the four powerful strata & on the profiteers,
and fights now this group, now that, for better conditions of living.
But the conditions of living do not improve-they get worse. The level of the nations output has been sinking from the first
day of the Revolution onwards. The absolute productivity of work, the relative efficacy and the quality of the product,
have all deteriorated. With a smaller turnover we have witnessed a falling-off in the excellence of the goods, in research-
work, and in finish. Industrial plant has been worked to death and has not yet recovered. Auxiliary industries, accessories
and raw materials have fallen back. High-quality workmanship has suffered from defective schooling, youthful
indiscipline and the loss of manual dexterity. The new social order has lost a generation of leaders in technique,
scholarship and economics. Universities, with all institutions of research and education, have suffered from this blank.
Technical leadership is gone, and the deterioration in quality has reacted detrimentally on output. We can now turn out
nothing except what is cheap and easy, and what can be produced without traditional skill of hand, without serious
calculation and research. For all innovations, all work of superior quality, we are dependent on the foreigner. The
atmosphere of technique has vanished, and the stamp of cheap hireling labor is on the whole output of the country.
In the weeks of the Revolution, street orators used to tell us that five hundred Russian professors had signed a statement
that the level of culture had never been as high as under Bolshevism. And Berlin believed them! To educate Russia it
would take, to begin with, a million elementary schools with a yearly budget of several dozen milliards of roubles, and a
corresponding number of higher schools and universities: if every educated Russian for the next twenty years were to
become a teacher, there would not be enough of them-not to speak of the requirements of transport, of raw materials and
of agriculture. The fabric of a civilization and a culture cannot be annihilated at one blow, nor can it grow up save in
decades and centuries. The maintenance of the structure demands unceasing toil and unbroken tradition; the breach that
has been made in it in this place can only be healed by the application in manifold forms of work, intellect and will; and
this hope we cannot entertain.
But we have not yet done with the question of social strata and inward cleavage. Revolutionary threats are causing strife
every day. Revolution against revolution-how is this possible? We are not speaking of a reactionary revolution but of the
activist. Behind every successful revolutionary movement there stands another, representing one negation more than
its predecessor. Behind the revolt of the aristocracy stood that of the bourgeoisie, behind that of the bourgeoisie stood
Socialism. Behind the now ruling fourth class raises the fifth, and a sixth is coming into sight. If a ninth should represent
pure Anarchism, we may see an eleventh proclaiming a dictatorship, and a twelfth standing for absolute monarchy.
A section consists of youths and of persons disgusted with militarism, ignorant of affairs but cherishing a certain
independence of judgement; still ready for work but equally so for politics. To these, as a forward party, the doctrinaire
theorists have allied themselves. The designation of the party The Independents is characteristic; its goal, All power to
the Soviets, is a catchword from Russia. A fifth class is now emerging-the work-shy. The others call them the tramp-
proletariat, the disgruntled, the declassed, who set their hopes on disorder. Their goal is still undetermined-their favorite
expression is bloodhound, when those in power, or Government troops, are referred to. Then comes the sixth class, still
party identified with the Left of the fourth and embryonically attached to the fifth. These are the indomitable loafers and
shirkers, physically and mentally unsound, aliens in the social order, excluded by their sufferings, their punishments, their
vices and passions; self-excluded, repudiators of law and morality, born of the cruelty of the city, pitiable beings, not so
much cast out of society as cast up against it, as a living reproach to its mechanical organization. If these ever come into
the light in politics, they will demand a kind of syndicalistic communism.
That is as far as we can see at present into the as yet unopened germs of continuous revolutionary movement. In these are
contained the infinite series of all principles that can conceivably be supported; and it would be wholly false to see in this
series merely so many successive steps in moral degeneration, even though the earlier stages should proceed on a flat
denial of ethical principles. Later on will come revivals and restorations, political, ethical and religious, and each time we
shall see the rising stratum attaching to itself strays and converts, above all, the disappointed and ambitious, from those
that went before. But the number of revolutions will grow till we lose count of them, and each, however strenuously it
may profess its horror of bloodshed, will have only one hope and possibility: that of defending itself by armed force
against its forerunner the charge of ruling by bloodshed, while it itself is already preparing its armed forces for the
conflict. The fiercest hatred will prevail amongst those who are most closely associated-for instance, between
handworkers and brainworkers, between leaders and followers; and this hate will be all the more inappeasable when it is
open to every one to rise in the world, and this hate will be all the more inappeasable when it is open to every one to rise
in the world, and none can cherish the excuse that he is the victim of a system of overwhelming power. Today this hatred
is masked by the general class-hatred-hatred of the monopolists of culture, of position and of capital. At the bottom of it,
however, lies even today the more universal hatred of the defeated for the victor, and when those three monopolies have


fallen, it will emerge in its original Cain-like form. It cannot be appeased by any mechanical device. Human inequality can
never be abolished, human accomplishment and work will always vary, and the human passion for success will always
assert itself.
The future community is poor; the individual is poor. The average standard of well-being corresponds, at best, to what in
peace-time one would expect from an income of sustenance. But the requirements of the population are not mediaevally
simplified-they could not be, in view of the density of the population and the complexity of industrial and professional
vocations. They are manifold and diverse, and they are moreover intensified by the spectacle of extravagance offered by
the profiteering class and the license of common life. The traditional garden-city idyll of architects and art-craftsmen is a
Utopia about as much like reality as the pastoral Arcadianism of Marie Antoinette.
All things of common use are standardized into typical forms. It must not be supposed, however, that they are based on
pure designs and models. The taste of the artist will clash with that of the crowd, and since the former has no authority to
back him he will have to compromise. The compromise, however, consists in cheap imitation of foreign models, for in
foreign countries art-industry will exist, and no legislation can prevent its products from finding their way (in
reproductions or actual examples) into Germany and being admired there. Our half or wholly imitative products are
turned out as cheaply as possible, in substitute-materials, and are made as well or as ill as the relics of our craftsmanship
permit, or as our existing machinery for the purpose is capable of. Cheapness and ease of manufacture are the principles
aimed at, for even with narrow means no one will want to do without certain things; fashions still prevail, and will have to
be satisfied with things that do not last, but can be constantly changed.

1. The central idea of the first paragraph is:
a) Different sections of the society find their own ways of flexing their muscles.
b) No matter how rich a section of a society gets, it will always want more power.
c) Different sections of the society tend to feel differently about the same issue.
d) Different sections of the society are prone to do what they deny others from doing.
2. What does the passage communicate by mentioning the stamp of cheap hireling labor?
a) The country as a whole is suffering from a dearth of good labor and skills.
b) The country has lost the best skilled labor and craftsmen to other well paying countries.
c) The country has lost the best skilled labor and craftsmen to well paying masters.
d) Conditions of living become worse before they begin to improve.
3. The statement and this hope we cannot entertain implies:
a) One cannot just hope that excellence happens but will have to work towards making it happen.
b) The hope of the Russians cannot be superimposed on other countries.
c) One cannot hope to do what Russians have been able to do in two decades.
d) The Russians have paid a huge price for standardizing processes and so will the country in question.
4. By stating successive revolutionary movements, the passage suggests:
a) Change is the only constant.
b) Disgruntled people will always try to overpower the content.
c) Not all revolutionaries demands are legitimate.
d) Revolutionaries will find reasons to revolt against their predecessors.
5. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
a) The absolute productivity of work and efficacy as well as the quality of the product has all deteriorated.
b) The ruling class fights for better working conditions.
c) The agriculturalists are revered, when they show a tendency to revolt against the towns.
d) Berlin was nave to believe what the Russians proclaimed.
6. It would be wholly false to see in this series merely so many successive steps in moral degeneration in the
passage implies:
a) Every revolution need not lead to lowering of ethical standards.
b) Flat denial of ethical principles precedes every revolution.
c) Flat denial of ethical principles precedes & follows every revolution.
d) Political & religious revivals & restorations will create havoc.
7. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the penultimate paragraph of the passage?
a) The average standard of well-being corresponds, at best, to what in peace-time one would expect from an income of
sustenance.
b) The future community is poor; the individual is poor.
c) The traditional garden-city idyll of architects and art-craftsmen is a Utopia.
d) None of these.
8. The passage suggests that Art:
a) In its original form will die a natural death.
b) Will be compelled to sell itself every time it is created.
c) If not taken up properly will be understood incorrectly.


d) Will cease to be material and become more spiritual.
9. By providing the example of an artist, the passage:
a) Provides an insight into the society of standardization.
b) Shows how he will be compelled to look at quality instead of quantity.
c) Makes a case for artistry in the world of me-too goods.
d) Indicates how an artists life is always one of compromise in all societies.
10. All of the following have been mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage except:
a) All things of common use are standardized into typical forms.
b) The taste of the artist will clash with that of the crowd and he will have to compromise.
c) Fashions still prevail, and will have to be satisfied with things that do not last, but can be constantly changed.
d) None of these.

Passage 11

It still remains to speak of one of the principal causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous, and will continue to
do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement which at present seems at an incalculable
distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities: that the received opinion being true, a conflict with the
opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either
of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead being one true and the other false, share the truth between them; and the
non conforming opinion is needed to supply the remainder of the truth of which the received doctrine embodies only a
part. Popular opinions, on subject not palpable to sense, are often true, but seldom or never the whole truth. They are a
part of the truth; sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjoined from the truths
by which they ought to be accompanied and limited. Heretical opinions on the other hand are generally some of these
suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down, and either seeking reconciliation with the
truth contained in the common opinion, or fronting it as enemies, and setting themselves up with similar exclusiveness, as
the whole truth. The latter case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one sidedness the exception. Hence,
even in revolutions of the opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress, which ought to
spread, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another; improvement consisting chiefly in
this, that the new fragment of the truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, than that which it
displaces. Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion
which embodies somewhat of the portion of the truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious,
with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended. No sober judge of human affairs will feel bound
to be indigent because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked overlook some
of those which we see. Rather, he will think that so long as popular truth should is one sided, it is more desirable than
unpopular truth should have one sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic, and the most likely to
compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim if it were the whole .

1. According to the author:
a) Diversity of opinion will always be advantageous.
b) There was a time when diversity of opinion was not advantageous.
c) Diversity of opinion is a natural phenomenon.
d) Given a certain degree of intellectual advancement, diversity of opinion can cease to be advantageous.
2. The author is making out a case for:
a) Regarding both received opinion and its opposite as true.
b) Conflicting doctrines and a non conformist view, being regarded as complementary to each other.
c) Seeking truth in a nonconformist view ignoring both received opinion and its opposite.
d) Working for a time when diversity of opinion will cease to be advantageous.
3. The best thing to do is to:
a) Let popular opinions prevail undiluted by heresies.
b) Let heretical opinions prevail unchallenged by popular ones.
c) Let an open mindedness given to many-sidedness develop.
d) Strike a balance between received opinion and its opposite.
4. The author believes that:
a) Revolution of opinion always reveals the whole truth.
b) Even a small shred of truth though mixed with error should be deemed a precious addition to partially true popular
opinions.
c) What is called progress always results in the discovery of truth in its entirety.
d) Truth can be revealed only when a complete unanimity of opinion and belief is achieved by mankind.
5. The best title for the above extract will be:
a) Popular opinions are never right.


b) Importance of many sidedness and openness of mind.
c) Let contending views prevail.
d) Truth avoids extremes; the middle path is the best.

Passage 12

New York is a city of many beauties; with a reckless prodigality she has done her best to obscure them all. Driven by a
vain love of swift traffic, she assails your ear with an incessant din and your eye with the unsightliest railroad that human
ingenuity has ever contrived. She has sacrificed the amenity of her streets and the dignity of her buildings to the false god
of speed. The men of New York, as they tell you with an insistent pride, are hustlers but the hustling probably leads to
little enough. Haste and industry are not synonymous. To run up and down is but a form of busy idleness. The captains of
industry who do the work of the world sit still, surrounded by bells and telephones. They show themselves furtively
behind vast expanses of plate glass, and move only to eat or sleep. It is the common citizen of New York who is never
quiet. He finds it irksome to stay long in the same place. Though his house may be comfortable, even luxurious, he is in a
fever to leave it. And so it comes about that what he want to call transportation seems the most important thing in his
life.

1. The author uses she for New York because:
a) New York has more women than men.
b) Beauties refers to women only.
c) It is conventional to do so.
d) Prodigality is a human trait.
2. The second sentence (drivencontrived) implies that:
a) New York is a very ugly.
b) New York shows how skilled human beings can be.
c) New York is vain and hurried.
d) In New York one experiences speed, noise and ugliness.
3. The third sentence (she has ..Speed) shows that the author is opposed to:
a) Too much speed.
b) Living in New York.
c) Dignified buildings.
d) Streets with amenities.
4. The expression the hustling probably leads to little enough has been used to mean:
a) Hastle makes people proud.
b) Hastle does not always result in hard work.
c) Hastle is not always enough.
d) Industrialists should avoid haste.
5. The phrase busy idleness means:
a) being more busy than idle.
b) being more idle than busy.
c) being busy but looking idle.
d) being idle but looking busy.
6. According to the author, eminent industrialists:
a) are idle
b) work secretly
c) do move about often
d) believe only in eating and sleeping
7. The passage gives a true picture of big industrialists:
a) domestic life
b) mode of working
c) secret habits
d) office life
8. The attitude of the author towards the common citizen is one of:
a) disapproval
b) sympathy
c) pity
d) anger
9. The statement he is in a fever to leave it employs the word fever to mean:
a) too much haste
b) nervous excitement
c) anxiety
d) compulsion
10. Transportation looks important to the average New York because:
a) New York is a big city
b) He is proud to reach his destination early
c) He has to do running about for his bosses
d) He finds being for long in the same place tedious

Passage 13

It is evident that there is a close connection between the capacity to use language and the capacities covered by the verb
to think. Indeed some writers have identified thinking with using words: Plato coined the aphorism, in thinking the soul


is talking to itself , J.B. Watson reduced thinking to inhibited speech located in the minute movements or tensions of the
physical mechanism involved in speaking; and although Ryle is careful to point out that there are many senses in which
words are not in evidence, he has also said that saying something in a specific frame of mind is thinking a thought.
Is thinking reducible to, or dependent upon, languages habits? It would seem that many thinking situations are hardly
distinguishable from the skilful use of language, although there are some others in which language is not involved.
Thought cannot be simply identified with using language. It may be the case, of course that the non - linguistic skills
involved in thought can only be acquired and develop if the learner is able to use and understand language. However, this
question is one which we cannot hope to answer in this book. Obliviously being able to use language makes for a
considerable development in all ones capacities but how precisely this comes about we cannot say.
At the common - sense level it appears that there is often a distinction between thought and the words we employ to
communicate with each other people. We often have to struggle hard to find words to capture what our thinking has
already grasped, and when we do find words we sometimes feel that they fail to do their job properly. Again, when we
report or describe our thinking to other people we do not merely report unspoken words and sentences. Such sentences
do not always occur in thinking, and when they do they are merged with vague imagery and the hint of unconscious or
subliminal activities going on just out of range. Thinking, as it happens, is more like struggling, striving or searching for
something than it is like talking or reading. Words do play their part but they are rarely the only feature of thought.

1. Thinking and using language, according to the author, are:
a) unrelated
b) closely connected
c) identical
d) mutually dependent
2. The thing common to Plato, Watson and Ryle is their belief in:
a) the souls capacity to talk to itself
b) some relation between most thinking and language
c) thinking being unexpressed speech
d) complete identify between thinking and speech
3. The author himself thinks that:
a) Language use and thinking are the same
b) Thoughts are dependent upon language
c) Language use and thinking are not altogether identical
d) It cannot be known whether thought and language are related
4. The most suitable heading for this extract can be:
a) language without thought
b) Language and thought
c) Identify of thinking and speech
d) Thought without language
5. To strengthen his point of view the author brings in the authority of:
a) Some well-known writers
b) Philosophers and scientists
c) Empirical evidence
d) Normal understanding

Passage 14

It is almost impossible to escape from advertisement. Hoardings stare down at us from the sides of the roads; crude neon
signs wink above shops; jingles and slogans assault our ears; in magazine, pictures of washing machines and custard-
powder stake up more room than the letter press. All these are twentieth century developments which have grown side
by side with the spread of education and technical advances in radio and TV.
Advertising assaults not only our eyes and ears but also our pockets. Its critics point out that in this country 1.6% of
national income is spent on advertising and that this advertising actually raises the cost of products. When a housewife
buys a pound of flour, 5% of what she pays goes to some advertiser or other, even if she has not bothered to ask the
shopkeeper for a particular brand. If she buys a named brand of aspirin, up to 29 % of what she pays may represent the
cost of advertising the name.
These amounts seem a great deal to pay for the questionable benefits of advertising, but there are a few things to be said
in its favor. Although some things cost more because of advertising, other things cost less. Newspapers, magazines,
commercial radio and televisions all carry advertisements, and the money received from the advertisers helps to lower
the cost of production. In this way we get information and entertainment at lower prices than would otherwise have to be
charged, and so what we lose on the swings we gain on the roundabouts. Apart from this very important consideration,
advertising to some extent ensures that a product will maintain its quality. It also gives rise to offering him a wider choice.
Competition may even succeed, in some cases, in reversing the influence of advertising and causing a reduction in price.

1. The author regards advertisements:
a) As an evil necessity.
b) As an unmixed evil.
c) With feelings.
d) As highly beneficial to the consumer.
2. Find out the three examples from the passage of verbs and adjectives, which indicate the authors negative view
of advertisements.
3. In how many ways does the advertising affect the consumers adversely? Elaborate.


4. What inference can one draw form the clause even if she has not bothered to ask the shopkeeper for a particular
brand in the sentence in which it occurs?
5. Pick out from the text a part of a sentence which directly expresses the authors doubts about the value of
advertizing.
6. Explain what is meant by the what we lose on the swings we gain on the roundabouts.

Passage 15

By far the most common difficulty in study is simple failure to get down to regular concentrated work. This difficulty is
much greater for those who do not work to plan and have no regular routine of study. Many students muddle along, doing
a bit of this of this subject or that, as the mood takes them, or letting their set work pile up until the last possible moment.
Few students work to a set time table. They say that if they did construct a time table for themselves they would not keep
to it, or would have to alter it constantly, since they can never predict from one day to the next what their activities will
be. No doubt some temperaments take much more kindly to a regular routine than others. There are many who shy away
from the self - regimentation of a weekly time table, and dislike being tied down to a definite program me of work. Many
able students claim that they work in cycles. When they become interested in a topic they work on it intensively for three
to four days at time. On other days they avoid work on it completely. It has to be confessed that we do not fully
understand the complexities of the motivation to work. Most people over about 25 years of age have become conditioned
to a work routine, and the majority of really productive workers set aside regular hours for the more important aspects of
their work. The tough-minded school of workers is usually very contempous of the idea that good work can only be done
spontaneously, under the influence of inspiration. That most energetic of authors, Anthony Trollope wrote: there are
those ..Who think that the man who works with his imagination should allow himself to wait till inspiration moves him?
When I heard such doctrine preached, I have hardly been able to repress my scorn.
Not many people are gifted with Trollopes great energy and physical strength, but he was undoubtly right in a declaring
that a person can always do the work for which he is fitted if he will give himself the habit of regarding regular daily work
as a normal condition of his life. Many creative writers have in fact disciplined themselves to perform a daily stint. The
great Italian dramatist, Alfieri even made his servant toe him to his table.What does the author mean by the phrase
muddle along?

1. What is the common objection to working to asset time-table?
2. What is meant by working in cycles?
3. Point out evidence from the text to prove that the author is not given claiming universal knowledge.
4. What would be the best opposite of the word spontaneously as used in the third paragraph?
5. Point out an example from the text where the author overtly expresses agreement.
6. What extreme example of regular concentrated work do you find in the passage?
7. The best heading for the above passage will be:
a) Advantage of asset timetable. b) The organization of study. c) Motivation to work.

Passage 16

The practice of beginning the study of geography with the locality in which the pupil lives, in order that his first ideas of
geographical conceptions may be gained from observation directed upon the real conditions existing about him, has been
steadily gaining adherence during the past few years as a rational method of entering upon the study. After the pupil had
finished an elementary study of the locality, he is ready to pass to an elementary consideration of the world as a whole, to
get his first conception of the planet on which he lives. His knowledge of the forms of land and water, his knowledge of
rain and wind, of heat and cold, as agents, and of the easily traced effects resulting from the interaction of these agents,
have been acquired by observation and inference upon conditions actually at hand; in other words, his knowledge has
been gained in a presentative manner. His study of the world, however, must differ largely from this, and must be effected
principally by representation. The globe in relief, therefore, presents to him his basic idea, and all his future study of the
world will but expand and modify this idea, until at length, if the study is properly continued, the idea becomes
exceedingly complex. In passing from the geography of the locality to that of the world as a whole, the pupil is to deal
broadly with the land masses and their general characteristics. The continents & oceans, their relative situations, form,
and size, are then to be treated, but the treatment is always to be kept easily within the pupils capabilities-the end being
merely an elementary world-view. During the time the pupil is acquiring this elementary knowledge of the world as a
whole, certain facts of history may be interrelated with the geographical study. According to the plan already suggested, it
will be seen that the pupil is carried out from a study of the limited area of land & water about him to an idea of the world
as a sphere, with its great distribution of land & water. In this transference he soon comes to perceive how small a part his
hitherto known world forms of the great earth-sphere itself. Something analogous to this transition on the part of the
pupil to a larger view seems to be found in the history of the western nations of Europe. It is gradual change in the
conception of the world held during the fourteenth & fifteenth centuries to the enlarged conception of the world as a


sphere which the remarkable discoveries and explorations of the fifteenth & sixteenth centuries brought about. The
analogy serves pedagogically to point out an interesting & valuable interrelation of certain facts of history with certain
phases of geographical study. The plan of interrelation is simple. As the study of the world as a whole, in the manner
already sketched, progresses, the appropriate chapters are read, discussed, and reproduced, and the routes of the various
discoverers & explorers traced. No further word seems necessary in regard to the interrelation.

1. According to the author:
a) The study of geography, if properly continued, ceases to become complex.
b) A pupil eventually realizes his role in the larger scheme of things in the world.
c) History & Geography can be said to be interrelated in all phases of study of the Earth.
d) The elementary capabilities of the student help him acquire elementary knowledge in geography.
e) Eventually, the pupil starts soaking in the idea of the world as a sphere.
2. Which of the following is not untrue in the context of the passage?
a) The practice of beginning the study of geography has been gaining support during the last few years.
b) Interrelationship between two subjects is not limited to merely two subjects.
c) The history of Europe would have been different, had Europeans studied geography correctly.
d) One can inter-relate inferences of history and geography at the elementary knowledge stage.
e) In graduating to learning the geography of the world, is to generally study its land masses and broad characteristics.
3. The analogy of Western European nations is mentioned in order to:
a) Showcase the similarity in the transition that a student of geography and the Western nations went through.
b) Showcase how the 14
th
& 15
th
centuries were similar to us.
c) Present how learning geography is similar to learning the different phases of the Renaissance.
d) Present how learning facts of geography is similar to learning Renaissance phases.
e) Showcase how the 14
th
& 15
th
centuries were different from us.
4. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
a) Explain how the study of geography should be taken up by a novice.
b) Explain the various stages involved in the study of geography.
c) Explain to a teacher how geography can be taught to a pupil.
d) Provide an iterative explanation on how geography should be learnt.
e) Show how learning geography moves from a micro to a macro stage.

Passage17

Thesis: In its milder form, the thesis of Stupid is, I laugh with you at my own clumsiness and stupidity. Seriously
disturbed people, however, may play it in a sullen way which says, I am stupid, thats the way I am, so do me something.
Both forms are played from a depressive position. Stupid: must be distinguished from Schlemiel, where the position is
more aggressive, and the clumsiness is a bid for forgiveness. It must also be distinguished from Clown, which is not a
game but a pastime which reinforces the position I am cute and harmless. The critical transaction in Stupid is for White
to make Black call him stupid or respond as though he were stupid. Hence, White acts like a Schlemiel but does not ask for
forgiveness; in fact forgiveness makes him uneasy, because it threatens his position. Or he behaves clownishly, but with
no implication that he is kidding; he wants his behavior to be taken seriously, as evidence of real stupidity. There is
considerable external gain, since the less White learns, the more effectively he can play. Hence, at school he need not
study, and at work, he need not go out of his way to learn anything that might lead to advancement. He has known from
an early age that everyone will be satisfied with him as long as he is stupid, despite any expressions to the contrary.
People are surprised when in time of stress, if he decides to come through, it turns out that he is not stupid at all-any more
than is the stupid younger son in the fairy tale.
Antithesis: The antithesis of the milder form is simple. By not playing, by not laughing at the clumsiness or railing at the
stupidity, the anti-Stupid player will make a friend for life. One of the subtleties is that this game is often played by
cyclothymiacs or manic-depressive personalities. When such people are euphoric, it seems as though they really want
their associates to join in their laughter at themselves. It is often hard not to, for they give the impression that they will
resent an abstainer-which in a way they do, since he threatens their position and spoils the game. But when they are
depressed, and their resentment against those who laughed with or at them comes into the open, the abstainer knows
that he has acted correctly. He may be the only one the patient is willing to have in the room or talk to when he is
withdrawn, and all the former friends who enjoyed the game are now treated as enemies.
It is no use telling White that he is not really stupid. He may actually be of quite limited intelligence and well aware of it,
which is how the game got started in the first place. There may be special areas, however, in which he is superior: often
psychological insight is one. It does no harm to show whatever respect is deserved for such aptitudes, but this is different
from clumsy attempts at reassurance. The latter may give him the bitter satisfaction of realizing that other people are
even more stupid than he, but this is small consolation. Such reassurance is certainly not the most intelligent therapeutic


procedure; usually it is a move in a game of Im Only Trying to Help You. The antithesis of Stupid is not to substitute
another game, but simply to refrain from playing Stupid.
The antithesis of the sullen form is a more complicated problem, because the sullen player is trying to provoke not
laughter or derision but helplessness or exasperation, which he is well equipped to handle in accordance with his
challenge. So do me something. Thus, he wins either way. If Black does nothing, it is because he feels helpless, and if he
does something, it is because he is exasperated. Hence, these people are prone also to play Why dont You-Yes But, from
which they can get the same satisfactions in milder form. There is no easy solution in this case, nor is there likely to be one
forthcoming until the psychodynamics of this game are more clearly understood.

1. Which of the following is the most likely topic to be covered immediately after the passage?
a) The thesis of another psychological game.
b) The psychodynamics of the Stupid game.
c) A more detailed analysis of the sullen form.
d) A comparative study of Stupid with Schlemiel.
2. According to the passage, the people who play Stupid:
a) Are typically people with limited intelligence & quite aware of that fact.
b) Often tend to have superior psychological insight as compared to others.
c) Immediately appreciate those people who abstain from playing the game with them.
d) None of these.
3. According to the passage, a thesis of Schlemiel could be:
a) I apologize for my stupidity, but I am quite harmless actually.
b) Please dont laugh at my stupidity-I said Im sorry.
c) This is just the way I am. I am sorry but I cant help it.
d) None of these.
4. Which of the following is true about the Stupid younger son in the fairy tale?
a) He tends to be the dark horse in a crisis.
b) During most of the tale he is no more stupid than the older son.
c) He tends to cope with stress better than the older son.
d) None of these.
5. All of the following are true about people playing Stupid except:
a) He feels uneasy when people forgive him for acting stupidly.
b) He uses his position to shirk responsibility.
c) There are phases when he genuinely likes the company of those laugh at him.
d) He almost never behaves clownishly. If he does, it is in select company.
6. The key to the sullen form being more powerful as a game than the milder version is that:
a) Helplessness or exasperation is easier for the player to deal with than laughter and derision.
b) In the milder version, doing nothing as a response helps; which is not the case in the sullen form.
c) In the sullen version, the player can also play Why Dont You-Yes But.
d) The player is in a Win-Win situation, and there is no possible resolution of such cases.
7. According to the author, people who make clumsy attempts at reassurance:
a) Are simply aggravating the situation.
b) Do not have knowledge of the correct therapeutic procedure.
c) Are usually responding to the game with another game.
d) Are being even more stupid than the person playing the game.

Passage 18

In 1605, Miyamoto Musashi, a samurai who had made a name for himself as a swordsman at the young age of 21, was
challenged to a duel. The challenger a young man named Matashichiro came from the Yoshioka family, a clan itself
renowned for swordsmanship. Earlier that year Musashi had defeated Matashichiros father, Genzaemon, in a duel. Days
later he had killed Genzaemons younger brother in another duel. The Yoshioka family wanted revenge.
Musashis friends smelled a trap in Matashichiros challenge and offered to accompany him to the duel, but Musashi went
alone. In his earlier fights with the Yoshioka, he had angered them by showing up hours late; this time, though, he came
early and hid in the trees. Matashichiro arrived with a small army. Musashi would arrive way behind schedule as usual,
one of them said, but that trick wont work with us anymore! Confident in their ambush, Matashichiros men lay down
and hid in the grass. Suddenly Musashi leaped out from behind his tree and shouted, Ive been waiting long enough. Draw
your sword! In one swift stroke, he killed Matashichiro, and then took a position at an angle to the other men. All of them
jumped to their feet, but they were caught off guard and startled, and instead of surrounding him, they stood in a broken
line. Musashi simply ran down the line, killing the dazed men one after another in a matter seconds.
Musashis victory sealed his reputation as one of Japans greatest swordsmen. He now roamed the country looking for
suitable challenges. In one town he heard of an undefeated warrior named Baiken whose weapons were a sickle and a


long chain with a steel ball at the end of it. Musashi wanted to see these weapons in action, but Baiken refused: the only
way he could see them work, Baiken said, was by fighting a duel.
Once again Musashis friends chose the safe route: they urged him to walk away. No one had come close to defeating
Baiken, whose weapons were unbeatable: swinging his ball in the air to build up momentum, he would force his victim
backward with a relentless charge, and then hurl the ball at the mans face. His opponent would have to fend off the ball
and chain, and while his sword arm was occupied, in that brief instant Baiken would slash him with the sickle across his
neck.
Ignoring the warning of his friends, Musashi challenged Baiken and shows up at the mans tent with two swords, one long,
one short. Baiken had never seen someone fight with two swords. Also instead of letting Baiken charge him, Musashi
charged first, pushing his foe back on his heels. Baiken hesitated to throw the ball, for Musashi could parry it with one
sword and strike him with the other. As he looked for an opening, Musashi suddenly knocked him off balance with a blow
of the short sword and then, in a split second, followed with a thrust of the long one, stabbing him through and killing the
once undefeated master Baiken.
A few years later, Musashi heard about a great samurai named Sasaki Ganryu, who fought with a very long sword-a
startlingly beautiful weapon, which seemed possessed of some warlike spirit. This fight would be Musashis ultimate test.
Ganryu accepted his challenge; the duel would take place on a little island near the samurais home.
On the morning of the duel, the island was packed. A fight between such warriors was unprecedented. Ganryu arrived on
time, but Musashi was late, very late. An hour went by, then two; Ganryu was furious. Finally a boat was spotted
approaching the island. Its passenger was lying down, half asleep; it seemed, whittling at a long wooden oar. It was
Musashi. He seemed lost in thought, starting into the clouds. When the boat came to the shore, he tied a dirty towel
around his head and jumped out of the boat, brandishing the long oar-longer than Ganryus famous sword. This strange
man had come to the biggest fight of his life with an oar for a sword and a towel for a headband.
Ganryu called out angrily,Are you so frightened of me that you have broken your promise to be here by eight? Musashi
said nothing but stepped closer. Ganryu drew his magnificent sword and threw the sheath onto the sand. Musashi smiled:
Sasaki, you have just sealed your doom. Me? Defeated? Impossible! What victor n earth, replied Musashi would
abandon his sheath to the sea? This enigmatic remark only made Ganryu angrier.
The Musashi charged aiming his sharpened oar straight for his enemys eyes. Ganryu quickly raised his sword and struck
at Musashis head but missed, only cutting the towel headband into two. He had never missed before. In almost the same
instant, Musashi brought down his wooden sword, knocking Ganryu off his feet. The spectators gasped. As Ganryu
struggled up, Musashi killed him with a blow to the head. Then, after bowing politely to the men officiating over the duel,
he got back into the boat and left as calmly as he had arrived.
From the moment on, Musashi was considered a swordsman without peer.

1. According to the passage, which of the following best represents the character of Musashi:
a) Strategic
b) Dauntless courage
c) Audacious
d) Tyrant
2. According to the passage which statement would be true :
a) Musashi was afraid of Baiken because of his unbeatable weapons.
b) Musashi got approval to see Baikens weapons in action.
c) Musashi was a men tent with special tactics.
d) Ganryu was frightened by Musashi.
3. According to the passage the term duel refers to:
a) Performance by two persons.
b) A contest with deadly weapon between two people to settle a point of honor.
c) A contest between two parties to get the winner and title of honor.
d) All of the above.
4. According to passage why did Musashis friend smelled trap:
a) Sasaki Ganryu reached the island before the time.
b) Matashichiro came from the Yoshiokes family.
c) Musashi went alone to challenge, a duel against Matashichiro.
d) Yoshioka family was the biggest enemy of Musashi and wanted revenge.
5. The sentence what victor n earth alludes:
a) As a man masters the sword, he can defeat ten men.
b) One man can fight with ten, ten with hundred and hundred with thousand.
c) Unbeatable person on earth.
d) None of the above.
6. According to the passage what reason can be inferred for winning of Musashi in each fight :
a) Because he was a very powerful warrior.
b) Manner in which he approaches his enemy and implements his strategy.
c) He was one of the courageous and unbeatable person at that time.


d) As he was not afraid of failure or success.
7. According to the passage what was the reason that Baiken hesitated to throw ball:
a) Musashi was a brave and courageous person.
b) No one had come close to, defeating Musashi.
c) Baiken could not face man who can attack on him with two swords.
d) Seeing the talent of Musashi.

Passage 19

It was once assumed that all living things could be divided into two fundamental and exhaustive categories. Multicellular
plants and animals, as well as many unicellular organisms, are eukaryotictheir large, complex cells have a well-formed
nucles and many organelles. On the other hand, the true bacteria are prokaryotic cell, which are simple and lack a nucleus.
The distinction between eukaryotes and bacteria, initially defined in terms of subcellular structures visible with a
microscope, was ultimately carried to the molecular level. Here prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have many features in
common. For instance, they translate genetic information into proteins according to the same type of genetic coding. But
even where the molecular processes are the same, the details in the two forms are different and characteristic of the
respec-tive forms. For example, the amino acid sequences of various enzymes tend to be typically prokaryotic or
eukaryotic. The differences between the groups and the similarities within each group made it seem certain to most
biologists that the tree of life had only two stems. Moreover, arguments pointing out the extent of both structural and
functional differences between eukaryotes and true bacteria convinced many biologists that the precursors of the
eukaryotes must have diverged from the common ancestor before the bacteria arose.
Although much of this picture has been sustained by more recent research, it seems fundamentally wrong in one respect.
Among the bacteria, there are organisms that are significantly different both from the cells of eukaryotes and from the
true bacteria, and it now appears that there are three stems in the tree of life. New techniques for determining the
molecular sequence of the RNA of organisms have produced evolutionary information about the degree to which
organisms are related, the time since they diverged from a common ancestor, and the reconstruction of ancestral versions
of genes. These techniques have strongly suggested that although the true bacteria indeed form a large coherent group,
certain other bacteria, the archae bacteria, which are also prokaryotes and which resemble true bacteria, represent a
distinct evolutionary branch that far antedates the common ancestor of all true bacteria.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with:
a) detailing the evidence that has led most biologists to replace the trichotomous picture of living organisms with a
dichotomous one.
b) Outlining the factors that have contributed to the current hypothesis concerning the number of basic categories of
living organisms.
c) Evaluating experiments that have resulted in proof that the prokaryotes are more ancient than had been expected.
d) Summarizing the differences in structure and function found among true bacteria, archaebacteria and eukaryotes.
e) Formulating a hypothesis about the mechanisms of evolution that resulted in the ancestors of the Prokaryotes.
2. According to the passage, investigations of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells at the molecular level supported the
conclusion that:
a) Most eukaryotic organisms are unicellular.
b) Complex cells have well-formed nuclei.
c) Prokaryotes and cukaryotes form two fundamental categories.
d) Sub cellular structures are visible with a microscope.
e) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have similar enzymes.
3. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the two-category hypothesis is likely to be
true:
a) It is promising because it explains the presence of true bacteria-like organisms such as organelles in eukaryotic cells.
b) It is promising because it explains why eukaryotic cells, unlike prokaryotic cells, tend to form multicellular
organisms.
c) It is flawed because it fails to account for the great variety among eukaryotic organisms.
d) It is flawed because it fails to account for the similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
e) It is flawed because it fails to recognize an important distinction among prokaryotes.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following have recently been compared in order to clarify
the fundamental classifications of living things?
a) The genetic coding in true bacteria and that in other prokaryotes.
b) The organelle structures of archaebacteria, true bacteria, and eukaryotes.
c) The cellular structures of multicellular organisms and unicellular organisms.
d) The molecular sequences in eukaryotic RNA, true bacterial RNA, and archaebacterial RNA.
e) The amino acid sequences in enzymes of various eukaryotic species and those of enzymes in archaebecterial species.


5. If the "new techniques" mentioned in line 31 were applied in studies of biological classifications other than
bacteria, which of the following is most likely?
a) Some of those classifications will have to be reevaluated.
b) Many species of bacteria will be reclassified.
c) It will be determined that there are four main categories of living things rather than three.
d) It will be found that true bacteria are much older than eukaryotes.
e) It will be found that there is a common ancestor of the eukaryotes, archaebacteria, and true bacteria.
6. According to the passage, researchers working under the two-category hypothesis were correct in thinking that:
a) prokaryotes form a coherent group.
b) The common ancestor of all living things had complex properties.
c) Eukaryotes are fundamentally different from true bacteria.
d) True bacteria are just as complex as eukaryotes.
e) Ancestral versions of eukaryotic genes functioned differently from their modern counterparts.
7. All of the following statements are supported by the passage except:
a) True bacteria form a distinct evolutionary group.
b) Archaebacteria are prokaryotes that resemble true bacteria.
c) True bacteria and eukaryotes employ similar types of genetic coding.
d) True bacteria and eukaryotes are distinguishable at the subcellular level.
e) Amino acid sequences of enzymes are uniform for eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms.
8. The author's attitude toward the view that living things are divided into 3 categories is best described as one of:
a) Tentative acceptance.
b) Mild skepticism.
c) Limited denial.
d) Studious criticism.
e) Whole hearted endorsement.

Passage 20

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks
may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some
productscomputers and software, toys, and bookslast year's models are difficult to move even at huge discounts.
Occasionally the competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the public's buying tastes simply change,
leaving a manufacturer or distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants. One
common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells
the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less for the
merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. The corporation takes a
straight cost write-off on its taxes and hauls the merchandise to a landfill. Although it is hard to believe, there is a sort of
convoluted logic to this approach. It is perfectly legal, requires little time or preparation on the company's part, and solves
the problem quickly. The drawback is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly
useful products can turn into a public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has
just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents of young children are barely getting by and QPS Company dumps
1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections. The managers of these companies are not
deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a
tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct
the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price, with the provision that
deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctionsindeed, encouragesan above-cost
federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventor to charity.

1. The author mentions each of the following as a cause of excess inventory EXCEPT:
a) Production of too much merchandise.
b) Inaccurate forecasting of buyers' preferences.
c) Unrealistic pricing policies.
d) Products' rapid obsolescence.
e) Availability of a better product.
2. The passage suggests that which of the following is a kind of product that a liquidator who sells to Discount stores
would be unlikely to wish to acquire?
a) Furniture.
b) Computers.
c) Kitchen equipment.
d) Baby-care products.
e) Children's clothing.
3. The passage provides information that supports which of the following statements:
a) Excess inventory results most often from insufficient market analysis by the manufacturer.
b) Products with slight manufacturing defects may contribute to excess inventory.
c) Few manufacturers have taken advantage of the changes in the federal tax laws.
d) Manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are often caught and exposed by the news media.


e) Most products available in discount stores have come from manufacturers' excess-inventory stock.
4. The author cites the examples in lines 25-29 most probably in order to illustrate:
a) The fiscal irresponsibility of dumping as a policy for dealing with excess inventory.
b) The waste-management problems that dumping new products creates.
c) The advantages to the manufacturer of dumping as a policy.
d) Alternatives to dumping explored by different companies.
e) How the news media could portray dumping to the detriment of the manufacturer's reputation.
5. By asserting that manufacturers "are simply unaware" (line 31), the author suggests which of the following?
a) Manufacturers might donate excess inventory to charity rather than dump it if they knew about the provision in the
federal tax code.
b) The federal government has failed to provide sufficient encouragement to manufacturers to make use of
advantageous tax policies.
c) Manufacturers who choose to dump excess inventory are not aware of the possible effects on their reputation of
media coverage of such dumping.
d) The manufacturers of products disposed of by dumping are unaware of the needs of those people who would find the
products useful.
e) The manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are not familiar with the employment of liquidators to dispose
of overstock.
6. The information in the passage suggests that which of the following, if true, would make donating excess
inventory to charity less attractive to manufacturers than dumping?
a) The costs of getting the inventory to the charitable destination are greater than the above-cost tax deduction.
b) The news media give manufacturers' charitable contributions the same amount of coverage that they give dumping.
c) No straight-cost tax benefit can be claimed for items that are dumped.
d) The fair-market value of an item in excess inventory is 1.5 times its cost.
e) Items end up as excess inventory because of a change in the public's preferences.
7. Information in the passage suggests that one reason manufacturers might take advantage of the tax provision
mentioned in the last paragraph is that:
a) There are many kinds of products that cannot be legally dumped in a landfill.
b) Liquidators often refuse to handle products with slight imperfections.
c) The law allows a deduction in excess of the cost of manufacturing the product.
d) Media coverage of contributions of excess-inventory products to charity is widespread and favorable.
e) No tax deduction is available for products dumped or sold to a liquidator.

Passage 21

Historians of women's labor in the United States at first largely disregarded the story of female service workers -women
earning wages in occupations such as salesclerk, domestic servant, and office secretary. These historians focused instead
on factory work, primarily because it seemed so different from traditional, unpaid "women's work" in the home, and
because the underlying economic forces of industrialism were presumed to be gender-blind and hence emancipatory in
effect. Unfortunately, emancipation has been less profound than expected, for not even industrial wage labor has escaped
continued sex segregation in the workplace. To explain this unfinished revolution in the status of women, historians have
recently begun to emphasize the way a prevailing definition of femininity often determines the kinds of work allocated to
women, even when such allocation is inappropriate to new conditions. For instance, early textile-mill entrepreneurs, in
justifying women's employment in wage labor, made much of the assumption that women were by nature skillful at
detailed tasks and patient in carrying out repetitive chores; the mill owners thus imported into the new industrial order
hoary stereotypes associated with the homemaking activities they presumed to have been the purview of women.
Because women accepted the more unattractive new industrial tasks more readily than did men, such jobs came to be
regarded as female jobs. And employers, who assumed those womens "real" aspirations, were for marriage and family
life, declined to pay women wages commensurate with those of men. Thus many lower-skilled, lower-paid, less secure
jobs came to be perceived as "female." More remarkable than the origin has been the persistence of such sex segregation
in twentieth-century industry. Once an occupation came to be perceived as "female." Employers showed surprisingly little
interest in changing that perception, even when higher profits beckoned. And despite the urgent need of the United States
during the Second World War to mobilize its human resources fully, job segregation by sex characterized even the most
important war industries. Moreover, once the war ended, employers quickly returned to men most of the "male" jobs that
women had been permitted to master.

1. According to the passage, job segregation by sex in the United States was:
a) Greatly dominated by labor mobilization during the Second World War.
b) Perpetuated by those textile-mill owners who argued in favor of women's employment in wage labor.
c) One means by which women achieved greater job security.


d) Reluctantly challenged by employers except when the economic advantages were obvious.
e) A constant source of labor unrest in the young textile industry.
2. According to the passage, historians of women's labor focused on factory work as a more promising area of
research than service-sector work because factory work:
a) Involved the payment of higher wages.
b) Required skill in detailed tasks.
c) Was assumed to be less characterized by sex segregation.
d) Was more readily accepted by women than by men.
e) Fitted the economic dynamic of industrialism better
3. It can be inferred from the passage that early historians of women's labor in the United States paid little attention
to women's employment in the service sector of the economy because:
a) The extreme variety of these occupations made it very difficult to assemble meaningful statistics about them.
b) Fewer women found employment in the service sector than in factory work.
c) The wages paid to workers in the service sector were much lower than those paid in the industrial sector.
d) Women's employment in the service sector tended to be much more short-term than in factory work.
e) Employment in the service sector seemed to have much in common with the unpaid work associated with
homemaking.
4. The passage supports which of the following statements about the early mill owners mentioned in the second
paragraph:
a) They hoped that by creating relatively unattractive "female" jobs they would discourage women from losing interest
in marriage and family life.
b) They sought to increase the size of the available labor force as a means to keep men's to keep men's wages low.
c) They argued that women were inherently suited to do well in particular kinds of factory work.
d) They thought that factory work bettered the condition of women by emancipating them from dependence on income
earned by men.
e) They felt guilty about disturbing the traditional division of labor in family.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the "unfinished revolution" the author mentions refers to the:
a) Entry of women into the industrial labor market.
b) Recognition that work done by women as homemakers should be compensated at rates comparable to those
prevailing in the service sector of the economy.
c) Development of a new definition of femininity unrelated to the economic forces of industrialism.
d) Introduction of equal pay for equal work in all professions.
e) Emancipation of women wage earners from gender-determined job allocation.
6. The passage supports which of the following statements about hiring policies in the United States?
a) After a crisis many formerly "male" jobs are reclassified as "female" jobs.
b) Industrial employers generally prefer to hire women with previous experience as homemakers.
c) Post-Second World War hiring policies caused women to lose many of their wartime gains in employment
opportunity.
d) Even war industries during the Second World War were reluctant to hire women for factory work.
e) The service sector of the economy has proved more nearly gender-blind in its hiring policies than has the
manufacturing sector.
7. Which of the following words best expresses the opinion of the author of the passage concerning the notion that
women are more skillful than men in carrying out detailed tasks?
a) "patient" .
b) "repetitive" .
c) "hoary".
d) "homemaking".
e) "purview".
8. Which of the following best describes the relationship of the final paragraph to the passage as a whole?
a) The central idea is reinforced by the citation of evidence drawn from twentieth-century history.
b) The central idea is restated in such a way as to form a transition to a new topic for discussion.
c) The central idea is restated and juxtaposed with evidence that might appear to contradict it.
d) A partial exception to the generalizations of the central idea is dismissed as unimportant.
e) Recent history is cited to suggest that the central idea's validity is gradually diminishing.

Passage 22

Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector clerical workers, most of whom are women, were somewhat limited.
The factors favoring unionization drives seem to have been either the presence of large numbers of workers, as in New


York City, to make it worth the effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or two locations, such as a hospital, to
make it relatively easy. Receptivity to unionization on the workers, part was also a consideration, but when there were
large numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multi occupational
unions would often try to organize them regardless of the workers' initial receptivity. The strategic reasoning was based,
first, on the concern that politicians and administrators might play off unionized against nonunionized workers, and,
second, on the conviction that a fully unionized public work force meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the
legislature. In localities where clerical workers were few in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and expressed
no interest in being organized, unions more often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period. But since the mid-1970's,
a different strategy has emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical workers were represented by a labor
organization, compared with 46 percent of government professionals, 44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and
41 percent of government service workers, Since then, however, the biggest increases in public-sector unionization have
been among clerical workers. Between 1977 and 1980, the number of unionized government workers in blue-collar and
service occupations increased only about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations the increase was 20 percent
and among clerical workers in particular, the increase was 22 percent. What accounts for this upsurge in unionization
among clerical workers? First, more women have entered the work force in the past few years, and more of them plan to
remain working until retirement age. Consequently, they are probably more concerned than their predecessors were
about job security and economic benefits. Also, the women's movement has succeeded in legitimizing the economic and
political activism of women on their own behalf, thereby producing a more positive attitude toward unions. The absence
of any comparable increase in unionization among private-sector clerical workers, however, identifies the primary
catalyst-the structural change in the multi occupational public-sector unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the
occupational distribution in these unions has been steadily shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predominantly
white-collar. Because there are far more women in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of female members has
accompanied the occupational shift and has altered union policy-making in favor of organizing women and addressing
women's issues.

1. According to the passage, the public-sector workers who were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were:
a) Professionals.
b) Managers.
c) Clerical workers.
d) Service workers.
e) Blue-collar workers.
2. The author cites union efforts to achieve a fully unionized work force in order to account for why:
a) Politicians might try to oppose public-sector union organizing.
b) public-sector unions have recently focused on organizing women.
c) Early organizing efforts often focused on areas where there were large numbers of workers.
d) Union efforts with regard to public-sector clerical workers increased dramatically after 1975.
e) Unions sometimes tried to organize workers regardless of the workers' initial interest in unionization.
3. The author's claim that, since the mid-1970, a new strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-sector
clerical workers would be strengthened if the author:
a) Described more fully the attitudes of clerical workers toward labor unions.
b) Compared the organizing strategies employed by private-sector unions with those of public-sector unions.
c) Explained why politicians and administrators sometimes oppose unionization of clerical workers.
d) Indicated that the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers was increasing even before the mid-1970's.
e) showed that the factors that favored unionization drives among these workers prior to 1975 have decreased in
importance.
4. According to the passage, in the period prior to 1975, each of the following considerations helped determine
whether a union would attempt to organize a certain group of clerical workers EXCEPT:
a) The number of clerical workers in that group.
b) The number of women among the clerical workers in that group.
c) Whether the clerical workers in that area were concentrated in one workplace or scattered over several workplaces.
d) The degree to which the clerical workers in that group were interested in unionization.
e) Whether all the other workers in the same jurisdiction as that group of clerical workers were unionized.
5. The author states that which of the following is a consequence of the women's movement of recent years?
a) An increase in the number of women entering the work force.
b) A structural change in multi-occupational public-sector unions.
c) A more positive attitude on the part of women toward unions.
d) An increase in the proportion of clerical workers that are women.
e) An increase in the number of women in administrative positions.
6. The main concern of the passage is to:
a) Advocate particular strategies for future efforts to organize certain workers into labor unions.
b) Explain differences in the unionized proportions of various groups of public-sector workers.
c) Evaluate the effectiveness of certain kinds of labor unions that represent public-sector workers.


d) Analyzed and explain an increase in unionization among a certain category of workers.
e) Describe and distinguish strategies appropriate to organizing different categories of workers.
7. The author implies that if the increase in the number of women in the work force and the impact of the women's
movement were the main causes of the rise in unionization of public-sector clerical workers, then:
a) More women would hold administrative positions in unions.
b) More women who hold political offices would have positive attitudes toward labor unions.
c) There would be an equivalent rise in unionization of private-sector clerical workers.
d) Unions would have shown more interest than they have in organizing women.
e) The increase in the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers would have been greater than it has been.
8. The author suggests that it would be disadvantageous to a union if:
a) Many workers in the locality were not unionized.
b) The union contributed to political campaigns.
c) The union included only public-sector workers.
d) The union included workers from several jurisdictions.
e) The union included members from only a few occupations.
9. The author implies that, in comparison with working women today, women working in the years prior to the
mid-1970's showed a greater tendency to:
a) Prefer smaller workplaces.
b) Express a positive attitude toward labor unions.
c) Maximize job security and economic benefits.
d) Side with administrators in labor disputes.
e) Quit working prior of retirement age.

Passage 23

Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early history of the United States by applying new social research findings
on the experiences of European migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration becomes the organizing principle for
rewriting the history of preindustrial North America. His approach rests on four separate propositions. The first of these
asserts that residents of early modern England moved regularly about their countryside; migrating to the New World was
simply a "natural spillover." Although at first the colonies held little positive attraction for the English---they would rather
have stayed homeby the eighteenth century people increasingly migrated to America because they regarded it as the
land of opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in America history textbooks,
there was never a typical New World community. For example, the economic and demographic character of early New
England towns varied considerably. Bailyn's third proposition suggests two general patterns prevailing among the many
thousands of migrants: one group came as indentured servants, another came to acquire land. Surprisingly, Bailyn
suggests that those who recruited indentured servants were the driving forces of transatlantic migration. These colonial
entrepreneurs helped determine the social character of people who came to preindustrial North America. At first,
thousands of unskilled laborers were recruited; by the 1730's, however, American employers demanded skilled artisans.
Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-civilized hinterland of the European culture system. He is undoubtedly
correct to insist that the colonies were part of an Anglo-American empire. But to divide the empire into English core and
colonial periphery, as Bailyn does, devalues the achievements of colonial culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high
culture in the colonies never matched that in England. But what of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university, and published books? Bailyn might respond that New England was
exceptional. However, the ideas and institutions developed by New England Puritans had powerful effects on North
American culture. Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to some thousands of indentured servants who migrated
just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experience with the political development of the United States. Evidence
presented in his work
suggests how we might make such a connection. These indentured servants were treated as slaves for the period during
which they had sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising that as soon as they served their time they
passed up good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their personal independence by acquiring land. Thus, it is in
the west that a peculiarly American political culture began, among colonists who were suspicious of authority and
intensely antiaristocratic.

1. Which of the following statements about migrants to colonial North America is supported by information in the
passage?
a) A larger percentage of migrants to colonial North America came as indentured servants than as free agents interested
in acquiring land.
b) Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured servants were more successful at making a livelihood than were
farmers and artisans.


c) Migrants to colonial North America were more successful at acquiring their own land during the eighteenth century
than during the seven-tenth century.
d) By the 1730's, migrants already skilled in a trade were in more demand by American employers than were unskilled
laborers.
e) A significant percentage of migrants who came to the colonies to acquire land were forced to work as field hands for
prosperous American farmers.
2. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to:
a) Give sufficient emphasis to the cultural and political interdependence of the colonies and England.
b) Describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic backgrounds preserved their culture in the united States.
c) Take advantage of social research on the experiences of colonists who migrated to colonial North America
specifically to acquire land.
d) Relate the experience of the migrants to the political values that eventually shaped the character of the United States.
e) Investigate the lives of Europeans before they came to colonial North America to determine more adequately their
motivations for migrating.
3. Which of the following best summarizes the author's evaluation of Bailyn's fourth proposition?
a) It is totally implausible.
b) It is partially correct.
c) It is highly admirable.
d) It is controversial though persuasive.
e) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.
4. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree on which of the following statements about the culture of
colonial New England?
a) High culture in New England never equaled the high culture of England.
b) The cultural achievements of colonial New England have generally been unrecognized by historians.
c) The colonists imitated the high culture of England, and did not develop a culture that was uniquely their own.
d) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by the high culture of New England.
e) New England communities were able to create laws and build a university, but unable to create anything innovative
in the arts.
5. According to the passage, which of the following is true of English migrants to the colonies during the 18
th

century?
a) Most of them were farmers rather than trades people or artisans.
b) Most of them came because they were unable to find work in England.
c) They differed from other English people in that they were willing to travel.
d) They expected that the colonies would offer them increased opportunity.
e) They were generally not as educated as the people who remained in England.
6. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with:
a) Comparing several current interpretations of early American history.
b) Suggesting that new social research on migration should lead to revisions in current interpretations of early
American history.
c) Providing the theoretical framework that is used by most historians in understanding early American history.
d) Refuting an argument about early American history that has been proposed by social historians.
e) Discussing a reinterpretation of early American history that is based on new social research on migration.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that American history textbooks used to assert that:
a) Many migrants to colonial North America were not successful financially.
b) More migrants came to America out of religious or political conviction that came in the hope of acquiring land.
c) New England communities were much alike in terms of their economics and demographics.
d) Many migrants to colonial North America failed to maintain ties with their European relations.
e) The level of literacy in New England communities was very high.
8. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about Bailyn's
work?
a) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought on North American culture.
b) Bailyn overemphasizes the economic dependence of the colonies on Great Britain.
c) Bailyn's description of the colonies as part of an Anglo-American empire is misleading and incorrect.
d) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific group of migrants to colonial North America.
e) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants to the New England colonies, and neglects the southern and the
western parts of the New World.

Passage 24

Since the late 1970's, in the face of a severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the United
States have been trying to improve productivityand therefore enhance their international competitivenessthrough
costcutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.)


However, from 1978 through 1982, productivitythe value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor
inputdid not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25
percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. At the same time, it became clear that
the harder manufactures worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge. With this paradox
in mind, I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is
fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a "40, 40, 20"rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-
based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number,
size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in
equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This rule does
not imply that cost-cutting should not be tried. The well-known tools of this approachincluding simplifying jobs and
retraining employees to work smarter, not harderdo produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they
can contribute. Another problem is that the cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. As
Abernathy's study of automobile manufacturers has shown, an industry can easily become prisoner of its own
investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. And managers under pressure to
maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems
will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of
minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has until recently sufficed as a basis of
evaluation, but it has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative
managers.
Every company I know that has freed itself from the paradox has done so, in part, by developing and implementing a
manufacturing strategy. Such a strategy focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process
technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different
markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive
advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of
objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with:
a) Summarizing a thesis.
b) Recommending a different approach.
c) Comparing points of view.
d) Making a series of predictions.
e) Describing a number of paradoxes.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the manufacturers expected that the measures they implemented would:
a) Encourage innovation.
b) Keep labor output constant.
c) Increase their competitive advantage.
d) Permit business upturns to be more easily predicted.
e) Cause managers to focus on a wider set of objectives.
3. The primary function of the first paragraph of the passage is to:
a) Outline in brief the author's argument.
b) Anticipate challenges to the prescriptions that follow.
c) Clarify some disputed definitions of economic terms.
d) Summarize a number of long-accepted explanations.
e) Present a historical context for the author's observations.
4. The author refers to Abernathy's study most probably in order to:
a) Qualify an observation about one rule governing manufacturing.
b) Address possible objections to a recommendation about improving manufacturing competitiveness.
c) Support an earlier assertion about one method of increasing productivity.
d) Suggest the centrality in the United States economy of a particular manufacturing industry.
e) Given an example of research that has questioned the wisdom of revising a manufacturing strategy.
5. The author's attitude toward the culture in most factories is best described as:
a) Cautious.
b) Critical.
c) Disinterested.
d) Respectful.
e) Adulatory.
6. In the passage, the author includes all of the following except:
a) Personal observation.
b) A business principle.
c) A definition of productivity.
d) An example of a successful company.
e) An illustration of a process technology.
7. The author suggests that implementing conventional cost-cutting as a way of increasing manufacturing
competitiveness is a strategy that is:
a) Flawed and ruinous.
b) Shortsighted and difficult to sustain.
c) Popular and easily accomplished.
d) Useful but inadequate.
e) Misunderstood but promising.


Passage 25

From Romania to Germany, from Tallinn to Belgrade, a major historical processthe death of Communismis taking
place. The German Democratic Republic no longer exists as a separate state. And the former German Democratic Republic
will serve as the first measure of the price a post-Communist society has to pay for entering the normal European orbit. In
Yugoslavia we will see whether the federation can survive without communism. One thing seems common to all these
countries: dictatorship has been defeated and freedom has won, yet the victory of freedom has not yet meant the triumph
of democracy. Democracy is something more than freedom. Democracy is freedom institution- nalized, freedom
submitted to the limits of the law, freedom functioning as an object of compromise between the major political forces on
the scene.We have freedom, but we still have not achieved the democratic order. That is why this freedom is so fragile. In
the years of democratic opposition to communism, we supposed that the easiest thing would be to introduce changes in
the economy. In fact, we thought that the march from a planned economy to a market economy would take place within
the framework of the bureaucratic system, and that the market within the Communist state would explode the totalitarian
structures. Only then would the time come to build the institutions of a civil society; and only at the end, with the
completion of the market economy and the civil society, would the time of great political transformations finally arrive.
The opposite happened.
First came the big political change, the great shock, which either broke the monopoly and the principle of Communist
Party rule or simply pushed the Communists out of power. Then came the creation of civil society, whose institutions
were created in great pain, and which had trouble negotiating the empty space of freedom. Only then, as the third moment
of change, the final task was undertaken: that of transforming the totalitarian economy into a normal economy where
different forms of ownership and different economic actors will live one next to the other. Today we are in a typical
moment of transition. No one can say where we are headed. The people of the democratic opposition have the feeling that
we won. We taste the sweetness of our victory the same way the Communists, only yesterday our prison guards, taste the
bitterness of their defeat. Yet, even as we are conscious of our victory, we feel that we are, in a strange way, losing. In
Bulgaria the Communists have won the parliamentary elections and will govern the country, without losing their social
legitimacy. In Romania the National Salvation Front, largely dominated by people from the old Communist bureaucracy,
has won. In other countries democratic institutions seem shaky, and the political horizon is cloudy. The masquerade goes
on: dozens of groups and parties are created, each announces similar slogans, each accuses its adversaries of all possible
sins, and each declares itself representative of the national interest. Personal disputes are more important than disputes
over values. Arguments over values are fiercer than arguments over ideas.

1. The author originally thought that the order of events in the transformation of communist society would be
represented by which one of the following?
a) A great political shock would break the totalitarian monopoly, leaving in its wake a civil society whose task would be
to change the state-controlled market into a free economy.
b) The transformation of the economy would destroy totalitarianism, after which a new and different social and
political structure would be born.
c) First the people would freely elect political representatives who would transform the economy, which would then
undermine the totalitarian structure.
d) The change to a democratic state would necessarily undermine totalitarianism, after which a new economic order
would be created.
e) The peoples frustration would build until it spontaneously generated violent revolution, which would sentence
society to years of anarchy and regression.
2. Beginning in the second paragraph, the author describes the complicated relationship between freedom and
democracy. In the authors view, which one of the following statements best reflects that relationship?
a) A country can have freedom without having democracy.
b) If a country has freedom, it necessarily has democracy.
c) A country can have democracy without having freedom.
d) A country can never have democracy if it has freedom.
e) If a country has democracy, it cannot have freedom.
3. From the passage, a reader could conclude that which one of the following best describes the authors attitude
toward the events that have taken place in communist society?
a) Relieved that at last the democratic order has surfaced.
b) Clearly wants to return to the old order.
c) Disappointed with the nature of the democracy that has emerged.
d) Confident that a free economy will ultimately provide the basis for a true democracy.
e) Surprised that communism was toppled through political rather than economic means.
4. A cynic who has observed political systems in various countries would likely interpret the authors description of
the situation at the end of the passage as:
a) Evidence that society is still in the throws of the old totalitarian structure.


b) A distorted description of the new political system.
c) A necessary political reality that is a prelude to democracy.
d) A fair description of many democratic political systems.
e) Evidence of the baseness of people.
5. Which one of the following does the author imply may have contributed to the difficulties involved in creating a
new democratic order in Eastern Europe?
I. The people who existed under the totalitarian structure have not had the experience of negotiating the empty space
of freedom.
II. Mistaking the order in which political, economic, and social restructuring would occur.
III. Excessive self-interest among the new political activists.
a) I only.
b) II only.
c) I and III only.
d) II and III only.
e) I, II, and III.
6. By stating even as we are conscious of our victory, we feel that we are, in a strange way, losing the author means
that:
a) Some of the old governments are still unwilling to grant freedom at the individual level.
b) Some of the new governments are not strong enough to exist as a single federation.
c) Some of the new democratic governments are electing to retain the old political parties.
d) No new parties have been created to fill the vacuum created by the victory of freedom.
e) Some of the new governments are reverting to communism.

Passage 26

In the United States the per capita costs of schooling have risen almost as fast as the cost of medical treatment. But
increased treatment by both doctors and teachers has shown steadily declining results. Medical expenses concentrated on
those above forty-five have doubled several times over a period of forty years with a resulting 3 percent increase in the
life expectancy of men. The increase in educational expenditures has produced even stranger results; otherwise President
Nixon could not have been moved this spring to promise that every child shall soon have the Right to Read before
leaving school. In the United States it would take eighty billion dollars per year to provide what educators regard as equal
treatment for all in grammar and high school. This is well over twice the $36 billion now being spent. Independent cost
projections prepared at HEW and at the University of Florida indicate that by 1974 the comparable figures will be $107
billion as against the $45 billion now projected, and these figures wholly omit the enormous costs of what is called higher
education, for which demand is growing even faster. The United States, which spent nearly eighty billion dollars in 1969
for defense, including its deployment in Vietnam, is obviously too poor to provide equal schooling. The Presidents
committee for the study of school finance should ask not how to support or how to trim such increasing costs, but how
they can be avoided. Equal obligatory schooling must be recognized as at least economically unfeasible. In Latin America
the amount of public money spent on each graduate student is between 350 and 1,500 times the amount spent on the
median citizen (that is, the citizen who holds the middle ground between the poorest and the richest). In the United States
the discrepancy is smaller, but the discrimination is keener. The richest parents, some 10 percent, can afford private
education for their children and help them to benefit from foundation grants. But in addition they obtain ten times the per
capita amount of public funds if this is compared with the per capita expenditure made on the children of the 10 percent
who are poorest. The principal reasons for this are that rich children stay longer in school, that a year in a university is
disproportionately more expensive than a year in high school, and that most private universities dependat least
indirectlyon tax-derived finances. Obligatory schooling inevitably polarizes a society; it also grades the nations of the
world according to an international caste system. Countries are rated like castes whose educational dignity is determined
by the average years of schooling of its citizens, a rating which is closely related to per capita gross national product, and
much more painful.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
a) The educational shortcomings of the United States, in contrast to those of Latin America, are merely the result of poor
allocation of available resources.
b) Both education and medical care are severely underfunded.
c) Defense spending is sapping funds which would be better spent in education.
d) Obligatory schooling must be scrapped if the goal of educational equality is to be realized.
e) Obligatory education does not and cannot provide equal education.
2. The author most likely would agree with which one of the following solutions to the problems presented by
obligatory education?
a) Education should not be obligatory at all.


b) Education should not be obligatory for those who cannot afford it.
c) More money should be diverted to education for the poorest.
d) Countries should cooperate to establish common minimal educational standards.
e) Future spending should be capped.
3. According to the passage, education is like health care in all of the following ways except:
a) It has reached a point of diminishing returns, increased spending no longer results in significant improvement.
b) It has an inappropriate more is better philosophy.
c) It is unfairly distributed between rich and poor.
d) The amount of money being spent on older students is increasing.
e) Its cost has increased nearly as fast.
4. Why does the author consider the results from increased educational expenditures to be even stranger than
those from increased medical expenditures?
a) The aging of the population should have had an impact only on medical care, not on education.
b) The Right to Read should be a bare minimum, not a Presidential ideal.
c) Educational spending has shown even poorer results than spending on health care, despite greater increases.
d) Education has become even more discriminatory than health care.
e) It inevitably polarizes society.
5. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the authors attitude with respect to obligatory
schooling?
a) Qualified admiration.
b) Critical.
c) Neutral.
d) Ambivalent.
e) Resentful.
6. By stating In Latin America the amount of public money spent on each graduate student is between 350 and
1,500 times the amount spent on the median citizen and In the United States the discrepancy is smaller the
author implies that:
a) Equal education is possible in the United States but not in Latin America.
b) Equal education for all at the graduate level is an unrealistic ideal.
c) Educational spending is more efficient in the United States.
d) Higher education is more expensive than lower education both in Latin America and in the United States, but more so
in Latin America.
e) Underfunding of lower education is a world-wide problem.

Passage 27

According to usage and conventions which are at last being questioned but have by no means been overcome, the social
presence of a woman is different in kind from that of a man. A mans presence is dependent upon the promise of power
which he embodies. If the promise is large and credible his presence is striking. If it is small or incredible, he is found to
have little presence. The promised power may be moral, physical, temperamental, economic, social, sexualbut its object
is always exterior to the man. A mans presence suggests what he is capable of doing to you or for you. His presence may
be fabricated, in the sense that he pretends to be capable of what he is not. But the pretense is always toward a power
which he exercises on others. By contrast, a womans presence expresses her own attitude to herself, and defines what
can and cannot be done to her. Her presence is manifest in her gestures, voices, opinions, expressions, clothes, chosen
surroundings, tasteindeed there is nothing she can do which does not contribute to her presence. Presence for a woman
is so intrinsic to her person that men tend to think of it as an almost physical emanation, a kind of heat or smell or aura.
To be born a woman has been to be born, within an allotted and confined space, into the keeping of men. The social
presence of women has developed as a result of their ingenuity in living under such tutelage within such a limited space.
But this has been at the cost of a womans self being split into two. A woman must continually watch herself.
Whilst she is walking across a room or whilst she is weeping at the death of her father, she can scarcely avoid envisaging
herself walking or weeping. From earliest childhood she has been taught and persuaded to survey herself continually. And
so she comes to consider the surveyor and the surveyed within her as the two constituent yet always distinct elements of
her identity as a woman. She has to survey everything she is and everything she does because how she appears to others,
and ultimately how she appears to men, is of crucial importance for what is normally thought of as the success of her life.
Her own sense of being in herself is supplanted by a sense of being appreciated as herself by another. Men survey women
before treating them. Consequently how a woman appears to a man can determine how she will be treated. To acquire
some control over this process, women must contain it and internalize it. That part of a womans self which is the
surveyor treats the part which is the surveyed so as to demonstrate to others how her whole self would like to be treated.
And this exemplary treatment of herself by herself constitutes her presence. Every womans presence regulates what is
and is not permissible within her presence. Every one of her actionswhatever its direct purpose or motivationis
also read as an indication of how she would like to be treated. If a woman throws a glass on the floor, this is an example of
how she treats her own emotion of anger and so of how she would wish to be treated by others. If a man does the same,


his action is only read as an expression of his anger. If a woman makes a good joke this is an example of how she treats the
joker in herself and accordingly of how she as joker-woman would like to be treated by others. Only a man can make a
good joke for its own sake.

1. According to usage and conventions, appearance is NECESSARILY a part of reality for:
a) Men.
b) Women.
c) Both men and women.
d) Neither men nor women.
e) Men always and women occasionally.
2. In analyzing a womans customary social presence, the author hopes to:
a) Justify and reinforce it.
b) Understand and explain it.
c) Expose and discredit it.
d) Demonstrate and criticize it.
e) Sanction and promote it.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that a woman with a Ph.D. in psychology who gives a lecture to a group of
students is probably MOST concerned with:
a) Whether her students learn the material.
b) What the males in the audience think of her.
c) How she comes off as a speaker in psychology.
d) Finding a husband.
e) Whether a man challenges her.
4. The passage portrays women as:
a) Victims.
b) Liars.
c) Actresses.
d) Politicians.
e) Ignorant.
5. Which one of the following is NOT implied by the passage?
a) Women have split personalities.
b) Men are not image-conscious.
c) Good looks are more important to women than to men.
d) A man is defined by what he does, whereas a woman is defined by how she appears.
e) A mans presence is extrinsic, whereas a womans is intrinsic.
6. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
a) Compare and contrast womans presence and place in society with that of mans.
b) Discuss a womans presence and place in society and to contrast it with a mans presence and place.
c) Illustrate how a woman is oppressed by society.
d) Explain why men are better than women at telling jokes.
e) Illustrate how both men and women are hurt by sexism.

Passage 28

That placebos can cure everything from dandruff to leprosy is well known. They have a long history of use by witch
doctors, faith healers, and even modern physicians, all of whom refuse to admit their efficacy. Modern distribution
techniques can bring this most potent of medicines to the aid of everyone, not just those lucky enough to receive placebos
in a medical testing program. Every drug tested would prove effective if special steps were not taken to neutralize the
placebo effect. This is why drug tests give half the patients the new medication and half a harmless substitute. These tests
prove the value of placebos because approximately five percent of the patients taking them are cured even though the
placebos are made from substances that have been carefully selected to be useless. Most people feel that the lucky
patients in a drug test get the experimental drug because the real drug provides them a chance to be cured.(1) Yet
analysis shows that patients getting the placebo may be the lucky ones because they may be cured without risking any
adverse effects the new drug may have. Furthermore, the drug may well be found worthless and to have severe side
effects. No harmful side effects result from placebos. Placebos regularly cure more than five percent of the patients and
would cure considerably more if the doubts associated with the tests were eliminated. Cures are principally due to the
patients faith, (2) yet the patient must have doubts knowing that he may or may not be given the new drug, which itself
may or may not prove to be an effective drug. Since he knows the probability of being given the true drug is about fifty
percent, the placebo cure rate would be more than doubled by removing these doubts if cures are directly related to faith.
The actual curing power of placebos probably stems from the faith of the patient in the treatment. This suggests that cure
rates in the ten percent range could be expected if patients are given placebos under the guise of a proven cure, even
when patients know their problems are incurable. It may take a while to reach the ten percent level of cure because any
newly established program will not have cultivated the word-of-mouth advertising needed to insure its success. One
person saying I was told that my problem was beyond medical help, but they cured me, can direct countless people to
the treatment with the required degree of faith. Furthermore, when only terminal illnesses are treated, those not cured
tell no one of the failure. Unfortunately, placebo treatment centers cannot operate as nonprofit businesses. The nonprofit
idea was ruled out upon learning that the first rule of public medicine is never to give free medicine. Public health services
know that medicine not paid for by patients is often not taken or not effective because the recipient feels the medicine is


worth just what it cost him. (3) Even though the patients would not know they were taking sugar pills, the placebos cost
so little that the patients would have no faith in the treatment. Therefore, though it is against higher principles, treatment
centers must charge high fees for placebo treatments. This sacrifice of principles, however, is a small price to pay for the
greater good of the patients.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
a) Placebo treatment is a proven tool of modern medicine and its expanded use would benefit societys health.
b) Because modern technology allows for distribution of drugs on a massive scale, the proven efficacy of the placebo is
no longer limited to a privileged few.
c) The curative power of the placebo is so strong that it should replace proven drugs because the patients receiving the
placebo will then be cured without risking any adverse side effects.
d) The price of placebo treatment must be kept artificially high because patients have little faith in inexpensive
treatments.
e) Semi-placebosdrugs that contain only a small amount of the usual dosageare even more effective curatives than
either the placebo or the full-strength drug.
2. Which one of the following is most analogous to the idea presented in the last paragraph?
a) Buying a television at a discount house.
b) Making an additional pledge to charity.
c) Choosing the most expensive dishwasher in a manufacturers line.
d) Waiting until a book comes out in paperback.
e) Contributing one dollar to the Presidential Campaign fund on your tax return.
3. According to the passage, when testing a new drug medical researchers give half of the subjects the test drug and
half a placebo because:
a) Proper statistical controls should be observed.
b) This method reduces the risk of maiming too many subjects if the drug should prove to be harmful.
c) All drugs which are tested would prove to be effective otherwise.
d) Most drugs would test positively otherwise.
e) The cost of dispensing drugs to all the patients is prohibitive.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author might:
a) Believe that the benefits of a placebo treatment program which leads patients to believe they were getting a real drug
would outweigh the moral issue of lying.
b) Support legislation outlawing the use of placebos.
c) Open up a medical clinic that would treat patients exclusively through placebo methods.
d) Believe that factors other than faith are responsible for the curative power of the placebo.
e) Believe that placebo treatment centers should be tax-exempt because they are nonprofit businesses.
5. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the material presented in the passage?
a) A general proposition is stated; then evidence for its support is given.
b) Two types of drug treatmentplacebo and non-placeboare compared and contrasted.
c) A result is stated, its cause is explained, and an application is suggested.
d) A dilemma is presented and a possible solution is offered.
e) A series of examples is presented; then a conclusion is drawn from them.
6. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the authors attitude toward placebo treatment?
a) Reserved advocacy.
b) Feigned objectivity.
c) Summary dismissal.
d) Perplexed by its effectiveness.
e) Zealous promotion.

Passage 29

Global strategies to control infectious disease have historically included the erection of barriers to international travel
and immigration. Keeping people with infectious diseases outside national borders has reemerged as an important public
health policy in the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) epidemic. Between 29 and 50 countries are reported to have
introduced border restrictions on HIV-positive foreigners, usually those planning an extended stay in the country, such as
students, workers, or seamen.
Travel restrictions have been established primarily by countries in the western Pacific and Mediterranean regions, where
HIV seroprevalence is relatively low. However, the country with the broadest policy of testing and excluding foreigners is
the United States. From December 1, 1987, when HIV infection was first classified in the United States as a contagious
disease, through September 30, 1989, more than 3 million people seeking permanent residence in this country were
tested for HIV antibodies. The U.S. policy has been sharply criticized by national and international organizations as being
contrary to public health goals and human-rights principles. Many of these organizations are boycotting international
meetings in the United States that are vital for the study of prevention, education, and treatment of HIV infection. The


Immigration and Nationality Act requires the Public Health Service to list dangerous contagious diseases for which
aliens can be excluded from the United States. By 1987 there were seven designated diseasesfive of them sexually
transmitted (cancroids, gonorrhea, granuloma inguinale, lymphog-ranuloma venereum, and infectious syphilis) and two
non-venereal (active tuberculosis and infectious leprosy).
On June 8, 1987, in response to a Congressional direction in the Helms Amendment, the Public Health Service added HIV
infection to the list of dangerous contagious diseases. A just and efficacious travel and immigration policy would not
exclude people because of their serologic status unless they posed a danger to the community through casual
transmission.U.S.regulationsshouldlistonlyactivetuberculosisasacontagious55infectious disease. We support well-funded
programs to protect the health of traveler infected with HIV through appropriate immunizations and prophylactic
treatment and to reduce behaviors that may transmit60 infection. We recognize that treating patients infected with HIV
who immigrate to the United States will incur costs for the public sector. It is inequitable, however, to use cost65 as a
reason to exclude people infected withHIV, for there are no similar exclusionary policies for those with other costly
chronic diseases, such as heart disease or cancer. Rather than arbitrarily restrict the70 movement of a subgroup of
infected people, we must dedicate ourselves to the principles of justice, scientific cooperation, and a global response to
the HIV pandemic.

1. According to the passage, countries in the western Pacific have:
a) A very high frequency of HIV-positive immigrants and have a greater reason tobe concerned over this issue than
other countries.
b) Opposed efforts on the part of Mediterranean states to establish travel restrictions on HIV-positive residents.
c) A low HIV seroprevalence and, in tandem with Mediterranean regions, have established travel restrictions on HIV-
positive foreigners.
d) Continued to obstruct efforts to unify policy concerning immigrant screening.
e) Joined with the United States in sharing information about HIV-positive individuals.
2. The authors of the passage conclude that:
a) It is unjust to exclude people based on their serological status without the knowledge that they pose a danger to the
public.
b) U.S. regulations should require more stringent testing to be implemented at all major border crossings.
c) It is the responsibility of the public sector to absorb costs incurred by treatment of immigrants infected with HIV.
d) The HIV pandemic is largely overstated and that, based on new epidemiological data, screening immigrants is not
indicated.
e) Only the non-venereal diseases active tuberculosis and infectious leprosy should be listed as dangerous and
contagious diseases.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that:
a) More than 3 million HIV-positive people have sought permanent residence in the United States.
b) Countries with a low seroprevalence of HIV have a disproportionate and unjustified concern over the spread of AIDS
by immigration.
c) The United States is more concerned with controlling the number of HIV positive immigrants than with avoiding
criticism from outside its borders.
d) Current law is meeting the demand for prudent handling of a potentially hazardous international issue.
e) Actions by countries in the western Pacific and Mediterranean regions to restrict travel are ineffective.
4. Before the Helms Amendment in 1987, seven designated diseases were listed as being cause for denying
immigration. We can conclude from the passage that:
a) The authors agree fully with this policy but disagree with adding HIV to the list.
b) The authors believe that sexual diseases are appropriate reasons for denying immigration but not non venereal
diseases.
c) The authors disagree with the amendment.
d) The authors believe that non-venereal diseases are justifiable reasons for exclusion, but not sexually transmitted
diseases.
e) The authors believe that no diseases should be cause for denying immigration.
5. In referring to the costs incurred by the public (line 63), the authors apparently mean:
a) Financial costs.
b) Costs to the public health.
c) Costs in manpower.

d) Costs in international reputation.
e) Costs in public confidence.


Passage 30

Most students arrive at [college] using discrete, concrete, and absolute categories to understand people, knowledge, and
values. These students live with a dualistic view, seeing the5 world in polar terms of we-right-good vs. other wrong-
bad. These students cannot acknowledge the existence of more than one point of view toward any issue. There is one
right way. And because these absolutes are assumed10 by or imposed on the individual from external authority, they
cannot be personally substantiated or authenticated by experience. These students are slaves to the generalizations of
their authorities. An eye for an eye! Capital punish15ment is apt justice for murder. The Bible says so. Most students
break through the dualistic stage to another equally frustrating stagemultiplicity. Within this stage, students see a
variety of ways to deal with any given topic or problem.20 However, while these students accept multiple points of view,
they are unable to evaluate or justify them. To have an opinion is everyones right. While students in the dualistic stage
are unable to produce evidence to support what25 they consider being self-evident absolutes, students in the multiplistic
stage are unable to connect instances into coherent generalizations. Every assertion, every point, is valid. In their
democracy they are directionless. Capital pun30ishment? What sense is there in answering one murder with another?
The third stage of development finds students living in a world of relativism. Knowledge is relative: right and wrong
depend on the con35text. No longer recognizing the validity of each individual idea or action, relativists examine
everything to find its place in an overall framework. While the multiple views the world as unconnected, almost random,
the relativist seeks 40 always to place phenomena into coherent larger patterns. Students in this stage view the world
analytically. They appreciate authority for its expertise, using it to defend their own generalizations.
In addition, they accept or reject ostensi45ble authority after systematically evaluating its validity. In this stage, however,
students resist decision making. Suffering the ambivalence of finding several consistent and acceptable alternatives, they
are almost overwhelmed by diver50sity and need means for managing it. Capital punishment is appropriate justicein
some instances. In the final stage students manage diversity through individual commitment. Students do not55 deny
relativism. Rather they assert an identity by forming commitments and assuming responsibility for them. They gather
personal experience into a coherent framework, abstract principles to guide their actions, and use these princi60ples to
discipline and govern their thoughts and actions. The individual has chosen to join a particular community and agrees to
live by its tenets. The accused has had the benefit of due process to guard his civil rights, a jury of peers65 has found him
guilty, and the state has the right to end his life. This is a principle my community and I endorse.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would consider which of the following to be good examples of
dualistic thinking?
I. People who think there is a right way and a wrong way to do things
II. Teenagers who assume they know more about the real world than adults do
III. People who back our country right or wrong when it goes to war:
a) I only.
b) II only.
c) III only.
d) I and II only.
e) I and III only
2. Students who are dualistic thinkers may not be able to support their beliefs convincingly because:
a) Most of their beliefs cannot be supported by arguments.
b) They have accepted their truths simply because authorities have said these things are true.
c) They half-believe and half-disbelieve just about everything.
d) Their teachers almost always think that dualistic thinkers are wrong.
e) They are enslaved by their authorities.
3. Which one of the following assertions is supported by the passage?
a) Committed thinkers are not very sure of their positions.
b) Relativistic thinkers have learned how-to make sense out of the world and have chosen their own positions in it.
c) Multiplicity thinkers have difficulty understanding the relationships between different points of view.
d) Dualistic thinkers have thought out the reasons for taking their positions.
e) Dualistic thinkers fear the power of authority.
4. In paragraph two, the author states that in their democracy students in the multiplicity stage are directionless.
The writer describes multiplicity students as being in a democracy because:
a) There are so many different kinds of people in a democracy.
b) In an ideal democracy, all people are considered equal; by extension, soared their opinions.
c) Democrats generally do not have ago sense of direction.
d) Although democracies may grant freedom, they are generally acknowledged to be less efficient than more
authoritarian forms of government.
e) In a democracy the individual has ultimate authority over himself, not the state.
5. Which one of the following kinds of thinking is NOT described in the passage?
a) People who assume that there is no right or wrong in any issue.
b) People who make unreasoned commitments and stick by them.


c) People who believe that right or wrong depends on the situation.
d) People who commit themselves to particular point of view after having considered several alternative concepts.
e) People who think that all behavior cane accounted for by cause and effect relationships.

6. If students were asked to write essays on the different concepts of tragedy as exemplified by Cordelia and
Antigone, and they all responded by showing how each character exemplified traditional definition of tragedy,
we could, according to the passage, hypothesize which one of the following about these students?
a) The students were locked into the relativist stage.
b) The students had not advanced beyond the dualist stage.
c) The students had at least achieved the multiplicity stage.
d) The students had reached the commitment stage.
e) We have no indication of which cognitive stage the students were in.
7. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
a) Four methods of thought are compared and contrasted.
b) It is shown how each of four types of thought evolved from each other.
c) Four methods of thought are presented, and each is shown to complement the other.
d) The evolution of thought from simplistic and provincial through considered and cosmopolitan is illustrated by four
stages.
e) The evolution of thought through four stages is presented, and each stage is illustrated by how it views capital
punishment.

Passage 31

Outstanding performance can be achieved even when competitors are much bigger and stronger
In 1975; Xerox enjoyed a staggering 93 percent share of the worldwide photocopier market. Its technology was guarded
by over 500 patents. It had a marketing and support organization of 12,000 sales representatives and 15,000 service
people working directly for the Xerox organization in the United States and for the company's joint ventures abroad-Rank
Xerox in Europe and Fuji Xerox in Japan. It had a worldwide manufacturing infrastructure, invested more in R&D than the
total revenues of most of its competitors, and was one of the few companies whose brand names were indistinguishable
from their business. Photocopying meant Xeroxing. When canon, the little camera company from Japan, jumped into this
business in the late 1960's most observers were skeptical. It was less than a tenth the size of Xerox, and had no sales and
service organization to reach the corporate market for copiers. Nor did it have a process technology to bypass Xerox's
patents. Reviewing Canon's entry vis--vis those of other corporate giants like IBM, Kodak, 3M, Nashua and Smith Corona,
who also chose to challenge Xerox around the same time, one investment analyst commented that ' a photocopier is not a
large camera'.
Yet, over the next 3 decades, canon rewrote the rule book on how copies were supposed to be produced and sold to build
up Rs 300,000 crore in annual revenues in the business, emerging as the second largest global player in terms of sales and
surpassing Xerox in the number of units sold. Evidence of this success is visible in the ubiquitous 'Xeroxing by Canon'
signs over photocopying shops all over India. Yes, size matters, but no, size does not determine. While David and Goliath
stories may be relatively rare in other aspects of life, they are all too common in the world of business. To those Indian
managers who shy away from the aspirations of radical performance improvement on the ground that their ambitions
must match the reality of their comparative resources and scale, we say look at the case of Zee TV in chapter 3. Against the
Goliaths of Rupert Murdoch and his Star TV, on the one side, and Doordarshan on the other, if Zee could do what it has
done, why not you?
Radical performance improvement is possible even when you are already very successful
Perhaps the most pervasive myth of all is the belief that truly radical change is possible only when a company is in actual
crisis. With crisis comes defreezing , a delegitimization of the exciting order that includes the existing power structures,
beliefs and processes, and this delegitimization of the old clears the path for the new. 'Fix it while it isnt broken yet' is a
fashionable statement but not a very practical one, the belief goes, because people cannot see the need for change when
everything is going so well. Perhaps the strongest evidence against this myth lies in the experience of General Electric
over the last 20 years. All over the world, including in India, Jack Welch, GEs formidable CEO, represents the epitome of
determined leadership. For good reason He took over the helm of GE in 1981, when the companys market capitalization
was $11 billion. Now, it hovers in the range of $450 billion! You could buy almost Indias entire established corporate
sector with about a 5
th
of GEs current value. This jump in market value has been achieved through change that is
spectacular by any measure. As we will describe in chapter 2, over his tenure, Welch has transformed GEs business
portfolio, organization, culture and behavior. Indeed there is at least some element of truth in the claim made by a
Harvard Business School professor that Welchs transformation of GE, with its employee base of over 200,000 people,
represents one of the biggest planned efforts to alter peoples behavior since the cultural revolution in China.
All of this, of course, is old hat in India by now. Everyone knows of the GE story. What people tend to forget, however, are
the circumstances under which the story began? When Jack Welch succeeded Reginald Jones in April 1981 as the


chairman and CEO of GE, the wall street journal claimed that the company was replacing a legend with a live wire.
Indeed, in the decade of the 1970s, Jones had doubled GEs sales and tripled its profits. In 1981, GE was the tenth largest
industrial corporation in the IS and was often referred to as the role model for American management. In a poll of fortune
500 chief executives in 1981-the year that Welch assumed the leadership role in the company-GE was ranked as the best-
managed industrial company in America and Reginald Jones received fortunes CEO of the decade award. In other words,
Welch did not inherit a company in crisis, not even a company struggling with satisfactory underperformance. He
inherited the best-managed and one of the highest performing industrial companies in the world. And then, again as
described by fortune, he seized the companys vast bureaucracy by the scruff of the neck and shook it till it saw stars.
In India, this is precisely what successive generations of top management have done in the perennially successful
Hindustan Lever. Sushim Dutta inherited a very successful company from the legendary Ashok Ganguly. And changed the
company fundamentally-by merging tea gardens, the food and beverages businesses of Brooke Bond and Lipton, and
other units into the big detergents operation-to create an integrated Unilever group of companies, through a spate of
acquisitions including Tomco in the detergents business and Kiss an in the food business, and by decentralizing authority
down from the chairmans level to the level of the divisional managements. By the time he handed over charge to Keki
Dadiseth, he was no less a management legend in India than Reginald Jones was in the US. But, instead of maintaining the
status quo, Keki Dadiseth has once again led a revolution in Hindustan Lever, radically decentralizing the company to
create small, highly entrepreneurial business. At $4 billion in revenues, Hindustan Lever represents about 5% of
Unilevers global turnover; Dadiseth was determined to double it to 10%. When we imagined it, said Dadiseth, it was
difficult to conceptualize. The key concept here is when there is a huge challenge and people sit down as a team to address
it, they may not reach a solution, but the solution comes within sight. And the solution that came within his sight, was to
ignite the entrepreneurial spark plugs in the middle ranks of the company, by creating small profit centers that would
help the company retain the aggressiveness and agility of small companies and simultaneously offer personal growth
opportunities to a much broader array of young managers. 5. Charismatic leadership is not a prerequisite for radical
performance improvement last but not least is the myth of charismatic leadership-the belief that only personal charisma
at the top can galvanize a company to achieve radical change. Yes, charisma helps. But no, it is not a prerequisite.
Desi demimonde, the CEO of 3M, is not charismatic by any standards. There is an obvious wholesomeness to him, an
authenticity that creates trust and confidence, and a genuine love for people that creates the same love in return. But, he
is not seven feet tall, nor a great public speaker. He not the fire that burns with spectacular brightness but only leaves
burnt out ash at the end; he is like a gentle stream that cools and comforts people, in a soothing and durable way. Today,
with all the public acclaim creating a halo around him, Infosys N.R. Narayana Murthy may appear as charismatic, but he
too is not seven feet tall. A soft-spoken, conservative and traditional middle-class Indian, he is more courteous than
aggressive, more empathetic than evangelical. Yet, he is the soul that has nurtured the body of Infosys, a key attraction
why people join and stay in the company, and primary architect of Infosys spectacular performance improvement since
1991.
We could list many more examples, but that is not the point. What is not necessary may be interesting, but a far more
interesting question is, what does it take? If radical performance improvement is possible, what are their how tows?
A book of biases that is what this book is all about. Over the last twenty years, we have seen-sometimes from the inside
and sometimes from the outside-some amazing changes in the fortunes of companies in the United States, Europe and
Japan. We have seen a few soar, many more stumble, and some, like Digital Equipment Corporation and Westinghouse,
die. Then, over the last five years, we have tried to follow several Indian companies, and hare again we have witnessed
some, like Reliance, Hindustan Lever and Infosys, go from success to success and seen others, like Indian Oxygen
(renamed as BOC India), stumble and struggle. From our interpretations of why their fortunes have changed, we have
distilled some biases about how companies can manage radical performance improvement. In his book, we present those
biases.
We use the term biases advisedly. We do not know if there are any absolute laws or truths in the field of management.
But, if there are, we have no access to them. Our research methods are not amenable to ferreting out truths; all they can
lead to are speculations and interpretations, i.e., personal biases. In this book, we present these biases as simply and as
directly as we can. The objective is not to provide definitive answers, but to raise issues for thought, discussion and
reflection. In a way,
the book is best used as an a la carte menu, rather than as a set lunch. We deliberately do not present an overall
conceptual structure, and then elaborate the pieces so as to build up one integrated whole. There is cohesiveness among
the different ideas presented in the book-a cohesiveness that comes from the commonality of the hearts and the minds
that have formed these biases-but there is also a deliberate avoidance of presenting a single conceptual framework or
theory about performance improvement. Each chapter presents a single idea, in a bite sized piece, about one issue that we
consider to be relevant for radical performance improvement. Each idea is self-standing and can be evaluated for its
usefulness or applicability independent of the evaluation of other ideas. The company stories are an integral part of our
argument. Collectively, they provide both illustration and support for the different ideas presented in the book. Clearly,
they are oversimplified accounts of complex reality but, taken together, they should enthuse those who believe in our
advocacy for radical performance improvement and at least challenge those who do not.


What does it take to achieve radical performance improvement? There is no one answer to that question. It requires the
courage of rolling the dice for a big roll, but it also takes the care of managing a lot of small details. History and context
matter, so there is no one universal formula applicable to all companies. The case examples provided describe this variety
and this multidimensionality of the how tows of achieving outstanding corporate performance.
One of the criticisms about these examples may be that they represent a search for excellence. They are all exceptional
cases and, therefore, cannot provide the basis for any generalization. We disagree. In An observation on method, Edgar
Wind writes: It seems to be a lesson of history that the commonplace may be understood as a reduction of the
exceptional , but the exceptional cannot be understood by amplifying the commonplace. Both logically and causally the
exceptional is crucial because it introduces (introduces strange it may sound) the more comprehensive category.
Reliance, Bajaj Auto, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Hero Honda, ZEE TV, Hindustan Lever, Wipro, HDFC, Sun dram Fasteners-these are
all Indian companies and are, therefore, part of the comprehensive category of corporate India. What they can do, others
can do too. The Indian situation, with all its pathologies and opportunities, is not what is special about them. What is
special is their management approach. At least from a normative perspective, they provide a perfectly valid-in fact,
indispensable-basis for generalization. To achieve radical performance improvement, the management of a company will
require a sense-a vision, if you will of the companys destiny. How does one arrive at this sense? Read each of these case
stories. Then try to tell the story of your companys future in the same way. With each case story, you will describe a
different future, a different destiny. Try out all the different stories that you can generate in this manner. Mull over these
stories-now, not about other companies, but about your own, but told in different ways. Gradually, a special story will
emerge-perhaps from just one of the many different stories, or perhaps from a synthesis of some of them. It will be special
because it will resonate within you; it will fit something that is inside you, whether you are an individual or a
management team. You will feel that resonance because of the flush of energy and excitement it will generate. Refine that
story. Picture-that is what a vision is, a picture-the future state of the company, as it emerges from your special story.
Then have the courage to stand in that future and look at the present from that vantage point. How can you pull the
present into that future? Some of the ideas presented in the different chapters may help in identifying some specific action
and processes; other initiatives will emerge from your own experiences and intuition. Have the courage to take those
action to drag your company, by the scruff of its neck if necessary, as Jack Welch did, into that future. You cannot manage
the present to the future-that will inevitably land you into the trap of incrementalism. You will have to manage the
present from the future-that is the path and the process for radical improvement.

1. What are steps involved in the pathology of satisfactory underperformance?
a) Successful business strategy.
b) Competitiveness, growth, and profits.
c) Gradual decline into satisfactory underperformance and then to crisis.
d) Building layers of staff to cope with growth.
e) All of the above.
2. To achieve radical performance improvement the management of companies require:-
a) When competitors are much bigger and stronger.
b) Requirement of Charismatic leadership.
c) Possible when one is already successful.
d) Options a and c both.
e) None of these.
3. What the brightest operators are demanding from their businesses?
a) Lower cost for running existing 'steady state' operations.
b) Shorter response times and more services for the same or less cost.
c) Continual improvement as the norm.
d) More flexibility to change and improve service.
4. According to the passage, An observation on method alludes to:
a) Study of things that cannot be manipulated in a lab due to ethical concerns.
b) Situation in which interest of public is watched and the relevant facts, actions and behaviors are recorded.
c) Method of job analysis.
e) None of these.
5. An observation on method is advantageous because:
a) First hand information.
b) Simple and easy to use.
c) Verifies data from other sources.
d) Useful for manual and psycho- motor task.
6. The Style of the passage can be best described as:


a) An objective analysis.
b) A detailed critique.
c) A compelling argument.
d) A scholarly dissertation.
e) None of these.
7. Defying Gravity and Levitate; are one and the same thing:
a) Strongly agree.
b) Partially agree.
c) Inconclusive.
d) Disagree.
e) None of these.
8. It cannot be deduced from the passage that:
a) Improving capital productivity.
b) Revitalizing organization and people.
c) Gradual decline into satisfactory underperformance and then to crisis.
d) Charismatic leadership is not a prerequisite for radical performance improvement.
e) External arrogance and internal focus on control.
9. Downward trend of Rationalization alludes to:
a) Poor performances.
b) Cut resources and sell businesses.
c) Close factories and shackle people.
d) Underlying problems not solved.
10. According to the passage, OK ROCE refers to:
a) The efficiency and profitability of the companies in using its fund.
b) Overall performance of the company is best.
c) Companies are earning huge profit.
d) High return on capital employed.
e) None of these.
11. Initiative and innovative stifled have nothing in common:-
a) Strongly go along with this statement.
b) Partially go along with this statement.
c) Fall out with this statement.
d) Doubtful statement.
e) None of these.
12. According to the passage, by the scruff of its neck signifies:
a) Manage present from future.
b) A Cautious style of decision making in which changes are implemented gradually or in small steps.
c) Management of the company should be strong.
d) Top level management should hold the middle and lower level management cautiously.
e) None of these.
13. What is the tone of the passage?
a) Impassioned.
b) Serious.
c) Reflective.
d) Contended.
14. How a company can achieve outstanding performance even when its industry is shrinking?
a) With the help of strong managers.
b) With strong administration and management control.
c) By building sustainable competitive advantage and core competencies.
d) By enabling economies of large scale production.
15. What is the mood described in the passage?
a) Relieved.
b) Tensed.
c) Uncertain.
d) Disappointed.
e) None of these.
16. 'Fix it while it isnt broken yet' is a fashionable statement but not a very practical one. Why?
a) Only after destruction comes construction.
b) Change is painful.
c) Change is necessary in life.
d) To improve is to change; to be perfect is to change often.
e) None of these.
17. The Myth of the Great and Charismatic Leader:
a) The great leadership as the single-most distinguishing variable in the success of great companies of the world.
b) The great leadership makes a great difference to the fortunes of any company.
c) The great leaders display high level of persistence.
d) They play key roles in guiding their companies through crucial episodes in their history.


GOING GLOBAL

Many Indian managers aspire to internationalize their companies. But without powerful brand or proprietary technology,
how realistic are these aspirations? Given their relatively small size and typically stable and mature industries, can they
ever develop strong profitable position and international markets? More generally, in a world of competitive
consolidation and market globalization, how can small company-particularly those from non- OECD countries like India-
compete against the established and increasingly global giants? Too often their stories are like Arvind Mills, once the
superstar of the Indian textile industry for having achieved tremendous success supplying denim and other article of
clothing to leading western companies. As overseas sales grew, Arvinds stock soared on the Mumbai stock exchange and
Sanjay Lalbhai, its CEO, declare that the company was well on its way to globalization. Within two years, however, the
bubble had burst, a victim of the fickle demands of the global fashion business and cut-throat completion among offshore
apparel markets battling for the shrinking US jeans market.
Stories such as Arvinds have been told hundreds, even thousands of time, with the concluding moral often being drawn
around the inherent risk of global markets, and the competitive disadvantages of smaller, less experienced companies
located outside the triad markets of the United States, Europe and Japan. And there is much that is true in this inference:
going global is an extremely and challenging process for such companies. Yet, what this inference ignores is the
counterpoint and the counter examples: while difficult and challenging, it is not impossible for small companies from
developing economies to succeed in tough global markets.
Acer grew from a tiny start-up electronics consulting company in Taiwan to become the worlds number two computer
manufacturer. Brazils Weg has emerged as the fifth largest producer of electric motors in the world, with operations in
fifty five countries spanning every major continent in the world. Mexicos Cemex has successfully challenged the global
dominants of Germanys Holderbank and Frances Lafarge in the cement business. Jollybee corporation, a Philippines-
based fast food chain, has successfully defended its domestic position against the onslaught of McDonalds, and-
stimulated by the challenge-has expended abroad not only within Asia but also in the United State. In India, Ranbaxy,
Sundaram Fasteners and Infosys, among others, have demonstrated the same counter case. While by no means are these
companies Global, they have establishes a viable and sustainable process for getting there.
Despite the diversity of their industries and national background, the globalization strategies of these companies share
one common characteristic; they have seen globalization not only in terms of expanding their markets, but also-and more
so-as a learning opportunity that would improve their overall competitiveness by moving them up the value curve.
In international market, an Indian product or an Indian company continues to be associated with the expectation of low
cost, low price and low margins. Despite being capable of providing quality and value comparable to those of their
Western competitors, Indian companies in fields as diverse as pharmaceuticals, textiles, software services and
engineering are unable to raise their margins because of these expectations. As a result, they are unable to invest in new
resources and competencies that are necessary to protect and enhance their competitiveness. This is precisely the
situation Japanese companies faced and overcame in 1960s. Unless Indian company can overcome this liability, they will
be locked in the lower decks of international business.
This is the key challenge for all Indian managers who would like to their companies become fully paid-up members of the
multinational club. They have to find ways to move up in the value curves of their businesses. Some companies-Ranbaxy
in pharmaceuticals and Infosys in IT services are good examples-have recognized this challenge and are taken determined
steps to respond to it. There is much than other Indian companies can learn from the efforts and experiences of these
pioneers.
Moving up the value curve
The value curve is a simple but powerful concept that has broad application across a variety of industries. Almost any
business consists of a hierarchy of product-market segment, each of which generates profits roughly in proportion to the
technical and/or marketing complexity of segment. Early stage multinational company, particularly those from
developing countries, often enter the global market place by competing in the lower margin segment-even when their
internal capabilities exceeds the demands of that segment. It is as if they feel obliged to fulfill the expectations that
companies of their status produce at low-cost and undifferentiated products and characterize the low end of the value
curve.
Such was the case of Ranbaxy, when it first broke into the global market place by producing and selling the bulk
substances and intermediates that defined the bottom end of the pharmaceutical value curve. With gross margins of 5-10
percent, the additional production economies generated by this business did not even offset the added costs of the
international sales and distribution. The managements only way to justify the negative impact on capital employed was
to focus on the prestige associated with being an Indian multinational and to make vague promises about using its
overseas contacts and experience to upgrade the business.
Over the years, this is indeed what the company was able to do. If first made the leap to commodity generics, then
branded generics, both much tougher global businesses that required the development of new customer relationships,
different distribution channels, and eventually, strong a brand image. By using its international experience to develop
these new resources and capabilities, Ranbaxy was able to establish a profitable generic business in China, South Africa,
Europe and finally in North America.


The companys ambition, however, is far more aggressive. It aspires to be a research based international pharmaceuticals
company. What this means is that it wishes to move up to the highest part of the curve-discovering new drugs-where
margins of 100 percent or more are available. This is the territory of giant like Merck, Glaxo-Wellcome, Pfizer and Eli Lilly.
Not content to serve these masters with low-cost intermediates, Ranbaxy is taking determined action to become their
equal, albeit in miniature scale to begin with, by creating its own chemical entity. This was a dream of Dr. Parvinder Singh,
Ranbaxys erstwhile chairman, and both he and Mr. Devinder Brar, the current CEO of the company, have pursued this
dream with complete commitment over many years. Investing 4to6 percent of revenues in R&D. Once it gets there, the
company can begin to enjoy the fruit of a positive feedback cycle in which high margins from new products will allow high
investments in research, which in turn will lead to further new products, and so on.
The same phenomenon of a value curve also exists in the IT services industry where the recent success of Indian
companies like Infosys, Wipro and TCS will be short lived unless they too, like Ranbaxy, make determined efforts to climb
to higher levels. Historically most of these companies created their toeholds in international market essentially through
body shopping. By now, some of them have moved up a step by doing more and more work in their back offices located in
India. But, they are still locked in the cost-based model, where they respond to customer requests for specific services and
are paid based on estimates of hours of work required on a cost-plus basis. Intense competition among themselves has
only helped in reducing the plus elements of this calculation.
At the same time, the salaries of software professionals in India are rising annually by about 25 percent. Other costs, such
as international travel, are also going up at alarming rate. To maintain and enhance their margins-without which they
cannot invest for future growth nor maintain their share prices-these companies need to more up to a value base model of
business in which customer pay for products and services based on perceived or realized value, and not on the costs that
are incurred. This is the model in which their international counterparts like Cambridge Technology Partners operate,
with revenue in excess of $200,000 per employee. It is only if they can transition to this high value business that company
like Infosys, Wipro and TCS can maintain the expectation and momentum they have generated.
Such a climb up the value curve can be done, as is manifest in the amazing twenty years success story of Acer. Throughout
its short history, founder and CEO Stan Shih has focused his organization on continually increasing the value added of its
products, particularly in the international markets where they always faced powerful established competitors. In the
early days of supplying components, he pushed his engineers to develop exciting and different new PC products; when
Acer began supplying these as an original equipments manufacturer (OEM) to established companies like Unisys and ICL
to sell under their own names, Shih became determined to establish the Acer brand; and as the PC industry became more
commoditized, he challenged his organization to develop new capabilities in software and solutions. If there is one lesson
you learn from competing, said Shih, it is that you must use it to continually upgrade your skill and adapt your business.
Moving up the value curve is easier said than done. It is a marathon that needs to be run in a never- ending sequences of
100 meter dashes. The process is both tough and risky and needs enormous amount of managerial vision, courage and
grit. The experiences of companies like Acer, Weg, Sundram Fasteners, Ranbaxy and Infosys suggest that Indian
companies desiring to run the marathon face three core challenges:
First, they have to overcome the liability of their Indianness.
Second, they have to develop or capture a range of new competencies that are vital for international success.
Third, they have to protect their past while building their future.
Overcoming the liabilities of Indianness
One day, one hopes, the label made in India or made by an Indian company will be a symbol of high quality and value,
but today is not that day. Just as companies like Sony, Toyota and NEC transformed the image of Japanese products, Indian
companies that desire to move up the value curve will be the pioneers who will create such high quality images for
product and services originating in India. But, for themselves, they will have to overcome the liabilities of their
Indianness. Indeed, this is the common challenge for all intending multinationals from emerging countries- to successfully
internationalize; they have to overcome the liabilities of their origin.
This liability has many different dimensions. First, there is the constraint of ingrained customer expectation. Through
either ignorance or experience, most international customers expect the products of unknown company from emerging
countries to be inferior. And it is extremely hard to change this perception.
Less than a decade ago, Samsung, the giant Korean chaebol, still suffer from this liability. Yet, because its products were
so well regarded at home, most Samsung managers remained unaware or simply denied the existence of negative
customer perceptions abroad. To force the company to deal with the problem, Kun-Hee Lee, chairman of Samsung, flew
his hundred seniormost managers to the United State, to see for themselves how their product for treated in the local
stores. Prominently displayed in the front of the stores was Sony, Bang and Olufsen and other prestige brands. Lined up
behind them were such as Philips, Thompson, Toshiba and Hitachi. At the back of stores, with big bargain sales stickers
on them, stood the Samsung TVs and VCRs, sometimes with a thin layer of dust dulling the high quality finish that the
company had invested very significant resources to achieve. Technologically, the Samsung products were often at par
with or better than the best alternatives. But, as the close-to-tears executives learnt first-hand, while joining their
chairman in dusting their products with their pocket handkerchiefs, they had much work to do to overcome the liability of
their origin.


It is the same liability of customer expectations that affects the international expansion of most Indian companies. The
Calcutta-based Usha Martin group has world-class skills for production of wire ropes. Yet, foreign customers are unwilling
to source sophisticated products for demanding applications such as bridge building from them. Despite the worldwide
acclaim for Indias software skills, Infosys, Wipro and other Indian software services companies still find it very hard to be
considered for the big and complex jobs that lie at the top end of the IT services value curve. For years, GM restricted its
purchases from Sundram Fasteners to only the simplest products and that too only for models it was phasing out.
A second liability of origin is the prison of local standards. Consider the case of Thermax, the Pune-based engineering
company that, like Ranbaxy, is committed to becoming an international player. It does have a core strength in the area of
small boilers in which it is one of the top six producers in the world. In international markets, a radical reduction in the
size of boilers would clearly lead to a higher value position. Through determined investment in technology and an
extremely innovative R&D team, Thermax has developed a new shell-type boiler, based on very high fluid velocity that
would reduce size by a third.
Clearly, the new product can be a winner in the Indian market. But, for that, the boiler has to be designed to the standards
laid down in the Indian Boiler Regulations (IBR) which are very different from both the British Standard (BS) and the US
Standards (ASME). Besides, in global markets, packaged solutions are desired, requiring minimal site work. With low
labor costs, Indian customers are willing to put in the site work to avoid the higher costs of a packaged solution.
Thermax is faced with a dilemma. Designing the boiler for international markets would make the product unsuitable for
the Indian market-which accounts for over three-fourths of the companys total revenues and over 100 percent of profits.
Designing it for India would make it unattractive abroad, depriving it of its one good shot at breaking through in both
Europe and North America. And designing it for all markets would meet the needs of no one. To move up the value curve
internationally, Thermax has to, at least initially, sacrifice the domestic opportunities.
A different facet of the prison of local standards, and attributable to the same differences in technical or market needs, is
the luxury of local opportunities. This has been the historical constraint for Bajaj Auto-the third largest two-wheeler
company in the world and the second largest producer of scooters-preventing it from leveraging its enormous strengths
in India into a successful operation abroad.
Almost from the day he joined Bajaj Auto, Rahul Bajaj has dreamt of making the Indian company the worlds leading
manufacturer of two-wheelers. This was when Bajaj Auto had only one product, that too a Piaggio lookalike, and there
was a ten-year waiting list. Yet, in every interview he gave, Bajaj would talk about internationalization, about the need to
become world-class, and so on. Asked once to spell out what he meant by world-class, he had said, the day 20 percent of
my production is exported, I will say I am world-class.
Yet, in 1990, exports accounted for only 1 percent of Bajajs sales, and even in 1998, they were less than 5 percent. The
company claimed that it had captured 65 percent of Colombias scooter market, 30 percent of Uruguays motorcycle
market and 95 percent of Bangladeshs three-wheeler market. But, as Rahul Bajaj candidly admits, theres not much point
in saying that we have a major presence internationally when we exports 40,000 vehicles to fifty countries and, of these,
30,000 go to just five relatively small markets.
The problem has historically been a combination of the attractiveness of the Indian market, and Bajajs dominant
strengths in that market. Even looking to the future, the Indian market would remain highly attractive. Penetration rates
continue to be much lower in India compared to the other developing countries: 26 per 1000 households for motorcycles,
51 for scooters and 30 for mopeds in 1998. As a result, the overall two-and three-wheeler industry is likely to grow at
about 16 percent per annum over the next four to five years. While this continuing attractiveness of the market is a key
barrier to internationalization, the problem is made worse by the very cost efficiency of the Indian operation that has
been the bedrock of the companys historical success: Scale has made us extremely cost competitive in the market place,
said Rahul Bajaj. Size has also allowed us to offer a full range of products and bolstered our financial strength. But no
foreign market can provide me the volumes I can command in India.
Finally, perhaps the most constraining liability of origin lies in the minds of senior corporate managers. Deep in their
hearts, most of them simply do not believe that they can succeed abroad, particularly in developed market. This lack of
belief acts as a self-fulfilling prophecy: half-hearted measures are quickly seen by both insiders and outsiders to be what
they are, leading to a negative spiral of ineffective small steps. As a result, they both dip their toes in a few markets
abroad, and pull out as soon as the temperature rises, or they trash about in the water with no systematic progress in
building their competencies.
There is no quick solution to this liability of origin and, in the absence of a revolutionary technological breakthrough that
few non-OECD companies can realistically aspire to; the only way to overcome this liability is through determined and
patient efforts over long periods of time. However, to even start on this journey, companies need to create two strong
forces-one to pull them from abroad, and the other to push them out from home.
Pulling from abroad: While they claim to be committed to an internationalization strategy, many Indian companies
dedicate a few relatively junior managers to drive the initiative. With no linkages to the web of personalized relationships
among senior managers, these executives find it very hard to even access, far less influence, the corporate decision-
making process. Besides, their inexperience also leads to a host of administrative, financial and marketing problems that
only help to strengthen the ambivalence of corporate managers about the possibility of international success.


In contrast, Ranbaxy divided up the world into four regions, of which India was one, and posed equally strong managers
to head each region even when the Indian operation was four times larger than the other three put together. All four
regional managers were treated as equals and each had a seat in the key decision-making committees. As a result,
international operations ceased to be a peripheral appendage to a dominant domestic business and could continuously
influence resource allocation decisions.
Such a pull from abroad inevitably implies significant investment of resources, both financial and human, in foreign
markets well ahead of demand. Although the size of Ranbaxys European operation could not justify it, Dr Parvinder Singh
hired a senior British executive from a leading pharmaceutical multinational to head the region. It was the stature of the
individual, as well as his manifest knowledge of the business, that persuaded middle and senior corporate managers back
in Delhi to support his cause. At the same time, his background and seniority in the industry was an enormous source of
credibility and confidence for Ranbaxys international customers, and his wide connections provided access to their key
decision makers. Above all else, his weight strengthened top managements courage to persist in the enormously difficult
task of establishing a position in the sophisticated and highly competitive pharmaceutical markets of the UK, France,
Ireland and Germany.
Pushing from home: Just a pull from the organizational periphery, however, is unlikely to create and sustain a strong
enough force for internationalization unless it is complemented by an equally strong push from the corporate centre.
Until the positive reinforcement of international success begins to kick in with full force, persistence in the path of
internationalization is an act of faith, and like all matters of faith, it requires a visible symbol for overcoming the moments
of doubt and, at times, even ignoring the voice of reason. It is not reasonable for Ranbaxy to expect that it can create a new
chemical entity, given its puny size and meager R & D resources, nor is it reasonable for the company to invest in a 200-
people organization in China when the same resources could augment its Indian sales force many time over, with much
quicker effects on revenues and profits. In every company that has succeeded in internationalization its operations,
without exception, top management has embodied this symbol and has acted as the personal carriers of this faith. They
have pushed the organization out, adding to the pull of the international managers.
With a Ph. D. in pharmacology from Michigan, Dr Parvinder Singh had always been a scientist at heart. To become a
research-based international pharmaceutical company was his personal dream and he consistently symbolized this
dream for every employee of Ranbaxy. Every time financial constraints demanded cost savings, he protected the R & D
budget. Every time urgent domestic needs appeared to overwhelm R &D priorities, he protected the programmes that
would support foreign markets and those that searched either for a new drug or for a new drug delivery system.
Whenever the established intermediates business appeared to monopolize the time and energy of international
managers, he reminded that the ultimate purpose was to move up the value curve and that the intermediates business
was a means, not an end.
But, beyond specific actions, he protected the faith. Just like the ancient temples in rural India, where nothing much
happens throughout the day but which influence the lives of every member of the village all the time by simply being
there, he was there for internationalization. To respect him always meant that one must respect his dream, and that-more
than perhaps anything else-pushed the senior managers of the company to persist with international initiatives, even
when the costs appeared to be too high.
Beyond a powerful symbol, the push from the centre also needs clear operating processes and support. Perhaps the
key to such support lies in separating the corporate centre from the domestic operation-clearly and , if possible,
physically, as Ranbaxy did when it established the regional structure-to ensure that corporate resources are used to
support worldwide operations, not just the one that is geographically and emotionally the most proximate. Perhaps the
most important of these resources is senior management time-while Dr. Singh supported research and the spirit of the
internationalization at Ranbaxy, it was D.S. Brar, till recently the companys chief operating officer and now its CEO, who
constantly travelled around the world to support local operations, solve local problems and provide high-level customer
contacts in local markets. He created forums for the international managers to meet, among themselves and with key
corporate staff groups, and followed up on the promises and commitments that these meetings elicited.
Developing new competencies
For moving up the value curve, the new buzzword in Infosys is value-based selling. To achieve this goal, Infosys key
challenges are to develop and strengthen a set of resources and competencies that are crucial to the value-based segment
of the IT services business. The most crucial new competencies required are, first, to build international strength and,
secondly, to build location-wise domain knowledge within the home countries of the customers, together with the ability
to develop and maintain close customer relationships.
The need to build new resources and capabilities is a common challenge for any company that wishes to internationalize
its operations, whether from a developed or a developing economy. This challenge is particularly acute for Indian
companies since most of them start on the internationalization journey on the strength of low-cost labour-based
manufacturing, and lack both the upstream capabilities of technology development and design, and the downstream
strengths in brand marketing and distribution. To succeed in this journey, they have to develop an urgency about building
new competencies or acquiring control over missing capabilities to allow them to move up the value curve. This requires
management to adopt the explicit objective that its motivation for expanding abroad is not just to capture incremental


sales but also to develop world-class skills and capabilities. Indeed, the second of these objectives may well need to be the
primary motivation for many emerging Indian multinationals.
Companies can pursue this goal in two ways: they can develop new core competencies internally; or they can choose
to gain control over new capabilities through alliances, partnerships, or acquisitions. Most, however, may require a
combination of both approaches.
Building new competencies: Building entirely new core competencies-or even radically overhauling existing ones-is
an incredibly challenging task for any company, but it is a price of admission for those companies that want to move up
the value curve. Fortunately, the global market place is an excellent classroom and international competitors are
demanding teachers for those willing to learn the lessons.
The most common challenge for aspiring multinationals is to build new competencies in the downstream part of the
value-added chain, learning how to master the differences in distribution, sales and marketing that are keys to cracking
overseas markets. The simplest solution is to find a local distributor-as many Indian companies choose to do, particularly
in complex and challenging markets like the United States, Europe and Japan, or indeed as several US companies have
done in India. While having the advantage of being a quick and efficient solution involving low investments, this often
tends to be a temporary step rather than a durable basis for building a sustainable presence in international markets.
A few companies, on the other hand, have chosen a seemingly slower route. Infosys is developing downstream
capabilities by creating a set Proximity Development Centers (PDCs) in key cities around the world. It has recognized that
it cannot succeed globally unless it can develop insider positions within the networks of business relationships in the
local markets. More than 20 percent of its business activities need to be near the customer, e.g., requirements definition,
presentation, sign off, installation, training and so on. To effectively manage these activities and to build true customer
intimacy, Infosys PDCs would be staffed predominantly by local people in an attempt to provide the image of a local
company-American in America, German in Germany and Chinese in China. Its first PDC was opened in Boston in 1999,
managed by a local manager who was acclimatized physically and socially to the environment, with a high awareness of
the culture and personal roots in the local community.
Developing such downstream resources often requires relatively large initial investments that take time to generate
positive returns. Worse still, half-hearted measures rarely work. This is why most companies shy away from making such
investments and even those who dip their toes withdraw rapidly when their over-optimistic projections fail to
materialize. Yet, in the long run, these investments prove to be the most vital for building a sustainable process of
internationalization. Also, while expensive to start with, once such facilities take root in the local market, they become
incredibly valuable. Ranbaxy has invested patiently over the years in building up its local unit in Shanghai. But, over time,
the unit has not only become a very powerful vehicle for the company to develop its branded generics business in China-
one of Ranbaxys brands now features among the top thirty pharmaceutical brands in the country-it routinely receives
very large offers from multinationals who love to acquire the fruits of Ranbaxys patient efforts.
While building downstream capabilities is difficult, moving upstream in the value-added chain is often an even more
difficult task, but companies that view their international expansion as an opportunity to learn find it is perfectly feasible
to do so. This was clearly the strategy behind Ranbaxys commitment to move its international business out of the bulk
intermediates sales where it got its start.
Ranbaxys research capability was born of necessity when its long-term distributor agreement for an Italian
pharmaceutical company was cancelled. Forced to manufacture its own products, the company soon developed the
processing expertise in manufacturing sophisticated chemical entities. Under Indian law, this capability allowed Ranbaxy
to produce existing drugs, even those under patent, as long as a novel production process was employed.
When price controls in India limited growth and profit opportunities at home, the company began expanding abroad
during the 1980s. It was not until 1993, however, that Dr. Parvinder Singh committed to making Ranbaxy a truly
international research-based pharmaceutical company with revenue of $1 billion and the development of one new
chemical entity (NCE). The latter objective would be particularly challenging, since Dr. Singh was determined to achieve it
with less than $100 million of investment rather than the $300 million or more typically spent in the development of a
new drug.
By the late 1990s, Ranbaxys commitment was evident in the first-rate R &D lab the company had built, the 250
scientists it had employed, and the 4 to 6 percent of sales it was investing in research. Internationally, its business shifted
from supplying bulk chemicals to selling formulated products, often adapted to local markets. Dr. Singh believed that
experience gained in drug formulation, registration, manufacturing and marketing would build the capabilities for the
NCE with $400 to $500 million sales potential beyond 2003.
Capturing others capabilities: sometimes companies have neither the need nor the means to build new
competencies internally, yet they lack some vital capability to move up the value curve. But one of the great benefits of
international expansion is the exposure it gives management to different companies with complementary capabilities and
a mutual interest in cooperation.
The simplest-though not always the most economic-way to capture others expertise is to acquire it. This strategy is
particularly appropriate when an internationalizing company wants to gain a quick entry into a market and create a
capability base on which to build. One of Infosys stated objectives for listing on the NASDAQ is to raise resources for
acquiring a few small and specialized companies abroad. Ranbaxy has already made a number of such acquisitions


including that of Ohm Labs, a US-based generics company with strong formulation capability and FDA approval
experience that would be vital to its American business. Tata Tea is clearly following this strategy, and on a bigger scale
than any other Indian company, through its acquisition of Tetley.
Frequently, however, Indian companies are capital constrained, particularly if they are expanding into multiple new
markets simultaneously. Alliances and partnerships can provide these companies with the means to leverage their own
resources and core competencies while capturing the supplemental resources and capabilities the partners bring. The
key, however, is to ensure that the partnerships are built on genuine mutuality rather than a one-way dependence that
results in an obsoleting bargain.
This is one area where Indian companies appear to face some particular difficulties. Their experience with joint ventures
within India have been relatively disappointing. Abroad, they have fared even worse. Very few Indian companies seem to
have been able to effectively use the alliance route for developing resources and capabilities abroad.
Ranbaxy, for example, had set up a high-profile alliance with Eli Lilly in the United States. Ranbaxy had devised a new low-
cost process for manufacturing Cefaclor, Lillys best-selling antibiotic. The promise of the alliance was that Ranbaxys
competencies in low-cost production through process innovation would allow Lilly to compete in the genericized Cefaclor
market in the US, after expiry of the drugs patents. In return, Lilly would use its enormous distribution and marketing
muscle in the US to help Ranbaxy access the market for its other products. While this alliance has been of some initial
usefulness for Ranbaxy, it has not substantially supported its marketing efforts in the US, in part because of Lillys
growing disaffection with the generics business.
International experience suggests that Indian companies should be able to do a lot more through alliances. Perhaps there
is something in the psyche of Indian management that hinders their ability to work horizontally, in a partnership mode,
with foreign firms. The ability to form, sustain and learn from alliances may well be a core competency that intending
multinationals from India will have to acquire or develop.
The power of an alliance-based strategy of internationalization is manifest in the experience of Acer, the Taiwanese
computer company. As we described in the introductory section, Acer has grown from a local supplier of IT services in
Taiwan to a major global PC manufacturer in less than two decades. Stan Shih, Acers founder and CEO, based his
companys overseas expansion on extensive use of partnerships and alliances, even making this approach a part of the
companys cultural norms. Believing that his upstart could never follow the approach of the resource-rich established
multinationals-the nobility in his words-he adopted an expansion strategy that deliberately aligned his company with
other commoners-mass-market customers, supplier-Partners, owner-employees and local shareholders. In Acers
multinational expansion, this commoners culture manifests itself in a philosophy he described as global brand, local
touch, with the second part of the motto being implemented as a series of national distribution companies with local
majority shareholding. Believing that such an organization brought huge resources leverage, Shihs objective was 21 in
21-to have Acer evolve into a worldwide federation of twenty-one publicly listed companies by the twenty-first century.
Protecting the past, building the future
It makes enormous commitment-both human and financial-for smaller companies in the backwashes of the global
economy to launch an attack on overseas markets. And it takes even more determination to use that initiative to build
sustainable advantage by moving up the value curve.
There are two types of traps aspiring multinationals can fall into during this process. The first, and by far the most
common, is the timidity trap. As was the case with Bajaj Auto, even the most successful domestic companies often fail to
push their competitive base beyond their home market. With the luxury of local opportunities as their security blanket,
managers in such companies ignore, postpone or under invest in their commitment to leveraging and expanding their
competitive advantage in foreign markets. But, as so many have subsequently learned at great cost, if you dont seek out
the global competitive environment, it will soon enough seek you. Today Bajaj Auto is competing against every major two-
wheeler manufacturer in the world in its own home market.
Yet there is another risk for internationalizing companies that lies at the other end of the spectrum-one we might call the
macho trap. These are the companies that become so seduced by the huge opportunities they see abroad and so
mesmerized by the chance to move up the value curve that they ignore or even destroy their foundation to build their
new overseas business. Such an approach quickly becomes a blueprint for building castle in the air. In many ways, this is
precisely what happened with ITC, in its heady days of trying to become an Indian multinational, and, to a lesser extent, in
the case of Arvind Mills.
The challenge for those who plan to scale the value curve as they internationalize is to keep a balance between building
on and protecting their historical assets and resources while using the overseas expansion to leverage and expand them
for the future. This means supporting existing business in the home market and harnessing them for the resources to
build higher level business capabilities through offshore forays. In short, management must not only focus on where it is
going to, it must recognize where it is coming from. It must maintain a strict discipline of building the future on the solid
foundations of protecting the past.
This task is greatly facilitated by two powerful management decisions. Most successful value curve migrators create
separate but linked organizational units to manage the capability upgrading triggered by their international expansion.
And they also bring in or assign strong managers to head these new entities and become the engines driving the
companys ascent up the value curve.


New tasks, new units: Typically the market structures and consumer needs in international markets differ significantly
from those of the home model. And, if a company is to open using its overseas expansion to build new competitive
capabilities, it will find that the drivers of success for businesses at different points of the value curve are quite different.
Not surprisingly, therefore, companies moving up the international value curve often find themselves constrained by their
traditional organizational units built develop and deliver their historically successful business models.
The most common first response to this situation is to create a separate geographically-based organization from that frees
up those exploring new markets to adapt and respond to those differences. This was the approach taken by Ranbaxy as it
established its region-based structure. Eventually, however, companies must ensure that such organizational units do not
become isolated, cut off or compartmentalized. If internationals role is not only to provide incremental sales and profits,
but also to access the information, knowledge and capabilities needed to move up the value curve, then management must
ensure it closely linked with the base business.
The most effective solution is to create an organization model that allows the geographically separated units to be
overlaid with structures and processes that allow each business to be managed on an integrated worldwide basis,
including the home market. This is the type of organization Acer decided to implement in what CEO Stan Shih described
as his client-server organization model. With the underpinnings of his philosophy of global brand, local touch and
building on the local partnerships Acer had formed worldwide, Shih created an organization built on four major Strategic
Business Units (SBUs) and four key Regional Business Units (RBUs). Each of the SBUs was held responsible for managing
one of Acers core businesses worldwide (peripherals, semiconductors, etc.) while RBUs managed all businesses in their
region (Europe, North America, or elsewhere).
Infosys has created a similar worldwide alignment of its different businesses through its SBU structure. Its eight strategic
business units each focuses on specific industry segments, so as to build and exploit domain knowledge, i.e., knowledge
about the clients businesses-and skills-related to the unique demands of those businesses. On the other axis of the
organization, eight departments provide functional support to the board, to the company, and to operations. Linkages
across the SBUs and client needs in different markets are maintained both through fluid movement of people across the
different organizational units and also through institutionalized mechanisms such as an intranet-based Body of
Knowledge database that allows everyone in the organization to access information acquired by the company on
different customers, technologies, methodologies and projects.
Matrix organizations such as these are notoriously difficult to manage, and like most companies, Acer and Infosys have
faced their share of integrative difficulties. But living in a world of complex and contradictory product and market
imperatives, and operating with a strategy that requires managing increasingly sophisticated business models, from
generics to patented drugs or from computer components to integrated systems, companies have little choice but to learn
to meet these challenges.
New roles, new skills: But structure alone wont solve the problem of building for the future on the solid foundation of
the past. One key reason why companies find it so hard to move up the value curve is that they cannot overcome the
biases of those who grew up managing their traditional business model or offset the power base they acquired in doing
so.
To represent the diverse needs of foreign markets and to develop strategies appropriate for businesses further up the
value curve, new managers are often needed. These managers must not be captives of the conventional wisdom that often
dominates a companys way of doing things. And they must be strong enough to represent the different point of view that
will emerge as they learn to serve new product segments in new geographic markets.
For many companies, this has meant bringing in strong outsiders who brought with them the knowledge of the new
businesses further up the value curve. This was Ranbaxys motive in hiring the experienced pharmaceutical executive to
head its European division. This is also why Infosys is recruiting strong local managers to manage its Proximity
Development Centres.
There is another vital qualification, however. Because they sit at a intersection between the new business and the old,
these key individuals must be accommodative team players. They must have the credibility to capture resources from the
core and invest them profitably in the periphery. And they must have the skill to take the knowledge and experience
accumulated in the new business and transfers the learning to the old.

1. Do you agree with the statement PROTECTING THE PAST BUILDING THE FUTURE:-
a) Strongly go with the statement.
b) Partially go with the statement.
c) Fall out with the statement.
d) Doubtful.
e) None of these.
2. What are the requirements for building up of sustainable growth?
a) A strong sense of purpose.
b) Outstanding market intelligence.
c) Effective growth planning system.
d) Find, train, and retain the best and brightest people possible.
3. According to the passage what do you understand by sustainable advantage?


a) Strategic advantage one business entity has over its rival entities within its competitive industry.
b) Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generations.
c) Creating and maintaining three types of capital i.e. social, economic, and natural.
d) Firms efficiently creating and using resources.
4. What is the central idea of the passage?
a) Building for the future requires strong foundation in past and present.
b) Strong management and administration control is necessary for each and every company.
c) Creditability of capturing resources and using them for the profitability of business.
d) Achieving competitive advantage is necessary for strengthening and maintaining the position of the business better
within the business environment.
e) Acquire or develop an attribute or combination of attributes that allows it to outperform its competitors in business
environment.
5. According to the passage, SBU signifies:-
a) External market where management can conduct strategic planning in relation to products and markets.
b) As the most effective factor in developing and implementing the policies of any company or business unit.
c) The approach to encourage new ways of thinking to reorganize the parts of the company into largely autonomous
groups.
e) None of these.
6. What are the risks involved in internationalizing companies?
a) Foreign location.
b) Proportion of revenue exposure a firm has in that location.
c) Only options a and b.
7. The Style of the passage can be best described as:-,
a) An objective analysis.
b) A detailed critique.
c) A compelling argument.
d) A scholarly dissertation.
e) None of these.

Ratio, Proportion & Variation: N M N M N M

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(c) cant be determined (d) none of these

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