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1
Q. No. 1 25 Carry One Mark Each

1. A random variable X has a pdf ( )
( <


=
`

)
4
X
C 1 x if x 1
f x
0 otherwise
. Then
1
P X
2

<
`
)
is
(A) 0.617 (B) 0.325 (C) 0.513 (D) 0.217

2. The Characteristic Equation of a matrix A is
2
1 0 = . Then
(A)
1
A does not exist


(B)
1
A A I

= +
(C)
1
A A I

=
(D)
1
A

exists but cannot be determined from the data given



3. The Eigen values of a Skew Symmetric matrix are
(A) Negative (B) Real
(C) Absolute value of one (D) Purely Imaginary or zero

4. The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel-out, right-shift, shift register
shown in the given figure is 0110. After three clock pulses are applied, the
contents of the shift register will be






(A) 0000 (B) 0101 (C) 1010 (D) 1111

5. ( ) f z u iv = + and z is analytic function. Given that
3 2
u x 3xy = . The analytic
function f(z) is (where c is a constant)
(A)
3
z c + (B)
3
z c + (C)
3
2z c + (D)
3
2z c +

6. Find the resolution of the spectrometer required to separate the ions A and B
having their molecular masses as 12.672 units and 12.566 units.
(A) 80 (B) 90 (C) 105 (D) 120

7. A glass plate is used as a polarizer. The refractive index of the glass is 1.54, then
the angle of refraction of the beam is
(A) 57 (B) 28 (C) 33 (D) 62
0 1 1 0
clock
serial in

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2
8. The autocorrelation function of a wide sense stationary random process is
( )
2
xx
R a exp
b
(
| |
= (
|
\ (

. The Power Spectral Density of the signal is
(A)
2 2
b
4
ab e
2

(B)
2 2
b
4
ab e

(C)
2 2
b
2
1
. e
ab 2

(D)
2 2
b
2
ab e



9. Which of the following can be a valid power spectral density of any real random
process?
(1)
2
2
16

+
(2) ( )
2
1
16
+
+
(3)
2
16

+

(4)
2
10


(5)
2
2
j
16

+

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3, 4 and 5 (C) Only 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 4

10. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The transient response of the thermocouple depends on the junction size. The
larger the size, the faster the response
(B) The frequency response of RTD is similar to that of a second order instrument
(C) The response of a thermocouple is faster as compared to an ordinary
thermocouple
(D) Installing a wrong type of thermocouple at a site is a gross error

11. Which of the following controllers can be used to avoid any offset in the
response?
(A) Proportional control with low gain (B) Derivative control
(C) Integral control (D) Both (A) and (C)

12. A Si transistor with 30 = is connected as shown in figure. Calculate V
o
and find
out region of operation.

(A) 0.2 V, Active

(B) 0.2 V, saturation

(C) 1.2 V, Active

(D) 1.2 V, cutoff

13. Arrange the following in decreasing order of sensitivity where
O
S is Open Loop
Sensitivity and
C
S is Closed Loop Sensitivity.
S = Sensitivity; T = Overall Transfer Function; G = Forward Path Transfer
Function; H = Feedback Path Transfer Function, ( ) ( ) G s H s 1 >
15k
12 V
12 V
100k
=
CC
V 12V
2.2k
O
V
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3
(A)
G G H
T T T
O C C
S S S > > (B)
G G H
T T T
C O C
S S S > <
(C)
G H G
T T T
O C C
S S S > > (D)
G H G
T T T
C C O
S S S > >

14. By the use of derivative control action in a process
(A) The order of the response does not change
(B) The order of the response increases by unity
(C) The order of the response increases by two
(D) The order of the response decreases by one
15. Consider a Causal Sequence x n (

with z-transform ( )
( ) ( )
1
1 1
1
1 z
2
X z
1 6z 1 5z


| |

|
\
=


If a new sequence
n
y n a x n = ( (

is formed, then for what values of a the
sequence y n (

is minimum phase?
(A)
1
a
6
< (B)
1
a
5
< (C) a 2 < (D) No possible values

16. Two eight point sequence
1
x n (

and
2
x n (

are shown below.







If ( ) ( )
1 1 1
x n X k DFT of x n ( (

and ( ) ( )
2 2 2
x n X k DFT of x n ( (

then
(A) ( ) ( )
1 2
X k X k = (B) ( ) ( ) ( )
k
2 1
X k 1 X k =
(C) ( ) ( )
1 2
X k X k = (D) ( ) ( )
2
j .k
8
2
X k e X k

=

17. Manometers used for the pressure measurement are
(A) Zero order instrument (B) First order instrument
(C) Second order instrument (D) Third order instrument

18. The rank of a 7 x 5 Matrix A is 5 and the rank of 5 x 7 Matrix B is 3. Then
minimum rank of the product of the two matrices A and B is ______.

19. The thickness of a liver tissue is estimated by allowing an ultrasonic beam to
incident on it, the attenuation of the beam after passing the liver is 50%. If the
attenuation coefficient of the liver tissue is
1
1.22mm

, then the thickness of the


tissue is _______ (in mm).
1
2
3
2
1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
n
0
1
2
3
2
1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
n
0
[ ]
1
x n [ ]
2
x n
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20. The input impendence Z for the network shown below (at room temperature) is
_________ (in ohms).











21. Voltage across the initially uncharged capacitor at = t RC is _______ (in Volts).







22. The current through a resistor of 2 is given by ( ) =
2
i t cos t . The energy
dissipated in the resistor from = =
0 1
t 0 to t 5sec is _______ (in Joules).

23. For the phase lag compensator, which of the following is true?
(A) Gain crossover frequency increases, speed of response reduces
(B) Gain crossover frequency increases, speed of response increases
(C) Gain crossover frequency decreases, speed of response reduces
(D) Gain crossover frequency decreases, speed of response increases

24. At its rated load of 25 VA, a 100/5 A current transformer has an iron loss of 0.4
W and a magnetizing current of 1.5 A. Calculate its ratio error and phase angle
when supplying rated output to a meter having a ratio of resistance to reactance
of 4.
(A) -1.429%; 0.72 (B) +1.429%; 0.72
(C) -14.29%; 1.5 (D) +14.29%; 1.5

25. A resistor has the following color codes:
Color Band 1: Brown
Color Band 2: Green
Color Band 3: Orange
Its resistance is
(A) 10 K (B) 15 K (C) 20 K (D) 20 M
F
R
i
I
0
I
180k
9V
2.7k
10 F
O
Z
Z
= 200
O
V
12V
t 0 =
R 10K =
C 1 F =
i
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5
Q. No. 26 51 Carry Two Marks Each

26. The value of the integral
2
0
d
3cos 5

is
(A) (B) 2 (C)
2

(D)
4



27. Consider the response of a system is given by + =
2
2
d i
i V
dt
. If the excitation is
=
t
V Ke , then the force response of i for t 0 > will be
(A)
t
K
e
2
(B)
t
K
e
3
(C)
t
K
e
2

(D)
t
K
e
3



28.
( )
2
x
lim x x x

+ =
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
2

(C) 1 (D)

29. ( ) ( ) { } ( ) ( )
2
If F x f g x , g 1 2, g' 1 3, = = = ( ) ( ) = = f 2 4, f ' 2 5,
Then ( ) F ' 1 will be
(A) 60 (B) 120 (C) 30 (D) Data insufficient

30. Consider the following statements.
1. If a particle has a constant acceleration, then its position function is a cubic
polynomial.
2. If f(x) is differentiable on the open interval (a, b), then by mean value
theorem there is a number c in (a, b) such that ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) = b a f ' c f b f a .
3. If
x
lim


( )
k
0
f x
= for every number k, then ( )
x
lim f x

=
4. If f(x) has an absolute or local minimum at x = c, then f(c) = 0
The correct statements are
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3 and 4

31. A source emits seven messages with probabilities
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
, , , , , ,
2 4 8 16 32 64 64

The efficiency and redundancy of the code word are (Use Shannon Fano coding)
(A) 100% and 0% respectively (B) 80% and 20% respectively
(C) 75.6% and 24.4% respectively (D) 63.2% and 36.8% respectively
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32. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the initial inductor current and voltage
across the capacitor are 0 A and 2 V respectively. When the switch is closed at t
= 0, then the values of V and
dV
dt
will be respectively
(A) 2 V, 4 V / Sec
(B) 2 V, 4 V / Sec
(C) 2 V, 4 V / Sec
(D) 2 V, 4 V / Sec

33. The transfer function of a process is X(s). If the process also has a dead time of 2
sec, then the overall transfer function of the process is
(A)
( )
0.5s
e X s
+
(B)
( )
0.5s
e X s

(C)
( )
2s
e X s
+
(D)
( )
2s
e X s



34. The value of b such that

+ + +
+
2
2
x 2
bx 15x 15 b
lim exists
x x 2

is ________.


35. Consider a super heterodyne receiver designed to receive the frequency band of 1
to 40 MHz with IF frequency 10 MHz. An incoming signal with carrier frequency of
12 MHz is received at 12 MHz setting, but at the output of the receiver another
station also heard due to interference with some other carrier frequency. The
carrier frequency of the interfering signal is _______ (in MHz).

36. In a moving coil galvanometer with free periodic time of 5 seconds, a current of
1 A gives a deflection of 10cm on a scale of 200 cm. The moving system has a
moment of inertia of

6 2
1 10 kgm . The total resistance in the galvanometer
circuit for critical damping is _______ (in k).

37. The coil of a moving coil voltmeter is 20 mm long and 10 mm wide and has 150
turns on it. The control spring exerts a torque of


6
100 10 N m when the
deflection is 100 divisions on full scale. If the flux density of the magnetic field in
the air gap is 1 Tesla, the resistance that must be put in series with the coil to
give one volt per division is ______ (in k).
(The resistance of the voltmeter coil may be neglected)

38. A sample & hold (S/H) circuit having a holding capacitor of 1 nF is used at the
input of an ADC (analog to digital converter). The conversion time of ADC is 1
sec , and during this time the capacitor should not lose more than 0.5% of the
charge put across it during the sampling time. The maximum value of the input
signal to S/H circuit is 5 V. The leakage current of S/H circuit should be less than
________ (in A)
t 0 =
1F
0.25H V 0.25
2 V
+

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39. The sensitivity of overall transfer function with respect to changes in parameter
K,
T
K
S will be





(A)
+
+ +
n
2 2
n n
s 2
s 2 s K
(B)
2
n
2 2
n n
s 2 s
s 2 s K
+
+ +

(C)
2
n
2 2
n n
s 2 s
s s 2K
+
+ +
(D)
2
n
2 2
n n
s s
s 2 s 2K
+
+ +


40. Given state equation for system. For complete controllability, which of the
following condition is true?


= + = +
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
. .
1 1 1 1
x x u; x x u
T T T T

(A)
1 2
T 2T = (B)
2 1
T 2T = (C)
1 2
T T = (D)
1 2
T T

41. For the root contour of parameter ' ' , determine the breakaway points.






(A) 1, 1.66 (B) 0.9, 1.5 (C) 1, 1.66 (D) 1, 1.5

42. For the differential amplifier shown in figure, determine the voltages at the
collector of each transistor and the differential voltage gain.
Assume = = =
BE fe ie
V 0.7V, h 100, h 3.9k and =
s
R 1k .

(A) 13.2V, 13.2V, 34.69

(B) 1.32V, 13.2V, 3.469

(C) 13.2V, 1.32V, 34.69

(D) 13.2V, 13.2V, 346.9
( )
1
s s 4 +
+ 5s
s
+

( )
2
n
n
s s 2

+
K
+

15V +
6.8k 6.8k
01
V
02
V
27k
15V
in
V
S
R
S
R
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43. In the differentiating circuit shown in figure, the function of
1
R is to








(A) Enable circuit to approach ideal differentiator
(B) Maintain high input impedance
(C) Eliminate high frequency noise spikes
(D) Prevent oscillations at high frequency

44. For suppressing errors that persists for longer times, which of the following
techniques are useful?
(A) Integral square error (B) Integral absolute error
(C) Integral time absolute error (D) Both (A) and (B) are used

45. Consider the system shown in figure.






Which of the following is correct?
(A) System is non-linear, memory-less, causal, time invariant and stable
(B) System is non-linear, with memory, causal, time variant and stable
(C) System is linear, memory-less, causal, time invariant and stable
(D) System is linear, memory-less, causal, time variant and stable

46. In a time of flight mass spectrometer, the tube has a drift length of 200 cm and
the accelerating voltage is 4200 V. The difference in arrival time between ions of
m/e = 45 and m/e = 40 is _______ (s).

47. An ECG amplifier has a Common Mode Rejection Ratio of 60dB. The input signal
to the amplifier has a magnitude of 20mV. The amplifier output has 60mV of
signal and 2 V of the noise. The amplitude of the input noise to the amplifier is
_______ (in mV).
1
R
i
V
CC
V
EE
V
O
V

+
C
f
R
comp
R
( ) x t
multiplier
( ) ( )
c
y t x t cos t =
c
cos t
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Common Data Questions: 48 & 49

Consider a message signal m(t)=cos 2000 t which undergoes Phase Modulation
and frequency modulation separately.
The frequency sensitivity constant
6
f
K 10 =
The phase sensitivity constant =
P
K 10

48. The bandwidth of phase modulated signal and frequency modulated signal are
respectively
(A) 42 and 102 kHz (B) 22 and 51 kHz
(C) 22 and 102kHz (D) 42 and 51 kHz

Consider a message signal m(t)=cos 2000 t which undergoes Phase Modulation
and frequency modulation separately.
The frequency sensitivity constant
6
f
K 10 =
The phase sensitivity constant =
P
K 10

49. If message signal frequency is doubled, then bandwidths of PM and FM
respectively are
(A) 84 and 204 kHz (B) 44 and 102 kHz
(C) 44 and 104 kHz (D) 42 and 102 kHz

Common Data Questions: 50 & 51

An inductive pick up operating from a 120 tooth wheel is used with a digital
frequency meter to measure the speed of rotation of the shaft on which the wheel
is mounted. The gating period is set to 10
4
s and a reading of 0030 is obtained
on the four digit display.

50. This represents a shaft speed of ______ (in r.p.s).

An inductive pick up operating from a 120 tooth wheel is used with a digital
frequency meter to measure the speed of rotation of the shaft on which the wheel
is mounted. The gating period is set to 10
4
s and a reading of 0030 is obtained
on the four digit display.

51. If the available gating periods are 10
2
, 10
3
, 10
4
, 10
5
, 10
6
, 10
7
s respectively,
then the optimum setting of gating period for making this measurement is
________ (in milliseconds).
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10
Linked Answer Questions: Q.52 to Q.55 Carry Two Marks Each

Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 52 & 53

An optical fiber having a core diameter of 50 m has refractive index of core and
cladding as 1.6 and 1.65 respectively.

52. The fiber is surrounded by air as the surrounding medium (refractive index of air,
=
air
1), find the acceptance angle (in degrees) and the numerical aperture of the
fiber respectively.
(A) 14, 0.40 (B) 23.7, 0.40 (C) 16.1, 0.52 (D) 31.7, 0.52

An optical fiber having a core diameter of 50 m has refractive index of core and
cladding as 1.6 and 1.65 respectively.

53. If the optical fiber is now used in a dusty medium having refractive index 1.26,
find the acceptance angle of the fiber.
(A) 9.6 (B) 24.37 (C) 16.23 (D) 18.5

Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 54 & 55

The following program starts at location 0100H

LXI SP, 00FF
LXI H, 0710
MVI A, 20H
SUB M

Value at location 0710H is 00H

54. The content of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0109H is
(A) 20H (B) 02H (C) 00H (D) FFH

The following program starts at location 0100H

LXI SP, 00FF
LXI H, 0710
MVI A, 20H
SUB M

Value at location 0710H is 00H

55. If in addition, following code exists from 0109H onwards
ORI 40H
ADD M
Then what will be the result in the accumulator after the last instruction is
executed?
(A) 40H (B) 20H (C) 60H (D) 42H
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Q. No. 56 60 Carry One Mark Each

56. Which of the following is closest in meaning to appease?
(A) Aggravate (B) Incite (C) Tease (D) Pacify

57. Pick up the statement which is the best way to express the underlined part of the
statement.
As the worlds major economies continue to lose steam, the odds of a recovery
led by a rejuvenated US look increasingly remote.
(A) Look increasing remote (B) looks more remote
(C) Is remotely increasing (D) Is increasing remotely

58. Fill in the Blanks
Scientists at Tel Aviv University tracked pollution trends for 189 megacities,
_______ Mumbai, New York City and Tokyo, by analyzing eight years' worth of
data from three of NASA's high-tech aerosol monitoring satellites.
(A) Between (B) Including (C) From (D) In

59. Pick the odd one out from following words.
Bluster Noise Rant Storm Bully Calm
(A) Noise (B) Rant (C) Storm (D) Calm

60. A man jogging inside a railway tunnel at a constant speed hears a train
approaching the tunnel from behind at a speed of 60 Km/hr, when he is one third
of the way inside the tunnel. Whether he keeps running forward or turns back, he
will reach the end of the tunnel at the same time the train reaches that end. The
speed at which the man is running is
(A) 12 Km/hr (B) 16 Km/hr (C) 20 Km/hr (D) 24 Km/hr

Q. No. 61 65 Carry Two Marks Each

61. The product of 3 positive integers is 36. If Riya knows the sum of the 3 numbers,
but is not able to uniquely identify the numbers, then the sum of the 3 numbers
is
(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 11

62. The mean monthly salary paid to graduating MTech class of 2011 of an
engineering college is Rs. 75,000. The mean monthly salary paid to students with
a B.Tech as their graduation qualification is Rs. 81,000. The corresponding figure
for the student with M. Sc as their graduation qualification is Rs. 45,000. What is
the percentage of students with B.Tech and M.Sc as their graduation
qualifications in the class of 2011?
(A) 16.67% with B.Tech, 83.33% with M.Sc
(B) 86.33% with B.Tech, 16.67% with M.Sc
(C) 20% with B.Tech, 80% with M.Sc
(D) 80% with B.Tech, 20% with M.Sc
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63. The following graph shows the FDI in India and China from US for the year 2001
to 2006
















Which of the following is closest to the percentage change in growth rate of India
in 2005 (over 2004) and the growth rate in 2003 (over 2002)?
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) Data Insufficient

64. A survey was conducted of 100 people to find out of their newspaper choice
among TOI, Hindu and ET. The summarized information is given below

Only TOI 18; TOI but not Hindu 23;
TOI and ET 8; TOI 28; ET 48
ET and Hindu 10; None of these three 24




What is the number of people who read all three newspapers?
(A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 8

65. Swedish researchers found men who drank 300ml of a fizzy drink a day - slightly
less than a standard can - were 40 per cent more likely to develop prostate
cancer than those who never consumed the drinks. Worryingly, the risk applied
not to early-stage disease that was spotted via blood tests but to cancers that
had progressed enough to cause symptoms, the 'Daily Mail' reported.
Which of the following is supported by the information given above?
(A) Experts believe that sugar triggers the release of the hormone insulin, which
feeds tumours.
(B) The study, published in the American Journal of Clinical Nutrition, is far from
the first to link the sugary soft drinks to poor health.
(C) Previous research has flagged up heart attacks, diabetes, weight gain, brittle
bones, pancreatic cancer, muscle weakness and paralysis as potential risks.
(D) People who consume a standard can of fizzy drink a day are at a higher risk
of developing cancer as compared to people who dont.
1000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
India China

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