July 2007 Recalls

1. Parkinsonism is due to: I. destruction of nigro-striatal dopaminergic receptors II. Long use of neuroleptic drug III. due to un- identified gene mutation a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II & III 2. The toxicity relating with the drugs that cause Rhabdomyolysis: a. hepatitis b. hemorrhagic cystitis

d. II & III only e. I, II & III 7. During depolarization I. Na+ channel opens II. K+ channels closes III. Ca++ channel closes

a. I only
b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only

e. I, II & III
8. Hyperkalemia can be caused by all EXCEPT

c. renal failure
d. ?? e. ?? 3. All these drugs can be used in myocardial infarction EXCEPT: a. metoprolol b. verapamil c. aspirin

a. vomiting b. diarrhea c. renal failure

d. ?? e. ?? 9. Which statement is true about Warfarin? a. Half-life is short (a few hours) b. Can dissolve the deep embolism c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 10. Which additive in a tablet can cause diarrhea? a. calcium carbonate

d. digoxin
e. ?? 4. If the pharmacist changed the drug from Ampicillin to Amoxicillin, this change is:

a. therapeutic alternate
b. generic c. substitutional d. ?? e. ?? 5. Nicotinic acid is a. purine b. pyrimidine

b. magnesium stearate
c. CMC d. ?? e. ?? 11. Aspirin is hydrolyzed easily and should be prepared by I. direct compression II. dry granulation III. using a starch paste a. I only b. III only

c. pyridine
d. quinoline e. biperidine 6. Which of these CCBs DOES NOT cause palpitation I.Verapamil II. Dipyridamole III. Nifedipine a. I only b. III only c. I & II only

c. I & II only
d. II & III only e. I, II, & III 12. All of the following are included in the capsule EXCEPT a. polyethylene glycol b. sorbitol c. glycerine 1

d. water
e. surfactant 18. Skin is responsible for all EXCEPT: a. excretion b. secretion c. locomotion d. ?? e. Protection

13. Which of these is/are predisposing factor for atherosclerosis? a. Tryptophan b. tyramine c. tyrosine d. ?? e. ?? 14. Lecithin is considered as a. amino acid

19. Which can protect the cell?

a. vitamin E
b. vitamin C c. histamine d. methionine e. ?? 20. Iron absorption is increased by:

b. phospholipids
c. lipid d. protein e. ?? 15. In a prescription, ou means a. right ear b. right eye c. both ears

a. ascorbic acid
b. intrinsic factor c. Vitamin B12 d. ?? e. ?? 21. Which are fat-soluble vitamins I.

d. both eyes
e. left ear 16. 5 structures, one cyclopropene, others with five-carbon aliphatic with one or two double bonds and one structure with conjugated double bond. Which one will absorb UV light more/ a. Cyclopropene b. aliphatic with two conjugated double bonds c. aliphatic with two unconjugated double bonds separated by 1 carbon d. aliphatic with two unconjugated double bonds separated by 2 carbons e. aliphatic with two double bonds on terminal carbon atoms 17. Which p is not considered as the 4ps for the consumer marketing a. product b. price c. promotion

Retinol II. Tocopherol

III. Riboflavin a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III 22. What is haploid?

a. one set of chromosomes

b. two sets of chromosomes c. gene code d. ?? e. ?? 23. Which one causes hemorrhagic cystitis? a. cyclophosphamide b. cisplatin c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 24. Which of these SSRIs can be discontinued without tapering the dose? a. sertraline b.

d. personnel
e. place

fluoxetine
2

c. fluvoxamine d. citalopram e. ?? 25. Which cannot be considered as a sign of schizophrenia/ a. hallucinations b. delusions c. social withdrawal d. bizarre behaviour e. sleep disturbance

26. What is true about Lithium a. it is used for all types of depression b. is better than chlorpromazine for mania c. its effect will take from one to two weeks 27. What is used as the first-line treatment for ADHD child?

b. advise him to go to emergency when not well c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 31. A patient can be counselled to do all of these in case of nausea due to chemotherapy EXCEPT a. eating many light meals many times b. eating food having same temperature as room temperature c. avoid too much fluid intake d. use appropriate anti-emetic e. ??

32. SD, a pregnant woman, with DVT can use all of the following EXCEPT a. heparin b. danaproid c. enoxaparin

a. Methylphenidate
b. Amphetamine c. Atomoxetine d. ?? e. ?? 28. Which is not a statistical value? a. Null hypothesis

d. warfarin
e. dalteparin 33. QD, an hypertensive man suffering from diabetic nephropathy is taking Captopril and complaining of persistent cough. The appropriate alternative will be a. HCTZ b. Lisinopril

b. p value
c. relational hypothesis d. ?? e. ?? 29. What is coefficient of variation if the SD = 3.5 and the mean is 7

c. Losartan
d. Nifedipine e. ?? 34. All these ACEIs are used once daily EXCEPT a. Fosinopril b. Quinapril c. Lisinopril

a. 0.5%
b. 50% c. 5% d. 10% e. 0.005% 30. A patient is on Salbutamol and oral corticosteroid and still complaining of shortness of breath and wheezing. Your advice shall be the following EXCEPT a. change the Salbutamol to Salmeterol

d. Captopril
e. Enalapril 35. Pro-drugs are transformed in the body to others by a. biotransformation

b. bioactivation
c. hydrolysis d. metabolism e. ?? 3

36. Which drug can be used topically to treat alopecia in a female patient?

a. Minoxidil
b. Finasteride c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 37. A clinical trial was conducted on two groups of patients; first group is on antineoplastic therapy and the second group on hemodialysis. What will be your monitoring objective? a. compliance

c. there is increased renal clearance and secretion d. ?? e. ?? 42. Intra-articular injection is administered in a. synovial fluid joints b. the bone marrow

c. joint
d. ?? e. ?? 43. Cholesterol found in:

a. Golgi body
b. plasma membrane c. nucleus d. epidermis e. ?? 44. Triametrene acts on the

b. number of survival
c. adverse effect d. ?? e. ??

a. collecting tubule
b. proximal tubule c. descending loop of Henle d. ascending loop of Henle e. ?? 45. Methotrexate-induced stomatitis is treated using a. Folic acid b. Vitamin B6 c. Niacin d. ?? e. ?? 46. An anticancer drug 400 mg has half-life of one year. How much remains after 3 years? a. 100mg b. 200g c. 150mg

38. The precipitating factors for influenza are the following EXCEPT a. b. diabetes mellitus c. myocardial infarction d. viral hepatitis e. ?? 39. XS, a patient developed pharyngitis will get

osteoarthritis

a. nephritic syndrome b. glomerular nephritis c. hepatitis

40. Plasmids are found in all EXCEPT a. Eukaryotes b. Bacteria c. Virus d. fungi e. ?? 41. A drug was given at a dose and Css was 125mg/L and the clearance was 50 ml/min. After doubling the dose the Css was 250 mg/L and the clearance 150ml/min. This means that a. hepatic enzymes are saturated

d. 50mg
25mg 47. A preparation that contains two immiscible liquids is called a. suspension b. lotion
e.

c. emulsion
d. elixir e. ointment 48. A preparation that is alcoholic and sweetened is called

b. there is increased renal clearance and absorption

a. elixir
4

b. c. d. e.

?? ?? ?? ??

d. ?? e. ?? 56. Which is the correct statement about the advantage of the pharmacy shop over herbal shop a. can charge more for drugs

49. Glutathione consists of a. Glutamate, aspartate and leucine b. Adenosine, cytosine and guanine c. Two amino acids d. Methionine, cytosine and cysteine

b. can give opinion over doserelated drug interactions

c. more friendly d. e. ?? 57. Sweat is secreted in the ear by: a. vestibular gland

e. Glutamate, Glycein and Cystein

50. Not in DNA a. cytosine

b. sebaceous gland?
c. mastoid gland d. ceruminous gland e. ?? 58. What is true about bacteriostatic and bactericidal agents? a. bacteria can grow after bactericidal Tx

b. uracil
c. thymine d. adenine e. guanine 51. Etiology means a. name of disease

b. cause of disease
c. origin of disease d. ?? e. ?? 52. Migraine cause this type of headache

b. bacteria can grow after bacteriostatic Tx

c. bactericidal is longer in action d. ?? e. // 59. The following have flexor muscle movement EXCEPT a. arm b. leg c. ankle

a. b. throbbing headache
c. severe headache d. ?? e. ?? 53. Warfarin is monitored by

d. tongue
e. neck 60. Which of the following helps in the absorption of iron a. Folic acid

a. INR
b. aPTT c. vitamin K deficiency d. ?? e. ?? 54. Calcitonin is stimulated by:

b. Ascorbic acid
c. Nicotinic acid d. B12 e. ?? 61. Alpha blocker can cause the following EXCEPT

a. hypercalcemia
b. ?? c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 55. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by a. Cyclophosphomide b. ?? c. ??

a. tardive dyskinesia
b. c. d. e. ?? ?? ?? ?? 5

62. The cause/s of hypothyroidism include

a. Hashimotos disease b. I131 treatment of thyroid cancer

c. Graves disease 63. Metformin

d. II & III only e. I, II & III 68. Probenecid acts on the kidney and enhances the activity of a. thiazides b. spironolactone

c. penicillin
d. aldosterone e. ?? 69. All of the following are used in HPLC EXCEPT a. electrochemical detector

a. lactic acidosis
b. ?? c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 64. Vincristine acts by

b. gas
c. stationary phase d. pump e. ?? 70. The price of OTC drugs sold in pharmacies is regulated by a. Canadian Pharmacists Association b. Consumers Association c. Patent medicine Pricing Board

a. inhibition of microtubule formation

b. c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 65. Orlistat acts by

a. inhibiting fat absorption

b. ?? c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 66. Sidenafil can be taken with the following EXCEPT a. digoxin

d. Pharmacy owner
e. ?? 71. Diabetic nephropathy is controlled by all EXCEPT a. Glucose contol b. blood pressure control

c. use fibre diet

d. ACE inhibitor e. ARBs 72. After RBCs which is largest in number a. stem cells b. monocytes

b. nitrate
c. propranolol d. ?? e. ?? 67. DD is on contraceptive pills. Select correct advice that can be given to this patient. I. If you miss a dose, take 2 tablets the following day and continue to the end of the month II. If you miss 2 doses, take 2 tablets for the next two days and continue till the end of the month III. If you miss 7 doses during the 4th week, ignore these doses and continue in the next month a. I only b. III only

c. platelets
d. eosinophils e. basophils 73. What is the correct advice for a patient using Fluticasone inhaler? a. use 4 puffs per dose

b. rinse mouth after each dose

c. d. // e. ?? 74. In clinical trials for a drug, when 10003000 patients are tested, this is called a. Phase IV 6

c. I & II only

b. Phase III
c. Phase II d. Phase I e. Post marketing surveillance

achieved with the new drug over the study sample is: a. 10% b. 20% c. 30%

d. 40%
75. Two drugs have the same therapeutic effect. One drug is cheaper than the other. On what basis can you select one of the drugs e. 50% 80. In an adequately powered randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific side effect (reduction of leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 2% of study sample. In patients who received a newly discovered drug, only 1% experienced the same S/E. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that will have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this S/E in at least one patients: a. 25 b. 50 c. 75

a. Cost minimization
b. Cost of illness c. Cost of trend d. ?? e. ?? 76. What is the HLB of a mixture containing 43g of Tween 80 (HLB=15.1) and 17g Sorbitan 60 (HLB= 10.3) a. ?? b. ??

c. 13.4
d. 12.1 e. ?? 77. Prednisone 5mg tablet was prescribed for a patient. The start dose is 40mg QD to be decreased by 5mg everyday till the last day. For how many days did the patient take the drug? a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 5 e. 4 78. A stock solution is 1:750. How many mL is needed to prepare a 1:10000 solution? a. 2.4 mL b. 4.6 mL c. 1.3 mL d. 46 mL e. 0.46 mL 79. In an adequately powered randomized controlled trial conducted over two years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e., prevention of cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 5% of study sample. In the patients who received placebo, only 3% obtained the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction

d.100
e. 200 81. A drug was given 500mg Q8H. What is the Css if the clearance is 4mg/hr/L? a. // b. c. [[ d. mm e. @@ 82. Select GABA analogs from the following structures

III I II

a. I only
b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III 83. The pain of angina or MI that radiates toward the left arm is called:

a. referred pain
7

b. c. d. e.

22 22 22 22

d. Call the doctor to verify the dose

e. Call the doctor to write 40mg QD instead of 20mg BID 92. What is the end-product of protein metabolism?

84. A pharmacist is interested in buying a pharmacy business. Which things should he take into account? I. Demographic factor II. Pattern of traffic in the vicinity III. Computer hardware shop a. I only b. III only

a. Urea
b. amino acid c. pyruvate d. ?? e. ?? 93. The end product of carbohydrate metabolism is

c. I & II only
d. II & III only e. I, II, & III 85. Which is the most common type of CYP a. 2C9

a. lactic acid
b. monosaccharide c. fatty acid d. ww e. ww 94. Calcitonin is evoked by

b. 3A4
c. 1A2 d. 2D6 e. 2A4 86. The vitamin supplement needed by neonates is: a. K b. C

a. hypercalcemia
b. hypocalcemia c. hypophosphatemia d. hyperphosphatemia e. ?? 95. A woman with ovarian cyst. Which of this advice is true? I. Avoid sexual intercourse during treatment II. III. Use the diaphragm as contraceptive a. I only b. III only

c. D
d. E e. A 87. Calculation about number of Mefloquin tabs for malaria prophylaxis 88. Q on insulin needle for Im Sc injection 89. Q about the 2nd costly item in Canada health system__Doctor Salary 90. ACTH secretion 91. A patient was on Furosemide 20mg QD for 30 days. The same patient came to your pharmacy to fill a new Rx for Furosemide 20mg BID after two weeks. Apparently the patient was not aware of this change. What do you advise? a. Dispense the Rx as it is b. Dispense the Rx and tell the patient the dose has changed c. Call the doctor and ask for a change in the Rx because of the side effects

c. I & II only
d. II & III only e. I, II & III 96. GERD is defined as a. epigastric pain

b. reflux acidity from the stomach to oesophagus

c. radiating pain from the stomach d. / e. // 97. Normal threshold for fasting blood glucose for a non-diabetic patient is

a. 6 mmol/L
b. 11 mmol/L c. 14 mmol/L 8

d. // e. /

a. I only
III only I & II only II & III only I, II & III 104. A man vomiting and has diarrhea can be treated by a. anti-emetic tablet b. anti-diarrheal c. fluid replacement d. ?? e. ?? 105. Reyes syndrome in a child results from a. ibuprofen b. c. d. e.

98. What is true about HbA1C? I. it is a measure of oxygenated haemoglobin II. it is useful for monitoring diabetic patients III. it is measured after a period of time a. I only b. III only c. I & II only

d. II & III only

e. I, II & III
99. What increases in metabolic alkalosis a. Calcium b. Potassium 106.

b. acetylsalicylic acid
c. acetaminophen oral d. acetaminophen rectal suppositories e. ?? RNA is synthesized from DNA by a. RNA transferase b. DNA transferase c. RNA endonuclease

c. NaHCO3
100. d. water e. CO2 The type of proteins depend on

d. RNA polymerase
e. // 107. Acetaminophen metabolism is affected by a. liver transaminase b. alanine phosphatase

a. amino acid sequence

b. c. d. e. 101. b. c. d. e. 102. peptide types ?? ?? ?? Major protein in the body

c. reactive metabolities
d. active metabolities

a. albumin
globulin fibrin ?? ?? What can protect the cell? a. Histamine b. Methionine c. Vitamin C

e. 108. Which one is not the owner of the business

a. franchise
private partner private property lease // 109. Which can be considered as complementary in Canadian Heath Act b. c. d. e.

d. Vitamin E
103. What is the advantage of Glimperide over Glyburide? (K-type) I. it causes less hypoglycaemia II. it can cause less weight gain III. //

a. Immunity
b. c. d. e. Dentist Chiropractor Acupunture ??

110. A man with gouty arthritis can use all EXCEPT a. ACE inhibitor b. ARB c. d.

b. zinc oxide ointment

c. petrolatum
117. For diaper rash, all can be used EXCEPT

HCTZ

a. cleaning with alcohol

frequent changes of the diapers zinc oxide ointment ?? ?? 118. For acute asthma all can be used EXCEPT a. Albuterol b. c. d. e.

111. All can be factors in Type I diabetes EXCEPT a. polyuria b. polydipsia

c. obesity
d. genetic e. polyphagia 112. When Sertraline therapy is discontinued, all the following are observed EXCEPT a. sweating b. anxiety c. palpitations d. nervousness

b. Salmeterol
c. salbutamol d. Terbutaline e. Beclomethasone For teething of the baby, use

119.

a. cold teething ring b. topical oral gel

c. open the nodular cyst d. ?? e. ?? 120. Bones of the skull include the following EXCEPT a. frontal b. occipital c. ethmoid

e. panic attacks
113. is The predisposing factor for stroke a. ventricular tachycardia b. myocardial infarction

c. atrial fibrillation
d. ?? e. ?? 114. All are side effects of clozapine EXCEPT

d. maxilla
121. e. sphenoid Blood reaches the brain by a. external carotid artery

a. renal failure
b. c. d. e. 115. causes b. c. d. e. GI disturbances agranulocytosis haemolytic anemia ?? Chronic use of corticosteroids

b. vertebral arteries and internal carotid artery

c. ?? d. // e. ?? 122. A lady came to your pharmacy with symptoms of exophthalmoses, palpitation and sweating. The best method to diagnose her hyperthyroidism is:

a. Cushing syndrome
osteoporosis adrenal hypertrophy ?? ?? 116. Uncomplicated diaper rash can be treated with a. calamine lotion

a. TSH assay
b. c. d. e. TSH levels in the blood stimulation of thyroid gland ?? ?? 10

123. The toxicity of Acetaminophen can be treated by a. N-acetylcysteine b. naloxone c. EDTA d. pralidoxime e. ?? f. 124. EDTA is a chelating agent for a. lead b. iron c. ascorbic acid d. potassium e. sodium

d. Staphylococcus e. Candida 129. Neonatal eye infection in Canada is caused mainly by

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Candida albicans c. Pseudomonas aeuruginosa(FOR ADULTS) d. Staphylococcus aureus e. E. coli 130. Candida infection in a woman can cause a. fishy odor b. inflammation

125. Monoclonal antibody is defined as a. antibody that act on single antigen b. antibody that acts by one mechanism only
c. / d. ?? e. ?? 126. If the blood pressure of a patient is 150mmHg, how much will you inflate the pressure to measure the BP accurately? a. 200mmHg b. 210mmHg

c. cheese-like discharge
131. d. frequent urination e. acidic pH Pyuria and bacterimea are signs of

a. UTI
glomerular nephritis nephritic syndrome renal failure >? 132. Advise patient to drink plenty of water for I. Allopurinol II. Alendronate III. Ifosfamide a. I only b. III only b. c. d. e.

c. 180mmHg
d. 150mmHg e. 120mmHg 127. The clearance of a drug is 300ml/min for a patient with renal clearance of 120ml/min. The drug is excreted by a. glomerular filtration

c. I & II only
d. II & III only e. I, II & III 133. Dimenhydrinate was prescribed for a patient using a diaphragm for contraception in order to prevent

I. itching
II. nausea and vomiting III. infection a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II & III Antimuscarinic drugs act mainly

b. glomerular filtration and passive tubular excretion

c. passive tubular absorption d. passive tubular reabsorption e. ?? Toxic shock syndrome is caused a. Enterococcus b. streptococcus c. E. coli 134. on

128. by

a. nicotinic receptors
b. basal ganglia 11

c. mu receptors d. kappa receptors e. ??

b. actin c. actimysin

d. inhibin
e. ?/

135. The dose of a drug is 500mg/8hr. The clearance is 7ml/min and the bioavailability is almost 1. What is the Css? a. 9.0mg/L b. 4.5mg/L c. 12.5mg/L d. 2.2mg/L e. 7.5mg/L 136. Everything mentioned is true about influenza EXCEPT

a. Vitamin E
b. c. d. e. 137. Amantadine Vitamin C ?? ?? Shingles a. ??

141. The study of differences between effects of drugs in different individuals is: a. pharmacogenetic b. variance between individuals c. ?? d. ?? e. ?? 142. What is true about sustainedrelease (SR) dosage forms? I. drugs should have short t II. used in formulation of potent drugs III. SR drugs have fewer side effects a. I only b. III only c. I & II only

d. II & III only

143. e. I, II & III Erectile dysfunction is caused by I. atherosclerosis II. hypertension III. diabetes a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only

b. Vericella zoster
c. ?? d. ??

138.

When is IgE involved a. Food allergy b. Haemolysis occur after blood transfusion due to an auto-immune response c. ??

e. I, II & III
144. Aspirin acts as an analgesic and antipyretic by

d. ?? e. ?? 139. Which of these should not be refrigerated after reconstitution?

a. inhibiting central prostaglandin synthesis

b. acting on thromboxane c. stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone d. ?? e. ?? 145. For Cholestyramine, all are true EXCEPT

a. Clarithromycin
Erythromycin Cephalexin Amoxicillin Cefuroxime 140. Which is not included in muscle contraction? a. myosin b. c. d. e.

a. it is absorbed from the stomach

12

b. c. d. e.

it lowers cholesterol it is adsorbent resin it is safe in pregnancy ??

146. Tobramycin is given as single dose because a. Tobramycin QD has less side effects

b. Tobramycin has a postantimicrobial effect

c. Tobramycin has a long t (about 24Hr) d. ?? e. ?? 147. 148. 149. ??

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