BIOL 117 EXAMINATION 1 key

October 4, 2010

Follow these directions for full credit: 1. On the top left of the answer sheet, write your LAST NAME, skip one blank space, then FULL FIRST NAME. 2. Write your B-NUMBER in the area marked Identification Number below your name. 3. Fill in the circles (#2 pencil) in the columns below your name and B-Number. 4. Write your name and grad TAs name and section number on this sheet in the spaces below. 5. Write the color of this test on the top margin of the answer sheet. 6. After the exam, read and sign the statement below and turn in both the answer sheet and exam. By signing below, I give my word that I have neither cheated on this exam, nor have I knowingly allowed any other person to cheat on this exam. NAME Signature Exam directions: There are 50 questions on the exam. Alert proctors if there are missing pages. Always read all answer choices carefully before choosing the best answer based on Biol 117 course material. Correct answers are in bold. Below each question are some general comments that may help you to understand how and why the correct answer is correct and the others are incorrect. If you have any further questions, feel free to contact your TA, or Dr. Armstrong for help. Although this information is written for Version A (white) of the exam, it is valid for Version B (blue) as well. Those of you that took version B will have to do a little extra work to match up question numbers, but it shouldnt be too difficult. Those questions marked with * indicate questions and answers that represented direct recall from lecture material and lecture notes. If all you did was write out what was shown to you on Powerpoint slides and on the overhead, and memorized the lecture notes provided to you, but didnt write anything about what I was saying during lecture, and you studied only what you wrote down, you should have been able to get these questions correct. If you got all 18 of them correct, given the current approximate curve, you would have been in the D range - passing. Therefore, in order to get into the C range, you needed to get all those and show some ability to apply/use concepts. To get into the B range, you needed to have all that plus show an ability to apply the concepts to some new situations. To get into the A range, you needed all of that plus you needed to be able to identify concepts across lectures and relate concepts to each other. Consider these issues when studying for your next lecture exam. Grad TA/section #

Number 37 on Exam A (and #41 on B) was omitted from the grading. Therefore, the grades for this exam are out of 49. 1) Which of the following is a similarity between Cell Theory and Evolutionary Theory? A) They both assume that the cell is the most basic fundamental unit of Biology. B) They both predict that all organisms share a common ancestor. C) They both depend on variation in order to be true. D) They both depend on a lack of variation in order to function. E) Neither requires heritability. *Cell theory says that all cells come from preexisting cells, and they must have come from an original cell. Evolutionary theory also says that all species originated from a common ancestral species. The most common incorrect answer chosen was A. Although cell theory does refer to cells, it acknowledges that there are certain elements in the cell (e.g. nucleus, mitochondria, etc.) that help a cell function. Also, Evolutionary theory kind of assumes that the organism is the fundamental unit. 2) Early on, we covered the idea that all scientific theories have both a pattern and a process. Which of the following is a process of Cell Theory? A) All living organisms consist of cells. B) Louis Pasteur disproved the spontaneous generation of cells hypothesis. C) Cells are bound by a thin, flexible, plasma membrane. D) All cells come from preexisting cells. E) Many of the problems that exist among cells exist among all cells. Choices A, C, and E all represent patterns of Cell theory. D by itself could be considered a pattern, but in the face of the other choices it is seen as a process for those choices. B was the disproving of a hypothesized process of cell generation, and is, therefore, not real. 3) An Organismal Biologist would be primarily concerned with which of the following? A) The rapid expansion of European Hare populations across Australia in the late 1800s. B) The occurrence of gill pouches in many different species of vertebrate embryos. C) How the structure of a pandas thumb allows it to manipulate its food. D) How the Timber and Tasmanian wolves have many similarities. E) Apple Maggot Fly speciation. Organismal biologists are concerned with how the form and physiology of a single species helps it to survive in its environment. Choices A and E are more the realm of a population biologist. Choices B and D compare species against each other and are the concern of an evolutionary biologist, who is more concerned with species-level material. 4) Which of the following is the best example of an emergent property? A) Many birds have hollow bones. B) Generally, alleles occur in pairs in individuals. C) Some bacteria gain genetic variation through transformation. D) Male-pattern baldness is a sex-linked trait. E) Sexual reproduction generally results in increased fitness of offspring as compared to asexual reproduction. This was a difficult one for 2 reasons. First, the concept of emergent properties is, at its source, a tough one to understand for many students. Second, none of the answer choices were representative of
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a specific level of the Biological Hierarchy as we discussed it in class. E is correct because the result (increased fitness) is not something you could predict given the individual players (opposing sexes). None of the other answers provide this. 5) What about Aristotles way of thinking about the natural world doesnt agree with how Darwin saw it? A) Aristotle thought typologically. B) Aristotle did not recognize that species show variation. C) Aristotle thought that variation within species was vital in understanding how species change. D) Aristotle believed that all species descended from a common ancestor. E) Aristotle believed that species change via inheritance of acquired characteristics. *This one was right from the notes and lecture. Aristotles (and Lamarcks) basic problem was that they thought typologically. That is, they considered all species to be at various stages of evolving to be humans (although Aristotle thought this way much more so that Lamarck did). The most commonly selected incorrect answer was B. As I said in class, Aristotle acknowledged variation, but felt that it was something you had to ignore in order to better understand how species varied. 6) Which of the following is not one of the components of Darwins theory of natural selection? A) All species have a common ancestor. B) All species show changes in characteristics over time. C) All species show changes in characteristics in different environments. D) Variation and environmental pressure are the keys to understanding how species change. E) Offspring inherit alleles from their parents. Nearly 75% got this one correct. The other 25% were split between A and C, both of which were described in class as part of the way in which Darwin was thinking. Although Darwin knew there was some heritable element that allowed for offspring to possess their parents traits, he did not know about alleles at the time. Several years after Darwin published his book, Mendel published his papers on genetics, and it was even longer before the world would understand what alleles are and what their function is. 7) Which of the following is a difference between artificial and natural selection? A) Specific phenotypes are selected for within a population in artificial selection, but not in natural selection. B) Humans are the selective force in natural selection, but not in artificial selection. C) The resulting phenotypes of natural selection are well-suited for life in the natural environment, where those resulting from artificial selection may not be. D) Artificial selection does not require variation in the population where natural selection does. E) Two of the above are correct. *The chief difference between natural and artificial selection is that in artificial selection, humans are the selective force, whereas nature is the selective force in natural selection (discounting B). Regardless, they both work in the same way. That is, individuals are selected for or against by a selective force (discounting A). The process of artificial selection is to select for, within the population, that which is desired in the offspring. If there is no variation in the population, artificial selection is pointless, since all either have, or do not have, the desired trait (discounting D). As stated in the lecture notes, organisms that are artificially selected for are not always well-suited to survive in

the wild. This is because the traits that we select for may run contrary to traits that are required for survival in the wild. 8) Which of the following may lead to differential reproduction? A) Virus-resistant rabbits are likely to give birth to virus-resistant offspring. B) Bacteria that cause Chlamydia vary in their ability to resist antibiotics. C) Giraffes with longer necks live longer than those with shorter necks. D) Two of the above are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. Being able to get this answer correct required that students be able to extrapolate into the future each of the scenarios set forth by each answer. All of the above answers may lead to differences in reproduction. Essentially, any trait or condition that allows individuals to survive longer than others in the population will likely lead to those individuals reproducing more in the population. 9) Which of the following represents a structural homology? A) Seals and fish have stream-lined bodies for more efficient swimming. B) Both the humans and the pandas thumbs are used for grasping. C) The timber wolf and the Tasmanian wolf both have fur. D) Bats and birds both have wings. E) Old World and New World desert plants have thorns. This question required that students go beyond association of an example with a concept. The example of the timber wolf and Tasmanian wolf was used when talking about convergent evolution (homoplasy) not homology. However, that example was used to explain that both have similar teeth and teeth structure, and walk on their toes. There are examples of convergent evolution. However, the fact that both have fur, like all other mammals represents a homology (structure in common because their common ancestor had it). All other choices are examples of convergent evolution. 10) Which of the following statements about evolution is most accurate? A) Adaptations occur randomly. B) Species can intentionally evolve certain traits. C) Adaptations are limited by ancestral traits. D) All existing traits are adaptive. E) Two of the above are correct. Almost all got this one correct. Those that didnt, most commonly chose E. Incorrect answers were split between A and D. Adaptations are not random on two accounts. Adaptations can only be constructed out of what ancestral organisms can provide (e.g., My children will not be born with blue hair, because there are no blue-haired alleles in my ancestry. Randomness would suggest that there is an equal probability of them getting the blue-haired allele and the brown-haired allele, etc.). Second, nature selects for traits that work in the current environment, not traits at random. Choice D is also incorrect, as there are many traits that exist that are not adaptive. Think vestigial trait. 11) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation? A) Male golden-winged warblers are brightly colored. B) Some European hares have lesser virus resistance. C) Inbreeding in humans. D) Modern cheetahs are almost genetically identical.
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E) Some pythons have remnants of hind limbs. *Over 80% got this one correct. Remember, adaptations are traits that provide the owner some advantage of survival in an existing environment. None of the incorrect answers do that. 12) What was the chief difference between how Lamarck and Darwin envisioned evolution? A) Darwins evolution required heritability and Lamarcks did not. B) Darwins evolution involved change at the population level, but Lamarcks had change at the individual level. C) Darwin believed variation between individuals was important, but Lamarck did not. D) Darwin believed that populations have changed over time, but Lamarck did not believe this. E) Darwin believed that the environment acts as the selective agent for evolution, but Lamarck did not believe this. Both Darwin and Lamarck agreed on the points brought up in choices A, C, D, and E. Lamarck believed that offspring resembled their parents (A), and those traits that were gained during a lifetime, while dealing with their environment (E), allowed some to better survive and reproduce and pass those traits to their offspring (C), thus changing the look of the population. 13) What does the fossil record show us? A) Species are related through genetic homologies. B) Species diversity has changed over time. C) Evidence for the biological species concept. D) Mendels law of independent assortment. E) Mendels law of segregation. *Nearly 80% got this one correct. Most of those that got it incorrect answered A. Yes we do have some ability to gain genetic information about fossilized (extinct) species, but we have very little overall genetic information about them. One of the primary things the fossil record has showed us (as presented in lecture), is that species diversity has changed over time (species have been created and gone extinct, etc.). 14) Which of following is one of the results seen in the Grants study of Galapagos finches? A) It takes several generations of environmental pressure to gain a measurable change in phenotype. B) A year of drought resulted in a population of smaller-beaked finches the following year. C) During the drought year of 1977, plants produced smaller seeds. D) During the drought of 1977, the finches on Daphne Major (their island of study) were seen on surrounding islands. E) A year of higher than average rainfall resulted in a greater number of smaller-beaked offspring. During the drought year of 1977, the Grants found that only plants producing large seeds were still growing (discounting C), which then only allowed those finches with larger beaks to survive and eat. In just a single year (discounting A) the average beak size of offspring (and thus the population) was larger (discounting B). No birds from the island were recorded on neighboring islands (discounting D). In one of the following years, a higher amount of rainfall led to another population shift in beak size: this time smaller beaks were the result. 15) Which of the following statements about evolution is most accurate?
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A) Repeated microevolutionary events can lead to macroevolution. B) Macroevolution is the evolution of larger organisms and microevolution is the evolution of smaller organisms. C) The fossil record as evidence for evolution is a microevolutionary process. D) Speciation is largely a microevolutionary process. E) Developmental homology is a microevolutionary process. *Over 75% of students got this one correct. Choices C, D, and E are all macroevolution. B is flat out wrong. Microevolution is that which takes place between generations and is a much smaller timescale that macroevolution. The creation of new species and the divergence between species is largely the realm of macroevolution. Although I did not cover this in lecture, this was discussed in the lecture notes. 16) What is the importance of variation in evolution by natural selection? A) Without it you do not get differential survival. B) Without it you do not get differential reproduction. C) Without it, natural selection does not occur. D) Two of the above are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. *Nearly 80% got this one right. Remember, differential survival is variation in survival. Similarly, differential reproduction is variation in reproduction. 17) Which of the following is not an evolutionary trend? A) An increase in multicellularity. B) An increase in complexity. C) An increase in ways to capture energy for use. D) An increase in diversity. E) None of the above. That is, all are evolutionary trends. *This was straight out of lecture and the notes. My fear is that people may have been confused by the negative in the question. Be careful. 18) Male blue-footed boobys provide nesting material to females. This is an example of which of the following? A) An adaptation only. B) An adaptation and a contrivance. C) An adaptation, a contrivance, and a vestigial trait. D) An adaptation and an exaptation. E) An adaptation and a vestigial trait. As the scenario was presented in class, male boobys provide nesting material to females as a courtship display, and, as a result, are more likely to mate with her if they do so. Therefore, C, D, and E are all incorrect. Choice B is correct because the process of providing nesting material is no longer serving the same function as it did in their ancestors, since blue-footed boobys do not build nests. Their ancestors did, and the males contribution was used for nest construction. 19) It is assumed that birds evolved from reptiles, and feathers evolved from the scales of ancestral reptiles. In this scenario, with respect to modern feathers, what are the scales of the ancestors called?
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A) Adaptations. B) Contrivances. C) Vestigial traits. D) Atavisms. E) Exaptations. Answering this one is a matter of knowing the definitions of the terms in the answers. The question asks about reptile scales as considered by the feathers. The scales are exaptations relative to the feathers. That is, they are the adaptations that existed in a different form, and led to the evolution of a current trait. 20) Which of the following statements about evolution is most accurate? A) All atavisms are exaptations. B) All vestigial traits are adaptations. C) All vestigial traits are atavisms. D) All adaptations are contrivances. E) All contrivances are adaptations. Again, you need to know the definitions of the terms for this one. And this is one I described in class. A contrivance is an adaptation that results from an ancestral trait that is used for a different purpose, or in a different way, than what, or how, it was used by the ancestor. 21) The expected values in a Chi-square analysis: A) Are the data you collect. B) Reflect the null hypothesis. C) Are calculated by subtracting 1 from the number of categories. D) Are typically calculated by dividing the sample size by 2. E) Two of the above are correct. I get the impression that if people are not sure about an answer, they choose Two of the above, All of the above, or None of the above. In a Chi-square analysis, your expected values are based on randomness occurring (= null hyp.). Sometimes you will divide your sample size by 2, but only if you have an equal probability based on a two-choice set (eg, flipping a coin or getting yes or no answers).

I performed a study determining whether students from different schools showed different preferences for different car colors. The data I collected is summarized in the table below. School Binghamton U. Cornell U. Syracuse U. Total Blue 15 10 5 30 Car Colors Red 10 25 15 50

Black 15 5 0 20

Total 40 40 20 100

The following 4 questions refer to the above study and data collected. 22) Which of the following is an appropriate null hypothesis for the study? A) Students prefer different colored cars equally.
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B) Students show preferences for different colored cars. C) Students from different schools show differences in their car color preferences. D) Students from different schools show similarities in the car color preferences. E) None of the above is correct. In this test for independence, your null hypothesis must reflect both variables (car color and school). Additionally, the null must have statements of equality or no difference. Choice D is the only one that does both. Choice A is the only other one that comes close, but only refers to students. It doesnt specify which students. 23) What is the expected value for Binghamton students preferring Blue cars? A) 10 B) 11.1 C) 12 D) 13.3 E) 15 The most common incorrect answer here was D. D was calculated by dividing the BU number by 3. This only accounts for the students that go to BU, but doesnt cover their choice for blue cars. To account for both, you need to calculate the number by using both conditions (BU and Blue). = (R x C)/T 24) What are the degrees of freedom for this analysis? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 *df = (rows-1) x (columns-1). (3-1) x (3-1) = 4

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25) If the critical value at the appropriate degrees of freedom with a p-value of 0.05 is 9.49, what can you conclude if the total Chi-square value is 21.26? A) Cornell students show a preference for red cars. B) Syracuse students dont like black cars. C) Students from the different schools show different patterns in car color preferences. D) Red cars are the significant favorite color for all students. E) Students from the different schools have similar color preferences. Nearly 80% got this one correct. ***Given the amount of time spent in lecture on Chi-square, and a lot of data analysis in lab (plantcentered data analysis, pollinator-centered data analysis, and your own data analysis for your paper), I expected a much greater percentage of students to get these 4 questions correct.*** 26) The sentence, Much of what we call instinct is the genes using our phenotypes to protect themselves until they can be passed, is a component of what biological concept? A) Mendels Law of Independent Assortment. B) Mendels Law of Segregation. C) Dawkins Selfish Gene Hypothesis. D) Zahavis Handicap Hypothesis. E) Darwins Evolutionary Theory. *This quote was straight out of the notes I provided. Nearly 80% got it correct. 27) There are over 500 alleles of the -globin gene in the human species. This is a description of which term? A) Genome. B) Gene pool. C) Genotype. D) Gametes. E) Locus.

Over 75% got this one correct. Genotype here refers to all the alleles of a certain gene. A and B refer to much larger sets of information; D much smaller, and E refers to a location. 28) If an individual has 5 pairs of chromosomes, how many genetically distinct gametes can they produce? A) 2. B) 5. C) 10. D) 32. E) 1,024. In this scenario, 5 is the haploid number. 5 pairs equals 10 total chromosomes (diploid number). The number of genetically distinct gametes = 2n, where n = the haploid number. In this case 2n = 25 = 32. Choice E is 210. 29) Which of the following is the result of transduction? A) The bacterial cell receives bacterial genetic information. B) The bacterial cell receives bacterial and viral genetic information. C) The bacterial cell receives viral genetic information. D) Two of the above are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. The question should have read, MAY be the result of transduction? Regardless, all 3 choices are possible, since transduction leads to pieces of just bacterial, bacterial plus viral, and just viral genetic material floating around in the environment. 30) If you are working with 5 genes/traits of an organism that obeys Mendels laws of inheritance and perform a standard quintahybrid cross, how many of the 1024 offspring in the F-2 generation have at least one dominant allele? A) 1. B) 5. C) 25. D) 1023. E) 1024. Many people panicked when they saw that the question required thinking about, and working with, 5 genes. If you understand the principles behind genetic crosses using Punnett squares, you do not need to map out the entire cross and its 1024 F-2 offspring. In any cross like this, the only completely homozygous recessive individual is the last one of the table. Therefore, the other 1023 must have at least 1 dominant allele in their genotype. 31) What would happen if Mendels Law of Segregation did not happen? A) With every successive generation organisms would accumulate alleles. B) With every successive generation organisms would have fewer alleles. C) There would be no variation within species. D) Crossover would not occur. E) There would be more linkage between genes. If Mendels Law of Segregation did not occur, alleles would not separate into gametes. Therefore, gametes would have 2 alleles for every gene. When these gametes are added to other gametes
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(fertilization) the resulting cell would have 4 alleles. When that individual performs meiosis, they will place the 4 alleles into their gametes. During fertilization, the resulting zygote will have 8 gametes, etc. Variation will still exist in the population, because not everyone necessarily has the same interaction of alleles (that is, dominance among alleles still exists). 32) Imagine you perform a test cross on an individual exhibiting a dominant trait. Which of the following statements about this cross is most accurate? A) If all the offspring exhibit the dominant trait, then your parent was heterozygous for the trait. B) One of the parents in this cross must be heterozygous for the trait. C) One of the parents for this cross must be homozygous dominant for the trait. D) If some of the offspring show the recessive trait, then your parent was heterozygous. E) All the resulting offspring must be heterozygous for the trait. Nearly 80% of students got this one correct. The point of a test cross is to determine if the dominant trait you see in an individual is caused by a homozygous dominant or heterozygous genotype. You perform the test cross by mating the unknown individual with a homozygous RECESSIVE individual (discounting C). If the unknown is homozygous dominant, then they can only offer up dominant alleles causing all their offspring to look dominant. If the unknown is heterozygous, they MAY produce gametes with the recessive allele. If those recessive alleles mix with the homozygous recessive crossing parent and resulting recessive allele (because thats all they can give - being homozygous recessive themselves), some of the offspring will show the recessive phenotype. 33) While working with fruit flies, T.H. Morgan performed a reciprocal cross regarding eye colors. What was one of the conclusions from this study? A) Eye color inheritance in fruit flies follows a traditional Mendelian inheritance pattern. B) Eye color in fruit flies is somehow linked to gender. C) Eye color in fruit flies is caused by an autosomal chromosome. D) Reciprocal crosses do not help sort out things like eye color inheritance in fruit flies. E) Mendels Law of Independent Assortment holds true with respect to fruit fly eye color. *95% of students got this one correct! This one was simply memorizing the lecture material. 34) Why do females typically not exhibit baldness? A) The alleles are rare enough in the population that getting 2 of them is exceptionally rare. B) They would be hemizygous for the trait. C) Their mothers would never be carriers for the allele. D) By inheriting a Y chromosome from their fathers, women are typically immune to the condition. E) None of the above is correct. Baldness in women is quite common. If the allele causing a lack of color-sightedness occurs in 10% of the population (that is, 10% of males have it), and females require both of their X chromosomes to get it (to be homozygous recessive). Then the probability of getting two recessive alleles is 10% of 10% (you multiply the probabilities together because their occurrences are independent of each other) or 1%. The most common incorrect answer was B. Hemizygous refers to having an allele for a gene on one chromosome, but that gene does not occur on the other chromosome. Males that are colorblind (as well as for almost all traits on the X chromosome) are hemizygous for the trait, since the gene does not occur on the Y chromosome.

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35) Some flowers show a blending of traits. In four-oclocks, for example, when a red flower is crossed with a white flower, the resulting offspring is pink. This is an example of what genetic condition? A) Incomplete dominance. B) Codominance. C) Polygenic effects. D) Pleiotropic effects. E) Epigenetic effects. *The answer to this question is based on your ability to memorize the definitions of the terms in the answers. I did not cover them directly in lecture, but did put them in the notes, and mentioned in lecture that you needed to know them. 36) Which of the following about gender determination is most accurate? A) To be a female, you need at least 2 Xs. B) If a person has just one X and no Y, they are a male. C) If a person has at least one Y, they are a male. D) If a person has 3 Xs they will have severe reproductive problems. E) Males with 2 Ys are taller and more aggressive that males with one Y. 80% of students got this one correct. I guess it helped that I stated the correct answer during the review session on Monday morning. 37) The example of antibiotic resistance in the Chlamydia infection scenario provided in class violates which assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) Random mating. B) No mutation. C) No migration. D) Infinite or large population size. E) No natural selection. This question was omitted. My intent was that natural selection was taking place in this system, and was, therefore, to be the correct answer. Then I remembered that the H-W equilibrium model is for sexually reproducing organisms only. Therefore, all answers violate the model. 38) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation contains the component 2pq. How is this created? A) The occurrence of the alleles pq and qp are mutually exclusive and their probabilities must be added together. B) Because 2 alleles are selected at one time, and 2p equals the genotype of p alleles, we multiply pq by 2. C) Because only 2 genotypes are created, we multiply the value pq by 2. D) Because there are 3 phenotypes, we must multiply pq by 2. E) Because there are only 2 alleles in the population, we multiply pq by 2. If there were three alleles, we multiply pq by 3. 2 pq is the same as combining the 2 heterozygotes in the monohybrid cross. That is, you cannot get pq and qp at the same time. Therefore, you add their probabilities together. But since p and q are multiplied together already, and they both equal pq, then pq + pq = 2 pq. Choices B, C, D, and E are nonsensical (Im not even sure what B means!).

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39) Imagine a population with 36% of its members exhibiting a recessive trait. Assuming H-W principles apply, what is the frequency of heterozygous individuals in the population? A) 0.2 B) 0.48 C) 0.6 D) 0.64 E) 0.8 2 If 36% of the population has the recessive phenotype, then q = 0.36. q then equals 0.6 (0.6 x 0.6 = 0.36). If q = 0.6 then p = 0.4 (since p + q = 1.0). The heterozygous genotype is determined by multiplying the product of p and q by 2 (2pq). Therefore, 2 x (0.4 x 0.6) = 0.48. Those who chose D assumed that since 36% of the population was recessive, then the rest (64%) were heterozygous. They forgot that the 64% is made up of some heterozygotes and some homozygous dominant individuals. 40) Imagine a population with a trait described by 4 alleles at one locus. The respective allele frequencies are: p = 0.4, q = 0.3, r = 0.2, and s = 0.1. What is p in the F-3 generation? A) 0.0024 B) 0.04 C) 0.1 D) 0.2 E) 0.4 I did not say that the H-W assumptions apply here. If you dont assume they apply, then none of the answers are predictable, since you dont know how frequently the alleles are chosen for mating. Assuming H-W is the only way you can get an answer here. Remember, H-W says that all allele frequencies remain the same over time. Therefore, p = 0.4 now and forever. 41) Which of the following conditions can cause an increase in allele diversity? A) Mutation. B) Natural selection. C) Genetic drift. D) Evolution. E) Two of the above are correct. Allele diversity reflects the number of distinct alleles you have in a population. Natural selection (and evolution) causes a decrease in this diversity. Genetic drift only maintains the diversity or causes it to decrease. Mutation is the only one of the above that can cause an increase in the number of allele types you have in a population. Essentially, mutation creates new alleles. I covered this point a couple times is lecture. 42) Which of the following is an example of assortative mating? A) RR x rr. B) Rr x rr. C) Rr x RR. D) RRss x rrSS. E) Rr x Rr *Assortative mating is the mating of individuals that are similar. Rr and Rr are identical and much more similar to each other than any of the other individuals are to their mates. 43) Which of the following statements about inbreeding is most accurate? A) Inbreeding results in evolution. B) Inbreeding causes an increase in homozygosity. C) Inbreeding causes a decrease in homozygous recessive genotypes. D) Inbreeding increases fitness. E) Inbreeding depression is the clinically diagnosed psychosis you feel after mating with your sibling. *Over 90% got this one! Answer B was directly from lecture, the lecture notes and the reading.
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44) Which of the following statements about sexual selection is most accurate? A) In most sexually reproducing species, males are the high investment sex. B) Despite the similarity in the names, sexual selection is not natural selection. C) Sexual selection may be dictated by males or females. D) Sexual selection only rarely causes sexual dimorphism. E) Sexual selection is driven by the fact that sperm are more expensive to create than eggs. As defined in class, sexual selection is a special case of natural selection (discounting B) that favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates. Sexual selection is governed by female choice and/or male-male competition. Because in most species females are the high investment sex (discounting A and E), they may choose males based on certain traits (sexually selected traits), which commonly causes sexual dimorphism. 45) Which of the following is the correct way to display the scientific name of an organism? A) plethodon cinereus. B) Plethodon Cinereus. C) plethodon Cinereus. D) Plethodon cinereus. E) PLETHODON CINEREUS. *As described in lecture and in the lecture notes, the genus name must start with a capital letter and the species name starts with a lowercase letter. 46) Which includes all of the major levels of the taxonomic hierarchy in their proper order? A) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species. B) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species, Subspecies. C) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. D) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species. E) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Subfamily, Genus, Species, Subspecies. *97% got this one correct! Excellent! 47) Two different organisms can interbreed and form offspring that are sterile. Which of the following about this statement is correct? A) They are the same species according to the Biological Species Concept. B) They are the same species and have a pre-zygotic isolative mechanism. C) They are different species according to the morphospecies concept. D) They are different species and have a post-zygotic isolative mechanism. E) They are the same species according to the phylogenetic species concept. *80% of the class got this one correct. Those that answered A may have forgotten the second half of the biological species concept: that the offspring must be viable. B is incorrect since the isolation occurs after the zygote is formed (ie post-zygotic). Not enough information is provided to distinguish them as species via the morphospecies and phylogenetic species concepts. This scenario was presented in class as the horse, donkey and mule example.

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The next two questions refer to the phylogenetic tree above. 48) If the tree was constructed using cladistics, then: A) B and D have more total traits in common than either does with A. B) A and D are a monophyletic group. C) C and D have more total traits in common than either does with A. D) There are no nodes, only branches. E) None of the above is correct. Choices A and C sound correct, but cladistics does not consider all traits as equal. Cladistics only considers derived (innovative or recently evolved) traits in phylogenetic construction. B is not correct in that a monophyletic group is an ancestor and all its descendants. Choice B does not account for species B and C. All phylogenetic trees have nodes. Choosing E required a statement of faith in yourself to know the correct answer is not there, which is difficult to do. 49) If the tree was constructed using phenetics, then: A) B, C, and D have more traits in common than any of them does with A. B) C and D have synapomorphies. C) The tree reflects only innovations, not retentions. D) The tree considers ancestral traits only. E) Two of the above are correct. *Since this tree was constructed using phenetics, we can assume that it was made using all traits shared and derived. Therefore, choice A is correct in that species B, C and D are closer to each other than they are to A. D is incorrect, since it considers only ancestral traits. Students that answered E likely considered A and D correct. Choices B and C reflect cladistics more than phenetics. 50) Which of the following may lead to allopatric speciation? A) A river floods its banks and creates a new, permanent channel separating a population of sowbugs that live in the surrounding forest. B) Some finches within a population have large beaks that can handle large seeds, and some have small beaks that cannot handle large seeds.
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C) A bird eats the fruit of a dogwood shrub and deposits the seed of the fruit in an area where no other dogwoods grow. D) Two of the above are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. Although I never really mentioned sowbugs in lecture, it is not difficult to imagine the scenario described in A. I did describe a scenario similar to that in choice C. Choice B is representative of sympatric speciation, where A and C are allopatric in nature.

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