Page 1 of 8

MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007

PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper

Total No. of MCQs 40
Marks: 40 Time 45 minutes

01. A 10-month old girl is brought for a routine health evaluation.
Her diet consists of undiluted fresh milk and table food. Her
weight and length are at the 50
th
percentile. Her physical
examination is notable for pallor; otherwise there are no
abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 7.5 gm/dl and the peripheral
blood smear reveals microcytic hypochromic red cells. Which
of the following is the MOST likely etiology of the anemia?
a. Thalassemia.
b. Sickle cell anemia.
c. Transient viral suppression of her bone marrow.
d. Anemia of chronic disease.
e. Iron deficiency anemia.
Key: e

02. For diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever, which one of the
following is manifestation of minor criteria?
a. Carditis.
b. Arthralgia.
c. Polyarthritis.
d. Chorea.
e. Subcutaneous nodules.
Key: b

03. Which of the following is a feature of tetanus?
a. Carpopedal spasm.
b. Patient presents in unconscious state.
c. Vesicular rash.
d. Lymphadenopathy.
e. Lock jaw.
Key: e

04. In children with severe mental retardation, the most common
cause is:
a. Congenital infection.
b. Familial retardation.
c. Perinatal causes.
d. Chromosomal disorders.
e. Brain anomalies.
Key: d

05. The most common pathogen of acute diarrhea in infants is:
a. E. Coli.
b. Shigella.
c. Rotavirus.
d. Entamoeba Histolytica.
e. Salmonella.
Key: c

Page 2 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper

06. Which of the following viruses is DNA virus?
a. Hepatitis A virus.
b. Hepatitis B virus.
c. Hepatitis C virus.
d. Hepatitis D virus.
e. Hepatitis E virus.
Key: b

07. A 3 year old child presented with high grade fever, red eyes
and a macula popular rash the most likely diagnoses:
a. Scarlet fever.
b. Kawasaki disease.
c. Drug reaction.
d. Measles.
e. Rubella.
Key: d

08. A 1 year old boy presented with history of flue and low grade
fever for 2 days and noisy breathing (stridor) for last 6 hours,
most likely diagnosis is:
a. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis.
b. Acute Epiglotitis.
c. Laryngomalacia.
d. Laryngeal web.
e. Foreign body.
Key: a

09. Which of the following may be a cause of polyurea?
a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Acute watery diarrhea.
c. Cardiac failure.
d. Chronic renal failure.
e. Acute glumerulonephritis.
Key: d

10. A 14 year old previously healthy girl presented with
involuntary jerky stereotyped movement involving proximal
parts which disappear during sleep. The most likely diagnosis
is:
a. Rheumatic fever.
b. SLE.
c. Wilsons disease.
d. Huntington chorea.
e. Rheumatoid arthritis.
Key: a
Page 3 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper


11. Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease?
a. VSD.
b. ASD.
c. PS.
d. PDA.
e. Tricuspid Atresia.
Key: e

12. A 8 year old boy presented with joint pain, colicky abdominal
pain, hematuria and a purpuric rash which is raised above
surface of skin over buttock, the most likely diagnoses:
a. JRA.
b. SLE.
c. Henoch schnolein purpura.
d. Acute glomerulonphritis.
e. Renal vein thrombosis.
Key: c

13. The common organism causing acute bacterial meningitis in a
7 year old child is:
a. H influence B.
b. Pneumococcous.
c. Meningococcous.
d. Staphylcoccous aureus.
e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Key: b

14. The most common cause of short stature in children is:
a. Achondroplasia.
b. Rickets.
c. Constitutional short stature.
d. Hypothyroidism.
e. Growth hormone deficiency.
Key: c

15. The most common presentation of Hepatitis A virus infection
is:
a. Jaundice.
b. Diarrhea.
c. Anicteric Hepatitis.
d. Fulminant Hepatic failure.
e. Chronic Hepatitis.
Key: c
Page 4 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper


16. Which one of the following is associated with uncongugated
hyperbilirubinemia?
a. Sepsis.
b. Hepatitis.
c. Criglar Najjar syndrome.
d. Dubin Johnsons syndrome.
e. Rotar syndrome.
Key: c

17. The most consistent feature of prehepatic portal hypertension
is:
a. Splenomegaly.
b. Ascities.
c. PT prolonged.
d. Low serum albumin.
e. Hepatic Encephalopathy.
Key: a

18. The most common metabolic derangement in hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis:
a. Hyperglycemia.
b. High serum potassium.
c. High chloride level.
d. Metabolic alkalosis.
e. Metabolic acidosis.
Key: d

19. In submersion injury (drowning), the most serious acute
medical condition is:
a. Pulmonary edema.
b. Acute renal failure.
c. Hypoxic brain injury.
d. Blood loss.
e. Cardiac arrhythmia.
Key: c

20. A 4-month old infant has a diaper rash that is characterized by
bright rd erosions involving the deep skin folds and satellite
lesions. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Candidal diaper dermatitis.
b. Generic diaper dermatitis.
c. Noduloulcerative dermatitis.
d. Seborheic dermatitis.
e. Intertrigo.
Key: a
Page 5 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper


21. While examining a 2-days old infant, small vesicles on an
erythematous base are noted on the infants face and chest.
Weights stain of the lesions reveals sheets of eosinophils. The
diagnosis of this rash is:
a. Miliaria rubra.
b. Milia.
c. Neonatal acne.
d. Erythema toxicum.
e. Neonatal pustular melanosis.
Key: d

22. Which one of the following is example of primary
immunodeficiency?
a. HIV.
b. Malignancies.
c. Thymic dysplasia (DiGeorges syndrome).
d. Diabetes Mellitus.
e. Malnutrition.
Key: c

23. Complications seen in the new born of a diabetic mother
include:
a. Anemia.
b. Hypoglycemia.
c. Hypercalcemia.
d. Hypermagnesemia.
e. Hypernatremia.
Key: b

24. A premature infant is born with patent ducts arteriosus. Its
closure can be stimulated by administration of:
a. Prostaglandin analogue.
b. Estrogen.
c. Anti-estrogen compounds.
d. Prostaglandin inhibitors.
e. Digoxin.
Key: d
Page 6 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper


25. A 6-year old boy presented with one month history of fever
and one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed
and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following
results: Hb-6.4 gm/dl; Platelet-35,000/mm3; prothrombin
time-20 sec with a control of 13 sec; partial thromboplastin
time-50 sec; and peripheral smear and bone marrow were
suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Which of the
following is the most important poor prognostic factor:
a. Male sex.
b. TLC-78,500/mm3.
c. Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL.
d. Subconjunctival bleed.
e. Liver size > 6 cm below costal margin.
Key: b

26. In thalassemia major chelation therapy with desferrioxamine
is started when there is:
a. Massive Splenomegaly.
b. Transfusion requirement > 250 ml/kg/year.
c. Leukopenia.
d. Serum ferritin > 1000 mg/ml.
e. Serum iron 100 microgram/dl.
Key: d

27. Which of the following conditions in immunodeficiency
patients is due to cell-mediated deficiency?
a. X-linked agammoglobulinemia.
b. Common variable immunodeficiency.
c. Hyper-IgM syndrome.
d. Defective cytokine production.
e. Chromic granulomatous disease.
Key: d

28. The laboratory findings indicative of the syndrome of
inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is:
a. Serum sodium = 148 mEq/L.
b. Serum osmolarity = 250 mOsm/kg.
c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 28 mg/dl.
d. Serum potassium = 5.1 mEq/L.
e. Serum calcium = 7.2 mg/dl.
Key: b

29. Which blood gas analysis results are most suggestive of
respiratory acidosis?
a. pH = 7.22, PCO2 = 55 mm Hg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L.
b. pH = 7.28, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg, HCO3 = 15 mEq/L.
c. pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 35 mm Hg, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L.
d. pH = 7.40, PCO2 = 25 mm Hg, HCO3 = 40 mEq/L.
e. pH = 7.35, PCO2 = 39 mm Hg, HCO3 = 26 mEq/L.
Key: a
Page 7 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper


30. Early sign of ventricular shunt malfunction in an infant who
has been treated for hydrocephalus are:
a. A high-pitched cry, colic, and papillary changes.
b. Anorexia and changes in pulse and respiration.
c. Headaches, lethargy, and loss of appetite.
d. Vomiting, tense fontanelle, and irritability.
e. Fever and seizures.
Key: d

31. Prodromal signs of Measles include:
a. A maculopapular rash on the face and trunk.
b. Crops of pustular lesions on the face and scalp.
c. Kopliks spots in the mouth.
d. Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy.
e. Red cracked lips.
Key: c

32. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
a. Gilberts syndrome.
b. Criggler Najjar syndrome.
c. Breast milk jaundice.
d. Dublin Johnson syndrome.
e. Physiological jaundice.
Key: d

33. 15-year old female presented to the emergency department
with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and
hematochezia. There was a history of profuse bleeding from
the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed
normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin
time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts
as well as platelet function tests were normal but 5 molar
urea dissolution tests were positive. Which one of the
following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient?
a. Factor X.
b. Factor XI.
c. Factor XII.
d. Factor XIII.
e. Fibrinogen.
Key: d

34. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be
diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait?
a. Hb-F.
b. Hb1C.
c. Hb-A2.
d. Hb-H.
e. Hb-A.
Key: c

Page 8 of 8
MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)

Model Paper

35. In a malnourished child, the most reliable sign of dehydration
is:
a. Depressed Ant. Fontanellae.
b. Loss of skin turgor.
c. Sunken eyes.
d. Decreased urine output.
e. Rapid & good volume pulse.
Key: d

36. Ulcerative Colitis is characterized by:
a. Involvement of any part of intestine.
b. Fistulas & strictures.
c. Perianal pathology.
d. Proctitis with proximal extension.
e. Terminal ileum is most common site of involvement.
Key: d

37. Dysentery is caused by:
a. E. toxigenic E. coli.
b. Amoebiasis.
c. Giardiasis.
d. Rotavirus.
e. Vibreo-cholera.
Key: b

38. Which of the following is a constant feature of Downs
syndrome:
a. Hypotonia.
b. Acute leukemia.
c. Atlanto-axial dislocation.
d. Congenital heart defects.
e. Brachycephaly.
Key: a

39. Cherry red spot is a feature of:
a. Niemann-Pick disease.
b. Glycogen storage disease.
c. Hurler syndrome.
d. Hunter syndrome.
e. Gaucher disease.
Key: a

40. Which of the following is a common feature of infant of
diabetic mother?
a. VSD.
b. Gut atresias.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Hypocalcemia.
e. Birth trauma.
Key: c