Solutions to Chens Plasma Physics

Kalman Knizhnik

1-1. Compute the density (in units of m3 ) of an ideal gas under the following conditions: a) At 0o C and 760 Torr pressure (1 Torr = 1mm Hg). This is called the Loschmidt number. b) In a vacuum at 103 Torr at room temperature (20o C). This number is a useful one for the experimentalist to know by heart (103 Torr = 1 micron). a) Avogadros number is NA = 6.022 1023 . One mole of gas at STP occupies 22.4 liters. 1 liter is 1 103 cubic meters. Thus, the number per cubic meter is NA /n = 6.022 1023 /(22.4 103 ) = 2.66 1025 m3 . Thus, the Loschmidt number is 2.66 1025 2 b) Using PV=NkT, we obtain (with R= 1.4 1023 J K 1 and 1 Torr = 133 Pa): n= N P 103 133 = = = 3.3 1019 m3 2 V kT 1.4 1023 (20 + 273) (1)

1-2. Derive the constant A for a normalized one-dimensional Maxwellian distribution (u) = Aemu2 /2kT f such that

(2)

(u)du = 1 f

(3)

This one is straightforward. Just integrate:

1=

Aemu

2 /2kT

du = A

2kT m

A=

m 2kT

(4)

1-4. Compute the pressure, in atmospheres and in tons/f t2 , exerted by a thermonuclear plasma on its container. Assume kTe = kTi = 20keV , n = 1021 m3 and p = nkT , where T = Ti + Te . This is just unit conversion, albeit with units that nobody really ever remembers. For reference, 1 keV = 1.6 1019 J , so p = 1021 (20keV + 20keV ) = 4 1022 m3 keV = 4 103 m3 J = 4 103 N/m2 (5)

But 1 atm = 105 N/m2 = 1 ton/f t2 , so (Note: I think there is a mistake in Chens solutions here. If I am mistaken, please let me know). p = 0.04 atm = 0.04 ton/f t2 2 (6)

1-5. In a strictly steady state situation, both the ions and the electrons will follow the Boltzmann relation nj = n0 eqj /kTj (7) For the case of an innite, transparent grid charged to a potential , show that the shielding distance is given approximately by
2 D =

ne2
0

1 1 + ) kTe kTi

(8)

Show that D is determined by the temperature of the colder species. Well use Poissons equation 2 = ene eni
0

en0
0

(ee/kTe ee/kTi )

en0
0

(1 +

e e e2 n 1 )= ( + ) (9) kTe kTi kTi 0 kTe

Now well suppose the goes like a decreasing exponential: = 0 exp(x/D ). Thus, the Laplacian acting on this is 2 = 1 ne2 = ( + ) 2 kTi D 0 kTe 1 ne2 1 1 = ( + ) 2 2 kTi D 0 kTe (10)

To show that D is determined by the colder species, we suppose rst that the electrons are the colder species: Te Ti . Then, 1 ne2 = kTe 0 2 D Alternatively, if the ions are colder, Ti D = kTe 0 2 ne2 (11)

Te , then a similar analysis yields: D = kTi 0 2 ne2 (12)

ne2 1 = kTi 0 2 D

1-6. An alternative derivation of D will give further insight to its meaning. Consider two innite, parallel plates at x = d, set at potential = 0. The space between them is uniformly lled by a gas of density n of particles of charge q . a) Using Poissons equation, show that the potential distribution between the plates is nq 2 = (d x2 ) (13) 2 0 b) Show that for d > D , the energy needed to transport a particle from a plate to the mid plane is greater than the average kinetic energy of the particles. 1-9. A distant galaxy contains a cloud of protons and antiprotons, each with density n = 106 m3 and temperature T = 100o K. What is the Debye length? The Debye length is given by 0 kTj D = (14) 2 n j ej j Plugging in the numbers: D = 8.85 1012 1.4 1023 100 = 0.48 m 2 106 (1.6 1019 )2 (15)

As a check, use the SI unit form for the Debye length given in Chen. If T is in Kelvin, and n is in cubic meters, then: T 102 D = 69 m = 69 m = 69 102 m 2 (16) n 106 This is the same order of magnitude so we are ok. 1-10. A spherical conductor of radius a is immersed in a plasma and charged to a potential 0 . The electrons remain Maxwellian and move to form a Debye shield, but the ions are stationary during the time frame of the experiment. Assuming 0 kTe /e, derive an expression for the potential as a function of r in terms of a, 0 , and D . (Hint: Assume a solution of the form ebr /r.) Lets assume a solution of this form: = Aebr /r. Then, 2 = 1 2 e (r ) = b2 = (ne ni ) 2 r r r 0 (17)

Since the electrons are Maxwellian, they obey ne = n0 ee/kTe n0 (1 + e/kTe ). The ions, however, are stationary, so ni = n0 . Thus we have: b2 = Thus, so far we have: er/D r But we also need to match the boundary condition that (a) = 0 . So, =A 0 = A So, nally we have our answer: er/D 2 (21) r You know what they say: if it satises Poissons equation and the boundary conditions then it must be the answer. (r) = 0 ea/D a 2-3. An ion engine (see Fig. 106) has a 1-T magnetic eld, and a hydrogen plasma is to be shot out at an E B velocity of 1000 km/s. How much internal electric eld must be present in the plasma? The E B velocity is given by EB v= (22) B2 Plugging in the numbers: 106 m/s = |E | 1T |E | = 1000 V /m 2 (23) ea/D a A = a0 ea/D (19) e
0

(n0 + n0

e n0 e 2 n0 ) = 2 kTe D 0 kTe

b=

1 D

(18)

(20)

2-4. Show that vE is the same for two ions of equal mass and charge but dierent energies, by using the following physical picture (see Fig. 2-2). Approximate the right half of the orbit by a semicircle corresponding to the ion energy after acceleration by the E eld, and the left half by a semicircle corresponding to the energy after deceleration. You may assume that E is weak, so that the fractional change in v is small. If the energy of the right part of the orbit is E1 and the energy of the left part of the orbit is E2 , then we have E1 = E0 + eEr1 , E2 = E0 eEr2 (24) where E0 is the initial energy and E is the electric eld. The velocity is determined by v = so 2E0 + 2eEr1 2E0 eEr2 v1 = v2 = m m The Larmor radius is determined via r = mv /qB , so r1,2 Thus, r1,2 (1 m E 1 )= 2E0 qB c 2E0 eE (1 m 2E0 c 2E0 ) m (27) m = qB 2E0 m eEr1,2 1 = E0 2mE0 eEr1,2 (1 )= qB 2E0 2E0 1 Er1,2 m c 2 mE0 c (26) 2E/m, (25)

The guiding center moves a distance r1 r2 : r1 r2 = The velocity of the guiding center is vgc = 2 2eE 2E c 4eE E r1 r2 = = = 2 (r1 r2 ) = 2 T 2 2mc mc B B (29) eE E0 c 2E0 1 m c 2E0 2eE = 2 m mc (28)

since c = eB/m. This is a pretty good approximation. 2-5. Suppose electrons obey the Boltzmann relation of Problem 1-5 in a cylindrically symmetric plasma column in which n(r) varies with a scale length ; that is n/r = n/. a) Using E = , nd the radial electric eld for a given . b) For electrons, show that the nite Larmor radius eects are large if vE is as large as vth . Specically, show that rL = 2 if vE = vth . c) Is (b) also true for ions? Hint: Do not use Poissons equation. a) We simply solve for from the Boltzmann relation for electrons. n = n0 ee/kTe Therefore, E = = kTe n0 1 n kTe r= r= r 2 r e n n0 r e (31) = kTe n ln( ) e n0 (30)

b) We start with the denitions of vE , vth , and rL : vE = E , B vth = 2kTe , m rL = mv eB (32)

So, calculating the magnitude of vE : vE =

2 kTe mvth 1 rL vth = = eB 2 eB 2

(33)

where in the last step I have assumed that the perpendicular velocity is the thermal velocity. Now, setting vE = vth , it is easy to see that rL = 2 2 (34) c) Sure, why not? 2-6. Suppose that a so-called Q-machine has a uniform eld of 0.2 T and a cylindrical plasma with kTe = kTi = 0.2 eV . The density prole is found experimentally to be of the form n = n0 exp[exp(r2 /a2 ) 1] (35) Assume the density obeys the electron Boltzmann relation n = n0 exp(e/kTe ). a) Calculate the maximum vE if a = 1 cm. b) Compare this with vE due to the earths gravitational eld. c) To what value can B be lowered before the ions of potassium (A = 39, Z = 1) have a Larmor radius equal to a? We solve for : n0 exp[exp(r2 /a2 ) 1] = n0 exp(e/kTe ) = kTe r2 /a2 (e 1) e (36)

Thus, the electric eld is E= and so vE (and its maximum) is vE = E 2rkTe r2 /a2 = e B ea2 B r= a2 2 2 (38) kTe 2r r2 /a2 r= e r r e a2 (37)

vE 2kTe 4r2 kTe r2 /a2 2 2 = 2 er /a e =0 r ea B ea4 B So, with a = 1 cm, vE,max = 2kTe ea2 B a2 1/2 e 2

(39)

8.5 km/sec 2
a=1 cm,B =0.2 T,kTe =0.2 keV

(40)

b) If we assume these are potassium ions, we have mg = 39 1.6 1027 9.8 = 6.4 1025 N . Meanwhile, if we plug in the numbers above into the expression for the electric eld (equation 37), well get that E = 17 V /m. Thus, the force due to the electric eld is eE = 1.6 1019 17 = 2.8 1018 N . Thus the gravitational drift is Fg 6.4 1025 = 1.5 107 FE 2.8 1018 (41)

times smaller. 2 c) The Larmor radius is rL = mvth /qB , so, in terms of the constants of vth , we have (setting rL = a): rL = Plugging in the numbers: B= 2 39 1.6 1027 0.2 1.6 1019 = 4 102 T 2 (17 1.6 1019 )2 (0.1 102 )2 (43) m qB 2kTe =a m B= 2mkTe q 2 a2 (42)

2-8. Suppose the Earths magnetic eld is 3 105 T at the equator and falls o as 1/r3 , as for a perfect dipole. Let there be an isotropic population of 1 eV protons and 30 keV electrons, each with density n = 107 m3 , at r = 5 earth radii in the equatorial plane. a) Compute the ion and electron B drift velocities. b) Does an electron drift eastward or westward? c) How long does it take an electron to encircle the earth? d) Compute the ring current density in A/m2 . Note: The curvature drift is not negligible and will aect the numerical answer, but neglect it anyway. a) The grad-B drift is given by 1 B B 1 B vB = v rL | | = v rL | | 2 2 B 2 B We can calculate v from the energy, and rL from the magnetic eld: v = Thus, v B = 1 2 2E m m eB 2E B E B | |= | | m B eB B (46) 2E , m rL = mv m = eB eB 2E m (45) (44)

Since B r3 , we obtain B = So v B = B 3 B r = 4 = 3 r r r | B 3 |= B r (47)

3E 3Er3 3Er2 3E (eV )r2 = = = 3r 3 3 eBr eB0 Re eB0 Re B0 Re

(48)

3 /r 3 . Now we can plug in the numbers: where I have used the fact that B = B0 Re

vB,e =

3 30 103 (5 6 106 )2 = 1.3 104 m/s 2 3 105 (6 106 )3

(49)

3 1 (5 6 106 )2 = 0.42 m/s 2 (50) 3 105 (6 106 )3 direction. The gradient of the b) The magnetic eld is azimuthal, from north to south, i.e. the = , which is eastward. magnetic eld is clearly in the radial direction, so we have B B r vB,i = This is for the electrons. The ions, which come without the minus sign to cancel the minus sign in , which is westward. 2 equation 47, will go in - c) Well, it has to travel a distance L = 2 (5Re ), with the velocity vB,e . So, T = L vB,e = 2 5 6.4 106 4.5 hours 2 1.3 104 (51)

d) The current density is given by J = nev, so, using the grad-B velocity in this expression, we get J = nevB,e = 107 1.6 1019 1.3 104 = 2 108 A/m2 2 (52)

2-10. A 20 keV deuteron in a large mirror fusion device has a pitch angle = 45o at the mid plane, where B = 0.7 T . Compute its Larmor radius. The Larmor radius is given by mv rL = (53) qB In natural units, a deuteron has m = 2 and q = +1. Furthermore, v = vsin(). To nd v , we convert the energy to velocity: rL = m eB 2E 2 1.6 1027 sin() = m 1.6 1019 0.7 2 20 103 1.6 1019 sin(45o ) = 0.3 m 2 (54) 2 1.6 1027

2-12. A cosmic ray proton is trapped between two moving magnetic mirrors with Rm = 5 and initially has W = 1 keV and v = v|| at the mid plane. Each mirror moves toward the mid plane with a velocity vm = 10 km/sec (Fig. 2-10). a) Using the loss cone formula and the invariance of , nd the energy to which the proton will be accelerated before it escapes. b) How long will take to reach that energy? 1. Treat the mirrors as at pistons and show that the velocity gained at each bounce is 2vm . 2. Compute the number of bounces necessary. 3. Compute the time T it takes to traverse L = 1010 km that many times. Factor of two accuracy will suce. a) The loss cone formula is sin2 (m ) = 1/Rm , where m is the angle of the magnetic mirror and Rm is the mirror ratio Bmax /B0 . We can also write down a formula for sin(m ) in terms of the parallel and perpendicular velocities: sin(m ) = 1 = Rm v,f
2 2 v ,f + v||,f

1
||,f 2 1 + ( v ) ,f

(55)

Squaring both sides, and noting that, since is invariant, v,f = v,i , we have 1 1 1 = v||,f 2 = Rm 5 1 + ( v,i ) Thus, we can get the nal energy: 1 1 5 2 2 2 2 2 Wf = m(v ,f + v||,f ) = m(v,i + 4v,i ) = mv,i 2 2 2 (57) v||,f = 2v,i (56)

But we cant evaluate this without knowing what the original v,i is. Fortunately, we know that initially v = v|| , so 1 1 2 2 2 2 Wi = m(v ,i + v||,i ) = m(2v,i ) = mv,i = 1 keV 2 2 So, nally, 5 Wf = Wi = 2.5 keV 2 (59) 2 b) In the frame of the piston, when the particle bounces o, its velocity doesnt change. In the pistons frame, the velocity of the particle as it is coming in is vi vm , where vm is the velocity of the piston (it is negative). Its nal velocity is the same but negative. Thus, vi = vi vm , vf = vm vi (60) (58)

where the prime denotes the velocity in the pistons reference frame. But, in the lab frame, vf = vf + vm , so we have vf = 2vm vi (61) Thus, the change in velocity on each bounce is 2vm = 20 km/sec. The initial proton velocity is vi = 2Wi = m 2 1 103 1.6 1019 = 447 km/s 1.6 1027 (62)

The proton nal energy is 2.5 keV . This corresponds to a velocity of vf = 2Wf = m 2 2.5 103 1.6 1019 = 707 km/s 1.6 1027 (63)

Thus, the total change in velocity needed is vtot = 707 447 km/s = 260 km/s. This corresponds to vtot 260 = = 13 bounces 2 (64) Nbounces = v1bounce 20 We can neglect the distance the mirrors move in the time the particle travels the distance, since vm vproton . Thus, the time it takes to travel a distance Nbounces L is, using v proton = (vf vi )/2, T = Nbounces L 2 13 1010 = = 109 s 32 years 2 v proton 707 447 (65)

2-13. Derive the result of Problem 2-12(b) directly by using the invariance of J . a) Let v|| ds v|| L and dierentiate with respect to time. b) From this, get an expression for T in terms of dL/dt. Set dL/dt = 2vm to obtain the answer. b a) The quantity J = a v|| ds is invariant. Thus, is approximate it as v|| L, then its time derivative must be 0: d =0 (v L) = Lv || + v|| L (66) dt ||

b) We can solve this expression: Lv || = v|| L dv|| L = 2v|| vm dt (67)

2-14. In plasma heating by adiabatic compression, the invariance of requires that kT increases as B increases. The magnetic eld, however, cannot accelerate particles because the Lorentz force q v B is always perpendicular to the velocity. How do the particles gain energy? Maxwell tells us that an electric eld will be induced by a changing magnetic eld. The induced electric eld is what accelerates the particles. 2 4-1. The oscillating density n1 and potential 1 in a drift wave are related by n1 e1 + ia = n0 kTe + ia (68)

where it is only necessary to know that all the other symbols (except i) stand for positive constants. a) Find an expression for the phase of 1 relative to n1 . (For simplicity, assume that n1 is real.) b) If < , does 1 lead or lag n1 ? a) Solving for 1 leads to 1 = + ia n1 kTe n1 kTe ( + ia)( ia) n1 kTe + a2 + i(a a ) = = 2 + a2 2 + a2 + ia n0 e n0 e n0 e (69)

Now, in a drift wave we can suppose that 1 exp(i ), which in turns tells us that tan( ) = Im(1 )/Re(1 ). We have Re(1 ) = Thus, = tan1 (a n1 kTe + a2 n1 kTe a ; Im(1 ) = 2 2 2 + a2 n 0 e + a n 0 e ) 2 + a2 (70)

(71)

b) For < , > 0. We can set the phase of n1 to be 0, since all that matters is a phase dierence. Thus, 1 lags n1 . 2 4.2 Calculate the plasma frequency with the ion motions included, thus justifying our assumption that the ions are xed. (Hint: include the term n1i in Poissons equation and use the ion equations of motion and continuity. We will use Gausss Law, Fourier transforming the eld and charge perturbations into plane waves of the form x = x0 + x1 , where x is any quantity, vector or scalar. The subscript 0 indicates the equilibrium value, and the subscript 1 indicates the perturbation. We only keep terms of to rst order in small quantities. e(ni ne ) E= ik E1 = (72)
0 0

Similarly, the equation of motion for the electrons, me ions, mi dvi = eE dt imi vi = eE1 (74) dve = eE dt ime ve = eE1 (73)

and continuity equation for electrons, ne + (ne ve ) = 0 t and ions ne1 + ne0 k ve = 0 (75)

ni + (ni vi ) = 0 ni1 + ni0 k vi = 0 (76) t We now have 9 equations and 9 unknowns. I will skip the boring algebra. Solving for yields
2 2 = p + 2 p 2
2

(77)

ni e is the ion plasma frequency. Clearly, omitting the ion plasma frequency from where p = m i 0 the calculation is justied since mi me .

4.4 By writing the linearized Poissons equation used in the derivation of simple plasma oscillations in the form ( E) = 0 derive an expression for the dielectric constant applicable to high-frequency longitudinal motions. Fourier transform Poissons equation: ik E = We also know that n1 + n 0 v1 = 0 t and we know Newtons Law: m Thus, equation (78) gives us kE= e 2 n0 ie n0 k v = kE 2 0 0 m
0

e
0

n1

(78)

in1 n0 ik v = 0

n1 = n0

kv

(79)

v = eE t

v=i

e E m

(80)

(81)

2 e2 n /m We can do a trick here, and pull everything over to the left side. Writing p 0 2 p )=0 2 2 p )E} = 0 2

k E(1 and thus we obtain

{(1
2 p 2 2

(82)

=1

(83)

4.6 a) Compute the eect of collisional damping on the propagation of Langmuir waves (plasma oscillations), by adding a term mn v to the electron equation of motion and rederiving the dispersion relation for Te = 0. b) Write an explicit expression for Im( ) and show that its sign indicates that the wave is damped in time. a) The cold electron equations of motion are mne and v = ene E mne v t imv = eE m v (84)

ne + (ne v) = 0 t

ine ine k v = 0

kv=

(85)

We also have Gausss law: E= We will dot equation (84) with k: kE=kv Plugging in equations (86) and (87), we obtain i m 2 (i 2 m m ) = e p e
2 p = 2 + 2

ne e
0

kE=i

ne e
0

=i

m 2 e p

(86)

(im m ) e

(87)

(88)

So we see that if we include collisions, the oscillation frequency is dierent from the plasma frequency. b) Lets let = R + iI . Then expression (88) becomes
2 2 2 p = R I + 2iR I + iI + R

(89)

This means that

2 2 Now we suppose a plane wave solution for the eld quantities, i.e. 2R I + I = 0 I = E eit we obtain E eiR t+I t Thus, the wave is exponentially attenuated in time. E eiR t e 2
t

(90)

(91) 2

(92)