UART BLK1 1. What is used for asynchronous transmission of serial data between a DTE and a DCE? a. UART b.

. USRT c. QART d. CPU 2. It's a physical memory location in the CPU that allows quick data manipulation. a. Buffer register c. Control register b. Internal registers d. Transmit buffer register 3. What is used to buffer outgoing characters? a. Buffer register c. Transmit buffer register b. Internal register d. Control register 4. It holds the contents of the memory which are to be transferred from memory to other components. a. Buffer registers c. Transmit buffer register b. Internal register d. Control register 5. It is a processor register which changes or controls the general behavior of a CPU or other digital device. a. Buffer registers c. Transmit buffer register b. Internal register d. Control register 6. It is an n-bit data registers that keeps track of the status of the UART's transmit and receive buffer registers. a. Buffer registers c. Transmit buffer register b. Status register d. Control register 7. The only bit in the UART that is not optional or programmable. a. Stop bit b. Parity bit c. Start bit d. Bit rate 8. Status condition where transmit shift register has completed transmission of a data character. a. RPE (receive parity error) c. RFE (receive framing error) b. TBMT (transmit buffer empty) d. ROR (receive overrun) 9. Status condition that is set when a received character has a parity error in it. a. RPE (receive parity error) c. RFE (receive framing error) b. TBMT (transmit buffer empty) d. ROR (receive overrun) 10. Status condition that is set when a character is received without any or with an improper number of start bits. a. RPE (receive parity error) c. RFE (receive framing error) b. TBMT (transmit buffer empty) d. ROR (receive overrun) 11. Status condition that is set when a character in the receive buffer register is written over by another receive character because the CPU failed to service an active condition on REA before the next character has been received from receive shift register. a. RPE (receive parity error) c. RFE (receive framing error) b. TBMT (transmit buffer empty) d. ROR (receive overrun) 12. Status condition where a data character has been received and loaded into the receive data register. a. RPE (receive parity error) c. RFE (receive framing error) b. RDA (receive data available) d. ROR (receive overrun) 13. It is the fundamental method of conversion between serial and parallel forms. a. Shift register c. Modulation b. Transmitter d. Receiver 14. The difference in time between the beginning of a start bit and when it is detected. a. Parity error c. Detection error b. Bit error rate d. Probability error 15. It is the difference in the arrival time between two sequentially-adjacent registers. a. Clock rate c. Clock difference b. Clock skew d. Clock block 16. What is used for synchronous transmission of serial data between a DTE and a DCE? a. UART b. USRT c. QART d. CPU 17. Any binary digital device that generates, transmits, receives, or interprets data messages. a. DCE b. DOE c. DTE 18. It is a general term used to describe equipment that interfaces data terminal equipment to channel. a. DCE b. DOE c. DTE 19. The maximum character length in UART is __________. a. 8 bits b. 9 bits c. 10 bits 20. Using a 22-bit character format with ASCII encoding is called __________. a. Full ARQ b. Full Baudot c. Full ASCII d. DRE a transmission d. DRE d. 11 bits d. Full QAM

UART BLK2 1. UART stands for a. Universal Asynchronous Receiving Transmission b. United Asynchronous Receiver Transmission c. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter d. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmission 2. This are the primary functions of UART except a. Error Detection by inserting parity bits in the transmitter b. Insert start and stop bits in the transmitter c. Provide transmit and receive status information to the CPU d. None of the above 3. _________ transmit shift register has compledted transmission of a data character a. Receive Parity Error c. Receiver Overrun b. Receive Framing Error d. Transmit Buffer Empty 4. Set when a received character has a parity error in it a. Receive Parity Error b. Receive Framing Error c. Transmit Buffer Empty d. Receiver Overrun

5. It is an n-bit data register that keeps track of the status of the UARTs transmit and receive buffer registers. a. Transmit Buffer Empty c. Status word Receiver b. Status Word Register d. None of the above 6. A data character has been reived and loaded into the receive data register a. Receive Data available c. Transmit Buffer Empty b. Receive Framing Error d. Receiver Overrun 7. TEOC stands for a. Transmit end-of-character b. Transmitter end-of-character 8. What are the two functional sections of UART a. Transmitter and Receiver b. Transmit end-of-character and Receiver Overrun

c. Transmit end-of-code d. None of the above c. d. Status Word Register and Status word Receiver Transmission and Receiver

9. It is used to detect valid start bits, which indicate the beginning of a data character a. Start Bit Verification Circuit c. Start Buffer Verification Circuit b. Start Buffer Verification Central d. Start Bit Verification Central 10. What is the used for asynchronous transmission of serial data between a DTE and DCE a. RFE b. USRT c. UART 11. It is set when a received character has a parity error in it a. RFE b. RPE 12. USRT stands for a. United states of Ralph Thomas b. Universal Service Radio Transmitter c. Universal Synchronous Receiver/Transmitter 13. It is sometimes called clock skew a. Clock slip page b. Clock slip data 14. It is used to buffer outgoing characters a. Transmit buffer register c. d. ROR Universal Synchronize Receiver/Transmitter

d. d.

RDA TBMT

c. d. b.

Click slip page Click slip cycle Buffer register

c. Shift register d. University Register 15. The difference in the arrival time between two sequentially-adjacent registers a. Clock pulse b. Clock skew c. Clock screw d. Clock rate 16. TDS stands for a. Time Domain Synchronous c. Transmit domain System b. Transmit Data strobe d. Transmit Data Server 17. It is the difference in time between the beginning of a start bit and when it is detected a. Parity error c. Detection Error b. Correction Error d. Clock rate error 18. It is often called a FEP because it processes information and serves as an interface between the host computer and all the data communications circuit its serves a. FEP b. USRT c. DCE d. DTE 19. It is a general term used to describe equipment that interfaces data terminal equipment to a transmission channel such as a digital TI carrier or an analog telephone circuit. a. DCE b. DTE c. USRT d. FEP 20. It is a signal conversion device, as I converts signals from a DTE to a form more suitable to be transported over a transmission channel. a. DCE b. DTE c. USRT d. DCTE SERIAL INTERFACES BLK1 1. Which of the following must a serial interface provide? a. A specific range of voltages for transmit and receive signal levels b. Limitations for the electrical parameters of the transmission line c. Standard cable and cable connections d. All of the above 2. It is sometimes referred to as the EIZ-232 standard Versions C and E of the RS-232 standard. a. RS-232A b. RS-232B c. RS-232C d. RS-232D 3. It is designed for transporting asynchronous data between a DTE and a DCE or between DTEs. a. 9-pin Version of RS-232 c. 11-pin Version of RS-232 b. 10-pin Version of RS-232 d. 12-pin Version of RS-232 4. It is designed for transporting either synchronous or asynchronous data between a DTE and a DCE. a. 24 pin Version c. 26 pin Version b. 25 pin Version d. 25 pin Version 5. It is designed for dial-up telephone. a. EIA-560 b. EIA-561 c. EIA-562 d. EIA-563 6. It converts the internal voltage levels from the DTE and DCE to RS-232 values. a. Voltage-Leveling Circuits c. Terminator b. Driver d. RS 7. It means Recommended Standards. a. Voltage-Leveling Circuits c. Terminator b. Driver d. RS 8. A voltage leveler wherein its output signals onto the cable. a. Voltage-Leveling Circuits c. Terminator b. Driver d. RS 9. It accepts signals from the cable. a. Voltage-Leveling Circuits c. Terminator b. Driver d. RS 10. The RS-449 has a total of __________. a. 46 pins c. 48 pins b. 47 pins d. 49 pins 11. Two categories of RS-449 Serial Interface. a. Category A and Category B c. Category C and Category D b. Category I and Category II d. Category 1 and Category 2 12. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used by the DTE to request a local loopback from the DCE. a. Local Loopback c. Select Frequency b. Remote Loopback d. Test Mode 13. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used by the DTE to request a remote loopback from the distant DCE. a. Local Loopback c. Select Frequency b. Remote Loopback d. Test Mode 14. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 allows the DTE to select the DCEs transmit and receive frequencies. a. Local Loopback b. Remote Loopback

c. Select Frequency d. Test Mode 15. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used by the DTE to signal the DCE that a test is in progress a. Local Loopback c. Select Frequency b. Remote Loopback d. Test Mode 16. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 common return wire for unbalanced signals propagating from the DCE to the DTE. a. Terminal in Service c. Select Standby b. Receive Common d. New Signal 17. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used by the DTE to signal the DCE whether it is operational. a. Terminal in Service c. Select Standby b. Receive Common d. New Signal 18. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used by the DTE to request that the DCE switched to standby equipment. a. Terminal in Service c. Select Standby b. Receive Common d. New Signal 19. One of the 10 circuits in RS-449 used with a modem at the primary location of a multipoint data circuit. a. Terminal in Service c. Select Standby b. Receive Common d. New Signal 20. It was intended to operate at data rates between 20kbps and 2Mbps using the same DB25 connector. a. RS-232 b. RS-233 c. RS-449 d. RS-530 SERIAL INTERFACES BLK2 1. EIA stands for: a. Electronics Industry Association b. Electronics Industries Association 2. RS stands for: a. recommended standard b. recommended specifications 3. Ground Pins are: a. 15,17,24 b. 20,22

c. d. c. d. c.

Electronic Industry Association Electronic Industries Association required standard required specification 2,3,14,16 d. 1,7

4. Coordinates the flow of data, control signals and timing information between DTE and DCE. a. driver c. serial interface b. terminator d. EIA 5. Data Pins are: a. 15,17,24 b. 20,22 c. 2,3,14,16 d. 6. Difference in the voltage levels between driver output and terminator input a. noise margin c. voltage levelling circuit b. NRZ-L d. none of the above 7. Unassigned pin and is often designated as equalizer mode a. 11 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8. Pin known as the secondary receive line signal detect a. 5 b. 6 c. 11 d. 9. Pin known as the ring indicator a. 21 b. 22 c. 23 d. 10. Pin known as clear to send a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 11. Accepts signal from the cable a. noise margin c. driver b. NRZ-L d. terminator 12. Convert the internal voltage levels from DTE and DCE to RS-232 values a. noise margin c. voltage levelling circuit b. NRZ-L d. none of the above 13. Outputs the signal onto the cable a. noise b. NRZ-L d. terminator margin c. driver 14. What ere the unassigned pins of RS-232 a. 9,10,11,18,25 c. 9,10,11,19,25 b. 1,4,7,9,22 d. 13,12,23,24,25 15. Official name of RS-232 1,7

8 12 24 8

a. Interface Between DTE and DCE Employing Serial Binary Data Interchange b. Interface Between DCE and DTE Employing Serial Binary Data Interchange c. Interface Between DTE and DCE Employing Binary Serial Data Interchange d. Interface Between DCE and DTE Employing Binary Serial Data Interchange 16. RS-232 is designed for serial transmission upto a. 25kbps b. 10kbps c. 20kbps d. 30kbps 17. It is the special PC nine-pin version of RS-232 a. BD9S/P b. DB9S/P c. EIA-561 d. EIA-562 18. How many pins do EIA-561 has? a. 9 b. 25 c. 7 d. 8 19. This is where information terminates or originates a. DCE b. RS-232 c. DTE d. UART 20. Pin known as protective ground a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. 2 21. The transmission rate of an RS-232 signal is about. a. 1000 bps c. 100 bps b. 2000 bps d. 200 bps 22. In a typical asynchronous data transmission over an RS-232 interface, the delay time of a modem RTS-CTS is a. 100 ms c. 5 ms b. 50 ms d. 10 ms 23. A serial interface standard which has 37 pins and has exceeded the capabilities and intended a replacement of an RS-232 interface a. RS449 c. RS430 b. RS530 d. RS339 24. A function of RS449 interface which allows the DTE to select the DCEs transmit and receive frequency a. Local loopback c. remote loopback b. Select freq d. receive common 25. A function of RS449 interface which used by the DTE to request a remote (digital)loopback from the distant DCE a. Local loopback c. remote loopback b. Select freq d. receive common 26. A function of RS449 interface which used by the DTE to signal the DCE that a test is in progress a. Local loopback c. test standby b. Select freq d. test mode 27. An interface which operates at data rates between 20kbps and 2mbps using the same 25-pin DB-25 connector used by the RS232 interface a. RS449 c. RS430 b. RS530 d. RS339 28. The following are the primary goals of an RS449 serial interface except a. Compatibility with the RS232 interface standard b. Specify a standard connector c. Offer higher data transmission rates d. Offer longer distances over coaxial cable wires 29. This interface standard specifies a balance interface cable capable of operating up to 10Mbps and span distances up to 1200meters. a. RS449-A c. RS232-A b. RS449-B d. RS232-B 30. The modem training sequence time of an RS232 interface is about a. 100 ms c. 5 ms b. 50 ms d. 10 ms 31. The modem RLSD turn-off delay time of an RS232 interface is about a. 100 ms c. 5 ms b. 50 ms d. 10 ms 32. The propagation time of an RS232 interface is about a. 100 ms c. 5 ms b. 50 ms d. 10 ms 33. The DTE primary data message length of an RS232 interface is about a. 100 ms c. 5 ms b. 50 ms d. 10 ms 34. The function of the first pin of an RS232 serial interface is

a. Chassis ground c. transmit delay b. Earth ground d. receive delay 35. A serial interface that has 25 pins and uses an asynchronous data transmission a. RS449 c. RS430 b. RS232 d. RS339 36. An association which introduces the RS232, RS449 and RS530 serial interfaces a. ARPA c. EIA b. ANSI d. IEEE 37. In a 37 pin RS449 serial interface, which of the following pin has exactly no function? a. 37 c. 38 b. 36 d. 39 38. The EIA produces a serial interface standard for automatic calling units a. RS446 c. RS449 b. RS336 d. RS339 39. The major difference of an RS232 and RS449 serial interface is a. Separation of primary data c. both a and b b. Secondary diagnostic two channels d. none of the choices 40. Which of the following is not composed in an RS 232 serial interface signal? a. ASCII character c. odd parity bit b. Even parity bit d. stop bit DATA COMMUNICATIONS MODEMS - Blk1 1. What is/are the other name/s of Data Communications Modem? a. Datasets c. Modems b. Dataphones d. All of the above 2. DCE stands for? a. digital communication equipment c. data communication equipment b. digital communication encoder d. data communication encoder 3. The approximated bandwidth used for transporting analog voice signals. a. 300 kHz 3000 kHz c. 30 kHz 300 kHz b. 300 Hz 3000 Hz d. 30 Hz 300 Hz 4. The rate of change of signals on the transmission medium after encoding and modulation have occurred a. Baud b. Bit c. Byte d. Data 5. It interfaces the modem transmitter and receiver to the serial interface. a. Serial interface circuit c. Telco interface circuit b. Modulator circuit d. Demodulator circuit 6. The rate of change of the digital information signal a. Baud b. Bit c. Byte d. Data 7. A special internally generated bit pattern in transmit modem a. Parity bit c. Marking parity b. Training sequence d. Parity 8. It is used to match the impedance of the modem to the impedance of the telephone line and regulate the amplitude of the transmit signal. a. Bandpass filter and equalizer circuit c. Demodulator circuit b. Modulator circuit d. Telco interface circuit 9. It produces the analog carriers necessary for the modulation and demodulation process. a. Bandpass filter and equalizer circuit c. Clock generation circuit b. Carrier generation circuit d. None of the above 10. High-speed synchronous voice band modems operate at what frequency? a. 9600 bps, 16 QAM c. 2400 bps, 16 QAM b. 9600 bps, 8-PSK d. 2400 bps, 8-PSK 11. Modulation scheme used in medium speed synchronous voice-band modems a. FSK b. PSK c. QAM d. ASK 12. It converts the digital pulses to analog signals. a. DCE c. Both a and b b. DAC d. None of the above 13. The specification of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. 600 bps, full duplex, FSK c. 300 bps, full duplex, FSK b. 600 bps, half duplex, FSK d. 300 bps, half duplex, FSK 14. These are low speed voice band modems. a. Synchronous modems c. Isochronous modems b. Asynchronous modems d. None of the above

15. Asynchronous modems used what scheme of modulation? a. ASK c. Both a and b b. FSK d. None of the above 16. Application of asynchronous voice-band modems a. Telemetry c. Both a and b b. Caller ID d. None of the above 17. Capable of operating at full duplex over a two-wire telephone line at 300 bps. a. Bell System 202T c. Bell System 103 b. Bell System 202S d. Bell System201 18. Bell System 202 modem has ______ baud rate. a. 300 b. 600 c. 900 19. It is when asynchronous data is transported by asynchronous modem. a. Bus c. Data transmission b. Isochronous transmission d. Training sequence 20. It uses PSK or QAM to transport data. a. Synchronous modems c. Isochronous modems b. Asynchronous modems d. None of the above

d. 1200

21. What is/are the other name/s of Data Communications Modem? e. Datasets g. Modems f. Dataphones h. All of the above 22. DCE stands for? e. digital communication equipment g. data communication equipment f. digital communication encoder h. data communication encoder 23. The approximated bandwidth used for transporting analog voice signals. e. 300 kHz 3000 kHz g. 30 kHz 300 kHz f. 300 Hz 3000 Hz h. 30 Hz 300 Hz 24. The rate of change of signals on the transmission medium after encoding and modulation have occurred e. Baud f. Bit g. Byte h. Data 25. It interfaces the modem transmitter and receiver to the serial interface. e. Serial interface circuit g. Telco interface circuit f. Modulator circuit h. Demodulator circuit 26. The rate of change of the digital information signal e. Baud f. Bit g. Byte h. Data 27. A special internally generated bit pattern in transmit modem e. Parity bit g. Marking parity f. Training sequence h. Parity 28. It is used to match the impedance of the modem to the impedance of the telephone line and regulate the amplitude of the transmit signal. e. Bandpass filter and equalizer circuit g. Demodulator circuit f. Modulator circuit h. Telco interface circuit 29. It produces the analog carriers necessary for the modulation and demodulation process. e. Bandpass filter and equalizer circuit g. Clock generation circuit f. Carrier generation circuit h. None of the above 30. High-speed synchronous voice band modems operate at what frequency? e. 9600 bps, 16 QAM g. 2400 bps, 16 QAM f. 9600 bps, 8-PSK h. 2400 bps, 8-PSK 31. Modulation scheme used in medium speed synchronous voice-band modems e. FSK f. PSK g. QAM h. ASK 32. It converts the digital pulses to analog signals. e. DCE g. Both a and b f. DAC h. None of the above 33. The specification of the old Bell type 103 modem were: e. 600 bps, full duplex, FSK g. 300 bps, full duplex, FSK f. 600 bps, half duplex, FSK h. 300 bps, half duplex, FSK 34. These are low speed voice band modems. e. Synchronous modems g. Isochronous modems f. Asynchronous modems h. None of the above 35. Asynchronous modems used what scheme of modulation? e. ASK g. Both a and b f. FSK h. None of the above 36. Application of asynchronous voice-band modems e. Telemetry g. Both a and b f. Caller ID h. None of the above 37. Capable of operating at full duplex over a two-wire telephone line at 300 bps. e. Bell System 202T g. Bell System 103 f. Bell System 202S h. Bell System201 38. Bell System 202 modem has ______ baud rate. e. 300 f. 600 g. 900 h. 1200 39. It is when asynchronous data is transported by asynchronous modem. e. Bus g. Data transmission f. Isochronous transmission h. Training sequence 40. It uses PSK or QAM to transport data. e. Synchronous modems g. Isochronous modems f. Asynchronous modems h. None of the above DATA communications modem blk2

1. Interface digital terminal equipments to analog communications facilities. a. data sets c. Modems b. dataphones d. All of the above 2. Most common type of modem a. Telephone-loop Modems c. DTE b. Broadband Modems d. Bell System-Compatible Modems 3. Can operate using different set of standards and protocols compared to telephone loops a. Telephone-loop Modems c. DTE b. Broadband Modems d. Bell System-Compatible Modems 4. Refers to the rate of change of the signal on the transmission medium after encoding and modulation have occurred. a. Bps c. Baud rate d. Transmissio b. Modulation n 5. Transmission rate of 9600 bps or less. a. Telephone-loop Modems c. DTE b. Broadband Modems d. Bell System-Compatible Modems 6. Interfaces the modem transmitter and receiver to the Serial interface. It also manages the flow of control, timing, and data information transferred between the DTE and the modem a. Serial Interface Circuit c. Modulator Circuit b. Bandpass filter d. Telco Interface 7. Receives digital information. It converts digital changes in the information to analog a. Serial Interface Circuit c. Modulator Circuit b. Bandpass filter d. Telco Interface 8. Limits the bandwidth of the digitally modulated analog signals to the bandwidth appropriate for transmission over a standard telephone circuit. a. Serial Interface Circuit c. Modulator Circuit b. Bandpass filter d. Telco Interface 9. It is the transmission of synchronous data over asynchronous data communications voice-band modems. a. Asosynchronous Transmission c. Isotropic Transmission b. Isosynchronous Transmission d. None of the Above 10. The following are features of a Data Communication Modem except: a. Caller ID recognition c. Error Detection b. Telephone Directory d. Data Compression and Expansion 11. A high-speed synchronous voice-band modem operates at: a. 16-QAM; 9.6 kbps; 4 bps/Hz c. 16-QAM; 9.6 kbps; 4 kbps/Hz b. 16-QAM; 9.6 bps; 4 kbps/Hz d. 16-QAM; 9.6 kbps; 4 bps/KHz 12. What digital modulation scheme does the Bell System Compatible Modem 209 A/B use? a. 16-PSK c. 8-PSK b. 16-QAM d. None of the above 13. A form of digital modulation where the digital information is contained in both amplitude and phase of the transmitted carrier a. Quadrative Amplitude Modulation c. Quadruple Amplitude Modulation b. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation d. Quadratic Amplitude Modulation 14. Low-band channel frequency ranges from: a. 300-1650 Hz c. 300-1670 Hz b. 350-1600 Hz d. None of the above 15. Compensation for phase delay distortion and amplitude distortion inherently present on telephone communications channel. a. Equalization c. Convention b. Synchronization d. Configuration 16. Equalizer located in the transmit section of a modem. a. Compromise c. Adaptive b. Pre-equalizer d. Post-equalizer 17. Equalizer located in the receiver section of a modem. a. Compromise c. Adaptive b. Pre-equalizer d. Post-equalizer 18. Typically, compromise equalizers affect the following: a. Amplitude c. Both a and b b. Delay d. None of the above 19. A special, internally generated bit pattern produced by a transmit modem. a. Training Sequence c. Adapters b. Equalizer d. Carrier

20. RLSD stands for: a. Received Line Signal Detector b. Request Line Signal Detection

c. Reverse Line Signal Detector d. Receiver Line Signal Detector

ITU-T MODEM RECOMMENDATIONS BLK1 1. The ITU-T specifications are known as __________. a. EBCDIC b. X-series c. V-series d. ASCII 2. The ITU-T V.29 specification is the first internationally accepted standard for __________ data transmission rate. a. 9600 bps b. 1200 bps c. 2400 bps d. 4800 bps 3. Pseudo full-duplex operation can be achieved over two-wire lines using a method called __________. a. ping c. pong b. ping-pong d. none of these 4. In V.32, what advanced coding technique is used? a. Baudot b. Discrete c. Continuous d. Trellis 5. The constellation diagram for 32-sate trellis encoding was developed by __________. a. Dr. Ungerboeck c. Emile Baudot b. Thomas Murray d. Konrad Zuis 6. Full-duplex operation over two-wire switched telephone lines is achieved with V.32 using a technique called __________. a. QAM constellation c. echo cancellation b. statistical duplexing d. none of these 7. ITU-T recommendation V.32bis was introduced in the year __________. a. 1990 b. 1991 c. 1992 d. 1993 8. V.32bis uses a __________ signal constellation with each signalling condition representing 6 bits of data. a. 16-point b. 32-point c. 48-point d. 64-point 9. __________ feature slowly reduces the transmission bit rates to 12.2 kbps, 9.6 kbps, or 4.8 kbps if the quality of the communication line degrades on V.32bis. a. Fall-back c. Ping-pong b. Fall-forward d. Echo Cancellation 10. In V.32bis, __________ feature gives the modem the ability to return to the higher transmission rate when the quality of channel improves. a. fall-back c. ping-pong b. fall-forward d. echo cancellation 11. The __________ signal constellation is used on V.33. a. 128-point b. 64-point c. 32-point d. 16-point 12. This ITU-T standard is used in electrocardiogram over telephone lines. a. V.13 b. V.14 c. V.15 d. V.16 13. This standard limits the output power levels of modems used on telephone lines. a. V.5 b. V.4 c. V.2 d. V.1 14. This standard is focused on the maintenance of international data circuits. a. V.50 b. V.51 c. V.52 d. V.53 15. This ITU-T standard was accepted in the year 2000. a. V.92 b. V.100 c. V.110 d. V.120 16. The ITU-T developed the __________ specification in February 1998 during a meeting in Geneva, Switzerland. a. V.56 b. V.57 c. V.90 d. V.92 17. This standard is an enhancement adopted by the ITU in 1996. a. V.31bis b. V.34t c. V.42bis d. V.32terbo 18. This is a standard for acoustical couplers. a. V.13 b. V.14 c. V.15 d. V.16 19. This is a standard for loop test devices for modems. a. V.51 b. V.52 c. V.53 d. V.54 20. This standard defines binary 0/1 data bits as space/mark line conditions. a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.4 d. V.5 ITU-T Modem Recommendations blk2 1. Data sent to the modem at each end of the circuit by their respective DTE are buffered and automatically exchanged over the data link by rapidly turning the carriers on and off in succession? a. ping-pong c. echo cancellation b. trellis encoding d. statistical duplexing

2. Using this, pseudo full-duplex operation over two wire-line can also accomplished, it utilizes a 300-bps reverse data channel? a. ping-pong c. echo cancellation b. trellis encoding d. statistical duplexing 3. Involves an adding an inverted replica of the transmitted signal to the received signal? a. ping-pong c. echo cancellation b. trellis encoding d. statistical duplexing 4. The first internationally accepted standard for 9600bps data transmission rate. a. ITU-T V.29 c. ITU-T V.32bis b. ITU-T V.32 d. ITU-T V.42 5. It is intended to provide synchronous data transmission over four-wire leased lines. a. V.29 b. V.32 c. V.32bis d. V.42 6. It addresses asynchronous-to synchronous transmission conversions and error control that includes both detection and correction. It specifies a new protocol called Link Access Procedures for Modems. a. V.29 b. V.32 c. V.32bis d. V.42 7. An enhanced standard adopted by ITU in 1996. It adds 31.2 kbps and 33.6 kbps to the V.34 specification. a. V.29 b. V.32 c. V.34+ d. V.90 8. Developed by ITU-T in February 1998 during a meeting in Geneva, Switzerland. It defines an asymmetrical data transmission technology where the upstream 33.6kbps and downstream of 56kbps. a. V.29 b. V.32 c. V.34+ d. V.90 9. A new modem standard in 2000 which offers 3 improvements over V.90 that can be achieved only if both the transmit and receive modems and the internet Service Provider (ISP) are compliant. It offers; upstream transmission rate of 48 kbps, faster call setup capabilities, incorporation of a hold option a. V.92 b. V.90 c. V.32 d. V.34 10. This feature slowly reduces the transmission bit rate from 14.4 kbps to 12.2 kbps, 9.6 kbps or 4.8 kbps if the quality of communication line degrades. a. ping-pong c. fall-back b. trellis encoding d. fall-forward 11. It gives the modem the ability to return to the higher transmission rate when the quality of communications channel improves. a. ping-pong c. fall-back b. trellis encoding d. fall-forward 12. Defines binary 0/1 data bits as space/mark line conditions a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.4 d. V.5 13. Limits output power levels of modem used on telephone lines. a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.4 d. V.5 14. Standard synchronous signalling rate for dial-up telephone lines. a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.4 d. V.5 15. Sequence of bits within a transmitted character. a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.4 d. V.5 16. Electrical characteristics for V. 24 a. V.1 b. V.2 c. V.28 d. V.31 17. Older electrical characteristics rarely used today. a. V.10 b. V.2 c. V.28 d. V.31 18. Unbalanced high speed electrical interface specification (similar to RS-423). a. V.10 b. V.11 c. V.28 d. V.31 19. Balanced high speed electrical interface specification (similar to RS-423). a. V.10 b. V.11 c. V.28 d. V.20 20. Parallel data transmission modems a. V.10 b. V.11 c. V.28 d. V.20 DATA LINK PROTOCOL FUNCTIONS- BLK1 1. What is the protocol layer that transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network? a. Data Link Layer c. Application Layer b. Physical Layer d. Session Layer 2. Which is not a function of Data Link layer? a. Error Control c. Data Encryption b. Line Discipline d. Flow Control 3. It determines which device can send and when it can send. a. Error Control c. Data Encryption b. Line Discipline d. Flow Control 4. It defines a set of procedures that tells the transmitting station how much data it can send.

a. Error Control c. Data Encryption b. Line Discipline d. Flow Control 5. It is concerned primarily with error detection and message retransmission. a. Error Control c. Data Encryption b. Line Discipline d. Flow Control 6. Which is not a part of Line Discipline? a. Enquiry c. Poll/Select b. Acknowledgement d. Stop-and-wait 7. The response to enquiry when the receiver is not ready to receive. a. Positive Acknowledgement c. Balance Acknowledgement b. Negative Acknowledgement d. Zero Acknowledgement 8. The response to enquiry when the receiver is ready to receive. a. Positive Acknowledgement c. Balance Acknowledgement b. Negative Acknowledgement d. Zero Acknowledgement 9. It is a solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary has a data to transmit. a. Poll c. Selection b. Addresses d. Enquiry 10. It is how the primary designates a secondary as a destination or recipient of data. a. Poll b. Addresses c. Selection d. Enquiry 11. ARQ stands for __________. a. Amplified Resonance Query c. Amplified Resonance Request b. Automatic Repeat Question d. Automatic Repeat Request 12. EOT stands for a. Enquiry of Transfer c. Enquiry of Transmit b. End of Transfer d. End of Transmit 13. It uses a window size to control the number of unacknowledged frames outstanding? a. Poll/Select c. Stop-and-Wait ARQ b. ENQ/ACK d. Go-back-n ARQ 14. The source transmits a single frame, and waits for an ACK. a. Poll/Select c. Stop-and-Wait ARQ b. ENQ/ACK d. Go-back-n ARQ 15. A source station can transmit several frames in succession before receiving an acknowledgement. a. Stop-and-Wait ARQ c. Stop-and-Wait Flow control b. Go-back-n ARQ d. Sliding Window Flow control 16. Header of a frame generally contains __________. a. synchronization bytes c. frame identifier b. addresses d. all of the above 17. When 2 or more bits in a data unit have been changed during the transmission, the error is called __________. a. Random error c. Inverted error b. Burst error d. None of the above 18. Which one of the following is a data link protocol? a. Ethernet c. HDLC b. Point-to-Point Protocol d. All of the above 19. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium? a. Logical Link Control Sublayer c. Network Interface Control Sublayer b. Media Access Control Sublayer d. None of the above 20. CRC stands for __________. a. Cyclic Redundancy Check c. Code Redundancy Check b. Code Repeat Check d. Cyclic Repeat Check Data Link Protocol Functions blk2 1) The receiving station is also called the _________. a) Master Station c) Slave Station b) Primary Station d) Control Station 2) The primary disadvantage of sliding window flow control. a) Capacity c) Speed b) Network Utilization d) Cost 3) Refers to the imaginary receptacles at the source and destination stations with the capacity of holding several frames of data. a) Stop-and-wait b) Go-back-nss

c) Sliding Window d) Automatic Repeat Request 4) Error correction is generally accomplished with a type of retransmission. a) Automatic Repeat Request c) Sliding Window b) Stop-and-wait d) Go-back-n 5) Coordinates half-duplex transmission on a data communications network. a) Error Control c) Data-link protocol b) Flow Control d) Line Discipline 6) Frame, block, or packet of data transmitted to initiate session. a) ACK b) ENQ c) NAK d) EOT 7) Means of detecting and correcting transmission errors. a) Flow Control c) Line Discipline b) Error Control d) Data-link protocol 8) Set of rules implementing and governing an orderly exchange of data between layer two devices. a) Line Discipline c) Data-link protocol b) Error Control d) Flow Control 9) All stations are equal, and any station can transmit at any time. a) Primary-secondary network c) Interconnection of network b) Data communication network d) Peer-to-peer network 10) Coordinates the rate at which data are transported over a link. a) Error Control c) Line Discipline b) Data-link protocol d) Flow Control 11) Solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary is ready to receive data. a) Poll c) Acknowledgement b) Selection d) End-of-transmission 12) Query from the primary to determine if the secondary is ready to receive data. a) End-of-transmission c) Selection b) Poll d) Acknowledgement 13) Transmitting statain sends one message frame and then waits for an acknowledgement before sending the next message frame. a) Automatic Repeat Request c) Stop-and-wait b) Sliding Window d) Selective Repeat 14) Primary advantage of stop-and-wait. a) Accuracy c) Speed b) Simplicity d) Reliability 15) Primary disadvantage of stop-and-wait. a) Accuracy b) Speed c) Reliability d) Simplicity 16) Response when the destination is ready to receive. a) NAK b) ENQ c) ACK d) EOT 17) General number of unsuccessful attempts to establish communications. a) Three b) Five c) Two d) Four 18) Situation where the initiating station gives up establishing communications after several attempts. a) Give-up c) Back-end b) End-of-transmission d) Time-out 19) A station may send multiple frames as allowed by the window size. a) Go-back-n c) Stop-and-wait b) Sliding Window d) Selective Repeat 20) The sender only retransmits frames for which a NAK is received. a) Go-back-n c) Stop-and-wait b) Sliding Window d) Selective Repeat CHARACTER- AND BIT-ORIENTED DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS blk1 1. Protocols that transmit and control information either in separate control frames or in the form of overhead that is added to the data and included in the same frame. a. Overhead Protocol c. Data-Link Protocol b. Control Protocol d. Bit-Oriented Protocol 2. Data-link protocols can be classified as __________. a. Bit-oriented or Character-oriented c. a and b b. Data-oriented or Modem-Oriented discern d. none of the above 3. Interprets a frame of data as a group of successive bits combined into predefined patterns of fixed length. a. Character-oriented protocol c. a and b b. Bit-oriented protocol d. none of the above 4. The length of successive bits in character-oriented protocol is usually __________ bits.

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 5. Indicates that the next character is the first character of the text a. ETX b. STX c. BSC d. SDLC 6. Indicates that the next character is the last character of the text a. ETX b. STX c. BSC d. SDLC 7. Character-oriented protocols are sometimes called __________. a. byte-oriented protocols c. frame-oriented protocols b. bit-oriented protocols d. data-oriented protocols 8. Bit-oriented protocols are __________ than character-oriented protocols. a. less efficient c. same efficiency b. more efficient d. it depends 9. A discipline for serial-by-bit information transfer over a data communications channel a. Character-Oriented Protocols c. Frame-Oriented Protocols b. Byte-Oriented Protocols d. Bit-Oriented Protocols 10. Most popular bit-oriented protocols are: a. BSC c. BLAST b. SDLC and HDLC d. XMODEM and YMODEM 11. Relatively simple, character-oriented protocols generally used on two-point networks using asynchronous data and asynchronous modem a. Synchronous Data-Link Protocols c. Asynchronous Data-Link Protocols b. Isochronous Data-Link Protocols d. none of the above 12. The first file transfer protocol developed by Ward Christiansen in 1979. a. WMODEM c. YMODEM b. ZMODEM d. XMODEM 13. A data-link control character that is used to indicate the beginning of the header a. SOH c. Information Field b. Sequence number d. STX 14. An asynchronous data-link protocol with information field which has a maximum capacity of 1024 bytes. a. XMODEM b. YMODEM c. ZMODEM d. KERMIT 15. A data-link protocol where remote stations can have more than one PC or printed. a. Asynchronous Data-Link Protocols c. Character-oriented protocols b. Bit-oriented protocol d. Synchronous Data-Link Protocols 16. A synchronous character-oriented data-link protocol developed by IBM a. Bisynchronous communications c. BSC b. Bisync d. all of the above 17. Indicates that the BCC was good a. Positive Acknowledgment c. ARQ b. Negative Acknowledgment d. NAK 18. An automatic request for re-transmission a. Positive Acknowledgment c. ARQ b. Negative Acknowledgment d. ACK 19. Used to terminate blocks of data except the final block a. DLE SYN b. DLE ITB c. DLE ETB d. DLE CRC 20. Used to terminate blocks of transparent text other than the final block when the end of intermittent block is used for a block-terminating character a. DLE SYN b. DLE ITB c. DLE ETB d. DLE CRCs Asynchronous Data-Link Protocols blk2 1. Relatively simple, character-oriented protocols generally used on two-point networks using asynchronous data and asychronous modems. a. Synchronous Data-Link Protocols c. Character-Oriented Data-Link Protocols b. Asynchronous Data-Link Protocols d. Bit-Oriented Data-Link Protocols 2. The first file transfer protocol designed to facilitate transferring data between two personal computers over the public switched telephone network. a. XMODEM c. ZMODEM b. YMODEM d. None of the above 3. Who developed the first file tranfer protocol? a. Guglielmo Marconi c. Ward Christiansen b. Bill Gates d. Emile Baudot 4. First field of an XMODEM frame. a. Start of heading (SOH) field c. Data field b. Header field d. Error detection field

5. Contains the actual user data. a. Start of heading (SOH) field c. Data field b. Header field d. Error detection field 6. Maximum capacity of information field. a. 64 bytes b. 128 bytes c. 256 bytes d. 512 bytes 7. Process of transferring data begins for an XMODEM when: a. Source sends an ACK to the destination c. Source sends NAK to destination b. Destination sends an ACK to source d. Destination sends NAK to source 8. Who officially gave the YMODEM its name? a. Guglielmo Marconi c. Ward Christiansen b. Bill Gates d. Emile Baudot 9. Character-Oriented Protocol is also known as? a. Alphabet Oriented Protocol c. Bit Oriented Protocol b Byte Oriented Protocol d. None of the above 10. Which is true in a Character-Oriented Protocol? a. All control and data information are exchanged in the form of characters from a character code set b. Is a discipline for serial-by-bit information transfer c. Both A & C d. None of the above 11. In a Character-Oriented Protocol a character is equivalent to how many bits? a. 4 b. 8 c. 2 d. 1 12. Which statement is true? a. Character-oriented protocols are more efficient than bit-oriented protocols b. Character-oriented protocol is one classification of data-link layer c. Bit-oriented protocols are more efficient than character-oriented protocols d. Both A and B 13. The main character-oriented protocol used today is? a. M-SYNC c. BI-SYNC b. N-SYNC d. TRI-SYNC 14. Which statement is false in a bit-oriented protocol? a. Data-link control information is transferred as a series of successive bits that may be interpreted individually on a bit-by-bit basis or in groups of several bits b. There are no dedicated data link control characters c. The control field within a frame conveys only one control function d. Is a discipline for serial-by-bit information transfer over a data communications channel 15. It is a group of digital devices a. Cluster b. Link c. Poll d. Data 16. It the most common synchronous data link protocol a. Binary Synchronous Communications b. 16-ary Synchronous Communications c. 64-ary Synchronous Communications d. 128-ary Synchronous Communications 17. Binary Synchronous Communications (BSC) is developed by a. Xerox b. Intel c. IBM d. Samsung 18. With Binary Synchronous Communications, each data transmission is preceded by how many synchronization characters? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 19. _____ is used to terminate all blocks of data except the final block. a. DLE ETB b. DLE ITB c. DLE SYN d. DLE DLE 20. _____ is used to terminate blocks of transparent text other than the final block. a. DLE ETB b. DLE ITB c. DLE SYN d. DLE DLE SYNCHRONOUS DATA-LINK PROTOCOL blk1 1. What is the first link-layer protocol based on synchronous, bit-oriented operation? a. Synchronous Data-Link Control c. Link Access Procedure b. High-Level Data-Link Control d. IEEE 802.2 2. An address common to a number of stations a. Broadcast address c. Group address b. Station address d. IP block 3. How many addresses are possible in an address field? a. 252 b. 256 c. 254

d. 248

4. It prevents the flag pattern from occurring anywhere else in the frame. a. Flag bit c. Sequential Frame b. Zero insertion d. Cyclic Redundancy Checking 5. The ending and beginning flag has the binary format __________. a. 01111110 c. 10000001 b. 10000000 d. 0000110X 6. It is an eight-bit field that identifies the type of frame being transmitted. a. Flag field c. Control field b. Address field d. Information field 7. The following are the frame formats with SDLC except for? a. Information c. Unnumbered b. Supervisory d. Frame-check 8. Used for transmitting sequenced information that must be acknowledged by the destination station. a. Information c. Unnumbered b. Supervisory d. Frame-check 9. With this frame format, an information field is not allowed. a. Information c. Unnumbered b. Supervisory d. Frame-check 10. Identified by making bits b6 and b7 in the control field both logic 1s. a. Information c. Unnumbered b. Supervisory d. Frame-check 11. Generating polynomial used by the Frame Check Sequence Field. a. x^7+x^5+x^4+x^2+1 c. x^16+x^13+x^10+5 b. x^16+x^12+x^5+1 d. x^9+x^6+x^3 12. SDLC loop operation operates in __________. a. Full duplex c. Full/full duplex b. Simplex d. Half-duplex 13. It is a subcommand used to isolate open-loop continuity problems. a. Wrap c. Beacon Test b. Modified-Link Test d. Modified Link Test 14. Eight consecutive logic 0s sent by the primary after the last frame a. Go-ahead sequence c. Clear sequence b. Turn-around sequence d. Last flag 15. Secondary stations cannot transmit frames of their own until they receive a frame with the __________. a. X bit set b. F bit set c. P bit set d. Y bit set 16. An SDLC operation that discusses the occurrence of the flag bit sequence a. SDLC Transparency c. SDLC Occurrence Sequence b. SDLC Loop Configuration d. SDLC Bit Sequence 17. A mechanism that inserts 0 in able to provide more reliable frames a. Zero Bit Insertion c. a and b b. Zero Bit Stuffing d. None of the above 18. Used to prematurely terminate an SDLC frame a. Message Reject c. Message Abort b. Message Reject d. Message Cancel 19. Superset of SDLC a. SDLC-A c. a and b b. HDLC d. None of the above 20. What is the term when a station is logically disconnected from the network? a. Normal Separate Mode c. Normal Disengage Mode b. Normal Disconnect Mode d. Normal Detach Mode SDLC blk2 1. Used to prematurely terminate an SDLC frame a. DCE c. Message Abort b. DTE d. Switch 2. Message abort is any occurrence of __ to __ consecutive logic 1s a. 6-13 b. 3-20 c. 7-14 d. 5-14 3. State wherein there are 15 or more contiguous logic 1s present. a. Idle State c. Reading State b. Ready State d. Encoding State 4. Encoding scheme used with SDLC because it guarantees at least one transition in the data for every seven (7) bits transmitted.

a. Revert-on-zero coding c. Revert-on-one coding b. Invert-on-one coding d. Invert-on-zero coding 5. What does NRZI mean? a. Nonreturn-to-zero inverted c. Nonreduce-to-zero inverted b. Null-refer-to-zero information d. Nonreceive-to-zero inverted 6. Encoding that was originally intended for asynchronous modems that do not have clock recovery capabilities. a. NRZI c. RZ b. Manchester d. NRZ 7. Which of the following is the CORRECT frame format for SDLC? a. Flag-FCS-Information-Control-Address b. Flag-Information-Control-Address-FCS c. Flag-Address-Control-Information-FCS d. Flag-Control-Information-FCS-Address 8. This exists whenever the primary or the secondary stations is transmitting. a. Active state c. Transient state b. Idle state d. None of the above 9. Bit sequence of a flag a. 00111110 c. 01111110 b. 01010101 d. 10000001 10. it is identified by making bits b6 and b7 in the control field both logic 1s a. Unnumbered frame c. Control frame b. Information frame d. Supervisory frame 11. A command that places a secondary station into the initialization mode. a. RIM b. SIM c. SNRM d. UA 12. In which layer does SDLC belongs to? a. layer 3 b. layer 1 c. layer 2 d. layer 4 13. It is a response transmitted from a secondary station if the primary station attempts to send numbered information frames to it when the secondary station is in the normal disconnect mode. a. RD b. DISC c. DM d. UA 14. It is the field that contains the error detection for SDLC. a. Control c. Information b. FCC d. CRC 15. What does SDLC stand for? a. Synchronous Data-Line Control c. Synchronous Data-Link Computing b. Synchronous Data-Link Control d. Systematic Data-Link Control e. 16. SDLC loop operates on ________ - duplex. a. Full-Full b. Full c. Half-Full d. Half 17. What signals the end of the primarys transmissions, signified by a flag followed by 8 logic 0s. a. Turnabout sequence c. Turnawheel sequence b. Turnaround sequence d. Turnagainst sequence 18. SDLC configure command/response (CFGR) that causes the addressed secondary station to place itself into receive-only mode. Once in this mode, the station cannot transmit until it receives a clear command. a. Wrap c. Monitor d. Beacon b. Self-Test Test 19. A solution to make a receiver transparent to all data located between beginning and ending flags in an SDLC frame. a. SDLC Transparency c. SDLC Opaqueness b. SDLC Translucency d. SDLC Reflectiveness 20. What is the transparency mechanism used with SDLC? It is done by automatically inserting a logic 0 after any occurrence of five consecutive logic 1s except in a designated flag before transmission. And when five consecutive logic 1s are received and the next bit is a 0, 0 is automatically deleted or removed. a. Logical insertion/deletion c. Zero Bit insertion/deletion b. Designated Flag Automated Checking d. Frame Check Corrector (DFAC) High-Level Data Link Control blk1 1. What organization modified Synchronous Data Link Control to create High Level Data Link Control? a. ITU-T b. ISO c. OSI d. IBM 2. High Level Data Link Control is a _____ of Synchronous Data Link Control.

a. superior b. branch c. subset d. superset 3. How many standards comprises High Level Data Link Control? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 4. A data organized in a unit is called _____. a. synchronous b. in sync c. frame d. information 5. High Level Data Link Control protocol is under what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 3 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 1 6. It is referred to as the controlling station in High Level Data Link Control. a. Primary Station c. Master Station b. Secondary Station d. Combined Station 7. Error Recovery means _______. a. recovering a deleted error b. recovering a detected error c. ability of the equipment to continue to run even after an error has occurred d. ability of an error or threat to come back after being detected and fixed 8. Frames from the primary station are called ______. a. Primary Frame c. Response Frame b. Command Frame d. Unnumbered Frame 9. The secondary station only responds to the primary if asked to do so. a. True b. False c. No idea d. It depends 10. A station known to be in full control of itself. a. Primary Station c. Combined Station b. Independent Station d. Secondary Station 11. How many operational modes does HDLC offer? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 12. In this mode, the primary station doesn't initiate transfers to the secondary station. a. Normal Response Mode c. Asynchronous Balanced Mode b. Asynchronous Response Mode d. Normal Disconnected Mode 13. The two disconnected modes (NDM and ADM) differ from the operational modes in a way that ______. a. they are disconnected b. the secondary station is logically disconnected from the link c. the secondary station is physically disconnected from the link d. they do not operate 14. The "asynchronous" in both Asynchronous Response Mode (ARM) and Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM) does not refer to the format of the data on the link. a. true b. false c. neither d. it depends 15. This mode uses combined stations. There is no need for permission on the part of any station in this mode a. Asynchronous Balanced Mode c. Combined Balanced Mode b. Asynchronous Disconnected Mode d. Normal Response Mode 16. This type of mode is better for point-to-point links since it reduces overhead. a. Normal Response Mode c. Combined Mode b. Asynchronous Balanced Mode d. Asynchronous Response Mode 17. During half duplex in this mode, the secondary station must wait until it detects and idle channel before it can transfer any frames. a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Asynchronous Response Mode b. Stop and Wait d. Normal Response Mode 18. This is the mode in which the primary station initiates transfers to the secondary station. a. Initiation Mode c. Normal Response Mode b. Primary Mode d. Operational Modes 19. This mode is only used within an unbalanced configuration. a. Asynchronous Unbalanced Mode c. Normal Response Mode b. Synchronous Balanced Mode d. Asynchronous Response Mode 20. IM in HDLC means _______. a. Instant Messaging c. Initialization Mode b. Important Message d. Instantaneous Means 21. A term used to indicate an entity of data. a. Frame b. Packet c. Information d. Bits 22. The first field in an HDLC frame structure. a. Primary Field c. Initialization Field b. Flag Field d. Corn Field 23. Flag field sequence. a. 0111110 b. 1110111

c. 00111100 d. 01111110 24. ________ are continuously transmitted on the link between frames to keep the link active. a. Synchronous c. Flag b. Continuous data d. Control 25. The time between the transmission of actual frames is called the ______. a. idle time c. interframe time fill b. break time d. spacing time 26. This field identifies the primary or secondary stations involvement in the frame transmission or reception. a. relation b. address c. station d. frame 27. A field used to control the communications process. a. Toll field c. Primary field b. Control Field d. Secondary Field 28. This control field performs control functions such as acknowledgment of frames, requests for re-transmission, and requests for temporary suspension of frames being transmitted. a. function field c. ack field b. supervisory format d. data process field 29. The 5th bit position in the control field is called _______. a. control field c. address field b. poll/final bit d. information field 30. This field contains the actual data the sender is transmitting to the receiver. a. information field b. message field c. data field d. retransmission field PUBLIC-SWITCHED DATA NETWORKS blk1 1. It is a device that creates temporary connections between two or more systems. a. Router b. Circuit c. Switch d. Terminal 2. It involves dividing data messages into small bundles of information and transmitting them through communications networks to their intended destinations using computer-controlled switches. a. Value Added Networks c. Node-to-Node Communication b. Packet Switching d. Frame Relay 3. It is a methodology of implementing a telecommunications network in which two network nodes establish a dedicated communications channel (circuit) through the network before the nodes may communicate. a. Packet Switching c. Switchers Switches b. Message Switching d. Circuit Switching 4. This is the foundation of the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). a. Packet Switching c. Switchers Switches b. Message Switching d. Circuit Switching 5. It is the time required to establish the call a. Blocking c. Setup Time b. Real Time d. Delay 6. It is the time when the information is being transferred a. Blocking c. Setup Time b. Real Time d. Delay 7. It is the inability to complete a call because there are no facilities or switching paths available between the source and destination locations a. Blocking c. Setup Time b. Real Time d. Delay 8. What is the type of network transmission that supports Public Switched Telephone Network? a. Circuit Switching c. Packet Switching b. Message Switching d. None of these 9. Which of the following is not an example of Value Added Network? a. Tymnet Inc. c. DATAPAC b. VANs d. GTE telnet 10. The first Public Data Switched Network a. X.25 c. X.1 b. Frame Relay d. None of these 11. Which is not true about Public Switched Data Network? a. They provide direct connection between networks. b. Combine the concepts of value-added networks and packet switching networks.

c. It comprised of one or more wide area data networks designed to provide access to a large number of subscribers with a variety of computer equipment. d. Transport data from a source to a destination through a network of intermediate switching nodes and transmission media. 12. American commercial packet switched network which went into service in 1974. a. DATAPAC c. Tymnet Inc. b. TRANSPAC d. GTE Telnet 13. A network that adds value to the services or facilities provided by a common carrier to provide new types of connection services. a. ISP c. Tier b. VANs d. None of these 14. Message switching is a form of a. store-and-forward c. touch-and-forward b. hold-and-forward d. slide-and-forward 15. Data, including source and destination identification codes, are transmitted into a network and stored in a _____. a. computer c. switch b. router d. printer 16. Type of switching techniques in which data are not transferred in real time. a. Packet Switching c. Circuit Switching b. Message Switching d. None of these 17. The following are the advantages of message switching except for: a. It provides efficient traffic management by assigning priorities to the messages to be switched. b. It operates in real time. c. No physical connection is required between the source & destination as it is in circuit switching. d. Channels are used effectively and network devices share the data channels. 18. Also known as the hold-and-forward network. a. Packet Switching c. Message Switching b. Circuit Switching d. Network Switching 19. Which of the following is not true about packet switching? a. requires complex and expensive switching arrangements and complicated protocols b. hold time is quite short c. No busy signal d. has a dedicated tranmission path 20. Message and packet switching is a ___________ switch. a. transparent c. convertible b. direct d. Transactional PUBLIC-SWITCHED DATA NETWORKS blk1 1. Used for making a standard telephone call a. Circuit-switching c. Store-and-forward b. Message-switching d. Interconnect 2. Time required to establish a call a. Real time b. Setup time c. Blocking d. Short 3. After a call has been established, information is transferred in __________. a. Public-Switched Data Network c. Real time b. Packets d. Value added network 4. It is the inability to complete a call because there are no facilities or switching paths available between the source and destination locations. a. Not transferred c. Hold-and-forward b. Interconnect d. Blocking 5. A circuit switch is a transparent switch because it does nothing more than __________ the source and destination. a. transfer c. interconnect b. hold-and-forward d. short 6. Message switching is a form of __________ network. a. packet-switching c. transactional switch b. store-and-forward d. message-switching 7. In message switching, data are __________ in real time. a. not transferred c. transferred b. short d. hold-and-forwarded 8. With message switching, blocking __________ occur.

a. cannot c. both a and b b. can d. all of the choices 9. Message switch is a __________. a. packet c. Value Added Network b. Public-Switched Data Network d. none of the choices 10. Data are divided into smaller segments, called __________. a. frames b. bits c. packets d. segments 11. In packet switching, the hold time is generally quite __________. a. long b. short c. important d. negligible 12. In packet switching, message transfer is near __________. a. real time c. hold-and-forward b. setup time d. store-and-forward 13. Packet switching is sometimes called __________ network. a. switcher switches c. node-node communication link b. value added network d. hold-and-forward 14. A switched data communications network designed for transferring of data only. a. Public-Switched Data Network c. Value Added Network b. Packet Switching Network d. None of the above 15. These are switching nodes that connect only to other switching nodes if some switching nodes are already connected to end stations. a. Tandem switching nodes c. Switchers switches b. Real time nodes d. Both a and c 16. The combined concepts of Public Switch Data Network a. Value Added Network and Circuit Switching b. Packet Switching Network and Circuit Switching c. Value Added Network and Packet Switching Network d. Packet Switching Network and Message Switching 17. A network which adds value to the services or facilities provided by a common carrier to provide new types of communication services a. Value Added Network c. Both a and c b. Transferred d. None of the choices 18. It involves dividing data messages into small bundles of information and transmitting them through communications network to their intended destinations using computer- controlled switches. a. Packet Switching Network c. Both a and c b. Value Added Network d. None of the choices 19. Three common switching techniques used with public data networks a. Circuit Switching, Message Switching, Packet Switching b. Tandem Switching Nodes, Packet Switching Network, Transactional Switch c. Circuit Switching, Packet Switching Network, Transactional Switch d. Packet Switching, Message Switching, Packet Switching Network 20. __________ generally carry multiplexed data. a. Frames c. Communication Link b. Node-Node Communication Link d. All of the Choices CCITT X.25 USER-TO-NETWORK INTERFACE PROTOCOL blk1 1. ISO is to seven-layer, X.25 is to three layer namely: a. Physical, session, transport c. Network, application, transport b. Application, session, datalink d. Physical, data link, network 2. In circuit switching, path is established for entire message, while in Packet Switching: a. Route established for each packet c. Route are connected to every layer b. Links are established in every layer d. None of the above 3. In Message Switching, messages are stored, while in Packet Switching a. Messages are not stored c. Messages are stored permanently b. Messages are held for a short time d. None of the above 4. In circuit switching, a. Network responsible for lost messages b. Network may be responsible for each packet but not for the entire messages c. User responsible for message-loss protection d. None of the above 5. Packet Switching is the same as __________ when it comes to overhead bits a. Circuit Switching c. Current Switching b. Message Switching d. Equipment Switching

6. ANSI 3.66 and HDLC were selected for the __________ layer. a. Physical b. Data-link c. Network d. Transport 7. LAPB provides for a two-way __________ communications between DTE and DCE. a. Simplex b. Half duplex c. Full duplex d. Full-full 8. __________ command is used to transmit packets. a. DISC b. Informatio c. Send n d. DM 9. The network layer specifies three switching services namely: a. Permanent virtual call, temporary virtual call, datalink b. Permanent virtual call, virtual call, datagram c. Instagram, permanent call, call waiting d. Packet, circuit, message switching 10. A Virtual Call is__________ arrangement. a. One-one c. Many-many b. One-many d. None of the above 11. If messages will fit into single packet where Datagram is somewhat reliable, it is called: a. Single-message per segment protocol c. Multi-packet per segment protocol b. Single-packet per segment protocol d. None of the above 12. Two packet formats used in X.25 a. Send and receive packet c. Call request and data transfer packet b. Front to back packet d. None of the above 13. This field identifies the number of digits that appear in the called address field a. Calling address length c. User data field b. Facilities field d. None of the above 14. This field identifies the number of eight-bit octet present. a. Rice field c. Octomerical Field b. Protocol Identifier field d. Facilities Length Field 15. Deals with network architecture, transmission, signaling, maintenance a. X.44 c. X.40 through X.199 b. X.1 through X.39 d. None of the above 16. A data transfer packet (DTP) is similar to call request packet (CRP) except that: a. DTP has considerably less overhead and can accommodate a much larger user data field. b. CRP has considerably less overhead and can accommodate a much larger user data field c. Both a and b d. None of the above 17. The two packet sequence field a. Call request and data transfer c. Circuit and Packet b. Send packet and receive packet d. None of the above 18. CCITT stands for: a. Commission on Communications International for Telephony and Telegraphy. b. Committee Consultative International for Telephony and Telegraphy c. Center for Communications International for Telephony and Telegraphy. d. None of the above. 19. ______ is logically equivalent to two-point dedicated private line. a. Datagram c. Permanent virtual call b. Virtual call d. None of the above 20. The most efficient service offered in packet switching a. Datagram d. None of the above b. Permanent virtual call c. Virtual call CCITT X.25 USER TO NETWORK INTERFACE PROTOCOL blk2 1. LAPB stands for: a. Low Access Protocol Balanced b. Link Access Protocol Binary 2. What do you mean by X. in X.25? a. Identifying Number b. Modem Series 3. What do you mean by 25 in X.25? a. Receive Sequence Number b. Send Sequence Number 4. Which of the following OSI 7 Layer is not included in X.25?

c. Link Access Protocol Balanced d. Link Access Procedure Balanced c. Sequence d. None of the above c. Identifying Number d. None of the above

a. Data Link Layer c. Physical Layer b. Network Layer d. Transport Layer 5. SABM stands for: a. Synchronous Asynchronous Balanced Mode b. Set Asynchronous Balanced Mode c. Set Automatic Balanced Mode d. Set Asynchronous Binary Mode 6. It is logically equivalent to a two point dedicated private line except slower a. Permanent Virtual Call c. Datagram b. Virtual Call d. None of the above 7. Logically equivalent to making a telephone call through DDD network except no direct end to end connection is made. a. Permanent Virtual Call c. Datagram b. Virtual Call d. None of the above 8. LABP is a subset of: a. SDLC c. BSC b. HDLC d. None of the Above 9. This frame format is responsible for link initialization a. Supervisory c. Information b. Unnumbered d. None of the Above 10. This frame format is responsible for transmission of data a. Supervisory c. Information b. Unnumbered d. None of the Above 11. This frame format is responsible for flow control process a. Supervisory c. Information b. Unnumbered d. None of the Above 12. X.21 Corresponds to: a. RS232 b. RS423A c. RS530 d. RS422A 13. This field is used to identify the function and the content of the packet a. Packet Type c. Logical Channel Identifier b. Format Identifier d. None of the Above 14. It identifies whether the packet is a new call request or a previously established call a. Packet Type c. Logical Channel Identifier b. Format Identifier d. None of the Above 15. This field contains up to 512 bits of optional network facility information. a. Packet Type c. Facilities Field b. Calling Address Length d. Facilities Length Field 16. This field contains the destination address. a. Packet Type c. Called Address b. Calling Address Length d. User Data Field 17. It is a 32 bit field reserved for the subscriber to insert user level protocol functions. a. Packet Type c. Logical Channel Identifier b. Format Identifier d. Protocol Identifier 18. Used on public Data networks of DTE designed for interfacing to asynchronous full-duplex V series modems. a. X.20bis b. X.21bis c. X.25 d. X.28 19. Used on public Data networks of DTE designed for interfacing to synchronous full-duplex V series modems. a. X.20bis b. X.21bis c. X.25 d. X.28 20. Interface between DTE and DCE for terminals for operating in the packet mode on public data networks. a. X.20bis b. X.21bis c. X.25 d. X.28 21. Another way of requesting transmission of frames. a. REJ b. RNR c. RR d. UA 22. It is a response to any illegal command for which there is no indication of transmission errors according to the frame check sequence a. REJ b. RNR c. RR d. FRMR 23. FCS stands for: a. Frame Check Sequence c. Forward Character Sequence b. Frame Character Sequence d. Forward Check Sequence INTEGRATED SERVICE DIGITAL NETWORK blk1 1. It is a proposed network that is intended to provide worldwide telecommunications support of voice, data, video and facsimile information within the same network. a. PSDN b. X.25 c. ISDN d. SDLC

2. In essence, the __________ is the integration of a wide range of services into a single multipurpose network. a. PSDN b. X.25 c. ISDN d. SDLC 3. A network that proposes to interconnect an unlimited number of independent users through a common communications network. a. PSDN b. X.25 c. ISDN d. SDLC 4. The 64-kbps digital connection is the basic building block of __________. a. PSDN b. X.25 c. ISDN d. SDLC 5. It is called the picture or graphical signal. a. Facsimile c. Analog b. Digital d. None of the above 6. Which is not a key objective of developing a worldwide ISDN system? a. System standardization c. Addressing cost-related tariffs b. Multiplexed support d. None of the above 7. Because of the obvious complexity of ISDN, it requires __________ a. Standard interface connection b. Control system to facilitate multiplexing and demultiplexing data c. Usage of variety of protocols and applications d. Nothing 8. It is a key objective of ISDN that ensure universal access to the network. a. Achieving transparency c. System standardization b. Migration d. Variety of configurations 9. A key objective that provides a private-line(leased) and switched services a. Multiplexed support c. Variety of configurations b. System standardization d. Separating functions 10. It allows the customers to use a variety of protocols and applications. a. Achieving transparency c. Variety of configurations b. System standardization d. Separating functions 11. It provides a service to low-capacity personal subscribers as well as to large companies a. Multiplexed support c. Variety of configurations b. System standardization d. Separating functions 12. It is a channel that is used for carrying signalling information and for exchanging network control information. a. D channel b. B channel c. H channel d. C channel 13. It is sometimes called the basic rate interface a. 23B + D b. 2B + D c. 3B + D d. 32B + D 14. It provides multiple 64kbps channels intended to be used by the higher-volume subscribers to the network. a. Basic rate interface c. Primary rate interface b. Access network d. ISDN switch 15. It is also called as primary service. a. Basic rate interface c. Primary rate interface b. Access network d. ISDN switch 16. An __________ routes data to an outgoing channel or central office users. a. Line termination c. Reference point b. Network termination d. Exchange termination 17. Broadband network termination is a. Broadband interface c. Broadband terminal b. Broadband node* d. Broadband network 18. The __________ data rates are used for full-motion video transmission a. H21 and b. H26 and c. H24 and d. H21 and H26 H22 H25 H22 19. A data rate that is intended for bulk data transfer. a. H21 b. H22 c. H23 d. H4 20. The broadband distant terminal is responsible for __________. a. Electrical to optical conversion c. Maintenance of subscriber loop system b. Multiplexing of peripherals d. All of the above ISDN blk2 1. ISDN stands for a. Internal Switch Data Network b. Integrated Switching Digital Network

c. Integrated Services Digital Network d. Internet Services Data Nomenclature

2. Customers gain access to ISDN through a local interface connected to a digital transmission medium called ____________. a. PBX b. LAN c. Digital pipe d. Fiber optic 3. Typical data rates for ISDN connection a. 125 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 32 kbps d. 16 kbps 4. Ensure universal access to the network a. System Standardization c. Migration b. Separating functions d. Multiplex 5. Provide smooth transition while evolving a. Separating function c. Multiplex b. Migration d. Variety of configuration 6. Allow customer to use variety of protocol a. Achieve transparency c. System Standardization b. Migration d. Multiplex 7. B channel of ISDN a. Bit b. Bearer c. Buzz d. Bear 8. Provides multiple 64 kbps channels to be used by higher- volume subscribers to the network. a. Terminal equipment c. Network Termination b. ISDN switch d. Primary service 9. Equipment which supports standard ISDN interfaces a. TE1 c. TA b. TE2 d. Reference point 10. D channel of ISDN a. Datum c. Digital b. Data d. None of the above 11. Converts data from non ISDN to ISDN formats a. TE1 c. TA b. TE2 d. Reference point 12. Used to terminate reference point S a. TE1 b. TE2 c. NT1 d. NT2 13. Service that provides transmission channels capable of supporting higher transmission rates a. BISDN b. ISDN c. Internet d. Broadband 14. Includes two-way exchange of information a. Interactive Services c. Network service b. Primary service d. Distribution Services 15. Information transfer is primarily from service provider to subscriber a. Interactive Services c. Network service b. Primary service d. Distribution Services 16. Provides service to ISDN terminal and broadband terminal a. Subscribers premise network c. Service access b. Broadband node d. Distant terminal 17. Broadband node is also known as a. Access node c. Broadband terminal interface b. Broadband network termination d. Network access 18. Responsible for multiplexing and maintenance of subscriber system a. Feeder point c. Broadcast distant terminal b. Service point d. Distribution interface 19. Provide bidirectional end-to-end transmission a. Conversational services c. Service node b. Distribution services d. None of the above 20. Refer to interfaces between the common carrier subscriber loop and central office loop a. U- reference point c. S- reference point b. T- reference point d. V- reference point ASYNCHRONOUS TRANSFER MODE blk1 1. It was developed in the 1980s by the ITU-T as part of BISDN. a. ATM b. ISDN c. TDM 2. Cell size for ATM. a. 51 b. 52 c. 53 3. Number of bytes for header in ATM. a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

d. PLM d. 54 d. 7

4. Number of bytes for payload in ATM. a. 46 b. 47 c. 48 d. 49 5. Exact year of development of ATM. a. 1989 b. 1988 c. 1987 d. 1986 6. ATM breaks all traffic into 53-Byte cells because a. 53-Byte cells are the ideal size for the voice communication b. 53-Byte cells are the ideal size for data communication c. 53-Byte cells are the ideal size for circuit switching d. 53-Byte cells are the compromised size for both voice and data communication 7. What gives ATM network the ability to operate at different data rates and why? a. Its short, fixed length cells: Allows the prediction of the size of buffers to be used. b. Its short, fixed length cells: Enables the cells to be transported via different routes. c. Its short, fixed length cells: Short delays for voice traffic. d. Its short, 5-Byte header: Less delay for routing the cells. 8. Why is ATM the goal for future networking? a. It is efficient for data transfer. b. It's the only technology suitable for transmission of digital television. c. It allows the integration of voice, data and video into one network. d. It creates an error free network. 9. Which of the following is done in the physical layer of the ATM network? a. Cell multiplexing and demultiplexing b. Generic flow control c. Transmission frame generation/recovery d. Monitoring of the user information field for bit errors and possible corrective actions 10. ATM is said to be a connection oriented technology. What does this mean and why is it necessary? a. Cells travel through the same path to the receiver. By this, cells do not have to be rearranged. b. Cells travel through different paths. Therefore cells can reach the receiver faster. c. A path is reserved exclusively for one user. Arrangement of cells is not necessary. d. Cells are transmitted using fiber optic cables. Cells would be less susceptible to errors. 11. Which of the following is not the benefit of an ATM LAN? a. Better performance concerning with delays b. Very high aggregate throughput c. Interconnecting existing LANs d. Simpler control and network management 12. What advantage does ATM have over STM? a. Unlike ATM, time slots provided by STM for a particular user cannot be grabbed by another user. b. It is cheaper to implement. c. ATM is suitable for real time traffic but not ATM d. Time slots for STM occur at regular intervals. 13. A __________ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. a. Frame c. Cell b. Packet d. None of the above 14. The ATM standard defines __________ layers. a. two b. three c. four d. five 15. __________ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. a. X.25 c. ATM b. Frame Relay d. all of the above 16. A(n) __________ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. a. UNI c. NNN b. NNI d. None of the above 17. __________ is the interface between two ATM switches. a. UNI c. NNN b. NNI d. none of the above 18. In ATM, the __________ layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. a. physical c. AAL b. ATM d. none of the above 19. In ATM, the __________ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. a. physical c. AAL b. ATM d. none of the above

20. In ATM, the __________ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electricalto-optical transformation. a. physical b. ATM layer c. AAL d. none of the above Asynchronous Transfer Mode blk2 1) ATM stands for: A. Asynchronous Tramway Machine B. Asynchronous Transfer Mode C. Automated Transfer Mode D. Automated Transfer Machine 2) It is merely a connection between a source and a destination, which may entail establishing several ATM links between local switching centers. A. Virtual channel B. Virtual path C. Labeled channel D. Labeled path 3) It is a group of virtual channels connected between two points that could compromise several ATM links. A. Virtual channel B.Virtual path C. Labeled channel D. Labeled path 4) ATM incorporates ________ that are transferable at fixed data rates anywhere from 16kbps up to the maximum rate of the carrier system. A. Virtual channel B. Virtual path C. Labeled channels D. Labeled path 5) Once data have entered the network, they are transferred into fixed time slots called _____. A. Paths B. Channels C. Headers D.Cells 6) It uses the first four bits of the first byte of the header field. A. Generic Control Flow Field B.Payload Type Identifier C. Cell Loss Priority D. Header Error Control 7) VPI stands for: A. Viral Path Identifier B.Virtual Path Identifier C. Viral Payload Identifier D. Virtual Payload Identifier 8) The first three bits of the second half of byte 4 specify the type of message in cell. A. Generic Control Flow Field B. Payload Type Identifier C. Cell Loss Priority D. Header Error Control 9) It is set by the user or cleared by the user. A. Generic Control Flow Field B. Payload Type Identifier C. Cell Loss Priority D. Header Error Control 10) It provides some protection against the delivery of cells to the wrong destination address. A. Generic Control Flow Field B. Payload Type Identifier C. Cell Loss Priority D. Header Error Control 11) AAL stands for: A. Asynchronous Adaptive Layer B.ATM Adaptation Layer C. Alternate Adaptation Layer D. Asynchronous Adaptation Layer 12) This is a type of AAL which is designed to accommodate PCM-TDM traffic, which allows the ATM network to emulate voice or DSN services. A. Constant Bit Rate B. VBR timing-sensitive services C. Connection-oriented VBR data transfer D. Connectionless VBR data 13) This type of AAL is reserved for future data services requiring transfer of timing information between terminal points as well as data. A. Constant Bit Rate B. VBR timing-sensitive services C. Connection-oriented VBR data transfer D. Connectionless VBR data 14) Type 3 information fields transfer VBR data such as impulse data generated at irregular intervals between two subscribers over a pre-established data link A. Constant Bit Rate B. VBR timing-sensitive services C. Connection-oriented VBR data transfer D. Connectionless VBR data 15) This AAL type provides for transmission of VBR data that does not have a pre-established connection. A. Constant Bit Rate B. VBR timing-sensitive services C. Connection-oriented VBR data transfer D. Connectionless VBR data 16) These are the source and destination of subscriber data. A. ATM paths B. ATM endpoints C. ATM channels D. ATM switches 17) Its primary function is to route information from a source endpoint to a destination endpoint.

A. ATM paths B. ATM endpoints C. ATM channels D.ATM switches 18) It is simply a portion of a public service providers switching system where the service provider cou ld be a local telephone company or a long-distance carrier. A. Private ATM switch B. Public ATM switch C. Commercial ATM switch D. Government ATM switch 19) These switches are owned and maintained by a private company. A. Private ATM switches B. Public ATM switches C. Commercial ATM switches D. Government ATM switchers 20) ATM switches and ATM endpoints are interconnected with physical communication paths called ________. A. Transmission paths B. Transmission endpoints C. Transmission channels D. Transmission switches ETHERNET blk1 1. Commonly known as fast Ethernet a. 10Base-T c. b. 10Base-5 d. 2. Approximate propagation velocity along the cable in 10Base-5 a. 3x10^8 m/s c. b. 2x10^8 m/s d. 3. Sometimes called thicknet a. 10Base-2 c. b. 10Base-3 d. 4. Transmission media used by 10Base-2 a. RG-11 b. RG-22 c. 5. Another name for 10Base-2 a. thicknet c. b. bagnet d. 6. Maximum distance between two nodes in 10Base-5 a. 1 km b. 1.5 km c. 7. Most popular 10-Mbps Ethernet a. 10Base-2 c. b. 10Base-FL d. 8. In 10Base-FL, FL stands for __________. a. fiber link c. b. first link d. 9. Most common 100-Mbps Ethernet standard a. 100Base-T4 c. b. 100Base-TX d. 10. Physical topology used in 100Base-TX a. mesh b. bus c. 11. Two most popular frame formats a. IEEE 802.3 & Ethernet I c. b. IEEE 803.3 & Ethernet II d. 12. LLC stands for: a. Link to Link Control c. b. Logical Link Control d. 13. Also called vampire tap a. AUI b. MAU c. 14. Original Ethernet designed by Metcalfe and Boggs a. Alto Aloha Network c. b. Hawaiian Network d. 15. IEEE standard used to define full-duplex Ethernet operation a. 802.3x b. 802.3y c. 16. Consists of 8 bytes of alternating 1s and 0s; Used to establish clock a. FCS field c. b. Start of Frame delimiter d. 17. Field used for error correction a. Preamble c. b. FCS field d. 18. Replaced the type field in Ethernet frame a. LLC field b.

100Base-FL 100Base-T 2.5x10^8 m/s 1.2x10^8 m/s 10Base-4 10Base-5 RG-58 cheapernet mahalnet 2 km 10Base-5 10Base-T flat link flipped link 100Base-FL 100Broad-T star d. tree d. 2.5 km d. RG-25

IEEE 802.2 with Snap & DIX 1.0 Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 Linked Logic Control Lagpak nang Lagpak sa Comms MIAU Cisco Network Drug Network 802.3z synchronization Preamble Source Address rice field football field Length field d. 802.3 u d. MAUI

c. EOF delimiter 19. Ethernet II frame field that contains the information a. Length field b. Information field 20. IEEE standard which defined the 1000-Mbps Ethernet a. 802.3x b. 802.2x

d. Start field c. Data field d. Start field c. 803.2z d. 802.3z

Ethernet blk2 . Baseband transmission designed by Robert Metalfe and Dabid Boggs in 1972. a. LAN c. Internet b. Ethernet d. 10 Mbps Ethernet 2. It uses a bus topology and allows a maximum of 5 segments. a. 10 Base-FL c. 10 Base-2 b. 10 Base-3 d. 10 Base-T 3. Defined as the Fiber Optic Inter-Repeater Link (FOIRL) that uses two fiber optic cables to extend the maximum distance between 10 Mbps repeaters to 1000 meters. a. IEEE 802.3d c. IEEE 802.3u b. IEEE 802.3e d. IEEE 802.3x 4. Formal title of IEEE 802.3 a. CSMA/CD c. 10 Base-2 b. DIX 2.0 d. 10 Base-36 5. 10 Mbps transmission rate over simple category 3 UTP cable. a. 10 Base-5 c. 10 Base-2 b. 10 Base-T d. 10 Base-36 6. This version of Ethernet is commonly known as fast Ethernet. a. 10 Mbps Ethernet c. 1000 Mbps Ethernet b. 100 Mbps Ethernet d. 10 Gbps Ethernet 7. What is the maximum number of cable segments supported by the 10 Base-5 Ethernet? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 8. It has a maximum segment length of 500 meters. a. 10 Base-5 c. 10 Base-T b. 10 Base-2 d. 10 Broad-36 9. Another name for the 10 Base-5 Ethernet. a. Gigabit Ethernet c. Cheapernet b. Fast Ethernet d. Frozen Yellow Garden Hose 10. An external device used to connect terminals to the cable. a. Drop c. Thinwire b. Attachment unit interface d. Media access unit 11. It is the most popular 10 Mbps Ethernet commonly used with PC-based LAN environment utilizing star topology. a. 10 Base-2 c. 10 Base-T b. 10 Base-5 d. 10 Base-FL 12. It is the most common 10 Mbps Ethernet that uses optical fiber for the transmission medium. a. 10 Base-FL Ethernet c. 10 Base-FP b. 10 Base-5 d. 10 Base-FB 13. It is a physical layer standard specifying 100 Mbps data rates using two pairs of category 3,4 or 5 UTP or STP cable. a. 100 Base-T c. 100 Base-FX b. 100 Base-TX d. 100 Base-T4 14. It is a physical layer standard specifying 100 Mbps data rates over two optical fiber using a star topology. a. 100 Mbps-T c. 100 Mbps-FX b. 100 Mbps-TX d. 100 Mbps-T4 15. The latest implementation of Ethernet that is used to provideba fat pipe fot high-density backbone connectivity. a. 10 Mbps b. 100 Mbps c. 1 Gbps d. 10 Gbps 16. Consists of 8 bytes to establish clock synchronization. a. Preamble c. Type field b. Start frame delimiter d. Data field 17. Its purpose is to mark the end of the preamble and the beginning of the data frame. a. Preamble c. Type field b. Start frame delimiter d. Data field 18. This field contains 32 bits for error detection and is computed from the header and data fields.

a. Type field c. Length field b. Data field d. Frame check sequence field 19. It contains the informationand can be between 46 bytes and 1500 bytes long. a. Source address c. Type field b. Destination address d. Data field 20. It corresponds to the address of the station sending the frame. a. Destination address c. End of frame delimiter b. Source address d. Start frame delimiter Frame Relay blk2 1. Frame Relay virtual circuits are identified by data-link connection identifiers (DLCIs). a. Discard Eligibity c. Local Management Interface b. Congestion- Control Mechanism d. Data-Link Connection Identifiers 2. DLCI values typically are assigned by the Frame Relay ______________. a. Government c. User b. Service provider d. None of the above 3. It is controlled by a single bit contained in the Frame Relay frame header: a. FECN c. a & b b. BECN d. None of the above 4. The FECN mechanism is initiated when a DTE device sends Frame Relay frames into the ____________. a. Server c. DCE device b. Network d. DTE device 5. The Discard Eligibility (DE) bit is used to indicate that a frame has __________ importance than other frames. a. Lower c. Equal b. Higher d. None of the above 6. Frame Relay uses a common error-checking mechanism known as the ____________________. a. Cyclic Redundancy Checking b. Longitudinal Redundancy Checking c. Vertical Redundancy Checking d. Hamming Bits 7. LMI virtual circuit status messages provide communication and synchronization between Frame Relay _____________ device(s). a. DTE c. a & b b. DCE d. None of the above 8. It delimits the beginning and end of the frame. The value of this field is always the same and is represented either as the hexadecimal number 7E or as the binary number 01111110. a. Flags c. Data b. Address d. FCS 9. The ________ is the bit that follows the most significant DLCI byte in the Address field. a. C/R b. EA c. DLCI d. DE 10. The Congestion Control consists of 3 bits that control the frame relay congestion mechanisms. These are the ____, ______, and ______ bits. a. FECN, BECN, EA c. FECN,BECN,DE b. BECN,DE,EA d. C/R,FECN,BECN 11. It ensures the integrity of transmitted data. a. Data c. Flags b. Frame Check Sequence d. Address 12. The LMI-specific DLCI value defined in the LMI consortium specification is DLCI = _____. a. 1021 b. 1022 c. 1023 d. 1024 13. Always contains a value indicating that the frame is an LMI frame. a. Protocol Discriminator c. LMI DLCI b. Call Reference d. Fag 14. ________ contains a variable number of individual information elements (IEs). a. Message type c. Protocol discriminator b. Call reference d. Information Elements 15.___________ is a high-performance WAN protocol that operates at the physical and data link layers of the OSI reference model. a. Frame Relay c. XMODEM b. x.25 d. ISDN 16. ___________ are used for more efficient and flexible data transfers. These packets are switched between the various segments in the network until the destination is reached.

a. Statistical multiplexing c. ISDN b. Variable-length packets d. Frame relay 17. ___________ are temporary connections used in situations requiring only sporadic data transfer between DTE devices across the Frame Relay network. a. Permanent Virtual Circuits c. Switched Virtual Circuits b. Data Transfer d. Data-Link Connection Identifier 18. Frame Relay often is described as a streamlined version of ____________. a. X.25 b. XMODEM c. ISDN d. PSDN 19. Considered to be terminating equipment for a specific network. a. DCE b. DTE c. Frame Relay d. XMODEM 20. Carrier-owned internetworking devices. a. DCE b. DTE c. Frame Relay d. XMODEM