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5HOULD VERIFY THAT THE QUE5TION BOOKLET I55UED CONTAIN5 ALL THE
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1. Please ensure that the VERSION CODE shown on the top of this Question Booklet is the
same as that shown in the OMR Answer Sheet issued to you. If you have received a Question
Booklet with a different VERSION CODE, please get it replaced with a Question booklet with
the same VERSION CODE as that of the OMR Answer Sheet from the Invigilator.
THIS IS VERY IMPORTANT.
2. For each question in this examination, there are five suggested answers given against (1), (2),
(3), (4) and of which only one will be the MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER and indicate it in
the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. Negative Marking: Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will
get 4 marks. For each incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score. No
deduction from the total score will, however, be made if no response is indicated for an item in
the answer sheet. The candidates are advised not to attempt such item in answer sheet, if they
are not sure of the correct response. More than one answer indicated a question will be deemed
as incorrect response and will be negatively marked.
4. Rough work should be done only in the space provided for.
VERSION
CODE
A1
9 7 2 4 7
Question Booklet Sl. No.
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY
Questions : 180 Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs
Name of the Candidate :
Signature of the Candidate : Roll No.
AIPMT MODELEXAM
WARNING: Any malpractice or any attempt to commit any kind of malpractice, in the
Examination, will DISQUALIFY THE CANDIDATE.
29- 04 - 14
STLDY CETRE, PALA
SPACE FOR ROUGHWORK
CHE - PHY - BIO -A1
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PHYSICS
1. Equivalent resistance between points A and B is
1) 3R 2) 4R 3)
5R
2
4)
7R
2
2. A heater coil connected to a supply of a 220v is dissipating some power P
1
. The coil is cut into two halves
and the two halves are connected in parallel.The heater now dissipates a power P
2
. The ratio of power
P
1
: P
2
is
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
3. The electric potential at a point (x,y) in the xy plane is given by V = -kxy .The electric field intensity at a
distance r from the origin varies as
1) r
2
2) r 3) 2r 4) 2r
2
4. Three capacitors having capacitance C
1
, C
2
and C
3
respectively are connected with e.m.f. sources V
1
, V
2
and V
3
as shown in the figure. Then the potential at the point A is:
1)
1 2 3
V V V V = + 2)
1 2 3
1 2 2 3 1 3
VV V
V
VV V V VV
=
+ +
3)
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
VC V C V C
V
C C C
+
=
+ +
4)
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
VC V C V C
V
C C C
+ +
=
+ +
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5. An ac source of angular frequency e is fed across a resistor R and capacitor C in series . The current
registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to
3
e
(but maintaining the same voltage), the
current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original
frequency e
1)
3
5
2)
2
5
3)
1
5
4)
4
5
6. A step down transformer transforms a supply line voltage of 2200V into 200V . The primary coil has 5000
turns. The efficiency and power transmitted by transformer are 90% and 8KW respectively. Then the
no.of turns in the secondary is
1) 5000 2) 50 3) 500 4) 5
7. The average electric field of electromagnetic waves in certain region of free space is 9 10
-4
NC
-1
.Then
the average magnetic field in the same region is of the order of
1) 27 10
-4
T 2) 3 10
-12
T 3)
12
1
10 T
3

|
'
4)
12
3 10 T
8. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I ( watt m
-2
) on a non reflecting surface is(c
is the velocity of the light)
1) Ic 2) Ic
2
3)
I
c
4)
2
I
c
9. Energy from the sun is received on earth at the rate of 2 cal cm
-2
min
-1
. If average wavelength of solar light
be taken at 5500A
0
, then how many photons are received on the earth in cm
-2
min
-1
( h =
34
6.6 10 Js, 1 cal = 4.2J

)
1)
13
1.5 10
2)
13
2.9 10
3)
19
2.3 10
4)
19
1.75 10
10. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV and the stopping
potential for a radiation incident on the surface is 5V. The incident radiation lies in
1) ultraviolet region 2) infrared region 3) visible region 4) X-ray region
11. The magnetic moment () of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum number
n as
1) n 2)
1
n
3)
2
n
4) 2
1
n

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12. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency o and the nucleus recoils .The recoil energy
will be
1)
2 2
2
h
2Mc
o
2) zero 3)
ho
4) Mc
2
-
ho
13. In a semiconducting material the mobilities of electrons and holes are
e
and
h
respectively. Which of
the following is true ?
1)
e h
> 2)
e h
< 3)
e h
= 4)
e h
0; 0 < >
14. An amplifier has a voltage gain A
v
= 1000 . The voltage gain in dB is
1) 30 dB 2) 60 dB 3) 3 dB 4) 20 dB
15. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3A and 4A are
the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in Wbm
-2
at the centre of the coil will
be (
7 1 1
0
4 10 wbA m

= )
1)
5
12 10

2)10
-5
3)
5
5 10

4)
5
7 10

16. In the adjacent figure is shown a closed path P. A long straight conductor carrying a current I passes
through O and perpendicular to the plane of the paper. Then which of the following holds good ?
1)
P
B.d 0 =
}

2)
0
P
B.d I =
}

3)
0
P
B.d I >
}

4) None of these
17. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates in the horizontal plane. It makes 20 oscillations per
minute at a plane where dip angle 30
0
and 15 oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle is 60
0
. The
ratio of earths magnetic field at two places is
1)
3 3 : 8
2)
16: 9 3
3) 4 : 9 4)
2 2 : 3
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18. A long magnet is cut into two equal parts, such that the length of each half is same as that of original
magnet.If the period of original magnet is T, the period of new magnet is
1) T 2) T/2 3) T/4 4) 2T
19. Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red coloured rays incident normally on a right angled prism .The
critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46
0
, 44
0
and 43
0
respectively. The
arrangement will separate
1) red colour from blue and green 2) blue colour from red and green
3) green colour from red and blue 4) All the three colours
20. A ray falls on a prism AB(AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure. The least value of refractive index of
material of the prism , should be
1) 1.5 2)
2
3) 1.33 4)
3
21. If youngs double slit experiment , is performed in water
1) the fringe width will decrease 2) the fringe width will increase
3) the fringe width will remain unchanged 4) there will be no change
22. The critical angle of a certain medium is
1
3
sin
5

|
|
'
. The polarizing angle of the medium is
1)
1
4
sin
5

|
|
'
2)
1
5
ta n
3

|
|
'
3)
1
3
ta n
4

|
|
'
4)
1
4
ta n
3

|
|
'
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23. The quantities A and B are related by the relation m = A/B, where m is the linear density and A is the force.
The dimensions of B are of
1) pressure 2) work 3) latent heat 4) energy
24. A thiefs car is moving with a speed of 10 m/s. A police van chasing this car with a speed of 5m/s fires a
bullet at the thiefs car with muzzle velocity 72km/hr.Find the speed with which the bullet will hit the car.
1) 10 m/s 2) 20 m/s 3) 15 m/s 4) 30 m/s
2 5 . F r o m t h e t o p o f a t o w e r i f t w o s t o n e s , w h o s e m a s s e s a r e i n t h e r a t i o 1 : 2 a r e t h r o w n o n e s t r a i g h t u p w i t h
i n i t i a l s p e e d u a n d t h e s e c o n d s t r a i g h t d o w n w i t h t h e s a m e s p e e d u . T h e n n e g l e c t i n g t h e a i r r e s i s t a n c e ,
1 ) T h e h e a v i e r o n e h i t s t h e g r o u n d w i t h a h i g h e r s p e e d
2 ) T h e l i g h t e r o n e h i t s t h e g r o u n d w i t h a h i g h e r s p e e d
3 ) B o t h t h e s t o n e s w i l l h a v e t h e s a m e s p e e d w h e n t h e y h i t s t h e g r o u n d
4 ) T h e s p e e d c a n n o t b e d e t e r m i n e d w i t h t h e g i v e n d a t a
2 6 . A p a r t i c l e i s p r o j e c t e d w i t h v e l o c i t y u s o t h a t i t s h o r i z o n t a l r a n g e i s t h r i c e t h e g r e a t e s t h e i g h t a t t a i n e d . W h a t
i s i t s h o r i z o n t a l r a n g e
1 )
2
1 u
25 g
2)
2
1 u
24 g
3)
2
25 u
24 g
4)
2
24 u
25 g
27. A bus is going due north at a speed of 30 km/h. It makes a 90
o
left turn without changing the speed. The
change in the velocity of the bus is
1) 30 km/h towards west 2) 30 km/h towards south west
3) 42.4 km/h towards north - west 4) 42.4 km/h towards south - west
28. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two revolutions per second. The acceleration of the
particle in m/s
2
is :
1) 2)
8
3)
2
4
4)
2
2
29. A horizontal force of 10N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is
1) 2N 2) 20N 3) 50N 4) 100N
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30. An impulse is supplied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 20
o
with respect to velocity vector.
The angle between the impulse vector and the change in momentum vector is
1) 0
o
2) 60
o
3) 160
o
4) 240
o
31. A water pump driven by petrol rises water at a rate of 0.5 m
3
/min from a depth of 30 m. If the pump is 70%
efficient, the power developed by the engine is
1) 1750 W 2) 2450 W 3) 7000 W 4) 3500 W
32. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
1) upon the system by a non-conservative force
2) by the system against a conservative force
3) by the system against a non-conservative force
4) upon the system by a conservative force
33. Three identical spheres, each of mass M are placed at the corners of a right angled triangle with mutually
perpendicular sides equal to 2m. Taking their point of intersection as the origin, the position vector of
centre of mass is
1) ,
1

i j
3

2) ,
2

i j
3

3) ,
2

i j
3
+
4) ,
1

i j
3
+
34. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its
m i d p o i n t a n d p e r p e n d i c u l a r t o i t s l e n g t h i s I
0
. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its
ends and perpendicular to its length is
1)
2
0
ML
I
2
+ 2)
2
0
ML
I
4
+ 3)
2
0
I 2ML + 4)
2
0
I ML +
35. A simple pendulum has a time period T
1
when on the earths surface, and T
2
when taken to a height R
above the earths surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The value of
2
1
T
T
is
1) 1 2)
2
3) 4 4) 2
36. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a . The gravitational
potential at a point situated at
a
2
distance from the centre , will be
1)
3GM
a

2)
2GM
a

3)
GM
a

4)
4GM
a

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37. Two pendulums begin to swing simultaneously. The first pendulum makes 9 full oscillations when the other
makes 7. The ratio of lengths of the two pendula is,
1)
9
7
2)
7
9
3)
49
81
4)
81
49
38. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period T and energy E. The amplitude of the oscillator is doubled.
Choose the correct answer
1) period and energy get doubled
2) period gets doubled while energy remains the same
3) energy gets doubled while period remains the same
4) period remains the same and energy becomes four times
39. A body just floats in water, the volume of the body is 100 cm
3
. It is placed in a jar containing water. The
mass of the jar and water is 400 g. After placing the body in it, the total mass will be:
1) 250 g 2) 400 g 3) 450 g 4) 500 g
40. Two wires of the same material have their lengths in the ratio 1:2 and diameters in the ratio 2:1. If they are
pulled by the same force, then change in length will be in the ratio:
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:1 4) 1:8
41. In a sine wave, position of different particles at time t = 0 is shown in figure. The equation for this wave if
it is travelling along positive x-axis can be
1) y = Asin ( et - kx) 2) y = Asin (kx - et) 3) y = Asin ( et + kx) 4) y = Acos ( et - kx)
42. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of
frequency 264Hz. Then the length of air column in cm is : (speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.)
1) 32.19 cm 2) 64.39 cm 3) 100 cm 4) 140 cm
43. When the temperature of a black body increases,it is observed that the wave length corresponding to
maximum energy changes from 0.26m to 0.13m. The ratio of the emissive powers of the body at the
respective temperature is
1)
10
1
2)
4
1
3)
1
4
4)
1
16
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44. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a carnot cycle between 227
0
C and 127
0
C. It absorbs 6 K Cal at
higher temperature. The amount of heat (in Kcal) converted into work is
1) 4.8 2) 3.6 3) 1.6 4) 1.2
45. The root mean square velocity of the molecules in a sample of helium is (5/7)
th
that of the molecules in a
sample of hydrogen. If the temperature of hydrogen sample is 0
o
C, then the temperature of helium sample
is about
1) 0
o
C 2) 223K 3) -78
o
C 4) 109.2
o
C
CHEMISTRY
46. The decomposition of a hydrogen follows the equation k = (4.5 x 10
11
s
1
) e
28000K/T
. Calculate E
a
in
kJ mol
1
1) 232.79 2) 23.279 3) 2.3279 4) 2379.9
47. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural :
2
3 3 3 3
NO , ClO , CO , SO

1)
3 3
SO ,NO

2)
2
3 3
ClO , CO

3)
2
3 3
CO , SO

4)
2
3 3
NO , CO

48. Predict in which of the following entropy decreases?
1) A liquid crystallises into solid 2) Temp. of crystalline solid is raised from 1K to 115
K
3)
3(s ) 2 3(s ) 2( g) 2 ( g)
2NaHCO Na CO CO H O + + 4)
, 2(g) g
H 2H
49. A cell in which the following reaction occurs
,
3 2
(aq) (aq) 2(s) aq
2Fe 2I 2Fe I
+ +
+ +
has
0
cell
E 0.236 V = at
298 K. The standard Gibbs energy change for the cell reaction in kJ is
1) 90.11 2) 45.55 3) 22.25 4) 11.25
50. Match suitably
Column - I (Conc. of HCl) Column-II (pH)
A) 10
6
M p) 7.0
B) 10
7
M q) 6.98
C) 10
8
M r) 6.0
D) 10
9
s) 6.70
1) Ap, Bq, Cr, D , Ds 2) Ar, Bs, Cq, Dp
3) Ar, Bs, Cp, Dq 4) As, Br, Cp, Dq
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51. Freundlich isotherm explains the behaviour of adsorption in an approximate manner. The factor
1
n
can
have value
1) 1 in case of physical adsorption 2) 1 in case of chemisorption
3) Between 0 and 1 in all cases 4) Between 2 and 4 in all cases
52. The number of geometrical isomers for octahedral ,
3 4
2
Co NH Cl

(

, square planar
j
2 2
AuCl Br

and
, ,
2
2 3
5
Co NO NH
+
(

are
1) 2, 2, 2 2) 2, 2, no isomerism 3) 3, 2, 2 4) 2, 3, no isomerism
53. Which haloalkane cant be prepared by free radical halogenation of alkanes?
1) CH
3
Cl and CH
3
F 2) CHCl
3
and CH
3
I 3) CCl
4
and CHBr
3
4) CH
3
F and CH
3
I
54. Which is an incorrect statement about ionisation enthalpy?
1) It increases across a period
2) The higher the screening effect, the higher is its value
3) In a given shell, s > p > d > f
4) Ionisation enthalpy ,
1
1
H A
of helium is highest in the periodic table
55. During hydration of alkali metal cations
1) G, H, S A A A are ve 2) G, H A A are ve;
S A
is positive
3) G, H, S A A A are +ve 4) G, S A A are ve;
H A
is +ve
56. XeF
2
reacts with PF
5
to give
1) XeF
4
2)
j j
6
XeF PF
+
3)
j j
3 4
XeF PF
+
4)
j j
2 2
4 4
XeF PF
+
57. An ideal gas is initially at temp. T and volume V. Its volume increases by
V A
due to increase in temp. of
T A
, pressure remaining constant. The quantity
V
V. T
A
=
A
1) 2) 3) 4)
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58. If proton, electron and o -particle have equal kinetic energy, their de-Broglie wavelengths would be in the
order
1)
e p o
i = i < i
2)
p e o
i < i < i
3)
p e o
i > i > i
4)
p e o
i > i > i
59. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) A secondary alcohol on oxidation gives a ketone
2) Ethanol reacts with conc. H
2
SO
4
at 180 C to yield ethylene
3) Methanol reacts with iodine and sodiumhydroxide to give yellow ppt of iodoform
4) Hydrogen gas is liberated when sodium is added to alcohol
60. Phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution more readily in presence of alkali than the phenol itself because
1) Of the formation of a more stable carbocation as an intermediate
2) Of the formation of a more stable carbanion as an intermediate
3) Of the formation of a more stable neutral intermediate
4) In presence of alkali, a stronger electrophile is produced
61. In the Stephens reaction an
1) Alkyl cyanide is reduced with LiAlH
4
2) Alkyl cyanide is reduced with SnCl
2
and HCl
3) Alkyl cyanide is reduced with sodium and alcohol
4) Alkanoylchloride is reduced in presence of Pd/BaSO
4
62. When an aldehyde is heated with alkali, part of its was converted into alcohol and part of it into an acid.
The aldehyde is an
1) Aliphatic aldehyde other than formaldehyde
2) Aliphatic aldehyde or salicylaldehyde
3) Aromatic aldehyde other than salicyl aldehyde
4) Aromatic aldehyde or formaldehyde
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63. Match suitably
Column-I Column-II
A)
4
2
Red P
2 2 Br
RCH CH COOH
p) Esterification
B)
R CH
2
C OR + NaOEt
O
q) Hydrolysis
C)
RCOOH R OH ' +
r) HVZ reaction
D) RCOOCH
3
+ NaOH s) Claisen condensation
1) Ar; Bs; Cp; Dq 2) Ar; Bs; Cq; Dp
3 Ar; Bq; Cp; Ds 4) Ar; Bq; Cs; Dp
64. D glu cos e o and D glu cos e | differ from each other due to difference in one of the carbons with
respect to is
1) Size of hemiacetal ring 2) No. of OH groups
3) Configuration 4) Conformation
65. Aminoacids are
1) Basic as a typical amine and acidic as a carboxylic acid
2) Less basic than a typical amine and less acid than a COOH
3) More basic than a typical amine and more acidic than aCOOH
4) Basicity and acidity cant be predicted
66. When borax is heated on the loop of a platinum wire, its swells up due to loss of water of crystallisation.
When it is further heated it melts into a liquid which solidifies to a transparent glassy mass. The glassy mass
consists of
1) NaBO
2
+ B
2
O
3
2) NaBO
2
3) Na
2
BO
2
4) BN
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67. Which is incorrectly matched?
1) Neoprene :
CH
2
C CH CH
2
Cl
n
2) Nylon 66 :
NH(CH
2
)
6
NH CO (CH
2
)
4 C O
O
n
3) Terylene : OCH
2
CH
2
O C
O
C
O
n
4) PMMA :
CH
2
C
CH
3
COOCH
3
n
68. Which is incorrect about saccharin?
1) It is
SO
2
C
O
NH [Orthosulphobenzimide]
2) 550 times sweeter than sugar
3) Artificial sweetening agent 4) It is a methyl ester of dipeptide
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69.
1 2 3
, , and
4
atm. are the osmotic pressure of 5% (mass/volume) solutions of urea, fructose sucrose
and KCl respectively at certain temp. The correct order of their magnitude is
1)
1 4 2 3
> > > 2)
1 4 2 3
< < < 3)
4 1 2 3
> > > 4)
4 1 3 2
> > >
70. Which one of the following is not a surfactant?
1)
CH
3
(CH
2
)
15
N
+
CH
3
Br
CH
3
CH
3
2)
3 2 14 2 2
CH (CH ) CH NH
3)
3 2 16 2 2
CH (CH ) CH OSO Na
+
4) OHC (CH
2
)
14
CH
2
COO

Na
+
71. Which of the following statement is not true?
1) In the process of precipitation of silver from sodiumdicyanoargentate (I), the zinc act as reducing agent
as well as complexing agent
2) In the process of roasting, the copper pyrites is converted into a mixture of Cu
2
S and FeS which inturn
are partially oxidised
3) Limonite, haematite and magnesite are minerals of iron
4) The extraction of zinc from zincblende is achieved by roasting followed by reduction with carbon
72. Sodiumthiosulphate (Hypo) is prepared by
1) Reducing Na
2
SO
4
with H
2
S 2) Boiling Na
2
SO
3
solution with sulphur
3) Neutralising H
2
S
2
O
3
with NaOH 4) Boiling sulphur with Na
2
CO
3
73. Which of the following statement is unacceptable?
1) Among the oxoacids of chlorine, HOCl, HOClO, HOClO
2
and HOClO
3
, the weakest is HOClO
2
2) Among the halide ions, F

has the highest hydration enthalpy

3) XeO
3
is isostructural with halates ,
3
XO

4) ClF
3
and BrF
3
are used to prepare UF
6
74. Which of the following statements about actinoid is incorrect?
1) Most of the actinoids are synthetic elements
2) Actinoids include the element
104
Rf
3) Actinoids have variable oxidation states ranging from +3 to +7
4) They have no reaction with alkali
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75. In Victor Mayers method, 0.2 g of an organic substance displaced 56 mL of air at STP. The molecular
mass of the compound is
1) 56 2) 112 3) 80 4) 28
76. At absolute zero
1) Only para hydrogen exists 2) Only ortho hydrogen exists
3) Both para and ortho exist in the ration 1 : 1 4) Both ortho and para exist in the ratio 3 : 1
77.
,
3
4 2 2
2 4
CH Cd
HgSO SOCl ( O)
2 2 Dil.H SO
C H (A) (B) (C) D , compound (D) is
1) Propanone 2) Butanone 3) Propanal 4) t-butyl alcohol
78. , ,
NBS Alc.KOH
3 2 2
CH CH CH CH X Y = . The compound (Y) is
1) But-3-en-2-ol 2) But-3-en-1-ol 3) 1,3-Butadiene 4) 1,2-Butadiene
79. Main product formed when benzene is alkylated with n-propyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl
3
is
1) Ethyl and methyl benzene 2) n-propyl benzene
3) Isopropylbenzene 4) Chlorobenzene
80.
2
4 2 4 2
z
xClO yMnO zOH xClO yMnO H O
2

+ + + +
. In this balanced equation x, y, z are
1) 2, 3, 6 2) 1, 3, 4 3) 1, 3, 6 4) 2, 6, 6
81. Which of the following act as a sink for CO?
1) Plants 2) Haemoglobin
3) Microorganisms present in the soil 4) Oceans
82. A mixture of hydrazine (N
2
H
4
) and 58-60% solution of H
2
O
2
is used as
1) Antiseptic 2) Mild bleaching agent 3) Fentones reagent 4) Rocket fuel
83. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because
1) Higher coordination number can be achieved by Al
2) Aluminium has high ionisation enthalpy
3) Aluminium belongs to group 13
4) It cant form a trimer
84. The possible number of spectral lines when an electron jumps from 5th shell to second shell is/are
1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 6
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85. The compressibility factor (Z) for 1 mol CH
4
at low pressure is
1) 1
m
a
V RT
2)
3
8
3)
m
ab
1
V RT

4)
m
a
b
V RT

86. In the reaction

3 3
CH CHO HCN CH CH(OH)CN + , a chiral centre is produced. Thus product would be
1) Meso compound 2) Racemic mixture 3) Laevorotatory 4) Deutrorotatory
87. An organic compound containing one oxygen gives red colour with ceric ammonium nitrate solution,
decolourises alkaline KMnO
4
solution, responds to iodoform test and shows geometrical isomerism. It
would be
1) Ph CH = CH CH
2
OH 2) PhCH = CH CH(OH)CH
3
3) Ph CH = CHCOCH
3
4)
CH
COCH
3
CH CH
2
OH
88. A metal crystallises into two cubic phases, face centred cubic and primitive cubic whose unit cell lengths
are 3A
0
and 2A
0
respectively. The ratio of densities of fcc to primitive cubic unit cell is
1) 1.26 2) 0.79 3) 1.18 4) 0.84
89. Which is incorrect?
1) Free radicals are neutral in nature with sp
2
hybridisation
2) Carbanion is sp
3
hybridised with pyramidal shape
3) Carbocation is sp
2
hybridised with trigonal planar shape
4) Singlet carbene is sp hybridised with linear shape
90. In which one of the following oxoacids of phosphorous, the oxidation state is +3 and prepared by the
reaction of PCl
3
with H
3
PO
3
?
1) H
4
P
2
O
5
2) H
4
P
2
O
6
3) H
3
PO
4
4) HPO
3
BIOLOGY
91. In taxonomy Class comes in between
1) Kingdom and phylum 2) Phylum and order 3) Order and family 4) Family and genus
92. Select the interactions which have positive effects:
a) Symbiosis b) Ammensalism
c) Competition d) Commensalism e) Parasitism
1) Both a & b 2) b, c & d 3) a, b & e 4) Both a & d
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93. What is true about male and female gametophyte in plant kingdom ?
1) In bryophytes and pteridophytes they have independent free-living existence
2) In gymnosperms and angiosperms they have no independent free-living existence
3) Both 1 and 2
4) In bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms they have free living life. They remain in sporangia which
are retained on sporophytes
94. Life cycle of an angiosperm is given below A,B,C,D and E respectively. Find out correct match from the
following:
1) A - Megasporangium, B - Megaspore, C - Female gametophyte, D - Egg, E - Embryo
2) A - Microsporangium, B - Male gametophyte, C - Egg, D - Zygote, E - Embryo
3) A - Microsporangium, B - Microspore, C - Egg, D - Zygote, E - Embryo
4) A - Microsporangium, B - Male gametophyte, C - Zygote, D - Embryo, E - Egg
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95. Matching the following and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
A) Bud in the axil of leaf I. Pitcher plant and venus fly trap
B) Outer layer of seed coat II. Cacti
C) Spines (Modified leaves) III. Testa
D) Leaves modified to catch insects IV. Simple leaf
E) Fleshy leaves with stored food V. Garlic and onion
A B C D E
1) I II III IV V
2) V IV III II I
3) IV III II I V
4) IV II III I V
96. Which one of the option is correct ?
1) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Radicle, D - Cotyledon, E - Plumule
2) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle
3) A - Micropyle, B - Hilum, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle
4) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Radicle, E - Cotyledon
97. The correct floral formula of Liliaceae is
1) Br P
3
A
3+3
G
3
2) Br P
3+3
A
(3+3)
G
(3)
3) Br P
3+3
A
3+3
G
(3)
4) Br P
3+3
A
3+3 3
G
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98. Active and passive transports across cell membrane differ in
1) Passive transport is non-selective
2) Passive transport is along the concentration gradient while active transport is due to metabolic energy
3) Active transport is more rapid
4) Passive transport is confined to anions while active transport is confined to cations
99. During osmosis, water moves through a membrane
From To
1) Low water potential High water potential
2) High solute concentration Low solute concentration
3) High osmotic potential Low osmotic potential
4) A hypotonic solution (less solute) A hypertonic solution (more solute)
100. Which of the following is a component of vitamin (thiamine, biotin), Acetyl coA, cysteine, methionine and
ferredoxin ?
1) Fe 2) S 3) Co 4) K
101. The Respiratory Quotient (R.Q) of some of the compounds are 4, 1 and 0.7. These compounds are
identified respectively as
1) Malic acid, Palmitic acid and tripalmitin
2) Oxalic acid, carbohydrate and tripalmitin
3) Tripalmitin, malic acnd and carbohydrate
4) Palmitic acid, Carbohydrate and Oxalic acid
102. Identify the wrong statements regarding post fertilisation development
1) The ovary wall develops into pericarp
2) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
3) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm
4) The ovule develops into seed
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103. Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
a) Human urine 1) Cytokinin
b) Gibberella fujikuroi 2) Auxin
c) Herring fish DNA 3) Ethylene
d) Ripening fruits 4) Abscisic acid
e) Aged leaves of plants 5) Gibberellins
1) a - 2, b - 5, c - 1, d - 3, e - 4 2) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 5, e - 1
3) a - 1, b - 5, c - 2, d - 4, e - 3 4) a - 5, b - 4, c - 3, d - 2, e - 1
104. 6 - furfuryl amino purine, 2 - 4 - dichlorophenoxy acetic acid and indole - 3 acetic acid are examples
respectively for:
1) Synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural auxin
2) Gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin
3) Natural auxin, Kinetin, and synthetic auxin
4) Kinetin, Synthetic auxin and natural auxin
105. Which of the following statement is/are not true?
a) Cork cambium is otherwise called phellogen
b) Cork is otherwise called phellem
c) Secondary cortex is otherwise called periderm
d) Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called phelloderm
1) c and d only 2) a and b only 3) b and c only 4) b and d only
106. In meiosis I, a bivalent is an association of
1) Four chromatids and four centromeres 2) Two chromatids, and two centromeres
3) Two chromatids and one centromere 4) Four chromatids and two centromeres
107. Given below is the chemical formula of
CH
3
(CH
2
)
14
C OH
O
1) Palmitic acid 2) Stearic acid 3) Glycerol 4) Galactose
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108. Select the wrong statement
1) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids
2) Majority of enzymes contain a non-protein part called the prosthetic group
3) The thylakoids are arranged one above the other like a stack of coins forming a granum
4) Crossing over occurs at pachytene stage of meiosis I
109. Match the number of carbon atoms given in List 1 with that of the compounds given in List II and select the
correct option
List I List II
a. 4c compound 1. Acetyl Co. A
b. 2c compound 2. Pyruvate
c. 5c compound 3. Citric acid
d. 3c compound 4.

- keto glutaric acid
5. Malic acid
1) a - 2, b - 5, c - 3, d - 1 2) a - 5, b -1, c - 4, d - 2
3) a - 3, b - 1, c - 4, d - 2 4) a - 5, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2
110. When a mutation is limited to the substitution of one nucleotide for another, it is called
1) Translocation 2) Point mutation 3) Base inversion 4) Sugar phosphate deletion
111. Downs syndrome is an example of
1) Aneuploidy 2) Polyteny 3) Polyploidy 4) Monoploidy
112. In a pedigree analysis,
O
represents
1) Unrelated mating 2) Consanguinous mating3) Affected parents 4) Siblings
113. Sex chromosomes of a female bird are represented by
1) XO 2) XX 3) XY 4) ZW
114. When a Mendelian dihybrid cross is fit into a punnett square with 16 boxes, the maximum number of
different phenotypes available are
1) 8 2) 4 3) 2 4) 16
115. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for
1) Population explosion 2) Migration 3) Biodiversity loss 4) Pollution
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116. Scrubber is used in electrostatic precipitator to remove gases like
1) sulphur dioxide 2) NO
2
3) CO
2
4) CO
117. It is estimated that out of the total global warming the relative contribution of CO
2
, CH
4
, CFCs, and N
2
O
are found respectively as
1) 60%, 20%, 14% and 6% 2) 6%, 14%, 20% and 60%
3) 20%, 60%, 14% and 6% 4) 20%, 14%, 60% and 6%
118. Chromosome number in gamete of rice is 12. What is the chromosome number in meiocyte
1) 6 2) 24 3) 48 4) 3
119. In which of the following reaction of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the substrate
1) Fructose - 6 - phosphate Fructose, 1, 6 - bisphosphate
2) 3 - phospho glyceraldehyde 1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid
3) PEP Pyruvic acid
4) 2 - Phosphoglycerate PEP
120. Match the following with correct combination
Column I Column II
a. Endoplasmic reticulum 1. Stack of cisternae
b. Spherosome 2. Store oils or fats
c. Dictyosome 3. Synthesis and storage of lipids
d. Peroxisome 4. Photorespiration
e. Elaioplasts 5. Detoxification of drugs
1) a - 5, b - 3, c - 1, d - 4, e - 2 2) a - 5, b - 3, c - 2, d - 4, e - 1
3) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1, d - 4, e - 5 4) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 5, e - 2
121. Read the following statements and identify the correct options given
a) Sap vacuoles - Contain digestive enzymes with the help of which nutrients are digested
b) Contractile vacuoles - take part in osmoregulation and excretion
c) Food vacuoles - store and concentrate mineral salts as well as nutrients
d) Air vacuoles - Store metabolic gases and help in buoyancy of cells
1) (a) and (b) are correct 2) (b) and (d) are correct
3) (a) and (c) are correct 4) (b) and (c) are correct
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122. If a given sample of DNA contains 22% of adenine base, what will be percentage of cytosine base in the
given sample of DNA
1) 78% 2) 56% 3) 28% 4) 22%
123. During translation or protein synthesis peptide bond formation occurs in the following site of ribosome
1) A -site 2) P-site 3) A or P - site 4) A and P site
124. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the techniques used in DNA finger printing
1) Electrophoresis, PCR, Southern blotting, Autoradio graphy
2) Southern blotting, Electrophoresis, PCR, Autoradiography
3) PCR, Electrophoresis, Southern blotting, Autoradiography
4) PCR, Southern blotting, Electrophoresis, Autoradiography
125. Which of the following enzyme is not used in genetic engineering
1) DNA polymerase 2) RNA polymerase
3) Restriction endonuclease 4) Reverse transcriptase
126. Ploidy level of Embryo sac, Megaspore mother cell and nucellus is respectively
1) n, n, n 2) n, n, 2n 3) n, 2n, 2n 4) 2n, 2n, 2n
127. Which of the following micro organisms use for swiss cheese?
1) Propionibacterium 2) Aspergillus 3) Penicillium 4) Streptococcus
128. Read the following statement and choose the correct pairs
1. Used for commercial production of ethanol
2. Used for detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from the laundry
3. Used as clot buster for removing clots from the blood vessel
4. Blood - cholestrol lowering agent
1) 1 - Streptokinase, 2 - Yeast
3 - Lipases, 4 - Statins
2) 1 - Lipases, 2 - Yeast
3 - Streptokinase, 4 - Statins
3) 1 - Yeast, 2 - Lipases
3 - Streptokinase, 4 - Statins
4) 1 - Yeast, 2 - Streptokinase
3 - Lipases, 4 - Statins
129. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen - fixer is
1) Beijernickia 2) Rhodospirillum 3) Rhizobium 4) Azotobacter
130. Which of the following is/are true?
a) Biowar - Biowar is the use of biological weapons against humans and or their crops and
animals
b) Bioethics - Bioethics is the unauthorised use of bioresources and traditional knowledge
related to bioresources for commercial benefits
c) Biopatent - Exploitation of bioresources of other nations without proper anthorisation
1) b only 2) a only 3) a and b only 4) c only
131. Expanded form of GEAC
1) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
2) Genetically Endangered Approval Committee
3) Gene Extension Approval Committee
4) Genetic Engineering Approval Co-operation
132. The first step in production of insulin using E.coli is
1) Isolation of mRNA transcribing for insulin from pancreas cell
2) Isolation of nucleotides transcribing for insulin from pancreas cell
3) Isolation of gene producing insulin from human DNA
4) Attachment of gene producing insulin from human DNA to plasmid using ligase
133. Pusa shubhra is the variety of :
1) Wheat 2) Cowpea 3) Chili 4) Cauliflower
134. The wheat variety Himgiri is resistant against :
1) Black rot 2) Leaf and stripe rust 3) White rust 4) Bacterial blight
135. Find out the false statements about decomposition :
a) It is largely an oxygen - requiring process
b) The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors
c) If detritus rich in lignin and chitin the decomposition rate is quicker
d) If detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugar the decomposition rate is quicker
e) Warm and moist environment inhibit decomposition
1) a and c 2) b and d 3) c and e 4) d and a
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136. What is common among amylase, rennin and trypsin?
1) All are proteins 2) All are proteolytic enzymes
3) Produced in stomach 4) Act at P
H
more than seven
137. HCl of the gastric juice
1) activates ptyalin and inactivates pepsin 2) inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin
3) activates both ptyalin and pepsin 4) inactivates both ptyalin and pepsin
138. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to
happen?
1) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
2) The P
H
of stomach will fall abruptly
3) Steapsin will be more effective
4) Proteins will not be adequately hydrotysed by pepsin in to proteoses and peptones
139. The brain capacity of Homoerectus
1) 650-800 cc 2) 900 cc 3) 1000 cc 4) 1400
140. The eye of an octopus and the eye of a mammal is an example for
1) Divergent evolution 2) Vestigial organs 3) Convergent evolution 4) Atavism
141. Which of the following is not correctly paired?
1) Saltation - Single step large mutation
2) Icthyosaurs - fish like reptile
3) Analogy - common ancestry
4) Darwins finches - Adaptive radiation
142. On administering a dose of penicillin, a sensitive individual release a large amount of histamine. This sudden
violent and fatal reaction is termed
1) Passive immunity 2) Active immunity 3) Allergy 4) Autoimmune disease
143. What is the chemical name of Heroin:
1) Diethyl morphine 2) Dichloro morphine 3) Smack 4) Diacetyl morphine
144. Identify the wrongly matched pair
1) Malignant malaria - P. falciparum
2) Common cold - Rhinovirus
3) Typhoid - Widal Test
4) Plague - Taenia solium
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145. If for some reasons, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system gets blocked, the gametes will
not be transported from
1) Epididymis to vas deferens 2) Ovary to uterus
3) Seminal vesicles 4) Testes to epididymis
146. In human female ovulation occurs
1) At the middle of secretory phase 2) At the end of luteal phase
3) Just before the end of secretory phase 4) At the beginning of luteal phase
147. Which of the following is incorrect
1) Progesterone - Pregnancy hormone
2) Vasectomy - Female sterilisation
3) STD - Hepatitis B
4) Primary spermatocyte- diploid cell
148. What would happen if vasa differentia of man are cut?
1) Semen is without sperms
2) Spermatogenesis does not occurs
3) Spermatogenesis does not occurs
4) Sperms are nonmotile
149. Find the mismatch
1) IUDs - Cervical caps
2) Natural method - coitus interruptus
3) Oral administration - Pills
4) Barrier method - Condoms
150. Transfer of zygote or early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres in to the fallopian tube is known as
1) ZIFT 2) IUT 3) GIFT 4) ICSI
151. Crossing of Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams get
1) Hisardale 2) Hinny 3) Mule 4) Jersey
152. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing
some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of:
1) epiglottis 2) diaphragm 3) tongue 4) Glottis
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153. If a large number of people are enclosed in a room, then
1) Oxygen increases and carbon dioxide decreases
2) Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases
3) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide decreases
4) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide increases
154. Mammalias lungs have an enormous number of minute alveoli (air sacs) . This is to allow
1) More space for increasing the volume of inspired air
2) More surface area for diffusion of gases
3) More spongy texture for keeping lungs in proper shape
4) More nerve supply to keep the lungs working
155. The cup shaped structure of pelvic girdle, the acetabulum in man, is formed by
1) ilium and ischium 2) ilium, ischium and spine
3) ilium, ischium and pubis 4) ilium and spine
156. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1) Cartilaginous joint- Skull bones 2) Hinge joint- Between vertebrae
3) Fibrous joint- Between phalanges 4) Gliding joint- Between the carpals
157. Find out the mismatch
1) Eosinophils - least abundant WBC
2) Monocyte - Phagocyte cell
3) Lymphocyte - Immune response
4) Basophils - inflammatory reaction
158. In the blood group B, the antigen seen on RBC is ......... and the antibodies in plasma is .............
1) Antigen A & Antibody B 2) Antigen B & Antibody A
3) Antigen B & without antibody 4) Antigen A & without Antibody
159. When we analysing the ECG of an adult healthy person the QRS complex represents
1) Depolarisation of the ventricles 2) Depolarisation of the atria
3) Repolarisation of auricles 4) Excitation of atria
160. Which one of the following pairs, the two items means one and the same thing
1) Spleen - Erythropoiesis 2) AV node - pace mater
3) Haemophilia - blood cancer 4) Mitral valve- bicuspid valve
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161. Which of the following statements are True/ False about osteichthyes
a) It includes both marine and fresh water fishes with bony endoskeleton
b) Gill slits without operculum
c) External fertilization
d) Mouth is mostly terminal
e) Heart is four chambered
1) a, b, c are true and d and e are false 2) a, b, d are true and c and e are false
3) a and b are true and c, d, e are false 4) a, c, d are true, b and e are false
162. The effect of Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH) on the kidney is to ;
1) Increase the excretion of water
2) Increase the excretion of Na
+
3) Increase the permeability of the distal nephron to water
4) Increase the glomerular filteration rate
163. Which of the following terms are correct about cortical nephrons :
i) Short loop of Henle ii) Long loop of Henle iii) 85%
iv) 15% v) Peritubular capillary
1) (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) (ii), (iv) and v 3) (i), (iii), and (v) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
164. During repolarisation of nerve
1) Na
+
channels are closed and K
+
channels are opened
2) K
+
channels are closed and Na
+
channels are opened
3) Both Na
+
and K
+
channels are closed
4) Both Na
+
and K
+
channels are opened
165. Match the following
a) Choroid - 1) Provides opening for entry of light
b) Pupil - 2) Transmits information to CNS
c) Lens - 3) Absorbs light rays
d) Optic nerve - 4) Focuses light on the retina
1)
abcd
1234
2)
abcd
4312
3)
abcd
2413
4)
abcd
3142
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166. Sound waves are transmitted to the auditory receptors in a one way direction which is
1) Ear drum Eustachian tube Oval window Basilar membrane
2) Ear drum Semicircular canal Oval window Basilar membrane
3) Ear drum Ossicles Oval window Basilar membrane
4) Ear drum Oval window Ossicles Basilar membrane
167. Which of the following is not a correct match of hormone and function?
1) Luteinizing hormone - production of testosterone by the testes
2) Glucagon - Synthesis of glycogen in liver cells
3) Oxytocin - Contraction of uterine muscles
4) Renin - Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
168. Suppose you are developing a new drug, and have found that when it is administered in humans there is a
substantial increase in the volume of urine produced. When you administer antidiuretic hormone at the
same time, the volume of urine returns to normal. Which hypothesis best fits these observations? The new
drug:
1) Blocks the receptors for ADH on the collecting of the kidney
2) Blocks the release of ADH from the pituitary
3) Mimics the action of ADH
4) Damages the kidney
169. According to accepted concept of hormonal action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organs,
the latter will
1) Continue to respond to the hormone but in opposite way
2) Continue to respond to the hormone but will require higher concentration
3) Continue to respond to the hormone without any difference
4) Not respond to the hormone
170. Pick out the characteristics found only in biceps muscle?
1) cylindrical, branched, uninucleated, voluntary
2) unbranched, cyclindrical, Involuntary
3) Spindle shaped, uninucleated, striated
4) unbranched, striated, voluntary multinucleated
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171. Match the following simple epithelial tissues in column I with their occurrence in column II and choose
the correct combination from the option given.
Column I Column II
a) Squamous epithelium 1) intestine
b) Cuboidal epithelium 2) trachea
c) Columnar epithelium 3) kidney
d) Ciliated epithelium 4) blood vessels
e) pseudostratified epithelium 5) fallopian tube
1) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2, e - 5 2) a - 1, b - 2, c - 4, d - 3, e - 5
3) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 5, e - 2 4) a - 5, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1, e - 3
172. Select the incorrect statement?
1) Blood shows most numerous cells in the body
2) Inter calated discs are seen in cardiac cells
3) When a neuron is suitably stimulated an electrical disturbance is generated
4) Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and its fibres taper at both ends.
173. Earthworms are hermaphrodites having both ovaries and testes in the same individual, but:
1) Self fertilization occurs 2) Cross fertilization occurs
3) Sexual reproduction does not occur 4) Asexual reproduction occurs
174. In the digestive tract of cockroach a ring of blind tubules called gastric caecae is seen at
1) junction of midgut & hindgut 2) junction of foregut & midgut
3) junction of foregut & hindgut 4) both A & B
175. During breeding season, male frog can be distinguished externally from female, by means of :
1) Vomerine teeth 2) vocal sac 3) Nuptial pad 4) Tympanum
176. In which of the following groups all animals are triploblastic :
1) Annelida, Mollusca, Porifera 2) Arthropoda, Cnidaria, Annelida
3) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Annelida 4) Mollusca, Ctenophora, Arthropoda
177. In which one of the following groups, all animals are true coelomales.
1) Pheretima, Pila, Taenia 2) Octopus, Limulus, Asterias
3) Ancylostoma, Octopus, Echinus 4) Dentalium, Taenia, Echinus
SPACE FOR ROUGHWORK
CHE - PHY - BIO -A1
A
3 2 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA
178. Find out the mismatch
1) Ophiura - Brittle star 2) Loligo - Squid
3) Sepia - Tusk shell 4) Limulus - King crab
179. Identify the Class from the following features ?
a) All living members of this class are ectoparasites on some fishes
b) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous in nature
c) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water
d) After spawning within a few days they die
1) Cyclostomata 2) Condrichthyes 3) Osteichthyes 4) Tetrapoda
180. Find out the mismatch
1) Hemidactylus - wall lizard
2) Neophron - Vulture
3) Ornithorhynchus -platypus
4) Pterophyllum -Fighting fish
Name ................................................
BaIch.................... Bo|| No. ...............
29- 04- 2014
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1]
AIPMT MCDEL EXAM

STLDY CETRE
PALA


1. 3 The topmost and bottommost figures are short circuited. simple circuit is shown below
2. 3
2
1
V
P
R
=
The coil is cut into two pieces , its resistance becomes R/2. As they are in parallel,
equivalent resistance = R/4
P
2
=
2
V
R / 4
=
2
V
4
R
= 4P
1
1
2
P 1
P 4
=
3. 2 V = -kxy
x
dV
E ky
dx

= =
y
dV
E kx
dy

= =
2 2
x y
E E E = + =
2 2
k x y Kr; E r + =
4. 3
Let the potential at F and D is zero. Then the potential at E is +V
1
and potential at C is +V
2
. Also the
potential at G is -V
3
and let the potential at A is V.
Consider the junction A. Total charge of all the plates connected to a junction is zero, according to
Kirchoffs law.
1 2 3
q q q 0 + + = , , ,
1 1 2 2 3 3
V V C V V C V V C + + (

= 0
1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3
VC VC VC V C VC V C + + + = 0
,
1 2 3
V C C C + + =
1 1 2 2 3 3
VC V C VC + V =
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
VC V C V C
C C C
+
+ +
5. 1 At angular frequency e, the current in R.C circuit is given by
,
rms
rms
2
2
V
I (1)
1
R
C
=
+
e
Also
,
rms rms
2
2
I V
(2)
2
3
R
C
=
+
e
From (1) and (2)
2
2 2
5
3R
C
=
e
ie
c
X 3
R 5
=
6. 3
s s
p p
e N
e N
=
s
s
N 220
N 500
2200 5000
= =
7. 2
0
0
E
B
C
=
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1] 2 STLDY CETRE
8. 3
IA F I
F P
C A C
= = =
9. 3 Energy received from sun = 2 cal cm
-2
min
-1
= 8.4 Jcm
-2
min
-1
Energy of photon , E =
34 8
19
10
hC 6.6 10 3 10
3.6 10 J
5500 10

= =
i
;
19
19
8.4
n 2.3 10
3.6 10

= =

10. 1
0 0
h h ev 6.2 5 11.2eV o= o + = + =
hc
11.2eV =
i
34 8
0
19
hc 6.6 10 3 10
1104.9A
11.2eV 11.2 1.6 10

i = = =

This incident radiation lies in ultraviolet region
11. 1
e e nh eh n
L . .
2m 2m 2 2m 2
|
= = =
|

'
=
B
n
2

; n
12. 1
2 2 2
2
h P h
P ; E
c 2M 2MC
o o
= = =
13. 3
14. 1 A
v
in dB = 10 log
10
1000 = 10 3 log
10
10 = 30 dB
15. 3
7
5 2 0 2
I 4 10 4
Bp 4 10 wbm
2R 2 0.02

= = =

;
7
5 2 0 1
I 4 10 3
Bq 3 10 wbm
2R 2 0.02

= = =

2 2 5 2
B Bp Bq 5 10 wbm

= + =
16. 2 A long straight conductor carrying I passes through O, then by symmetry, all points of the circular
paths are equivalent and hence the magnitude of magnetic field should be same at these points
0
B.d I =
}

17. 2
1 MBcos
v
2 i
o
=

v Bcos o
2
v
B
cos

o
0
1
0
2
B 400 cos 60
16: 9 3
B cos 30 225
= =
18. 1
I
T 2
MB
=
I
M
I ; M
2
2

2 I
T' 2 T
2 M B

= =

19. 1 Condition of no emergence is A > C . As angle of prism is greater than critical angle for blue and
green coloured rays, total internal reflection will take place at second surface and hence the arrangement
will separate red colour from blue and green
20. 2 The given prism is a right angled prism,
0
LMN 45 Z =
, since the rays suffering T.I.R the critical
angle is angle of incidence in denser medium for which the angle of refraction in the rarer medium is
90
0
, ie C = 45
0
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1] 3 STLDY CETRE
By snells law
;
0
1 1
2
sin C sin 45
= = =
21. 1
D
d
i
| = | i
also
1
i

1
| i

Hence (1) is correct

22. 2
1
tan i
sin C
=
1
3 3
cot i sin C sin sin
5 5

| |
= = =
| |
' '
5
tan i
3
=
1
5
i tan
3

|
=
|
'
23.. 3 m = linear density =
M
L
(


; A = force = [MLTT
2
]

[B] =
j
j
A
M
=
2
1
MLT
ML

(

(

=
2 2
L T

(

= [latent heat]
24. 3 Velocity of the thiefs car with respect to ground is,
TG
V 10m/ s =
Velocity of police van with respect to ground ,
PG
72 5
V 72km/ hr 20m/ s
18

= = =
Velocity with which bullet will hit the target is
BT BG GT BP PG GT
V V V V V V 20 5 10 15m/ s = + = + + = + =
25 3 Both the stones will have same initial downward velocity u at the falling point. Hence they will
reach the ground with same velocity.
26. 4
2 2 2
u sin 2 3u sin
g 2g
u u
=
27. 4
1
V 30km/ h =

due north;
2
V =

30 km/h due west

1
V 30km/ h =

due south,
2 2
| V | 30 30 42.4 A = + =
km/h towards south - west
28. 3 2 rev/s e= ; 4 rad/s ;
2
r
a r = e ;
2
0.25 16 =
;
2
4 =
29. 1 W= f = R = 0.2 10N 2N =
30. 1 Impulse and change in momentum are in the same direction
31. 4 power developed =
100
70
mgh =
100
70
05 10
60
9 8 30 3500
3
.
.

= W
32. 4
33. 3
i i
cm
i
m x M 0 M 0 M 2 2
x
m M M M 3
_ + +
= = =
_ + +
i i
cm
i
m y M 2 M 0 M 0 2
y
m M M M 3
_ + +
= = =
_ + +
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1] 4 STLDY CETRE
Position vector of centre of mass is ,
2

i j
3
+
34. 2 By theorem of parallel axes ,
2
cm
I I Md = +
,
2
2
0 0
L ML
I I M I
2 4
= + = +
35. 4
2
1
R
g
g g
4
R R
|
= =
|
+
'
; Since
1
T
g
o
;
2
1
T
g
2
g
T
4
= =
; T
2
= 2T
36. 1 Potential at the given point = potential at the point due to the shell + potential due to the particle
=
GM 2GM
a a

=
3GM
a

37. 3
2
0 0 1
T T
2 ; 2
9 g 7 g
l
l
= = ,
2
1
2
7
9
=
l
l
38. 4
2
E a o
39. 4 Since the body floats completely immersed, density of the body = density of water.
Hence mass of the body is (100 x 1) g. So total mass = 400g + 100g = 500 g
40. 4
A
A
A
l
l
l
= = = = =
F
A
L
Y
L
L
A
A
A r
1
2
1
2
2
1
2
1
2
1
4
1
8
; ( )
41. 2 Slope at x = 0 at t = 0 is positive. ie., particle velocity is in negative y - direction, ie, particle at x = 0 is
travelling in negative y direction. So (2) is the correct option
42. 1 For fundamental mode of vibration.
4
i
=
or
4 i =
.
Now,
v f = i
ie
340 264 4 =
0.3219m 32.19cm = =
43. 4 According to wiens displacement law
1 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
2 1
T 0.26
T T ; 2, T 2T
T 0.13
i
i = i = = = =
i
By stefanss law, E =
4
T o
;
,
4 4
1 1 1
4 4
2 2
1
E T T 1
E T 16
2T
o
= = =
o
44. 4 w =Q
1
Q
2
;
1 2 1 2
1 1
Q Q T T
Q T

=
;
2
Q 4.8Kcal; w 6 4.8 1.2 = = =
45. 1 CH CH C
e t
o
= 5 7 0
2
/ ;
C
RT
m
ie
RT R
rms
= =
3 3
4
5
7
3 273
2
;
ie T = 273 K = 0
o
C
CHEMISTRY
46. 1 According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae
Ea/RT
comparing, the given value of
k = (4.5 x 10
11
s
1
)e
28000K/T
We get
Ea 28000 K Ea
or 28000 K
RT T R

= =
Hence Ea = 28000 K x R = 28,000 K x 8.314 K
1
mol
1
= 232792 J mol
1
= 232.792 kJ mol
1
47. 4 Both
3
NO

and
2
3
CO

have 32 electrons and both are planar/triangular
48. 1 During crystallisation, molecules attain more ordered state
49. 2
0 0
cell
G nFE A = = 2 (mol)

96500 (C.mol
1
)

0.236 V = 45548 CV = 45548 J = 45.55 kJ
50. 2 pH = log ( ,
total
H
+
A) For 10
6
M, pH = 6
B) For 10
7
M, pH = log(10
7
+ 10
7
) = 6.69
C) For 10
8
M, pH = log (10
8
+ 10
7
) = 6.96
D) For 10
9
M, pH = log(10
9
+ 10
7
) = 6.9956
~
7.0
51. 3
52. 2
,
3 4 4 2
2
2 2 2 2
Co NH Cl Ma b type
Show geometrical cis & trans isomerism
AuCl Br Ma B type

(


`

)
, ,
2 3 5
5
Co NO NH Mab
+
(

type dont show isomerism
53. 4 RF and RI cant be prepared because fluorination is so fast that explosion occurs while iodination is
slowest and produces HF, a strong reducing agent which causes the reaction to proceed backward
54. 2 I.E. o
1
screening effect
55. 1 Hydration is exothermic ( H, ve) A it is spontaneous ( G, ve) A also randomness decrease
( , S, ve A
56. 2 Group 15 fluorides act as F

ion acceptor
57. 4
V
V KT V K T or K
T
A
= A = A =
A
;
V 1 1
V. T V T
A
= o o
A
So graph between

and T will be a rectangular hyperbola
58. 2
1
KE.m
i o
59. 3
60. 3
O
E
+

O
H
E
Fairly stable neutral conjugate ketone
61. 2
2 2
3
SnCl / HCl H O
3 3 3 NH
CH C N CH CH NH CH CHO

=
62. 4 The aldehydes which dont have o -hydrogen atoms show disproportionation. These may be aliphatic
aldehyde (HCHO) or aromatic aldehyde.
63. 1
64. 3
65. 2 The acidic character of an aminoacid molecule is due to
3
NH
+
group which is less acidic than
COOH group, while the basic character of an aminoacid is due to COO

group which is less basic

than NH
2
group
66. 1
2 4 7 2 2 4 7 2 2 3
Na B O .10H O Na B O 2NaBO B O
A A
+
67. 2 Nylon 66 is a polyamide, it has no COO linkage
68. 4 It is Aspartame
69. 3 Moles of urea =
5
0.083
60
=
; Moles of fructose =
5
0.027
180
=
Moles of sucrose =
5
0.015
342

; Moles of KCl (effective) =
5 5
2 0.134
74.5 37.25
= =
Then correct order
4 1 2 3
> > >
70. 2 Surfactants have charge on their tail
71. 3 Magnesite is MgCO
3
72. 2
373 K
2 3 8 2 2 3
1
Na SO S Na S O
8
+
73. 1 The weakest acid is HOCl
74. 2
104
Rf belongs to group 4 (d-block)
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1] 5 STLDY CETRE
75. 3 Mol. mass =
wt. of theorg. sub
22, 400
air displaced

=
0.2
22400 80
56
=
76. 1
77. 1
,
4 2
2 4
O HgSO SOCl
2 2 3 3 Dil. H SO
C H CH CHO CH COOH
,
3
2
CH Cd
3 3 3
CH COCl CH COCH
78. 3
NBS
3 2 2
CH CH CH CH =
CH
3
CH CH CH
2
Br
(X)
,
Alc. KOH
2 2
CH CH CH CH Y = =
79. 3 + CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl
3
Anhy.
AlCl

CH
3
CH CH
3 + H
2
O
80. 3
2
4 2 4 2
( Z 6)
( x 1) ( y 3)
ClO 3MnO 6OH ClO 3MnO 3H O

=
= =
+ + + +
81. 3 CO is converted to CO
2
by the microorganisms present in the soil
82. 4
83. 1
84. 4 Total no. of spectral lines observed
, ,
2 1 2 1
n n n n 1
2
+

, , 5 2 5 2 1
6
2
+
=
85. 1
,
m 2
m
a
P V b RT
V
|
+ =
|
'
; At low pressure, V
m
becomes large. Hence b is neglected
m
m
a
PV RT
V
+ =
; m
m
a
PV RT
V
= =
; Z =
m
m
PV a
1
RT V RT
=
86. 2 Synthesis of a chiral compound from achiral compound in the absence of optically active agent always
produces a racemic modification
87. 2 Ceric ammonium nitrate gives test for OH group. Iodoform test is positive due to the presence of
CH
3
CH
OH
-gr o up
88. 3
, ,
fcc pc 3 3
a A
4 M 1 M
N 3 N 2

= =
;
3
fcc
Pc
4 2 32
1.18
f 1 3 27
| |
= = =
| |
' '
89. 4 sp
2
hybridised with bent shape
90. 1 Pyrophosphorous acid
P
O
H
OH O
P
O
OH
H
+3
FT
14A
/AIPMT/MCD[A1] 6 STLDY CETRE
91. 3
92. 4
93. 3
94. 2
95. 3
96. 2
97. 3
98. 2
99. 4
100. 2
101. 2
102. 2
103. 1
104. 4
105. 1
106. 4
107. 1
108. 1
109. 2
110. 2
111. 1
112. 2
113. 4
114. 2
115. 3
116. 1
117. 1
118. 2
119. 4
120. 1
121. 4
122. 3
123. 2
124. 4
125. 2
126. 3
127. 1
128. 3
129. 2
130. 2
131. 1
132. 3
133. 4
134. 2
135. 3
136. 1
137. 2
138. 4
139. 2
140. 3
141. 3
142. 3
143. 4
144. 4
145. 4
146. 4
147. 2
148. 1
149. 1
150. 1
151. 1
152. 1
153. 2
154. 2
155. 3
156. 4
157. 1
158. 2
159. 1
160. 4
161. 4
162. 3
163. 3
164. 1
165. 4
166. 3
167. 2
168. 2
169. 4
170. 4
171. 3
172. 4
173. 2
174. 2
175. 3
176. 3
177. 2
178. 3
179. 1
180. 4