flyers

Listening 26

Reading and Writing 29

Speaking 33

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FLYERS : Component 1
Listening

Part Main skill focus Input Expected response/item type Number of items

1 Listening for lexical items Picture and dialogue Match names to figures in a picture 5
and verb phrases by drawing a line

2 Listening for information Gapped text and dialogue Record words or numbers 5

3 Listening for lexical items Picture sets and short Match pictures by writing letter 5
monologues in box

4 Listening for information Picture sets and dialogues Select one of three pictures by 5
ticking box

5 Listening for lexis and position Picture and dialogue Colour and draw and write 5

■ Overview Candidate performance varied to some extent from country to

country. The table below gives the average Listening performance
The Flyers Listening paper has five parts. There are 25 questions,
for candidates from the main countries of entry in 2004.
and the test lasts about 20 minutes. It is summarised in the table
above. Country Average Country Average
number of number of
■ Marking shields shields

The total score for this paper is 25. Argentina 3.56 Italy 2.75
Bangladesh 3.54 Malaysia 4.17
■ Candidate performance Brazil 3.39 Mexico 3.36
Chile 3.49 Russia 3.69
The Flyers Listening paper was taken by approximately 72,000 China 2.46 Spain 3.14
candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year was Cyprus 3.45 Sri Lanka 3.13
2.85 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each number of Germany 3.57 Taiwan 3.27
shields over the year are indicated below. Greece 3.37 Thailand 2.48
Hong Kong 3.20 Turkey 3.21
% of candidature India 3.59 Vietnam 2.72
0 10 20 30 40 50
Flyers, Listening, Performance by country, 2004

1 ■■■■■■
Performance in the different parts of this test varied, with
2 ■■■■■■■■■■■■
candidates finding Parts 1, 4 and 5 the easiest and Parts 2 and 3
No. of Shields 3 ■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
the most difficult.
4 ■■■■■■■■
5 ■■■■

Flyers, Listening, Achievement of Shields, 2004

26 c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4

Comments on candidate performance ■ Part 4

Flyers: Version 34 Most candidates managed to achieve either 4 or 5 marks for this
part of the test.
■ Part 1 Question 3, which required candidates to identify a short boy
This part of the test was quite well answered with many with glasses and dark hair was found to be the most
candidates gaining full marks. Most candidates managed to straightforward. Very few candidates were unable to identify the
identify at least one person correctly. correct boy (key = C).

The hardest person to identify proved to be Richard (Question 2),
who was one of the boys lying on the ground. The clue to help
candidates identify him was ‘You can’t see his face.’ It could be
that some candidates had difficulty in hearing the difference
between can and can’t. This is something students at this level
could usefully practise.
■ Part 2
This task proved to be the most challenging part of the test with
very few candidates achieving full marks. Question 1 proved the
most challenging. Candidates were expected to write 7 o’clock,
7 a.m. or 7 in the morning rather than just 7.
For Question 4, many candidates lost marks by misspelling
sandwiches and one or both words in glass bottle (Question 5).
Although some minor misspellings were allowed (eg: sanwiches,
glas, botle), others that were very wide of the mark were not.
In Question 2, many candidates also had difficulty writing the
word that was spelt out for them, T-E-R-R-A-C-E. The letters E, R, A
and C all caused problems.
By contrast, candidates seemed to find Question 3 quite
straightforward, with many giving the correct response bus.
■ Part 3
On the whole, candidates appeared to find this task difficult.
The most difficult questions in this part of the test proved to be
Questions 1 and 5. In Question 1, candidates had to decide
whether Harry would carry things in a rucksack, a suitcase or a
small bag (the key was B, the rucksack) and in Question 5,
candidates had to decide what the weather was going to be like
next week (the key was A, sunny). In both these questions, the
answer was actually provided towards the beginning of the
dialogue which may have taken some candidates by surprise if
they expected the answer to be given or confirmed towards the
end of the dialogue.
■ Part 5
Quite a large proportion of candidates gained full marks for this
task, although there were many who only got three or four out of
the five questions correct. Relatively few candidates answered
fewer than three questions correctly.
Candidates did appear to have difficulty successfully answering
Question 3, which required them to draw a hat. Although
candidates on the whole understood that they had to draw a hat
and colour it green, some put it in the wrong place, either on the
head of the wrong child or in the air between the children.
Others lost marks either by colouring the wrong umbrella in
Question 4, or by failing to write river, spelt correctly, in the
appropriate space above ‘boats here’ (Question 2).

The most difficult questions were Question 2, where the place,

a hotel, had to be matched with a postcard showing a bridge
and Question 3, where the place, a market, had to be matched
to a silver box. Weaker candidates were misled by distracting
material, opting for objects that were referred to in the text but
were not the correct answers (e.g. in Question 2, choosing a
painting of a bridge rather than a postcard, and, in Question
3, a gold plate instead of a silver box).

The most straightforward question appeared to be Question 4,

where candidates had to match the station with a computer
magazine. Station, computer and magazine would seem to be all
relatively well-known lexical items at this level.

c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4 27

Recommendations for candidate
preparation
■ Part 1
Encourage candidates to spend the time they are given to look at
the picture before the questions start by thinking about how each
of the characters might be described. They should be aware that
they will have to focus on language that points to the differences
between two similar people in the picture.
The language that candidates will need for this task is that which
is used not only for describing people’s clothes and physical
appearance but also for commenting on what they are doing.
Practice in describing a range of pictures and photos containing
people is, therefore, likely to help candidates do well in this part
of the test.
■ Part 2
Give candidates as much practice as possible with this kind of
productive task, as it is consistently the one that causes most
difficulties for candidates.
Make sure that candidates understand the meanings of, and are
also able to spell correctly the words in the Starters, Movers and
Flyers word lists.
Even at Flyers level, candidates often seem uncertain about the
names of some letters of the alphabet in English. Clearly the
more practice that can be given here the better.
■ Part 3
Make sure candidates read the introductory question and
instructions at the head of the task as this should help them to
understand what they are being asked to do.
Encourage candidates to listen carefully to the whole of the
dialogue and try to understand what is said. They should
remember that speakers will talk about the places and objects
that are illustrated that are not the right answers as well as those
that are correct. Candidates should not assume that the first
word they hear is the right answer.
28 c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
■ Part 4
Part 4 covers a wide range of the grammar and vocabulary
appropriate to this level. Teachers should make sure that the
structures and vocabulary listed in the syllabus have been well
covered in class.
It is also very important that candidates listen to the whole of
the dialogue before choosing their answer. They should be aware
that the correct answer to each individual question may come at
any point in the dialogue and is not necessarily the last thing
mentioned.
■ Part 5
As with all parts of this test, make sure that candidates know
exactly what is expected of them. In Part 5, for example, they are
required to write something and also to draw and colour one
object. They will not be expected to write or draw anything
difficult. Nor will they be expected to draw or colour particularly
well. They simply have to show that they have understood the
instructions correctly.
For this task, candidates will need to show that they can
understand language which distinguishes between two similar
but slightly different objects or people. This may be a matter of
understanding language which explains precisely where
someone or something is, or it may be a matter of understanding
language which focuses on how two people or things look
different. Practice in handling these types of language will
therefore stand candidates in good stead for dealing with this
part of the test.
Candidates should be aware that this task is perhaps more
challenging than it appears and should ensure that they listen to
the instructions very carefully.
 FLYERS : Component 2
Reading and Writing

Part Main skill focus Input Expected response/item type Number of items

1 Understanding definitions Set of nouns and definitions Match words to definitions by 10

and verb phrases copying the word

2 Understanding short texts Picture and sentences Write ‘yes’ or ‘no’ next to the 7
sentences

3 Identifying appropriate utterances Short dialogue with multiple Select best response by circling 5
responses a letter

4 Completing a gapped text with Gapped text with picture cues Write words in gaps. 6
one word (nouns, adjectives or Choose the best title for the story
verbs) from a choice of 3

5 Understanding short texts and Text and pictures and questions Answer questions by writing a word 7
answering open-ended questions or phrase (4 words max)

6 Completing gapped text with Gapped text and word sets Complete text by selecting the best 10
one word (grammatical) word and copying

7 Completing a gapped text Gapped text Write words in gaps (none supplied) 5

■ Overview Candidate performance varied to a small extent from country to

country. The table below gives the average Reading and Writing
The Flyers Reading and Writing paper has seven parts. There are
performance for candidates from the main countries of entry in
50 questions, and the test lasts 40 minutes. It is summarised in
2004.
the table above.
Country Average Country Average
■ Marking number of number of
shields shields
The total score for this paper is 50.
Argentina 3.49 Italy 2.87
■ Candidate performance Bangladesh 3.66 Malaysia 3.86
Brazil 3.27 Mexico 3.34
The Flyers Reading and Writing paper was taken by approximately Chile 3.14 Russia 3.53
72,000 candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year China 3.00 Spain 3.05
was 3.15 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each Cyprus 3.44 Sri Lanka 3.21
number of shields over the year are indicated below. Germany 3.56 Taiwan 2.96
Greece 3.40 Thailand 2.61
% of candidature Hong Kong 3.30 Turkey 3.16
0 10 20 30 40 50 India 4.03 Vietnam 3.45

1 ■■■ Flyers, Reading and Writing, Performance by country, 2004

2 ■■■■■■■■■■■
No. of Shields 3 ■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■ For Version 34, Part 7 was clearly the section which caused most
problems for candidates. The focus of Part 7 is on accuracy, and
4 ■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
students need to think not only about meaning but also about
5 ■■■■■ the correct way to fill the gaps. However, candidates performed
particularly well in Part 2.
Flyers, Reading and Writing, Achievement of Shields, 2004

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Comments on candidate performance
Flyers: Version 34
■ Part 1
Candidates answered this part quite accurately, although many
errors were made in answering Question 3, where incorrect
answers mostly related to food (e.g. sugar, flour, vegetables).
The correct option, snacks, is a comparatively low-frequency
word, and it is likely that candidates failed to answer correctly
because they did not know what snacks meant. Snacks was also
frequently given as a wrong answer for other questions –
a further indication that the word was not well known.
It was noted that candidates continue to make many copying
errors in this part, misspelling their answers and omitting
articles or the plural s.
However, a large proportion of candidates scored full marks, with
Question 10 (key = gloves) causing the fewest errors.
■ Part 2
Candidates answered this part very well, giving correct responses
to most questions.
A few candidates incorrectly answered Question 3 (key = ‘No’).
To have decided the statement There’s a big new house between two
trees with a lake in the garden was correct, candidates must have
either thought that the swimming pool was a lake and treated
the two groups of trees on either side of the picture as two trees,
or disregarded the word new and the reference to a lake, thinking
that the question referred to the old, ruined house which is
between two trees.
Many candidates scored full marks in this part, with Question 4
(key = ‘No’) causing the least difficulty.
■ Part 3
Candidates answered this part well, although Questions 1 and 5
proved to be challenging for some candidates.
Question 1 (key = B) caused the most difficulty. Candidates were
required to recognise the (past) tense of the prompt question
Where did you and your brothers and sisters go to school? The most
commonly chosen wrong option was A, We go to school in the
nearest town. This may have attracted weaker candidates because
it echoes one element of the prompt question (go to school).
Candidates may also have chosen the first option as obviously
correct, without giving consideration to the second, correct
option: We went to school in our village, which would have brought
the issue of tense to their attention.
30 c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
For Question 5 (key = C), the most commonly chosen wrong
option was B, Yes, she studied it. The problem here may have been
that candidates confused it and there, assuming the option
meant: Yes, she studied there (which would have been correct).
Question 4 (key = C) was answered correctly by the majority of
candidates and many scored full marks in this part.
■ Part 4
Candidates found some questions in this part of the test very
challenging. Problems usually arose from the spelling and
the form (plural or singular) of answers which were nouns
(e.g. Question 3, bottles), and in selecting the correct tense or
aspect of answers which were verbs (e.g. Question 5, climbed).
Many candidates answered Questions 3 and 4 incorrectly.
For Question 3, nearly all the incorrect answers were variations
on the spelling and form of bottles, and the most common
response was bottle. Candidates should be reminded that they
not only need to identify the word correctly, bottle, they also need
to consider how to make it fit grammatically in the context.
Most incorrect answers to Question 4 involved the misspelling of
torch or flashlight. The most common misspelling of torch was
touch.
A small proportion of candidates managed to score full marks in
this part.
■ Part 5
Most of Part 5 was answered well by candidates, but many found
Questions 3 and 5 difficult.
For Question 3, How late did William and his mum arrive at the
airport? the most frequent incorrect response was two hours
instead of the key one/an hour. Candidates may have misread the
question as How long did it take for William and his mum to arrive at
the airport? for which two hours would have been the correct
answer.
For Question 5, How did Richard and his parents get from Newtown
station to William’s house? the most commonly given wrong
answer was They got a train instead of by taxi. Candidates had
probably understood the gist of the question, but found the
targeted section of text, They got a train to Newtown Station, then
they got a taxi here, difficult to process. William’s house is not
directly mentioned in the text. Candidates needed to understand
that William’s Dad was speaking in the third line of the text and
they got a taxi here refers to William’s house.
Questions 1, 6 and 7 caused fewer difficulties, but only a small
number of candidates scored full marks in this part.
■ Part 6
Candidates answered this part quite well, but a significant
number of candidates selected the wrong answers for Questions
9 and 10.
For Question 9 (key = have), candidates were equally attracted to
has and had. Candidates may have found it hard to deduce the
correct answer because the subject of the sentence, Mother
elephants, is distanced from the gap by usually. For the answer has,
they may have treated mother alone as the subject, and for the
answer had, they either failed to pick up on how general facts are
expressed in this text using the present simple tense or did not
recognise that had is a past tense form.
In Question 10, (key = forget), the most common wrong answer
was forgot. Again, as for Question 9, the subject, they, is distanced
from the gap by never. Candidates may, however, have simply
confused forget and forgot.
Questions 3 and 8 caused very few errors, and overall a large
proportion of candidates managed to score full marks in this
part.
■ Part 7
Candidates found most of Part 7 quite challenging, and Question
4 (key = have) exceptionally so. Most candidates gave wrong
answers for this question. The majority of candidates supplied an
auxiliary or modal verb, including will, can, were, going, must, did.
The most common wrong answer was are.
These responses probably indicate that candidates supplied
answers to fit only the text immediately surrounding the gap,
you .......... not, failing to consider the subsequent text broken it,
and to give a word which links up with the participle broken.
Question 5 (key = went) caused the fewest errors but only a few
candidates scored full marks in this part.
c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
Recommendations for candidate
preparation
■ General comment
Many marks are lost because letters and/or words are not clearly
written. Remind candidates to check that their handwriting is
clear enough to be read by someone who is not familiar with it.
It is often better not to use joined-up writing, as letters can
become confused and unclear.
Candidates should be reminded to write only as much as they
need to, as marks are often lost attempting unnecessarily long
answers, which provide more opportunity for making mistakes.
Because young candidates are unlikely to have had much
experience managing their time in exams, it can be helpful when
doing classroom tasks to give a time limit, both to improve
concentration and prevent candidates being distracted by other
things.
Make sure candidates are familiar with the structures and words
in the Flyers syllabus.
■ Part 1
Help candidates to become familiar with vocabulary in a
particular area of lexis (see thematic vocabulary lists in the
Young Learners English Tests Handbook) and to practise
distinguishing between words on the word list that are similar,
or commonly confused.
Encourage candidates to read all the options before they answer
the questions, so that they become aware of all the different
related words (for example, in Version 34, Part 1, vocabulary
related to ‘food’).
Tell candidates to make sure they read the whole sentence
carefully before answering.
Remind them to be careful when copying their answers; many
candidates lose marks by leaving out articles, adding
unnecessary articles, forgetting to make them plural, or
misspelling.
■ Part 2
Remind candidates that the whole sentence must be completely
true to warrant a yes answer. Make sure they read the whole
sentence carefully before answering.
Give candidates plenty of practice matching pictures and
sentences, drawing their attention to key elements of vocabulary
or grammar in the sentences and using pictures which make
these distinctions clear. Give more pictures than sentences, so
that they really have to pay attention to the distinctions between,
for example, ‘spots’ and ‘stripes’.
31
■ Part 3 Give candidates practice in identifying what is being referred to
in a text, especially the meaning of pronouns and adverbs such
Remind candidates to read all the options before choosing the
as here and there (see Version 34, text for Question 5: then they got
best and most appropriate one.
a taxi here).
Practise appropriate responses, not just to questions, but also to
Give candidates plenty of practice in using and reading different
statements.
question words. (Which, When, How often, etc.)
Give candidates plenty of practice in using the set (formulaic)
Remind candidates to copy the spelling correctly when taking
expressions in the word lists, and with short yes/no answers.
words from the texts.
Give candidates practice in choosing appropriate responses, by
giving them prompts or questions of the kind found in this part ■ Part 6
and asking them to predict responses, before giving them the
Remind candidates that their spelling must be 100% correct in
options.
this part, as they are copying from given options.
Give plenty of practice with multiple-choice questions to
As with Part 4 above, candidates should practise forming and
encourage them to understand the differences in meaning,
choosing the correct type of word (nouns, adjectives, verbs, etc.)
grammar, sense and appropriacy between options in a particular
to fit into sentences or texts.
set.
Remind candidates that the options are given, so it is not
■ Part 4 necessary to think of a word to fit the space.

Remind candidates that, apart from the title of the story, the Make sure candidates are familiar with past forms of regular
answer is always only one word. and irregular verbs in the Flyers word list (e.g. Version 34,
Question 10, forget and forgot).
Give candidates practice in choosing the right form of words
(plural/singular nouns, adjectives, verbs) within sentences and
■ Part 7
texts.
Give candidates plenty of practice in using common collocations,
Help them to identify words or structures that will indicate what
such as ask a question, do some homework, etc.
kind of word the answer is likely to be, e.g. if the gap is preceded
by ‘some’, the answer cannot be a countable singular noun. Remind candidates to look for Part 7 on the back page of the test
booklet. Some candidates have left all the answer spaces blank,
Make sure candidates realise that they need to read the text
and may not have realised that there was one more part to
surrounding the question to be able to choose the right word as
complete.
the answer. The picture in isolation may not always give the
whole answer, especially if verb forms and tenses need to be As with all gap-fill tasks, candidates should practise choosing
taken into account. words which fit with the surrounding text lexically and
grammatically and which help the text make sense. Make sure
Make sure candidates know the correct past and present forms of
they do not just consider the text immediately before and/or
the regular and irregular verbs in the Flyers word list.
after the gap. Their choice of a correct answer may depend on
something said further back or further ahead in the text.
■ Part 5
Encourage candidates to self-edit, making sure they re-read the
Problems are caused as much by the questions as by the texts, so whole text through before they decide their final answers.
candidates should practise reading the questions first, without
looking at the texts. Then ask them to guess the answers to the
questions, before they go on to read the text and find the real
answers. This should encourage candidates to interpret the
questions correctly, without being tempted by distracting
material in the text.

32 c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4

 FLYERS : Component 3
Speaking

Part Input Expected response/item type

1 Greetings and name check (unassessed); two similar pictures Identify six differences in Candidate’s picture from statements
(one unseen). Oral statements about unseen picture. about Examiner’s picture

2 One set of facts and one set of question cues Answer and ask questions about two people, objects or
situations

3 Picture sequence Describe each picture in turn

4 Open-ended questions about candidate Answer personal questions

■ Overview Candidate performance varied to some extent from country to

country. The table below gives the average Speaking performance
The Flyers Speaking test has four parts, and lasts about eight
at Flyers level for candidates from the main countries of entry in
minutes. It is summarised in the table above.
2004. It is noticeable that, in general, candidates performed better
at Speaking than at the other skills.
■ Marking
Candidates are marked on the basis of the understanding they show Country Average Country Average
number of number of
by their responses, on the speed and extent to which they can shields shields
respond, the grammatical accuracy of the speech they produce, and
on their pronunciation. Argentina 4.52 Italy 4.04
Bangladesh 4.43 Malaysia 4.58
■ Candidate performance Brazil 4.22 Mexico 4.05
Chile 4.46 Russia 4.46
The Flyers Speaking test was taken by approximately 72,000 China 3.98 Spain 4.43
candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year was Cyprus 4.33 Sri Lanka 4.20
4.20 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each number of Germany 4.54 Taiwan 4.47
shields over the year are indicated below. As will be noted, Greece 4.47 Thailand 3.55
performance on this component was particularly good. Hong Kong 4.56 Turkey 4.42
India 4.52 Vietnam 4.27
% of candidature
Flyers, Speaking, Performance by country, 2004
0 10 20 30 40 50

1 ■
2 ■■■
No. of Shields 3 ■■■■■■
4 ■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
5 ■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■

Flyers, Speaking, Achievement of Shields, 2004

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Recommendations for candidate
preparation
Candidates in the Flyers Speaking test are required to follow
instructions and talk in a simple way about different visual
prompts, and to answer simple questions about themselves.
These are standard tasks in most English classes for Young
Learners. Sample materials have been included in this report to
give examples of the kind of pictures, instructions and questions
candidates will be asked to respond to.
Encourage candidates to speak clearly and to look forward to the
test as an opportunity to show off what they know. Make sure
they appreciate that they are given credit for what they say
rather than being penalised for any mistakes they may make.
■ Part 1
In Part 1, candidates should practise listening to the teacher
make a statement about a picture, (for example, In my picture, the
clock is black), relating that to a picture in front of them, and
commenting on the difference: In my picture, the clock is red. In the
test, differences between the examiner’s statements and the
candidate’s picture will relate to things like number, colour,
position, appearance, activity, shape, and relative size, etc.
■ Part 2
As well as having practice in answering questions, candidates
should also practise asking them. For example, in Part 2, they
should be able to form simple questions to ask for information
about people, things and situations. This will include information
about time, place, age, appearance, etc. Candidates should be able
to ask ‘question-word questions’ using Who, What, When, Where,
How old, How many, etc (as, for example, in the sample materials,
Where’s the school?). They should also be able to ask ‘Yes/No
questions’ (for example, Are there classes every day?). Additionally,
they need to be comfortable asking questions with two options
(for example, Is the lesson interesting or boring?).
■ Part 3
The Part 3 task in the Flyers Speaking test involves candidates
telling a simple story based on five pictures and candidates will
benefit from practice in telling similar simple picture stories.
However, examiners are not looking for evidence of story-telling
skills. Candidates are only expected to say a few words about
each picture in the sequence, without necessarily developing
these comments into a narrative.
34 c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
The structures candidates will need most frequently in Part 3 are
There is/are, the present of the verbs be and have (got), the modals
can/can’t and must/mustn’t and the present continuous of some
action verbs (for example, come, go, buy, put on, carry, open, laugh).
They may also need to use the present perfect tense or going to.
They should be able to say things like Katy’s thinking, ‘Which dress
is better?’ and She’s saying, ‘Happy birthday!’. Candidates should
also be able to describe simple feelings, for example, The children
are/aren’t happy/afraid/cold/hungry.
Before asking candidates to tell the story, the examiner says ‘Just
look at the pictures first’. Advise candidates to look at each picture
in turn to get a general idea of the story before they start to
speak. However, they should not worry if they cannot follow the
narrative of the picture story. It is perfectly acceptable just to say
a few words about each picture in the sequence without
developing these comments into a story. The examiner will
prompt by asking a question if a candidate needs help.
■ Part 4
For Part 4, make sure candidates feel confident answering
questions about themselves, their families and friends, their
homes, their school and free time activities, their likes and
dislikes and other topics related to their everyday lives. They
should be able to answer questions such as:
What time do you get up on Saturday?
What do you do on Saturday afternoon?
Simple answers of a phrase or one or two short sentences are all
that is required.
Questions will normally be in the present tense but candidates
should also be prepared to use the past and present perfect
tenses and going to, and to answer questions about, for example,
what they did yesterday or are going to do at the weekend.
Use English to give everyday classroom instructions so that
children become very familiar with classroom language and with
everyday spoken English. Candidates create a good impression
when they can handle greetings and other social formulae
confidently. Try to use these on a regular basis in the classroom
so that they come naturally. Encourage candidates to use Sorry or
I don’t understand when this is appropriate.
 Part 1 Part 2
– 5 questions – – 5 questions –

Listen and draw lines. There is one example. Listen and write. There is one example.

William David Paul Richard

Class 10 Visit to London

19th April
Date of visit: .................................................

1 Meeting time: ...............................................

2 Meeting place: The ....................................... restaurant.

3 Going by: ..........................................................

4 Food: bring: ..................................................

5 Drink: don’t bring: .......................................

Parts
FLYERS
Answer

Jane Ann Sally

1 and
Sheet

2 3
WRITING
PAPER 1: :LISTENING

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2 and Answer Keys
 Part 3

66
Part 3
– 5 questions –

What did Michael’s father buy in each place?

Listen and write letters in the boxes. There is one example.

FLYERS : LISTENING

A B

C D

E F

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G H

4 5
 Part 4 3 Who is Harry going to sit next to?
– 5 questions –

Listen and tick () the box. There is one example.

Where is Harry going to go with his club?

A B C

4 Which book is Harry going to take with him?

A  B C

1 What is Harry going to carry his things in?

A B C

5 What is the weather going to be like next week?

A B C

2 What has Harry forgotten?

A B C
Part
FLYERS
Answer

A B C

6 7
WRITING
PAPER 1: :LISTENING

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4 Sheet and Answer Keys
FLYERS : LISTENING
Part 5

boats
here
Listen and colour and write and draw. There is one example.
– 5 questions –
Part 5

FLYERS : LISTENING
Mark Scheme : Version 34
PART 1 (5 marks) PART 2 (5 marks)

Lines should be drawn between: 4 William and boy in blue with hands on 1 7/seven o’clock/a.m./in the morning
1 Ann and blonde girl running after dog head
2 T-E-R-R-A-C-E
2 Richard and boy in red lying on his 5 Jane and girl with skipping rope
3 bus
back
4 sandwiches
3 Sally and woman waving flag
5 (a) glass bottle

PART 3 (5 marks) PART 4 (5 marks) PART 5 (5 marks)

1 Castle – E – map 1 B 1 Empty boat in water – blue

2 Hotel – A – postcard of bridge 2 B 2 River written above ‘boats here’

3 Market – H – silver box 3 C 3 ‘Hat drawn on sitting child in boat –

hat must also be coloured green
4 Station – G – computer magazine 4 B
4 Umbrella with spots on – orange
5 Chemist’s – C – cough sweets 5 A
5 Parrot flying between two trees – red

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 FLYERS : LISTENING
Tapescript

RUBRIC: Hello. FEMALE CHILD: Yes. I always get up very early.

This is the University of Cambridge Flyers Listening Test, FEMALE: Oh good, that’s all right then. Now, we’re going to meet
Version 34 . outside a restaurant. It’s called The Terrace.
FEMALE CHILD: How do you spell that?
PART ONE FEMALE: T-E-R-R-A-C-E. Do you know it?
FEMALE CHILD: Oh yes. I know. It’s the new one in the big road near the
RUBRIC: Listen and look. There is one example. station, isn’t it?
FEMALE: The boys are playing well, aren’t they? What’s the name FEMALE: Yes, that’s right.
of the one who’s got the ball? FEMALE CHILD: Are we going to go to London by train?
MALE: The one who’s wearing a green sweater?
FEMALE: No, we’re not. We’re going to go by bus.
FEMALE: Yes.
FEMALE CHILD: OK. Do we have to bring any food?
MALE: That’s David. He’s the best footballer in the team, I think.
FEMALE: Yes. Bring some sandwiches. You can buy food in
London, of course, but we won’t have much time.
RUBRIC: Can you see the line? This is an example. FEMALE CHILD: Shall I bring a drink, too?
Now you listen and draw lines. FEMALE: Yes, but please don’t bring a glass bottle. It might break.
FEMALE CHILD: Right.
FEMALE: Oh look. There’s Ann. Can you see her?
FEMALE: Well, that’s all, I think. If you have any more questions,
MALE: The girl with the long fair hair?
come and see me.
FEMALE: Yes. She’s trying to catch her dog, I think.
FEMALE CHILD: OK. Thank you.
MALE: Oh yes, she is.
MALE: I’m looking for Richard. Where is he? RUBRIC: Now listen to Part Two again.
FEMALE: Look! There he is. He’s lying on the ground. That is the end of Part Two.
MALE: Is he? Which one is he? I can see two boys on the
ground. PART THREE
FEMALE: He’s on his back. You can’t see his face.
MALE: Can you see the woman who’s wearing a red scarf and RUBRIC: Listen and look. There is one example.
gloves? RUBRIC: Michael’s father is a journalist. He went to all of these places
FEMALE: Is she holding a flag? when he was writing about holidays for a newspaper last
MALE: Yes, she is. Well, her name’s Sally. She’s the new teacher. week. What did he buy in each place?
FEMALE: That’s interesting. What does she teach?
MALE: Maths, I think. MALE: Hello, Michael. Here are a few things which I bought last
MALE: Who’s the tall, thin boy in the blue team? week. I couldn’t carry anything big or heavy but when I
FEMALE: Which one? There are two! was waiting for my plane at the airport I saw these
MALE: The one with his hands on his head. beautiful stamps. Look, they’ve got dinosaurs on them,
FEMALE: Oh, I know him. He’s called William. He’s the son of a so I bought them for you.
friend of mine.
RUBRIC: Can you see the letter D?
MALE: Look at Jane! She doesn’t like football, does she?
Now you listen and write a letter in each box.
She isn’t watching it.
FEMALE: Where is she? MALE: I had to go and talk to a very rich businessman who
MALE: Over there. She’s skipping. Can you see her? lives in a beautiful castle. He sells all kinds of interesting
FEMALE: (laughs) Oh yes. things. I bought this old map from him. Look!
MALE: I bought three postcards at the hotel that I stayed in.
RUBRIC: Now listen to Part One again. This one is a picture of a beautiful old bridge that I saw.
That is the end of Part One There was a painting of the bridge, too, but it was too big
to carry, so I didn’t buy it.
PART TWO MALE: This little silver box is a present for your mother. Isn’t it
lovely? I bought it at a market from the artist who
RUBRIC: Listen and look. There is one example.
makes them. There was a beautiful gold plate, but that
FEMALE: Hello, Emma. Are you going to come to London with us? was too expensive.
FEMALE CHILD:Yes, I am. I asked my mother yesterday and she said yes. MALE: Oh look, I’ve got something else which you might like,
FEMALE: Excellent! Can you write this down then, please? here, Michael. I bought it at the station when I was
We know the date of the visit, now. It’s going to be on waiting for a train. It’s a magazine about computer
April the 19th. games.
MALE: What are these in my pocket? Oh yes, I had a bad cough
RUBRIC: Can you see the answer? Now you listen and write. so I went to a chemist’s and bought these sweets.
FEMALE: Well, we’ve got to start early because it takes They smell horrible and they don’t taste nice but they’re
three hours to get there. We’re going to meet at um..7.30, very good for coughs.
I think. Wait a minute, is that right? I’ve got it here in my RUBRIC: Now listen to Part Three again.
diary – ah no, we’ve got to meet earlier than that, at That is the end of Part Three
7 o’clock. Is that all right?

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FLYERS : LISTENING
Tapescript (continued)

PART FOUR PART FIVE

RUBRIC: Listen and look. There is one example. RUBRIC: Listen and look at the picture. There is one example.
Where is Harry going to go with his club?
MALE: Hello, Sarah. Here’s a picture of some people in boats.
FEMALE:Where are you going to go with your club this year, Do you like it?
Harry? Are you going to the mountains, like last year? FEMALE CHILD: Yes. It looks nice there.
MALE CHILD: No. We go to a different place every year. We’re going to MALE: Would you like to colour it for me?
go to a forest this year. FEMALE CHILD: Yes. What shall I do first?
FEMALE: Are you? You should go to the sea. I love it there. MALE: Can you see the car with two thin stripes on it?
MALE CHILD: We might go there next year. FEMALE CHILD: Yes. Shall I colour it yellow?
MALE: Yes.
RUBRIC: Can you see the tick?
Now you listen and tick the box. RUBRIC: Can you see the yellow car? This is an example.
Now you listen and colour and write and draw.
RUBRIC:One. What is Harry going to carry his things in?
FEMALE:Are you going to carry your things in this old rucksack, RUBRIC: One
Harry? MALE: Now, can you see the empty boats?
MALE CHILD: Yes, Aunt Jane. I haven’t got a suitcase. FEMALE CHILD: I can see two of them, I think.
FEMALE: I just use a bag when I go on holiday. MALE: That’s right. Colour the one which is in the water.
MALE CHILD: I’ve got one, but it’s too small for all my things. FEMALE CHILD: Shall I colour it pink?
MALE: No. Blue is a better colour, I think.
RUBRIC: Two. What has Harry forgotten?
MALE CHILD: I’m ready, now, I think. RUBRIC: Two
FEMALE: Are you sure? Have you got your torch? MALE: Can you see the man who is sitting behind a table?
MALE CHILD: Yes, and some horrible pink soap that Dad bought. FEMALE CHILD: Yes.
FEMALE: Have you got your camera? MALE: Well, there’s a board next to him. Can you write
MALE CHILD: No, I haven’t! Thanks, Aunt Jane. I’ll go and get it. something on it?
FEMALE CHILD: OK. What shall I write?
RUBRIC: Three. Who is Harry going to sit next to?
MALE: Write the word “river”.
FEMALE: Are you going to go by train?
FEMALE CHILD: Where shall I write it?
MALE CHILD: No. We’ve got a bus. I’m going to sit next to my best
MALE: Write it above the words “boats here”.
friend, Jim.
FEMALE: Who’s Jim? Is he that tall, fair boy with glasses? RUBRIC: Three
MALE CHILD: No, that’s not him. He’s got glasses, but he’s short with MALE: Now, can you draw something for me?
dark hair. FEMALE CHILD: Yes. What shall I draw?
MALE: Find the children in the boats.
RUBRIC: Four. Which book is Harry going to take with him?
FEMALE CHILD: I can see them. One of them is standing up.
MALE CHILD: I want to take a book with me but I’ve read all these.
MALE: Well, draw a hat on the other one, the one who’s sitting
FEMALE: What kind of books do you like?
down.
MALE CHILD: Books about sport or animals.
FEMALE CHILD: OK. I’m doing it now.
FEMALE: Well, I haven’t got any, but I can give you this book
MALE: That’s good. Now colour it green.
about men in space.
MALE CHILD: OK. I’ll take that. Thanks! RUBRIC: Four
MALE: Would you like to do some more colouring now?
RUBRIC:Five. What is the weather going to be like next week?
FEMALE CHILD: Yes please. Can I colour one of the umbrellas?
FEMALE:Is the weather going to be nice for your holiday?
MALE: Yes. Which one?
What did they say on the TV?
FEMALE CHILD: The one with spots. Shall I colour it purple?
MALE CHILD: It’s going to be sunny, I think.
MALE: That’s too dark, I think. Colour it orange.
FEMALE: Oh good. A holiday in the rain isn’t very nice.

MALE CHILD: No, it isn’t. Last year it was very windy – but it was OK. RUBRIC: Five
MALE: Can you see anything else in the picture?
RUBRIC: Now listen to Part Four again.
FEMALE CHILD: I can see two parrots. Can I colour one of them?
That is the end of Part Four.
MALE: Yes. Look at the one that’s flying between the two trees.

FEMALE CHILD: I can see it. Let’s make it red. That’s my favourite colour.

RUBRIC: Now listen to Part Five again.

That is the end of the Flyers Listening Test.

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 PAPER 1: :READING
FLYERS WRITING& WRITING
Answer
Part 1 Sheet and Answer Keys

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 Part 2

72
Part 2
– 7 questions –

Look and read. Write yes or no.

Questions

1 It has snowed at the top of the mountains. ...............

2 The man with the hat is riding a brown horse in the

FLYERS : READING & WRITING

forest. ...............

3 There’s a big new house between two trees with a

lake in the garden. ...............

4 The boy has found a watermelon and he is going to

eat it. ...............

5 The woman with long hair is cooking some food

over the fire. ...............

6 It has rained all afternoon and now there is a

rainbow in the sky. ...............

7 The man with black hair and a moustache is

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Examples
sleeping in the tent. ...............
A grey rabbit is coming out of a small cave. yes
...............

The black goat has stolen a shoe and is eating it. no

...............

5
 Part 3
– 5 questions –
2 Helen: How did you get to school?
Read the text and choose the best answer.
Grandfather: A We walked there.

B I liked it.

C It was a small school.

3 Helen: Did you have to wear a uniform?

Grandfather: A Yes, you have.

B Yes, it was.

C Yes, we did.
Helen is talking to her grandfather.

Example
4 Helen: What did you do in the school holidays?
Helen: Grandfather, where did you live when you were a boy?
Grandfather: A He went to school.
Grandfather: A In a tree.

B In the countryside. B You are going to the beach.

C In the sea. C We helped Dad on the farm.

Questions
5 Helen: Grandfather, did Grandmother go to the same school?
1 Helen: Where did you and your brothers and sisters go to
school?
Grandfather: A Yes, he went to a different school.
Part

Grandfather: A We go to school in the nearest town.

FLYERS

B Yes, she studied it.

Answer

B We went to school in our village.

C We’re going to start school soon.

C Yes, but we weren’t in the same class.

6
Helen: That’s nice!
PAPER 1: :READING

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WRITING& WRITING
3 Sheet and Answer Keys
 Part 4

74
“You’re near the pyramids now.” Ten minutes later we arrived. They were
Part 4
– 6 questions –

Read the story. Look at the pictures and the two examples. Write
one-word answers. great! We went inside. At first I was afraid because it was very dark, but

Last year my family and I went on holiday on a boat. We went up a long we had a ................................. . Later we went outside and
FLYERS : READING & WRITING

river and every day we stopped to visit some

................................. ................................. up the pyramids. That evening we went to the

interesting places. In the evenings we ate and slept

................................. boat by bus. It was much quicker than riding, but I was tired and hungry

on the boat. One day our group rode some ................................. when we arrived.

to the pyramids. It took a long time and it was a very hot and
What’s the best name for this story?

Tick one box.

afternoon. We were all very thirsty, but we
................................. A day in the mountains

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We visit the pyramids
didn’t have anything to drink. Suddenly we saw a man who was selling
A week by the sea

some of water. I bought some and he told us,

.................................

8 9
 Part 5
– 7 questions –

Look at the pictures and read the story. Answer the questions.
Do not write more than four words in each answer.

Mum phoned Dad. “It’s OK.” Dad explained. “Their plane arrived an hour
early. They didn’t see you, so they phoned our house, but I was out at the
shops. They got a train to Newtown Station, then they got a taxi here.”
Then Mum spoke to Aunt Emma. “I’m sorry,” said Mum, “We came to
meet you, but we were too late! Now we’re going to come home. We’ll see
My name’s William. My cousin Richard, Uncle Harry and Aunt Emma live on you there soon!”
an island. Last year they decided to visit us for the first time. They sent us a
letter. It said, “We’ll be at the airport at 11 o’clock on the 16th April.” So
my mum wrote to them. Her letter said, “William and I will meet you at the 4 Where was William’s dad when
airport.” Richard and his parents phoned him? ...............................................
On the 16th April, Mum and I went to the airport. It took two hours to get
there because there was a lot of traffic on the roads. We arrived at the
airport an hour late and Harry and my uncle and aunt weren’t there. 5 How did Richard and his parents get
from Newtown Station to William’s
Example house? ...............................................

What’s William’s cousin’s name? Richard

....................................

Questions
Part

1 Where do William’s cousin, uncle and aunt live? ....................................

FLYERS
Answer

2 On what date did William and his mum go

and meet his cousin, uncle and aunt? ....................................
3 How late did William and his mum arrive
at the airport? ....................................
10 11
§
PAPER 1: :READING

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WRITING& WRITING
5 Sheet and Answer Keys
 76
Part 5 (continued)
FLYERS : READING & WRITING

An hour later we arrived home. At last I met Richard and my uncle and
aunt. I was very happy. “Here’s a present for you from my island!”
Richard said. It was a box of bananas and pineapples. “Thank you
Richard,” I said, “I love fruit!”

6 How did William feel when he met his

cousin, uncle and aunt? ...............................................

7 What was in the box? ...............................................

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 Part 6
– 10 questions –

Read the text. Choose the right words and write them on the lines.

Elephants

Example the
The elephant is one of the biggest animals in ...................... world.

1 Elephants live in hot places like the jungle. They live ......................

2 seventy years or more. Most elephants are grey. ...................... Example a an the
elephants have long teeth called ‘tusks’. They have big ears, strong
1 since for ago
legs and a long nose called a ‘trunk’. They can pick things up with
2 Some This Another
3 their trunks and they use ...................... to eat and drink. Elephants

4 eat leaves, grass and fruit and they drink water. They ......................

5 to eat and drink a lot ...................... they are very big! Elephants
3 her them him
move slowly, but they are very strong. They can work very

6 ...................... , pulling and carrying things for people. People can 4 needs need needing

ride them too. When elephants finish work they love swimming and 5 but because or
7 playing ...................... the water! They sleep for a few hours early in
the morning and again during the hottest part of the day. They can 6 harder hardest hard
8 sleep when they ...................... standing up. Mother elephants usually
Part

9 ...................... babies every five years. Baby elephants stay with their
7 in over on
FLYERS
Answer

mothers for a long time, usually three or four years. Elephants are

10 very clever and they never ...................... anything!

8 are am is
14
9 have has had
PAPER 1: :READING

10 forgot forgotten forget

15

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WRITING& WRITING
6 Sheet and Answer Keys
FLYERS : READING & WRITING
Part 7
Read the diary and write the missing words. Write one word on

Wednesday 2 May

I ...................... ill and my arm hurt a lot. Peter ran home to get
Mum and then she took ...................... to hospital. The doctor
I rode our bicycles down a
hill near our house. I went faster and faster and when I tried
...................... stop, I couldn’t! Suddenly I fell to the ground.

looked at my arm and said, “It’s OK, you ...................... not

I ...................... to school yesterday, but I couldn’t write

anything because my arm and hand still hurt!
– 5 questions –
Part 7

broken it, but be careful next time!”

Last weekend Peter ......................

16
and
each line.

Example

1
2
3
4

FLYERS : READING & WRITING Mark Scheme : Version 34

PART 1 (10 marks) PART 2 (7 marks) PART 3 (5 marks) PART 4 (6 marks)

1 a knife 7 a telephone 1 yes 1 B 1 camels

2 tights 8 vegetables 2 no 2 A 2 sunny

3 snacks 9 sugar 3 no 3 C 3 bottles

4 shelves 10 gloves 4 no 4 C 4 torch

5 pockets 5 yes 5 C 5 climbed

6 a fridge 6 no 6 We visit the

pyramids
7 no

PART 5 (7 marks) PART 6 (10 marks) PART 7 (5 marks)

1 (on) (an) island 5 (by) taxi/they got a 1 for 6 hard 1 to

taxi
2 (on) (the) 16(th) 2 Some 7 in 2 felt/was
April 6 (very) happy
3 them 8 are 3 me/us
3 an/one/1 7 (some) bananas
hour/60/sixty and pineapples/ 4 need 9 have 4 have/’ve
minutes (late) pineapples and
5 because 10 forget 5 went/returned
bananas/fruit
4 (out) at the shops/
shopping/out

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 FLYERS : SPEAKING
Summary of procedure

Flyers Speaking
Summary of Procedure

1. The usher introduces the child to the examiner. The examiner asks the child what his/her surname is and
how old he/she is.

2. The examiner gives the child the candidate’s copy of the Find the Difference card. The child is initially shown
both copies, but then encouraged to look at his/her copy only. The examiner then makes a series of
statements about his/her picture, and the child has to make a statement showing how his/her picture differs,
e.g. ‘In my picture, the woman’s wearing glasses.’ ‘In my picture, the woman isn’t wearing glasses.’

3. The examiner gives the child the candidate’s copy of the Information Exchange card. The child is initially
shown both copies, but then encouraged to look at his/her copy only. The examiner first asks the child some
questions related to the information the child has, e.g. ‘Where’s the school?’ The child answers this using the
information given on his/her card. The child then asks the examiner questions related to the information on the
examiner’s copy, e.g. ‘What is the phone number of the school?’

4. The examiner begins to tell the story prompted by the Story card, e.g. ‘Katy’s going to a party at her friend’s
house. She’s looking for something to wear. She doesn’t like any of her clothes.’ The examiner then asks the
child to continue with the story.

5. The examiner asks questions about the child, e.g. ‘What time do you get up on Sunday?’

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FLYERS : SPEAKING
Find the difference cards

Set 6/1. Candidate’s copy

FLYERS SPEAKING. Find the Difference 1

Set 6/1. Examiner’s copy

FLYERS SPEAKING. Find the Difference 2

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 PAPER 1: SPEAKING
FLYERS : WRITING
Answer Sheet
Information exchange
and Answer
cardsKeys

Set 6/2. Candidate’s copy

Castle School Bridge School

Where City Road Where ?

Phone number 55492 Phone number ?
What / study computers What / study ?
Teacher’s name Mr Wood Teacher’s name ?
Classes every day Mondays and Thursdays Classes every day ?

FLYERS SPEAKING. Information Exchange 4

Set 6/2. Examiner’s copy

Castle School Bridge School

Where ? Where Market Street

Phone number ? Phone number 32871
What / study ? What / study English
Teacher’s name ? Teacher’s name Mrs Swan
Classes every day ? Classes every day Tuesdays and Fridays

FLYERS SPEAKING. Information Exchange 5

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FLYERS : SPEAKING
Tell the story card

Set 6/3. Examiner’s and Candidate’s card

Come to
my
party

B IR
T H D AY
H D AY

BI

TH
R

DA
Y
RT
BI

FLYERS SPEAKING. Tell the Story 7

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