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AIIMS November 2013 (Memory Recall Paper with Answers)
2
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1. Vaginal epithelium is derived from
a. Endoderm of genital ridge
b. Endoderm of urogenital sinus
c. Mesoderm of genital ridge
d. Mesoderm of urogenital sinus
2. A patient presents with von Gierkes disease
and ketosis was detected on investigation.
All of the following would be associated
findings except
a. There is hypoglycaemia
b. They have low blood sugar levels
c. Oxaloactetate is needed for
gluconeogenesis
d. Low fat mobilization
3. Renal time PCR is used for
a. DNA detection only
b. RNA detection only
c. Protein detection only
d. For monitoring the amplification
target DNA
4. Which of the following techniques can be
used for exact localization of a genetic locus
a. FISH
b. Chromosome painting
c. Chromosomal genomic hybridization
d. Western blot
5. Which of the following is known as suicide
enzyme?
a. 5 Lipoxygenase
b. Cyclo oxygenase
c. 5 nucleotidase
d. Thromboxane synthase
6. Which of the following is wrong regarding
treatment with iodine
a. It causes acute inhibition of
synthesis of diodothyronine
b. It also inhibits the release of thyroid
hormones
c. Its use is contraindicated in
hyperthyroidism
d. It causes iodism
7. Which of the following is not true about
methanol poisoning
a. The toxic level of methanol is 1.25
ml/kg
b. Formic acid is responsible for the
toxic effects
c. Patient has obscured, snowy vision
d. Fomepizole competitively inhibits
aldehyde dehydrogenase enzyme

8. Which of the following is a Rho-kinase
inhibitor
a. Fasudil
b. Nicorandil
c. Amiloride
d. Ranolazine
9. The role played by major histocompatibility
complex proteins (MHC 1 and MHC -2) is
to
a. Transduce the signals to T cells
following antigen recognition
b. Mediate immunoglobulin class
switching
c. Present antigens for recognition by
T cell antigen receptors
d. Enhance the secretion of cytokines
10. A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with
transient obscuration for 2 3 days
followed by sudden diminution of vision.
Which of the following would be the best
test to evaluate his symptoms?
a. Serum ACE levels
b. Quantiferon Gold TB test
c. Serum homocysteine levels
d. Serum creatinine levels
11. Regarding myopic degeneration, which of
the following is true
a. It is seen more commonly in males
than in females
b. Myopic degeneration can lead to
retinal detachment
c. It is seen in < - 6 D myopia
d. Optic disc swelling is seen
12. Which of the following drugs is effective as
monotherapy as a replacement for sodium
valproate in a female of childbearing age
group for treatment of juvenile myoclonic
epilepsy
a. Levetiracetam
b. Lacosamide
c. Phenytoin
d. Carbamazepine
13. An adult hypertensive male presented with
sudden onset severe headache and
vomiting. On examination, there is marked
neck rigidity and no focal neurological
deficit was found. They symptoms are most
likely due to
a. Intracerebral parenchymal
haemorrhage
b. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
c. Meningitis
d. Ischemic stroke

3

14. All of the following are characteristic
features of Kluver Bucy syndrome in
children except
a. Hyperphagia
b. Hypermetamorphosis
c. Placidily
d. Hyperactivity
15. The mortality rate of energy operation for
abdominal aortic aneurysm is
a. 0.1%
b. 0.2%
c. 0.4%
d. >50%
16. The most accurate and safe method to
diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks of
gestation of
a. Per vaginal examination of uterine
size corresponding to 6 weeks
gestation
b. Urine hCG pregnancy test positive
c. Ultrasound visualization of fetal
cardiac activity
d. Doppler assessment of fetal cardiac
activity
17. In the metabolism of progesterone, the
most common metabolite found in urine is
a. Pregnanetriol
b. Pregnenolone
c. Pregnanediol
d. 17 hydroxypregnenolone
18. In a female, intraocular metastasis most
commonly occurs from which of the
following gynaecological primary?
a. Breast
b. Ovary
c. Endometrium
d. Cervix
19. Which of the following is not a common
organism responsible for neonatal sepsis in
India?
a. E. coli
b. Staph aureus
c. Gp B Streptococcus
d. Acinetobacter
20. A 2-day-old neonate in the neonatal ICU
develops seizures. Which of the following
would be the next best investigation for the
child?
a. Transcranial ultrasound
b. Skull X-ray
c. CT scan
d. MRI

21. A 2-year-old male child presents with a
lump in the right side of abdomen.
Ultrasound revealed it to be a solid mass.
On examination, his right arm and leg were
found to be longer. The most likely
diagnosis is
a. Wilms tumour
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Angiomyolipoma
d. Nephroblastoma
22. Which of the following is true about
supracondylar fracture humerus in children?
a. Anterior displacement of the distal
fragment is more common than
posterior
b. Cubitus valgus is more common
than cubitus varus during mal-union
c. The neurological complications are
transitory
d. Weakness of elbow flexion is a
common complication
23. A child presented with a fracture in his leg.
He was admitted and was given Gallows
traction. He is most likely suffering from a
fracture of
a. Shaft of tibia
b. Supracondulas of femur
c. Neck of femur
d. Shaft of femur
24. A 22-year-old young male, college student
suffered a left knee injury while playing
hockey. After 2 months, there was anterior
laxity in full extension and it was normal at
90
0
flexion. What is the most likely injured
part?
a. Anteromedial bundle of anterior
cruciate ligament
b. Posterolateral bundle of anterior
cruciate ligament
c. Posterior cruciate ligament
d. Anterior part of medial meniscus
25. Osteoblastic secondaries are most
commonly seen in which of the following
primary malignancies?
a. Breast
b. Lung
c. Prostate
d. Adrenal
26. Which of the following intravenous
anesthetic agents is contraindicated in
epileptic patients posted for general
anaesthesia?
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone
c. Propofol
d. Midazolam
4

27. A known alcoholic is brought to the
emergency department by his wife. The
person has not consumed alcohol for the
past two days due to religious reasons. The
person complained of nausea, vomiting and
dizziness. On the second day, he developed
seizures that progressed to generalized
tonic clonic seizures (GTCs). Which of the
following would be the best medication to
manage the seizures of the patient?
a. Sodium valproate
b. Diazepam
c. Phenytoin
d. Clonidine
28. In India current percentage of GDP spent on
health is
a. 0.012
b. 0.12
c. 0.05
d. 0.005
29. According to new AHA 2010 guideline,
which drug is not used in CPR
a. Adrenaline
b. Vasopression
c. Atropine
d. Amioderone
30. Under 5, mortality rate in world is
a. 6 million
b. 8 million
c. 10 million
d. 12 million
31. Chromosome is visualized on light
microscopy with resolution of
a. 5 kb
b. 500 kb
c. 5 mb
d. 50 mb
32. According to delhi anatomical rule to
declare an unclaimed body dead, the time
required is
a. 24 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 72 hrs
d. 96 hrs
33. Biomarker not involved in acute renal failure
a. NGAL
b. KIM1
c. Micro RNA 122
d. Cystacin C
34. Duration of action of drug flumazenil
a. 20 mins
b. 10 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 40 mins

35. Which of the following are responsible for
apoptosis
a. Isoprenoids
b. Glucocorticoids
c. Oleic acid
d. Myristic acid
36. Root value of nerve supply of external anal
sphincter
a. S
2,3

b. S
2,3,4

c. S
4,5

d. L
5
S
1

37. Patient has consume peanut comes with
symptoms most likely occurrence
a. Foreign body larynx
b. Foreign body bronchus
c. Angioneuroedema
d. Parapharyngeal abscess
38. In tension pneumothorax, what is the first
line of management
a. Insertion of needle in 2
nd
intercostal
space
b. Emergency thoracotomy
c. Immediate chest x-ray
d. CT Scan
39. In glassgow coma scale, withdrawal to pain
stimulus comes under
a. M4
b. M3
c. M2
d. M5
40. A 60-year-old comes to hospital with
complain of hemiparesis one week before,
which resolve completely, on echo
examination, show aortic valve vegetation
next line of management
a. Anti-platelet only
b. Anticoagulant only
c. Anti-platelets plus anticoagulant
d. LMWH subcutaneous
41. New anti-epileptic drug approved by FDA
for lenox guscout syndrome
a. Lacosomide
b. Rufinamide
c. lamotrigine
d. Vigabatrin
42. Investigation considered in anorchia is
a. USG
b. MRI
c. CT SCAN
d. Laproscopy

5

43. Which of the following drug responsible for
malignant hyperpyrexia
a. CIS atracurium
b. Suxamethonium
c. Propofol
d. Thiopentone
44. On doing laparoscopic cholecystectomy,
patient develop wheezing, what is used in
treatment for wheezing
a. i.v. ketamine
b. i.v. lignocaine
c. Bronchodilator and oxygenation
d. Depend on anaesthesia
45. In puerperium the lochia seen p/v is in
which of following sequence
a. Alba serosa rubra
b. Serosa rubra alba
c. Alba rubra - serosa
d. Rubra serosa alba
46. Which of the following is true regarding
CML in children
a. 2
nd
most common malignancy
b. Present with blast crisis
c. Treatment of tyrosine kinase
inhibitor
d. Involve translocation bet
chromosome a and chromosome 22
47. On USG with M mode, stratosphere sign
seen in
a. Hemothorax
b. Pneumothorax
c. Cardiac temponade
d. ?
48. A patient develop sudden severe headache
two hours ago and become unconscious
upon regarding conscious developed
photophobia and neck rigidity; what is the
next line of management
a. Non contrast CT scan
b. IV antibiotic & lumbar puncture
c. CSF examination
d. MRI
49. A 16-year-old girl present with abdominal
lump, she need bone scan in which of the
following
a. Wilms tumor
b. Neuroblasma
c. Ovary carcinoma
d. ?

50. 30-year-old female with hirsutism and
infertility diagnosed to be PCOS what is the
treatment of choice
a. Oral contraceptive drug
b. Tamoxiphene
c. Clomiphene
d. Testeslecome
51. Recommended diatery allowance RDA for
iodine in women
a. 100 mcg
b. 150 mcg
c. 200 mcg
d. 250 mcg
52. Lateral traction test is done for
a. Active partner ofpedophile
b. Passive partner of bestiality
c. Active partner habitual
d. Passive partner habitual
53. Which enzyme is part of fatty and synthases
complex except
a. Enoyl reductase
b. Ketoacyl reductase
c. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
d. Acetyl transacylase
54. Iron deficiency anaemia, correct except
a. Serum ferilin used for early
diagnosis
b. Percentage saturation > 16%
c. Common problem in women in India
d. Indian wheat is fortified with iron
like in USA
55. Root value of nerve supplying index finger
and thumb respectively
a. C
5
, C
6

b. C
6
, C
6

c. C
6
, C
5

d. C
6
, C
7

56. Which of the following effect on efficiency
of phototherapy except
a. Skin pigmentation
b. Initial albumin level
c. Types of phototherapy lamp
d. Spectrum used
57. Which of the following complication is more
associated with ventose vaccum than forcep
except
a. Cephalhohematoma
b. Intracranial haemorrhage
c. Subgleal haemorrhage
d. Terminal lateral rectal palsy

6

58. A patient become unconscious after road
traffic accident and regain conscious for
some time, then again unconscious the time
interval is
a. Lucid interval
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?
59. Couple on treatment for infertility lady is
found to be normal, the guy had semen
quantity of 0.8 ml on 2 repeated samples
and fructose negative and no sperms on
examination under microscope
a. Local examination of vasadifference
& genital
b. Transrectal USG for any duct
obstruction
c. Antioxidant therapy
d. ?
60. A female present with vaginal bleeding in 20
week gestation with no expulsion of
placental tissue and product of conception,
conditior is
a. Missed abortion
b. Incomplete abortion
c. Complete abortion
d. Inevitable abortion
61. FAST correspond to
a. Fast assessment of sonography for
trauma
b. Focused assessment of sonography
for trauma
c. Focussed assessment of sonography
& tomography
d. Focussed assignment of sonography
& tomography
62. In compension to un-fractioned heparin,
low molecular weight heparin has
advantage
a. Administered subcutaneously
b. Bind antithromin m only
c. ?
d. ?
63. In burn patient, most common site of
curling ulcer
a. Junction between 2nd & 3rd part of
duedenum
b. First part of duedenum
c. Second part of duedenum
d. Third part of duedenum
64. True regarding aspiration pneumonia except
a. Fungal, infection is MC causes
b. Aspiration of gastric content 20 30
ml of pH < 2.5
c. ?
d. ?

65. Glaucomatous optic atrophy is due to
destruction of
a. Amacrine cell
b. Ganglion cell
c. Photoreceptor cell
d. Bipolar cells
66. Used in treatment of osteoporosis except
a. Alendroalte
b. Bisophosphanail
c. ?
d. PTH
67. Wide displaced collagen fibre seen in
a. Basement membrane
b. Cornea
c. Tympanic membrane
d. Diaphragm
68. 14-year-old after discharge from
endocrinology department gives to
emergency ward for pelvic / abdominal limp
investigation used except
a. USG
b. MRI
c. CT scan
d. X-ray
69. Band-shaped kerato pathy is caused by
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Amyloid
d. Copper
70. Lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years
which worsened during pregnancy. Types of
impedance audiometry graph will be
a. Ad
b. B
c. As
d. C
71. Ethmoid bone form all except
a. Agger nasi
b. Crista galli
c. Inferior turbinate
d. Uncinate process
72. Most common cause of bilateral proptosis in
children
a. Rhadmyosarcoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Chloroma
d. neuroblastoma
73. Fertilized egg reaches the uterine cavity in
a. 6 7 days
b. 7 8 days
c. 4 5 days
d. 3 4 days

7

74. 7 years child comes with fever and tibial
swelling exhibit periosteal reaction. What is
the next step in diagnosis of patient
a. Bone scan
b. Blood culture
c. CT Scan
d. Bone biopsy?
75. Which is not an indications of hospital
admission for a patient
a. Hematocrit > 40%
b. Shock index > 0.9
c. Blood loss with malignancy
d. ?
76. 35-year-old female present with painful
breast lump. Most appropriate initial
investigation
a. USG
b. MRI
c. Mammography
d. CT-Scan
77. True about tonsillectomy all except
a. Grisel syndrome me
complications in children
b. Adenoidtectomy with tonsillectomy
c. ?
d. ?
78. New adjuvant chemotherapy given in except
a. Breast carcinoma II
b. Cervix carcinoma III
c. PNET chest
d. Osteosarcoma
79. Blood supply of medulla except
a. Spinal artery
b. Vertebral artery
c. posterior cerebellar artery
d. Superior cerebellar artery
80. A 16-year-old present with amenorrhea
with increased FSH and height 58 inch
diagnosis is
a. Hemorrhagic cyst
b. Lack of oocytes
c. Cyto adenocarcinoma
d. ?
81. Bony metastatis is osteoblastic in carcinoma
of
a. Prostate
b. Breast
c. Kidney
d. ?
82. Which of discuss show uniparental disomy
except
a. Prade villi syndrome
b. Angleman syndrome
c. Beckwith syndrome
d. Bloom syndrome

83. Drug having and blocker activity
a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. ?
84. Prognosis is good after treatment in
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b. True feminism
c. Pseudo hermaphrodite
d. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
85. On investigation, illium of multiple
succulation and increase vascularity
diagnosis is except
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Chronis disease
c. Ischemic bowel disease
d. Tuberculosis
86. The order of vein, artery & nerve VAN
present in all intercostal spall except
a. 1
st

b. 2
nd

c. Third
d. T
10

87. % of timolol in eye ointment
a. 0.01
b. 0.02
c. 0.03
d. 0.04
88. Under the national programme for control
of blindness (NPCB), post cataract surgery
follow up is done by
a. Passive surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance
d. ?
89. 32-year-old Bengal female, one week fever,
talk irrelevantly, admitted with gtcs. Which
will give meantime before result of
investigation comes
a. IV penicillin
b. IV apmphetamine
c. IV acyclovir
d. IV mannitol
90. Women with CD15 positive and CD 30
positive with owl eye appearance nucleus?
a. Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin
lymphoma
b. Nodular sclerosis hodgkins
lymphoma
c. ?
d. ?

8

91. Artery supplying maximum blood to
stomach
a. Left gastric artery
b. Right gastro epiploic artery
c. Short gastric artery
d. Right gastric artery
92. Decreased of insulin : glucagon ratio
activates enzymes
a. Glucokinase
b. Hexokinase
c. ?
d. ?
93. Ribosome have activity like
a. Amino acyl reductase
b. Peptidyl transferase
c. Amino acyl + - RNA synthatase
d. RNA polymerase
94. Muscle which is actually muscle of back but
also known as thorax muscle
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboid
c. Lattisimus dorsi
d. Levator scapular
95. Which of the following drug does not
crosses blood brain barrier
a. Hyosine hydrochloride
b. Hyosine butyl bromide
c. Glycopyrullate
d. ?
96. Which muscle have increased sensitivity
with d-tubocurare
a. Muscle of hand & limb
b. Muscle of head & neck & face
c. Abdominal muscle
d. Diaphragmetic muscle
97. Which of the following drug comes
malignant hyperpyrexia
a. Thiopentone
b. Dropotol
c. Succinyl choline
d. Cis atracurium
98. Population between mean and mean plus
one standard diverticulum
a. 0.34
b. 0.5
c. 0.68
d. 0.16
99. What affect bone as well as intervertebral
disc space invertebral column
a. Tuberculosis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Metastasis
d. ?

100. Caebamezopine true is
a. Causes STS
b. Does not cause agranulocytosis
c. Causes renal failure
d. ?
101. 16-year-old girl regularly come for follow up
for recurrent abdominal pain. She complains
nothing can be seen since night after awake
from sleeping, diagnosis is
a. Malingering
b. Anton syndrome
c. Bilateral cortical blindness
102. A new born child referred to
ophthalmologist doctor for
a. Age < 28 weeks
b. Weight < 25 weeks
c. ?
d. ?
103. Worker from asbestos industry present
respiratory problem, on investigation
carcinoma is diagnosed. Electron microsope
finding includes
a. Neuro secretory granules in
cytoplasm
b. Unstraited abnormal collagen
c. Desmosome
d. Microvilli
104. Survivor of retinoblastoma develops
a. Osteosarcoma changes
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?
105. Effective literacy rate is calculated by
a. From age of 7 year to above
b. From 10 year going school child
c. From 14 year going school child
d. Total population
106. Sphincteric action of fallopian tube is due to
a. Isthmuss
b. Interstitial
c. Ampula
107. Indoor pollution causes all except
a. Teratogenicity
b. Chronic lungs disease
c. Abnormal behaviour
d. Pneumonia
108. Seminoma secretes markers
a. LDH
b. Alphafeto protein
c. HCG
d. PLAP

9

109. Which one is true about pterigium is
a. Caused by infra-red
b. Probe can be passed
c. Involve cornea with extension of
descement membrane
d. Treatment is Keratotomy with
extension of descement membrane
110. Which of the following intravenous
anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in
epileptic patients posted for general
anaesthesia
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone
c. Propofol
d. Midazolam
111. Steroid is given in all except
a. Function endoscopic sinus surgery of
antrochonial polyp
b. Function endoscopic sinus surgery of
ethmoidal polyp
c. Fungal nasal infection
d. ?
112. A traumatic patient with RTA present with
hypovolemic and bradycardia and
unconscious. Diagnosis
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Hypovolemic + neurogenic shock
c. Septic shock
d. Neurogenic shock
113. Cognitive remediation is
a. Thought restructuring
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?
114. A mother gives chocolate to her child for
finishing his meal
a. Classical conditioning
b. Operant conditioning
c. Punishment
d. ?
115. Punishment for disclosoure of name of rape
victim in media under IPC
a. 228A
b. 226
c. 229
d. 208
116. Crinimal abortion done with consent of
mother, punishment is done under
a. 312
b. 310
c. 313
d. 314

117. A patient presents with potassium level of
2.3meq/l. The best management of this case
would be
a. Infuse potassium 40meq over 24
hrs
b. Infuse potassium 60meq over 24
hrs
c. Infuse potassium 80 meq over 24
hrs
d. Infuse potassium 120-160meq
over 24 hrs
118. According to national immunization
schedule, which of the following is
recommended for a child of 5 year of age?
a. Pentavalent vaccine and vitamin A
b. DT booster
c. DT, OPV and vitamin A
d. DPT booster and vitamin A
119. PCR is used to
a. Detect target plasmids
b. Amplify small amount of DNA
c. Seal the cut ends of DNA
d. Cleave the bacterial plasmid
120. Which is not an important cause of neonatal
sepsis?
a. E.coli
b. Group B Streptococci
c. Acinetobacter
d. Staph. auerus
121. Which of the following disease is less likely
to cause epidemic soon following disaster?
a. Acute respiratory infection
b. Rickettsiosis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Visceral leishmaniasis
122. The major function of MHC I and II is
a. Stimulate interleukin production
b. Immunoglobulin class switch over
c. Transduce the signal to T cell
following antigen binding
d. Presenting the antigen for
recognition by T cell antigen
binding receptors
123. According to WHOs measles elimination
strategy, vaccination campaigns are done in
which phage?
a. Mop up
b. Follow up
c. Keep up
d. Catch up
124. Steroid is used in the treatment of
a. Severe typhoid
b. E.coli septicaemia
c. Cerebral malaria
d. Visceral leishmaniasis

125. Features of severe malaria all except:
10
a. PCV >15%
b. Serum lactate >45 mg/dL
c. Serum sugar <40 mg/dL
d. Serum creatinine > 3 mg/dL
126. Best treatment for contaminated wound
with necrotic material is
a. Anti-gas gangrene serum
b. Debridement
c. Antibiotics
d. Tetanus toxoid
127. All are strategies of roll back malaria except
a. Strengthening the health system
b. Development of more effective
insecticide
c. Use of insecticide treated mosquito
nets
d. Training the health care workers
128. In the absence of any intervention, the risk
of HIV transmission from mother to baby in
pregnancy, labour, delivery and breast
feeding in non- breast feeding population is
a. 5-10%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-30%
d. 40-50%
129. True about polio eradication initiative in
India is-
a. Last natural case due to wild virus
was reported in 13 January 2011
b. No case of VAPP was reported from
2012
c. India is the only country that has
not achieved the goals of polio
eradication
d. Currently the vaccine used for polio
eradication in India is IPV
130. Symptomatic spinal injury without any
radiological evidence most commonly found
in
a. Children
b. Elderly
c. Teenagers
d. Young adults
131. Increased pulmonary blood flow
radiologically indicated by all except.
a. Descending pulmonary artery
diameter> 16 mm
b. Kerley b lines
c. Diameter of 2 peripheralarteries
>accompanying bronchus..
d. Peripheral arteries more than 6
132. platelet adhesion to collagen
a. VIII
b. Fix
c. VWF
d. Fibronectin
133. Risk factors of cervical carcinoma all except?
a. Low parity
b. Multiple partners
c. Early sexual intercourse
d. Smoking

134. Germ cell abnormality with best prognosis.
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
b. Gonadal dysgenesis.
c. Testicular feminization
d. True hermaphrodite
135. Max card output in which week of
pregnancy?
a. 24wks
b. 28wks
c. ?
d. ?
136. Level off anesthesia for LSCS
a. T4
b. T6
c. T8
d. T10
137. Following used for screening of cancers
except-
a. Ca-125 ovarian cancer
b. Mammography breast
c. Pap for cervical
d. Endo aspirate for endomet
carcinoma
138. 26 year old healthy female got pregnant for
1st time and LSCS was done for fetal distress
Mild HTN was present during pregnancy. 2
days after delivery she had headache and
seizures. CT shows 2 x 3 cm parasagittal
haemotoma. No proteinuria seen dx
a. Eclampsia
b. Hypertensive ich
c. Sagittal sinus thrombosis
d. Pituitary apoplexy
139. Afro-American kidney, 6 year, abdominal
pain, chronic hemolysis, abnormal RBC
shape?
a. Trinucleotide repeat
b. Nucleotide excision defect
c. Antibodies against RBC membrane
d. Genetic imprinting
140. All except can cause epidemic in post
disaster period
a. Leishmaniasi
b. Leptospirosis
c. Rickettsia
d. ARI

11

141. Roll back malaria all except
a. Strengthening of health system
b. Training of health workers
c. Use of insecticide treated mosquito
nets
d. Development of newer
insecticides
142. 60 year male with fever chills dysuria
hospitalised in emergency for 5days. psa-7
what would u do next?
a. Repeat psa
b. Turp
c. Trus-biopsy
d. Antibiotics and admit
143. Not a causes of clubfoot/ctev
a. AMC
b. Polio
c. Spina bifida
d. ?
144. Not given in treatment of cyanotic spell
a. Phenylphrin
b. Prppranalol
c. Cacl2
d. Bicarbonate
145. Best mx of contaminated necrotic wound:-
a. Debridement
b. Treatment toxoid
c. Gas gangrene serum
d. Antibiotics
146. Dynamic stabiliser of shoulder joint
a. Rotator cuff
b. Glenoid labrum
c. Coracohumeral lig
d. Glenohumeral lig
147. Not a derivative of neural ectoderm
a. Sphicter pupillae
b. Retina
c. Dilator pupillae
d. Ciliary muscles
148. Coarse tremors in all except
a. Parkinsonism
b. Alcohol
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. General paresis
149. A lady developed breathlessness, pruritus,
urticaria, and 1 hour after eating NSAIDS for
headache. Chest examination remarkable
for rales, bp 80/50. All of following can be
used for management except.
a. Crystalloid
b. Steroids
c. Atropine
d. Epinephrine
150. Embalming without issuing death certificate
is punishable under?
a. IPC 201
b. IPC 297
c. IPC 299
d. IPC 498
151. If untreated, %of MTCT of HIV during
pregnancy, labour, postpartum in a non-
breast feeding child?
a. 40-50%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-30%
d. 5
152. Which indicates contrast induced
nephropathy?
a. Increase bilirubin
b. Increases creatinine
c. Decreases bilirubin
d. Decreases creatinine
153. 50 year old with progressive jaundice with
conjugated serum bilirubin 4.8% and total
bilirubin 6.7%, alkalosis phosphatase 550 is,
SGOT 50, SGPT 65 diagnosis
a. Jaundice due to choledocholithiasis
b. Dubin johnson
c. Viral hepatitis
d. Malignant obstructive jaundice
154. Glucocorticoid used in
a. Ecoli septiceamia
b. Severe typhoid
c. Cerebral malaria
d. Leishmaniasis
155. Extremely toxic insecticide according to
WHO classification are coded
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Blue
156. Which is placed surgically?
a. Microphone
b. transmitting coil
c. Speech processor
d. Receiver
157. Triage which colour given the highest
priority
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Black

12

158. H type of tracheo esophageal fistula
diagnosed by
a. Tracheo bronchoscopy
b. Esophagoscopy
c. X-ray
d. CT scan
159. A 60 years old male with alcoholic liver
disease presented to emergency with
history of hematemesis. False regarding his
management.
a. Somatostatin infusion is indicated
b. Negative aspirate does not exclude
variceal bleed
c. Negative insertion can provoke
variceal Bleed.
d. Rigid bronchoscopy done
160. sympathetic stimulation decreases blood
flow to
a. Coronaries
b. Cerebral blood vessel
c. Skin
d. Renal
161. False regarding endemic primary bladder
stones?
a. Always associated with recurrence;
b. High incidence in cereal based diet
c. Peak incidence in 3yr children in
India
d. Most common is uric acid alone
and rarely with calcium oxalate
162. 16 year old obese boy presented with
limping. which of the tests is not useful-
a. X-ray pelvis
b. USG pelvis
c. MRI pelvis
d. CT pelvis
163. A patient with pain and swelling of right
great toe had articular erosions in X-ray.
Diagnosis
a. RA
b. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Gout
d. Reactive arthritis
164. A new born has frothing of mouth. Cyanosis
is present on day one. The probable
diagnosis is:
a. Lung hypoplasia
b. Lung cyst
c. Diaphragmatic hernia
d. Esophageal atresia

165. What is not used in treatment of TOF
cyanotic spell
a. Calcium chloride
b. Phenylepinephrine
c. Propranolol
d. Sodium bicarbonate
166. Measles vaccination to all 9mnth -14 years
children a part of which WHO strategy
a. Mop up.
b. Catch up
c. Keep up D.
d. Follow up
167. SSRI with no withdrawal reaction?
a. Esctilaopram
b. Fluxetin
c. Fluvoxamine
d. Sertraline
168. Megaloblastc anemia all present except?
a. Inc bilirubin
b. Inc reticulocyte
c. Mild splenomegaly
d. Nucleated RBCS in blood
169. Treatment of primary pulmonary
hypertension is
a. Bosentan
b. Methyldopa
c. Labetolol
d. Nitroprusside
170. A young male came with the complaint of
weakness in his right hand since one month.
On examination there was no sensory loss,
he can hold the pen, extend his wrist and
grip was normal but could not extend his
fingers. The probable lesion is in
a. Injury to c8 t1
b. Injury to lower trunk of brachial
plexus
c. Injury to motor area of hand
d. Posterior interossi nerve
171. Optic atrophy is not seen in
a. Retinitis pigmentosa
b. CRAO
c. Polupoidal Choroidal vasculopathy
d. Methyl alcohol poisoning

13

Answer Key
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. *
31. *
32. C
33. C
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. *
41. B
42. D
43. A
44. *
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. B
51. D
52. D
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. A
58. A
59. B
60. D
61. B
62. B
63. B
64. A
65. B
66. D
67. *
68. *
69. B
70. C
71. C
72. B
73. C
74. B
75. *
76. A
77. A
78. *
79. D
80. *
81. A
82. D
83. C
84. A
85. C
86. *
87. *
88. A
89. D
90. B
91. A
92. *
93. B
94. *
95. C
96. *
97. C
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. A
102. A
103. *
104. A
105. A
106. A
107. *
108. D
109. *
110. A
111. *
112. B
113. *
114. B
115. A
116. A
117. D
118. B
119. C
120. D
121. D
122. D
123. D
124. A
125. A
126. B
127. D
128. C
129. A
130. A
131. B
132. C
133. A
134. A
135. B
136. A
137. A
138. C
139. B
140. *
141. D
142. D
143. B
144. C
145. A
146. D
147. D
148. *
149. C
150. *
151. C
152. B
153. D
154. *
155. A
156. *
157. A
158. A
159. *
160. *
161. *
162. *
163. C
164. D
165. A
166. B
167. B
168. B
169. A
170. D
171. C

AIIMS Paper Cont.. from Page No. 2

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