Focus2 Test Ans

Science Focus 2 TEST
Chapter 1: Science skills

Pearson Education Australia (a division of Pearson Australia Group Pty Ltd) 2005.
This page from the Science Focus 2 Teachers Resource may be photocopied for classroom use.
Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______
Instructions: Write answers in the right-hand column. Score: ___________ / 54 marks

Section A Multiple choice (14 marks)

1
Which statement best describes scientists?
A Scientists are people who wear white coats and thick glasses.
B Scientists are people who work in laboratories.
C Scientists investigate new substances made by mixing different chemicals.
D Scientists ask What, why and how? and use written resources and
experiments to find answers.

D 1
2
A micrometer is
A a very accurate watch or timer used to measure small time intervals.
B an electrical meter used to measure tiny electric currents.
C a device that measures the thickness of objects to within a fraction of a
millimetre.
D a miniature test tube.

C 1
3
The reading on the scale below is

A 0.56
B 0.65
C 5.56
D 5.65

D 1

4
A series of experiments investigating one topic is called
A observation.
B research.
C explanation.
D hypothesis.

B 1
5 A Year 8 student is designing an experiment to test the effect of variables when
cooking a pizza.
Which of the following is the least logical variable for this experiment?
A The size of each pizza base.
B The length of time the pizza is in the oven.
C The day of the week on which the experiment is performed.
D The temperature of the oven.

C 1
6
Which statement about observations is correct?
A Observations are always quantitative.
B Observations are things you see.
C Observations involve some guesswork.
D Observations may be made with any of the five senses.

D 1
7
The match below is approximately

A 4.0 cm long.
B 4.2 cm long.
C 4.4 cm long.
D 4.5 cm long.

B 1

8
Which is the odd one out?
A Mistake.
B Parallax error.
C Human reaction time.
D Instrument error.

A 1
9
A measurement thought to be between 20 and 30 mm may be written as
A 15 5 mm.
B 25 5 mm.
C 20 10 mm.
D 30 10 mm.

B 1
10
A bibliography is
A a list of resources used to gather information.
B the study of information in the Bible.
C a diagram in a scientific report.
D a scientific reference book.

A 1
11
When plotting a graph of results, the independent variable
A should be plotted on the horizontal axis.
B should be plotted on the vertical axis.
C may be plotted on either the horizontal or vertical axis.
D is the heading for the graph.

A 1
12
In the graph below, as t increases, then B

A doubles.
B more than doubles.
C increases then levels out.
D decreases.

C 1

13
Which of the following is not a prefix?
A Kilo.
B Centi.
C J oules.
D Nano.

C 1
14
A megagram is equal to
A a kilogram.
B 1 tonne.
C one-thousandth of a gram.
D one-millionth of a gram.

B 1

Section B Written answers (40 marks)

1
Identify four well-known inventions.

Various answers (four required), eg
computer, Velcro, satellites, ball point
pen, light bulb, telephone, mobile phone,
clock.

4
2
Define the two terms:
a qualitative observation.
b quantitative observation.

a Observation that can be written in
words but not numbers.
b Observation that is stated using
numbers.

2
3 Identify four possible variables in an
experiment that tests the effect of a
Bunsen burner flame on a beaker
containing water.

The amount of water in the beaker.
The size of the beaker.
The type of Bunsen burner flame used.
The length of time the water is heated.
The purity of the water.

2

4 Brad uses a bread-making machine
every morning, to bake a loaf of bread
for his familys breakfast. There are
only three ingredients specified on the
bread mix packet:
yeast (1.5 teaspoons), bread mix (3
cups) and water (1 cup). He uses the
built-in timer to control how long the
bread is cooked.
a List the variables in Brads bread
making.
b Explain how Brad could test the
effect of slightly changing the
amount of yeast and water, on the
final product.

a Amount of yeast, amount of bread
mix, amount of water, cooking
time.
b Alter the amount of yeast (eg to 1
or 2 teaspoons), but keep
everything else the same, and bake
a loaf.
For another loaf, alter the amount
of water (eg to
3
4
cup or 1
1
4
cups),
but keep everything else (including
amount of yeast) the same as the
recipe states.
Have a control a loaf to the
original mixture for comparisons.

6
5
Identify two examples of estimates.

Various answers, eg the number of
people at a football match, the height of a
tall tree, age of your teacher.

2
6 a Illustrate the position of an eye so
the correct measurement may be
read below.

b What is the correct reading?

a

b 52 mL.

2
7
Identify examples of
a an instrument error.
b a human reaction time error.

a A metal ruler expands on a hot
day.
b A person takes time to react before
starting or stopping a timer.

2

8 Calculate the average number of goals
per game scored by a player if she
scored 3, 6, 2, 4 and 15 goals in five
games.
Average = (3 +6 +2 +4 +15) 5
= 30 5
= 6 goals
2
9 Identify the main features of a scientific
report.
Heading/date/partners
Aim
Hypothesis (optional)
Equipment/materials used
Method
Results/observations
Discussion/analysis
Conclusion
Possibly a bibliography

7
10 Recall
a how many litres are in a gigalitre.
b what a micrometre is.

a 1 000 000
b 1 millionth of a metre.

2

11 The graph below shows the temperature
of a room after a heater has been
operating for a given time.

a Calculate the temperature of the
room when you turned on the
heater.
b Calculate the temperature in the
room after the heater had been on
for 15 minutes.
c Calculate how long the heater
had been on when the
temperature was 20C.
d Use the graph to predict the
room temperature after 1 hour.

a 10C.
b 17 to 18C.
c approximately 23 minutes.
d about 23C.

4
12 a Plot the following grass growth
data on the grid provided.

30 51 32 15 7 3 0 (mm) Height
30 25 20 15 10 5 0 Day

b Draw a line of best fit through
your points to show any pattern
that exists.
c Predict when the grass was
mown.

a, b

c Between day 25 and day 30.

5

Chapter 2: Atoms

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
Which of the following is an element?
A Carbon.
B Paper.
C Plastic.
D Sugar.

A 1
2
The chemical symbol for sodium is
A S
B So
C Na
D No

C 1
3
An element is a
A chemical obtained from mineral ore.
B pure substance made up of only one type of atom.
C group of different atoms bonded together.
D synthetic substance created in the laboratory.

B 1
4
The symbol K denotes
A copper.
B cobalt.
C polonium.
D potassium.

D 1
5
Pure water is made up of numerous
A atoms.
B spheres.
C molecules.
D compounds.

C 1
Chapter 2: Atoms

6
Quartz has the chemical formula SiO
2
. This means that in quartz
A for every atom of silicon, there are 2 atoms of oxygen.
B for every atom of oxygen, there are 2 atoms of silicon.
C silicon and oxygen form groups, containing two of each type of atom.
D one atom of silicon bonds with one atom of oxygen, to make a group
containing two atoms.

A 1
7
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A Sawdust is produced from wood being cut by a power saw.
B Water freezes to form ice.
C Fireworks explode in a colourful display.
D J uice is obtained from an orange.

C 1
8
A combination reaction is best described as one in which
A a substance is broken down to form two or more different substances.
B a new substance is formed by the combination of two or more substances.
C an insoluble, sometimes colourful, solid is formed from two liquids.
D a substance reacts with oxygen.

B 1
9
A chemical reaction may be sped up by
A using more concentrated reactants.
B heating the reactants.
C using more finely ground reactants.
D all of the above.

D 1
10
A catalyst
A speeds up a chemical reaction without actually combining with reactants.
B dissolves chemicals that water is unable to.
C is one of the ingredients in a chemical reaction.
D is a large molecule that is broken down by a smaller one.

A 1
11 In the chemical reaction: iron +sulfur iron sulfide
A iron and sulfur are products.
B iron sulfide is the product.
C iron, sulfur and iron sulfide are products.
D sulfide is the product.

B 1
Chapter 2: Atoms

12 Which of the following famous scientists is not known for their theory of atomic
structure?
A Dalton.
B Thomson.
C Rutherford.
D Newton.

D 1
13
An atom consists of
A a nucleus containing neutrons and protons, surrounded by fast-moving
electrons.
B central neutrons, surrounded by fast-moving electrons and protons.
C central electrons, surrounded by fast-moving protons.
D a mixture of protons and electrons spread evenly in a neutral dough.

A 1
14 An atom of
9
19
F contains
A 19 protons and 9 electrons.
B 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons.
C 10 protons, 9 neutrons and 9 electrons.
D 9 protons, 19 neutrons and 10 electrons.

B 1
15 A phosphorus atom has an atomic number of 15. How many electrons does it
have in its third (outermost) shell?
A 0
B 2
C 5
D 8

C 1

Chapter 2: Atoms


1
Define each of the following.
a Element.
b Atom.
c Molecule.
d Compound.
e Mixture.

a A pure substance (made of one
type of atom).
b The smallest part of an element.
c A group of atoms bonded together.
d A substance made of one type of
molecule.
e Made of two or more elements, or
two or more compounds, or a
combination of both.

5
2
a Sketch a molecule of NH
3
.
b Identify the following formula.

a
b CO
2
.

2
3 Identify and name the elements whose
symbols are given below.
a Al
b Ca
c Au
d He
e O
f Mg
g Kr
h Pb
i S
j Zn

a Aluminium.
b Calcium.
c Gold.
d Helium.
e Oxygen.
f Magnesium
g Krypton.
h Lead.
i Sulfur.
j Zinc.

5
Chapter 2: Atoms

4 Identify the symbol for each of the
following.
a Hydrogen.
b Chlorine.
c Silver.
d Neon.
e Europium.
f Boron.
g Iodine.
h Iron.
i Tin.
j Carbon.

a H
b Cl
c Ag
d Ne
e Eu
f B
g I
h Fe
i Sn
j C

5
5 Identify four examples of a physical
change.

Various answers, eg ice melting,
sharpening a pencil, dissolving sugar,
grinding metal.

4
6 Identify four examples of a chemical
change.
Various answers, eg iron rusting, meat
cooking, wood burning, compost rotting,
steam condensing.
4
7 Classify each reaction below as one of
the following:
combination, decomposition,
precipitation, combustion
a Methane burns in a Bunsen
burner.
b Light breaks down silver chloride
to form silver and chlorine.
c A solid forms when two liquids
are mixed.
d Copper reacts with oxygen to
form copper oxide.

a Combustion.
b Decomposition.
c Precipitation.
d Combination.

4
Chapter 2: Atoms

8 Complete each of the following
chemical reactions.
a Lead nitrate +potassium iodide

lead iodide +________
________
b Zinc +copper chloride
________ ________ +________
c Iron +chlorine ________
________

a Lead nitrate +potassium iodide
lead iodide +potassium nitrate
b Zinc +copper chloride
zinc chloride + copper
c Iron +chlorine iron chloride

3
9 Define each of the following in relation
to a chemical reaction.
a (s)
b (l)
c (g)
d (aq)

a Solid.
b Liquid.
c Gas.
d Aqueous (spread throughout
water).

4
10
Define an enzyme. A catalyst used within our bodies to
break down large molecules and hence
speed up digestion.
2
11 Identify three ways a chemical reaction
may be sped up.
Any three of the following.
Use more concentrated chemicals.
Raise the temperature.
Increase the surface area of the
reactants.
Use a catalyst (helper chemical).

3
12 Clarify by drawing a diagram the parts
of an atom of lithium which has 3
protons, 4 neutrons and 3 electrons.
Show the charge (if any) on each type
of particle.

4
Chapter 2: Atoms

13 Copper may be denoted by Cu
64
29
.
Calculate how many of each of the
following are in one atom of copper.
a Neutrons.
b Electrons.
c Protons.

a 35
b 29
c 29

3
14 Yttrium may be denoted by Y
89
39
.
Calculate the
a mass number of yttrium.
b atomic number of yttrium.

a 89
b 39

2
15 An atom of oxygen contains 8 electrons.
Calculate the number of electrons in
the
a innermost shell of an atom of
oxygen.
b outer shell of an atom of oxygen.

a 2
b 6

2

Chapter 3: Microbes

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
The scientifically correct name for germs is
A bugs.
B disease.
C flu.
D microbes.

D 1
2
A scientist who studies microorganisms is known as a
A microbiologist.
B biologist.
C microgeologist.
D doctor.

A 1
3
Which of the following microbes may be seen with the naked eye?
A Viruses.
B Bacteria.
C Fungi.
D Protozoa.

C 1
4
What instrument magnifies objects up to 100 000 times?
A Light microscope.
B Electron microscope.
C Magnifying glass.
D Digital camera.

B 1
5
Bacteria are used to make
A yogurt.
B wine.
C bread.
D butter.

A 1
Chapter 3: Microbes

6
The common mushroom is an example of a
A virus.
B bacterium.
C fungus.
D plant.

C 1
7
The tiny hairs used by some protists to move around are called
A flagella.
B cilia.
C pseudopod.
D hair.

B 1
8
AIDS is caused by a
A virus.
B bacterium.
C fungus.
D protist.

A 1
9 Which fungi do we use to make food and drink such as bread, cereals, wine and
beer?
A Mould.
B Mushrooms.
C Flour.
D Yeast.

D 1
10
Bacteria and protists reproduce by cell division or
A binary fusion.
B cellular changes.
C primary fission.
D binary fission.

A 1
Chapter 3: Microbes

11 Some bacteria can undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, and in seven
hours will become a colony of over
A 100
B 10 000
C 100 000
D 1 000 000

D 1
12 Bacteria grow and reproduce very rapidly only when the conditions are right.
These conditions are
A warm and dry.
B cold and dry.
C warm and moist.
D cold and moist.

C 1
13
Identify the chemicals or drugs that kill bacteria.
A Biotics.
B Antibiotics.
C Aspirin.
D Antifungicides.

B 1
14
The capsule called a sporangium holds
A spores.
B eggs.
C pollen.
D sporangs.

A 1
15
Viruses are only able to reproduce inside a
A human cell.
B plant cell.
C bacterium.
D host cell.

D 1
Chapter 3: Microbes

16
These two microbe groups are more foe than friend.
A Fungi and protists.
B Viruses and bacteria.
C Bacteria and fungi.
D Protists and viruses.

D 1
17 Bacteria carried by fleas caused the death of one quarter of the population of
Europe in the 1300s. This period is called
A the Black Years.
B the Black Death.
C the Black Flea Deaths.
D the Black European Plague.

B 1
18
The fungal disease tinea is also known as
A athletes foot.
B toe jam.
C ring worm.
D thrush.

A 1
19
In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered the mould that produces
A aspirin.
B insulin.
C penicillin.
D bactrum.

C 1
20 The process whereby yeast feeds on the sugar (glucose) in fruit, vegetables or
cereal grains to produce carbon dioxide gas is called
A glucosis.
B fermentation.
C aerobic respiration.
D binary fission.

B 1

Chapter 3: Microbes


1 Identify the microbes that can be seen
with a
a light microscope.
b electron microscope.

a Protists, bacteria and fungi.
b Viruses, protists, bacteria and
fungi.

3
2 Identify the coarse focus, base, stage,
eye piece, objective lens and mirror on
the following diagram of a microscope.

6
3 Classify each of the following
statements as true or false
a 1 centimetre =0.01 metre
b 1 nanometre can be written as 1
mm.
c Fungi can only be seen with a
microscope.
d An electron microscope is needed
to see viruses.
e Bacteria are about 1 micrometre
in size.

a True.
b False 1 nm.
c False seen with human eye.
d True.
e True.

5
4 The human body is home to many
bacteria. Identify three areas of the
body where they may be found.

Nose, skin, blood, intestines, mouth etc.

3
Chapter 3: Microbes

5 Describe how fungi feed and what
function they play in the natural cycles
of the environment.

They feed on dead and decaying material,
helping return nutrients to the natural
cycles. They are decomposers.

2
6 a Explain why the protist euglena
is plant-like.
b Describe how euglena can move
in water.
a Euglena is plant-like because it
contains chloroplasts (or
chlorophyll) and uses sunlight to
made glucose (or perform
photosynthesis).
b They can move rapidly using their
whip-like tails or flagella.

4
7 Identify each type of bacteria shown by
their shape using the following labels.
a Cocci.
b Bacilli.
c Spirilla.

3
8
Label the following structure of a virus.

3
Chapter 3: Microbes

9 Explain why care must be taken when
performing experiments with bacteria or
fungi.
Some students may have allergies to the
bacteria or fungi used or produced by the
experiments.
Bacteria and fungi can cause disease and
must be handled with care.
2
10 Explain why you can become sick very
quickly when even a single bacterium
invades your body.
In only a few hours a single bacterium
will begin to reproduce and become
millions! And the more bacteria there are,
the sicker you get. Your body is the
perfect home for them warm with lots
of food available.
4
11 Identify the three conditions needed by
bacteria to reproduce.
All bacteria need moist and warm
environments. They also need a correct
food source.
3
12 Draw a diagram to show how bacteria
reproduce.
3
13
Define an antibiotic. Antibiotics are chemicals or drugs that
kill bacteria.
2
14 Label the diagram of a fungus to show
the following structures:
spores, sporangium, hyphae

4
Chapter 3: Microbes

15
Summarise how a virus reproduces. Viruses reproduce inside a host cell.
They attach to the outside of a cell then
enter it. They take control of the cell,
making it produce new viruses. The host
cell is killed when it bursts open to
release the newly made viruses. These
viruses then infect new cells.
6
16
Explain how vaccinations work. Vaccinations infect you with
something very similar to a virus
usually a modified virus or a harmless
virus that is very similar in shape to the
nasty one. Your body then makes
antibodies that protect you from the real
disease.
6
17 Explain why decomposition by bacteria
is not always a good thing when it
comes to your food.
If bacteria infect your food and
decompose it they produce poisonous
chemicals called toxins. If you eat the
food, these toxins can make you violently
ill. This is known as food poisoning.
3
18 Identify one place where
decomposition by bacteria is a good
thing.
Compost. 1
19 Some bacteria can destroy food while
others are used to make it. Identify
three foods that are made using bacteria.
Yogurt, yogurt drinks and cheese. 3
20 Identify three foods that use the fungus
yeast in their production.
Bread, wine and beer. 3
21 Contrast aerobic and anaerobic
respiration.
Aerobic respiration requires oxygen
while anaerobic occurs in the absence of
oxygen.
2
Chapter 3: Microbes

22 a Write a word equation for
fermentation.
b Both wine and champagne are
produced by fermentation.
Explain why wine is flat while
champagne is bubbly.
a Glucose carbon dioxide +
alcohol (ethanol) +energy
b The carbon dioxide gas in wine is
allowed to escape before the wine
is put in the bottle. The champagne
is fermented in the bottle, trapping
the bubbles in the champagne and
making it bubbly.

3

Chapter 4: Body systems

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
Which of the following is not a type of tooth?
A Molar.
B Pre-molar.
C Canine.
D Scissor.

D 1
2
The crown of a tooth is the
A tip.
B space in the jaw in which the tooth sits.
C part of the tooth above the gum.
D inner cavity of the tooth.

C 1
3
Which of the following is the odd one out?
A Digestive tract.
B Gut.
C Alimentary canal.
D Kidney.

D 1
4
How much fluid does the digestive system produce each day?
A 1 L
B 2 L
C 8 L
D 16 L

C 1
5
Peristalsis is
A the chewing of food in the mouth.
B the contraction and relaxation of muscles that moves food through the
alimentary canal.
C the absorption of broken-down food into the bloodstream.
D the clumping together of faeces in the large intestine.

B 1

6
Which of the following is/are not found in the digestive system?
A Perpoofer valve.
B Sphincters.
C Villi.
D Chyme.

A 1
7
The liver may be described as
A a J -shaped organ.
B a chemical factory.
C the smallest digestive organ.
D the longest organ.

B 1
8
The scientific name for released digestive gases is
A sulfur dioxide.
B flatus.
C fartus.
D odourus unpleasantus.

B 1
9 When matter is moved more slowly than usual through the digestive system,
which of the following is more likely to occur?
A Diarrhoea.
B Heartburn.
C Constipation.
D Vomiting.

C 1
10
The tiny filtration units in your kidneys are called
A nephrons.
B filtrons.
C urinators.
D ureters.

A 1
11
Dialysis is the medical term for
A a kidney transplant.
B kidney failure.
C filtering of blood by a machine.
D a build-up of poisonous wastes in the blood.

C 1

12 Kidney stones can cause extreme pain. A recently developed method to
eliminate kidney stones uses
A ultrasound.
B lasers.
C chemicals.
D surgery.

A 1
13
The function of plasma is to
A fight infection.
B carry carbon dioxide.
C carry the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets around the body.
D determine blood type.

C 1
14
The pulmonary vein carries
A deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
B newly oxygenated blood to the lungs.
C deoxygenated blood to the rest of the body (not the lungs).
D newly oxygenated blood to the heart.

D 1
15
Which of the following refers to a lower heart chamber?
A Atrium.
B Septum.
C Ventricle.
D Valve.

C 1
16
Which of the following is closest to a normal ECG?
A

B

C

D

B 1

17
An artery may become narrowed due to a build-up of
A dead blood cells.
B cholesterol.
C angina.
D polyunsaturates.

B 1
18
What two recent scientific developments have helped heart sufferers?
A Ultrasonic treatment.
B Chemicals to lower cholesterol.
C Heart valves and pacemakers.
D Polyunsaturates.

C 1
19
What fraction of the human body is made up of water?
A
10
1

B
3
1

C
2
1

D
3
2

D 1
20 Which of the following shows the approximate percentages of three major gases
in inhaled air?
A 50% nitrogen, 49% oxygen, 1% carbon dioxide.
B 79% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide.
C 79% nitrogen, 14% oxygen, 6% carbon dioxide.
D 59% nitrogen, 41% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide.

B 1
21
Which of the following is not a property of alveoli?
A Their cell walls are only one cell thick.
B They lie close to the walls of capillaries.
C They have a dry surface to allow efficient diffusion.
D They are shaped to give maximum surface area.

C 1

22
Most oxygen is transported in the bloodstream
A bound to haemoglobin.
B as gaseous oxygen molecules.
C bound to platelets.
D as dissolved carbon dioxide molecules and hydrogen carbonate ions.

A 1
23
We need fibre because
A it contains large amounts of vitamins and minerals.
B it provides bulk which helps move substances through the digestive system.
C it is the major source of energy in foods.
D it is used for growth and repair.

B 1
24
Pasta, bread and rice are foods that are all rich in
A carbohydrates.
B proteins.
C fats.
D vitamin C.

A 1
25
Which of the following diseases is caused by a lack of vitamins?
A Hepatitis C.
B AIDS.
C Scurvy.
D Polio.

C 1
26
Which two of the following are minerals?
A Calcium.
B Potassium.
C Folic acid.
D Riboflavin.

A
B
1
27 From which one of the following categories should you have most serves each
day for a healthy diet?
A Vegetables.
B Meat and meat alternatives.
C Breads and cereals.
D Milk and milk products.

C 1

28
Which food item is high in kilojoules and high in calcium?
A Ice-cream.
B Can of soft drink.
C Hamburger.
D Margarine.

A 1
29
Obesity
A is an eating disorder in which sufferers unrealistically perceive they need to
lose weight.
B involves binge eating followed by purging.
C is a condition in which a person is more than 24 per cent overweight.
D is a town where a large number of OBE recipients reside.

C 1
30
Respiration is a chemical reaction which
A occurs only in the body cells of animals.
B always has oxygen as a reactant.
C involves a sequence of reactions.
D is endothermic (absorbs energy).

C 1


1 Identify the tooth type for the function
of
a biting.
b grinding.
c cutting.

a Canine.
b Molar or pre-molar.
c Incisor.

3

2 Label the tooth diagram below with the
tooth type and function where indicated.
4
3 Explain how acid is created in the
mouth, and what can it cause.

Bacteria in the mouth transform sugar in
food into acid which can cause tooth
decay.

2
4 Identify the parts of the digestive
system on the following diagram.

5

5 Identify the location in the digestive
system where
a stools form.
b insulin is produced.
c nutrients pass through villi.
d considerable heat energy is
produced.
e saliva produced.
f peristalsis occurs.
g you find hydrochloric acid.
h digestion begins.

a Large intestine.
b Pancreas.
c Small intestine.
d Liver.
e Mouth.
f All along the digestive tract.
g Stomach.
h Mouth.

4
6 a Identify the end-product of
digestion that provides energy to
cells.
b How is this substance transported
around the body?
c Give two ways this end-product
is stored in the body.
a Glucose.
b In the bloodstream.
c As glycogen in the liver, or as fat
elsewhere around the body (eg
around the belly).

4
7 Explain
a a stomach ulcer.
b a possible cause of cirrhosis.

a Damage to the mucous lining of
the stomach.
b Excessive alcohol consumption,
hepatitis

2
8 Identify two waste products produced
by cells in your body.
Carbon dioxide, water. 1
9 Classify the following in the order in
which fluid flows, starting with the first
stage.
bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter.
Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra. 2

10
Explain the main function of
a red blood cells.
b white blood cells.
c platelets.
d antigens.

a Oxygen transport.
b Destruction of germs.
c Formation of fibrin for clotting.
d Fighting foreign objects in the
blood.

4
11 Assess whether a person with type B+
blood could safely
a donate blood to a person with
type B blood.
b donate to a person with type O+
blood.
c receive blood from a donor with
type O+blood.

a No.
b No.
c Yes.

3
12
Label the heart diagram below. 4
13
Identify the type of blood tubes that
a are one cell thick.
b carry blood at low pressure.
c have the thickest outer layer.

a Capillaries.
b Veins.
c Arteries.

3
14 Describe the role of the lungs in the
circulatory system.
They oxygenate the blood, so it is ready
to be delivered to all parts of the body.
2

15 Identify four structures which air
passes through on its journey from the
atmosphere to the alveoli in your lungs.

Any four of:
nose.
pharynx.
trachea.
larynx.
bronchus.
bronchiole.
4

16 The questions that follow refer to the
diagram below of the human respiratory
system.
Identify the structure shown (use the
numbers 1 to 8 to answer) that
a prevents food from entering the
trachea.
b contracts and flattens when you
breathe in.
c filters, warms and humidifies air.
d contracts to raise the rib cage
when you breathe in.
e is the site of gaseous exchange
between the lungs and the
bloodstream.
f is a bronchus.

a 2
b 7
c 1
d 8
e 6
f 4

6

17 Describe what happens to each of the
following structures during expiration
(breathing out).
a Ribs (raised or lowered?).
b Diaphragm (flattens or is dome-
shaped?)
c Pressure in the chest cavity
(increases or decreases?).
d Intercostal muscles (contract or
relax?).

a Lowered.
b Dome-shaped.
c Increases.
d Relax.

4
18 Identify five types of nutrients, and
give an example of a food rich in each
one.
Carbohydrates bread.
Lipids margarine.
Proteins meat.
Vitamins orange juice.
Minerals milk.
5
19
Identify the part of food or nutrient that
a assists chemical reactions in the
body.
b repairs body tissue.
c is required in small amounts for
good health.
d provides a rich source of energy.

a Water.
b Protein.
c Vitamins or minerals.
d Lipids.

4
20 Classify the following in order from
least required each day to most required
each day for a healthy diet.
fruits, indulgence items, milk and milk
products, breads and cereals,
vegetables, meat and alternatives.
Indulgence items, meat and alternatives,
milk and milk products, fruits,
vegetables, breads and cereals.
3
21 a Describe the process of aerobic
respiration by writing a chemical
equation.
b State whether the reaction is
exothermic or endothermic.
c Define the process of aerobic
respiration.
a C
6
H
12
O
6(aq)
+6O
2(g)
6CO
2(g)
+
6H
2
O
(l)
+energy
b Exothermic.
c A process that takes place with
oxygen (uses oxygen).

4

22
Describe the function of an enzyme. Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction
without being used up in the reaction.
2
23 Identify
a the two products of anaerobic
respiration in yeast cells.
b two industrial uses of the
anaerobic respiration reaction in
yeast cells.
c the product of anaerobic
respiration in human muscle
cells.

a Carbon dioxide and ethanol.
b Beer/wine making and bread
making.
c Lactic acid.

3
24 Recall two reasons why a person at rest
would need energy.
Any two of:
heart beat.
breathing.
repair of tissues.
kidney function.
2

Chapter 5: Electricity

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
A neutral object is one that contains
A no charges.
B an equal number of positive and negative charges.
C only neutrons.
D an excess of one type of charge.

B 1
2
Which of the following will attract each other?
A Two positive charges.
B Two negative charges.
C A neutral charge and a positive charge.
D None of the above.

C 1
3
A large device used to demonstrate the effects of static electricity is the
A Electrostatic precipitator.
B Vandenburg ioniser.
C Van de Graaff generator.
D Steffi Graf imitator.

C 1
4
A dangerous static charge may build up on an aircraft due to
A charges in the atmosphere being attracted to the aircrafts metallic body.
B chemical reactions involving aircraft exhaust gases.
C movement of air against the outside of the aircraft.
D electrical discharges from the instrument panel.

C 1
5
Lightning occurs when
A charge flows between clouds.
B charge flows between a cloud and the ground.
C charge flows from one part of a cloud to another part of the same cloud.
D all of the above.

D 1

6
Lines representing electric fields are
A always evenly spaced.
B always curved.
C closer together near charges.
D drawn with arrows showing the direction a negative charge would move if
free to do so.
C 1
7
Voltage is the
A number of charges passing a point in a circuit every second.
B measure of the energy given to or lost by moving charges.
C number of charges in a cell.
D time taken for a charge to move around a circuit once.
B 1
8 Which circuit below shows how to measure voltage and current for a single
globe in a circuit?

A 1
9
A battery is
A a group of cells.
B another name for a single cell.
C a collection of objects in a circuit.
D one of the ends of a cell or the terminals of a power supply.
A 1
10
Which of the following is a good conductor?
A Plastic.
B Copper.
C Water.
D Air.
B 1
11
In an electric circuit, resistance is
A a connection terminal that is difficult to unscrew or tighten.
B something which does not allow any charge to flow.
C a component connected the wrong way around.
D something that restricts the flow of charge, transferring energy in the
process.
D 1

12
A photovoltaic cell is a
A solar cell.
B technical term for a light bulb.
C high voltage source.
D circuit symbol used to denote a voltage source such as a battery or cell.
A 1
13
The circuit below contains

A 3 globes in parallel.
B 3 globes in series.
C globe in series with 2 globes in parallel.
D 2 globes in parallel with one globe in series.
C 1
14
When a globe is removed from the circuit below

A the other two will continue to glow just as brightly as before.
B the other two will glow more brightly than before.
C the other two will glow less brightly than before.
D all globes will go out.

A 1
15 What will happen to the current leaving the cell in the circuit below if point X is
joined to point Y with a copper connecting wire?
A It will stay the same.
B It will be one third of its previous value.
C It will initially triple and possibly blow the globe.
D No current will flow, but no globe will be damaged.
C 1

16 What would happen if all the power points in part of your home were wired in
series?
A The voltage would be too great and damage anything plugged into one of
them.
B If more than one power point was being used, the voltage would be too
small for devices to operate normally.
C They would work normally as long as used sensibly (ie not overloaded)
power points are frequently wired in parallel with each other.
D All power points would have to be on in order for any to work.
D 1


1 Describe the force between each of the
following as A (attract), R (repel) or N
(no force).
a

b

c

d

a R
b A
c R
d A

4

2 Explain the science behind a situation
in which a person experiences a static
electricity effect.

Various answers, eg friction between a
persons shoes and carpet produce charge
separation so the person becomes
charged. When they touch a metal hand
rail, negative charges flow into or out of
the rail (depending on the sign of the
charge on the person), causing a mild
electric shock.

3
3 Predict where you think the word
photostat comes from.

The word is another term for photocopy,
a process which uses light (hence the
photo at the start of the word) and
static electricity to copy an original.

2
4 An electric charge produces an electric
field. Explain what happens to the size
of an electric field when
a you move closer to the charge.
b the size of the charge is
increased.

a It increases.
b It increases.

2
5 Identify several electric field lines by
drawing them on the diagram below.

3

6 Explain why the metal foil strips at the
lower end of the electroscope below
repel each other, despite the rod not
touching the device.

The positive charges in the rod attract
negative charges in the lower strips,
leaving the lower strips with an excess of
positive charges. Since each lower strip is
positive, they repel each other.
2
7 Describe the direction of conventional
current in the conductor below.

To the right. 2
8
Complete these sentences.
a ________ is a measure of the rate
at which charge flows, and is
measured in ________.
b ________ is a measure of the
energy given to or lost by
charges, and is measured in
________.

a Current is a measure of the rate at
which charge flows, and is
measured in amperes (or amps).
b Voltage is a measure of the energy
given to or lost by charges, and is
measured in volts.

4
9 Identify the basic ingredients in a cell
or battery.
Two different metals (eg copper and
zinc) and an acid.
2
10
a Define a conductor.
b Define an insulator.
c Identify two examples of a
conductor.
d Identify two examples of an
insulator.
a A substance that allows electricity
to flow through it.
b A substance that does not normally
allow electricity to flow through it.
c Copper, tungsten.
d Plastic, glass.

4

11 Identify two examples of a resistance in
a circuit.
Globe filament, electric jug element. 2
12
State the reading on each meter below.
Each meter is either a voltmeter or
ammeter and is connected correctly.
Assume globes in the same circuit are
identical.
a

b

c

a M
1
= 2 A, M
2
= 4.5 V, M
3
= 2 A
b M
4
= 4 A, M
5
= 2 A, M
6
= 6 V
c M
7
= 3 A, M
8
= 4.5 V, M
9
= 1 A,
M
10
= 9 V

10

13
Consider the circuit below.

Identify which other globes would go
out if
a globe B blows.
b globe D blows.
c globe A blows.
d a copper wire is used to create a
short circuit from X to Y (assume
no globes blow).

a C
b E, F
c B, C, D, E, F, G
d C, G

4
14
Consider the party light circuit below.

a What would be the effect on the
other globes in the circuit if one
globe blew?
b How could the circuit be
redesigned so that if a globe
blows, none of the others do?

a Two neighbouring globes would
go out.
b It should be arranged so there are
15 branches in parallel, each
containing only 1 globe.

3

Chapter 6: Ecology

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
All living plants and animals in a particular region may be described as
A a community.
B an organism.
C the environment.
D an ecosystem.

A 1
2
A biome refers to
A a chemical pollutant.
B an artificial environment such as a greenhouse.
C areas having similar climatic conditions.
D a biogeographical region.

C 1
3
A habitat is
A the most specific level possible for an organisms address.
B the broadest category for an organisms address.
C an organisms typical behaviour.
D a specific area such as a sand dune or tree.

D 1
4 Physical characteristics or behaviours that help an organism live in a particular
environment are called
A attributes.
B adaptations.
C camouflage.
D instincts.

B 1
Chapter 6: Ecology

5 Which of the following is an abiotic factor that influences where an organism
can live?
A Humidity.
B Predation.
C Human intervention.
D Competition from other organisms.

A 1
6
Salinity is a measure of
A the number of organisms in a particular region.
B the acidity of soil.
C the amount of water vapour in the air.
D the salt content of water.
D 1
7
The original source of all energy used by organisms is
A plants.
B water.
C glucose.
D the Sun.
D 1
8
A secondary consumer is
A a plant.
B an animal that eats plants.
C an animal that eats an animal that eats plants.
D an omnivore.
C 1
9
Each link in a food chain is
A a plant.
B an animal.
C an organism.
D a carnivore.
C 1
10 Communities with high biodiversity are more likely to survive environmental
changes because they
A contain more than one type of food source for the organisms within them.
B have denser plant growth, which insulates the community from such
changes.
C are generally popular tourist attractions and are protected by law.
D consist of large numbers of only a few species.
A 1
Chapter 6: Ecology

11
The number of producers in a food chain is
A less than the number of producers.
B the same as the number of consumers.
C greater than the number of consumers.
D possibly any of the above, depending on the organisms involved.
C 1
12
A decomposer is
A an animal that eats another animal.
B a plant that loses its leaves in winter.
C an organism which breaks down organic matter so it is recycled.
D an animal that uses sound as its main method of communication.
C 1
13 The interaction between a remora (a type of sucker fish) and a shark to which it
attaches is an example of commensalism because
A the remora benefits, but the shark is harmed.
B the remora benefits, but the shark is unaffected.
C the remora is unaffected, but the shark is harmed.
D both fish benefit from their relationship.
B 1
14
The impact of humans on the ecosystem increased suddenly after the
A environmental convolution.
B mechanical inspiration.
C climatic illusion.
D industrial revolution.
D 1
15
A pollutant is
A a substance created by human activity that harms the environment.
B a natural or artificial substance that makes the environment unhealthy for
some organisms.
C a gas such as sulfur dioxide that is able to reach the atmosphere.
D something produced when a fossil fuel is burnt.
B 1
16
The greenhouse effect occurs because gases released into the atmosphere cause
A plants to grow too quickly and rob the atmosphere of vital gases.
B heat to be trapped on the Earth.
C the hole in the ozone layer to increase in size.
D the atmosphere to become too thin and allow more energy to escape from
the Earth.
B 1
17
Which of the following are introduced species as far as Australia is concerned?
A Rabbit.
B Carp.
C Pig.
D All of the above.
D 1
Chapter 6: Ecology

18
Frogs in Australia are considered to be environmental indicators because
A they are the most common Australian animal and so may be easily caught
and studied.
B they are at the bottom of the food chain.
C they breathe through their skin and depend on water, so pollutants tend to
affect them strongly.
D they change colour in response to pollutants.
C 1


1 Classify the following in order from
smallest to largest:
biome, microhabitat, biosphere, habitat,
biogeographical region

Microhabitat, habitat, biome,
biogeographical region, biosphere.

3
2 Match each of the following with one of
the regions given in the previous
question.
a J ust under the surface of some
desert sand.
b The part of our planet where life
exists.
c Grassland.
d A tussock of grass.
e Australia.

a Microhabitat.
b Biosphere.
c Biome.
d Habitat.
e Biogeographical region.

5
3
Identify two examples of
a organisms.
b the non-living environment.

a Eucalyptus tree, kangaroo.
b Rainfall, temperature.

4
4 Describe the characteristics of an
organism which lives most of its life
under the desert sand.

Strong claws for burrowing, poor
eyesight or no eyes. Nostrils covered by
protective hair.

2
Chapter 6: Ecology

5 Animal species suffer reductions in
populations during or immediately after
a fire. Identify how some escape the
fire.

Mobile animals such as birds, kangaroos
and wallabies may be able to move out of
burning areas to safer refuges. Wombats
and echidnas may survive by seeking
shelter in burrows or logs. Reptiles and
amphibians also take refuge
underground.

3
6 Identify
a an animal and describe two
physical adaptations.
b an animal (it may be the same
one as above) and describe two
behavioural adaptations.
a Echidna fur colour, spines.
b Echidna rolls into ball if
attacked, digs into earth when
attacked if ground is soft enough.

4
7 Describe how each of the following
affects organisms. Give a specific
examples.
a Temperature.
b Humidity.
c Light availability.
d Acidity.
a Digestion, respiration, excretion
and reproduction are all affected
by temperature.
b Humidity affects how much water
an organism loses.
c Plants rely on light to be able to
carry out photosynthesis.
d Plants and animals have a
preferred acidity level for optimum
growth/chance of survival.

4
8 Clarify each of the following factors
that affect where an organism can live.
a Competition.
b Dispersal.
c Predation.
d Human intervention.
a Animals must compete for a
limited food supply. Plants
compete for nutrients in the soil.
b Plants depend on the wind or other
animals to spread throughout a
region. Animals can move about
by themselves.
c An organism may be eaten by
another.
d Humans can affect the
environment dramatically, eg by
clearing land or polluting.

4
Chapter 6: Ecology

9 Identify a biotic factor and an abiotic
factor (in that order) that may affect a
kookaburra.
Various answers, eg
Biotic availability of trees for
nesting.
Abiotic climate.
3
10 Classify each of the following as a
herbivore, carnivore or omnivore.
a Crocodile.
b Deer.
c Blue-tongue lizard.
a Carnivore.
b Herbivore.
c Omnivore.

3
11 Draw arrows identifying the links
between the following animals in a
possible food web.
snake, garden skink, kookaburra, fly

3
Chapter 6: Ecology

12 a Explain why a food web is more
accurate than a food chain.
b Use arrows to identify several
connections in the food web
below.

a Because organisms usually have
more than one food source.
b

4
13 Choose one of the terms listed to
describe each of the following
interactions.
mutualism, competition, amensalism,
herbivory, parasitism, predation
a A small bird picks insects from a
rhinoceross hide.
b Wallabies using a particular route
repeatedly eventually wear a trail
in the bush.
c A tick burrows into the skin of a
stumpy tail lizard, causing minor
skin irritation.
d A koala eats the leaves on a
branch of a gum tree.
a Mutualism (both benefit).
b Amensalism (one harmed, one
unaffected).
c Parasitism (one benefits, one
caused problems).
d Herbivory (animal feeds, plant not
killed).

4
Chapter 6: Ecology

14 a Use the graph below to estimate
what the human population was
in the year 2000.
b Predict the range of values that
the population will lie between in
the year 2020.

a 7200 million.
b 7500 million to 9000 million.

3
15 Identify four types of waterway and
ocean pollution.
Any four of:
Sewage.
Agricultural run-off.
Sediment.
Inorganic chemicals.
Salinisation.
4
16 Describe the cause of two of the types
of pollution in the previous question.
Various answers, eg
Sewage: waste water produced in our
homes (from washing up, showers
and baths, toilets).
Salinisation: removal of trees causes a
rise in the groundwater level, bringing
salts closer to the surface.
2
17 Outline the problems caused by two
different introduced species.
Various answers, eg
Feral pigs damaging native plants and
nesting sites.
European carp churning mud, dirtying
water and damaging roots of water
plants.
2
Chapter 6: Ecology

18 Propose two ways of encouraging
conservation of our native plants and
animals.
Various answers, eg
Monitor populations of endangered
species for signs of decreasing
numbers.
Set aside more areas as national
parks/protected habitats.
2

Chapter 7: Plant systems

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
The male part of a flower is made up of the
A stigma, style and ovary.
B petals and sepals.
C anther and filament.
D nectary and ovule.

C 1
2 The openings in plant leaves that allow gases in and out and control water loss
are called
A the epidermis.
B stomata.
C mesophyll cells.
D the cuticle.

B 1
3 Which type of transport tube carries water and minerals from the roots in
plants?
A Chlorophyll.
B Phloem.
C Stoma.
D Xylem.

D 1
4
A vascular bundle is a
A bunch of flowers or plant cuttings.
B group of tubes within a plant.
C group of guard cells on the underside of a leaf.
D plant root system.

B 1

5 In which of these plant leaf cells is the maximum rate of photosynthesis
expected to occur?
A Epidermal cells.
B Palisade cells.
C Xylem cells.
D Mesophyll cells.

B 1
6
If carbon dioxide, water and chlorophyll are placed in a test tube in the sunlight
A glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced immediately.
B glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced, but only after a long
period of time.
C no reaction will occur because one reactant is missing.
D no reaction will occur because necessary enzymes are missing.

D 1
7 Photosynthesis may be considered a two-stage process. Which of the following
occurs during stage 1?
A Energy is released by chlorophyll molecules.
B Energy is trapped by chlorophyll molecules.
C Carbon dioxide is released.
D Starch molecules are made.

B 1
8
An experiment was conducted using the set-up shown below.

The volume of gas collected in the test tube after 2 hours would not be affected
by the
A size of the test tube.
B mass of plant used.
C intensity of the light source.
D temperature of the solution.

A 1

9
At night the starch in leaves is reconverted to glucose. This is called
A photosynthesis.
B Benzyme release.
C destarching.
D respiration.

C 1
10
The process of using oxygen to release energy from food is called
A photosynthesis.
B respiration.
C breathing.
D elimination.

B 1
11
Respiration is a chemical reaction which
A occurs only in the body cells of animals.
B always has oxygen as a reactant.
C involves a sequence of reactions.
D is endothermic (absorbs energy).

C 1
12
Which colour of light is not absorbed by chlorophyll?
A Green.
B Red.
C Blue.
D Orange.

A 1

13 The graph below shows the amount of oxygen produced by a plant as light
intensity was increased under two different sets of conditions.

Which of the following would explain the difference between graphs X and Y?
A Graph X was obtained with the plant in orange light, graph Y with the plant
in red light.
B Graph X was obtained with the plant at a higher temperature than for graph
Y.
C Graph X was obtained with the plant in a higher concentration of carbon
dioxide than for graph Y.
D Graph X was obtained using a larger mass of plant than for graph Y.

A 1


1 Label the following parts of a plant
stem cross-section using the terms
below.
xylem, phloem, cambium, vascular
bundle

4

2
Identify two functions of
a the roots.
b the stem.

a Support the plant and get water
and minerals.
b Support the plant, transport water
and minerals up to the leaves and
food from the leaves back to the
roots.

4
3 Flowering plants may either be self-
pollinated or cross-pollinated.
a Define cross-pollination.
b Propose two ways in which
cross-pollination can be made to
occur.

a Cross-pollination occurs when
pollen is transferred from the
anther of one flower to the stigma
of another flower.
b By wind or the action of insects.

4
4 A particular flower has its stigma placed
higher than its anthers. Predict whether
this flower could be self-pollinated.
Explain your answer.

This flower would not be a self-
pollinator.
The pollen cannot fall upwards from the
anther to the stigma.

2

5 The diagram below shows a section
through a plant leaf.

Identify which label (1 to 8) represents
a an epidermal cell.
b a palisade cell.
c a xylem vessel.
d a chloroplast.
e a stoma cell.

a 2
b 7
c 5
d 6
e 1

5
6
Propose explanations for
a plants in the desert growing very
slowly.
b plants not being found in the
ocean at depths greater than
300 m.
a Desert plants must close their
stomata during the heat of the day
to avoid water loss. With stomata
closed, gaseous exchange is
stopped. Therefore photosynthesis
cannot occur at these times.
b Light cannot penetrate to these
depths. Without light,
photosynthesis (and therefore plant
growth) is not possible.
4
7 a Write a chemical equation for the
process of photosynthesis.
b Identify two other requirements
(apart from the reactants) for
photosynthesis to occur.
c Define the reaction as either
exothermic or endothermic.
a 6CO
2(g)
+6H
2
O
(l)
C
6
H
12
O
6(aq)
+
6O
2(g)

b Light and chlorophyll.
c Endothermic.
4

8 Identify the plant cell structures in
which the following processes occur.
a Stage 1 of respiration.
b Stage 2 of respiration.
c Photosynthesis.
a Cytoplasm.
b Mitochondria.
c Chloroplasts.
3
9 Identify three ways in which the
glucose produced during photosynthesis
may be used by a plant.
Any three of:
Converted to starch for storage.
Converted to cellulose for cell walls.
Used in respiration for energy.
Converted to other sugars for
transport.
Converted to oils and proteins.
3
10 The graph below shows the effect of
light intensity on the rate of
photosynthesis.

Explain
a why the rate increases in the first
section (I) of the graph.
b why the rate does not increase in
the second section (II) of the
graph.

a Greater light intensity means more
light energy is available, enabling
faster photosynthesis.
b In this section some other factor
(eg carbon dioxide level) is
limiting the rate of reaction.
4

11 An experiment was conducted using the
flasks shown below. All flasks
contained water, were at the same
temperature and were in sunlight.

After two hours the carbon dioxide level
in each flask was measured.
a Identify the flask (AD) in
which the carbon dioxide level
would be lowest after two hours.
b Explain how you arrived at your
choice in part (a).

a Flask D.
b Photosynthesis would occur in
flasks C and D. This would lower
the carbon dioxide level.
Respiration would also occur in
these flasks, but more so in flask
C, which contains both plant and
animal. Respiration would raise
the carbon dioxide level. Overall,
the level would be lower in flask
D.
4
12 Which colour of light is strongly
absorbed by
a water?
b green algae?
c red algae?

a Red.
b Red.
c Blue (or green).
3
13 a Write a chemical word equation
for the process of aerobic
respiration.
b Does this reaction absorb or
release energy?
c What does the word aerobic
mean?
a Glucose +oxygen Carbon
dioxide +water (+energy)
b It releases energy.
c With oxygen (using oxygen).
4

Chapter 8: Astronomy

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______


1
Astronomy is the study of the
A Earth.
B solar system.
C Milky Way.
D universe.

D 1
2
A meteorite is
A a small meteor.
B a space rock that misses the Earth.
C a small chunk of space rock that hits the Earth.
D a piece of space junk originating from the Earth.

C 1
3
Asteroids are also known as
A megameteors.
B minor planets.
C planet killers.
D dirty snowballs.

B 1
4 Which type of non-planetary space rock orbits the Sun (ie is a member of the
solar system)?
A Asteroid.
B Comet.
C Meteor.
D Shooting star.

B 1
5
Which of the following contribute to the formation of a comets tails?
A The Earths gravity.
B The solar wind.
C The size of the comet.
D The Earths atmosphere.

B 1

6
Most of the stars you see at night are
A meteors.
B galaxies.
C planets.
D suns.

D 1
7
A light year is
A the distance between the Earth and the Sun.
B the distance light travels in a year.
C the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy.
D the time taken for a planet to revolve around its sun.

B 1
8
Our nearest multiple star system is
A Alpha Centauri.
B Ceres.
C the Southern Cross.
D Orion.

A 1
9
The dark circle shown on the celestial sphere below denotes a particular

A altitude.
B azimuth.
C right ascension.
D declination.

D 1
10
An ecliptic is
A the duration of an eclipse.
B an object that blocks light from the Sun.
C the path followed by the Sun on the celestial sphere.
D a circular star chart used to locate stars during any time of year.

C 1

11
Which of the following magnitudes indicates the faintest star?
A 0
B 0.5
C 1.0
D -0.6

C 1
12
Which of the following is a major space-based telescope?
A Bubble.
B Hubble.
C Keck.
D Tech.

B 1
13
The Milky Way is part of a larger group called
A the big dipper.
B the local group.
C the Andromeda super galaxy.
D the spiral arm.

B 1
14
A geostationary orbit is one in which the satellite
A moves in the same rotational direction and at the same speed as the Earth.
B moves in a path at right angles to the rotation of the Earth.
C moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more quickly.
D moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more slowly.

A 1
15
The transponder in a satellite like Intelsat 5
A cleans up and boosts a signal received by the satellite.
B sends signals to a hand-held GPS receiver on the Earth.
C measures temperature and pressure using special sensors.
D analyses light reflected from the Earths surface.

A 1



1 Examine the descriptions and match
each one to the names in the list below.
meteor, meteorite, asteroid, comet
a Dirty snowball a few kilometres
in diameter with long period
orbits around the Sun.
b Flaming meteoroid.
c Large irregular-shaped object,
potentially dangerous to the
Earth.
d Piece of space rock which
occasionally hits the Earth
usually without causing serious
damage.

a Comet.
b Meteorite.
c Asteroid.
d Meteor.

4
2 a Identify the point from which the
meteor shower shown below
originates.

b What is this point called?
a

b The radiant.

2
3 Identify
a the location of the asteroid belt.
b the approximate number of
asteroids in the belt.

a Between Mars and J upiter.
b Billions.

2

4 Classify the space rocks as either
comets, meteors or asteroids.
a Ceres and Ida.
b HaleBopp and
ShoemakerLevy 9.
c The Orionids.

a Asteroids.
b Comets.
c Meteors.

3
5 List four things a giant space rock
collision with the Earth might cause.
Firestorms, earthquakes, tsunamis, giant
dust cloud/s.

4
6
Identify three constellations. Various answers, eg
Libra, Crux, Centaurus, any zodiac sign.
3
7 The position of a star is marked on the
celestial sphere below as a dot.

Define
a the right ascension of the star.
b the declination of the star.
Identify
c on the sphere the position of a
star whose coordinates may be
described as RA 10 h, DEC 30.

a 16 h.
b 45.
c

3

8 Define three different types of galaxy.
Also sketch each type.

Clockwise from top: spiral, elliptical and
barred spiral.
6
9 Complete these sentences about parts of
the Milky Way galaxy.
a An ________ cluster contains a
few hundred stars within the
spiral arm of the galaxy.
b A ________ cluster may be seen
with the naked eye as a fuzzy
star, but actually contains up to a
million stars.

a Open.
b Globular.

2
10
Identify the types of waves detected by
a an optical telescope.
b a radio telescope.

a Light waves.
b Radio waves.

2
11 Recall
a how high above the Earths
surface a satellite in geostationary
orbit is.
b what it means when a satellite is
in an asynchronous orbit.
c which kind of orbit observation
satellites are usually placed in.
d which kind of orbit
communication satellites are
usually placed in.

a 36 000 km.
b The satellite moves in the same
rotational direction as the Earth,
but more quickly.
c Asynchronous.
d Geostationary.

4

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