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BIO102 Practice Exam

1. Order the following list hierarchically from the simplest to the most complex level of
biological organization.
1. organ
2. cell
3. individual
4. community
5. tissue
6. population

a) 2-1-5-3-6-4
b) 2-5-1-3-6-4
c) 3-4-6-5-2-1
d) 5-2-1-3-4-6
e) 2-1-5-3-4-6

2. Compared to
12
C, the radioactive isotope
14
C has
a. A different atomic number
b. Two more neutrons
c. Two more protons
d. Two more electrons
e. A different charge

3. The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
a. Ionic bonds
b. Bonds between water molecules
c. Bonds between atoms within individual water molecules
d. Polar covalent bonds
e. Nonpolar covalent bonds

4. Which of the following reactions results in the breakdown of a chemical into simpler
substances?
a) Polymerization
b) Synthesis
c) Nuclear
d) Condensation
e) Hydrolysis




5. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT?
a) A polypeptide has an amino terminus (N-terminus) and a carboxyl terminus
(C-terminus).
b) The linear order of amino acids constitutes the primary structure of a protein.
c) Two amino acids with side chains R and R1 combine through the carboxyl
terminus of the first and the amino group of the second to form a peptide bond.
d) The a-helix is a common form of protein tertiary structure.
e) b-sheets may be parallel or antiparallel.

6. The chemical group that defines a polar amino acid is:
a) ionic R group
b) ionic COOH group
c) basic group
d) acidic group
e) noncharged R group

7. Amino acids are joined by formation of a peptide bond. What molecule is released
during this process?
a) COOH
b) NH
2

c) H
2
O
d) CO
2

e) None of the above

8. Using your knowledge concerning amino acid structure and peptide bond formation,
what does the polypeptide backbone look like?
a) N-C-C-N-C-C-N
b) C-C-C-C-C-C
c) N-C-N-C-N
d) C-H-C-H-C-H

9. The alpha helix is an example of what type of protein structure?
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) quaternary

10. Which of the following organelles are not bounded by a membrane?
a) Chloroplast
b) Vacuole
c) Lysosome
d) Mitochondria
e) Ribosome
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11. What is the main structural component of the extracellular matrix?
a. polysaccharides
b. integrins
c. collagen
d. microtubules

12. Which statement is CORRECT?
a. Prokaryotic cells have cell walls but eukaryotic cells do not.
b. Prokaryotic cells have a very small nucleus.
c. Prokaryotic cells never have internal membranes.
d. All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have a plasma membrane that controls
which organic molecules and ions can enter the cell.
e. Gram-positive bacteria have an inner membrane that functions as the plasma
membrane and an outer membrane outside of the cell wall.

13. Which of the following statements describe similarities between plant and animal
cells? Both types of cells have
1. a cytoskeleton.
2. a cell wall.
3. intermediate filaments.
4. a vacuole.
5. a plasma membrane.

a. 2, 3
b. 3, 5
c. 2, 4
d. 1, 5
e. 2, 5

14. Which of the following organelles have arisen by endosymbiosis?
a. mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. mitochondria and Peroxisomes
c. Golgi and ER
d. nucleus and ER
e. vacuole and vesicle




15. Which of the following structure-function pairs is mismatched?
a) Nucleolus; ribosome production
b) Lysosome; intercellular digestion
c) Ribosome; protein synthesis
d) Golgi; secretion of cell product
e) Microtubules; muscle contraction

16. Which cytoskeletal fibres are the major structural components of cilia?
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Intermediate filaments
d) Actin filaments
e) Myosin filaments

17. The components of cellular membranes arc assembled in the:
a) Lysosomes
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Nucleolus
d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

18. Which of the following are possible functions for a membrane protein?
a) transport of molecules
b) cell identification
c) formation of cell junctions
d) anchor the cell to the ECM
e) all of the above

19. The sodium/potassium pump is an example of which type of transport?
a) carrier mediated transport
b) osmosis
c) facilitated diffusion
d) vesicle transport
e) coupled transport

20. Carrier molecules and ATP as an energy source are required for
a) osmosis
b) primary active transport
c) facilitated diffusion
d) secondary active transport


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21. How does an enzyme speed up a chemical reaction?
a) by lowering the activation energy
b) by bringing the substrates into close proximity
c) by facilitating the breakage of old bond and the formation of new ones
d) all of the above

22. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true
a) enzyme lower the activation energy of a reaction
b) enzymes are permanently altered by the reaction
c) enzymes lower the free energy of a reaction
d) enzyme help change the direction of a chemical reaction

23. When a log burns in the fireplace the potential energy in the glucose monomer,
which comprises cellulose, is released as heat and light. This reaction is correctly
describes as
a) endergonic
b) exergonic
c) spontaneous
d) difficult

24. Before pyruvate enters the citric acid cycle, it is decarboxylated, oxidized and
combined with coenzyme A forming acetyl CoA, CO
2
and one more molecule of
a) NADH
b) FADH
2

c) ADP
d) C
6
H
12
O
6

e) ATP

25. Glycolysis leads to the production of ________ and two molecules of ATP. In the
absence of oxygen, fermentation leads to the production of ________. Glycolysis plus
the citric acid cycle can convert the carbons of glucose to _______, storing the energy as
ATP, ________ and ________.
a) lactic acid, pyruvate, carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH
2
b) pyruvate, lactic acid, carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH
2
c) carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH
2
, lactic acid, pyruvate
d) glucose, lactic acid, carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH
2

26. In the absence of oxygen, the primary purpose of fermentations is to
a) produce amino acids for protein synthesis
b) generate a proton gradient for ATP synthesis
c) oxidize glucose to generate reduced elements
d) generate NAD
+
from NADH allowing glycolysis to continue



27. ATP synthase can produce ATP using as a direct energy source
a) energy from the conversion of glucose to pyruvate
b) energy from the oxidation of pyruvate producing carbon dioxide and water
c) energy from a proton gradient established in mitochondria
d) energy from the metabolism of amino acids

28. What three raw materials are necessary for photosynthesis to occur?
a) Green plants, an electron donor and carbon.
b) Energy, an electron donor and carbon.
c) Oxygen, hydrogen and carbon.
d) Photosynthetic pigments, oxygen and an electron donor.
e) The enzyme PEP, light and carbon.

29. The pigment(s) found in the thylakoid membrane within a plant cell is/are:
a) carotenoids
b) thylakoids
c) chloroplasts
d) chlorophyll
e) a) and d)
f) c) and d)

30. When P700 receives photon-induced excitation energy, the exicitation energy is
channeled to membrane-bound ferredoxin. What is the form of this excitation energy?
a) light energy
b) protons
c) neutrons
d) electrons
e) dark energy

31. During photosynthesis the process of splitting water to release hydrogen and
electrons occurs during the _____ process
a) light dependent
b) light independent
c) carbon fixation
d) glycolysis

32. The function of the electron transport proteins in the thyakoid membranes is
a) preparation of water for eventual incorporation into glucose
b) production of NADPH by substrate-level phosphorylation
c) pumping of hydrogens into the thylakoid space for later generation of ATP
by chemiosmosis
d) pumping of hydrogens into the inner cristae space for later generation of ATP
by chemiosmosis
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33. What does the process of photosynthesis produce?
a) starch, which is metabolized into less complex molecules by dehydration
synthesis
b) protein, which is metabolized into less complex molecules by dehydration
synthesis
c) glycerol, which is metabolized into more complex carbohydrates by
dehydration synthesis
e) glucose, which is metabolized into more complex carbohydrates by
dehydration synthesis

34. The stage of the cell cycle during which the cell actually divides to form two cells is
called
a) G1
b) S
c) G2
d) mitosis
e) cytokinesis

35. Which of the following is NOT true of crossing-over?
a) It occurs during prophase I
b) It occurs during prophase II
c) It occurs between homologues
d) It is seen as X-shaped structures called chiasmata
e) Exchange of DNA occurs between homologous chromosomes at the points of
crossing over

36. You look into your microscope and see 16 centromeres. How many chromosomes
does the organism have?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 64
d) 32
e) 16




37. A process that occurs in meiosis but usually not in mitosis is
a) pairing of homologs
b) chromatid formation
c) cell division
d) separation of centromeres to opposite poles
e) chromosome condensation (shortening)

38. During mitosis, if the chromosomes in a diploid tissue fail to separate after
replication, the resulting daughter cells will be:
a) monoploid.
b) tetrasomic.
c) triploid.
d) tetraploid.
e) haploid

39. Of the following, which is a test cross?
a) WW x WW
b) WW x Ww
c) Ww x ww
d) Ww x W

40. When the product of one gene modifies the phenotypic express produced by a
second gene, this is referred to as:
a) dominance
b) co-dominance
c) Mendelian genetics
d) epistasis
e) none of the above

41. After a cross between two corn plants, the F1 plants all had a dwarfed phenotype.
The F2 consisted of 1,207 dwarf plants and 401 tall plants. Identify the phenotypes and
genotypes of the two parents.
a) D/D tall and d/d dwarf
b) d/d tall and D/D dwarf
c) D/d tall and d/d dwarf
d) D/d dwarf and d/d tall
e) D/d dwarf and D/d dwarf

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42. Using Mendel's flower color (purple is dominant, white is recessive) and stem
length (long is dominant, short is recessive), if two dihybrid plants are crossed, what is
the probability that the progeny will be short with purple flowers?
a) 3/4
b) 1/4
c) 9/16
d) 3/16
e) 1/16

43. The Watson-Crick model of DNA structure suggested that the basis for the faithful
copying of the genetic material is complementarily. This means that if you know the
base sequence of one strand is AATTCG, the sequence of the other strand is:
a) AATTCG
b) TTGGAC
c) TTAACG
d) TTAAGC
e) Do not have enough information

44. The Okazaki fragment in the replication fork is a result of:
a) the 3 5 activity of the DNA polymerase
b) the 3 5 activity of the DNA ligase
c) the 5 3 activity of the DNA polymerase
d) the 5 3 activity of the DNA ligase
e) this phenomenon cannot be explained

45. Which of the following is CORRECT concerning transcription and DNA replication?
a) Only transcription requires a primer.
b) Transcription starts at the origin of replication.
c) A helicase is used to unwind DNA in transcription.
d) The entire genome is copied in transcription.
e) In DNA replication, both the coding and template strands are copied.

46. Which is not an example of protein modification in eukaryotes?
a) addition of a phosphate
b) addition of a poly(A) tail
c) addition of an iron atom
d) removal of a signal peptide
e) addition of an oligosaccharide




47. Which of the following is added to pre-mRNA during posttranslational
modification?
a) a poly-A tail
b) a molecular chaperone
c) introns
d) exons
e) all of the above

48. 5' AUGAAACAGGCGUAA 3' is a short mRNA sequence. The strand of the DNA
that codes for this message will be?
a) 5' AUGAAACAGGCGUAA 3'
b) 5' TACTTTGTCCGCATT 3'
c) 5' TTACGCCTGTTTCAT 3'
d) 5' UUACGCCUGAAACAU 3'

49. In the lac region of E. colis genome, where does the repressor protein bind?
a) at the activator protein site
b) at the protomor site
c) at the transcription site
d) at the operator site
e) at the permase gene site

50. The lac repressor binds to
a) Lactose and DNA
b) RNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase and DNA
d) Galactosidase (z), permease (y), and transacetylase (ac)
e) Promoter and lactose