CAPM Exam Prep-Questions

Certified Associate in Project Management
Sample Questions
Herbert G. Gonder, PMP
Oliver F. Lehmann, PMP

Oliver F. Lehmann, PMP www.oliverlehmann.com
Munich, Bavaria, Germany

This document may be freely distributed and the questions may be used in other materials as long as
this copyright attribution remains unchanged.
CAPM Test Questions
Test Version based on PMBOK Guide 4
th
Edition

Questions in the real exam: 150
Scoring questions: 135
Non-scoring questions (pre-test): 15

Questions in this prep test: 162

______________
Your result:
______________
correct answers

Prep test passed:
(121 or more)
Prep test not passed:
(120 or less)

Prep test questions provided by: Oliver F. Lehmann, PMP

Contact: www.oliverlehmann.com

CAPM Credential
Handbook: www.pmi.org/PDF/pdc_capmhandbook.pdf

Contents:

Questions: ........................................ Q - 1 to Q - 88
Answers: ............................................. A - 1 to A 5

2009, Herbert G. Gonder, Oliver F. Lehmann, Germany
PMI, CAPM, PMBOK and PMP are marks of the Project Management Institute,
Newtown Square, PA, USA, which are registered in the USA and in other nations.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 1
www.oliverlehmann.com
Certified Associate in Project Management
Sample Questions
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Chapter 1 Introduction
4%, PMBOK Guide pages 3 - 14
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 2
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Introduction
A Project is
a) an ongoing endeavor to create repetitive products, services, or
results.
b) a unique service undertaken to create a temporary product or
result.
c) a unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary product,
service, or result.
d) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product,
service, or result
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Introduction
What is true for the types of work in an organization?
a) The purpose of a project is to achieve its objective and then to
end.
b) The purpose of a project is to attain its objective and then to
obtain another one.
c) The purpose of a project is to constantly sustain the business.
d) The purpose of ongoing work is to conclude when its specific
objectives have been attained.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 3
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Introduction
The Project manager is the person
a) assigned by the performing organization to achieve the project
objectives.
b) responsible for meeting the organizations strategic goals.
c) responsible for an organizations level of profitability.
d) responsible for an organizations overall productivity.
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Introduction
A Program is
a) a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way.
b) a project for which earned value management is used.
c) projects grouped together to facilitate effective management of
their work to meet business objectives.
d) a way of effectively handling change control in a group of related
projects.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 4
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Introduction
The areas of expertise that a project manager should at least
master does not include
a) General management knowledge and skills
b) Attitudes and leadership
c) Knowledge about project management
d) Tools for operational optimization
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Introduction
Enterprise environmental factors includes all of the following
except
a) Organizational culture
b) Political climate
c) Physical environment
d) Work authorization system
CAPM Preparation
Q - 5
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Introduction
A PMO (Project management office) is an organizational unit
to
a) centralize and coordinate management of projects under its
domain.
b) ensure proper payment of acquired project human resources.
c) ensure customer satisfaction during the handover of
deliverables.
d) manage sub-project work under the domain of the project
manager.
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Introduction
The Project manager is the person
a) Assigned by the Performing organization to ensure that the
project meets the strategic plan goals.
b) Assigned by the Performing organization as the projects quality
expert.
c) Assigned by the Performing organization as the projects technical
expert.
d) Assigned by the Performing organization to achieve the project
objectives.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 6
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Chapter 2 Project Lifecycle and Organization
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Lifecycle and Organization
Projects and operations share the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
a) Both are performed by people.
b) Both are ongoing and repetitive.
c) Both are constrained by limited resources.
d) Both are performed to achieve organizational objectives.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 7
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The Project life cycle
a) documents the costs caused by the project at certain point in
time.
b) is presales, project execution, product handover and
documentation.
c) is a technique especially for extreme programming and agile
project management.
d) is a collection of sequential or overlapping Project phases.
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At the start of the project the level of uncertainty
a) is highest and decreases over the life of the project.
b) cannot be predicted unless the Project charter has been signed.
c) is lower than at the end of the project.
d) similar to the level of uncertainty at the end of the project.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 8
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The ability of the stakeholders to influence the project
a) is always due to the soft skills of the project manager.
b) is highest at the start and gets progressively lower as the project
continues.
c) does not change over time unless a change request has been
initiated.
d) remains constant over the entire running time of the project.
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A Project phase is characterized by
a) a ringing bell at the moment of final completion.
b) the instruction email of the managing director.
c) the completion and approval of one or more deliverables.
d) reaching the predicted milestone in your project plan.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 9
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The sequence of phases in a project life cycles is
a) often a basis for project governance.
b) necessarily sequential.
c) necessarily overlapping.
d) necessarily iterative.
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What is true for Stakeholders of a project?
a) All stakeholders belong to the performing organization.
b) The project team is not regarded as a key stakeholder.
c) Identifying stakeholders can be difficult but critical.
d) The sponsor of the project is not regarded as a key stakeholder.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 10
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Projectized organizations
a) are those whose most resources are involved in project work.
b) usually lack skills and competence in project management.
c) usually have a strong hierarchically built functional organization.
d) give usually weak authority to their project managers.
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Which of the following is NOT typical for Weak matrix
organizations?
a) The project managers role is part-time.
b) The project managers authority is high.
c) Resource availability is limited.
d) The project managers authority is limited.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 11
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What is true on organizational cultures and styles?
a) They should be influenced by software that helps draw GANTT-
Charts and PERT Networks and calculate Earned value.
b) They are mainly reflected in the schedule, which the project
manager explains to team members in weekly review meetings.
c) They are emanating from the range of incentives and bonuses,
which project team members will receive at the end of the project.
d) Cultures and styles may have a strong influence on a projects
ability to meet its objectives.
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Chapter 3 Project Management Processes for a
Project
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 12
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Processes for a Project
In order for a project to be successful, it is usually NOT
necessary for a project team to
a) use a defined approach required to meet the project objectives.
b) buy highly sophisticated project management software and train
project team members in its application.
c) comply with the requirements to meet the stakeholder needs
and expectations.
d) balance the competing demands of scope, time, cost, quality,
resources, and risk to produce the specified product.
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Project management is the application of
a) specific project management software in an enterprise
environment.
b) motivational and developmental techniques to team-members
and other stakeholders.
c) the chain of command in order to ensure timely completion of
all project activities.
d) knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to
meet project requirements.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 13
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The five Project management process groups are:
a) Planning, auditing, directing, monitoring, and closing.
b) Selling, planning, staffing, executing, and documenting.
c) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and
closing.
d) Initiating, executing, controlling, reviewing, and closing.
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A process is
a) a legal act where project managers are blamed in court for
material or repudiatory breach of contract.
b) a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a
pre-specified product, result, or service.
c) something mystical which is comprehensible only to well-trained
experts from the project management disciple.
d) something that cannot be explained without a sound
understanding of standardized project phase models.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 14
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What is true for Project management processes?
a) They are limited to the processes of design, development,
deployment and maintenance.
b) All processes described must always be applied uniformly in all
projects without tailoring.
c) The project manager is responsible for determining which
processes are appropriate for the project.
d) They are fully independent of the Product-oriented processes that
may also be part of the project.
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The purpose of the Project management processes is to
a) initiate, plan, execute, monitor and control, and close a project.
b) safe as much money of the customer as possible.
c) please the stakeholders and sponsors.
d) show the project manager that he is in charge.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 15
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The PMBOK Guide presents the project management processes
as...
a) ...discrete elements with well defined interfaces.
b) stochastic elements with well defined interfaces.
c) ...unique black elements of process control graphs.
d) ...scatter diagrams and process flow charts.
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The application of Project management processes is...
a) ...only done at the beginning of a project when not much
knowledge is available.
b) only done by project managers without experience and standing
in the organization.
c) ...recommended but not necessary unless the management
requires it.
d) ...iterative and many processes are repeated during the project.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 16
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Project Management processes and product-oriented
processes...
a) ...are both fully described in the PMBOK Guide, 4th edition.
b) overlap and interact throughout the life of a project.
c) ...do not show any differences.
d) ...are not described up to now.
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On each project the Project management process groups are...
a) ...usually performed in a random sequence or not at all.
b) are guides for applying appropriate project management
knowledge and skills during the project.
c) ...performed in a very specific sequence decided in alignment with
the progress of the current project phase.
d) ...performed in a sequence determined by the key stakeholder.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 17
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What is true for Project management process groups and
Knowledge areas?
a) The Project quality management Knowledge area includes most
processes.
b) The Monitoring and controlling Process group includes most
processes.
c) Each process is an element of exactly one Process group and one
Knowledge area.
d) Process groups are another term for Project phases and should
thus be done in sequence.
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The Process group that provides feedback to implement
corrective or preventive action is:
a) Testing
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and Controlling
CAPM Preparation
Q - 18
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In multi-phase projects, the processes defined in the process
group would be...
a) ...done only once during the whole project.
b) ...normally repeated for each phase.
c) ...done only in the early phases.
d) ...done only in fixed price contracts.
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The Closing Process group consists of those processes...
a) ...performed to finalize all activities across all Project management
process groups to formally complete the project, phase, or
contractual obligations.
b) ...that signal to the team may come together again and have a
night together at a post mortem project barbeque.
c) ...that support advertising of the product in order to let everyone
know how successful and efficient the team worked.
d) ...that reward the customers for their investment, the patience
with the team and the preparation to support change control.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 19
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The processes of which Process group are often done external
to the projects scope of control?
a) Planning
b) Testing
c) Initiating
d) Executing
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Which document formally authorizes the project?
a) Project scope statement
b) Project charter
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Cost management plan
CAPM Preparation
Q - 20
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The Project scope statement is the primary output of which
process:
a) Define Scope
b) Verify Scope
c) Create WBS
d) Define Activities
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Chapter 4 Project Integration Management
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 21
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Project Integration Management
The Knowledge area of Project Integration Management
includes the project management processes:
a) Define Activities, Create WBS.
b) Develop Project Charter, Define Scope.
c) Collect Requirements, Define Activities.
d) Develop Project Charter, Close Project or Phase.
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Which process uses Expert judgment?
a) Verify Scope
b) Develop Project Charter
c) Conduct Procurements
d) Report Performance
CAPM Preparation
Q - 22
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Approved change requests may require:
a) Stakeholder expectations
b) Expert judgment
c) Implementation of preventive or corrective actions
d) Cost estimating
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The stimuli for chartering and authorizing a project include
usually all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Customer needs
b) Business needs
c) Need for a new product, service or result
d) Project selection
CAPM Preparation
Q - 23
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Application of additional padding material, due to a legally
enacted emission protection regulation, which requires
increased wall insulation for a building, is an example for a...
a) ...market demand.
b) ...business need.
c) ...social need.
d) ...legal requirement.
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Which document indicates that a project manager has been
assigned and formally authorized to apply organizational
resource to project activities?
a) Stakeholder register
b) Project management plan
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Project charter
CAPM Preparation
Q - 24
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Which of the following is NOT an input for the process Develop
Project Charter?
a) Project statement of work
b) Enterprise environmental factors
c) Organizational process assets
d) Requirements documentation
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A contract signed by an external customer
a) ...is developed concurrently to the Project charter.
b) ...is input to the Develop Project Charter process .
c) ...describes only the consideration on the contractor side.
d) ...lays down the organizational standard processes applied.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 25
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The Business case is created as a result of one or more of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Market demand
b) Enterprise environmental factors
c) Customer request
d) Organizational need
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In developing the Project charter, expert judgment may come
from all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Industry groups
b) Other units within the organization
c) Project team and Project management team
d) Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors
CAPM Preparation
Q - 26
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The Project statement of work
a) ...is a graphical description of products or services to be delivered
by the project.
b) ...is commonly developed by the project team to document
common understanding.
c) ...can be provided by a project initiator, sponsor, or the project
customer.
d) ...can generally never be provided as a part of a bid document.
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Which process is used to implement approved change requests?
a) Perform Integrated Change Control
b) Verify Scope
c) Close Project or Phase
d) Direct and Manage Project Execution
CAPM Preparation
Q - 27
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The Direct and Manage Project Execution process requires the
project manager and the project team to perform multiple
actions to perform work defined in the Project management
plan EXCEPT...
a) Developing of a Project charter.
b) Performing activities to accomplish project requirements.
c) Implementing the planned methods and standards.
d) Managing sellers and suppliers.
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Deliverables are an outcome of which process?
a) Direct and Manage Project Execution
b) Develop Project Charter
c) Create WBS
d) Control Scope
CAPM Preparation
Q - 28
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Approved change requests are...
a) ...the documented, authorized changes to expand or reduce
project scope.
b) ...changes to enhance the profit of the performing organization.
c) ...activities delegated by the project manager to the project
coordinator.
d) ...requested changes before a final decision on their rejection has
been made.
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Concerning deliverables, which of the following statements is
true?
a) Deliverables must be produced and provided to complete a
process, phase or project .
b) Clearly defined deliverables are nice to have, but not necessary.
c) Responsible team-members perform without stated deliverables.
d) A deliverable is any item, which pleases the customer.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 29
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A Configuration management plan documents...
a) ...how change management will be performed.
b) ...how changes will be monitored and controlled.
c) ...how configuration management will be performed.
d) ...none of the above.
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Chapter 5 Project Scope Management
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 30
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Project Scope Management
Define Scope is the process of...
a) ...developing the Work breakdown structure.
b) ...developing a detailed description of the project and product.
c) ...creating the Project management plan.
d) ...creating the Project scope management plan.
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Create WBS is the process of...
a) ...subdividing the project deliverables and project work into
smaller, more manageable components.
b) ...preparing and performing the product acceptance and verifying
the correct administrative closure of a project.
c) ...assigning work levels, resources, durations, budgets, and begin
and end data to identified activities.
d) ...delegating schedule activities to project management team
members, to departments or to contractors.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 31
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In the project context, the term scope can refer to...
a) ...managing and controlling activities.
b) ...customer scope as well as to stakeholder scope.
c) ...product scope as well as to project scope.
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The Scope baseline of the project contains...
a) ...the approved detailed Project scope statement, WBS and its
associated WBS dictionary.
b) ...a Preliminary scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS
dictionary.
c) ...the customers wishes for additional scope during the time of
project execution.
d) ...legal regulations and public standards on necessary scope
elements.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 32
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The Project scope statement includes, either directly, or by
reference to other documents all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Product scope description
b) Product acceptance criteria
c) Project deliverables
d) The Project charter
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What is true for the Scope management plan?
a) The Scope management plan and the Project management plan
are independent from each other.
b) The Scope management plan and the Scope baseline are virtually
the same.
c) The Scope management plan and the Scope statement are always
not related.
d) The Scope management plan describes how the project scope will
be managed and controlled.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 33
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Product breakdown, systems analysis, requirements analysis
and value engineering are included in what technique?
a) Forced identification
b) Project deliverables
c) Product analysis
d) Project constraints
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Constraints are analyzed for all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Completeness
b) Additional risks
c) Assumptions
d) Approved changes
CAPM Preparation
Q - 34
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Which is a commonly used method for alternatives
identification?
a) Factor analysis
b) Rule of seven
c) Brainstorming
d) Root-cause analysis
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All of the following are usually part of the Project scope
statement EXCEPT:
a) Project deliverables
b) Project exclusions
c) Project documentation
d) Project constraints
CAPM Preparation
Q - 35
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Which is an explicit statement that describes what is excluded
from the project, in case of the assumption of a stakeholder that
a particular product, service, or result might be a component of
the project?
a) A project constraint
b) A project exclusion
c) A project deliverable
d) A project requirement
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The WBS is ...
a) ...deliverable oriented.
b) ...activity oriented.
c) ...result oriented.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 36
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What is Decomposition?
a) The process of breaking down schedule activities into work
packages.
b) The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components.
c) The aggregation of activities to more manageable units.
d) The process of fragmentation of activities to allow parallel
processing.
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The lowest level of the WBS is called...
a) ...authorization level
b) ...cost account
c) ...deliverables
d) ...work packages
CAPM Preparation
Q - 37
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What technique is usually applied if a deliverable in a WBS can
only be decomposed in the future?
a) Prototyping
b) Quality function deployment
c) Cost accounting
d) Rolling wave planning
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All of the following are Group creativity techniques EXCEPT:
a) Brainstorming
b) Nominal group technique
c) Delphi technique
d) Estimation technique
CAPM Preparation
Q - 38
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Approved changes can result from which of the following
processes?
a) Control Scope
b) Define Scope
c) Create WBS
d) Collect Requirements
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Requirements documentation is input for which Project scope
management processes?
a) Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Control Scope
b) Verify Scope, Define Scope , Collect Requirements
c) Define Scope, Create WBS, Verify Scope, Control Scope
d) Report Performance, Define Scope, Collect Requirements
CAPM Preparation
Q - 39
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C
A
C
A
C
A
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AAA
C
AAA
C
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C
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P
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C

CCC

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a
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a
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a
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o
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o
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o
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o
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o
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o
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o
nn
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Chapter 6 Project Time Management
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Project Time Management
All of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process
EXCEPT:
a) Activity attributes
b) Activity list
c) Milestone list
d) Work breakdown structure
CAPM Preparation
Q - 40
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What statement is true?
a) A Milestone may be mandatory or optional.
b) A Milestone is always a phase finish event.
c) Milestones are inputs to define activities.
d) Milestone is a term synonymous to Deadline.
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What is Rolling wave planning?
a) It is a way to earn additional revenues.
b) It is a signal for poor initial planning.
c) It is a form of progressive elaboration planning.
d) It is a method no longer in use today.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 41
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Work and effort performed within a work package...
a) ...is not reported to the senior management.
b) ...is gathered in high level items called activities.
c) ...is further decomposed into single activities.
d) ...should be always contracted out to external vendors.
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The Activity list...
a) ...includes all Schedule activities that are required on the project.
b) ...does not include the Schedule activities that are required on the
project.
c) ...does only include activities which are unrelated to the WBS work
packages.
d) ...is always a personal list for the project managers eyes only.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 42
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The Milestone list...
a) ...identifies all Work packages of the WBS.
b) ...is the list of Activity attributes.
c) ...identifies all Milestones.
d) ...is part of the project selection process.
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Which of the following is not among the Tools and techniques of
the Sequence Activities process?
a) Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
b) Dependency determination
c) Applying leads and lags
d) Critical chain method
CAPM Preparation
Q - 43
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All of the following are inputs of the Sequence Activities process
EXCEPT:
a) Project scope statement
b) Project charter
c) Activity list
d) Milestone list
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Which of the following is NOT an output of the Estimate Activity
Resources process?
a) Activity resource requirements
b) Resource breakdown structure
c) Project document updates
d) Schedule network diagrams
CAPM Preparation
Q - 44
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The Resource breakdown structure (RBS) is ...
a) ... a hierarchical structure of the identified resources.
b) ... a database showing human resources skills.
c) ... a breakdown of scope by assigned resources.
d) ... an output of the process Activity Sequencing.
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PDMstands for:
a) Power distance management
b) Precedence diagramming method
c) Project data management
d) Performance distribution method
CAPM Preparation
Q - 45
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AON stands for:
a) Advanced online network
b) Annual order negotiation
c) Activity on node
d) Assessment of nonconformance
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PDMuses all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Finish-to-start relationships
b) Leads and lags
c) Dummy activities
d) Finish-to-finish relationships
CAPM Preparation
Q - 46
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Dependency determination uses all of the following types of
dependencies EXCEPT:
a) External dependencies
b) Mandatory dependencies
c) Discretionary dependencies
d) Relational dependencies
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All of the following are true EXCEPT: Precedence diagramming
method (PDM)...
a) ... uses nodes to represent the dependencies.
b) ...may require application of leads and lags.
c) ...is a method used in Critical Path Method (CPM).
d) ...uses boxes or rectangles to represent activities.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 47
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Common estimating methods in the process Estimate Activity
Durations are all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimates
d) Six-point estimates
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Analogous estimating...
a) ...means estimating by comparing with well designed experiments.
b) ...uses the activity dates taken from a previous project.
c) ...uses historical information and expert judgment.
d) ...does not need information from previous, similar projects.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 48
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CPMstands for:
a) Change project manager
b) Critical path methodology
c) Cost performance measurement
d) Critical power maintenance
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A
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Chapter 7 Project Cost Management
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 49
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Project Cost Management
Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes
EXCEPT:
a) Acquire project team
b) Estimate costs
c) Determine budget
d) Control costs
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Inputs for the Estimate Costs process are all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Scope baseline
b) Project schedule
c) Human resource plan
d) Resource calendars
CAPM Preparation
Q - 50
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Vendor bid analysis is among the tools and techniques of which
process?
a) Determine budget
b) Plan Costs
c) Control Costs
d) Estimate costs
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The Cost performance baseline is an output of which process?
a) Estimate costs
b) Determine budget
c) Control costs
d) Estimate activity durations
CAPM Preparation
Q - 51
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The accuracy of Parametric estimating depends on the following
EXCEPT:
a) Sophistication of the technique
b) Underlying data
c) Statistical relationship with historical data
d) Creation without inputs from external stakeholders
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Which process has Cost performance baseline (updates) as an
output?
a) Estimate Costs
b) Determine Budget
c) Control Costs
d) Perform Integrated Change Control
CAPM Preparation
Q - 52
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Company A is working on a project. The projects budget is
$10,000. The Planned value as of Data date is $4,000. The
project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent to
Data date.
The Earned value (EV) of the project is:
a) $600
b) $3,000
c) $5,000
d) $6,000
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project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent to
data date.
The Actual cost (AC) to date for the project is:
a) $6,000
b) $2,400
c) $3,000
d) $5,000
CAPM Preparation
Q - 53
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project has an Earned value of $3,500 and Actual costs of
$4,500.
Which statement is correct?
a) The project is behind schedule.
b) The project is ahead of schedule.
c) The project is finished.
d) The project is on schedule.
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project has an Earned value of $3,500 and Actual costs of
$4,500.
What is the Cost variance of the project?
a) - $1,000
b) $500
c) -500
d) $1,000
CAPM Preparation
Q - 54
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project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent.
If the company continues to spend money at the same rate,
what will the project cost (EAC)?
a) $10,000
b) $20,000
c) $6,000
d) $4,000
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project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent.
If cost variances of the future are expected at the same rate as
they have occurred in the past, what is the Estimate to
complete (ETC)?
a) $10,600
b) $14,000
c) $7,000
d) $2,400
CAPM Preparation
Q - 55
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Examining project performance over time to determine if
performance is improving or deteriorating is called:
a) Variance analysis
b) Trend analysis
c) Earned value technique
d) Cost benefit analysis
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All of the following are outputs of the Control Costs process
EXCEPT:
a) Project management plan updates
b) Organizational process assets updates
c) Work performance measurements
d) Work performance information
CAPM Preparation
Q - 56
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MMM
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Chapter 8 Project Quality Management
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Project Quality Management
Project Quality Management processes include all of the
following processes EXCEPT:
a) Plan Quality
b) Perform Quality Assurance
c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
d) Perform Quality Control
CAPM Preparation
Q - 57
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Each process of Project Quality Management occurs ______ in
every project and occurs ______ of the project phases, if the
project is divided into phases.
a) At least once / in one or more.
b) At least twice / in one or more.
c) Sometimes / in all
d) At least once / in all
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Which of the following is true?
a) Quality is the degree of customer satisfaction achieved by
meeting stated and implicit wishes.
b) Quality is the degree of stakeholder satisfaction achieved by
meeting explicit requirements.
c) Quality is the degree to which a set of inherent requirements
meets client needs.
d) Quality is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics
fulfill requirements.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 58
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Which of the following statements about quality and grade is
true?
a) Low quality may not always be a problem.
b) Projects should always deliver high grade.
c) Quality and grade are basically the same thing.
d) Low grade may not always be a problem.
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All of the following statements about precision and accuracy are
true EXCEPT:
a) Precision means that the values of repeated measurements are
clustered and have little scatter.
b) Accuracy means that the measured values are close to the true
value.
c) Precision and accuracy are equivalent in that they are gained using
the same methods.
d) The project management team must determine appropriate levels
of precision and accuracy.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 59
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Quality management recognizes the importance of each of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Customer satisfaction
b) Inspection over prevention
c) Management responsibility
d) Continuous improvement
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Which of the following is a direct Input to the Perform Quality
Assurance process?
a) Project scope baseline
b) Quality audits
c) Quality metrics
d) Process analysis
CAPM Preparation
Q - 60
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One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management
states that:
a) Quality is planned, desired, and built in not inspected in.
b) Quality is not planned, designed, and built in only inspected in.
c) Quality is planned, designed, and built in not inspected in.
d) Quality has to be planned, designed, built in, and inspected in.
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Which of the following is a direct input to Plan Quality?
a) Quality metrics
b) Quality management plan
c) Design of experiments
d) Cost performance baseline
CAPM Preparation
Q - 61
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Which of the following is not among the tools and techniques of
the Plan Quality process:
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Benchmarking
c) Brainstorming
d) Design of experiments
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The upper (UCL) and lower (LCL) control limits for repetitive
processes are usually set at:
a) +/- 6 sigma
b) +/- 3 sigma
c) +/- 2 sigma
d) +/- 1 sigma
CAPM Preparation
Q - 62
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Chapter 9 Project Human Resources Management
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Project Human Resources Management
The project management team is...
a) a supervising or controlling team.
b) a subset of the project team.
c) the project team contingency.
d) none of the above.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 63
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All of the following are processes of Project Human Resource
management EXCEPT:
a) Develop Human Resource Plan
b) Select Sellers
c) Develop Project Team
d) Manage Project Team
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All of the following are direct inputs to the Develop Human
Resource Plan process EXCEPT:
a) Enterprise environmental factors
b) Organizational process assets
c) Project scope statement
d) Activity resource requirements
CAPM Preparation
Q - 64
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Which of the following is not a subset of the Human resource
plan:
a) Roles and responsibilities
b) Project organization charts
c) Pre-assignment
d) Staffing management plan
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n
Examples of Enterprise environmental factors that can influence
the Develop Human Resource Plan process are all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Estimating techniques
b) Organizational structure
c) Personnel administration policies
d) Existing human resources
CAPM Preparation
Q - 65
C
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OBS stands for:
a) Organizational breakdown structure
b) Organizational billing system
c) Open bargaining subject
d) Operational break-even status
C
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RACI is an acronym for:
a) Resource, accountability, consult, inform
b) Responsible, accountable, consult, inform
c) Resource, acquirable, consult, instruct
d) Responsible, accountable, confirm, inform
CAPM Preparation
Q - 66
C
A
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C
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All of the following are inputs to the Develop Project Team
process EXCEPT:
a) Performance reports
b) Project staff assignments
c) Project management plan
d) Resource calendars
C
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n
Co-location strategies can include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Conveniences that enhance communication
b) A team meeting room
c) Building virtual teams
d) Places to post schedules
CAPM Preparation
Q - 67
C
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a
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i
o
n
The evaluation of a teams effectiveness can include indicators
such as the following EXCEPT:
a) Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform
assignments more effectively.
b) Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better
as a team.
c) Reduced staff turnover rate.
d) Participation in regular after work parties and other socializing
events.
C
A
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C
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n
AAAA
C
A
C
A
C
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o
Chapter 10 Project Communications Management
C
A
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C
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a
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CAPM Preparation
Q - 68
C
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C
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Project Communications Management
Which of the following is NOT a process of Project
Communications Management?
a) Manage Stakeholder Expectations
b) Plan Communications
c) Distribute Information
d) Manage Project Team
C
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C
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Acknowledgement means that...
a) ...the receiver signals receipt of the message, but not necessarily
agreement with the message.
b) ...the receiver signals receipt of the message, and necessarily
agreement with the message.
c) ...the receiver chooses writing-style to document the reception of
the message, and the agreement with the message.
d) ...the receiver nods to the message, and agrees with the message.
CAPM Preparation
Q - 69
C
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C
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a
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o
n
In the communication model, who is responsible for encoding
the initial message?
a) The receiver
b) The receiver and the sender
c) The sender
d) The receiver or the sender
C
A
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n
The process Plan Communications uses the following inputs
EXCEPT:
a) Enterprise environmental factors
b) Organizational process assets
c) Stakeholder management strategy
d) Human resource calendar
CAPM Preparation
Q - 70
C
A
P
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C
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a
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n
Stakeholder communication requirements are provided in the
output of which process?
a) Report Performance
b) Develop Human resource plan
d) Plan Communications
C
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C
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a
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o
n
You have to coordinate 10 team members. How many
Communication channels are there on your project during that
time?
a) 10
b) 45
c) 50
d) 100
CAPM Preparation
Q - 71
C
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C
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o
n
Expert judgment is among tools and techniques of which
process?
a) Performance Reporting
b) Communications Planning
c) Identify Stakeholders
d) Manage Stakeholders
C
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n
Communication activity includes all of the following potential
dimensions EXCEPT:
a) internal
b) formal
c) messy
d) written
CAPM Preparation
Q - 72
C
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C
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n
All of the following are outputs of the Report Performance
process EXCEPT:
a) Performance reports
b) Organizational process assets updates
c) Change requests
d) Implemented corrective actions
C
A
P
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C
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a
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n
Which is not an example of Writing styles?
a) Active versus passive voice
b) Sentence structure
c) Face-to-face meetings
d) Word choice
CAPM Preparation
Q - 73
C
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C
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a
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n
Communication technology is a tool and technique of which
process?
a) Report Performance
b) Plan Communications
d) Manage stakeholder expectations
C
A
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C
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i
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i
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n
C
A
C
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P
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Chapter 11 Project Risk Management
C
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i
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n
CAPM Preparation
Q - 74
C
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C
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n
Project Risk Management
A project risk is a(n) _______ event or condition that, if it occurs,
has a __________________ effect on at least one project
objective.
a) Certain / negative or positive
b) Uncertain / negative and positive
c) Uncertain / negative or positive
d) Unkown / neither negative nor positive
C
A
P
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n
Which is used as tool and technique for the process Plan Risk
Management?
a) Tornado diagramming
b) Decision tree analysis
c) Monte-Carlo simulation
d) Planning meetings and analysis
CAPM Preparation
Q - 75
C
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C
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n
Against risks for which it may not be cost-effective or possible to
develop a proactive response a prudent response can be...
a) To allocate a contingency reserve
b) To build reserves
c) To do nothing
d) To ask your sponsor
C
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C
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a
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n
Which document is established and updated along the Project
Risk Management processes from Identify Risks through Plan
Risk Responses and Monitoring and Control Risks ?
a) List of risk triggers
b) Risk register
c) Risk mitigation
d) Decision tree
CAPM Preparation
Q - 76
C
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C
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n
The Output of the process Plan Risk Management will be
summarized in?
a) The quality baseline
b) The project scope management plan
c) The risk management plan
d) In none of the above
C
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n
An item typically included in the Risk management plan is:
a) Potential responses
b) Identified risks
c) Risk management methodology
d) Root causes
CAPM Preparation
Q - 77
C
A
P
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C
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n
In relation to the process Risk Management Planning, RBS
stands for:
a) Reserve budget settlement
b) Risk brain storming
c) Risk baseline support
d) Risk breakdown structure
C
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P
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C
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a
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o
n
Information gathering techniques used during the process
Identify Risks include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Brainstorming
b) Delphi technique
c) Interviewing
d) Assumptions analysis
CAPM Preparation
Q - 78
C
A
P
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C
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a
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n
Typical Diagramming techniques used for the process Identify
Risks include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) System or process flow charts
b) Cause-and-effect diagrams
c) Influence diagrams
d) Delphi technique
C
A
P
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C
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The process Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes:
a) Risk urgency assessment
b) Sensitivity analysis
c) Checklist analysis
d) Probability distribution
CAPM Preparation
Q - 79
C
A
P
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C
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n
Data developed during the process Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis often leads to what type of probability distributions?
a) S-curves
b) 4-peak distributions
c) Continuous distributions
d) Tornado distributions
C
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P
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C
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i
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a
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i
o
n
Commonly used Quantitative risk analysis and modeling
techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Expected monetary value analysis
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Assumptions analysis
CAPM Preparation
Q - 80
C
A
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C
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a
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n
Strategies for negative risks or threats include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Convince
b) Avoid
c) Transfer
d) Mitigate
C
A
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a
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i
o
n
Examples of risk mitigation include:
a) Building a prototype
b) Contingencies
c) Insurance
d) Warranties
CAPM Preparation
Q - 81
C
A
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C
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f
i
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a
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i
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n
All of the following strategies are strategies for positive risks or
opportunities EXCEPT:
a) Exploit
b) Share
c) Transfer
d) Enhance
C
A
P
M

C
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a
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i
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n
The process Monitor and Control Risks includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Risk reassessments
b) Risk audits
c) Technical performance measurements
d) Modeling and simulation
CAPM Preparation
Q - 82
C
A
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C
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a
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i
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n
All of the following are updated during the process Monitor and
Control Risks EXCEPT:
a) Risk register
b) Risk audit
c) Organizational process assets
d) Project management plan
C
A
P
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C
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a
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i
o
n
C
A
P
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C
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n
Chapter 12 Project Procurement Management
C
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C
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a
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n
CAPM Preparation
Q - 83
C
A
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n
Project Procurement Management
All of the following are tools and techniques of the process Plan
Procurements EXCEPT:
a) Make-or-buy analysis
b) Expert judgment
c) Advertising
d) Contract types
C
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C
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n
All of the following are arrangements under which the buyer
must precisely specify the product or services being procured
EXCEPT:
a) Firm fixed price contracts
b) Fixed price incentive fee contracts
c) Fixed price with economic price adjustment contracts
d) Cost plus award fee contracts
CAPM Preparation
Q - 84
C
A
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C
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n
Your company is in the process of selling consulting services to a
new buyer. The contract type with lowest risk for your company
in this situation is:
a) Firm fixed price
b) Time and material
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Cost plus incentive fee
C
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C
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a
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n
Source selection criteria are input to which process?
a) Plan procurements
b) Conduct procurements
c) Administer procurements
d) Close procurements
CAPM Preparation
Q - 85
C
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C
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a
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i
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n
A Bidder conference is typically held during what process?
a) Close Procurements
b) Plan Procurements
c) Administer Procurements
d) Conduct Procurements
C
A
P
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C
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f
i
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a
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i
o
n
All of the following are tools and techniques to select a seller
EXCEPT:
a) Proposal evaluation techniques
b) Contract change control system
c) Independent estimates
d) Bidder conference
CAPM Preparation
Q - 86
C
A
P
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C
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n
The Contract change control system...
a) ...is an input to the Plan Procurements process.
b) ...requests changes to the project management plan.
c) ...lists the types of contract to be used.
d) ...defines the processes by which the procurement can be
modified.
C
A
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C
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a
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n
A Contract change control system is often among the tools and
techniques in what process?
a) Plan procurements
b) Conduct procurements
c) Administer procurements
d) Select sellers
CAPM Preparation
Q - 87
C
A
P
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C
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a
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n
Updates in Organizational process assets in the Administer
Procurements process contain all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Correspondence
b) Payment schedules and requests
c) Seller performance evaluation documentation
d) Requested changes
C
A
P
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C
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i
f
i
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a
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i
o
n
Depending on contract terms and conditions, early termination
of a contract may occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a) Default of either party
b) Completion of the project
c) Mutual agreement
d) Convenience
CAPM Preparation
Q - 88
C
A
P
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C
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f
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a
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i
o
n
A Procurement audit is often held during what process?
a) Verify Scope
b) Verify Product
c) Close Contract
d) Close Procurements
CAPM Prep Questions
Answers
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
1 3 d 5
1 4 a 5
1 5 a 13
1 6 a 9
1 7 d 13
1 8 c 14
1 9 a 11
1 10 d 13
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
2 12 b 22
2 13 d 15
2 14 a 17
2 15 b 17
2 16 c 19
2 17 a 20
2 18 c 24
2 19 a 30
2 20 b 28
2 21 d 27
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
3 23 b 37
3 24 d 37
3 25 c 39
3 26 b 37
3 27 c 38
3 28 a 39
3 29 a 39
3 30 d 39
3 31 b 38
3 32 b 39
3 33 c 43
3 34 d 59
3 35 b 41
3 36 a 64
3 37 c 45
3 38 b 45
3 39 a 49
2009
A - 1
Germany
CAPM Prep Questions
Answers
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
4 41 d 71
4 42 b 74
4 43 c 85
4 44 d 77
4 45 d 75
4 46 d 73
4 47 d 74
4 48 b 14
4 49 b 75
4 50 c 77
4 51 c 75
4 52 d 99
4 53 a 83
4 54 a 84
4 55 a 85
4 56 a 87
4 57 c 82
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
5 59 b 112
5 60 a 116
5 61 c 456
5 62 a 456
5 63 d 115
5 64 d 126
5 65 c 114
5 66 d 112
5 67 c 114
5 68 c 115
5 69 b 115
5 70 a 116
5 71 b 118
5 72 d 118
5 73 d 120
5 74 d 108
5 75 a 128
5 76 c 104
2009
A - 2
Germany
CAPM Prep Questions
Answers
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
6 78 d 133
6 79 a 136
6 80 c 135
6 81 c 133
6 82 a 135
6 83 c 136
6 84 d 136
6 85 b 136
6 86 d 142
6 87 a 145
6 88 b 138
6 89 c 138
6 90 c 138, 140
6 91 d 139, 140
6 92 a 138
6 93 d 149, 150
6 94 c 149
6 95 b 138
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
7 97 a 165
7 98 d 169
7 99 d 169
7 100 b 175
7 101 d 172
7 102 c 188
7 103 b 182
7 104 a 182
7 105 a 182
7 106 a 182
7 107 b 184
7 108 b 184
7 109 b 186
7 110 d 180
2009
A - 3
Germany
CAPM Prep Questions
Answers
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
8 112 c 189
8 113 a 189
8 114 d 190
8 115 d 190
8 116 c 190
8 117 b 190, 191
8 118 c 202
8 119 c 190
8 120 d 191
8 121 c 191
8 122 b 196
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
9 124 b 215
9 125 b 215
9 126 c 217
9 127 c 222, 223
9 128 a 219
9 129 a 220
9 130 b 221
9 131 a 230
9 132 c 234
9 133 d 235
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
10 135 d 243
10 136 a 255
10 137 c 255
10 138 d 253
10 139 d 257
10 140 b 253
10 141 c 250
10 142 c 245
10 143 d 266
10 144 c 258
10 145 b 244
2009
A - 4
Germany
CAPM Prep Questions
Answers
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
11 147 c 275
11 148 d 279
11 149 a 304
11 150 b 274
11 151 c 277
11 152 c 279
11 153 d 287
11 154 d 286, 287
11 155 d 287
11 156 a 289
11 157 c 297
11 158 d 298, 299
11 159 a 303, 304
11 160 a 304
11 161 c 304, 305
11 162 d 308
11 163 b 308
Chapter Slide
Right
answer
PMBOK
Guide,
page
12 165 c 317
12 166 d 322-324
12 167 c 323
12 168 b 329
12 169 d 329
12 170 b 331, 332
12 171 d 338
12 172 c 335
12 173 d 340
12 174 b 342
12 175 d 342
2009
A - 5
Germany

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