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1
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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

Electronics&Communication- Paper

Topic Test-EDC +Analog

Time Allowed: One Hour
Maximum Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN
THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 60 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all you responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
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(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question
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28A/11, Ground Floor- Jia Sarai New Delhi 16 Ph.: 09811382221, 011-32662945 www.panaceainstitute.org.in
2
Q.1. If C
d
and C
S
represent the depletion and diffusion capacitance of a diode respectively then which one
of the following statements are correct.
1. C
d
varies inversely with the depletion width
2. C
s
varies directly with the rate of change of diode current with respect to diode voltage
3. Effective Junction capacitance is the series combination of C
d
and C
S

(A) 1 & 2 are correct (B) 2 & 3 are correct (C) 1 & 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
Q.2. Which of the following statement is not correct about GaAs and GaAsP?
(A) GaAs emit light in Infra red region while GaAsP emits light in Visible region
(B) Both GaAs& GaAsP are used as material for LED
(C) GaAs is direct band gap type while GaAsP is indirect band gap type material
(D) Both GaAs and GaAsP are semiconductor material.
Q.3. The reverse saturation current of a Si-based p-n junction diode increases 32 times due to a rise in
ambient temperature. If the original temperature was 40C. What is the final temperature?
(A) 90 C (B) 72 C (C) 45 C (D) 50 C
Q.4. Which of the following parameters of a Silicon Schottky diode is higher than that of a corresponding
PN Junction diode?
(A) Forward voltage drop (B) Reverse Leakage current
(C) Reverse Recovery time (D) Reverse recovery current
Q.5. A hole in a semiconductor has
1. Positive charge equal to the electron charge.
2. Positive mass equal to the mass of the electron.
3. An effective mass greater than the effective mass of electron.
4. Negative mass and positive charge equal to the charge in nucleus.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 3 and 4 only
Q.6. When diodes are connected in series to increase voltage rating the Peak Inverse Voltage per junction
(A) Should not exceed half the break down voltage
(B) Should not exceed break down voltage
(C) Should not exceed one third the break down voltage
(D) May be equal or less than break down voltage
Q.7. Light Dependent register is:
1. Photo resistive device
2. Photo voltaic device
3. Photo emissive device
(A) Only 1 (B) both 1 & 2 (C) both 2 & 3 (D) both 1 & 3
Q.8. Consider an N-type Silicon semiconductor if the Electric field intensity applied to material is
increased from 2000V/cm to 8000 V/cm then the mobility of free electrons shall multiply by a factor
of:
1 1 1
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2
2 4 2
A B C D
Q.9. Which of the following statement is not correct?

3
(A) In a P
+
N Junction under reverse bias the magnitude of electric field is always maximum at the
P
+
N Junction.
(B) In a P
+
N Junction under reverse bias the magnitude of depletion layer is more towards P
+
side
(C) In a P
+
N Junction under reverse bias the magnitude of depletion layer is more towards N side
(D) P
+
N Junction diode under reverse bias is not used in Solar cell.
Q.10. A, diode which is in reverse bias at 3 volt, has a junction capacitance of 20 pF when reverse bias is
increased to 24 volt then junction capacitance becomes 8 pF. The doping profile and contact
potential are:
(A) Linear graded V
0
= 1 volt (B) Linear graded V
0
= 2 volt
(C) Step graded V
0
= 1 volt (D) Step graded V
0
= 1 volt
Q.11. A potential difference of 5, volt is applied across a uniform wire of length 50 meter. Calculate drift
velocity of electrons through the wire. If relaxation time is 10
14
sec.
(A) 0.176 10
3
m/s (B) 0.95 m/s (C) 1.76 10
5
m/s (D) 1.5 10
6
m/s
Q.12. As compared to a Full wave rectifier using 2 diodes the four diode bridge rectifier has the dominant
advantage of:
(A) Higher current carrying capacity (B) Lower Peak Inverse requirement
(C) Lower ripple factor (D) Higher efficiency
Q.13. Which of the followings are true about Hall Coefficient R
H
.
1. R
H
value is zero for intrinsic semiconductor
2. R
H
value is negative for intrinsic semiconductor
3. For Extrinsic semiconductor value of R
H
increase with increase in temperature
4. For Extrinsic semiconductor value of R
H
decrease with increase in temperature
(A) 1&2 (B) 2&3 (C) 1&3 (D) 2&4
Q.14. The diffusion constant for holes in silicon is 13 cm
2
/s. What is the diffusion current if the gradient of
the hole concentration
14
dp
2 10
dx
= holes per cm
3
per cm ?
(A) 0.416 mA (B)
5
3.2 10 A
(C) 32 A (D) 0.416 mA

Q.15. Which of the followings are example of Insulator:
1. Diamond 2. Graphite 3. Bakelite 4. Lucite
(A) 1,2,&3 are correct (B) 2,3&4 are correct
(C) 1,3&4 are correct (D) 1&4 are correct
Q.16. Which of the following statements are true about P-N Junction?
1. An unbiased P-N Junction develops a built-in potential at the junction with the N-side
positive and the P-side negative.
2. The unbiased p-n junction behaves as a battery and supplies current to a resistance connected
across its terminals.
3. Unbiased P-N Junction may be used in solar cell
(A) 1,2 (B) 2,3 (C) 1,3 (D) 1,2&3
Q.17. In a MOSFET, the transfer characteristics can be used to determine which of the following device
parameters?
(A) Threshold voltage and output resistance

4
+
10KO
1KO
10volt
2volt
(B) Trans-conductance and output resistance
(C) Threshold voltage and trans-conductance
(D) Trans-conductance and channel length modulation parameter
Q.18. These are the different methods followed to take p n p n device form its conducting state to the
non-conducting state?
1. Reducing the anode current below the holding value.
2 By changing the polarity of anode voltage
3. Reducing the gate current to zero
4. Reducing the gate voltage to zero
5. By changing the polarity of gate voltage
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) only 1&2 (B) 1,2&3 (C) 1,3,&5 (D) 1,2,3,4&5
Q.19. This of the following matching is not correct:
(A) Maximum operating frequency in bipolar Power transistor is 1 KHz
(B) Maximum operating frequency in Power MOSFET is 1 MHz
(C) Maximum operating frequency in SCR is 100 KHz
(D) Maximum operating frequency in IGBT is 100 KHz
Q.20. The basic function of buried n
+
layer in an n-p-n transistor fabricated in IC is to
(A) Reduce the magnitude of the base spreading resistance
(B) Reduce the collector series resistance
(C) Reduce the base width of the transistor
(D) Increases the gain of the transistor
Q.21. If Common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98 then what is the value of its common collector DC
current gain.
(A) 49 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) Data insufficient
Q.22. For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the | of the transistor is very large and V
BE
= 0.7 V. The
mode of operation of the BJT is :

(A) Cut-off (B) saturation (C) Normal active (D) reverse active
Q.23. In order of input impedance choose the correct increasing order of the following devices:
1. BJT in CE Mode 2. BJT in CB Mode
3. MOSFET 4. JFET
(A) 2<1<4<3 (B) 3<4<2<1 (C) 2<4<3<1 (D) 2<4<1<3
Q.24. Consider the following statements:
Statemant1: In an NPN Bipolar transistor main current in the base is due to diffusion of electrons.
Statement2: In an PNP Bipolar transistor main current in the base is due to diffusion of holes.
(A) Both statement are correct (B) Both statement are false

5
+5v
1KO
2KO
1MO
(C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is false (D) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is false
Q.25. Consider the following circuit: what is the voltage difference between collector and emitter (V
CE
) in
the above circuit?

(A) 0 volt (B) 3 volt (C) 5 volt (D) 10/3 volt
Q.26. Which of the following statements are correct about body effect in N-MOSFET?
For an N-channel Enhancement type MOSFET if the source is connected at a lower potential than
that of the bulk (i.e.V
SB
<0) then threshold voltage V
T
of the MOSFET will be:
(A) Remains unchanged (B) Decreases (C) Change polarity (D) Increases
Q.27. In P-Channel Enhancement type MOSFET at a fixed drain voltage:
(A) Drain current is maximum at zero gate voltage and it decreases with applied positive gate voltage
(B) Drain current is maximum at zero gate voltage and it Increases with applied negative gate voltage
(C) Drain current is zero at zero gate voltage and it increases with applied positive gate voltage
(D) Drain current is zero at zero gate voltage and it increases with applied negative gate voltage
Q.28. A MOSFET has both P
+
type source and drain and the drain current flows only when gate to source
voltage is less than -2.0 Volt. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about the device?
1. The device is an Enhancement type PMOS
2. It has N-channel
3. It has Threshold voltage of -2 volt
4. Here channel conductance is determined by hole mobility
(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 1, 3 & 4 (C) 1, 2 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Q.29. For an N-MOS If K
n
= 50 A/V
2
, V
T
= 0.8 volt w/L = 10 then what is value of drain current for
V
GS
= 2 volt and V
DS
= 1.0 volt.
(A) 1.8 10
4
Amp (B) 3.5 10
3
A (C) 1.8 10
3
A (D) 3.5 10
4
A
Q.30. Which of the following statements are correct about JFET Pinch-off working?
1. In Pinch off region if drain voltage is increased then drain current becomes constant
2. In N-channel JFET having drain to source voltage constant if gate source voltage is increased
(more negative) then pinch-off would occur for zero value of drain current.
3. A junction JFET can be used as voltage variable resistor well below pinch-off condition.
(A) 1&2 are correct (B) 2&3 are correct (C) 1&3 are correct (D) 1,2&3 are correct
Q.31. In respect to P-channel and N-channel MOS Consider the following statements:
1. Fabrication of P-Channel device is more economical than N-Channel and P-Channel devices
are easier to produce than N-channel
2. NMOS has higher packing density than PMOS
3. PMOS devices occupy double area than NMOS devices to achieve the same resistance.
4. NMOS has higher speed than PMOS.

6
3v
1KO
I
C
I
B
C
2
v
0
+
-
v= v sin t
i m
e
+
-
C
1
Which of the following statements are correct:
(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 2, 3 & 4 (C) 1, 3 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Q.32. The saturated drain current value of a JFET (I
DSS
) varies proportionally with respect to temperature
as:

3 1 1
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2
2 2 2
A B C D
Q.33. If geometric mean of I
DS
and I
DSS
of a N-channel J-FET is unity mA and its pinch-off voltage is -4
volt then its trans-conductance gain (g
m
) in mA/volt is:
(A) 0.5 (B) -0.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 1
Q.34. A MOS capacitor is made using p type substrate then the dominant charge in the channel is due to
the presence of:
(A) Only electrons in accumulation mode (B) Either electrons or holes in accumulation mode
(C) Either electrons or holes in inversion mode (D) only electrons in inversion mode
Q.35. Assuming V
CE set
=0.2V and | = 50, the minimum base current (I
B
) required to drive the transistor in
figure to saturation is :
(A) 56 A (B) 150 mA (C) 60 A (D) 3 mA

Q.36. The graded base BJTs exhibit better high frequency response characteristics as compared to their
uniform base counterparts because:
(A) There exists a built in electric field in base region which will Increase recombination rate of
carriers in base region.
(B) There exists a built in electric field in base region which will decrease recombination rate of
(C) There exists a built in electric field in emitter region which will Increase recombination rate of
(D) None
Q.37. A sinusoidal input voltage of frequency is fed to circuit shown in figure if C
1
>> C
2
and V
m
is the
peak value of input voltage, then what is the value of output voltage??
(A) 2 V
m
(B) 2 V
m
sint
(C) 2
m
V (D)
m
V
sin
2
t e

Q.38. In the following limiter circuit, an input voltage V
i
= 10 sin 100 t t is applied. Assume that the diode
drop is 0.7 V when it is forward biased. The Zener breakdown voltage is 6.8 V.

7
1KO
D
1
D
2
6.8V
v
0
+
v
i
+
100O
I
L
50O
5.6V
8V
+
-
R
E
C
E
V
in
V
out
R
C
R
F
+V
CC

The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage respectively are:
(A) 6.1 V, -0.7 V (B) 0.7V, -7.5 V (C) 7.5 V, -0.7 V (D) 7.5 V, -7.5 V
Q.39. Consider the following statements about threshold voltage:
1. The threshold voltage (V
T
) of a MOS capacitor increases with increases with increase in gate
oxide thickness
2. The threshold voltage (V
T
) of a MOS capacitor decreases with decrease in substrate doping
concentration
3. The threshold voltage does not depends upon oxide charge
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 1, 3 (D) 1, 2,3
Q.40. What is the value of I
L
in 50 ohm resistor?

(A) 0.62 Amp (B) 0.10 Amp (C) 0.124 Amp (D) 1.0 Amp
Q.41. Value of h- parameter depends upon the following factors in BJT transistor at low frequency:
1. Q point of BJT 2. Operating temperature 3. Operating frequency
(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only (C) 1 & 3 only (D) 1, 2 & 3 only
Q.42. Which of the following is not true about Darlington pair:
(A) Darlington pair is CC-CC Combination
(B) The purpose of Darlington pair is to increase its input impedance
(C) Voltage gain of Darlington pair is very high
(D) Current gain of Darlington pair is very high
Q.43. The amplifier circuit shown in the figure has

(A) High value of input impedance and high value of output impedance
(B) High value of input impedance and low value of output impedance
(C) Low value of input impedance and low value of output impedance

8
+
v
0
R
1
C
R
1
v
i
V
CC
Q
2
R
2
R
1
R
C
C
1
C
2
Q
1
1
R
C
2
Trigger
V
CC
v
0
v
i
R
1
Q
1
C
(D) Low value of input impedance and high value of output impedance
Q.44. For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillations the most appropriate value of loop gain
is:
(A) +1 (B) -1 (C) -1.02 (D) +1.02
Q.45. In A common source amplifier the mid band voltage gain is 40 dB and upper cut-off frequency is
150 kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the value of unity gain frequency f
T

is:
(A) 6 MHz (B) 15MHz (C) 150 MHz (D) 1.5GHz
Q.46. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 and CMRR=80 dB what is the value of
common mode gain:
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) 0
Q.47. Consider the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure type of filter is:

(A) Low pass filter (B) High pass filter (C) All pass filter (D) Band pass filter
Q.48. The following Multi-vibrator circuit is:

(A) Monostable mutivibrator
(B) Astable mutivibrator
(C) Bistable mutivibrator
(D) Schmitt trigger

Q.49. In an RC coupled transistor amplifier
1. Low-frequency response is determined by coupling &by pass capacitors.
2. High-frequency response is determined by junction or internal capacitances.
3. Mid-frequency response is independent of all type of capacitances.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Q.50. Which of the following statement is not true about given circuit:

(A) Given circuit is a time base circuit in which output is a linear function of time.

9
R
2
V
R
1
R
C
C
I
L
+
T
C
R
L
+
-
v
0
R
R
C
C
v
i
+
-
v
0
30K
15K
0.05 F
v
i
1.7K
(B) It is circuit of Miller sweep circuit.
(C) It is circuit of Boot-strap circuit.
(D) This is also called as linear time base generator.
Q.51. Which of the following statement is not true about given UJT oscillator

(A) Here capacitor charges through R
c
but discharges through R
2

(B) It is a Negative resistance relaxation oscillator.
(C) Output is a square waveform
(D) Intrinsic stand-off ratio is in range of 02. To 0.6
Q.52. Given circuit is an example of:

(A) L-type filter (B) switching regulator (C) Ring modulator (D) Ring demodulator
Q.53. Which of the following statement is not correct about wide banding technique of amplifier:
(A) In series peaking amplifier method inductance is added at the load end and this method will
increase Bandwidth by 36%
(B) Shunt peaking method is another method for wide-banding
(C) The main drawback of shunt peaked wide band amplifier is too low gain at low frequency.
(D) Wide banding means gain value will also increase.
Q.54. The circuit shown in figure below represents:

(A) Inverting integrator (B) Band pass filter
(C) All pass filter (D) Non-inverting integrator
Q.55. For a given circuit of low pass filter what is the value of cut off frequency and pass band gain of
given filter?
(A) 2 kHz, 1.5
(B) 1 kHz, 1.5
(C) 2 kHz, 0.5
(D) 1 kHz, 0.5

10
Q.56. An amplifier has an open loop gain of 1000 10. Negative feedback is provided such that the gain
variation remains within 0.1%. What is the amount of feedback |
F
?
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/9 (C) 9/100 (D) 9/1000
Q.57. In a class-B Push pull operation the D.C power drawn is 26W. What is the approximate value of
power delivered by the amplifier at the ideal maximum efficiency of power conversion?
(A) 13 W (B) 23W (C) 20W (D) 18W
Q.58. Which of the following statement is not correct about RC coupled amplifier:
(A) In a single stage RC Coupled amplifier the phase shift at lower3dB frequency is 225 degree
(B) In a single stage RC Coupled amplifier the phase shift at higher 3dB frequency is 135 degree
(C) In a double stage RC Coupled amplifier the phase shift at lower 3dB frequency is 45 degree
(D) In a double stage RC Coupled amplifier the phase shift at higher 3dB frequency is 45 degree
Q.59. If an amplifier has two identical cascade stages each stage has a bandwidth of 20 KHz then what is
the approximate value of overall bandwidth
(A) 10 KHz (B) 12.9KHz (C) 20KHz (D) 20.3KHz
Q.60. If a BJT is operating in active region at room temperature with a collector current of 1 mA.what is
the value of input resistance if value of beta is 100
(A) 1.2K ohm (B) 2.5Kohm (C) 1.0Kohm (D) 5.0Kohm

11
Engineering Service Examination -2013

SI No.

Electronics&Telecommunication Engineering
PAPER-EDC& Analog
(Conventional)

Time allotted: 90 Minute Maximum marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should attempt Question No. 1 which is compulsory and remaining FOUR from questions taking
two each from section-A and Section-B. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the
end of the question. Answers must be written only in English. Assume suitable data if found necessary and
indicate the same clearly. Values of the following constants may be used wherever necessary:

Electronic charge = 1.6 10
9
Coulomb
Free space permeability = 4t 10
7
Henry /m.
Free space permittivity =
9
1
10
36t

| |

|
\ .
Farad/m.
Velocity of light in free space = 3 10
8
m/ sec.
Boltzmann constant = 1.38 10
23
joule /K.
Planck constant = 6.626 10
34
joule-sec.

Important: Candidates are to note that all parts and sub parts of a question are to be attempted
continuously in answer book. That is all parts and sub parts of a question being attempted must be
completed before attempting the next question.

Any page left blank in answer book must be clearly struck out. Answers that follow pages left blank
may not be given credit.

12
+10V
6V
-
+
v
0
v
i
2KO
1KO
500O
500O
S
1
S
2
S
3
S
4
Q.1. (a) Explain Degenerate semiconductors and explain Fermi level position in N Type and P type
degenerate semiconductor with proper equations. (5)
(b) Explain difference between tunneling and Avalanche mechanism for Zener break down in short
and also explain effect of temperature in both mechanism.(5)
(c) Write down Ebers-Moll equations for a p-n-p bipolar junction transistor. Also draw these
equations in form of model (5)
(d) An abrupt Si p-n junction has
23 3
A
N 10 /m = on p-side and
21 2
D
N 10 /m = on n-side.
Calculate the value of the contact potential and at 300 K. The intrinsic carrier concentration of Si
is
16 3
1.5 10 /m and relative permittivity is 11.8.(5)
(e) In circuit shown in figure If | = 19 then what are the values of (V
CE
, I
C
). (5)

(f) If for a given programmable OPAMP, G
1
is the gain, when only S
1
is closed and G
2
is the gain
when only S
2
is closed, then relation between G
1
& G
2
is?? (5)

(g) Draw the circuit of a Schmitt trigger (regenerative comparator) . Sketch its transfer
characteristics in response to an arbitrary signal. (5)
(h) Draw AC model of transistor and what modification will be done in high frequency model of a
bipolar transistor.(5)

13
+
3V
7K
3K
10 V
R
e
V
o
Q
2
R
I
0
I
b
Q
1
+V
CC
SECTION-A
Q.2. (a) Explain Hall effect for N-type with Proper mathematical equations what is Hall coefficient for N
type semiconductor. (10)
(b) An N-type Ge sample is 2 mm wide and 0.2 mm thick. A current of 10 mA is passed through the
sample (x-direction) and a magnetic field of 0.1 web/m
2
is directed perpendicular to the current
flow (z-direction).The developed Hall voltage is 1.0 mV. Calculate the Hall coefficient and
electron concentration. (5)
Q.3. (a) For the circuit shown in Fig. 1, assume | = h
FE
= 100. Find if the transistor is in cutoff, saturation
of in the active region. (10)

(b) Describe how an FET can be used as a Voltage Variable Resistor (VVR). (5)
Q.4. In intrinsic GaAs, the electron and hole mobilities are 085 and 004 m
2
/V-S respectively and
corresponding effective masses are 0068 m
o
and 05 m
o
respectively, where m
o
is the rest mass of an
electron. If the energy gap of GaAs at 300 K is 143 eV, calculate the intrinsic carrier concentration
of GaAS material (15)

SECTION-B

Q.5. (a) In the circuit of given figure Q1
and
Q
2
are identical. Find I
2
in the terms of I
0
.(10)

(b) What is the name of this circuit and how it can be used as constant current source (5)

14
C
z
v
0
R = 2K
c
v
s
+
-
+15V
0.5K
R
2
C
b
R
1
+
R
1
C
2
V
0
C
1
R
2
R
3
V
s
Q.6. If D.C. collector current is 3 mA and | is 100 for following circuit. Here transistor is operating at
room temperature then

(a) What is the value of mid band voltage gain. (5)
(b) What is the value of mid band voltage gain if capacitor (C
z
) is open circuited. (5)
(c) What is the value of mid band voltage gain if capacitor (C
z
) is short circuited (5)
Q.7. For the circuit shown find A
v
= V
0
/ V
s

the damping factor and the cut-off frequency. (15)

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