BIOLOGY

2002 National Qualifying Examination

Time Allowed:
Reading Time: 15 minutes
Examination Time: 120 minutes
























INSTRUCTIONS

Apportion your time for answering the questions appropriately.

SECTION A Answer all questions.
Use the Multiple Choice answer sheet provided.
You may use a pencil or pen to mark the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B Answer all questions.
Q51 is to be answered on the supplied answer sheet.
Q52, Q53 and Q54 are to be answered on your own ruled paper.
Use a black or blue pen do not use a pencil.

SECTION C Q55 answer either part (a) or part (b) on your own ruled paper.
Use a black or blue pen do not use a pencil.

Ensure that your name and school appears on each page of your answers.

You are not permitted to refer to books or notes during the examination. The only permitted aid is a
non-programmable calculator.

Secure your answers to the back of your completed cover sheet with a paper clip.
DO NOT STAPLE OR FOLD THE MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET.





MARKS

SECTION A 50 multiple choice questions 75 marks
SECTION B 4 questions 20 marks
SECTION C 1 question 25 marks

Total marks for the paper 120 marks

Australian Science Olympiads Incorporated 2002
Aust r al i an Sci ence Ol ympi ads BI OLOGY 2002 NQE




SECTION A



Q1 Which of the following types of human cells do NOT contain nuclei?

A. White blood cells.
B. Neurons.
C. Liver cells.
D. Heart muscle cells.
E. Red blood cells.

Q2 Sulfur is to protein as

A. magnesium is to DNA.
B. phosphorus is to DNA.
C. iron is to lipid.
D. calcium is to lipid.
E. magnesium is to sugar.

Q3 Which of the following is correct about mutations to a gene of an organism? They always

A. result in natural selection and speciation.
B. alter the balance of inorganic chemicals in the body.
C. change the DNA sequence.
D. induce spontaneous adaptations.
E. induce behavioural changes.

Q4 In a diploid strain of peas, flower colour is determined by two alleles segregating at a single gene
locus. The completely dominant allele, A, gives rise to purple flowers, whilst the recessive allele, a,
gives rise to white flowers. What colour flowers will a plant have if its genotype is Aa?

A. All will be purple.
B. All will be white.
C. All will be pink.
D. Half will be purple and the other half will be white.
E. All will be purple with white spots on half the area of the flower.

Q5 The shape of an animal cell is primarily maintained by the

A. exoskeleton.
B. cytoskeleton.
C. cell wall.
D. endoskeleton.
E. cell membrane.

Q6 The shape of a plant cell is primarily maintained by the

A. exoskeleton.
B. cytoskeleton.
C. cell wall.
D. endoskeleton.
E. cell membrane.

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Q7 Which of the following is/are directly involved in the mechanical or chemical digestion of food in the
human stomach?

I. Muscular contractions of the stomach wall.
II. Secretion of acid into the stomach.
III. The mucous covering of the stomach lining.
IV. Bile produced by the liver.

A. I only.
B. I and II only.
C. I and III only.
D. II and III only.
E. I, II, III and IV.

Q8 Animals can produce chemical energy by breaking down glucose into carbon dioxide and water.
Where does this process occur?

A. Only in the cells of muscles which are being exercised.
B. Within the stomach cavity.
C. Along the small intestine.
D. Inside various cells throughout the body.
E. In the blood.

For questions 9 and 10, refer to the food web below:

crocodile
c
d
b
a
grasshopper






e

leaf






Q9 Which of the above (a e) is likely to be a decomposer?


Q10 Which of the above (a e) would be considered a primary consumer?


Q11 Correctly fill in the gaps (I and II) in the following statement: (I) is/are to starch as
(II) is/are to protein:

A. I: glucose, II: nucleotides
B. I: galactose, II: amino acids
C. I: glucose, II: amino acids
D. I: an amino acid, II: sugars
E. I: nucleotides, II: glucose

Q12 A study of a terrestrial animal species found that more than 95% of its offspring fail to survive to
reproductive maturity. From this study it would be reasonable to conclude that
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A. a poor experimental technique was used because of the high mortality rate.
B. the species probably has a short gestation period and can rapidly increase its population size.
C. the individual parents studied just happened by chance to be bad parents.
D. most terrestrial species have a high mortality rate.
E. the species probably gives high parental care to offspring but the climatic conditions do not allow
many offspring to survive.

Q13 Which of the following features would you expect to be characteristic of a carnivorous, endothermic
(warm blooded) and desert-dwelling animal?

A. Large molar teeth, thick fur and hibernates in winter.
B. Large molar teeth, large rumen and short hair.
C. Small sharp teeth, shiny fur and large ears.
D. Sharp fang teeth, scales and poisonous venom.
E. Presence of a long proboscis, two wings and a hardened exoskeleton.

Q14 In a forest, two different species of rat are observed to compete for a particular type of berry. This
competition involves the two species fighting and often sustaining injury. What can you deduce about
this type of berry?

I. It is a resource which both species preferentially eat.
II. It is available in a limited quantity.
III. It is not consumed by any other species.
IV. There are few seeds inside the berries.
V. The berry plant is resistant to diseases.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and II only.
D. II and IV only.
E. III, IV and V only.

Q15 In a lineage of humans, a Y chromosome-linked trait had been studied for three generations.
Unfortunately there has been an error in the recording of the data. For which individual is the data
incorrect?



A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

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Q16 The DNA of organisms directs cellular functions by controlling the production of proteins. It does this
through the use of an intermediate molecule, messenger RNA. Analogously, DNA, messenger RNA
and proteins would respectively function like

A. the photocopier, librarian and the books of a library.
B. a building, the blueprints and the construction workers on a building site.
C. the roots, trunk and leaves of a tree.
D. a boss, foreman and workers in a factory.
E. an engine, the manual and wheels of a car.

To answers Questions 17 and 18, please use the diagram below.
II.
I.


Q17 Which of the cells shows a stage of cell division that is unique to meiosis?

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I or II.
E. Meiosis has no unique stages of cell division compared to mitosis.

Q18 Assume that the dividing cells shown above come from the same plant. Which of the following
correctly matches cells I and II with parts of the plant they could come from?

Cell I Cell II
A. xylem tissue growing shoot
B. shoot tip xylem tissue
C. shoot tip ovary
D. ovary shoot tip
E. ovary xylem tissue

Q19 Which of the following do NOT contain DNA or RNA?

A. Nuclei.
B. Lysosomes.
C. Cytoplasm.
D. Viruses.
E. Ribosomes.

Q20 A wheat grain

A. is analogous to a human ovum.
B. can be fertilised by pollen.
C. contains several cotyledons.
D. contains an embryo.
E. is haploid.
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Q21 In humans, twins that develop from two separately fertilised ova

A. are always identical.
B. will always be of the same gender and have a near, but not necessarily identical appearance.
C. will always be different genders.
D. will always be the same gender but have a different appearance.
E. can be the same or different genders.

Q22 Which following group of nutrients do plants typically require the greatest quantity of?

A. Manganese, magnesium and molybdenum.
B. Zinc, copper and nitrogen.
C. Boron, copper and potassium.
D. Nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium.
E. Sulphur, nitrogen and copper.

Q23 The following shows the transport or diffusion of molecules across a cell membrane in the direction
indicated by the arrow. Which of the following options would require the direct input of energy to
transport only the molecules represented by the circles and the triangles?
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
I
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
II
Membrane protein
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
IV
Membrane protein
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
III
Membrane protein
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
I
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
II
Membrane protein
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
IV
Membrane protein
Outside cell Inside cell
Cell membrane
III
Membrane protein
A. I only.
B. III only.
C. III and IV only.
D. II, III and IV only.
E. All require the input of energy.

Q24 A research scientist would like to evaluate if a new antibiotic, called novamycin, can restrict the
growth of a multiple drug resistant strain of bacteria. Which of the following experimental conditions
would be best to test the effectiveness of novamycin against such a strain of bacteria?

A. Group 1 10 agar plates with resistant bacteria +novamycin
Group 2 10 agar plates with resistant bacteria no novamycin
B. Group 1 10 agar plates with resistant bacteria +novamycin
Group 2 10 agar plates with normal bacteria +novamycin
C. Group 1 10 agar plates with resistant bacteria no novamycin
Group 2 10 agar plates with normal bacteria +novamycin
D. Group 1 10 agar plates with normal bacteria +novamycin
Group 2 10 agar plates with normal bacteria no novamycin
E. Group 1 10 agar plates with resistant bacteria +novamycin
Group 2 10 agar plates with normal bacteria no novamycin
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Q25 Innate behaviour is behaviour which is encoded by genes. Which of the following is NOT innate
behaviour?

A. Turtles heading for water after hatching on a beach.
B. A chicken pecking at its egg shell when hatching.
C. A spider building a web.
D. Baby birds recognising the call of their mother as opposed to the call of other birds.
E. The suckling of a newly born calf.

Q26 Following synthesis by a ribosome, a protein which is to be exported from a cell is likely to follow
which of the pathways below?

A. rough endoplasmic reticulum golgi apparatus vesicle release
B. nucleus nuclear membrane vesicle encapsulation release
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum leucoplast golgi apparatus release
D. nucleolus cytoplasm nuclear transport protein complex release
E. cytoplasm golgi apparatus mitochondria release

Q27 Which of the following statements MOST completely describes the nature and function of enzymes?

A. Enzymes are molecules that are involved in digestion.
B. Enzymes are proteins produced by living organisms that facilitate chemical reactions.
C. Enzymes are chemicals in bodily secretions that protect the body from infection.
D. Enzymes are chemicals in washing powder and cleaning products.
E. Enzymes are inorganic chemicals that act as catalysts to increase the rate of a reaction, without
being used up themselves.

Q28 Which of the following correctly matches the type of animal nutrition, type of food consumed, and
dentition (teeth type)?

Type Food Dentition
A. Carnivore plants & animals tearing, biting
B. Omnivore plants only tearing, biting
C. Carnivore animals only crushing, grinding
D. Omnivore plants only crushing, grinding
E. Herbivore plants only crushing, grinding

Q29 Insufficient dietary intake of certain amino acids can lead to malnutrition even if sufficient energy is
consumed. The process most directly affected by such deficiencies would be the

A. translation of mRNA.
B. replication of DNA.
C. synthesis of lipids.
D. transport of compounds across cell membranes.
E. absorption of glucose.

Q30 When comparing a tropical rainforest with a sub-arctic pine forest, which of the following would
NOT necessarily be different between the two?

A. Daily temperature.
B. Yearly rainfall/precipitation.
C. Rate of decomposition.
D. Growth rate of plants.
E. Species diversity.
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Q31 Which of the following situations is MOST likely to cause speciation (the formation of new species)?

A. Two different species of animals living in the same habitat.
B. Many different species of animals living in the same habitat.
C. Interbreeding between two existing species that produce infertile offspring.
D. A population of animals containing many different species which becomes physically separated
by a watercourse.
E. A population of animals containing only a few different species which becomes physically
separated by a watercourse.

Q32 In the figure below, three different samples (1 3) of DNA have been analysed by gel electrophoresis.
Sample 1 is DNA of a chromosome extracted from a human cell. Sample 2 is DNA extracted from a
particular species of bacteria. Sample 3 is a DNA molecule that is known to be 200 base pairs long.


A B C Sample applied here (-) Anode










(+) Cathode











Which of the following correctly match the DNA samples (1 3) with the correct lane (A, B or C) in
which they were loaded?


Lane A Lane B Lane C
A. 1 2 3
B. 2 3 1
C. 1 3 2
D. 3 2 1
E. 3 1 2

Q33 The following diagrams represent the shape (or lysis as indicated by arrows) of an animal cell in
different solutions of NaCl.




1.0 M 0.5 M 0.1 M 0 M

Which of these solutions would lyse a plant cell of similar size and ionic composition?

A. 1.0 M NaCl
B. 0.5 M NaCl
C. 0.1 M NaCl
D. 0 M NaCl
E. A plant cell would not lyse in any of these solutions.

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Q34 According to the Darwinian theory of evolution, which of the following is true?

A. A father that has had his appendix removed will have children with no appendix.
B. Squids have longer arms because previous generations of squid stretched their tentacles to catch
prey.
C. Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
D. An increasing proportion of Australian rabbits are immune to the myxomatosis virus because
those that are resistant are able to breed.
E. Giraffes have long necks because each generation stretches their neck longer so that they can eat
leaves higher on trees.

Q35 Which of the following correctly match the features and characteristics of C
3
and C
4
plants?

Have both
chlorophyll a and b
in the leaves
Contain the enzyme
RUBISCO
Have bundle sheath
cells in the leaves
Contain carotenoid
pigments in the
leaves
A. C
3
only C
3
only Both C
3
and C
4
Both C
3
and C
4
B. C
4
only C
4
only C
3
only Both C
3
and C
4
C. Both C
3
and C
4
C
3
only C
3
only Both C
3
and C
4
D. C
3
only Both C
3
and C
4
C
4
only C
3
only
E. Both C
3
and C
4
Both C
3
and C
4
C
4
only Both C
3
and C
4


Q36 Which of the following plant hormones or class of plant hormones is mostly synthesized in the apical
(stem) meristems of plants?

A. Ethylene.
B. Abscisic acid.
C. Gibberellin.
D. Cytokinin.
E. Auxin.

Q37 The main function(s) of the kidneys is/are

I Regulation of white blood cell production.
II Control of body temperature.
III Breakdown of toxic substances.
IV Excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
V Maintenance of water balance.

A. II only.
B. I, III and V only.
C. II and IV only.
D. IV and V only.
E. II, IV and V only.

Q38 A neuron is able to transmit a nerve pulse by

A. transmitting an electrical current from the sensory axon to the signal axon.
B. allowing the neuron to be pulled and pushed as a kind of mechanical signal.
C. releasing chemicals which move from the sensory to the signal end of the axon.
D. using receptor molecules to first detect the presence of the signal before retransmitting it.
E. the movement of ions across the axon membrane sequentially along the axon.
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Q39 In the diagram below, two holes are shown that have been drilled from the ground surface to obtain
samples of rock at different depths.

Dating of the shells from the different sedimentary layers in hole 1 reveals that Shell A is 30 million
years old, Shell B is 50 million years old, Shell C is 70 million years old and Shell D is 90 million
years old. In a new excavation, hole 2 is dug only 2 meters away from hole 1. In this new hole,
layer W, which is at the same depth as the layer in hole 1 with Shell A, was found to contain Shell A,
and layer Z, which is at the same depth as the layer in hole 1 with Shell D, was found to contain
Shell C. What would you expect the approximate age of layer X in hole 2 to be?


A. Less than 30 million years old.
B. Around 30 million years old.
C. Between 30 and 50 million years old.
D. Between 50 and 90 million years old.
E. Greater than 90 million years old.

Q40 In the following diagram, the characteristics of 3 different seeds are given.


Seed 1
Light weight seed pod
with air filled chamber
Seed 2
Small seed with tuft of
fibres
Seed 3
Seed capsule coated
with barbed spines

















By what mode are these seeds likely to disperse from their parent plants?


Seed 1 Seed 2 Seed 3
A. Mammal Insect Wind
B. Water Wind Mammal
C. Insect Water Mammal
D. Wind Water Insect
E. Wind Mammal Water

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For questions 41 and 42, refer to the following diagram. The diagram illustrates the control of thyroid
hormone secretion.

cold stress


releases
Hypothalamus

Key:
=stimulates
=inhibits


TSH Releasing
Hormone (TRH)



releases
Anterior Pituitary
Thyroid Stimulating
Hormone (TSH)
Thyroid gland
+

Thyroid hormones








releases




Q41 What effect does stress have ( =increased levels; =decreased levels)?

A. TRH ; TSH ; thyroid hormones
B. TRH ; TSH ; thyroid hormones
C. TRH ; TSH ; thyroid hormones
D. TRH ; TSH ; thyroid hormones
E. TRH ; TSH ; thyroid hormones

Q42 High levels of the thyroid hormones will

A. actively stimulate the hypothalamus to release more TRH.
B. eventually inhibit the release of TSH.
C. inhibit the anterior pituitary, thereby increasing TSH levels.
D. stimulate the thyroid gland to release more thyroid hormone in a positive feedback loop.
E. cause no change in hormone levels as thyroid hormone is the end product of the feedback loop.

Q43 Upon heavy physical exercise, how do each of the following alter in humans?

I Breathing rate.
II Heart rate.
III Blood flow to muscles.
IV Blood flow to digestive tract.

Increase Decrease
A. I, II, III IV
B. I, II III, IV
C. I, III II, IV
D. III, IV I, II
E. II, III, IV I

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Q44 Which of the following is/are factors that would affect a cells surface area to volume ratio?

I Cell size.
II Presence of a differentially permeable membrane.
III Presence of a convoluted membrane.
IV Presence of many membrane transport proteins.

A. I only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. I and III only.
E. III and IV only.

Q45 Retroviruses, such as HIV, can perform a process known as reverse transcription upon entering a host
cell. Reverse transcription describes which of the following?

A. Converting viral DNA into RNA.
B. Converting viral RNA into DNA.
C. Converting viral proteins into RNA.
D. Insertion of viral RNA into the host genome.
E. Insertion of viral DNA into the host genome.

Q46 From the graph below about the change in the size of horses over evolutionary time, what can be
reasonably concluded?


Pliohippus
Merychippus
Mesohippus
Hyracotherium
Equus (Modern Horse)
Change in size of horses over evolutionary
time
180

160
140
h
e
i
g
h
t

(
c
m
)

120

100
80

60

40

20

0

10 20 30 40 50 60 0
millions of years ago

A. In 100 years time, the modern horse will be significantly taller than horses today.
B. The trend of increasing horse size will continue indefinitely.
C. The increase in size was caused by climatic change.
D. There is a linear relationship between height and time.
E. The size of horses has varied over time.

Q47 The isoelectric point of a protein (pI) is the pH at which the overall charge of the protein is zero. The
enzyme lipase, which catalyses the breakdown of lipids is known to have a pI of 7. What would you
expect the charge to be of lipase in a solution of pH 2?

A. Neutral.
B. Positive.
C. Negative.
D. The charge could be positive or negative depending on the size of the lipase.
E. The charge of an enzyme such as lipase is dependent on the charge of the substrate.
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Q48 In the diagram below, the body temperature of four animals (A, B, C and D) is indicated at different
environmental temperatures. Using the graph below, which one of the following statements is correct?
Temper at ur e of envi r onment
B
o
d
y

t
e
m
p
e
r
a
t
u
r
e

A
B
C
D
A. Animals A and B are desert animals.
B. Animals C and D are desert animals.
C. Animals B and D are endothermic (warm blooded).
D. Animals B and D are ectothermic (cold blooded).
E. Animals A and C are reptiles.

Q49 A restriction enzyme used in molecular biology will

A. restrict the activity of other enzymes.
B. restrict its activity when reactions are to be slowed.
C. enhance the activity of repressor molecules in metabolic pathways.
D. cut DNA at a particular sequence.
E. restrict the degradation of a particular reaction product.

Q50 It has been observed that treatment of banana plants with fertilizer X increases the amount of fruit
produced by a plantation of bananas, as is shown by the graph, below.


0 10 20 30 40
Fertiliser applied (litres/hectare)
500
1000
250
750

B
a
n
a
n
a

y
i
e
l
d

(
k
g
/
h
e
c
t
a
r
e
)










0



If fertilizer X costs $49 per litre, and bananas can be sold by a farmer for $2.60 per kilogram, how
much fertiliser should be applied to maximise the profit on bananas sold?

A. 0 litres/hectare
B. 10 litres/hectare
C. 20 litres/hectare
D. 30 litres/hectare
E. 40 litres/hectare


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SECTION B



Q51 Match in terms of similarity in function, the components or organs from both plants and animals.

There is only one most appropriate matching item from the plant category and one most appropriate
matching item from the animal category for each functional category.


Functional category Matching plant
component
Matching animal
component
1. Energy

2. Structure

3. Defence

4. Coordination

5. Nutrition

6. Reproduction

7. Communication

8. Gas exchange




List of plant components

List of animal components
A. Stem

S. White blood cell
B. Stomata

T. Intestinal villi
C. Alkaloids

U. Ovary
D. Flower petal

V. Mitochondria
E. Auxin

W. Bone
F. Chloroplast

X. Larynx
G. Root

Y. Haemoglobin
H. Ovule

Z. Axon



(4 marks)
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Q52 In hamsters, which are diploid animals, coat-colour is determined by four alleles (A, a, B and b) which
segregate at two independent loci. At the first locus, the A and a alleles segregate, and at the second
locus the B and b alleles segregate. If the first locus is homozygous for the A allele, coat-colour
pigment will be produced, if the locus is heterozygous the coat-colour will be white and if it is
homozygous for the a allelle the hamster will be born dead (non-viable). If pigment is produced, and
if the second locus is homozygous for the B allele, the hamster coat-colour will be black, if it is
heterozygous the coat-colour will be black and if it is homozygous for b allele, then the coat-colour
will be brown.

(a) With regard to the two loci mentioned, list all possible genotypes for each
phenotype (including the non-viable). (1 mark)

(b) Two black hamsters are cross-bred that are both heterozygous for the loci at
which the B and b alleles segregate. What would be the expected genotypic
and phenotypic ratios of the offspring? (1 mark)

(c) Determine the expected ratios of viable black, brown and white hamsters
from a mating between a hamster with the genotype AaBb and a hamster
with the genotype Aabb. (2 marks)

(d) A brown male hamster is mated with a white female hamster and offspring
are produced in the following proportions - 1 black : 1 brown : 2 white.
What would you expect the genotype of the white female hamster to have
been? (2 marks)



Q53 (a) Describe briefly what is meant by the terms natural selection and
artificial selection. (2 marks)

(b) Describe briefly an example of natural selection and an example of
artificial selection. (3 marks)



Q54 (a) What is meant by the term gene therapy in humans? (2 marks)

(b) What is genome sequencing and briefly how is it likely to benefit humanity? (3 marks)
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SECTION C



Answer EITHER Part (a) OR Part (b) on your own ruled paper.


Q55 Answer Part (a) or Part (b) in the form of an essay. In your essay you should include the points
listed as well as an appropriate introduction and conclusion.


EITHER

(a) Bacteria live almost everywhere that any other organism exists and sometimes in a close relationship
with other organisms.

Explain what prokaryotes are and their unique characteristics along with some of the kinds of
interactions they may have with eukaryotic organisms.

In your essay you should:

compare and contrast the genome and cell structure of prokaryotes and eukaryotes;
compare and contrast the way prokaryotes and eukaryotes acquire, transform and store energy;
explain how bacteria can be directly beneficial (symbiotic) and detrimental (pathogenic) to animals;
explain how bacteria can be directly beneficial (symbiotic) and detrimental (pathogenic) to plants;
describe the role of bacteria in a few examples of industrial production and food processing.

(25 marks)
OR

(b) All forms of life depend on macromolecules.

Explain the structure and function of the major classes of biological macromolecules.

In your essay you should:

describe the structure and function of RNA and DNA and how they are synthesized or replicated;
describe what proteins are composed of and what determines the function of different proteins;
explain how gene expression (transcription and translation) gives rise to the synthesis of proteins;
explain the structure of lipid molecules and their role in membranes;
describe what carbohydrates are and their role in animals and plants.

(25 marks)





END OF EXAMINATION
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