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It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through
different modes of transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted
in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when
the body is immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection
9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent
10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and
contagious?
a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000
bacteria to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what
property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some
communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when
they lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and
are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented.
This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air
current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne
b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites
23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
c. A healthy sexual worker
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is
pattern of disease occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of
IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and
developed pertussis with the first dose.
38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking
41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the
following is important for the cook or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
d. Compliance to health certificate
42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind
of isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation
c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation
44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent
disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements:
a. Complete quarantine
b. Source isolation
c. Surveillance
d. Separation
45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of
precaution:
a. Contact
b. Reverse Isolation
c. Drainage precaution
d. Enteric precaution
46. Which of the following statements about source isolation is false?
a. Air entering the room is passed through filters
b. The room is under negative air pressure
c. Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza
d. Transmission-based precautions will be necessary
48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not
appropriate?
a. Droplet precautions
b. Source isolation
c. Standard precautions
d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider
49. Which of the following precautions doesn’t require any private room?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Strict isolation
c. Droplet precaution
d. Universal precaution
51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat
and radiation:
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitation
d. Disinfestation
52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the
patient?
a. Mask
b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Bonnet
53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process
is used for making vaccine:
a. Use of formaldehyde
b. Lyophilization
c. Attenuation
d. Moist heat application
54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is
known as:
a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Anti-septic
55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client’s skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-
microorganism?
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Decontaminant
d. Antimicrobial
56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as:
a. Sanitization
b. Sanitation
c. Decontamination
d. Disinfection
57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs,
removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection?
a. Terminal
b. Concurrent
c. Longitudinal
d. Post-expulsion
58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent.
a. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)
b. Disinfestation
c. Sanitation
d. Gaseous Desentisization
59. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ :
a. 10 – 15 seconds: down
b. 10 – 15 seconds: up
c. 3 - 5 minutes: down
d. 3 – 5 minutes: up
1. Which of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus?
a. Anti-tetanus toxin
b. Tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Penicillin
d. Equine anti toxin
1. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by:
a. Soap and water
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide
c. Iodophor
d. Cydex
1. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by
except:
a. Petechial rash
b. Hypotension
c. DIC
d. Convulsion
1. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This
is known as:
a. Kernig’s sign
b. Brudzinski’s sign
c. Opisthotonus
d. Nuchal rigidity
1. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2
dose and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Tetracycline
1. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by:
a. Flavivuris
b. Togavirus
c. Bunyavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
1. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to
ascending infection:
a. Secondary encephalitis
b. Amoebic encephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis
1. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three
doses of I cc:
a. Australian X Encephalitis
b. Equine Encephalitis
c. Japanese B encephalitis
d. St. Louise encephalitis
1. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body
through nasal passages, olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba?
a. N. fowleri
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. T. brucei
1. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Bulging of fontanels
c. Decrease pulse rate
d. Projectile vomiting
1. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabin’s vaccine?
a. OPV
b. IPV
c. OPT
d. OPM
1. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days
1. Which kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles?
a. Spinal
b. Bulbar
c. Bulbo-spinal
d. Laundry’s paralysis
1. Rhabdovirus is:
a. Bullet shaped
b. Drum-stick in appearance
c. Chinese characters-like
d. Cork-screw appearance
1. Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected dog?
a. ERIG, 40 IU/kg
b. HRIG , 20 IU/kg
c. HyperRab 40 IU/kg
d. Imogam 60 IU/kg
1. If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except:
a. Animal should not be cooked for food
b. Keep the brain frozen
c. Send animal’s head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies
d. Put it in a cool dawg
3. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed:
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane
4. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva
and considered uncommon yet very dangerous?
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane
5. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory must have a strict isolation for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 14 days
6. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of
infection?
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
d. None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence
9. If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the client’s bedside?
a. Pair of scissors
b. Mechanical ventilator
c. Tracheostomy set
d. Bottle
10. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria?
a. Meningitis
b. Orchitis
c. Myocarditis
d. Gastro-intestinal affectations
11. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria?
a. Nasal
b. Laryngeal
c. Cutaneous
d. Mucous membrane
12. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not
intended for diphtheria vaccine?
a. 3 doses, given first at 6 weeks
b. Injected IM at deltoid region
c. Booster dose every two years especially for travelers
d. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine
14. Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of
pertussis?
a. Invasive
b. Spasmodic
c. Catarrhal
d. Convalescence
16. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after:
a. Negative result on the laboratory test
b. Five days after continued therapy
c. Increased WBC up to 20 per cent
d. Absence of whooping cough
18. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through:
a. Contact isolation
b. Airborne isolation
c. Droplet isolation
d. Transmission based precaution
19. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would the nurse
do?
a. Give the next dose as scheduled
b. Give DTaP on the next dose
c. Give DT for the next dose
d. No vaccination on the next schedule
20. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more
mortality than the World War I.
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. AIDS
d. Influenza
21. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to:
a. Reactivate after latent infection
b. Mutate and create another strain
c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure
d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility
22. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics:
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
23. The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:
a. Amantidine
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovoudine
d. Zanamivir
24. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type:
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
d. Type C
25. Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza?
a. Contact isolation
b. Vaccination each year especially for travelers
c. Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine
d. Adequate nutrition
29. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except:
a. Coughing, sneezing, singing
b. Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin
c. Feco-oral route
d. Unpasteurized milk or dairy products
30. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called:
a. Ghons complexes
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Consumption
d. Cavity
32. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if:
a. Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs
b. One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm
c. Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung
d. Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs
33. Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal
parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
34. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must:
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
35. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting
tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain
b. Afternoon fever
c. Cough for two weeks
d. Shortness of breath
38. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test?
a. 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR
b. 10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem
c. 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss
d. 10 mm for HIV patient
39. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form?
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid
44. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is:
a. Taking INH for prophylaxis
b. Good nutrition
c. Healthy environment
d. BCG immunization
48. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect?
a. Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius.
b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor.
c. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils.
d. Wash hand before, during and after food preparation.
1. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except:
a. Cook thoroughly
b. Use safe water
c. Separate raw and cook
d. Use hand sanitizer
TYPHOID FEVER
1. The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
a. Salmonella enterica
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella choleraesuis
1. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of action?
a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail
b. Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea
c. Burrowing to the Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
d. Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically
1. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except:
a. Typhoid psychosis
b. Carphologia
c. Subsultus tendinum
d. Intestinal perforation
1. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:
a. Increase IgG
b. Increase IgM
c. No Ig increase
d. Increase in both IgG and IgM
1. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause:
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sterility
d. Blindness
1. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent:
a. Shflesneri
b. Shboy-dii
c. Sh-dysenteriae
d. Sh-connei
1. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except:
a. Feco-oral transmission
b. Contaminated water, milk and food
c. Droplet transmission
d. Transmission by fly
1. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis?
a. Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup
b. 2 successive fecal sample twice a day
c. Must be sent in the laboratory at once
d. Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms
1. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin:
a. Ampicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Loperamide
1. During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is
considered also a pathognomonic sign of cholera:
a. Marked mental depression
b. Sultus tendinum
c. Washerwoman’s sign
d. Rose spots on the abdomen
1. Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and gives:
a. 6 months immunity
b. 1 year immunity
c. 3 years immunity
d. 5 months immunity
1. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is:
a. Extraintestinal amebiasis
b. Dehydration
c. Hemorrhage
d. Shock
PARAGONOMIASIS
1. The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis
a. Antemelania asperata
b. Varona litterata
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Paragonimus siamenses
1. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation:
a. PTB
b. Diptheria
c. Pneumonia
d. Pertussis
1. Which of the following facts about PSP’s causative agent is not true?
a. Caused by Dinoflagellates
b. Common term is plankton
c. Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning
d. Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer
1. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true:
a. It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium
b. The toxin affects the CNS primarily
c. It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution
d. It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature
1. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous
shellfish?
a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish
b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion
c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfish’s poison
d. Those who urged and successfully vomited
1. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first:
a. Drink decaffeinated coffee
b. Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice.
c. Induce vomiting.
d. Take metronidazole, as ordered.
1. During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize
toxin, except?
a. Drinking pure coconut milk
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution
d. Drinking vinegar
1. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus)
d. Oxyuris vermicularis
1. It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks:
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Kidneys
d. GI tract
1. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except:
a. Reproduce even without host
b. Eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine
c. Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite
d. Eggs are the infective stage
1. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia baraziliense
1. The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is:
a. Stool Exam
b. Scotch tape method
c. Direct fecal smear
d. Sigmoidoscopy
HEPATITIS
1. Considered AIDS’ twin, it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
1. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except:
a. small, frequent feedings
b. high CHO
c. increase CHON
d. high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex
1. Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis?
a. Relieve pruritus – warm, moist compress or emollient lotion
b. Health teaching – avoid alcohol
c. Isolation precaution
d. Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector – Essentiale)
1. Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane:
a. Exanthem
b. Enanthem
c. Papule
d. Lesions
1. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems?
a. Use calamine lotion
b. Administer anti-histamine
c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children
d. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching
MEASLES
1. Measles is also known as, except:
a. Three-day measles
b. Rubeola
c. Little Red Disease
d. Morbili
1. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and coma:
a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis
b. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
c. Herpes Zoster
d. African Sleeping Sickness
1. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:
a. 9th months
b. 15th month
c. 12th month
d. 14th month
GERMAN MEASLES
1. German measles is also known as, except:
a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Roseola
d. Rothein
1. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its
possible effect to the baby. This is observed because:
a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote.
b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus
c. It causes abortion
d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus.
CHICKEN POX
1. The causative agent of chicken pox is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus)
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Morbili virus
1. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is:
a. Pneumonia
b. Peripheral Neuropathy
c. Cataract
d. Shingles
1. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by
what kind of lesion?
a. Maculae
b. Papulae
c. Vesicle
d. Pustule
1. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory nerves
experienced by those with shingles is called:
a. Postherpetic neuralgia
b. Herpetic Blisters
c. Dermatologic pain
d. Shingle’s pain
1. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half of the
tongue and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as:
a. Ramsay-hunt syndrome
b. Cushing’s sydrome
c. Psychotic syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
1. The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible:
a. Leprosy
b. Cholera
c. Typhus
d. Bubonic plague
1. Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991
1. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991
1. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally
symmetrical?
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
1. In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical,
numerous and extensive, and crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs.
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
1. Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months?
a. 6 to 9 months
b. 24 to 30 months
c. 12 to 24 months
d. 8 to 16 months
1. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program:
a. MDT
b. DOTS
c. IMCI
d. MBS
1. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy?
a. 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months
b. 12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months
c. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months
d. 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months
3. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except:
a. Ofloxacin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazimine
d. Minocycline
1. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy:
a. Once a month then daily
b. Once a month only
c. Daily
d. None
1. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is
recommended for a child with leprosy?
a. 600 mg
b. 450 mg
c. 100 mg
d. 50 mg
1. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue treatment until
how many blister packs are consumed?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
1. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy?
a. BCG immunization
b. Leprosy vaccine
c. Slit skin smear
d. Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin
1. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis
1. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is:
a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use
b. Sexual contact
c. Vertical transmission
d. Blood transfusion
GONORRHEA
1. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is:
a. Nocturnal ani
b. Gleet
c. Dyspareunia
d. Chancre
4. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because:
a. These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another.
b. These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high.
c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse.
d. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact.
5. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through:
a. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion
b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm
c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism
d. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal
6. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because:
a. Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells
b. Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube
c. The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter
d. Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism
13. The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage of
syphilis is now at what stage?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
14. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of:
a. Tetracycline
b. Benzathine Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Metronifazole
15. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
16. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Nonspecific vaginitis
17. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can only be
differentiated through culture test is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Herpes simplex
19. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chylamydia
d. Herpes simplex
21. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is:
a. White-greenish discharge with fish like odor
b. Cheesy like discharge
c. Whitish with red spots discharge
d. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge
22. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is?
a. Metronidazole
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin
d. Erythromycin
25. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except?
a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Broad spectrum antibiotics
d. Hereditary factors
28. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3
29. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3
30. The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Candidiasis
31. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is:
a. Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome
b. Hypo-immunity syndrome
c. Acquired immune deficiency disease
d. Venereal disease
32. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS:
a. 1983
b. 1984
c. 1985
d. 1986
36. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and
Western Blot diagnostic procedure?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
37. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV:
a. ELISA
b. Western Blot
c. Immunosorbent test
d. Fluorescent Antibody test
38. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are:
a. Below 200 cells/mm3
b. Below 300 cells/mm3
c. Below 400 cells/mm3
d. Below 100 cells/mm3
41. Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following, except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes Simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Pneumocystic carinii Pneumonia
42. The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is:
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Candidiasis
c. Tuberculosis
d. AIDS-related Dementia
43. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as:
a. Protease
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Integrase
d. Nuclease
44. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except:
a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids.
b. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10
minutes.
c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions.
d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.
45. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of:
a. Household bleach
b. Alcohol
c. Iodine
d. Hydrogen peroxide
46. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would
likely best perform to prevent further infection:
a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered
b. Hand washing
c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis
d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells
48. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What will the
nurse do?
a. Respect client’s inability to discuss problem
b. Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted
c. Let the patient sign a refusal slip
d. Report patient to DOH at once
49. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except,
a. Every pregnancy should be intended
b. Every birth should be healthy
c. Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy
d. Every sex should be free of coercion and infection
50. The four C’s of STD management includes all of the following, except:
a. Condom
b. Contact-tracing
c. Counseling
d. Cooperation
51. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquito-causing
diseases such as dengue and malaria?
a. Insecticide treated mosquito net
b. Breeding of larva-eating fish
c. Stream clearing
d. Use of OFF lotion to the skin
1. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the following characteristics is observed, except:
a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.
b. It must have 156 holes/ square inch.
c. It must be tuck under the bed or mat.
d. With a seal by the DOH, as inspected.
1. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many
hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 4-12 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 2-3 hours only
1. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also known as:
a. Chemoprophylaxis
b. Zooprophylaxis
c. Faunoprophylaxis
d. Malaria-dengue animal technique
1. Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
1. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except:
a. Culex fatigans
b. Aedes Aegypti
c. Aedes albopictus
d. Aedes poecilus
1. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except:
a. Fever lasting 2-7 days
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
d. Abdominal pain plus joint fever
1. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except?
a. Hemoptysis
b. Melena
c. Hematochezia
d. Hematemesis
1. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue
infection?
a. Vomiting of blood
b. Herman’s sign
c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure
d. Abdominal pain with bone pain
1. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue?
a. Troponin
b. Platelet count
c. Liver Enzymes
d. Viral count
1. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue?
a. Administer Vitamin K.
b. Complete bed rest
c. Provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters.
d. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.
1. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is:
a. Below 150
b. Below 100
c. Below 50
d. Below 25
1. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management is aimed
to prevent such case:
a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children
b. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children
c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout
d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea
1. In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response?
a. Provide ice chips
b. Ice bag over the abdomen
c. Low fat, low fiber diet
d. Assume dorsal recumbent position
1. Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases?
a. Insecticide use
b. Health education
c. Hand washing
d. Contact tracing
1. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial cases:
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale
1. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the
country?
a. Anopheles litoralis
b. Anopheles flavistoris
c. Anopheles balabacensis
d. Anopheles mangyanus
1. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of
malaria?
a. Humans
b. Streams
c. Mosquito
d. Fly
2. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito?
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes
1. The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis:
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes
1. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a
particular period of time and not all through the disease process because:
a. During febrile stage toxins are present.
b. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.
c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.
1. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?
a. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.
b. It should be given before meals.
c. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed.
d. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.
1. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases:
a. Wuchureria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Brugia timori
d. Oncomelania quadrasi
1. The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except:
a. Region V
b. Region IX
c. Region X
d. Region XI
1. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum or
breast is known as:
a. Lymphedema
b. Lymphadenitis
c. Elephantiasis
d. Funiculitis
1. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects:
a. Corticosteroids / antihistamine
b. Penicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Amoxicillin
1. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is:
a. S. haematobium
b. S. mansoni
c. S. japonicum
d. S. schistosomium
1. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis?
a. Anicteric - septicemic and immune; icteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
b. Icteric – septicemic and immune; anicteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
c. Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric – septicemic and immune
d. Anicteric – septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune
1. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of the
following is incorrectly paired:
a. Blood – after 7 to 10 days
b. Urine – 7 days after
c. CSF – during the 10th day
d. Feces – 3rd day
1. Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis?
a. Use of rubber boots
b. Eradication of rats
c. Use of chemoprophylactic drugs
d. Water treatment
1. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases?
a. Information dissemination
b. Education provision
c. Communication
d. Hand washing