PMT MOCK TEST

Time – 3 Hours Max. Marks – 600

Instructions:
(i) The paper has three section Physics, Chemistry and Biology
(ii) The paper consists of 200 question.
(ii) For each correct response three marks will be awarded and for each incorrect response one
mark will be deducted.

1. Pressure is
(a) a scalar quantity (b) a vector quantity
(c) a tensor quantity (d) either scalar or vector
2. A man walks from A to C, C to D and D to B (as shown in figure). The magnitude
of displacement of man is 10 m. Find the total distance travelled by the man

(a) 10 m (b) 2 m
(c) 12 m (d) 7 m
r r
3. From Newton’s law of motion, F = ma Three forces (shown in figure) are acted
on the body of mass 0.8 kg. The magnitude of acceleration of the body is

(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 2 m/s2

(c) 1.6 m/s2 (d) none of these
4. If the system shown in the figure is in equilibrium then calculate the value of
weight W. Assume pulleys to be weightless and frictionless
 (a) 60 N (b) 120 N
(c) 150 N (d) 90 N
5. A car moves at 80 km/hr in the first half of total time of motion and at 40 km/h–1
in the later half. Its average speed is
(a) 60 km/hr (b) 30 km/hr
(c) 120 km/hr (d) none of these
6. If the acceleration of a particle is the function of distance as a = f(x). Then
(a) the velocity must be the function of displacement
(b) the velocity versus displacement graph cannot be a straight line
(c) the velocity may be the function of displacement
(d) the acceleration displacement graph may be straight line
7. An object is thrown upward with a velocity u, then displacement-time graph is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

8. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and
acceleration are
(a) parallel to each other
(b) inclined to each other at an angle of 45o
(c) anti parallel to each other
(d) perpendicular to each other
9. A particle is projected at an angle 60o with the horizontal with a speed 10 m/sec.
Then latus rectum is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
 (a) 5 m (b) 15 m
(c) 10 m (d) 0
10. To a person going toward east in a car with a velocity of 25 km/hr, a train appears
to move towards north with a velocity of 25 3 km/hr. The actual velocity of the
train will be
(a) 25 km/hr (b) 50 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 53 km/hr
11. Three identical blocks each of mass M are along a frictionless table and a force F
is acting as shown. Which of the following statement false?

(a) the net vertical force on block A is zero

(b) the net force on block A is F/3
(c) the acceleration of block C is F/3M
(d) the force of interaction between A and B is 2F/3
12. A body of mass m is hauled from the earth’s surface by applying a force
r
F = 2(ah − 1)mg
where a is positive constant and h is height from the earth’s surface
1
(a) at height h = the velocity of the body is maximum
2a ′
1
(b) at height h = the velocity of particle is zero
a′
(c) the motion of particle is oscillatory
(d) all the above are correct
13. Two weights W1 and W2 are suspended from the ends of a light string passing
over a smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up with acceleration g, the
tension in the string will be
4W1W2 2W1W2
(a) (b)
W1 + W2 W1 + W2
W1 − W2 W1W2
(c) (d)
W1 + W2 2(W1 − W2 )
14. A particle moves on a curved path with constant speed v. The acceleration of the
particle at x = 0 is 2av2. The path of particle is
 (a) straight line (b) parabolic
(c) elliptical (d) none of these
15. A bullet hits horizontally and gets embeded in a solid block resting on a
frictionless surface. In this process
(a) momentum is conserved
(b) kinetic energy is conserved
(c) both momentum and K.E. are conserved
(d) neither momentum nor K.E. is conserved
16. Two boys of masses 10 kg and 8 kg are moving along a vertical rope, the former
climbing up with acceleration of 2 m/s2 while later coming down with uniform
velocity of 2 m/s. Then tension in rope at fixed support will be (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 200 N (b) 120 N
(c) 180 N (d) 160 N
17. A rectangular plate of mass 20 kg is suspended from points A and B as shown. If
the pin B is suddenly removed, determine the angular acceleration (in rad/sec2) of
the plate

(a) 48 (b) 19.6

(c) 29.4 (d) 23.6
18. Mark correct option or options
(a) The centre of gravity may be coincided with centre of mass
(b) Due to movement of body, centre of gravity changes but centre of mass does
not change
(c) The centre of gravity must not be coincided with the centre of gravity
(d) The centre of gravity is always above the centre of mass
19. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. What is the period of
another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R?
(a) 4T (b) T/8
(c) T/4 (d) 8T
20. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/sec. If the
earth’s mass increases to twice its present value and radius of the earth becomes
half, the escape velocity becomes
(a) 5.6 km/sec (b) 11.2 km/sec
(c) 22.4 km/sec (d) 44.8 km/sec
21. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on the earth’s surface, and T2 when
taken to a height R above the earth’s surface, where R is the radius of earth. The
T
value of 2 is
T1
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 2
22. A particle of mass m is allowed to oscillate near the minimum of a vertical
parabolic path having the equation x2 = 4ay. The angular frequency of small
oscillations is given by

(a) gh (b) 2gh

⎛ g ⎞ ⎛g⎞
(c) ⎜ ⎟ (d) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2a ⎠ ⎝a⎠
23. Which of the following cannot represent a travelling wave?
(a) y = a cos(ωt + kx) (b) y = a cos(ax + bt)
(c) y = A sin(x – vt) (d) y = f(x2 – vt2)
24. A sonometer wire 65 cm long, is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency f. If
the length of the sonometer wire is increased by 1 cm and it is vibrated with the
same tuning fork, 8 beats are heard per second. The value of f is
(a) 256 Hz (b) 512 Hz
(c) 260 Hz (d) 520 Hz
25. In the case of vibration of closed end organ pipe in fundamental mode of
vibration, the pressure is maximum at
(a) open end (b) closed end
(c) at middle (d) none of these
26. A thermodynamic cycle of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. Choose the correct
option which represents the same cycle
 (a) (b)

(c) (d)

27. The propagation of heat in vacuum take place by

(a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) none of these
28. On a plane mirror, a ray of light is incident at an angle of 30o with horizontal. The
make the reflected ray vertical, at what angle with horizontal must a plane mirror
be placed

(a) 30o (b) 60o

(c) 45o (d) 54o
29. Images in spherical mirrors suffer from several defects. Some of which is/are
(a) diffraction effect
(b) the magnification varies with the distance of the object from mirror
(c) a point source will not produce a point image
(d) all of the above
30. A point object P is placed at centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal
length 25 cm. The mirror is cut into two halves and shifted symmetrically 1 cm
apart in perpendicular to the optical axis. The distance between images formed by
both parts is
(a) 2 cm (b) 1 cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm
31. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) the lens has two principal foci, but may have one focal length
 (b) a single lens can never bring a beam of white light to a point focus
(c) a brings glass light rays to same focus as heat radiation
(d) (a) and (b) are correct
32. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air an then in water will
(a) increase in water with respect to air
(b) increase in air with respect to water
(c) decrease in water with respect to air
(d) remain the same
33. How many image are formed by the lens shown, if an object is kept on its axis

(a) one (b) two

(c) three (d) four
34. Interference fringes are obtained in Young’s double slit experiment on a screen.
Which of the following statement will not be correct about the effect of a thin
transparent plate when placed in the path of one of the two interfering beams?
(a) The separation between fringes remains unaffected
(b) The entire fringe system shifts towards the side on which the plate is placed
(c) The condition for maxima for odd multiple of λ/2 and minima for even
multiple of λ/2
(d) The shape of the fringe also remains unaffected
35. In Young’s double slit experiment with monochromatic light of wavelength 600
nm, the distance between slits is 10–3 m. For changing fringe width by 3 × 10–5 m
(a) the screen is moved away from the slits by 5 cm
(b) the screen is moved by 5 cm towards the slits
(c) the screen is moved by 3 cm towards the slits
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct
36. Which of the following phenomenon can be used to analyse a beam of light into
its component wavelength?
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction
(c) Polarisation (d) Interference
37. A point charge Q is placed at the centre of a circular wire of radius R having
charge q. Find the force of electrostatic interaction between point charge and the
wire
 qQ
(a) (b) zero
4πε0 R 2
q2
(c) (d) none of these
4πε0 R
38. In the diagram shown electric field intensity will be zero at a point

(a) between –q and +2q charge

(b) on the RHS of +2q charge
(c) on the LHS of –q charge
(d) no where on the line
39. A semicircular wire of radius a having λ as charge per unit length is shown in the
figure. Find the electric potential at the centre of the semicircular wire

λ λ
(a) (b)
ε0 4πε 0 R
λ
(c) (d) none of these
4ε 0
40. In the given figure, the equivalent capacity between A and B is

(a) 3C (b) C/3

(c) 3/2C (d) infinity
41. Three identical capacitors are connected together differently. For the same voltage
to every combination, the one that stores maximum energy is
(a) the three capacitors in series
(b) the three capacitors in parallel
(c) two capacitors in series with third capacitor in parallel with it
(d) two capacitor in parallel with the third capacitors in series with it
42. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit. Each resistance is of 1Ω

(a) 3/2 A (b) 5/3 A

(c) 7/5 Ω (d) 8/7 Ω
43. The current through the 5Ω resistor is

(a) 2A (b) 4A
(c) 0 (d) 1A
44. A charged particle follows a helical path of unequal pitch in a magnetic field. This
means that
(a) the magnetic field is non-uniform
(b) the velocity vector is not parallel to the magnetic field
(c) the velocity vector is not perpendicular to the magnetic field
(d) all of the above
45. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of
coils depend upon
(a) the currents in the two coils
(b) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
(c) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(d) the materials of the wires of the coils
46. At resonance, in circuit

(a) the power factor is zero

(b) the current through the A.C. source is zero
(c) the current through the A.C. source is maximum
(d) currents through L and R are equal
47. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Material wave (de Broglie wave) can travel in vacuum
(b) Electromagnetic wave can travel through vacuum
(c) The velocity of photon is not the same whether light passes through any
medium
(d) Wavelength of de Broglie wave depends upon velocity
48. Einstein’s phtoelectric equation states that Ek = hv – φ. In this equation Ek refers
to
(a) Kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
49. The depletion layer in a p-n junction diode consists of layer of
(a) positively charged donors on the p-side and negatively charged acceptors on
the n-side
(b) negatively charged donors on the p-side and positively charged acceptors on
the n-side
(c) positively charged donors on the n-side and negatively charged acceptors on
the p-side
(d) negatively charged donors on the n-side and positively charged acceptors on
the p-side
50. When we apply reverse bias to a junction diode it,
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raises the potential barrier
(c) greatly increase the minority carrier current
(d) greatly increase the majority carrier current
51. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH = 5.4 will be
(a) 3.98 × 10–6 (b) 3.68 × 10–6
(c) 3.88 × 106 (d) 3.98 × 108
52. Based on kinetic theory of gases following laws can be proved
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) All of these
53. Number of atoms in the unit cell of Na (bcc type crystal) and Mg (fcc type
crystal) are, respectively
(a) 4, 4 (b) 4, 2
(c) 2, 4 (d) 1, 1
54. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of
an atom?
 (a) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 (b) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (d) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
55. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f
orbital?
(a) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + 1/2 (b) n = 4, l = 4, m = – 4, s = + 1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + 1/2 (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = + 1/2
56. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic
species?
(a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (b) N3–, F–, Na+
(c) Be, Al3+, Cl– (d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br–
57. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon
(a) charge on the ion and size of the ion
(b) packing of ions only
(c) size of the ion only
(d) charge on the ion only
58. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure?
(a) XeF4 (b) SF4
(c) BF4− (d) [Ni(CN)4]2–
59. The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are
respectively
(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3
(c) sp3 and sp2 (d) sp3 and sp3
60. Select correct statement.
(a) When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place
(b) Pure H2O does not contain any ion
(c) A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
(d) HF is less polar than HBr
61. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process.
(a) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is
positive
(b) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(c) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
(d) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity
62. Consider the reaction : N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 carried out at constant temperature and
pressure. If ΔH and ΔE are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the
reaction, which of the following expressions is true?
(a) ΔH > ΔE (b) ΔH < ΔE
 (c) ΔH = ΔE (d) ΔH = 0
63. The standard enthalpy of formation (ΔHof) at 298K for methane, CH4(g) is –74.8
kJ mol–1. The additional information required to determine the average energy for
C–H bond formation would be
(a) the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon
(b) latent heat of vaporisaton of methane
(c) the first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron gain enthalpy of
hydrogen
(d) the dissociation energy of hydrogen molecule, H2
64. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
(a) different boiling point and different freezing point
(b) same boiling point and same freezing point
(c) same freezing point but different boiling point
(d) same boiling point but different freezing point
65. Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner.
480 mL of 1.5 M first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution
What is the molarity of the final mixture?
(a) 2.70 M (b) 1.34 M
(c) 1.50 M (d) 1.20 M
66. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature?
(a) Molarity (b) Molality
(c) Mole fraction (d) Weight fraction
67. Four species are listed below
(i) HCO3− (ii) H 3O +
(iii) HSO −4 (d) HSO3 F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)\
–
68. What is the conjugate base of OH ?
(a) O 2− (b) O–
(c) H2O (d) O2
69. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its
solubility product will be
(a) 4 × 10–15 (b) 4 × 10–10
(c) 1 × 10–15 (d) 1 × 10–10
70. In a cell that utilises the reaction
 Zn(s) + 2H + (aq) → Zn 2+ (aq) + H 2 (g)
addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will
(a) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left
(b) lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right
(c) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the right
(d) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the left
71. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(b) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(c) Ca(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → CaCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O
(d) 2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn → 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4]
72. Consider the following reactions at 1100oC
(I) 2C + O2 → 2CO, ΔGo = –460 kJ mol–1
(II) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO, ΔGo = –360 kJ mol–1
Based on these, select correct alternate.
(a) zinc can be oxidised by CO
(b) zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
73. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as
k = Ae − E/RT
In this equation, E represents
(a) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(b) the energy below which colliding molecules will not react
(c) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T
(d) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the
reaction
74. In respect of the equation k = Ae − Ea /RT in chemical kinetics, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(a) k is equilibrium constant (b) A is adsorption factor
(c) Ea is energy of activation (d) R is Rydberg constant
d[C]
75. For a reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by + = k[A][B] , hence the order of
dt
the reaction is
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
76. In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property
indicated against it?
(a) Li < Na < K < Rb: Increasing metallic radius
(b) I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
(c) B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy
(d) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– : Increasing ionic size
77. Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the
strongest oxidising agent?
(a) Electron affinity (b) Ionisation enthalpy
(c) Hydration enthalpy (d) Bond dissociation energy
78. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements
is related to their
(a) atomic masses (b) nuclear masses
(c) atomic numbers (d) nuclear-proton number ratios
79. Heating of an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to dryness will give
(a) Al(OH)Cl2 (b) Al2O3
(c) Al2Cl6 (d) AlCl3
80. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
(a) HI > HCl > HF > HBr (b) HCl < HF > HBr < HI
(c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (d) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
81. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the
lanthanoids. This is because
(a) the 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals
(b) there is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of the wave
function
(c) the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
(d) the 5f orbitals extend farther from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals
82. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?
(a) [Co(CN)6]3– (b) [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
(c) [ZnCl4]2– (d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
83. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an
excess of dilute nitric acid?
(a) Cr3+ and Cr2 O 72− are formed
(b) Cr2 O 72− and H2O are formed
(c) CrO 24− is reduced to + 3 state of Cr
(d) None of the above
84. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is chiral?
(a) Twist boat (b) Rigid
(c) Chair (d) Boat
85. The absolute configuration of

(a) S, S (b) R, R
(c) R, S (d) S, R
86. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
(a) isopropylmethyl ketone (b) 2-methyl-3-butanone
(c) 4-methylisopropyl ketone (d) 3-methyl-2-butanone
87. Following types of compounds (as, I, II)
(I) CH 3CH = CHCH 3 (II) CH 3 − CH − OH
|
CH 2 CH 3

are studied in terms of isomerism in

(a) chain isomerism (b) position isomerism
(c) conformers (d) stereoisomerism
88. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring
(a) activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution
(b) renders the ring basic
(c) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution
(d) deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution
89. HBr reacts with CH 2 = CH − OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room
temperature to give
(a) CH3CHO and CH3Br (b) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
(c) BrCH2–CH2–OCH3 (d) H3C–CHBr–OCH3
90. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point?
(a) n-butane (b) 1-butyne
(c) 1-butene (d) Isobutene
91. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This
is due to
(a) dipolar character of ethers
(b) alcohols having resonance structures
(c) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
 (d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
92. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
(a) benzophenone (b) acetophenone
(c) benzoic acid (d) benzyl alcohol
93. Picric acid is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
94. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for
separation of amines?
(a) Curtius reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Hofmann method (d) Hinsberg method
95. On heating benzyl amine with chloroform and ethanolic KOH, product obtained is
(a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzaldehyde
(c) Benzonitrile (d) benzyl isocyanide
96. Nylon threads are made up of
(a) polyvinyl polymer (b) polyester polymer
(c) polyamide polymer (d) polyethylene polymer
97. Monomers are converted to polymer by
(a) hydrolysis of monomers
(b) condensation reaction between monomers
(c) protonation of monomers
(d) None of the above
98. The correct order of mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is
(a) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+ (b) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(c) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ (d) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+
99. Orlon is a polymer of
(a) styrene (b) vinyl chloride
(c) acrylonitrile (d) butadiene and adipic acid
100. Which of the following reaction is given by only primary amines?
(a) Reaction with HONO (b) Reaction with chloroform and alc KOH
(c) Reaction with acetyl chloride (d) Reaction with Grignard reagent
101. A broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from
(a) Usnea and Cladonia (b) Peltigera and Lobaria
(c) Cetraria and Parmelia (d) Rocella and Lecanora
102. Noctiluca is famous for
(a) Holozoic nutrition (b) Syngamy results in a diploid zygote
(c) Bioluminescene (d) Photophosphorescence
103. Saccharomycodes ludwigii is ____
(a) Budding yeast (b) Fission yeast
(c) Helobial yeast (d) Baker’s yeast
104. Which one of the following shows pendulum like movement?
(a) Fallen star (b) Oscillatoria
(c) Pandorina (d) Volvox
105. Flag smut of wheat is caused by _____
(a) Ustilago tritici (b) Ustilago kolleri
(c) Urocystis tritici (d) Ustilago avenae
106. Calvacin, a substance obtained from Calvatia is used against ____
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS
(c) Whooping cough (d) Tuberculosis
107. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
1. Sphagnum (i) Hair cap moss
2. Polytrichum (ii) Green moss
3. Pogonatum (iii)Golden Maiden hair moss
4. Funaria (iv) Turf moss
(a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii) (b) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(iii), 4 (ii)
(c) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) (d) 1(i), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(ii)
108. Thallus of which of the following bryophyte is not differentiated into
photosynthetic and storage region?
(a) Anthoceros (b) Riccia
(c) Marchantia (d) More than one is correct
109. Resistant nature of bacterial endospores is due to
(a) Thick wall and high water content
(b) Low water content and presence of dipicolinic acid
(c) Presence of diaminopemellic acid and thick wall
(d) Active enzymes and high NAG and NAM
110. Find odd one (w.r.t. taxon)
(a) Mushroom (b) Yeast
(c) Earthworm (d) Mosses
111. All given statements are wrong regarding biological N2 fixation, except
(a) Leghemoglobin maintains the oxygenated environment for activity of
nitrogenase
(b) Only legumes show symbiotic N2 fixation
(c) Nitrogenase is synthesized by nif genes of plant
(d) Fixation requires anaerobic form of Rhizobium called bacteroid
112. Development of sporangium is eusporangiate in which of the following
pteridophyte?
(a) Azolla (b) Salvinia
(c) Equisetum (d) Selaginella
113. In which of the following pteridophyte sporangia are not present inside
sporocarps?
(a) Marsilea (b) Salvinia
(c) Azolla (d) Selaginella
114. In which of the following pteridophyte stele is not ectophloic siphonostele?
(a) Osmunda (b) Schizaea
(c) Adiantum (d) Equisetum
115. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) The root of Dryopteris shows exarch and diarch condition
(b) Leaves of Dryopteris are bipinnately compound
(c) Binucleate NCC in archegonium is present in male shield fern
(d) Wall of antheridium of Dryopteris is made-up of 5 cells
116. Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) Cupressus is commonly called as Monkey’s puzzle
(b) Chilgoza are obtained from all species of Pinus
(c) Wood of Cycas is monoxylic
(d) The number of microsporangia on a single microsporophyll of Cycas is 900 –
1000
117. Syndetochelic stomata are present in
(a) Ginkgo (b) Ephedra
(c) Gnetum (d) Pinus
118. Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) The foliage leaves of Pinus are circular
(b) Pinus is heterosporous diecious plant
 (c) Pinus wood in pycnoxylic and homoxylous
(d) The archegonium of Pinus contains both venter and neck canal cells
119. Nonyclic photophosphorylation is different from cyclic photosphorylation in
which one of the following?
(a) More common occurence in photosynthetic monerans
(b) Production of both ATP and NADPH + H+
(c) External donor of e– as PS-1
(d) Operation under low CO2 and anaerobic conditions
120. When the plant grows horizontally for some distance and then rises upward, it is
regarded as
(a) Procumbent (b) Decumbent
(c) Deliquescent (d) Diffuse
121. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
1. Etaerio of berries (i) Anona
2. Etaerio of drupes (ii) Rubus
3. Etaerio of achenes (iii)Ranunculus
4. Sorosis (iv) Pineapple
(a) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(iii), 4(ii) (b) 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4 (i)
(c) 1(i), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(iv) (d) 1(i), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4(iv)
122. Basal and parietal placentation are observed in the respective families
(a) Poaceae and Cucurbitaceae
(b) Cucurbitaceae and Poaceae
(c) Poaceae and Malvaceae
(d) Compositae and Liliaceae
123. Which of the following group contains winged seeds and winged fruits
respectively?
(a) Fraxinus and Oroxylum (b) Moringa and Cinchona
(c) Moringa and Hiptage (d) Holoptelea and Cinchona
124. Which of the following is an example of geocarpy?
(a) Bauhinia (b) Arachis
(c) Eichhornia (d) Clitoria
↑
125. Floral formula Br % O K (5) C1+ 2+ (2) A1+ (9) G1 belongs to the family
+
(a) Caesalpinoideae (b) Mimosoideae
(c) Papilionaceae (d) Cucurbitaceae
126. Which of the following group of plants belong to the family liliaceae?
 (a) Yucca, Dracena, Colchicum
(b) Yucca, Smilax, Trigonella
(c) Dracena, Tulipa, lberis
(d) Lily, Allium, Avena
127. A lens-shaped mass of tissue and a somewhat raised corky spot where the
underlying cells break through the epidermis, is called
(a) Knot (b) Lenticel
(c) Hydathode (d) Polyderm
128. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(a) The fusiform initials give rise to secondary phloem and secondary xylem
(b) Ray initials produce secondary medullary rays
(c) A wood that lacks vessels is called as non porous
(d) Both spring wood and autumn wood are observed in the wood of
monocotyledons
129. CAM plants are succulent in habit, and show separation of photosynthetic
process. These show night fixation of CO2 in _______
(a) Diurnal, mesophyll cells
(b) Spatial, bundle sheath cells
(c) Spatial, mesophyll cells
(d) Diurnal, bundle sheath cells
130. In stem of Cucurbita the vascular bundles are
(a) Amphivasal (b) Amphicribal
(c) Collateral (d) Bicollateral
131. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The lateral roots arise from the layer present just outside the pericycle
(b) An abscission layer appears in a leaf between petiole and lamina
(c) The vascular bundles are arrangd in rings in stem of Oryza
(d) The hypodermis in dicot stem is sclerenchymatous
132. By habit the angiospermic plants of Monotrapa are
(a) Parasites (b) Saprophytes
(c) Semi parasties (d) Facultative parasites
133. The enzyme phosphofructokinase is activated by
(a) Mn++ (b) Fe++
(c) Mg++ (d) Cu++
134. In which of the following step decarboxylation does not occur?
(a) Conversion of pyruvic acid to Acetyl Co-A
(b) Conversion of oxalosuccinic acid converted to α-ketoglutaric acid
 (c) Conversion of fumaric acid to Malic acid
(d) Conversion of α-ketoglutarate to Succinyl Co-A
135. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
1. Triple response Test (i) Cytokinins
2. Avena curvature Test (ii) Gibberellins
3. α-amylase activity Test (iii)Auxins
4. Chlorophyll preservation Test (iv) Ethylene
(a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) (b) 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4 (i)
(c) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(i) (d) 1(i), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(ii)
136. Which of the following is not true for ethylene?
(a) Induces flowering in Pine apple
(b) Induces maleness
(c) Induces sleep disease in some bloosomed flowers
(d) Promotes transverse growth and inhibits longitudinal growth
137. Which of the following is not true for C4 plants?
(a) More efficient CO2 fixer
(b) Do not show oxygen inhibition of photosynthesis
(c) Posses monomorphic chloroplasts
(d) CO2 compensation point is 0 – 10 ppm
138. The hair like appendages present on the flagella are called as
(a) Axonemes (b) Mastigonemes
(c) Ramenta (d) Trichomes
139. Which of the following is not long-day plant?
(a) Beta vulgaris (b) Spinach
(c) Chrysanthemum (d) Poppy
140. Root pressure was termed by Stephan Hales for a
a. Positive hydrostatic pressure
b. Pressure developed in xylem vessels due to active accumulation of solute
c. Factor responsible for guttation and bleeding
(a) All are correct (b) Only c is incorrect
(c) Only b is correct (d) Both a and c are incorrect
141. Seed dormancy due to immaturity of embryo is observed in
(a) Ginkgo biloba (b) Nicotiana tobaccum
(c) Tomato (d) Phlox
142. Select the incorrect match
 (a) Evident plasmolysed cell – DPD = OP
(a) Negative tension – Dixon and Jolly
(c) Guard cell – Flux of H′
(d) Sugar translocation – Bidirectional
143. Match the following elements to their specific category/function
Column – I Column – II
1. Zn (i) Non mobile element
2. Ca (ii) Pyruvate kinase activity
3. K+ (iii)Mobile element
4. Mg (iv) Alcohol dehydrogenase activity
(a) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(iv), 4(i) (b) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4 (iii)
(c) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) (d) 1(iii), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iv)
144. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Chitin is present in the cell wall of slime moulds
(b) Suberin turns yellow when treated with KOH
(c) Golgi complex was first observed in nerve cells
(d) Peroxisomes are absent in algae and yeast
145. Plants showing light induced efflux of CO2 are also characterised by
(a) Presence of Rubisco in mesophyll cytoplasm
(b) Requirement of 5 ATP and 2 NADPH + H+ to fix a CO2 molecule
(c) CO2 fixation once, only in mesophyll cells
(d) Absence of Warburg effect
146. Centrioles move to their respective poles during
(a) Prophase (b) G2 phase
(c) G1 phase (d) Metaphase
147. Which of the following is known as protein factories?
(a) Palade’s particle
(b) F0 – F1 particle
(c) Organelle associated with xenobiotics
(d) Lysosome
148. Isidia are known for carrying out
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Gaseous exchange
149. Each sporangium of acellular slime moulds is surrounded by a hard and brittle
wall-like layer, called as
(a) Theca (b) Capsule
 (c) Peridium (d) Peridinium
150. Which of the following is demerit of Bentham and Hooker’s system of
classification?
(a) Position of gymnosperms between dicots and monocots
(b) Position of Ranales
(c) Monocots are considered advance
(d) Monocots are divided into 7 series
151. Allantoin, used for healing wounds, is produced by maggots of
(a) Spanish fly (b) Stone fly
(c) Deer fly (d) Red ants
152. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) Members of class anthozoa show alternation of generation
(b) Hydra shows locomotion by gustatoreceptors and walking
(c) Amphid of Ascaris are gustatoreceptors while phasmids are chemoreceptors
(d) Permanent gonads are not present in Nereis
153. Mark the incorrect combination
(a) Hectocotylized arm – Octopus
(b) Radula – Pila
(c) Glochidium – Gastropoda
(d) Nauplius – Crustacea
154. Which of the following has mesodermal skeleton and enterocoelous coelom?
(a) Echinocardium (b) Echinococcus
(c) Coccinella (d) Chiton
155. Which of the infections is more prevalent in rural areas as people move
barefooted and hygiene is neglected?
(a) Taeniasis (b) Ancyclostomiasis
(c) Filariasis (d) Dracunculiasis
156. The infective stage of Plasmodium is a minute sickle shaped sporozoite which are
inoculated in thousands in human blood. After how much time, these disappear
from blood stream and can be detected in parenchymatous cells of liver?
(a) 1 hour (b) 1/2 an hour
(c) 1 day (d) 1 week
157. Mark the correct statement
(a) All urochordates have vanadocytes to extract vanadium from sea water
(b) Closed circulatory system is present in hemichordates consisting of dorsal and
ventral blood vessels
 (c) Heart is placed obliquely and shows periodic reversal of blood flow in
urochordates
(d) Heart is absent in cyclostomata
158. Which will not be included in osteichthyes?
(a) Crossopterygii (b) Choanichthyes
(c) Holocephali (d) Dipnoi
159. Ribs and sternum developed first in which vertebrates?
(a) Mammals (b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles (d) Aves
160. Which of the following reptiles shows metachrosis, is ovoviviparous and with
prehensile tail?
(a) Hemidactylus (b) Heloderma
(c) Chameleon (d) Varanus
161. In poisonous snakes, two maxillary teeth, called poison fangs, are large, ground
and curved. They are connected internally by poison glands, which are modified
(a) Parotid glands (b) Cutaneous glands
(c) Sublingual (d) Both (b) and (c)
162. Which character is not true of metatherians?
(a) They are oviparous
(b) Both vagina and uterus are double
(c) Penis is generally bifurcated and scrotum lies in front
(d) Anus and urinogenital aperture are distinct, controlled by same sphincter
163. Bones can grow from outside and inside, growth is bidirectional. The growth of
bone is due to
(a) Osteoblasts (b) Osteocytes
(c) Osteoclasts (d) Both (b) and (c)
164. Mark the incorrect combination (w.r.t. human)
(a) Broncho-tracheal ring – Calcified
(b) Pinna – Yellow elastic cartilage
(c) Periosteum – White fibrous tissue
(d) Ligamenta flava – Yellow elastic tissue
165. Which cells of connective tissue contain peripheral clumps of heterochromatin,
giving cartwheel appearance to the nucleus?
(a) Plasma cells (b) Mast cells
(c) Fibroblasts (d) Histiocytes
166. Mark the correct combination
(a) Apocrine glands – Parotid gland
 (b) Merocrine glands – Axillary sweat gland
(c) Compound tubular glands – Milk gland of prototherians
(d) Simple tubular gland – Brunner’s gland
167. Increased count of RBC’s due to low O2 availability as at high altitude can be
attributed to
(a) Polycythemia (b) Squeezing of RBC’s from spleen
(c) Kidneys produce erythropoietin (d) All of these
168. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) In brain and spinal cord, distinct, neurilemma is absent
(b) Nodes of Ranvier may show axon branching or origin of collateral fibres
(c) Nonmyelinated nerve fibers are present in nerve terminals and autonomic
nervous system
(d) Oligodendrocytes form blood-brain barrier and myelin sheath around nerves in
CNS
169. Which of these does not fall in the category of glucosan?
(a) Cellulose (b) Starch
(c) Glycogen (d) Pectin
170. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) Linkage in glycogen is both α-1-4 and α-1-6 linkage between gluco-pyranose
units
(b) Linkage in cellulose is both β-1-4 and β-1-6 linkage between gluco-furanose
units
(c) Inulin shown β-2-1 linkage between fructofuranose units
(d) Trehalose is disaccharide made of two glucose residues and non-reducing
171. Mark the correct statement
(a) All lipids are fats
(b) Waxes are simple lipids
(c) N-acetyl galactosamine and sialic acid are components of both cerebrosides
and gangliosides
(d) High level HDL is linked to atherosclerosis
172. Mark the incorrect combination
(a) Fibroin – α-helix
(b) Glutelin – Oryzenin
(c) Metalloprotein – Ferritin
(d) Vibratile fibrous protein in sieve tubes – P-protein
173. The I.U.B. code of 3.4.23.1 would apply to which category of enzymes?
(a) Cleavage of substrate through addition of water in region of specific bond
 (b) Cleavage of substrate without hydrolysis on addition of groups to double
bonds
(c) Bonding of two chemicals with the help of energy from A.T.P.
(d) Rearrangement of molecular structure of effect isomeric changes
174. Mark the correct statement
(a) A low Ki reduces enzyme while high Ki increases enzyme activity
(b) A high Km indicates low affinity between substrate and enzyme while low Km
shows strong affinity
(c) Allosteric enzymes show typical Michaelis Menten behavior and classical
hyperbolic curve
(d) Most cellular enzymes show optimum activity at acidic pH
175. Cockroach bears three ganglia in the thorax. One in each segment, and six ganglia
in the abdomen. Mark the correct statement
(a) The abdominal ganglia are found in abdominal segment one to ten except 8th
(b) The abdominal ganglia are found in one to seven abdominal segments except
5th
(c) The sixth abdominal ganglia is present in 10th segment
(d) The last abdominal ganglia lies in 6th abdominal segment
176. To a curly haired mother and straight haired father 8 children are born. The ratio
of curly and straight haired will be
(a) 6 : 2 (b) 4 : 4
(c) 2 : 6 (d) 3 : 5
177. Tendency of genes to get inherited together is called
(a) differential inheritance (b) sex linkage
(c) linkage (d) cross-over
178. A tall plant on selfing produces tall and dwarf both what are the probabilities that
first offspring will be
(a) tall (b) away
(c) equal chance (d) data insufficient
179. The number of gametes produced by individual with genotype of aaBBCc are
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 6
180. Which one of the following individual can produce 16 different gametes?
(a) AaBbCcDd (b) AaBbccDDEeFf
(c) AaBbCcddEEFf (d) AaBbCcDDEeFf
181. Which one of the following crosses shows 3 : 1 ratio?
(a) AaBb × AaBb (b) aabb × AABb
(c) Aabb × Aabb (d) AaBb × aabb
182. Thalassemia is a genetic anaemia and resembles with
(a) sickle cell syndrome (b) alkaptonuria
(c) phenylketonuria (d) Albinism
183. 23 pairs of chromosomes can give rise to how many combinations?
(a) 8.6 million (b) 7.6 million
(c) 6.6 million (d) 5.6 million
184. To make a karyotype, chromosome are photographed during
(a) Fertilization (b) Mitosis
(c) Meiosis (d) s-phase
185. Baldness is a trait which is
(a) Sex linked (b) Sex influenced
(c) Sex limited (d) Autosomal
186. Sex linked characters are mostly
(a) Dominant (b) Recessive
(c) X-linked (d) Incompletely dominant
187. Turner’s syndrome is
(a) 44 + X0 (b) 44 + 0Y
(c) Both correct (d) None of these
188. A cell has 2n = 4 what is the probability of a sperm to have all 4 maternal
chromosomes
(a) 1 in 2 (b) 1 in 4
(c) 1 in 8 (d) 1 in 16
189. Frequency of an autosomal lethal gene is 0.4. Frequency of carrier in a population
of 200 individual is
(a) 72 (b) 96
(c) 104 (d) 36
190. Telomerase is a type of
(a) ligase (b) Topoisomerase
(c) Reverse transcriptase (d) DNA polymerase
191. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (X) number of chromosomes are
(a) n = 21 and X = 14 (b) n = 21 and X = 7
(c) n = 7 and X = 21 (d) n = 21 and X = 21
192. In E.coli DNA has 18% of bases of cytosine what fraction of adenine will be
present?
(a) 18% (b) 32%
(c) 36% (d) Data insufficient
193. Typhus fever is transmitted by
 (a) Body louse (b) Mosquito
(c) Bed bug (d) Housefly
194. The second abundant class of antibodies is
(a) IgA (b) IgD
(c) IgE (d) IgM
195. The accumulation of protein called amyloid β-peptide in human brain causes
(a) Addison’s Disease (b) Huntington’s discase
(c) Alzheimer’s Disease (d) Parkinson’s Disease
196. “Flavr Savr” is the transgenic variety of
(a) Wheat (b) Tomato
(c) Rice (d) Cotton
197. A strain of “golden rice” contains high contents of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin C
198. The transgenic food may cause
(a) Benign Tumour (b) Syphilis
(c) Allergies (d) None of these
199. The best method to protect genetic resonance is
(a) Gene library (b) Cloning of plants
(c) Cryo preservation (d) Multiplication
200. Bt is resistant to
(a) Virus (b) Adverse environmental condition
(c) Boll worm (d) Herbicide