Department of Education

Region III
DIVISION OF PAMPANGA
City of San Fernando

SECOND PERIODIC EXAMINATION in BIOLOGY
SY 2012-2013

Name:_____________________________ Year & Section: _______________________
Direction: Read each item carefully. Choose the correct answer and write the LETTER on the answer
sheet provided for:

1. The following are needed in the light phase of photosynthesis, EXCEPT:
A. Water B. chlorophyll C. light D. carbon dioxide

2. Aerobic respiration is the process that takes place in the presence of oxygen. The process of
obtaining energy in aerobic respiration can be represented in which of the following equations:
A. Glucose + oxygen ---- energy + carbon dioxide + water
B. Glucose----- energy + ethanol + carbon dioxide
C. Glucose----- energy + lactic acid
D. Glucose + oxygen ---- energy + lactic acid + water

3. The chloroplast is the photosynthetic unit in a plant cell where changes in the form of energy
occur. Energy changes in the chloroplast do the light reactions occur?
A. Stroma B. thylakoids C. stomata D. leaf

4. Calvin Cycle occurs even without light. At daytime, it takes place side by side with the light
reactions. Production of glucose from carbon dioxide during night is continuous as long as:
A. ATP from light reactions is present C. ATP, NADPH from light reactions are present
B. NADPH from light reactions is present D. ATP,NADPH, water from light reactions are present

5. Sugar cane used in making table sugar comes from the stem of the plant. Trace the path of sugar
molecules found in the stem where they are produced:
A. Leaf-stem B. flowers-root-stem C. stem-leaf-roots D. stem-root

6. Plants like katakata, rose, and malunggay can be propagated through their different parts. What
type of asexual reproduction in plants involve in the production of new species from organs like
stem, roots, and leaves?
A. Vegetative propagation B. grafting C. tissue culture D. stem cutting

7. Which energy conversion occurs in the process of photosynthesis?
A. Chemical energy to nuclear energy C. chemical energy top light energy
B. Light energy to chemical energy D. light energy to nuclear energy

8. How does a root hair differ from secondary root?
A. Root hairs originate from epidermis while secondary root originates from primary roots
B. Root hair is not even a cell while secondary root is made up of many cells
C. Root hair absorbs more water than secondary root
D. Root hair is larger than secondary root

9. The following are food molecules:
I. Sugars II. Proteins III. Fats and oils
Which are produced directly by photosynthesis?
II. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III






10. Which statement describes what happens during cytokinesis?
A. synthesizing enzymes for mitosis C. division of the nucleus
B. division of the cytoplasm D. cell size doubles

11. What makes it hard for plants to produce food in extreme temperatures?
A. Photorespiration is hindered
B. Stomata were closed which makes it impossible for them to collect carbon dioxide
C. Greenhouse effect prevents them
D. Light is not present in very hot and very cold regions

12. Which of the following will cause the process of respiration to stop?
A. Large amount of glucose C. absence of oxygen
B. Small amount of water D. presence of carbon dioxide

13. Which of the following food chains are in the food web?
A. Grasscowhumandecomposers C. grainsgoathumandecomposers
B. Grassdecomposersgrains D. grainsdecomposersgrasscow

14. Flowers of plants are of different types and colors which give brightness to the plants. Which of
the following characteristics describe that function in flowers?
A. They are structures in plants which are responsible for photosynthesis
B. They are structures meant for sexual reproduction in plants
C. They are important sources of organic materials like carbohydrates
D. They are important storages in the manufacture of food for plants

15. What makes it hard for plants to produce food in extreme temperatures?
A. Photorespiration is hindered
B. Stomata were closed which makes it impossible for them to collect carbon dioxide
C. Light is not present in very hot and very cold regions
D. Greenhouse effect prevents them

16. Glucose (sugar) is the food molecule which plants make. During photosynthesis, plants used
glucose as a source of energy. Besides sugar, all of the following groups of substances are
needed by plants EXCEPT:
A. Fats and oils B. Proteins and Vitamins C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide

17. In plants, photosynthesis occurs mainly within the leaves. It requires carbon dioxide, water and
sunlight. It may also be affected by the following EXCEPT:
A. Temperature C. light irradiance and wavelength
B. Carbon dioxide concentration D. oxygen concentration

18. The series of reactions in the Calvin Cycle involves the storage of chemical energy in glucose.
What raw materials from the environment go into the Calvin Cycle?
A. Water B. sunlight C. carbon dioxide D. glucose

19. Respiration, alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation are similar in using glucose as
their starting materials. They differ in their production of end products. Which of the following
are the end products of respiration?
A. Carbon dioxide, water, ATP C. lactic acid, ATP
B. Ethyl alcohol CO
2
and ATP D. glucose, CO
2
and water

For Numbers 20-21 Refer to the food chain below:
Producersherbivorescarnivorestop consumers
20. Eventually, what happens to all energy passed from one component to the next?
A. It recycles back to the producers
B. It is transformed to another food chain
C. It is dissipated in the environment in the form of heat
D. It all goes to the decomposer population






21. Which statement is CORRECT?
A. The producers are consumed by all the organisms in the upper trophic levels
B. The herbivores occupy the second trophic level
C. The carnivores are the first order consumers
D. Only the top consumers are macroconsumers

22. The table shows some requirement of product of two types of cellular respiration:
Process Requires O2 Amount of ATP
1 No low
2 Yes high
Which statement correctly identifies the types of respiration in the table above?
A. Process 1 and 2 are two different types of aerobic respiration
B. Process 1 and 2 are two different types of anaerobic respiration
C. Process 1 is anaerobic and process 2 is aerobic respiration
D. Process 1 is aerobic and process 2 is anaerobic

23. What function does chlorophyll play on photosynthesis?
A. It captures light energy C. it breaks down carbon dioxide
B. It breaks down water molecules D. it forms the ATP

24. Even after killing the generative cell with laser beam, the pollen grain of a flowering plant
germinates and produces normal pollen tube because:
A. Laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth
B. Laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges
C. The contents of the killed generative cell permit germination and pollen growth
D. The vegetative cell has not been damaged

25. Food chain in which microorganisms break down dead producers is called:
A. Consumer food chain C. detritus food chain
B. Predator food chain D. parasitic food chain

26. In an ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is:
A. Always erect C. inverted when number of producers exceeds consumer
B. Always inverted D. inverted when number of consumers exceeds producer

27. In the food chain,
Phytoplanktonsmall fishlarge fishman
What will happen if all the small fishes are removed from the pond?
A. Number of large fish will decline C. number of phytoplankton will decrease
B. Number of phytoplankton will increase D. both A and C

28. Assertion (A): The decomposers help in decomposing the dead bodies of plants and animals and
hence act as cleansing agent of the environment.
Assertion (R): The decomposers also help in putting back the various elements of which the
dead plants and animals are made.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

29. Which of the following combination(s) is/are TRUE?
A. Non living components: Abiotic components
B. Producer organisms: Biotic components
C. Consumer organisms: Biotic components
D. Decomposer organisms: Biotic components

30. In the absence of decomposers, functioning of ecosystem is adversely affected due to:
A. Blocking of mineral cycling C. blocking of solar energy to herbivores
B. Blocking of energy D. increase in the rate of decomposition to other components





31. What will happen if the ring of bark is removed in a tree?
A. Upward ascent of sap will be blocked
B. Upward translocation of solutes will stop
C. Downward translocation of solutes will stop
D. The movement of plant hormones will not occur

32. Oxidative phosphorylation produces:
A. ATP in photosynthesis C. NAD+H photosynthesis
B. ATP in respiration D. NAD + H respiration

33. In flowering plants, the pollen tube carries:
A. One male gamete nuclei C. three male gamete nuclei
B. Two gamete male nuclei D. four male gamete nuclei

34. The maximum rate of transpiration would be in:
A. Dry, hot windy condition C. moist, windy condition
B. Dry, cool and windy condition D. moist, hot and windy condition

35. In Glycolysis, ultimately:
A. Protein is converted into glucose C. glucose is converted into pyruvic acid
B. Glucose is converted into fructose D. starch is converted into glucose

36. All of the following groups are made up of both autotrophs and heterotrophs, EXCEPT:
A. Algae, moss, grass C. diatoms, fish seagull
B. Yeast, palay, corn D. plankton, shrimp, lapu-lapu

37. Which of the following defines ANAEROBIC respiration?
A. The process in which the respiration takes place in the absence of oxygen
B. The process in which the amount of water is less
C. The process in which the amount of water is more
D. The reaction in which the acid reacts with base to form salt

38. How many more ATPs are produced by electron transport phosphorylation (ETP) than by the
Krebs Cycle for one glucose molecule?
A. 30-ETP yields 32 ATP compared to 2 ATP from the Krebs Cycle
B. 30-ETP yields 34 ATP compared to 4 ATP from the Krebs cycle
C. 32-ETP yields 36 ATP compared to 4 ATP from the Krebs Cycle
D. 32-ETP yields 38 ATP compared to 6 ATP from the Krebs Cycle

39. Why is oxygen necessary for electron transport phosphorylation to occur in the mitochondria?
A. It combines with NADH to burn
B. It adds energy to the start of the reaction
C. It picks up the hydrogen at the end of the chain to form water
D. Without the removal of the electrons at the end of the chain, the chain will stop

40. Which of the following is NOT true about the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis?
A. The light reactions occurs at daytime
B. The light reaction needs chlorophyll molecules
C. ATP is a product of the light reaction
D. carbon dioxide is a raw material in the light reaction

41. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a food chain?
A. Chickencorn plantmonitor lizard C. ratrice plantsnake
B. Algaesnailsducks D. frogmanrice plant

42. Which of the following about trophic level is CORRECT?
A. A trophic level is based from a food web
B. It is the position that an organism holds in a food chain
C. It is an interconnected food chain
D. The lowest level is occupied by carnivorous plants



43. What part of the trophic level must have the greate3st number of organisms to support a food
chain?
A. Third level B. first level C. fourth level D. second level

44. Oxygen is one of the materials needed in respiration. Which particular stage of cellular
respiration requires oxygen?
A. Glycolysis C. electron transport in the mitochondria
B. Krebs cycle D. release of carbon dioxide from the mitochondrion

45. The parts of a photosystem that are able to trap light and transfer of energy to a complex of
chlorophyll molecules are proteins called the reaction center:
A. Mitochondria B. chloroplast C. nucleus D. electrons

46. Which of these statements are TRUE for both moss and fern plants?
A. They have dominant gametophytes and small sporophytes
B. They have dominant sporophytes and small gametophytes
C. They can live in dry habitats
D. They need water for the sperm cells to reach the egg cell

47. Which of the following does NOT occur in fermentation?
A. Energy is released C. sugar is broken down
B. Oxygen is formed D. carbon dioxide is produced

48. What would happen if there are no decomposers?
A. The nutrients needed by the plants will be used ip
B. The nutrients needed by the plants will be released
C. The nutrients needed by the plants will be stored
D. All of these

49. How does ATP supply energy to the cell?
A. Through breakage of high energy bonds
B. Through transfer of high energy bonds
C. Through the release from mitochondria
D. Through the NADPH

50. Parthenogenesis is defined as the development of:
A. Egg without fertilization C. fruits without fertilization
B. Synergids without fertilization D. fruits without pollination






























Department of Education
Region III
DIVISION OF PAMPANGA
City of San Fernando

SECOND PERIODIC EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE III
SY 2012-2013

Name: ________________________________ Year & Section: ____________________
Direction: Read each item carefully. Choose the correct answer and write the LETTER on the answer
sheet provided for:

1. Which of the following statements about an atom with atomic number of 14 is NOT true?
A. It contains 14 protons C. it contains 14 electrons
B. Its atomic weight is 14 D. its nuclear charge is 14

2. Which of the following does NOT describe Rutherfords Alpha Scattering experiment?
A. The material to be investigated is a thin gold foil
B. The alpha particles were used to bombard the foil
C. Most of the positive charges were centered on the nucleus
D. Cathode rays are converted to electrons using a fluorescent screen

3. Inter molecular forces are responsible for attractive or repulsive forces between molecules.
Which of the following shows the effect of intermolecular forces?
A. Water can dissolve different substances C. water boils at 100
o
C
B. Water with ions can conduct electricity D. hydrogen atoms combine with oxygen atoms

4. What is the smallest particle of the atom that can take part in the chemical reaction?
A. Atom B. electron C. molecule D. quark

5. Electrons are attracted to the nucleus. What will explain this?
A. The electron has a charge opposite to that of a nucleus
B. The nucleus is massive compared to the electron
C. There are positrons inside the nucleus that attract the electrons
D. There is much room in the nucleus for the electrons

6. What is true about elements belonging to the same family in the Periodic Table?
A. They have the same nucleons
B. they have the same valence electron configuration
C. They have the same electron configuration
D. they have the same number of occupied energy levels

7. Which factor can increase the size of the atom in a given group of the Periodic Table?
A. Increase in the number of proton C. increase in the number of energy levels
B. Increase I the number of valence electron D. increase in the atomic weight

8. The effective nuclear charge of an atom increases in going across the Periodic Table because:
A. The number of protons increases with increasing atomic radius
B. The number of electrons increases with an increase in the number of protons leading to the
expansion of atomic radius
C. The number of protons increases with decreasing atomic radius
D. The proton/electron ratio increases






9. Which of the following correctly describes a chemical formula?
A. It contains the number and kinds of elements
B. It contains the exact mass of the elements in a compound
C. It indicates the number of protons and neutrons
D. It indicates the positive and negative charge

10. The willingness of an atom to receive electrons is measured by its:
A. Electron affinity B. atomic size C. ionization potential D. electronegativity

11. Which of the following descriptions about the modern Periodic Table is TRUE?
A. The horizontal rows are called families C. the vertical columns are called period
B. The elements are arranged according D. the elements are arranged according
To decreasing atomic number to the increasing atomic number

12. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8, it indicates that there are :
A. 8 protons in the nucleus of an oxygen atom C. 8 oxygen nucleons
B. 8 neutrons outside the nucleus of oxygen atom D.8 energy levels moving about each
nucleus

13. Which of the following represents the intermolecular attractions listed in order from the
weakest to the strongest?
A. H-bondLondon forcesdipole-dipole C. London forcesdipole-dipoleH-bond
B. Dipole-dipoleLondon forcesH-bond D. H-bonddipole-dipoleH-bond

14. Which of the following properties is useful in determining the type of bond molecules formed?
A. Electron affinity B. ionization energy C. electronegativity D. atomic size

15. Adding sodium chloride to water will cause the:
A. Boiling point to rise and the freezing point to fall
B. Boiling point to fall and the freezing point to rise
C. Vapor pressure to rise and freezing point to rise
D. Vapor pressure to fall and freezing point to rise

16. Experimental data has been the impetus behind the creation and dismissal of physical models of
the atom. Which of the following models of atom elucidates that electrons are described not by
the paths they take, but by the regions where they are most likely to be found, and can explain
certain qualities of emission spectra for all elements?
A. Rutherfords model B. Bohrs model C. Schrodingers model D. Thomsons model

17. How many electrons must be gained by Cl, F, Br, I to achieve stable configuration?
A. 1 B.2 C. 3 D. 4

18. Which is the strongest type of bonding in a carbon-carbon bond?
A. Single B. double C. triple D. covalent

19. Polar molecules like CH
3
Cl and HF are formed in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A. When molecules of CH
3
Cl are electrically non-uniform or as a result of unsymmetrical shape
B. By two atoms of different elements
C. When the central atom is bonded to different substituent atoms
D. By two atoms of similar elements

20. Which statement is a simple ion?
A. This particle results when an atom gains or losses an electron
B. This particle results when a single atom losses electron
C. This particle contains more than one atom
D. This particle contains covalent molecule







21. Carborundum is formed from covalently bonded atoms of silicon and carbon. It has been used
as an abrasive material next to diamond. Why is it so?
A. It is more expensive than diamond C. it is less harder compare to diamond
B. It is cheaper than diamond D. it is used for all types of materials

22. Which of the following describes a metal?
A. Shiny, ductile, good conductor C. shiny, brittle, good conductor
B. Dull, ductile, good conductor D. shiny, ductile, non-conductor

23. In what way does a chlorine ion (Cl
-
) differ from Chlorine (Cl) atom?
A. The ion has more protons than the atom
B. The ion has more electrons than the atom
C. Ion has more tendencies to attract positive ion than the atom
D. Ion has more neutrons than the atom

24. Which particles are involved when two atoms combine to form compounds?
A. Protons in the nucleus C. electrons in the valence shell
B. Electrons in the nucleus D. electron in the innermost energy level

25. What type of bonds is formed in N
2
O
4
and what is the name of this compound?
A. Covalent, dinitrogen tetroxide C. Covalent, nitrogen tetroxide
B. Ionic, nitrogen oxide D. ionic, dinitrogen oxide

26. What is the Cation in the cells that is necessary for conduction of nerve impulses and muscle
contraction?
A. Copper B. iodine C. potassium D. sodium

27. Magnesium nitrate is an Ionic compound which contains polyatomic ions, which consists of
group of atoms having an electrical charge. The formula for magnesium nitrate is:
A. MgNO
3
B. Mg(NO
3
)
2
C. Mg
2
NO
3
D. Mg
2
(NO
3
)
3


28. How many electrons are gain/lost by magnesium and what is the charge on the ion that it
forms?
A. Losses 2 electrons to form a magnesium ion with a 2
-
charge
B. Gains 2 electrons to form a magnesium ion with a 2
-
charge
C. Losses 2electrons to form a magnesium ion with a 2
+
charge
D. Gains 2 electrons to form a magnesium ion with 2
+
charge

29. Within a family in a Periodic Table from top to bottom the:
A. Ionization energy increases and electronegativity decreases
B. Ionization energy increases and electronegativity increases
C. Ionization energy decreases and electronegativity increases
D. Ionization energy decreases and electronegativity decreases

30. Which of the following statements about chemical bonding is FALSE?
A. Energy is required to break any chemical bond
B. Energy must be released if two atoms are to form a chemical bond
C. A chemical occurs only if the potential energy is lowered
D. All chemical reactions require a transfer of electrons in forming new bonds

31. Chemistry in molecular electronic has demonstrated the use of a nano particles in providing high
density data storage. This is:
A. Ironplatinum B. nickelchromium C. silvercopper D. irongold
32. Which of the following serve as the basis for the arrangement of elements in the Periodic Table?
A. Increasing mass number C. increasing number of physical properties
B. Increasing atomic number D. increasing number of protons, electrons







33. To what group and period does an element with an electronic configuration of 1s
2
, 2s
2
, 2p
6
, 3s
2
,
3p
6
, 4s
2
, 3d
10
, 4p
2
?
A. Group IVA period 4 C. Group VIA period 3
B. Group VIA period 4 D. Group IIA period 4

34. The species
35
Br
80
contains:
A. 35 electrons and 45 protons C. 35 electrons and 45 neutrons
B. 45 protons and 35 neutrons D. 36 electrons and 46 neutrons

35. Which of the following methods would be most useful for describing atoms?
A. Visualizing with a microscope C. touching with bare hands
B. Constructing a model D. observing in a test tube

36. From left to right, what is the order of zones in the periodic table?
A. Semi-metals, metals, nonmetals C. metals, semi-metals, nonmetals
B. Metals, nonmetals, semi-metals D. non metals, semi-metals, metals

37. According to the Periodic Table, Iodine will have similar physical and chemical properties to
which of the following elements?
A. Carbon B. Oxygen C. Sodium D. Bromine

38. Which of the following is NOT true of the elements in Group 8 or Group O?
A. They are all nonmetals C. their outer energy levels is complete
B. They include the noble gases D. they are all metalloids

39. A double bond is one in which:
A. An atom loses two pairs of electrons to another electrons
B. Atoms share two pairs of electrons
C. Two atoms are joined by sharing electrons
D. Three pairs of electrons are shared

40. Elements are created by artificial transmutations are called:
A. Synthetic elements B. alpha products C. isotopes D. degraded elements

41. What do lithium, sodium, and potassium have in common?(
3
Li
7
,
11
Na
23
,
19
K
39
)
A. They are all nonmetals C. they are all metalloids
B. They are all Group IA elements D. they have two electrons in their outer level

42. Hydrogen has an electronegativity of 2.20, fluorine an electronegativity of 3.98. What sort of
bond do they formed?
Electonegativity difference Bond Character
>1 mostly ionic
0.4---1.7 polar covalent
<0.4 mostly covalent
0 non polar covalent
A. mostly ionic B. polar covalent C. mostly covalent D. non-polar covalent

43. Which pair of elements will combine to form a compound with 1:1 ratio?
A. Magnesium & Chlorine B. Sodium & Oxygen C. Potassium & Chlorine D. calcium & Chlorine

44. Which of the following electronic configurations is most reasonable for an isolated Sulfur atom
in its ground state? (
32
S)
A. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
4s
2
3d
10
4p
2
C. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
x
2
3p
y
2
3p
z
0

B. 1s
2
, 2s
2
, 2p
6
, 3s
2
, 3p
x
2
,3p
y
1
, 3p
z
1
D. 1s
2
, 2s
2
, 2p
6
, 3s
2
, 3d
4











45. Of the following, which is arranged in order of increasing atomic size?
A. Cs, Mg, K, Na, Rb C. Na, K, Mg, Cs, Rb
B. Mg, Na, K, Rb, Cs D. Rb, Mg, K, Na, Cs

46. What is TRUE when a 2s orbital is compared to a 2p orbital?
A. They have the same shape and equal energy
B. They have different shapes but equal energy
C. They have the same valence electron configuration
D. They have the same number of occupied energy levels

47. Copper Chloride when heated emits blue light. What is the origin of the blue light?
A. The nucleus radiated energy
B. The electron loses energy as it moves around the nucleus
C. The electron absorbs energy as it jumps to a higher energy level
D. An excited electron loses energy as it returns to a lower energy level

48. What does the flame test prove about the inner structure of the atom?
A. The atom has a nucleus C. the nucleus has a positive charge
B. The electrons are outside the nucleus D. the electrons carry fixed or discrete energy

49. Pharmaceutical preparations that easily decomposed are kept in an atmosphere of inert gas.
Which gas would serve this purpose?
A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon Dioxide D. Nitrogen

50. Which of the following is NOT an evidence of the existing chemical change?
A. Water needs heat to evaporate C. scent perfume is detected from a distance
B. Force is needed to cut a cardboard D. water breaks into hydrogen and oxygen on electrolysis