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ATPL(A) Theory internal test

I. Air Law
1) Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in
aircraft?
A) Annex 18
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 16
D) Annex 17

2) Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:
A) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
B) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend
C) All states in the world attended
D) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending

3) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
A) develop principles and techniques for international aviation
B) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
C) approve new international airlines
D) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies

4) Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A) none of the above
B) Aerodromes
C) Facilitation
D) Security

5) What is the main aim of CFMU?
A) Issuing of licenses for ATC controllers
B) Manage the air traffic and flow in EUROCONTROL region
C) Issuing aerodrome slots

6) Are we able to fly VFR over the cloud tops without sight of surface?
A) Only in class F airspace
B) Only in class C airspace
D) No, always we should be clear of clouds and in sight of surface
D) Yes

7) Is EASA implementing the law?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Sometimes

8) Are Service Bulletins published by FAA?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only mandatory Sbs



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9) Which doc. describes operational procedures of general aviation aircrafts?
A) EU OPS 1
B) ICAO Annex 6
C) IR-OPS
D) OPS 1

10) Which document describes procedures for air navigation services?
A) Doc. 8168
B) Doc. 1178/2011
C) Doc. 965/2012
D) Doc. 4678


II. AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICAL, POWERPLANTS

11) What are the most frequent used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque
structure?
A) Steel.
B) Composite fibres.
C) Aluminium or magnesium alloy.
D) Wood.

12) What is a CSU?
A) CONTROL SHIFT UNIT
B) CONSTANT SPEED UNIT
C) CONTROL SPEED UPLOAD
D) CONTROLLED SEMI UHF

13) What happens to the engine if you loose alternator charging during flight?
A) Nothing
B) The engine will stop instantly
C) The engine will stop after the battery is used totally
D) Engine will stop after 30 min.

14) Two resistors with values of 6 Ohm and 100 Ohm are connected in parallel. Their
combined resistance is:
A) 5,66 Ohm.
B) 106 Ohm.
C) 0,177 Ohm.
D) 94 Ohm.

15) When the carburettor air intake is in HOT AIR the power output of the engine is
reduced because:
A) the mixture is richer
B) the density of the fuel charge entering the cylinders is decreased
C) the density of the fuel charge entering the cylinders is increased
D) the mixture is lighter

16) The turbo-charger bearing is lubricated and cooled by:
A) its own internal self contained oil system

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B) a tapping in the scavenge oil system
C) a total loss system
D) the engine oil

18) Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:
A) pressurized air from the air conditioning system
B) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew
C) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit
D) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself

III. INSTRUMENTATION

19) Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form
of command bars on the following instrument:
A) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
B) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
C) ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
D) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.

20) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:
A) 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
B) 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
C) 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
D) 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

21) The pitot tube measures:
A) Static pressure
B) Total pressure
C) Dynamic pressure
D) Combined static pressure

22) The VOR uses:
A) UHF frequency range
B) SHF frequency range
C) VHF frequency range
D) VDF frequency range

IV. MASS AND BALANCE

23) The position of the centre of gravity can always be determined by:
A) subtracting the total moment from the total mass
B) dividing the total moment by the total mass
C) dividing the total mass by the total moment
D) subtracting the total mass from the total moment

24) If all the moments are positive when calculating mass (weight) and balance, the
position of the datum would be at the:
A) main wheels centreline
B) nose, or forward of the aircraft
C) trailing edge of the wing

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D) centre line of the nose or tail wheel depending on the aircraft type

25) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
A) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity
B) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity
C) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity
D) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity

26) The operating mass of an aircraft is:
A) The empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass
B) The dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass
C) The empty mass plus the trip fuel mass
D) The empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering

27) Traffic load is the:
A) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load
B) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass
C) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load
D) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass

29) (Refer to CAP696 figure 3-1)
Where is the reference datum?
A) all the above
B) 25.3 inches forward of the nose wheel
C) 78.4 inches forward of the wing leading edge at the inboard edge of the inboard
fuel tank
D) 109.8 inches forward of the main wheel


30) 125 USG of Avgas in Litres is?
A) 358 L
B) 473 L
C) 37 L
D) 460 L

V. PERFORMANCES


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31) Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A) At standard temperature
B) When the altimeter setting is 1013" Hg
C) When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter
D) When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg

32) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated
percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
A) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
B) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
C) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
D) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

33) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
A) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft
B) lift off speed
C) critical engine failure speed
D) take-off decision speed

34) What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
A) It has no effect on aeroplane performance
B) It decreases aeroplane performance
C) All of the above
D) It increases aeroplane performance

35) Which of the following relations is correct?
A) VS < VMCA < V2MIN
B) VMU < VMCA < V1
C) V2MIN < VMCA < VMU
D) VR < VMCA < VLOF

VI. FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING

36) How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 6600 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6000 ft
D) 7800 ft

37) Given the following:
True Course: 315
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots

What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)

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A) -6 / 425
B) +6 / 415
C) +6 / 425
D) -6 / 415

38) METAR EGPD 0850Z 10008TK 070V140 9999 SCT006 SCT010 BKN100 13/11
Q1011 TEMPO BKN006= ABERDEEN (EGPD) the group 070V140:
A) Indicates that the wind is gradually changing direction from 0700 to 1400, the
present direction being 100 (T)
B) Would only be given if the wind direction is fluctuating and the wind speed is more
than 5kt
C) Indicates that the extremes of wind direction were 070 to 140 during the
previous 10 minutes
D) Indicates that the wind is light and variable

39) (Refer to figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the limits of the
data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately:
A) +2.3%
B) -3.6%
C) +5.3%
D) +7.6%

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40) A twin engine aircraft is to fly from C to D:

Track 035 (T)
Distance 884 NM
W/V 135/45
2 engine TAS 220 Kts
1 engine TAS 185 Kts

If the ETD is 1100 Z the ETA at the 1 ENG INOP PET (CP) is:
A) 1254 Z
B) 1354 Z
C) 1334 Z
D) 1314 Z

VII. HUMAN PERFORMANCE

41) Having consumed a small amount of alcohol, the prudent pilot will not fly for a
minimum of ... hours
A) 12
B) 36
C) 8
D) 24

42) A flight crew licence holder has completed a two-day stay at a hospital. What
must he/she do before flying as a crewmember?
A) Wait until his/her common sense says that he/she is fit for flight.
B) Not fly before he/she is released by an AME.
C) Inform the authority in writing.
D) Seek advice of the authority or AME.

43) The normal rate of breathing is:
A) 12 to 16 cycles a minute.
B) 60 ti 100 cycles a minute
C) 20 to 30 cycles a minute
D) 32 to 40 cycles a minute.

44) What are the best visual cues for height during the round out?
A) horizon relative to the aircraft nose
B) velocity and the colour of passing objects
C) apparent speed and texture of ground objects
D) the horizon with respect to objects on the windscreen

45) The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:
A) a feeling that the aircraft has started to pitch up when the aircraft decelerates,
causing an automatic attempt to push the nose down
B) a combined pitch up and banking sensations
C) a banking sensation due to disturbances in the fluid circulation in the inner ear
D) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates
46) According to Jens Rasmussen, riding a bicycle is:

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A) skill based behaviour.
B) rule based behaviour not requiring conscious thought.
C) rule based behaviour requiring conscious thought.
D) knowledge based behaviour.

VIII. METEOROLOGY

47) How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A) Decreases North - South.
B) Decreases South - North.
C) It varies with longitude not latitude.
D) Constant.

48) The percent by volume of the gases to be found in the atmosphere is distributed
according to size as follows:
A) less oxygen than carbon dioxide.
B) more oxygen than nitrogen.
C) more nitrogen than oxygen.
D) less nitrogen than water vapour.

49) Which weather situation do you expect for LGAT at 1450 UTC?
A) 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =
B) 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =
C) 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 NOSIG =
D) 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =



50) In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

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A) Polar maritime air.
B) Polar continental air.
C) Tropical continental air.
D) Arctic maritime air.

51) Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
A) The release of latent heat.
B) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.
C) Unstable air.
D) Convection during the day.

52) Fallstreaks or virga are:
A) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation.
B) gusts associated with a well developed Bora.
C) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks.
D) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the
ground.

53) What cloud type is prone to +RA?
A) ST.
B) CC.
C) AS.
D) NS.

54) Which route is free of turbulence at Fl 340?
A) Zurich-Athens
B) Shannon-Hamburg
C) Rom-Berlin
D) Zurich-Rome

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55) There is a natural tendency for air to flow from areas of:
A) low pressure to high pressure.
B) flat terrain towards the sea.
C) high pressure to low pressure.
D) mountainous areas to flat areas.

IX. GENERAL NAVIGATION

56) The direction of the Earths rotation on its axis is such that:
A) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.
B) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
C) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.
D) An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when observing
sunrise.

57) A ground feature appears 30 to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an
airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355 (M) and the magnetic
variation is 15 East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:
A) 220
B) 310
C) 130
D) 160

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58) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.
Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The
minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
A) 59 NM.
B) 79 NM.
C) 69 NM.
D) 49 NM.

59) What is a heading?

60) What is a magnetic variation?

X. RADIO NAVIGATION

61) An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The alteration of
heading required to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is:
A) 020 Right.
B) 050 Right.
C) 030 Right.
D) 040 Right.

62) A VDF operates in:
A) UHF range
B) SHF range
C) The same range as VOR stations
D) i.e. 122,9 freq.

63) LOC uses
A) The same frequency as GS
B) The same range as VOR stations
C) Different frequency than GS

64) On the aeronautical chart, with VOR we add variation at:
A) Aircraft s position
B) VOR position
C) Between the VOR and aircraft
D) In relation to compass north

65) The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:
A) 163,842

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B) 161,842
C) 186,000
D) 300,000

XI. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

66) What is the minimum number of life saving jackets and individual floatation
devices, required on board of an aircraft:
A) One for each crew member and each seat fitted.
B) One for each woman and child.
C) One for each crew member and one for each passenger on board.
D) One for each person that does not have a seat in a life raft.

67) Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the
aeroplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy?
A) A JAA authorised person.
B) The commander.
C) The maintenance supervisor.
D) The operator.

68) It is recommended that first aid kits should be positioned:
A) out of sight to prevent panic.
B) in the galley area accessible to cabin staff only.
C) under passenger seats.
D) near exits.

69) The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
A) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
B) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority.
C) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
D) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer.

70) Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?
A) The final responsibility for acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests
ultimately with the Operator.
B) It draws attention to the possibility of further failures and their effects.
C) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the pilot.
D) The MEL allows aeroplanes to be flown with unserviceability which would
otherwise require immediate rectification.

XII. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

71) The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
A) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon..
B) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio.
C) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow.
D) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the
wing.


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72) Mean chord is equal to:
A) (tip chord + root chord) / 2.
B) mean aerodynamic chord.
C) wing span divided by wing area.
D) wing area divided by wing span.

73) In recovery from a spin:
A) rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin rotation.
B) ailerons should be kept neutral.
C) ailerons used to stop the spin.
D) airspeed increases.

74) Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A) At sea level in standard conditions (ISA).
B) Never.
C) If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
D) When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

75) The correct drag formula is:
A) D = CD 1/2 RHO V S
B) D = CD 1/2 1/RHO V2 S
C) D = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S
D) D = CD 2 RHO V2 S

XIII. COMMUNICATION

76) The abbreviation AIS stands for:
A) Airborne Identification System.
B) Attitude Inversion Selector.
C) Aeronautical Information Service.
D) Aerodrome Instrument Service.

77) In VHF communications the words:
A) OUT and OVER are not normally used.
B) STANDBY and VERIFY are not normally used.
C) GO AHEAD and I SAY AGAIN are not normally used.
D) OUT and ROGER are not normally used.

78) Clearance limit is defined as:
A) The height below which you will hit the first obstacle.
B) The time at which the ATC clearance expires.
C) The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance.
D) The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance

79) What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts?
A) DME voice channel.
B) Voice channel of an ILS.
C) NDB frequencies.
D) Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR.


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80) A waypoint is:
A) A geographical point at which a change of level takes place.
B) A designated reporting point.
C) A visual sign pointing the way.
D) A geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV).