Ii Mech Iv Sem QB 2013 2014 Even PDF

Dr.
NNCE
YEAR: II
S.N0.
SUBJECT
CODE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
SUBJECT NAME
SEM: IV
STAFF NAME
MA 2266
THEORY
Statistics and Numerical Method
ME 2251
PAGE
Mr.M.Ramkumar
Mr.M.Sudhakar
10
Heat and Mass Transfer
Mr.P.Lenin
24
ME 2252
Manufacturing Technology II
Mr.N.Ganesh
Mr.kalayarasan
47
ME 2253
Mr.EPM.Selvakanth
61
ME 2254
Engineering
Materials
Metallurgy
Strength of Materials
ME2255
Electronics and Microprocessors
and
Mr.K.V.Rajarajan
Mr.T.Vivek asalan
Mr.D.Baskar
Mr.DA.Raj
PRACTICAL
7
ME 2258
ME 2256
ME 2257
Manufacturing
Technology Mr.S.Salam
Laboratory II
Mr.V.Vignesh kumar
Strength of Materials Laboratory
Mr.K.V.Rajarajan
Mr.T.Vivek asalan
Computer Aided Machine Drawing Mr.Senthil kumar
Laboratory
Mr.Balamurugan
76
97
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
MA 2266
STATISTICS AND NUMERICAL METHODS
LT PC
UNIT I
TESTING OF HYPOTHES 9 + 3
3104
Sampling distributions - Tests for single mean, Proportion, Difference of means (large and small
samples) Tests for single variance and equality of variances chi-square test for goodness of fit
Independence of attributes.
UNIT II DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS 9 + 3
Completely randomized design Randomized block design Latin square design - 22 - factorial
design.
UNIT III SOLUTION OF EQUATIONS AND EIGENVALUE PROBLEMS 9 + 3
Newton-Raphson method- Gauss Elimination method Pivoting - Gauss-Jordan methods Iterative
methods of Gauss-Jacobi and Gauss-Seidel - Matrix Inversion by Gauss-Jordan method Eigenvalues of a matrix by Power method .
UNIT IV INTERPOLATION, NUMERICAL DIFFERENTIATION AND NUMERICAL
INTEGRATION 9 + 3
Lagranges and Newtons divided difference interpolation Newtons forward and backward
difference interpolation - Approximation of derivatives using interpolation polynomials - Numerical
integration using Trapezoidal and Simpsons 1/3 rules.
UNIT V NUMERICAL SOLUTION OF ORDINARY DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 9 + 3
Taylors series method - Eulers method - Modified Eulers method - Fourth order Runge- Kutta
method for solving first and second order equations - Milnes predictor-corrector methods for
solving first order equations - Finite difference methods for solving second order equation.
L = 45 T = 15 TOTAL = 60 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. R.A. Johnson and C.B. Gupta, Miller and Freunds Probability and Statistics for
Engineers, Pearson Education, Asia, 7th edition, 2007 (For units 3, 4 and 5).
2. Grewal, B.S. and Grewal,J.S., Numerical methods in Engineering and Science, 6th
Edition, Khanna Publishers, New Delhi, 2004.
REFERENCES:
1. R.E. Walpole, R.H. Myers, S.L. Myers, and K Ye, Probability and Statistics for
Engineers and Scientists, Pearson Education, Asia , 8th edition, 2007.
2 M.R. Spiegel, J. Schiller and R.A. Srinivasan, Schaums Outlines Probability and
Statistics, Tata McGraw Hill edition, 2004.
4. Chapra, S. C and Canale, R. P. Numerical Methods for Engineers, 5th Edition, Tata
McGraw-Hill, New Delhi, 2007.
5. Gerald, C. F. and Wheatley, P. O., Applied Numerical Analysis, 6th Edition,
Pearson Education Asia, New Delhi, 2006.
ME2251 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
LTPC
UNIT I CONDUCTION 11+3
3104
Basic Concepts Mechanism of Heat Transfer Conduction, Convection and Radiation Fourier
Law of Conduction - General Differential equation of Heat Conduction Cartesian and
Cylindrical Coordinates One Dimensional Steady State Heat Conduction Conduction through
Plane Wall, Cylinders and Spherical systems Composite Systems Conduction with Internal Heat
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Generation Extended Surfaces Unsteady Heat Conduction Lumped Analysis Use of Heislers
Chart.
UNIT II CONVECTION 10+3
Basic Concepts Heat Transfer Coefficients Boundary Layer Concept Types of Convection
Forced Convection Dimensional Analysis External Flow Flow over Plates, Cylinders and
Spheres Internal Flow Laminar and Turbulent Flow Combined Laminar and Turbulent Flow
over Bank of tubes Free Convection Dimensional Analysis Flow over Vertical Plate,
Horizontal Plate, Inclined Plate, Cylinders and Spheres.
UNIT III PHASE CHANGE HEAT TRANSFER AND HEAT EXCHANGERS 9+3
Nusselts theory of condensation-pool boiling, flow boiling, correlations in boiling and
condensation. Types of Heat Exchangers Heat Exchanger Analysis LMTD Method and NTU
Effectiveness Overall Heat Transfer Coefficient Fouling Factors.
UNIT IV RADIATION 8+3
Basic Concepts, Laws of Radiation Stefan Boltzman Law, Kirchoffs Law Black Body Radiation
Grey body radiation -Shape Factor Algebra Electrical Analogy Radiation Shields Introduction
to Gas Radiation
UNIT V MASS TRANSFER 7+3
Basic Concepts Diffusion Mass Transfer Ficks Law of Diffusion Steady state Molecular
Diffusion Convective Mass Transfer Momentum, Heat and Mass Transfer Analogy
Convective Mass Transfer Correlations
L = 45 T = 15 TOTAL = 60 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. Sachdeva R C, Fundamentals of Engineering Heat and Mass Transfer New Age
International, 1995.
2. Frank P. Incropera and David P. DeWitt, Fundamentals of Heat and Mass Transfer,
John Wiley and Sons, 1998.
REFERENCE BOOKS
1. Yadav R Heat and Mass Transfer Central Publishing House, 1995.
2. Ozisik M.N, Heat Transfer, McGraw-Hill Book Co., 1994.
3. Nag P.K, Heat Transfer, Tata McGraw-Hill, New Delhi, 2002
4. Holman J.P Heat and Mass Transfer Tata McGraw-Hill, 2000.
5. Kothandaraman C.P Fundamentals of Heat and Mass Transfer New Age
International, New Delhi, 1998
ME 2252 MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY II
LTPC
UNIT I THEORY OF METAL CUTTING 9
3003
Introduction: material removal processes, types of machine tools theory of metal cutting: chip
formation, orthogonal cutting, cutting tool materials, tool wear, tool life, surface finish, cutting
fluids.
UNIT II CENTRE LATHE AND SPECIAL PURPOSE LATHES 9
Centre lathe, constructional features, cutting tool geometry, various operations, taper turning
methods, thread cutting methods, special attachments, machining time and power estimation.
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MECH/IV SEM
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Capstan and turret lathes automats single spindle, Swiss type, automatic screw type, multi
spindle - Turret Indexing mechanism, Bar feed mechanism.
UNIT III OTHER MACHINE TOOLS 9
Reciprocating machine tools: shaper, planer, slotter - Milling : types, milling cutters, operations Hole making : drilling - Quill mechanism , Reaming, Boring, Tapping - Sawing machine: hack saw,
band saw, circular saw; broaching machines: broach construction push, pull, surface and
continuous broaching machines
UNIT IV ABRASIVE PROCESSES AND GEAR CUTTING 9
Abrasive processes: grinding wheel specifications and selection, types of grinding process
cylindrical grinding, surface grinding, centreless grinding honing, lapping, super finishing,
polishing and buffing, abrasive jet machining - Gear cutting, forming, generation, shaping, hobbing.
UNIT V CNC MACHINE TOOLS AND PART PROGRAMMING 9
Numerical control (NC) machine tools CNC: types, constructional details, special features
design considerations of CNC machines for improving machining accuracy structural members
slide ways linear bearings ball screws spindle drives and feed drives. Part programming
fundamentals manual programming computer assisted part programming.
TOTAL: 45 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. Hajra Choudry, Elements of Work Shop Technology Vol. II, Media Promoters.
2002
2. HMT Production Technology, Tata McGraw-Hill, 1998.
REFERENCES:
1. Rao, P.N. Manufacturing Technology, Metal Cutting and Machine Tools, Tata
McGrawHill, New Delhi, 2003.
2. P.C. Sharma, A Text Book of Production Engineering, S. Chand and Co. Ltd, IV
edition, 1993.
3. Shrawat N.S. and Narang J.S, CNC Machines, Dhanpat Rai & Co., 2002.
4. P.N.Rao, CAD/CAM Principles and Applications, TATA Mc Craw Hill, 2007.
5. M.P.Groover and Zimers Jr., CAD/CAM Prentice Hall of India Ltd., 2004.
6. Milton C.Shaw, Metal Cutting Principles, Oxford University Press, Second Edition,
2005.
7. Rajput R.K, Atext book of Manufacturing Technology, Lakshmi Publications, 2007.
8. Philip F.Ostwald and Jairo Munoz, Manufacturing Processes and systems, John
Wiley and Sons, 9th Edition,2002.
9. Mikell P.Groover, Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing,Materials, Processes and
Systems, John Wiley and Sons, 9th Edition,2007.
10. Chapman. W. A. J and S.J. Martin, Workshop Technology, Part III, Viva Books
ME 2253 ENGINEERING MATERIALS AND METALLURGY
LTPC
(Common to Mechanical & Automobile)
3003
UNIT I CONSTITUTION OF ALLOYS AND PHASE DIAGRAMS 9
Constitution of alloys Solid solutions, substitutional and interstitial phase diagrams,
Isomorphous, eutectoid, eutectic, peritectic, and peritectroid reactions, Iron Iron carbide
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MECH/IV SEM
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equilibrium diagram. Classification of steel and cast Iron, microstructure, properties and
applications.
UNIT II HEAT TREATMENT 9
Definition Full annealing, stress relief, recrystallisation and spheroidizing normalising,
hardening and tempering of steel. Isothermal transformation diagrams cooling curves
superimposed on I.T. diagram, CCR - Hardenability, Jominy end quench test Austempering,
martempering case hardening - carburising, nitriding, cyaniding, carbonitriding, flame and
induction hardening.
UNIT III MECHANICAL PROPERTIES AND TESTING 9
Mechanism of plastic deformation, slip and twinning Types of fracture Testing of materials
under tension, compression and shear loads Hardness tests (Brinell, Vickers and Rockwell),
Impact test - Izod and Charpy, Fatigue and creep tests, fracture toughness tests.
UNIT IV FERROUS AND NON FERROUS METALS 9
Effect of alloying elements on steel (Mn, Si, Cr, Mo, V, Ti & W) - stainless and tool steels HSLA
- maraging steels Cast Irons - Grey, White malleable, spheroidal Graphite, Alloy cast irons,
Copper and Copper alloys - Brass, Bronze and Cupronickel Aluminum and Al-Cu alloy
precipitation hardening Bearing alloys.
UNIT V NON-METALLIC MATERIALS 9
Polymers types of polymer, commodity and engineering polymers Properties and applications
of PE, PP, PS, PVC, PMMA, PET, PC, PA, ABS, PI, PAI, PPO, PPS, PEEK, PTFE Polymers
Urea and Phenol Formaldehydes Engineering Ceramics Introduction to Fibre reinforced
plastics.
TOTAL: 45 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. Kenneth G.Budinski and Michael K.Budinski Engineering Materials Prentice-Hall of
India Private Limited, 4th Indian Reprint 2002.
REFERENCES
1. William D Callister Material Science and Engineering, John Wiley and Sons 2007.
2. Raghavan.V Materials Science and Engineering, Prentice Hall of India Pvt., Ltd.,
2007.
3. Sydney H.Avner Introduction to Physical Metallurgy McGraw Hill Book Company,
2007.
4. Dieter G. E., Mechanical Metallurgy, Mc Graw Hill Book Company, 1988.
5. O.P. Khanna , A text book of Materials Science and Metallurgy, Khanna Publishers,
2003.
6. Vijaya. M.S. and G. Rangarajan, Material Science, Tata McGraw-Hill , 2007
ME2254 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
LTPC
(Common to Mechanical, Automobile & Production)
3104
UNIT I STRESS STRAIN DEFORMATION OF SOLIDS 12
Rigid and Deformable bodies Strength, Stiffness and Stability Stresses; Tensile, Compressive
and Shear Deformation of simple and compound bars under axial load Thermal stress Elastic
constants Strain energy and unit strain energy Strain energy in uniaxial loads.
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UNIT II BEAMS - LOADS AND STRESSES 12

Types of beams: Supports and Loads Shear force and Bending Moment in beams Cantilever,
Simply supported and Overhanging beams Stresses in beams Theory of simple bending Stress
variation along the length and in the beam section Effect of shape of beam section on stress
induced Shear stresses in beams Shear flow
UNIT III TORSION 12
Analysis of torsion of circular bars Shear stress distribution Bars of Solid and hollow circular
section Stepped shaft Twist and torsion stiffness Compound shafts Fixed and simply
supported shafts Application to close-coiled helical springs Maximum shear stress in spring
section including Wahl Factor Deflection of helical coil springs under axial loads Design of
helical coil springs stresses in helical coil springs under torsion loads
UNIT IV BEAM DEFLECTION 12
Elastic curve of Neutral axis of the beam under normal loads Evaluation of beam deflection and
slope: Double integration method, Macaulay Method, and Moment-area Method Columns End
conditions Equivalent length of a column Euler equation Slenderness ratio Rankine formula
for columns
UNIT V ANALYSIS OF STRESSES IN TWO DIMENSIONS 12
Biaxial state of stresses Thin cylindrical and spherical shells Deformation in thin cylindrical and
spherical shells Biaxial stresses at a point Stresses on inclined plane Principal planes and
stresses Mohrs circle for biaxial stresses Maximum shear stress - Strain energy in bending and
torsion.
TUTORIALS 15 TOTAL: 60 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. Popov E.P, Engineering Mechanics of Solids, Prentice-Hall of India, New Delhi,
1997
2. Beer F. P. and Johnston R, Mechanics of Materials, McGraw-Hill Book Co, Third
Edition, 2002.
REFERENCES
1. Nash W.A, Theory and problems in Strength of Materials, Schaum Outline Series,
McGraw-Hill Book Co, New York, 1995
2. Kazimi S.M.A, Solid Mechanics, Tata McGraw-Hill Publishing Co., New Delhi,
1981.
3. Ryder G.H, Strength of Materials, Macmillan India Ltd., Third Edition, 2002
4. Ray Hulse, Keith Sherwin & Jack Cain, Solid Mechanics, Palgrave ANE Books,
2004.
5. Singh D.K Mechanics of Solids Pearson Education 2002.
6. Timoshenko S.P, Elements of Strength of Materials, Tata McGraw-Hill, New Delhi,
1997.
ME2255 ELECTRONICS AND MICROPROCESSORS
(Common to Mechanical, Automobile & Production)
UNIT I SEMICONDUCTORS AND RECTIFIERS 9
LTPC
3003
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
Classification of solids based on energy band theory-Intrinsic semiconductors-Extrinsic

semiconductors-P type and N type-PN junction-Zenor effect-Zenor diode characteristics- Half wave
and full wave rectifiers -Voltage regulation
UNIT II TRANSISTORS AND AMPLIFIERS 12 Bipolar junction transistor- CB, CE, CC
configuration and characteristics-Biasing circuits- Class A, B and C amplifiers- Field effect
transistor-Configuration and characteristic of FET amplifier-SCR, Diac, Triac, UJT-Characteristics
and simple applications-Switching transistors-Concept of feedback-Negative feedback-Application
in temperature and motor speed control.
UNIT III DIGITAL ELECTRONICS 9
Binary number system - AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR circuits-Boolean algebra- Exclusive OR
gate - Flip flops-Half and full adders-Registers-Counters-A/D and D/A conversion.
UNIT IV 8085 MICROPROCESSOR 9
Block diagram of microcomputer-Architecture of 8085-Pin configuration-Instruction setAddressing modes-Simple programs using arithmetic and logical operations.
UNIT V INTERFACING AND APPLICATIONS OF MICROPROCESSOR 6
Basic interfacing concepts - Interfacing of Input and Output devices-Applications of microprocessor
Temperature control, Stepper motor control, traffic light control.
TOTAL : 45 PERIODS
TEXT BOOKS
1. Milman and Halkias, Integrated Electronics, Tata McGraw-Hill publishers, 1995.
2. Ramesh Goankar, Microprocessor Architecture, Programming and Applications
with 8085, Wiley Eastern, 1998.
REFERENCES
1. Malvino and Leach, Digital Principles and Applications, Tata McGraw-Hill, 1996
2. Mehta V.K, Principles of Electronics, S. Chand and Company Ltd., 1994
3 Dougles V.Hall, Microprocessor and Interfacing, Programming and Hardware, Tata
McGraw-Hill, 1999.
4. Salivahanan S, Suresh Kumar N, Vallavaraj A, Electronic Devices and Circuits
First Edition, Tata McGraw-Hill, 1999.
ME2258 MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY LAB II
LTPC
OBJECTIVE
0032
To give a practical hands on exposure to students in the various metal cutting operations using
commonly used machine tools
EXERCISES
1. Two or More Measurements in Metal Cutting Experiment (Example: Shear Angle, Cutting Force,
Tool Wear etc.)
2. One or More Exercises in Shaper, Slotter, Planner, Drilling, Milling Machines (Example: Round
to Square, Dovetail in shaper, Internal keyway cutting in Slotter, Round to square in Planner,
Drilling, reaming and tapping in Drilling machine, Gear Milling and Keyway milling in Milling
machine.)
3. Two or More Exercises in Grinding / Abrasive machining (Example: Surface Grinding,
Cylindrical Grinding.)
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4. Two or More Exercises in Assembly of Machined Components for different fits. (Example: Parts
machined using Lathes, Shapers, Drilling, Milling, and Grinding Machines etc.)
5. One or More Exercises in Capstan or Turret Lathes
6. One or More Exercises in Gear Machining (Example: Gear Milling, Gear Hobbing etc.)
LIST OF EQUIPMENT
(For a batch of 30 students)
1. Centre Lathes - 2 Nos.
2. Turret and Capstan Lathes - 1 No
3. Horizontal Milling Machine - 1 No
4. Vertical Milling Machine - 1 No
5. Surface Grinding Machine - 1 No.
6. Cylinderical Grinding Machine - 1 No.
7. Shaper - 2 Nos.
8. Slotter - 1 No.
9. Planner - 1 No.
10. Radial Drilling Machine - 1 No.
11. Tool Dynamometer - 1 No
12. Gear Hobbing Machine - 1 No
13. Tool Makers Microscope - 1 No
TOTAL: 45 PERIODS
ME2256 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS LAB
LTPC
(Common to Auto, Mechanical & Production)
0032
OBJECTIVE
To supplement the theoretical knowledge gained in Mechanics of Solids with practical testing for
determining the strength of materials under externally applied loads. This would enable the student
to have a clear understanding of the design for strength and stiffness
LIST OF EXPERIMENTS
1. Tension test on a mild steel rod
2. Double shear test on Mild steel and Aluminium rods
3. Torsion test on mild steel rod
4. Impact test on metal specimen
5. Hardness test on metals - Brinnell and Rockwell Hardness Number
6. Deflection test on beams
7. Compression test on helical springs
8. Strain Measurement using Rosette strain gauge
9. Effect of hardening- Improvement in hardness and impact resistance of steels.
10. Tempering- Improvement Mechanical properties Comparison
(i) Unhardened specimen
(ii) Quenched Specimen and
(iii) Quenched and tempered specimen.
11. Microscopic Examination of
Hardened samples and
(ii) Hardened and tempered samples.
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LIST OF EQUIPMENT
(for a batch of 30 students)
Universal Tensile Testing machine with double 1
shear attachment 40 Ton Capacity
Torsion Testing Machine (60 NM Capacity) 1
Impact Testing Machine (300 J Capacity) 1
Brinell Hardness Testing Machine 1
Rockwell Hardness Testing Machine 1
Spring Testing Machine for tensile and compressive loads (2500 N) 1
Metallurgical Microscopes 3
Muffle Furnace (800 C)
TOTAL: 45 PERIODS
ME2257 COMPUTER AIDED MACHINE DRAWING LABORATORY
LTPC
0042
DRAWING STANDARDS
Code of practice for Engineering Drawing, BIS specifications Welding symbols, riveted joints,
keys, fasteners Reference to hand book for the selection of standard components like bolts, nuts,
screws, keys etc.
2-D DRAWINGS
Limits, Fits Tolerancing of individual dimensions- Specification of Fits- Manual Preparation of
production drawings and reading of part and assembly drawings.
CAD PRACTICE (USING APPLICATION PACKAGES)
Drawing, Editing, Dimensioning, Plotting Commands, Layering Concepts, Hatching, Detailing,
Assembly, basic principles of GD&T (geometric dimensioning & tolerancing)
ASSEMBLY DRAWING (MANUAL & USING APPLICATION PACKAGES)
Manual parts drawing and preparation of assembled views given part details for components
followed by practicing the same using CAD packages. Suggested Assemblies:
Shaft couplings Plummer block Screw jack- Lathe Tailstock Universal Joint Machine Vice
Stuffing box- safety Valves - Non-return valves- Connecting rod Piston and crank shaft- Multi
plate clutch- Preparation of Bill of materials and tolerance data sheet
L=15, P= 45, TOTAL: 60 PERIODS
Use of standard CAD application packages is recommended from the point of view of requirement
by industries. However to encourage our national efforts in indigenous development of software
packages with focus on open source, students may be encouraged to work with CollabCAD
Software, developed by: National Informatics Centre (CAD Group), Govt. of India, A-Block,
C.G.O. Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi 110003, 2003
www.collabcad.com
REFERENCE BOOKS
1. Bhatt.N.D. and Panchal.V.M., Machine Drawing, Charotar Publishing House, 388001, 38th
Edition, 2003.
2. P.S.G. Design Data Book
3. Luzadder,Warren.J., and Duff, Jon.M. Fundamentals of Engineering Drawing, Prentice Hall
India Pvt. Ltd., Eastern Economy Edition, Eleventh Edition,
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EQUIPMENT NEEDED ( FOR A BATCH OF 30 STUDENTS)

1. Computer System 30
17 Graphics Terminal
Pentium IV Processor
80 GB HDD
512 MB RAM
Advanced graphics accelerator
2. Laser Printer 01
3. Plotter (A2 size) 01
SOFTWARE
30 seats of latest/recent versions of AutoCAD/CATIA/SOLIDWORKS/SOLID
EDGE/NX/PRO-E/COLLABCAD or equivalent software
SUB CODE
: MA 1254
SUB NAME
: STATISTICS AND NUMERICAL METHODS
UNIT-I
SOLUTIONS OF EQUATION S AND EIGEN VALUE PROBLEMS
PART-A
ONE MARK
1. The order convergence of newton s method is__________________
a)1
b)2
c)3
2. The iterative formula for 1N (n is real no )using newton method is ________
a)xn(2-xn)
b)1xn
c)N
3. Newtons method is useful in cases where the graph of the function when it crosses the
x- axis is nearly horizontal
a)true
b)none
c)false
4. In gauss elimination ,we can transform the co-efeeicent of matrix into _____
a)lower triangular
b)upperv triangular
c)diagonal
5. The numerical methods of solving linear equations are o f ____________
a) direct,iterative
b)direct only
c)indirect iterative
6.The principal used in gauss Jordan method is -----------a)diagonal matrix
b)scalar matrix
c)null matrix
7.Iteration method will always coverge _________
a)true
b)false
c)no comment
8.The sufficient condition for gauss seidal method _____________
a)diagonal matrix
b)scalar matrix
c)diagonally matrix
9.Gauss-jordan is________method
a)Iterative
b)direct
c)laplace
10.Iteration is a self correctly method.
a)true
b)false
c)none
11.In iterative method ,round off error is __________
a)large
b)near to zero
c)small
12.In an iterative method of computations depents on the degree of accuracy required.
a)false
b)true
c)sentence wrong
13.The convergence in gauss seidal is thrise as fast as gacobis method.
a)true
b)false
c)twice as fast
14.In direct method we get the solutions as _________________
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a)approximate
b)part ially
c)Exact
15.If the eigen value are -3,3,2 then the domiant eigen value is_________
a)-3
b)3
c)no domiant
16.The power method will work satisfactiory only if A has __________eigen value
a)least
b)more
c)domiant
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10 11 12 13 14 15
B
A
C
B
A
A
B
C
A
A
C
B
A
C
C
PART-B
TWO MARK
17. Newtons formula and order of convergence of that method.

Solution:
=0,1,2,3.
(i) Xn+1=xn -
Where X0 is the starting value of x.
(ii) order of convergence=2
18. Find an iterative formula fo ,where N is a real number.
Solution:
Let x=
f(x)=x2-N
f(x)=2x
WKT, xn+1=xn= Xn-
= Xn= (xn+ )
19. Write down the condition for convergence of N-R method?

Solution:
The condition is f(x)fx) <f(x)2
20. What are the merits of newtons method?
(I)if can be used for finding roots of both algebraic and transcental
(ii)the convergence is father than other methods
(iii)it is simple and easy.
(iv)it is used to improve the results obtained by other method.
21. Give two direct methods to solve a system of linear equations;
(i)gauss elimination method
(ii)gauss Jordan method
23. Using gauss elimination mehod solve x+y=2:2x+3y=5.
Solution:
1 1 2
[A/B]
R2 R2-2 R1
2 3 5
1 1 2
0 1 1
X+y=2
Y=2 x=1
24. What is the condition for convergence of iterative method?
Diagonally dominant matrix.
25. Compare gauss elimination and gauss seidel method?
gauss elimination
gauss seidel
(I)direct method
(i)iterative method
(ii)the co-eff matrix is non singular
(ii)diag .dominant
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Or diag.dominant
(iii)givesapproximate solution.
(iii)gives exact solution

26. Define power method.
Power method is used ti find the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen
vectors of the matrix.
27. Write the principal used to find the inverse of amatrix in gauss =Jordan method.
(A/I)=(I/A-1)
PART-C
8 MARK 28.Find the
1
1
3
inverse of A= 1
3
3 Using gauss Jordan method.(AU-May 2010)
2
4
4
29. Solve by gauss elimination method 2x+y+z=10;3x+2y+3z=18;x+4y+9z=16
30. Solve by gauss-seidal method(AU-may-2010)
5x-y+z=10;2x+4y+=12;x+y+5z=-1
1 6 1
31. Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen value of A= 1 2 0 with
0 0 3
intial vector X0=(1 1 1)T.(AU-May 2010)
32. Using gauss Jordan ,solve
10x+y+z=12;2x+10y+z=13;x+y+5z=7(AU-Dec 2010)
0 1
1
33. Find inverse of A= 1 2
0 usin gauss elimination method.(AU-Dec2011)
3
1
4
34. Solve by N-R method, xsin x+cos x=0 up to four decimal places.(AU-May 2012)
35. Solve x+3y+3z=16;x+4y+3z=18;x+3y+4z=19(AU-Dec 2011)
35.(a).1000 students college level were graded according to their I.Q and their economic
conditions.What conclusion can you draw from the following data(AU-May/June 2013)
Economic conditions I.Q. Level
High
Low
Rich
460
140
Poor
240
160
(b)A sales manager of a large company conducted a sample survey in states A and B taking 400
samples in each case.The results were in the following table.Test whether the average sales in the
same in two states at 1% level(AU-May/June 2013)
Economic conditions I.Q. Level
Avg.Sales
S.D
State A
Rs 2500
Rs 400
State B
Rs 2200
Rs 550
UNIT-II
INTERPOLATION.NUMERICAL DIFFERENTATION AND INTRGRATION
PART-A
ONE MARK
36. The estimation of values between well-known discrete points are called .To ______
a)iteration
b)Interpolation
c)extrapolation
37.Networks interpolation formula are not sufied to estimate the values of afunction
in/near the middle
a)true
b)false
c)none
38.Numerical differentiation can be used only if it is clear from thevtabulated values
12
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
that differences of some order constant.

a)true
b)false
c)none
39.If y(x)=3x2+3 then y(2)=_____________
a)18
b)12
c)15
40.Two use simpsons (1/3) rule ,no of interval be____________
a)odd
b)even
c)Prime
41.To use trapezoidal rule , no of interval be____________
a)odd
b)even
c)of any order
42.To use simpsons (3/8)rule no of intervals be _____________
a)Multiple of 3
b) Multiple of 6
c)Even
43.Simpsons rule give exact result ,if the entire curve y=f(x) is itself a _________
a)Ellipse
b)hyperpola
c)parapola
44.Whenver Trapezoidal Rule is applicable simpsons rule can be applied
a)true
b)none
c)false
45.Newtons forward interpolation used only for intervals
a)Equal
b)not equal
c)odd
46.Divided difference table used for _____________intervals
a)equal
b)unequal
c)odd
47.Lagranges formula is used for_____________-interval.
a)equal
b)not equal
c)equal&not equal
48.Trapezodial result will lie between -1to 1
a)truw
b)false
c)none
49.Simpsons rule is more reliable than trapezoidal
a)true
b)false
c)none
50.The order of error in trapezoidal formual is ___________
b) h4
c)h3
a)h2
51.The order of error in simpsons formula is_________________
b) h4
c)h3
a)h2
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B
A
A
C
B
C
A
C
C
A
B
C
B
A
A
PART-B
52.Write down the Lagranges interpolation formula ;
Y=
+
#
#
#
! #
!
!
51
B
TWO MARK
y0
y1
y2+
53.Create a forward difference table and state the degree of polynomial for the same;
X
0
1
2
3
Y
-1
0
3
8
Solution
%
1
3
5
y
2
2
& y
0
(ii)Since y is having constant terms have a polymial of degree 2.
54.Find the divided difference for .(AU-May 2011)
X
2
5
10
Y
5
29
109
13
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
Solution:
%
8
16
y
1
55.State any two properities of divided difference: .(AU-Dec 2010)
Ans:
( i)The D.D aer symmetrical in all their arugements.
(ii)The D.D operator is linear.
[af(x)+bg(x)]=af(x)+bg(x)
56.What is the local error term in trapezoidal ? .(AU-Dec 2010)
'
- y1
57.What is the order of error in trapezoidal? .(AU-May 2009)
(
58.Compare trapezoidal and simpsons (1/3) rule? .(AU May- 2010)
Trapezoidal
Simpsons (1/3) rule
(i)y is a linear function of x
(i) y is apolynomial of degree 2
(ii)It is least accurate
(ii) more accurate
59. What is the order of error in simpsons (1/3) rule? .(AUMay 2010)
()
60.When does simpsons rule give exact result? .(AU-Dec 2006)
If the entire curve y=f(x) is itself a parapola.
61.Write down simpsons (1/3) rule in integration? .(AU-May 2010)
*
/'
'
+ , -, . &[(y0 + yn)+4(y1+ y3+ y5+.)+2(y2+ y4+ y6+)]
PART-C
8 MARK
62.Find the sixth term of the sequence 8,12,19,29,42. .(AU-May 2008)

63.A jet fighters positin or an aircraft carrires runway was timed during landing.
t
1.0
1.1
1.2
1.3
1.4
1.5
1.6
ym
7.989
8.403
8.781
9.129
9.451
9.750
10.031
Where y is distance from the end of the carrier . estimate velocity (dy/dt) and acceleration
(d2y/dt).at t=1.1 and t=1.6 using numerical differentiation.(AU-Dec 2008)
.(AU-Dec 2008), .(AU-Dec 2009)
64.Use newtons divided difference,calculate f(3).f(3)andf(3) from .(AU-May 2010)
X
0
1
2
4
5
6
f(x)
1
14
15
5
6
19
1 0
65.Evaluate *2
using trapezoidal . verify with actual integration. .(AU-Dec 2010)
8
66.Taking h=(3/10 ,evaluate *2 sin , -, by simpsons (1/3) rule. .(AU-Dec 2009)

67.From the data ,find the no of students whose Weight is between 60 lbs to 70 lbs.(AU- Dec
2010).
Weight
0
1
2
4
5
NO.of students
1
14
15
5
6
0
68.Evaluate *2
correct to 3 decimal dividing the range of interpolation into 8
equal parts,using simpsons (1/3)rule . .(AU-May 2010)
69.Using backward formula ,find the polynomial of degree 3 passing through
(3,0),(4,24),(5,60)and(6,120) and hence find y(5.5). .(AU-Dec 2009)
14
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
70.(a)Given that
x
14
17
31
35
68.7
64.0
44.0
39.6
f(x)
Find f(x),at x=27 using lagranges interpolation formula. .(AU-Dec 2008)
(b)The following is a Latin square of a design when four varities seeds are being tested.Set up the
analysis of variance table and state your conclusion .you may carry out suitable changes of origin
and scale. (AU-May/June 2013)
A
105
B
95
C
125
D
115
C
115
D
125
A
105
B
105
D
115
C
95
B
105
A
115
B
95
A
135
D
95
C
115
UNIT III
NUMERICAL SOLUTIONS OF ORDINARY
DFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
PART-A
ONE MARK
71.Taylors series method is will be very useful to give some _________value.
a)ending
b)starting
c)middle
72.In eulers method ,if h is small
a)true
b)false
c)none
73.The modified euler method is based on the average of points
a)true
b)false
c)none
74.R-K method does not require calculation of higher derivatives
a)false
b)true
c)none
75.The fourth order R-k method is widely used in _________to differential equation
a)getting numerical solution
b)getting fractional solution
c) getting
differentiall solution
76. Modified euler method is R-K method of 2nd order
a)true
b)false
c)none
th
77.R-K 4 order is __________method
a)Muulti-step
b)single step
c)n-step
80.Milens method is__________step method
a)Muulti
b)single
c)n-step
09
81.0 =f(x,y) is general solutions of first order and first degree
a)true
b)false
c)none
82.To find the error in eulers method is difficult
a)false
b)true
c)none
83.If h is small ,R-K method converges is very slow.
a)true
b)false
c)none
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81
B
A
A
B
A
A
B
A
A
A
C
15
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
PART-B
SY&QB
TWO MARK
82.Using eulers method ,solve y=-y,given that y(0)=1.(AU-Dec 2009)

Solution:
Given f(x,y)= y=-y, x0=0,y0=1
Wkt, Eulers formula is yn+1=yn+hf(xn,yn)
Y1= Y0+hf(x0, Y0)
=1+h(-Y0)=1+(x- x0 )(- Y0)
=1+(x-0)(-1)=1-x
83.Using taylors series find y(0.1),when y=1-y,y(0)=0.(AU-Dec 2010)
Solution:
Given x0=0 , Y0=0 ,h=0.1
Y=1-y
Yo=1- Y0=1
Y=-y
Y0=- Y0=-1
Y=-y
Y0=- Y0=1
'
Y(x)=y(0)+hy(0)+ ! y0+..
2.
2. !
1 <
1 < =
Y(0.1)=.1(1)+ !
&!
=0.0952
84.Solve yx+2-4yx=0
Solution:
Yx(E2-4)=0
The auxillary equation is m2-4=0
M=>2
Yx=A2x+B(-2)x
85.State milnes predictor-corrector formula. .(AU-Dec 2009)
Ans:
Milnes predictor formula is
)
Yn+1= Yn-3+ & (2 Yn-2-yn-1+2 Yn)
Corrector formula is
'
Yn+1,c= Yn-1+&( Yn-1+yn+ Yn+1)
86.Write the finite difference eqivqlent of differential equation y-y=2,y0=0,y1=1,
h=(1/4)
Ans
y=
9?@ @ A
?BA
9?@ @ A
?BA
'
'
?B
&&
?B
-yi=2
Cross multiplying, we get yi-1= 1yi+yi+1=C

87.State the merits of R-K method Over taylor series: .(AU-Dec 2011)
Ans:
(i)R-K method do not require prior calculation of higher derivatives of y(x) as taylor method does.
(ii)R-K formulas involve the computations of f(x,y) at various positions instead of derivatives and
this functions occurs in the given equations.
88.Is the modified euler method is based on the average of points? .(AU-Dec 2007)
Ans:
Yes
89.What is the error of eulers method?
Error=o(h2)=error is order of h2
PART-C
8 MARK
16
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
90.Use eulers method ,with h=0.1 to find the solution of y=x2+y2,y(0)=0in

0D , D 0.5.(AU-Dec 2009)
09
91.Use R-K method of order 4 ,to find y(0.2) if
. , < % ;y(0)=1;h=0.1.(AU-Dec 2011)
09
92.Use milens method ,solve if

. , % ; at x=0.8 given y(0)=0;
0
y(0.2)=0.795 and y(0.6)=0.1762. .(AU-Dec 2011)
93.Solve taylor series method y-y=0 y(0)=0,y(1)=1 ,taking h=0.2.
94.Use taylor series method to y(1.1)&y(1.2) correct to 4 decimal places
09
. ,% ! and y(1)=1. .(AU-Apr 2010)

95.Find y(0.8);given that y=y-x2,y(0.6)=1.7379 using R-K method of order 4
With h=0.1.(AU-Dec 2008)
96.Evaluate y(0.1),y(0.2) crrect to 3 decimal places ,by modified euler method.
09
Given thtat 0 . 1 %,y(0)=0.also compare with exact solutions. .(AU-Apr 2010)
97.Given that y=xy+y2; y(0)=1, y(0.1)=1.1169, y(0.2)=1.2773 , find
(i)y(0.3) by R-K method of order 4. .(AU-Dec 2010)
(ii)y(0.4) by milnes predictor-corrector formula.
98.Using R-k method of fourth order solve y=y-x2+1,y(0)=(1/2)at x=0.4.
99.Solve (x3+1)y+x2y-4xy=2;y(0)=0,y(2)=4, with h=0.5.(AU-Dec 2009)
99.(a).Solve the system of equation by gauss Jordan method x+y+z+w=1; 2x-y+2z-w=-5;
3x+2y+3z+4w=7; x-2y-3z+2w=-5; (AU-May/June 2013)
(b).Solve by gauss Seidal method the following system 28x+4y-z =32; x+3y-10z =24;
2x+17y+4z =35; (AU-May/June 2013)
0
UNIT IV - TESTS OF HYPOTHESIS

PART-A
ONE MARK
100.A part selected from the population is

a)probability
b)test
c)sample
101.Type-II error is H0 is accepted while it should rejected at last
a)true
b)false
c)none
102.In a two-tailed test 5% of EF is 1.96
b) H1 is rejected
c) H0 is accepted
a) H0 is rejected
103.The nos 1.96,2.58, are called _____________co-efficent.
a)Constant
b)correlation
c)confidence
104.If a sample of size 4 is 1,2,3,4.then sample mean ,G is__________
a)2.5
b)2
c)1.5
105.The mean of sampling distribution of means denoted by ______
I
a) H
b)/
c)J
106.Variance =KLMN-MO- -PQMLRSN
a)true
b)false
107.When a die is thrown .prob of getting 3 of 4 is
a)
b) 1
108.We use the t-test ,when n<30
a)true
b)false
109.Degree of freedom is V=____________ in t-test
a)n
b)n(n-1)
110.t-distribution for difference of means is____________
b) n1- n2-2
a) n1+ n2
17
c)none
c) &
c)none
c)n-1
c)n-1
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
111.In chi-square test statistic is_____________

/T
SY&QB
/U
M
b)
c)
I
I
I
112.In chi-square test ,the frequency should be atleast_____________
a)5
b)15
c)50
113.F-test is used to test whether two independent Samples have been from the normal
population with the same variance H
a)true
b)false
c)none
114.The mean of the F-distribution is__________
V
V
V
a)V
b)W V
c) W
@
115.The normal distribution is called standard normal variance if X=________and

H____________________
a)1,0
b)0,1
c)1,1
116.The sum of the observed (o) and expected (E)frequency is_________
a)0
b)1
c)o to 1
117.In a random variables contingency table ,d.f is _______________
a)r-1
b)s-1
c)( r-1)( s-1)
118.Normal distribution is an approximation to the _________distribution
a)poission
b)Gaussian
c)binomial
119.The sum of the independent chi-square test variables is also a _____variable.
a)normal
b)poission
c) chi-square
120.___________test is used to test the significance of difference between two sample
means.
a)t
b)F
c)Y
100 101 102 103 104 105 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C
Cs A
C
C
A
C
B
C
A
C
C
A
C
A
C
B
A
C
C
PART-B
TWO MARK
121.Mention of various steps involved in testing of hypothesis.

Ans:
(i)set up a null hypothesis H0
(ii)set up the alternative hypothesis H1
(iii)Select the appropriate level of significance F
Z [ Z
(iv)compute the test statistic Z= T[ Z under H0
(v)We compare the calculated Z with critical value \F at given level of significance(F
122.Whar are the parameters and ststistics in sampling? .(AU-Dec 2010)
parameters] J-mean & H S.D of population.
Statistics ] x mean &
S.D of population.
123.Define null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis? .(AU-May 2010)
For applying test of significance of first we set up a hypothesis,which is the statement about
the population parameter.this statement is usually a hypothesis of no difference is called (H0) Null
hypothesis.
Alternative hypothesis :(H1) any hypothesis which is complentary to the null hypothesis is called
Alternative hypothesis.
124.Define Chi-square test for Goodness of fit ? .(AU-Dec 2008)
18
Dr.NNCE
X2=
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
Where o- observed frequency

E- Excepted frequency
125.Give two applications of 2-test? .(AU-Dec 2006), .(AU-Dec 2008)
(i)To test the goodness of a fit.
(ii) To test the independent of attributes.
(iii) To test the homogenous of independent estimations
(iv)the populations variations etc.
126.State uses of chi-square distributions? .(AU-Dec 2010)
(i)to test significance of discrepancy between experimental values and theortical
values,obtained under same theory or hypoyhesis.
(ii)with the help of 2-test ,we can find that whether two or more attributes are associated or
not.
127.Define level of significance? .(AU-Dec 2010)
The probability that the value of the statistics lies in the critical region is called the level of
significance.
128.What is the sampling distribution? .(AU-Dec 2010)
From a population a no of Samples are drawn of equal size n.find out the mean of each sample.The
means of samples are not equal .the means with their respective frequencies are grouped.the
frequenced distribution so farmed is known as sampling distribution of the mean ,similarity
distribution of standard distribution we can have.
PART-C
8 MARK
129.A sample of 900 members has mean 3.4 cm and 2.61.is the sample from a large population of
mean 3.25 cm and S.D 2.61 cm?(test the 5% level of significance.the value of Z of 5% \F <1.96)
.(AU-Dec 2010)
130.Before an increase in excistely on tea ,800 pearons out of asample of 1000 pearons were found
to be tea drinkers .after an increase in duty ,800 people were tea drinkers ina sample of 1200 people
.using standard error of population state whether there is significance decreases in the consumption
of tea after the increases in excisetly?( the value of Z of 5% \F <1.645& the value of Z of 1% is
2.33) .(AU-Dec 2008)
19
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
131.The weight gains in painds under two systems of feeding of calves of 10 pairs of idendical
twins is given below.(AU-Dec 2007)
Twin pair weight gains
10
Under system A
43
39
39
42
46
43
38
44
51
43
system B
37
35
34
41
39
37
37
40
48
36
Discuss whether the difference between two systems of feeding is significant?

132.Two independent samples of eight and sevn items respectively had the following values of the
variables. .(AU-Dec 2010)
Sample-I
11
13
11
15
12
14
SampleI-II
10
12
10
14
10
Do the two estimates of population variance different significantly at 5% level of significance.

.(AU-Dec 2010)
133.The following data gives the no of aircraft accidents that occurred during the various days of
aweek.find whether the accidents are uniformly distributed over the week. .(AU-Nov 2010)
Days
SUN MON TUE WED TH
FRI SAT
D
NO.of accidents
14
16
12
11
14
134.Examine Whether the Difference in the Variability in yields is significant at 5% level of

significance for the following; .(AU-Dec 2010)
Set of 40 plots
Set of 60 plots
Man yield
1258
1243
S.D per plot
34
28
135.A machine produces 16 imperfect articles in a sample of 500 .after machine is over handled .if
produced 3 imperfect articles in a bath of 100 has the machine been improved?
136.Test if the difference in the means is significant for the following data: .(AU-Dec 2010)
Sample-I
76
68
70
43
94
68
33
Sample-II
40
48
92
85
70
76
68
22
137.An automobile company gives you the following information about age groups for particular
model of car which it plans to introduce.on the basis of this data can it be concluded that the model
appeal is independent of the age group?( the value of Z of 5% \F <7.815) .(AU-Dec 2009)
138.In abig city 325 men ouy of 600 men .were found to be smokers .does this information support
the conclusion that the majority of men in this city aer smokers? .(AU-Dec 2010)
20
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
138.(b) The population of a certain town is given below .Find the rate of growth of the population
in 1931 ,1941,1951,1961 and 1971. (AU-May/June 2013)
Year (x)
1931
Population in 40.62
thousands(y)
1941
1951
60.80 79.95
1961
1971
103.56
132.65
UNIT-V DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS

PART-A
ONE MARK
139.The term ANOVA (analysis of variance) was introduced by _________

a)laplace
b)newton
c) R.A Fisher
140.The ANOVA originated in _____________research.
a)Indian
b)Asian
c)Agraian
141.The assumption in ANOVA are same as _____________
a)F-test
b)T-test
c) Y test
142.In one-way classification ,the dates are classified according to______-factor
a)one
b)two
c)morethan one
143.The samples are drawn from __________populations .
a)binomial
b)poission
c)normal
142.The most widely used of all experimental design is________
a)RBD
b)CRD
c)LSD
143.The RBD is available for a wide of range of treameter __________
a)1to12
b)2to 24
c)1to 24
144.The total no of possibilities in which awargewents can be made 3^ 3 LSD are
a)6
b) 9
c)12
145.The science of experimental design is possibilities are____________
a)LSD
b)RBD
c)LCD
146.In a 4^ 4 LSD the total no of such possibilities are ____________
a)240
b)200
c)576
147. Latin square are most widely used in the field of ___________
a)agriculture
b)astronomy
c)Archeology
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
C
C
A
A
C
A
B
C
A
PART-B
TWO MARK
148.What are the basic steps In ANOVA? .(AU-Dec 2010)

(i)one estimate of the population variance from the variance among the sample means.
(ii)Determine a second estimate of the population variance from within the sample.
(iii)compare these two estimates if they are approximately equal in value ,accept the null
hypothesis.
149.What are the assumptions involved in ANOVA? .(AU-May 2008)
(i)the samples Are drawn from normal populations.
(ii)the variances for the populations from which samples have been drawn are equal.
(iii)the variation of each value around its own grand mean should be independentfor which
value.
150.Compare one-way with two-way classification model? .(AU-Dec 2010)
one-way classification
two-way classification
(i)
one factor is involved
(i)
two factor is involved
(ii)
one set of Hypothesis
(ii)
two set of Hypothesis
21
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
151.Why a 22 latin square is not possible?Explain. .(AU-May 2008)

Consider a
nn LSD ,then the d.f for SSE is
=(n2-1)-(n-1)-(n-1)-(n-1)
=(n2-1-3n+3)
=(n-1)(n-2)
For n=2 ,D.F of SSE=0 and hence MSE is not defined.
Comparisions are not possible .hence 22 LSD is not possible.
152.Define maen square?
U_` ab Uc_de[U
Mean square=
Uf[ge[[ ab be[[fa`
153.Name of the basic principals of experimental design? .(AU-Dec 2003)
(i) Randomisation
(ii)Replication
(iii)local control
154.When do you apply ANOVA technique? .(AU-Dec 2005)
To the test homogeity of several means .
155.State the advantages of afactorial experiment over a simple experiment. .(AU-Dec 2010)
(i)it is the procedure of vanjing all factors simultaneously .
(ii)A major conceptual advancement in experimental design is by factorial design.
156.What is meant by latin square? .(AU-Dec 2010)
A useful method of eliminating fertitity variations consists of an experimental layout which
will control variation in two perpendicular directions.such a layout is LSD.
157.Write the advantages of RBD. .(AU-May 2010))
(i)This design is more efficient than CRD
(ie)It has less experimental error.
(ii)this design is more flexible.(ie)no restrications are placed on the no of treatments.
(iii) The statistical analysis for this design is simple and rapid.
(iv)
It is easily adaptable .in an agricultural expectations if can be accommodated well in
a triangular (or)triangular field.
158.Write the disadvantages of RBD? .(AU-May 2010)
RBD is not suitable for of treatments is large ,then the size of the blocks will increase ,this
may cause hetogenity with in blocks.
PART-C
8 MARK
159.A random sample is selected from each of three make of ropes and their breaking strength (in
painds)are measured with the following results: .(AU-June 2007)
I 70
72
75
80
83
II
100
110
108
112
113
120
107
III
60
65
57
84
87
73
Test whether the following strength of the ropes differ. Significantly.
160.The following data respectively the no of units of production per day
Turned out by different workers using 4 different types of machine
Workers, .(AU-May 2005), .(AU-Dec 2005), .(AU-June 2006)
Machine type
A
B
C
D
1
44
38
47
36
2
46
40
52
43
3
34
36
44
32
4
43
38
46
33
5
38
42
49
39
22
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
(i)Test whether the five men Different with respect to mean productively
(ii) Test whether the mean productively is the same for 4 different machine types.
161.A set of data involving four four tropical stuffs A,B, C, D Tried on 20 chicks is given below
.all the 20 chicks are treated alike ina llrespect except the feeding reatment and each feeding
treatment is given to 5 chicks analysis yhe data.weight gave of baby chicks fed on different
feeding materials composed of tropical feedstuffs . .(AU-Dec 2010)
TOTAL
A
55
49
42
21
52
219
B
61
112
30
89
63
335
C
42
97
81
95
92
407
D
169
137
169
85
154
714
Grand total
1695
162.A variable trial was conducted on wheat with four variables in aLSD.the plan of
experiment and the per plot yield are given below : .(AU-Dec 2010)
A(20)
D(20)
C(25) B(23)
A(19)
D(19)
C(21)
B(18)
B(19)
A(14)
D(17)
C(20)
D(17)
C(20)
B(21)
A(15)
163.Four variables A,B,C,D osf afertilizer aew tested in a RBD with 4 replication .
the plot yield in pounds are as follows: .(AU-Dec 2010)
A(12) D(20)
C(16)
B(10)
D(18)
A(14)
B(11)
B(12)
C(15)
D(19)
A(13)
C(16)
B(11)
A(15)
D(15)
164.Consider the result given below for an experiment involving six treatments in four
R.B.D .the treatments are indicated by nos with in paranthesis. .(AU-Dec 2010)
Blacks Yield for a randomized block experiment
1
(1)24.7
(3)27.7
(2)20.6
(4)16.2
(5)16.2
(6)24.9
2
(3)22.7
(2)28.7
(1)27.3
(4)15
(6)22.5
(5)17
3
(6)26.3
(4)19.6
(1)38.5
(3)36.8
(2)39.5
(5)15.4
4
(5)17.7
(2)31
(1)28.5
(4)14.1
(3)34.9
(6)22.6
Test whether treatments differ significantly.
165.The variates A,B,C of acrop are tested in RBD With replications .the plot yields in
pounds are as follows: .(AU-Dec 2010)
A(6)
C(5)
A(8)
B(9)
C(8)
A(4)
B(6)
C(9)
B(7)
B(6)
C(10)
A(6)
Analysis the experiment yield and state your conclusion:
166.Three process A,B,C is tested to see whether the inputs are equivalent.the following
observations of output are made: .(AU-Dec 2010)
A8
30
18
30
32
35
37
19
B
24
22
26
28
30
32
28
26
C
28
20
27
19
29
35
30
23
27
32
2
166.Find out the main effects and interaction effects in the following 2 factorial
exceptation .and write down the ANOVA table:
1
a
B
ab
Blocks
00
10
01
11
I
64
25
30
60
23
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
II
75
14
50
33
III
76
12
41
17
IV
75
33
25
10
167.y+xy+y=0,y(0)=1,y(0)=0 find the value of y(0.1) by using runge kutta method of fourth
order(AU-May/June 2013)
HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
UNIT I
CONDUCTION
PART A
1 MARK
1. The term Q/A (in heat flow equation Q=KA(t1 t2)/x ) is known as
a. Thermal resistance b thermal conductance c. thermal loading d. none of the above
2. Heat transfer takes place by the process of
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. all of the above
3. The rate of heat transfer is constant if
a. Temperature decrease with time
b. Temperature increase with time
b. Temperature is constant with time
d. none of the above
4. If the rate of heat transfer is constant, it is known as
a. Steady state heat transfer
b. unsteady state heat transfer
c. Uniform heat transfer
d. non- uniform heat transfer
a. The process of heat transfer ,from one particle of the to another by the actual motion of
heated particles is called
b. radiation
b. convection
d. conduction
5. Heat energy can be obtained from other type of energy is the statement of
a. first law of thermodynamics b. second law of thermodynamics
c. zeroth law of thermodynamics d. fouriers law
6. The basic law of heat conduction is called
a. newtons law of cooling b. stefanslaw c. Kirchhoffs law d. fouriers law
7. The thermal conductivity in SI units is expressed as
a. j/m 2 o k
b. w/m o k
c. w/m o k sec
d. wm/ o k
8. The term Q/A (in heat flow equation Q=KA(t1 t2)/x ) is known as
a. Thermal resistance b thermal conductance c. thermal loading d. none of the above
9. For steady flow and constant valve of conductivity, the temperature distribution for a plane
wall is
a. Parabolic
b linear c. logarithmic function of radii
d. cubic.
10. The rate of heat transfer through hollow cylinder of radii r1 and r2 depends on
a. difference of radii (r1-r2)
b the radio radii (r1/r2) c. product of (r2*r1)
d. sum of radii (r1+r2)
11. The critical radius of insulation for a hollow cylinder is equal to
a. difference of radii (r1-r2)
b the radio radii (r1/r2)
c. product of (r2*r1)
d. sum of radii (r1+r2)
12. In case of heat exchanger, the value of logarithmic mean temperature difference should
a. As small as possible
b. as large as possible c. constant d. none of the above
13. Choose the correct statement.
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Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
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a. Fouriers law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for

b. Thermal conductivity of air increase with decrease in temperature.
c. thermal conductivity of solids increase with rise in temperature
d. the unit of thermal conductivity in SI units is W/mo K
14. If h= co-efficient of heat transfer, K= thermal conductivity and l is characteristics linear
dimensions then the thermal hl/K is called.
a. Reynolds number
b. Nussle number
c. prenatal number
d. Froude number
15. If = co-efficient of viscosity, cp= specific heat at constant pressure and k is thermal
conductivity then the term cp/k is called
a. Reynolds number
b. nusselt number
c. prandtl number
d. froude number
16. In free convection, motion of the fluid is caused
a. By the weight of the fluid element
b. By the hydrostatic force on the element
c. by the buoyancy forces arising from variation in density of the fluid with the temperature
d. none of the above.
17. If = co-efficient of viscosity, cp= specific heat at constant pressure and k is thermal
conductivity then the term cp/k is called
b. Reynolds number
b. nusselt number
c. prandtl number
d. froude number
18. The process which transmits energy by means of electromagnetic waves is called
a. Conduction b. convection
c. radiation
d. all of the above
19. The process which transmits energy by means of electromagnetic waves is called
b. Conduction b. convection
c. radiation
d. all of the above
20. The amount of radiation depends upon
a. temperature of the body only b .surface area of the body only c. nature of the body
d. all of the above
ANSWERS
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 2
b D C a b B b b c B b A b d b c c c c b
PART B
2 MARKS
21. What are the modes of heat transfer?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
22. What is conduction?
Heat conduction is a mechanism of heat transfer from a region of high temperature to a region of
low temperature within a medium [solid, liquid or gases] or different medium in direct physical
contact.
23. Define Convection.
Convection is a process of heat transfer that will occur between a solid surface and a fluid
medium when they are at different temperatures. Convection is possible only in the presence of
fluid medium.
24. Define Radiation.
25
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
The heat transfer from one body to another without any transmitting medium is known as
radiation. It is an electromagnetic wave phenomenon.
25. State Fouriers law of conduction. [Apr.97, Oct.98 Madras Univ., May04, May05 &
Jun.06 Anna Univ. May/June 2013]
The rate of heat conduction is proportional to the area measured normal to the direction of heat
flow
and to be temperature gradient in that direction.
Q A dT/dx
Q = - kA dT/dx
Where, A Area in m2
dT/dx Temperature gradient, K/m
k Thermal conductivity, W/mK
26. Define Thermal conductivity. [Apr97 MU, Oct99 MU]
Thermal conductivity is defined as the ability of a substance to conduct heat.
27. Write down the three dimensional heat conduction equations in Cartesian co-ordinate
system.
May05 & June06 Anna Univ.]
The general three dimensional heat conduction equations in Cartesian co-ordinate is
2T/x2 + 2T/ y2 + 2T/ z2 + q/k = 1/ x T/t
Where
q = Heat generator W/m2
= Thermal diffusivity m2/s
28. List down the three types of boundary conditions. [Dec.05 Anna Univ.]
b. Prescribed temperature
c. Prescribed heat flux
d. Convection boundary conditions.
29. Define overall heat transfer co-efficient. [MU, Apr.97]
The overall heat transfer by combined modes is usually expressed in terms of an overall
conductance or overall heat transfer co-efficient U
Heat transfer, Q = UA T.
30. Define Fin efficiency.
[Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05, MU, Nov.96 & Oct.97
May/June 2013]
The efficiency of a fin is defined as the ratio of actual heat transferred to the maximum possible
heat transferred by the fin.
fin = Qfin/Qmax
31. Define Fin effectiveness.
[Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05, MU. Nov.96, Apr.01
May/June 2013]
Fin effectiveness is the ratio of heat transfer with fin to that without fin
Fin effectiveness = Q with fin/Q without fin
32. What is meant by Lumped heat analysis?
[Oct.98 MU May/June 2013]
In a Newtonian heating or cooling process the temperature throughout the solid is considered to
be uniform at a given time. Such an analysis is called Lumped heat capacity analysis.
33. What are the factors affecting the thermal conductivity? [Apr.97 MU]
1. Moisture, 2. Density, 3. Pressure, 4. Temperature and 5. Structure of material.
26
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
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34. Explain the significance of thermal diffusivity.

[Oct.98 MU]
The physical significance of thermal diffusivity is that it tells us how fast heat is propagated or it
diffuses through a material during changes of temperature with time.
35. What are Heisler charts?
[Oct.99 MU]
In Heisler chart, the solutions for temperature distributions and heat flows in plane walls, long
cylinders and spheres with finite internal and surface resistance are presented. Heisler charts are
nothing but a analytical solutions in the form of graphs
PART C
16 MARKS
36. A furnace wall consists of three layers. The inner layer of 10cm thickness is made of fire brick
[k = 1.04W/mK]. The intermediate layer of 25cm thickness is made of masonry brick [k =
0.69W/mK] followed by a 5cm thick concrete wall [k = 1.37W/mK]. When the furnace is in
continuous operation the inner surface of the furnace is at 8000C while the outer concrete surface
is at 500C. Calculate the rate of heat loss per unit area of the wall, the temperature as the
interface of the firebrick and masonry brick and the temperature at the interface of the masonry
brick and concrete.
[Anna Univ. Jun.06]
37. A composite wall consists of 10cm thick layer of building brick, k = 0.7W/mK and 3cm thick
plaster, k = 0.5W/mK. An insulating material of k = 0.08W/mK is to be added to reduce the heat
transfer through the wall by 40%. Find its thickness. [Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05]
38. A steel tube with 5cm ID, 7.6cm OD and k = 15W/m0C is covered with and insulative covering
of thickness 2cm and k = 0.2Wm0C. A hot gas at 3300C with h = 400Wm20C flows inside the
tube. The outer surface of the insulation is exposed to cooler air at 300C with h = 60W/m20C.
Calculate the heat loss from the tube to the air for 10m of the tube and the temperature drops
resulting from the thermal resistances of the thotgas flow, the steel tube, the insulation layer and
the outside air. [Anna Univ. May05]
39. A steam pipe of 12cm outer diameter is at 1970C. It is lagged to a radius of 10cm with asbestos
of thermal conductivity of 1W/mK. The temperature of surrounding is 250C and heat transfer
co-efficient outside is 12W/m2K. Calculate the heat loss per meter length of the pipe.
[MU. Oct99]
40. An aluminium rod [k = 204Wm/K] 2cm in diameter and 20cm long protrudes from a wall which
is maintained at 3000C. The end of the rod is insulated and the surface of the rod is exposed to
air at 300C. The heat transfer co-efficient between the rod surface and air is 10W/m2K.
Calculate the heat lost by the rod and the temperature of the rod at a distance of 10cm from the
wall.
[Anna Univ. June 2006]
41. A cylinder 1m long and 5cm in diameter is placed in an atmosphere at 450C. It is provided with
10 longitudinal straight fins of material having k = 120W/mK. The height of 076mm thick fins
is 1.27cm from the cylinder surface. The heat transfer co-efficient between cylinder and
atmosphere air is 17Wm2K. Calculate the rate of heat transfer and the temperature at the end of
fins if surface temperature of cylinder is 1500C. [Anna Univ. June 2005]
42. An aluminium plate [k = 160W/m0C, = 2790kg/m3, Cp = 0.88KJ/kg0C of thickness L = 3cm
and at a uniform temperature of 2250C is suddenly immersed at time t = 0 in a well stirred fluid
maintained at a constant temperature T = 250C. Take h = 320Wm20C. Determine the time
required for the centre of the plate to react 500C[Anna Univ. Dec.2005]
27
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
43. A steel ball [specific heat = 0.46kJ/kgK. And thermal conductivity = 35W/mK having 5cm
diameter and initially at a uniform temperature of 4500C is suddenly placed in a control
environment in which the temperature is maintained at 1000C. Calculate the time required for
[MU., Apr.2000, 2001,
the ball to attained a temperature of 1500C. Take h = 10W/m2K.
Barathiar Univ. Apr.98]
44. A slab of aluminium 10cm thick is originally at a temperature of 5000C. It is suddenly
immersed in a liquid at 1000C resulting in a heat transfer co-efficient of 1200W/m2K.
Determine the temperature at the centre line and the surface 1 minute after the immersion Also
calculate the total thermal energy removed per unit area of the slab during this period. The
properties of aluminium for the given conditions are
= 8.4 x 10-5 m2/s
k = 215W/mK = 2700kg/m3 C = 0.9kJ/kgK[Anna Univ. May 2005]
45. A large iron plate of 10cm thickness and originally at 8000C is suddenly exposed to an
environment at 00C where the convection co-efficient is 50W/m2K. Calculate the temperature at
a depth of 4cm from one of the faces 100 seconds after the plate is exposed to the environment.
How much energy has been lost per unit area of the plate during this time? [Anna Un. June 2006]
46. A composite wall consists. of 10 cm thick layer of building brick, k = 0.7 W/mK and 3 cm thick
plaster, k = 0.5 W/mK. An insulating material of k = 0.08 W/mK is to be added to reduce the
heat transfer through the wall by 40%. Find its thickness. [Anna Univ. June 2012]
47. Circumferential aluminium fins of rectangular profile (1.5cmwide and 1mm thick) are fitted on
to a 90 mm engine cylinder with a pitch of 10 mm. The height of the cylinder is 120 mm. The
cylinder base temperature before and after fitting the fins are 200C and 150C respectively.
Take ambient at 30C and h(average) =100 W/m K2 Estimate the heat dissipated from the
finned and the unfinned surface areas of cylinder body. [AU June 2012]
48. Derive the general heat conduction equation for a hollow cylinder. [AU June 2012]
49. Explain the mechanism of heat conduction in solids and gases (May/June 2013)
50. At a certain instant of time the temperature distribution in a long cylindrical tube is T=800+1000r-5000r2
where T is in deg Celsius and r in m .The inner and outer radius of tube are respectively 30cm and
50cm.The tube material as a thermal conductivity of 58W/mK thermal diffusivity of 0.004m2/hr. deter
mine the rate of heat flow at inside and outside surfaces per unit length, the rate of heat storage per unit
length and rate of change of temperatures at inner and outer surfaces(May/June 2013)
51. With neat sketches explain the different fin profiles. (May/June 2013)
52. Aluminum fins 1.5cm long and 1mm thick are placed on 2.5cm dia tube to dissipate heat .the tube
surface temperature is 100Deg C and ambient temperature is 25deg C .find the the heat loss per fin.if the
heat transfer coefficient between the fin surface and the ambient is 65 W/m2K.Assume K=200W/mK for
aluminium(May/June 2013)
UNIT II
CONVECTIVE HEAT TRANSFER
PART A
1MARKS
53. Radiant energy ,being electromagnetic in character
a. Needs medium for its propagation
b. needs no medium
C. needs heating before propagation
d. None of the above
54. The ratio of the energy absorbed by a body to the total incident radiation energy falling on
the body is called
a. trasmisivity
b. reflectivity C. absorptivity d. None of the above
28
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
55. Depending on the radiating properties, the bodies are classified as

a. black body
b. white body C. transparent body d. transparent body d. all of the above
56. The ratio of the energy absorbed by a body to the total incident radiation energy falling on
the body is called
a. trasmisivity
b. reflectivity C. absorptivity
57. The total emissive power for any body at a given temperature is equal to its absorptivity
multiplied by the total emissive power of a perfect black body at the same temperature -------- this statement is known as
a. forced convection
b. free convection
C. artificial convection
58. The heat transfer by radiation takes place by means of
a. electromagnetic waves b. molecular energy interchanges C. flow of electrons
d. Flow of fluid
59. The amount of radiation depends on
a. nature of the body
b. temperature of the body
C. type of surface of the body d. None
of the above
60. In the above question, the interface temperature at the end of the 2nd layer would be
a. 700oC b. 680oC
C. 500oC
d. 360oC
61. Choose the correct statement.
a. the film heat transfer co-efficient is property of the fluid
b. the thermal conductivity is
not a property of material C. a body which is black in colour is called black body
d. a body
which reflects all radiations is called white body
62. For a forced convection, Nusselt number is a function of
(a) Prandtl and Grashof numbers
(b) Grashof number only
(c) Reynold and Grashof numbers
(d) Reynold and Prandtl numbers
63. For a free convection, Nusselt number is a function of
(a) Prandtl and Grashof numbers
(b) Reynold and Grashof numbers
(c) Reynold numbers only
(d) Reynold and Prandtl numbers
64. Plank's law holds good for
(a) black bodies (b) White bodies (c) grey bodies (d) All coloured bodies
65. The difference between vapour compression and vapour absorption refrigeration cycle is
a) absorption cycle requires more work input
(b) absorption cycle requires less work input
(c) vapour compression cycle requires a pump
(d) none of the above
66. The refrigerant used in vaopour absorption refrigerator is
(a) Freon-12 (b) ammonia
(c) co2 (d) aqua- ammonia
67. Heat is absorbed by a refrigirant, duriong a refriration cycle in a
(a) condensor (b) evaporator (c) compressor (d) throttle value
68. In a vapour compression cycle that refrigirant is in the form of super heater vapour before
passing through
(a) condensor (b) evaporator (c) compressor (d) throttle value
69. A domestic refrigirator has the co-efficient of performance of
29
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
(a) equal to 1.0

(b) less than 1.0(c) more than 1.0
(d) any value
70. Choose the wrong statement
(a) a refrigirant should have high latent heat
(b) a refrigirant should have postive evaporating pressure
(c) a refrigirant should be cheap
(d) a refrigirant should have low thermal conductivity
71. Choose the correct statement
(a) super- heating in a refrigiration cycle increases C.O.P
(b) sub - cooling in a refrigiration cycle decreases C.O.P
(c) the refrigirant used uin aeroplane is Freon - II
(d) ammonia - absorption refrigiration cycle requires less work input as compared to vap[our
compression refrigeration cycle
72. The pipe material for the refrigirators using ammonia as refrigirant should be of
(a) copper (b) cast steel of wrought iron (c) brass (d) aluminum
ANSWERS
47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66
E c B a d d d d a a b D B a c d b c a c
PART B
2MARKS
73. What is dimensional analysis? [MU. Nov.96]
Dimensional analysis is a mathematical method which makes use of the study of the dimensions
for solving several engineering problems. This method can be applied to all types of fluid
resistances, heat flow problems in fluid mechanics and thermodynamics.
74. State Buckingham theorem.
[MU.Apr.97]
Buckingham theorem states as follows: If there are n variables in a dimensionally
homogeneous equation and if these contain m fundamental dimensions, then the variables are
arranged into [n m] dimensionless terms. These dimensionless terms are called terms.
75. Define Reynolds number [Re].
[Anna Univ. May 2005, June 2006 ,May/June 2013]
It is defined as the ratio of inertia force to viscous force.
Re = Inertia force / Viscous force
76. Define Prandtl number [Pr].
[Anna Univ. May 2005, June 2006. MU Oct.98, Apr.02]
It is ratio of the momentum diffusivity to the thermal diffusivity.
Pr = Momentum diffusivity / Thermal diffusivity.
77. Define Nusselt number [Nu].
Anna Univ. Dec.05, MU Apr.97, 98]
It is defined as the ratio of the heat flow by convection process under an unit temperature
gradient to the heat flow rate by conduction under an unit temperature gradient through a
stationary thickness [L] of metre.
Nusselt Number [Nu] = qconv / qcond
78. Define Grashof number] Gr].
[MU. Oct.97 & 99]
It is defined as the ratio of product of intertia force and buoyancy force to the square of viscous
force.
30
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
Gr = Intertia force x Buoyancy force / [Viscous force]2

79. Define Stanton number [St].
[Anna Univ. Dec.05]
It is the ratio of Nusselt number to the product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number.
St = Nu / Re x Pr
80. Define convection.
[MU. Oct.98]
Convection is a process of heat transfer that will occur between a solid surface and a fluid
medium when they are at different temperatures.
81. What is meant by free or natural convection? [Anna Univ. May04, Dec.04, Jun.06,
MU. Nov.96, Oct.97]
If the fluid motion is produced due to change in density resulting from temperature gradients, the
mode of heat transfer is said to be free or natural convection.
82. What is forced convection? [Anna Univ. May04, Dec.04 Jun.06 MU. Nov.96 &
Apr.98]
If the fluid motion is artificially created by means of an external force like a blower or fan, that
type of heat transfer is known as forced convection.
83. What is the form of equation used to calculate heat transfer for flow through cylindrical
pipes?
[MU. Oct.99]
Nu = 0.023 [Re]0.8 [Pr]n
n = 0.4 for heating of fluids.
n = 0.3 for cooling of fluids.
84. According to Newtons law of cooling the amount of heat transfer from a solid surface of
area A at a temperature Tw to a fluid at a temperature T is given by _____[MU.
Nov.94]
Ans: Q = hA [Tw T]
85. What are the dimensionless parameters used in forced convection? [MU. Oct.99]
e. Reynolds number [Re].
f. Nusselt number [Nu].
g. Prandtl number [Pr].
86. Define boundary layer thickness. [Anna Univ. May 2004,AU June 2012]
The thickness of the boundary layer has been defined as the distance from the surface at which
the local velocity or temperature reaches 99% of the external velocity or temperature.
87. Indicate the concept or significance of boundary layer. [Anna Univ. Dec.04, Dec.05 &
Jun.06]
In the boundary layer concept the flow field over a body is divided into two regions:
A thin region near the body called the boundary layer where the velocity and the
temperature gradients are large.
The region outside the boundary layer where the velocity and the temperature gradients are
very nearly equal to their free stream values.
PART C
16 MARKS
0
88. Air at atmospheric pressure and 200 C flows over a plate with a velocity of 5m/s. The plate is
15mm wide and is maintained at a temperature of 1200C. Calculate the thickness of
31
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers and the local heat transfer coefficient at a distance of
0.5m from the leading edge. Assume that the flow is on one side of the plate.
= 0.815kg/m3, u = 24.5 x 10-6 Ns/m2; Pr = 0.7, k = 0.0364W/mK [Anna Univ. May04]
89. Air at 200C is flowing along a heated plate at 1340C at a velocity of 3m/s. The plate is 2m long
and 1.5m wide. Calculate the thickness of the hydrodynamic boundary layer and the skin
friction coefficient at 40cm from the leading edge of the plate. The kinematic viscosity of air at
200C is 15.06 x 10-6m2/s. [Anna Univ. Dec.05]
90. Air at 250C flows over 1 m x 3 m [3 m long] horizontal plate maintained at 2000C at 10m/s.
Calculate the average heat transfer coefficients for both laminar and turbulent regions. Take Re
[critical] = 3.5 x 105.
[Anna Univ. Dec.04]
0
91. Air at 15 C, 30km/h flows over a cylinder of 400mm diameter and 1500mm height with surface
temperature of 450C. Calculate the heat loss.
92. In a surface condenser, water flows through staggered tubes while the air is passed in cross flow
over the tubes. The temperature and velocity of air are 300C and 8m/s respectively. The
longitudinal and transverse pitches are 22mm and 20mm respectively. The tube outside diameter
is 18mm and tube surface temperature is 900C. Calculate the heat transfer coefficient.
93. In a long annulus [3.125cm ID and 5cm OD] the air is heated by maintaining the temperature of
the outer surface of inner tube at 500C. The air enters at 160C and leaves at 320C. Its flow rate is
30m/s. Estimate the heat transfer coefficient between air and the inner tube.
[MU, April 2000]
94. Engine oil flows through a 50mm diameter tube at an average temperature of 1470C. The flow
velocity is 80cm/s. Calculate the average heat transfer coefficient if the tube wall is maintained
at a temperature of 2000C and it is 2 m long.
[MU, Oct.02]
95. A large vertical plate 5 m height is maintained at 1000C and exposed to air at 300C. Calculate
the convective heat transfer coefficient. [Anna Univ. June 2006]
96. A steam pipe 10cm outside diameter runs horizontally in a room at 230C. Take the outside
surface temperature of pipe as 1650C. Determine the heat loss per metre length of the pipe.
[Anna Univ. Dec. 2004]
97. A thin 80cm long and 8cm wide horizontal plate is maintained at a temperature of 1300C in large
tank full of water at 700C. Estimate the rate of heat input into the plate necessary to maintain the
temperature of 1300C.
[Anna Univ. May 2005]
98. Air at 400 K and 1 atm pressure flows at a speed of 1.5 m/s over a flat plate of 2 m long. The
plate is maintained at a uniform temperature of 300 K. If the plate has a width of 0.5 m, estimate
the heat transfer coefficient and the rate of heat transfer from the air stream to the plate. Also
estimate the drag force acting on the plate. [Anna Univ. June 2012]
99. A steam pipe 10 cm OD runs horizontally in a room at 23 C. Take outside temperature of pipe
as 165 C. Determine the heat loss per unit length of the pipe. Pipesurface temperature reduces
to 80 C with 1.5 cm insulation. What is the reduction in heat loss3? [Anna Univ. June 2012]
100.
Define Reynolds, Nusselt and Prandtl numbers[Anna Univ. June 2012]
101.
A 6 m long section of an 8 cm diameter horizontal hot water pipe passes through a large
room in which the air and walls are at 20C. The pipe surface is at 70C and the emissivity of the
pipe surface is 0.7. Find the rate of heat loss from the pipe by natural convection and radiation.
32
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
102.
Water at 60 deg C and a velocity of 2cm/sec flows over a 5m long flat plate which is
maintained at a temperature of 20 deg C.Determine the total drag force and the rate of heat
transfer per unit width of the entire plate. (May/June 2013)
103.
Discuss briefly the development of velocity boundary layer for flow through a pipe.
(May/June 2013)
UNIT III PHASE CHANGE HEAT TRANSFER AND HEAT

EXCHANGERS
PART A
1 MARK
104.
A refrigerating machine
(a) removes heat from a high temperature region to transfer it to a low temperature region N
(b) reject energy to a low temperature region
(c) Removes it from a low temperature region to transfer it to a high temperature region (d) none
of the above
105.
Relative co-efficient of performance is equal to
(a) ratio of actual and theoretical C.O.P
(b) product of actual and theoretical C.O.P
(c) difference of theoretical and actual C.O.P
(d) ratio of theoretical and actual C.O.P
106.
The capacity of a refrigirator is one tonne, this means that the heat removing capacity
(or refrigiration effect) of the refigerator
(a) 1000 kcal/hr
(b) 2000 kcal/hr
(c) 3000 kcal/hr
(d) 4000 kcal/hr
107.
The C.O.P of a refrigerating machine, when lower temperature is fixed , can be
improved by
(a) raising the higher temperature
(b) lowering the higher temperature
(c) keeping higher temperature constant
(d) first increasing then decreasing
108.
The refrigerating effect means
(a) The heat rejected from the system per hour (b) the work done on the system
(c) The heat absorbed in the cycle from the body or space to be cooled
109.
If the ratio of highest absolute temperature to lowest absolute temperature is the
Same as
in question 114 and the cycle is used as heat pump the co-efficient of Performance for the
Carnot heat pump would
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3
110.
Choose the correct statement
(a) The co-efficient of performance is always less than one
(b) The horse power per ton of refrigerating is 4.75 X C.O.P
(c) In SI units, one tone of refrigerating is equal to 210 kj/min
(d) In a refrigerating machine heat rejected is less than heat absorbed
111.
The cycle, on which air refrigerator works, is
33
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
(a) Rankin cycle

(b) Bell-Coleman cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Reversed Carnot cycle
(e) Both (b) and (d)
112.
Which of the following is used as working fluid vapour in vapour compression
refrigerator
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) ammonia (c) freon-12 (d) all of the above (e) none of the above
113.
Wet compression cycle for a vapors compression refrigerator means
(a) The entire compression of the vapors should be in wet region
(b)The entire compression of the vapors should be in super heated region
(c) The vapor enters the compressor in dry and saturated state but leaves the compressor in wet
state (d) None of the above
114.
Dry compression cycle for a vapour compression refrigerator means
(a) The entire compression of the vapour should be in wet region
(b)The entire compression of the vapour should be in super heated region
(c) The vapour enters the compressor in dry and saturated state but leaves the compressor
in wet state (d) none of the above
115.
In a vapors compression refrigerator, the oil separator is installed between
(a) Evaporator and compressor
(b) Compressor and condenser
(c)Condenser and throttle valve
(d) throttle valve and evaporator
116.
The co-efficient of performance in wet compression as compared to dry compression
is
(a) Lower (b) higher (c) Same (d) none of the above
117.
Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle
(a) Decrease the net refrigerating effect
(b) Increase the net refrigerating effect
(c) Has no effect on the net refrigerating effect
(d) first increases then decreases the net refrigerating effect
118.
The co-efficient of performance of vapors compression refrigerating cycle using
expression
cylinder instead of throttle valve
(a) is higher (b) is lower (c) is same
119.
The under cooling is the process of cooling the refrigerator
(a) after compression
(b) before compression
(c) after condensation before throttling (d) none of the above
120.
If a refrigerant is having low specific heat, then co-efficient of performance will be
(a) lower (b)higher (c) same (d)none of the above
121.
A good refrigerant should be of
(a) low specific heat
(b) high latent heat
(c) high critical pressure
(d) high thermal conductivity
(e) all of the above
(f) none of the above
122.
The evaporating pressure of a refrigerant should be
(a) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(b) lower than atmospheric pressure
(c) Higher than atmospheric pressure
34
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
123.
The specific volume of a refrigerant should be
(a) high (b) low (c) normal (d) none of the above
ANSWERS
98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117
b c b
c
C
e
d
A
B
b
b
b
a
c
b
e
c
b
b
c
PART B
2 MARKS
124.
Define boiling. [Anna Univ. June 2012]
The change of phase from liquid to vapour state is known as boiling.
125.
What is meant by condensation? [Anna Univ. June 2012]
The change of phase from vapour to liquid state is known as condensation.
126.
What is meant by pool boiling?
If heat is added to a liquid from a submerged solid surface, the boiling process is referred to
as pool boiling. In this case the liquid above the hot surface is essentially stagnant and its
motion near the surface is due to free convection and mixing induced by bubble growth and
detachment.
127.
What are the modes of condensation?
There are two modes of condensation
1. Film wise condensation
2. Drop wise condensation
128.
What is meant by Film wise condensation? [MU, April 2000, Oct. 2000] [Anna Univ.
Dec. 2004, 2005 & June 2006]
The liquid condensate wets the solid surface, spreads out and forms a continuous film over the
entire surface is known as film wise condensation.
129.
What is meant Drop wise condensation?
[MU, April 2000, Oct. 2000] [Anna
Univ. Dec. 2004, 2005 & June 2006]
In drop wise condensation, the vapour condenses into small liquid droplets of various sizes
which fall down the surface in a random fashion.
130.
Give the merits of drop wise condensation.
[MU, April 1999]
In drop wise condensation, a large portion of the area of the plate is directly exposed to
vapors. The heat transfer rate in drop wise condensation is 10 times higher than in film
condensation.
131.
Draw different regions of boiling and what is nucleate boiling?[MU, April 1999,April
2002]
Nucleate boiling exists in regions II and III. The nucleate boiling begins at region II. As the
excess temperature is further increased, bubbles are formed more rapidly and rapid
evaporation takes place. This is indicated in region III. Nucleate boiling exists up to T = 500C.
132.
What are the types of heat exchangers? [Anna Univ. Dec. 2005]
The types of heat exchangers are as follows
Direct contact heat exchangers, Indirect contact heat exchangers, Surface heat exchangers,
and Parallel flow heat exchangers, Counter flow heat exchangers, Cross flow heat
exchangers, Shell and tube heat exchangers, Compact heat exchangers
133.
What is meant by parallel flow heat exchanger?
[Anna Univ. May05]
In this type of heat exchanger, hot and cold fluids move in the same direction.
35
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
134.
What is meant by counter flow heat exchanger?
[Anna Univ. May05]
In this type of heat exchanger, hot and cold fluids move in parallel but opposite direction.
135.
What is meant by compact heat exchanger?
[MU, Nov. 1996] [Anna Univ. June
2012]
There are many special purpose heat exchangers called compact heat exchangers. They are
generally employed when convective heat transfer co-efficient associated with one of the fluids
is much smaller than that associated with the other fluid.
136.
What is meant by Shell and tube heat exchanger
In this type of heat exchanger, one of the fluids moves through a bundle of tubes enclosed
by a shell. The other fluid is forced through the shell and it moves over the outside surface
of the tubes.
137.
What is meant by Fouling factor?
[MU, Nov.96]
We know the surface of a heat exchangers do not remain clean after it has been in use for some
time. The surfaces become fouled with scaling or deposits. The effect of these deposits
affecting the value of overall heat transfer co-efficient. This effect is taken care of by
introducing an additional thermal resistance called the fouling resistance.
138.
What is meant by Effectiveness?
The heat exchanger effectiveness is defined as the ratio of actual heat transfer to the maximum
possible heat transfer.
Effectiveness = Actual heat transfer / Maximum possible heat transfer
PART B
16 MARKS
139.
An aluminium pan of 15cm diameter is used to boil water and the water depth at the time of
boiling is 2.5cm. The pan is placed on an electric stove and the heating element raises the
temperature of the pan to 1100C. Calculate the power input for boiling and the rate of
evaporation. Take Csf = 0.0132.
140.
It is desired to boil water at atmospheric pressure on a copper surface which is electrically
heated. Estimate the heat flux from the surface to the water, if the surface is maintained at 110C
and also the peak heat flux. [Anna Univ. June 2006]
141.
Dry saturated steam at a pressure of 2.45 bar condenses on the surface of a vertical tube of
height 1 m. The tube surface temperature is kept at 1170C. Estimate the thickness of the
condensate film.
142.
A tube of 2m length and 25mm outer diameter is to be condense saturated steam at 1000C
while the tube surface is maintained at 960C. Estimate the average heat transfer co-efficient and
the rate of condensation of steam if the tube is kept horizontal. The steam condenses on the
outside of the tube.
143.
In a double pipe counter flow heat exchanger, 10,000kg/hr of an oil having a specific heat of
2095J/kg-K is cooled from 800C to 500C by 8000kg/hr of water entering at 250C. Determine the
heat exchanger area for an overall heat transfer co-efficient of 300W/m2K. Take Cp for water as
4180J/kg-K.
36
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
144.
In a counter flow double pipe heat exchanger, water is heated from 250C to 650C by an oil
with a specific heat of 1.45 KJ/kg K and mass flow rate is 0.9 Kg/s. The oil is cooled from 2300C
to 1600C. If the overall heat transfers co-efficient is 420 W/m2 0C, calculate the following.
h.The rate of heat transfer
i. The mass flow rate of water
j. The surface area of the heat exchanger.
145.
A counter flow concentric tube heat exchanger is used to cool engine oil [C = 2130J/kg K]
from 1600C to 600C with water available at 250C as the cooling medium. The flow rate of
cooling water through the inner tube of 0.5m is 2kg/s while the flow rate of oil through the outer
annulus, Outer diameter = 0.7m is also 2kg/s. If U is 250Wm2K, how long must the heat
exchanger be to meet its cooling requirement?
146.
It is desired to use double pipe counter flow heat exchanger to cool 3kg/s of oil [Cp =
2.1kJ/kg K] from 1200C. Cooling water at 200C enters the heat exchanger at a rate of 10kg/s.
The overall heat transfer co-efficient of the heat exchange is 600 W/m2K and the heat transfer
area is 6m2. Calculate the exit temperature of oil and water.[AU. June 2006].
147.
A parallel flow heat exchanger has hot and cold water stream running through it, the flow
rates are 10 and 25kg/min respectively. Inlet temperatures are 750C and 250C on hot and cold
sides. The exit temperature on the hot side should not exceed 500C. Assume hi = h0 =
600W/m2K. Calculate the area of heat exchangers using = NTU approach.[AU.Dec. 2005]
148.
Exhaust gases flowing through a tubular heat exchanger at a rate of 0.4 kg/s are cooled from
0
450 C to 1500C by water initially at 150C. The specific heats of exhaust gases and water may be
taken as 1.13 and 4.19kJ/kg0C respectively, and the overall heat transfer co-efficient from gases
to water is 140W/m2 0C. Calculate the surface area required for the following cases, when the
cooling water flow is 0.5 kg/s; [i] parallel flow [ii] counter flow.
149.
Define effectiveness of a heat exchanger. Derive an expression for the effectiveness of a double pipe
parallel flow heat exchanger. State the assumptions made.[Anna Univ. May 2012]
150.
A tube of 2 m length and 25 mm outer diameter is to be used to condense saturated steam at
100C while the tube surface is maintained at 92C. Estimate the average heat transfer
coefficient and the rate of condensation of steam if the tube is kept horizontal. The steam
condenses on the outside of the tube. [Anna Univ. May 2012]
151.
Derive the LMTD for a parallel flow heat exchanger stating the assumptions. [Anna Univ.
May 2012]
152.
Consider laminar film condensation of a stationary vapour on a vertical flat plate of length
L and width b. Derive an expression for the average heat transfer coefficient. State the
assumptions made. [Anna Univ. May 2012]
153.
Discuss briefly the pool boiling regimes of water at atmospheric pressure(May/June 2013)
154.
Hot exhaust gases which enters a cross flow heat exchanger at 300 deg C and leave at 100
deg C are used to heat water at flow rate of 1kg/s from 35 to 125 deg C.The specific heat of the
gas is 1000J/kgK and the overall heat transfer coefficient based on the gas side surface is 100
W/m2 K .find the required gas side surface area using the NTU-method and LMTD method.
(May/June 2013)
37
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
UNIT IV RADIATION
PART A
1 MARKS
155.
Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest specific volume
(a) ammonia (b) carbon dioxide (c) freon-12 (d) freon-22
156.
The refrigerant, which has the lowest boiling point is
(a) freon-12 (b) freon-22 (c) ammonia (d) carbon dioxide
157.
In vapour absorption refrigerant
(a) vapour compressor is used (b)a liquid pump is used
(c) both a vapour compressor and a liquid pump is used (d) none of the above
158.
The C.O.P of the vapour absorption cycle as compared to vapour compression cycle is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
159.
Electrolux refrigerator is a
(a) vapour compression refrigerator
(b) vapour absorption refrigerator without a liquid pump
(c) vapour absorption refrigerator without any pump
160.
In electrolux refrigerator
(a) Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
(b) ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
(c) ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
(d) ammonia is absorbed in water
161.
In electrolux refrigerator
(a) There is no noise
(b) there is no moving machinery
(c)no electricity is requred
(d) all the above
162.
The refrigerating system, used for most of the domestic refrigerator, is of the type of
(a) vapour absorption
(b) electrolux refrigerator
(c) vapour compression
(d) air refrigeration cycle
163.
The refrigerant usually used for refrigeration in aeroplanes is
(a) cabon dioxide (b) ammonia (c) freon-12
(d) air
164.
The refrigerant in present practice are identified by number. the refrigerant number
R-717 means
(a) carbon dioxide (b) ammonia (c) sulphur dioxide (d) methyl chloride
165.
The refrigerant number R-744 means
166.
The refrigerant number R-40 means
167.
The boiling point of carbon- dioxide as compared to ammonia is
(a) higher (b) lower
(c) same (d) none of the above
168.
The refrigerants (NH3, CO2, F-22, F-12) in order of decreasing freezing pointre
(a) NH3, CO2, F-22, F-12
(b) NH3, CO2, F-12, F-22
(c) CO2, NH3, F-22, F-12
(d) F-12, F-22, NH3, CO2
169.
For large commerical installations, ammonia is used as a refrigirant because
(a) it has large latent heat
(b) it is relativly cheap
38
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
(c) it has moderate working pressure

170.
The evaporator and condensor pressure should be
(a) Below atmospheric pressure
(b) above the atmospheric pressure
(c) At the atmospheric pressure
171.
If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is very near the condensing temperatue, the
power requirements are
(a) small
(b) large (c) same
172.
A refrigerant should have the freezing temperature
(a) below- 35degree C
(b) above -35 degree
(c) at- 35 degree C
173.
Carbon di oxide is compared to other refrigerants has
(a) Lowest C.O.P
(b) highest C.O.P
(c) Same C.O.P
174.
The latent heat of vaporizations is minimum in the case of
(a) CO 2 (b) NH3 (c) Freon - 22
(d) Feron 12
ANSWERS
147 148
149
150
152
153
154
155
156
157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166
PART B
2 MARKS
175.
Define Radiation.
The heat transfer from one body to another without any transmitting medium is known as
radiation. It is an electromagnetic wave phenomenon.
176.
Define emissive power.[E b]. [Anna Univ. Dec.05, MU, Oct.97 & Oct. 2000]
The emissive power is defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a body per unit time
and unit area. It is expressed in W/m2.
177.
Define monochromatic emissive power. [E b2]
The energy emitted by the surface at a given length per unit time per unit area in all directions in
known as monochromatic emissive power.
178.
What is meant by absorptive?
[Anna Univ. Dec.04]
Absorptive is defined as the ratio between radiation absorbed and incident radiation. Absorptive,
= Radiation absorbed / Incident radiation
179.
What is meant by reflectivity?
[Anna Univ. Dec.04]
Reflectivity is defined as the ratio of radiation reflected to the incident radiation.
Reflectivity, = Radiation reflected / Incident radiation
180.
What is meant by transmissivity?
Transmissivity is defined as the ratio of radiation transmitted to the incident radiation.
Transmissivity, t = Radiation transmitted / Incident radiation
181.
What is black body?
[MU, Apr.97 & Apr.99, Anna Univ. Dec.04, Dec.05 June
2006]
Black body is an ideal surface having the following properties.
A black body absorbs all incident radiation, regardless of wave length and direction.
For a prescribed temperature and wave length, no surface can emit more energy than black body.
39
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
182.
What is meant by gray body? [MU, April 2000, Anna Univ. Dec.04, Dec.05 & June]
If a body absorbs a definite percentage of incident radiation irrespective of their wave length, the
body is known as gray body. The emissive power of a gray body is always less than that of the
black body.
183.
State Kirchoffs' law of radiation. MU, April 2001, Anna Univ. Dec.04 & June 06]
This law states that the ratio of total emissive power to the absorptivity is constant for all surfaces
which are in thermal equilibrium with the surroundings. This can be written as
E1/ 1 = E2 / 2 = E3 / 3
It also states that the emissivity of the body is always equal to its absorptivity when the body
remains in thermal equilibrium with its surroundings.
1 = E1; 2 = E2 and so on.
184.
What is the purpose of radiation shield?[Mu, Apr.99, Oct.99 Apr. 2001 A U.May 04]
Radiation shields constructed from loq emissivity [high reflective] materials. It is used to reduce
the net radiation transfer between two surfaces.
185.
Define irradiation [G].
[MU, Nov.96, May/June 2013]
It is defined as the total radiation incident upon a surface per unit time per unit area It is in
W/m2.
186.
What is radiosity [J]. [MU, April 2001, Anna Univ. Dec.05 May/June 2013]
It is used to indicate the total radiation leaving a surface per unit time per unit area. It is
expressed in W/m2.
187.
What is meant by shape factor and mention its physical significance? [ Mu, Oct.97,
April
98 Oct.01, Anna Univ. May 2005]
The shape factor is defined as The fraction of the radiative energy that is diffused from one
surface element and strikes the other surface directly with no intervening reflections. It is
represented by Fu. Other names for radiation shape factor are view factor, angle factor and
configuration factor. The shape factor is used in the analysis of radiative heat exchange between
two surfaces.
188.
What are the assumptions made to calculate radiation exchange between the surfaces?
All surfaces are considered to be either black or gray.
Radiation and reflection process are assumed to be diffuse.
The absorptivity of a surface is taken equal to its emissivity and independent of temperature of
the source of the incident radiation.
189.
Discuss the radiation characteristics of carbon dioxide and water vapour.[A U. Dec.
2005]
The CO2 and H2O both absorb and emit radiation over certain wavelength regions called
absorption bands.
The radiation in these gases is a volume phenomenon.
The emissivity of CO2 and the emissivity of H2O at a particular temperature increases with
partial pressure and mean beam length.
PART B
16 MARKS
40
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
190.
The sun emits maximum radiation at = 0.52 . Assuming the sun to be a black body,
calculate the surface temperature of the sun. Also calculate the monochromatic emissive power
of the suns surface.
[MU, April 98]
191.
A furnace wall emits radiation at 2000 K. Treating it as black body radiation, calculate 1.
Monochromatic radiant flux density at 1 m wave length. 2. Wave length at which emission is
maximum and the corresponding emissive power. 3. Total emissive power.
[MU, April 98]
2
192.
Calculate the net radiant heat exchange per m area for two large parallel plates at
temperature of 4270C and 270C respectively. [hot plate] = 0.9 and [cold plate] = 0.6. If a polished
aluminium shield is placed between them, find the percentage of reduction in the heat transfer.
[shiedl] = 0.4.
193.
Two large parallel planes at 800 K and 600 K have emissivities of 0.5 and 0.8 respectively.
A radiation shield having an emissivity of 0.1 on one side and an emissivity of 0.05 on the other
side is placed between the plates. Calculate the heat transfer rate by radiation per square meter
with and without radiation shield. Common on the results.[A U. Dec. 2005]
194.
Two very large parallel plate with emissivities 0.5 exchange heat. Determine the percentage
reduction in the heat transfer rate if a polished aluminium radiationshield of = 0.04 is placed in
between the plates.
195.
Emissivities of two large parallel planes maintained at 8000C and 3000C are 0.3 and 0.5
respectively. Find the net radiant heat exchange per square metre for these plates.
[MU, Oct.
2001]
196.
Find the velocity heat transfer between two large planes at temperature 1000 K and 500 K
when they are 1. Black bodies. 2. Grey bodies with emissivities of each surface is 0.7. [MU,
May 2002]
197.
Two parallel plates of size 1 m x 1 m are spaced 0.5 m apart are located in a very large
room, the walls of which are maintained at a temperature of 270C. One plate is maintained at a
temperature of 9000C and the other at 4000C. Their emissivities are 0.2 and 0.5 respectively. If
the plates exchange heat between themselves and surroundings, find the net heat transfer to each
plate and to the room. Consider only the plate surfaces facing each other.
[Anna Univ.
May 2004]
198.
Two black square plats of size 1 by 1m are placed parallel to each other at a distance of
0.4m. One plate is maintained at a temperature of 9000C and the other at 4000C. Find the net
heat exchange of energy due to radiation between the two plates.
[MU, Oct.99]
199.
Two circular discs of diameter 20cm each arepplaced 2m apart. Calculate the radiant heat
exchange for these discs if there are maintained at 8000C and 3000C respectively and the
corresponding emissivities are 0.3 and 0.5.
[MU, Apr. 2000]
200.
State and prove the following laws:
(1) Kirchoffs law of radiation
(2) Stefan - Boltzmann law[Anna Univ. May 2012]
201.
Liquid Helium at 4.2 K is stored in a dewar flask of inner diameter = 0.48 m and outer
diameter = 0.5 m. The dewar flask can be treated as a spherical vessel. The outer surface of the
inner vessel and the inner surface of the outer vessel are well polished and the emissivity of these
surfaces is 0.05. The space between the two vessels is thoroughly evacuated. The inner surface of
41
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
the dewar flask is at 4.2 K while the outer surface is at 300 K. Estimate the rate of heat transfer
between the surfaces. [Anna Univ. May 2012]
202.
Two large parallel plates of 1m1m spaced 0.5m apart in a very large room whose walls are
at 27C. The plates are at 900C and 400C with emissivities 0.2 and 0.5 respectively. Find the
net heat transfer to each plate and to the room. [Anna Univ. May 2012]
203.
What is a black body? A 20cm dia spherical ball at 527 deg C is suspended in the air.the ball
closely approx a black body. determine the total black body emissive power and spectral black
body emissive power at a wave length of 3micro meter. (May/June 2013)
UNIT V
MASS TRANSFER
PART A
I MARK
204.
Choose wrong statement
(a) ammonia attacks cooper and copper alloys
(b) ammonia is non corrosive to iron and steel
(c) Freon groups do not attack any metals
(d) CO2 is having high specifc volume as compared to ammonia
205.
The refrigerant which is non - toxic and non - flammable, is
(a) sulphur-di-oxide
(b) Freon - 12
(c) ammonia
(d) CO2
(d) both (b) and (d)
(f) both (a) and (c)
206.
The temperature of air at which condenstation of moisure begins when the air is
cooled is known as
(a) dry bulb temperature
(b) dew point temperature
(c) wet bulb temperature
(d) saturation temperature
207.
If Ma = mass of dry air and Ms= mass of water vapour in a air - water vapour
mixture, the humidity ratio is given by heat transfer , refrigiration and air conditioning
(a)
Ms
(b)
Ma
----------------------------------Ma + Ms
Ma + Ms
(c) Ms
(c)
Ma
-------------------------------------Ma
Ms
208.
The science which deals with the behaviour of mixture of air and water is called
(a) psychometry
(b) air - conditioning
(c) hygrometry
(d) any one of (a) and (c)
(e) none of the above
209.
Relative humidity of air is defined as the ratio of
(a) mass of water vapour in a given voluime to the total mass of the mixture of air and water
vapour
(b) mass of water vapour in a given volume to the mass of water vapour if saturated at the same
temperature
(c) mass of water vapour in a given volume to the mass of air
(d) mass of air to the mass of water vapour in the mixture of air and water vapour
210.
Absolute humidity is defined as
(a) actual mass of air in a unit volume of air and water vapour mixture
42
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
(b) actual mass of water vapour in a unit volume of air

(c) actual mass of water vapour in a unit volumae of air and water vapour mixture
(d) actual mass of air in a unit volume of water vapour
211. If the relative humidity is high, the rate of evaporation of water will be
(a) high
(b) low
(c) zero
212.
In a psychrometric chart, the horizontal scale shows
(a) wet bulb temperature
(b) dry bulb temperature
(c) adiabatic saturation temperature
(d) specific humidity
213.
In a psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are
(a) curved (b) inclined and straight but non-uniformly spaced
(c) horizontally and non-uniformly spaced (d) horizontally and uniformly spaced
214.
Sensible heat factor ( SHF) is defined as the ratio of
(a) latent heat to sensible heat
(b) sensible heat to latent heat
(c) latent heat to total heat
(d) sensible heat to total heat
215.
Which of the following is psychometric process
(a)humidification
(b) dehumidification
(c) sensible heating
(d) adiabatic mixing of steam
(e) all the above
(f) none of the above
216.
The process of cooling of air at the same humidity ratio is known as
(a) Sensible heating
(b) sensible cooling
(c) Humidification
(d) dehumidification
217.
The process of removing moisture from air at constant dry bulb temperature is
known as
(a) Sensible heating
(b) sensible cooling
(c) humidification
(d) dehumidification
218.
The process of heat transfer ,from one particle of the to another by the actual motion
of heated particles, is called
k. radiation
b. convection C. conduction d. none of the above
219.
The thermal conductivity in SI units is expressed as
l.
j/m 2 o k
b. w/m o k
c. w/m o k sec
d. wm/ o k
220.
Depending on the radiating properties, the bodies are classified as
a. black body
b. white body C. transparent body d. transparent body d. all of the above
221.
The total emissive power for any body at a given temperature is equal to its
absorptivity multiplied by the total emissive power of a perfect black body at the same
temperature ---------- this statement is known as
a. forced convection b. free convection C. artificial convection
222.
The capacity of a refrigirator is one tonne, this means that the heat removing capacity
(or refrigiration effect) of the refigerator
(a) 1000 kcal/hr
(b) 2000 kcal/hr (c) 3000 kcal/hr
(d) 4000 kcal/hr
223.
The cycle, on which air refrigerator works, is
(a) Rankine cycle (b) Bell-Coleman cycle (c) Carnot cycle
(d) Reversed carnot cycle
(e) Both (b) and (d)
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ANSWERS
195
b
196
C
197
C
198
D
199
b
200
A
201
b
202
b
203
B
204
b
205
d
206
e
207
b
208
d
209
b
210
c
211
d
212
e
213
a
PART B
2MARKS
224.
What is mass transfer?
The process of transfer of mass as a result of the species concentration difference in a mixture
is known as m ass transfer.
225.
Give the examples of mass transfer. [MU, Nov.96, Oct.99]
Some examples of mass transfer are
m.
Humidification of air in cooling tower
n.Evaporation of petrol in the carburetor of an IC engine
o.The transfer of water vapour into dry air.
226.
What are the modes of mass transfer?
There are basically two modes of mass transfer, 1. Diffusion mass transfer, 2. Convective mass
transfer.
227.
What is molecular diffusion? [Anna Univ. June 2006]
The transport of water on a microscopic level as a result of diffusion from a region of higher
concentration to a region of lower concentration in a mixture of liquids or gases is known as
molecular diffusion.
228.
What is Eddy diffusion?
When one of the diffusion fluids is in turbulent motion, eddy diffusion takes place.
229.
What is convective mass transfer?
Convective mass transfer is a process of mass transfer that will occur between a surface and a fluid
medium when they are at different concentrations.
230.
State Ficks law of diffusion.
[Anna Univ. Dec.04, May05, & June06, MU, Oct.97,
99, 2000 & April 98,Anna Univ. May 2012]
The diffusion rate is given by the Ficks law, which states that molar flux of an element per unit
area is directly proportional to concentration gradient.
ma/A = -Dab dCa/dx
Where,
ma/A Molar flux kg-mole / s m2
Dab Diffusion co-efficient of species a and b, m2/s
dCa / dx Concentration gradient, kg/m3
231.
What is free convective mass transfer? [MU,Oct.97]
If the fluid motion is produced due to change in density resulting from concentration gradients, the
mode of mass transfer is said to be free or natural convective mass transfer.
Example: Evaporation of alcohol.
232.
Define forced convective mass transfer. [MU, Apr.97]
If the fluid motion is artificially created by means of an external force like a blower or fan, that
type of mass transfer is known as convective mass transfer.
Example: The evaporation of water from an ocean when air blows over it.
44
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233.
Define Schmidt Number.
MU, April 97 & Oct.97]
It is defined as the ration of the molecular diffusivity of momentum to the molecular diffusivity of
mass. Sc = Molecular diffusivity of momentum / Molecular diffusivity of mass
234.
Define Sherwood Number.[Anna Univ. May 04, MU, Apr.97 & 2001,Anna Univ. May
2012]
It is defined as the ratio of concentration gradients at the boundary.
Sh = hmx /Dab
hm - Mass transfer co-efficient, m/s
Dab - Diffusion co-efficient, m2/s
x Length, m
235.
Give two examples of convective mass transfer.
1. Evaporation of alcohol, 2. Evaporation of water from an ocean when air blows over it.
236.
Define the Mass Concentration. [Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05]
Mass of a component per unit volume of the mixture. It is expressed in kg/m3.
Mass concentration = Mass of a component/Unit volume of mixture.
237.
Define the Molar Concentration. [Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05]
Molar concentration = Number of moles of component / Unit volume of mixture
238.
Define the following. [Anna Univ. Dec.04 & Dec.05]
[i] Mass fraction.
[ii] Mole fraction
[i] Mass fraction: The mass fraction is defined as the ratio of mass concentration of species to the
total mass density of the mixture.
Mass fraction = Mass concentration of a species / Total mass density
[ii] Mole fraction: The mole fraction is defined as the ratio of mole concentration of a species to
the total molar concentration.
Mole concentration = Mole concentration of a species / Total molar concentration
PART C
16MARKS
239.
Oxygen at 250C and pressure of 2 bar is flowing through a rubber pipe of inside diameter
25mm and wall thickness 2.5mm. The diffusivity of O2 through rubber is 0.21 x 10-9 m2/s and the
solubility of O2 in rubber is 3.12 x 10-3 kg-mole/m3-bar. Find the loss of O2 by diffusion per
metre length of pipe. [MU, April 1998 & April 2000]
240.
Hydrogen gas at 2 atm and 250C is flowing through a rubber pipe of ID = 25mm and OD =
50mm. The diffusivity of hydrogen through the rubber is 0.7 x 10-4 m2/h. The solubility of
hydrogen = 0.053 kg-mole / m3-bar. Find the loss of Hydrogen by diffusion per metre length of
pipe.
[MU, Apr.97]
241.
Two large tanks, maintained at the same temperature and pressure are connected by a
circular 0.15m diameter direct, which is 3m in length. One tank contains a uniform mixture of
60 mole % ammonia and 40 mole % air and the other tank contains a uniform mixture of 20
mole % ammonia and 80 mole % air. The system is at 273 K and 1.013 x 105 pa. Determine the
rate of ammonia transfer between the two tanks. Assuming a steady state mass transfer.
[MSU, Nov.96, MU, Nov.96]
242.
CO2 and air experience equimolar counter diffusion in a circular tube whose length and
diameter are 1 m and 50mm respectively. The system is at a total pressure of 1 atm and a
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temperature of 250C. The ends of the tube are connected to large chambers in which the species
concentrations are maintained at fixed values. The partial pressure of CO2 at one end is 190mm
of Hg while the other end is 95mm HG. Estimate the mass transfer rate of CO2 and air through
the tube. [Bharathidasan Univ. Apr.98, MU, Apr.98 Oct. 2002]
243.
An open pan 20cm in diameter and 8cm deep contains water at 250C and is exposed to dry
atmospheric air. If the rate of diffusion of water vapour is 8.54 x 10-4 kg/h, estimate the
diffusion co-efficient of water in air. [Anna Univ. May05]
244.
An open pan of 150mm diameter and 75mm deep contains water at 250C and is exposed to
atmosphere air at 250C and 50% R.H. Calculate the evaporation rate of water in grams per hour.
[MU, April 2002]
245.
Dry air at 200C [ = 1.2 kg/m3, v = 15 x 10-6 m2/s. D = 4.2 x 10-5 m2/s] flows over a flat
plate of length 50cm which is covered with a thin layer of water at a velocity of 1m/s. Estimate
the local mass transfer co-efficient at a distance of 10cm from the leading edge and the average
mass transfer co-efficient.
0
246.
Air at 1 atm and 25 C containing small quantities of iodine flow with a velocity of 6.2 m/s
inside a 35 mm diameter tube. Calculate mass transfer co-efficient for iodine. The thermo
physical properties of air are v = 15.5 x 10-6 m2/s, D = 0.82 x 10-5m2/s. [Anna Univ. May 2004]
247.
Dry air at 270C and 1 atm flows over a wet flat plate 50 cm long and velocity of 50 m/s.
Calculate the mass transfer co-efficient of water vapour in air at the end of the plate. Take D =
0.26 x 10-4 m2/s.
[MU, Oct.99 & Oct.01]
0
248.
Air at 25 C an atmospheric pressure flows with a velocity of 3 m/s inside a 10mm diameter
tube of 1 m length. The inside surface of the tube contains a deposit of naphthalene. Determine
the average mass transfer co-efficient. Take for Naphthalene air, D = 0.62 x 10-5 m2/s.
[MU, April 2000]
249.
Air at 1.01 bar and 30C flows past a tray full of water with a velocity of 2 m/s. The partial
pressure of water vapors is 0.7 kPa and the saturation pressure is 3.17 kPa. The tray measures 40
cm along the flow direction and has a width of 20 cm. Calculate the evaporation rate of water if
the temperature on the water surface is 25C. Assume the following properties for air:
density 1.2 kg/m3, kinematic viscosity? = 15 10-6 m2/s and diffusivity, D = 0.145 m2/h [Anna
Univ. May 2012]
250.
The temperature recorded by a thermometer whose bulb covered by a wet wick in dry air at
atmospheric pressure is 22C. Estimate the true air temperature. (i) Analogy between heat and
mass transfer. [Anna Univ. May 2012(May/June 2013)
251.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Evaporation process in the atmosphere.
(ii) Equimolar counter diffusion. [Anna Univ. May 2012]
252.
Define mass transfer co.eff .air at 1 bar pressure and 25 deg C containing small quantities of
Iodine flows with a velocity of 5.2m/s. inside a tube having an inner dia of 3.05cm.find the mass
transfer co.efficient for Iodine transfer from gas stream to the wall surface. if Cm is the mean
concentration of iodine in kg.mol/m3 in the air stream ,find the rate of deposition of iodine on
the tube surface by assuming wall surface is perfect sink for iodine deposition. Assume
D=0.0834cm2/sec(May/June 2013)
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MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY II
UNIT I /THEORY OF METAL CUTTING
PART-A
1MARK
1. The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel in
a. orthogonal cutting of metals
b. oblique cutting of metals
c. both a & b above
2.The cutting edge of the tool is inclined at angle less then 90 to the direction of tool travel in
c. both a & b above
3.Two components of the cutting forces. Which are perpendicular are acting on the cutting tool
c. both a & b above
4.Orthogonal cutting system is also known as
a. One dimensional cutting system
b. two dimensional cutting system
c. three dimensional cutting system d. none of the above
5.Three components of the cutting forces which are mutually perpendicular arc acting at the
cutting edge in
c. both a & b above
6.In orthogonal cutting system
a. the cutting tool prepares a surface parallel to the work face
b. the chip flows over the tool face and direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to the cutting
edge c. the maximum chip thickness occurs at the middle d. all of the above
7.A single point tool has
a. lip angle b. rake angle c. cutting angle d. clearance angle e. all of the above
8.Lip angle of single point tool
a. 20 to 40 degree
b. 40 to 50 degree
c. 50 to 60 degree d. 60 to 80 degree
9.In a single point tool the angle by which the face of the tool is inclined toward back is known
a. side rake angle
b. back rack angle c. end relief angle d. side relief angle
10. In a single point tool the angle by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways is known as
a. side rake angle b. back rack angle c. end relief angle d. side relief angle
11. Height of the centre measured from the bed of the lathe as compared to swing diameter over
the bed is
a. half b. double c. same d. four times
12. Lathe bed is made of
a. mild steel b. cast iron c. close grain cast iron d. pig iron
13. Power is transmitted by lead screw to the carriage through
a. pulley drive
b. gear system c. half nut
d. chain drive
14. Centre used for holding hollow jobs on a lathe is
a. half centre b. pipe centre c. square centre
d. revolving centre
15. A pair of tumbler gears is used in
a. capstan lathe
b. centre lathe c. shaper machine
d. all of the above
16. A steady rest is used for
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a. heavy and long work pieces

b. irregular work pieces
c. taper turning work pieces d.
supporting the bed
17. Accessory for the lathe is
a. lead screw b. steady rest c. coolant pump
d. both b& c above
18. With increase of helix angle, the cutting edge becomes
a. stronger b. same
c. weaker
19. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is
a. 10 to 13 degree b. 20 to 30 degree
c. 35 to 40 degree
d. 40 to 45 degree
20. Shaper is used for machining
a. vertical surface
b. horizontal surface c. angular surface
d. irregular surface
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a b a B b d e d b a a c C b b a d c b c
PART-B
2MARKS
21. What is meant by metal cutting (or) machining? (AU DEC 05)
Metal cutting is the process of producing a work piece by removing unwanted material from a
block of metal, in the form of chips.
22. Define orthogonal cutting. (AU MAY 05) (AU MAY 10)
Cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel.
The direction of the chip flow is perpendicular to the cutting edge
23. Define oblique cutting.
The cutting edge is inclined at an angle less then 90 to the direction of tool travel
The chip flows on the tool face making an angle
24. Name the types of chips formed during machining.
Discontinuous chips
Continuous chips
Continuous chip with built up edge
25. Define tool life.
Tool life represents the useful life of the tool, expressed generally in time units from the start of a
cut to same end point defined by failure criterion
A tool that no longer performs the desired is said to have failed \
26. Define mach inability.( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
It is the characteristics of work material expressing its ease of machining.
27. What are types of cutting fluids?
1. water based emulation
2. straight mineral oil
3. mineral oil with additions (Nut oil)
28. Write Taylors tool life equation
VTn = C
Where, V= Cutting speed in m/min, T= Tool life in minutes, n & C are constant
29. What are two major types of tool wear?[AU MAY-13]
1. Crater wear 2. Flank wear 3. Wear land
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30. Define cutting power and specific metal removal rate.

The cutting power or the rate of energy consumptions is the product of the cutting speed v, and
cutting force F.
Metal removal rate is defined as the amount of metal removed per unit of power consumed is
called specific metal removal rate.
31. What are the uses of diamond cutting tools? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)[AU MAY2012]
High grinding efficiency, Low grinding force: Less heat will be generated in the grinding process.
This can decrease or avoid burns and cracks on the surface of the work piece, and ] decrease the
equipment's wear and energy consumption. High wear resistance: Diamond grinding tools' change
in dimension is small. This can lead to good grinding quality and high grinding precision.
PART-C
(16 marks)
32. Explain orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting with its neat sketches and compare. ( AU Nov/Dec
2009) [AU MAY2012]
33. What is the tool life equation and state the factor affecting the tool life.
34. Explain the various tool materials.
35. What is mach inability? and explain
36. Write short notes on surface finish
37. What are the different types of cutting fluids used in machining process?
( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
[AU MAY2012, AU MAY-13]
38. Write short notes on tool wear?
39. Explain the geometry of single point cutting tool with suitable sketches.
40. Explain the basic actions of cutting fluids
41. Descripe the mechanism of chip formation in orthogonal cutting? [AU MAY JUNE 2012]
42. Explain the following mechanism of tool wear? [AU MAY JUNE 2012]
43. During the orthogonal cutting, the following data where recorded
a. Back rake angle = 25 degree
b. Chip thickness = 0.15mm/rev
c. Length of chip = 40mm
d. Width of the chip before cut = 3.5mm
e. Co efficient of friction = 0.75
f. Cutting speed VC = 250 m/mm
g. Average shear stress = 250 n/m Determine power consumption. [AU MAY JUNE 2012]
UNIT II CENTRE LATHE AND SPECIAL PURPOSE LATHES
PART-A
1MARK
44. Size of the shaper is specified by
a. weight of the machine
b. maximum travel of cutting tool
c. quick return ratio d. none of
the above
45. The shaper can cut
a. gears
b. keyways
c. grooves
d. slots e. all of the above
46. Grinding used to produce internal cylindrical holes and tapers is
a. internal cylindrical grinding
b. external cylindrical grinding
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c. surface grinding d. form grinding

47. Snag grinding is used for
a. remove flash or forgings b. removing excess metal on welds
c. grinding the parting line left on casting d. all of the above
48. Grinding of long slender shaft or bars is generally done by
a. in feed grinding b. end feed grinding c. through feed grinding
SY&QB
49. Centre less grinding used to produce taper is

a. in feed grinding b. end feed grinding c. through feed grinding
50. In milling operation
a. surface finish is better
b. metal removal is fast
c. jobs are machined at faster rate
d. all of the above
51. Motion of cutting tool in a milling machine is
a. vertical
b. longitudinal c. rotational d. none of the above
52. Milling machine is used for
a. flat surfaces
b. contoured surfaces c. surface of revolution
d. all of the above
53. In a milling machine the cutting tool is mounted on
a. arbour
b. spindle c. column d. knee
54. Standard milling arbour size is
a. 1 inch
b. 1.25 inch c. 27mm
d. 32mm
55. In plain milling cutter the chip space between the back of one teeth and the face of the next
tooth is known as
a. faceb. gash c. land d. lead
56. Broaching is used for machining
a. internal and external surfaces
b. round or irregular shapes holes
c. teeth of a gear
or spline
d. all of the above
57. In broaching operation
a. production rate is high
b. less skill is required c. high accuracy and surface finish can be
obtained
d. roughing and finishing cuts are completed e. all of the above
58. A broach has
a. roughing teeth
b. semi-finishing teeth c. finishing teeth
d. all of the above
59. Broaching is primarily done for
a. hard materials
b. mass production
c. better finish d.all of the above
60. Height each tooth of broach
a. increases progressively
b. decreases progressively
c. is same thoughtd. none of the
above
61. Push broaches are used for
a. machining teeth of a gear b. machining internal and external surfaces c. sizing only
62. Broaching process in which either the worker the tool moves across the other is known as
a. push broaching
b. pull broaching
c. surface broaching d. continuous broaching
63. Wheel truing is done by
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a. diamond b. stainless steel

c. abrasive wheel
d. abrasive sticks
ANSWERS
44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63
C e A d c a b c d a a b D e d b a c c a
PART-B
2 MARKS
64. What is lathe?
The centre lathe is most common lathe which devices its from the way a work piece is clamped by
centers in a lathe
65. What is machining?
Metal cutting is the process of producing a work piece by removing unwanted material from a
block of metal, in the form of chips.
66. Mention some lathe operation
a. Facing b. turning c. taper turning d. chamfering e. knurling
67. Define feed of lathe
Feed of the cutting tool is defined as the distance the tool moves for each revolution of the work
piece. It is expressed in mm/rev.
68. Define depth of cut.
The tools which are required to perform the most of the machined surface to the uncut surface of
the work piece it is expressed in mm.
69. What is mandrel?
Mandrel is a device which is used to rotate a hollow piece between the centre and dead centre
70. What is tool bit?
A tool bit is a small piece of cutting materials with a very short shank which is inserted in a tool
holder and clamped in position by bolt or screw.
71. What is meant by semi automatic lathe?
Semi automatic lathe in which all machining operations are done automatically, but the loading &
unloading operation is done manually.
72. What is meant by automatic lathe?
Automatic lathes are machine tools in which the components are machined automatically. All the
operations including loading & unloading These lathes are used for producing larger number of
components in short time.
73. Define nomenclature of cutting tool.
Naming the various parts & angles of a cutting tool is known as nomenclature of cutting tool.
74. List application of speed lathe. ( AU Apr/May 2010)
i. wood working
ii. Centering iii. Polishing iv. Metal spinning
75. Sketch undercut shoulder.
76. What is purpose of steady rest in lathe? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
This extra support can be provided by a steady rest (also called a steady, a fixed steady, a center
rest, or sometimes, confusingly, a center). It stands stationary from a rigid mounting on the bed,
and it supports the work piece at the rest's center, typically with three contact points 120 apart.
77. How will you calculate machining time & power estimation in lathe? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
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PART-C
16 MARKS
78. Sketch a centre lathe and mention various parts.
79. List various types of feed mechanisms and explain briefly about tumbler gear mechanism with a
neat sketch.
80. Explain taper turning operation in a lathe by taper turning attachment. Discuss its advantage.
81. Explain the following methods of taper turning in a lathe
i. by swiveling the compound rest
ii. by a taper turning attachment.
82. Explain the working principle of capstan & turret lathe. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009,2010,AU May-13)
83. write the difference between four jaw chuck & collect chuck.( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
84. Explain the tooling layout for the production of a hexagonal bolt in a capstan lathe
85. Describe the various methods of thread cutting operations performed in lathe with neat sketch. (
AU Nov/Dec 2009)
86. Describe the various operation carried outing engine lathe. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
87. Discuss the tooling layout for the production of a hexagonal nut in turret lathe.
88. Classify transfer machines. Sketch and explain the working of Swiss type automatic screw
machine. What are advantages of automatic machines?
89. Describe a typical single spindle automatic chucking machine.
90. Describe a typical single spindle automatic bar machine.
91. Differentiate between parallel action & progressive action multi spindle automatics.
92. Explain the thread cutting operation in a lathe with a neat sketch also make a note on knurling,
grooving & forming operation in lathe.
93. Discuss the feature of ram type and saddle type turret.
94. Explain the feature of multi spindle automatics
95. With the sketches explain the features of the major elements of twist drill.
96. State the following work holding devices? i] collect chuck ii] angle plate with face plate iii] self
centering three jaw chuck?[ AU MAY/ JUNE 2012, AU MAY-13]
97. Sketch a line diagram of a single spindle automatic lathe and briefly describe its features?[ AU
MAY/ JUNE 2012, AU MAY-13]
98. Make a comparisons of operational and others features of single spindle multi spindle automatic
lathe?[ AU MAY/ JUNE 2012]
UNIT-III / (RECIPROCATING AND MILLING MACHINES)
PART-A
1 MARK
99. Dressing and truing of grinding wheel are done
a. for the purpose
b. with the same tool c. both a & b above
100. The ratio of volume of the metal removed from the work piece to the wear of grinding wheel
is known as
a. grinding ratio
b. work ratio
c. volume ratio
101. Grinding ratio varies in the range
a. 10 to 20 b. 30 to 60
c.60 to 75
d. 75 to 125
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102. Process of removing surface roughness, tool marks, surface cracks from grinding slight
distortions and other minor defects from previous operation is known as
a. lapping
b. honing
c. brazing
d. milling
103. In lapping amount of metal removed in the range
a. 0.005 to 0.01mm b. 0.01 to 0.1 mm
c. 0.05 to 0.1 mm
d. 0.1 to 1 mm
104. Surface finish in the range of 0.75mm to 1.25mm is obtained by
a. lapping
b. honing
c. grinding
d. all of the above
105. Process of removing stock from metallic and non metallic surface is known as
a. lapping
b. honing
c. brazing
106. Honing is used to correct
a. ovality b. waviness of axis c. non-parallelism of cylindrical features
d. all of the above
107. Minimum stock is removed by honing is
a. 0.0002mm b. 0.002mm
c. 0.02mm
d. 0.2mm
108. Maximum stock removed by honing is
a. 1mm
b. 3mm
c. 5mmd. 8mm
109. Soft grade grinding wheels
a. are used for grinding hard material
b. are denoted by letters from A to Hc. have abrasive
grains , which can be easily dislodged.
D. all of the above
110. Hard grade grinding wheel
a. are used for grinding soft materials
b. are denoted by letters from Q `to Zc.
holds
the
abrasive grains more securely
d. all of the above
111. Wet condition is used to grind
a. hard material
b. soft material
c. both a & b above d. none of the above
112. Structure of grinding wheel is depends upon
a. hardness of the material being grinding b. nature of grinding c. surface finish required
d.
all of the above
113. Very hard grade grinding wheels are denoted by the letters
a. A to E
b. G to K
c. L to O
d. T to Z
114. Open structure of grinding wheel is used for
a. soft materials
b. ductile materials
c. tough materials
d. all of the above
115. Open structure of grinding wheel is denoted by the number of
a. 1 to 8
b. 9 to 15
c. 15 to 30
116. Dense structure of grinding wheel is used for
a. hard materials
b. brittle materials
c. finishing cuts
d. all of the above
117. Dense structure of the grinding wheel is denoted by the number of
a. 1 to 8
b. 9 to 15
c. 15 to 30
118. In the lathe, chasing dial is used for
a. thread cutting
b. drilling
c. parting off d. taper turning
ANSWERS
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
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PART-B
2 MARKS
119. What is meant by milling?
Milling is the process of removing metal by rotating multipoint cutter. The work is fed part the
cutter. The metal is removed in the form of small chips. Here the multipoint cutter is used. So the
metal removal rate is very fast.
120. What is the different operation performed on a milling machine?
1. Plain milling 2.Form milling 3.Face milling 4.Side milling 5. End milling
6. T slot milling
121. Say whether drilling can be performed in any other machine.
Yes. Drilling can be performed in a lathe where the drill is held in the tail stock and work is `
Nrotated by a chuck.
122. What is drilling machine?
Drilling machine is a simplest moderate and accurate machine tool used for making hole (or)
enlarging holes.
123. Describe Radial Drilling machine.
This machine has a radial arm. The drill head can be adjusted radially. Hence it is called a
radial drilling machine. It is used foe drilling heavy and large work piece.
124. What is meant by boring?
Boring is the process of enlarging a hole that has already been drilled.
125. What is the function of tap?
Taps are used for cutting internal threads.
126. What is shaping machine?[AU May june2012]
Shaping machine otherwise called as shaper, is a reciprocating type of machine tool intended
primarily for machining felt surfaces. The surface may be horizontal, vertical (or) inclined. Here
the tool reciprocates horizontally and the work is stationary. This is used for machining small work
piece.
127. Define planning machine?
Planer is very large reciprocating machine tool. It is used for machining large and heavy work
piece. The main purpose of planner is to plane, is to machine large flat surfaces by a single point
cutting.
128. What is the need of quick return mechanism?
In a standard shaper metal is cut in the forward cutting stroke. During the return stroke, no metal is
cut. So it is known as idle stroke. To reduce the total machining time taken for the idle stroke
should be reduced. So the return stroke is made faster then the cutting stroke. This is done by a
mechanism called quick return mechanism.
129. Mention the various headings under which shapers are classified. ( AU Apr/May 2010)
i. length of stroke
ii. Position of ram
iii. Table design
iv. Driving mechanism
130. What is counter sinking? ( AU Apr/May 2010)
Countersink is a conical hole cut into a manufactured object, or the cutter used to cut such a hole.
A common usage is to allow the head of a countersunk bolt or screw
131. Give the difference between counter boring & counter sinking. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
Counter-sinking is often done to accommodate heads of flat head screws. However as can be
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seen from the figure, there is a sideways component of the thrust which could split the countersink
due to the generated hoop stresses Counter-boring is done to accommodate pan-head, fillister-head
or round-head screws or other screws with flat-bottomed undersides.
PART-C
16 MARKS
132. With the simple sketch, explain the working of the crank and slotted link quick return
motion mechanism used in shaper. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009,2010)
133. Write down any four differences between shaper and planer? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
134. Explain the working principle of planer with a neat sketch. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
135. How do you specify a planer?
136. Describe the working mechanism of universal dividing head, with neat diagram.
137. With a neat sketch, indicate the various parts of an arbor assembly.
138. With a simple sketch, explain the principle parts and angles of a plain milling cutter.
Explain them.
139. Explain the twist drill nomenclature and define various elements of twist drill.
140. With a simple sketch, explain the working of a vertical boring machine.
141. Explain the counter boring and counter ringing operation.
142. Explain the working principle of a jig boring machine with a neat sketch.
143. Explain different types of milling operations [AU May june2012, AU May-13]
144. Make a note on different types of working holding devices used in a slotting machine.
145. Explain the different types of table drive and feed mechanisms in a planning machine.
146. Sketch the briefly explain the milling machine operations? I] plain milling ii] face
Milling iii} end milling iv} dovetail milling[AU May june2012]
147. Sketch the briefly explain the milling machine operations? I]drilling ii] reaming iii] boring
iv] Tapping v] spot facing? [AU May june2012]
UNIT-IV/ABRASIVE PROCESS, SWAGING, BROACHING AND GEAR CUTTING
PART-A
1MARKS
148. A step cone pulley is provided on a lathe to
a. reverse spindle rotation b. change the spindle speed c. drive the lead screw d. all of the
above
149. Device used for holding the reamer
a. mandrel
b. collect chuck
c. universal chuck
150. Lathe centers are provided with standard taper known us
a. chapmen taper
b. sellers taper c. Morse taper d. jarno taper
151. A left hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently, if it travels
a. from left to right
b. from right to left c. across the bed
d. in any direction
152. In machine tool, generally spindle speeds vary in
a. arithmetical progression b. geometrical progression c. square progression
d.
exponential
progression
153. In a gear box. If four consecutive spindle speeds are 19, 30, 47 and 74 rpm, the next speed
would be
a. 93 rpm
b. 104 rpm
c. 111 rpm
d. 128 rpm
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154. Slow spindle is required on

a. thread cutting
b. turning hard or rough materials
c. turning a work of large diameter d.
rough turning e. all of the above
155. In shaper the surface cutting speed depends upon
a. the metal to be machined b. the cutting tool material c.Both a & b above d. none of the above
156. Brown and sharp taper used in
a. lathes
b. shapers
c. drillsd. milling machines
157. In a planer
a. tool is stationary & work reciprocates
b. work is stationary & tool reciprocates
c. tool &
work both reciprocates
d. tool moves over reciprocating work
158. To remove considerable amount of metal with out considering accuracy of the finished
surface grinding done is
a. snag grinding
b. transverse grinding c. plunge grinding
d. form grinding
159. The work is reciprocates as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders longer then the width of the
wheel face in
a. snag grinding
d. form grinding
160. The work rotates in a fixed position as wheel feeds to produce cylinders equal to shorter than
the width of wheel face in
a. snag grinding
d. form grinding
161. Grinding used for grind irregular, curved, tapered, concave and convex surfaces is
a. internal cylindrical grinding
b. external cylindrical grinding
c. surface grinding
d.
form grinding
162. Grinding used to produce flat surface is
a. surface grinding b. form grinding
c. snag grinding
163. The chip thickness is minimum at the beginning of the cut and it reaches to the maximum
when the cut terminates in
a. climb milling
b. conventional milling
c. end milling d. face milling
164. The cutting force tends to light the work piece in
a. climb milling
b. conventional milling
c. end milling d. face milling
165. Operation of producing narrow slots or grooves on a work is known as
a. gang milling
b. face milling c. saw milling d. helical milling
166. A fly cutter is used on
a. lathe machine
b. shaper machine
c. milling machine
d. all of the above
167. Device used for holding the reamer
a. mandrel b. collect chuck
c. universal chuck
ANSWERS
14
8
B
14
9
A
15
0
c
15
1
B
15
2
B
15
3
b
15
4
e
15
5
c
15
6
c
15
7
a
15
8
b
PART-B
15
9
c
16
0
c
16
1
a
16
2
C
16
3
b
16
4
b
16
5
c
16
6
c
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7
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168. What is grinding?[AU MAY-13]

Grinding is a metal removal process or operation performed by means of rotating abrasive wheel
that acts as cutting tool against the work piece.
169. What is surface grinding?
Surface grinding is the process of producing and finishing flat surface by means of grinding
machines using a revolving abrasive wheel.
170. What is honing?
Honing is a machining process similar to grinding, used to finish a fine before surface.
171. What is polishing?
Polishing is the surface finishing operation performed by a polishing wheel, for the purpose of
metal removing appreciable metal to take out scratches, hole marks, pits and other defects from
rough surfaces.
172. What is buffing?
Buffing is the process used to give a much higher, lustrous, a reflective finish that cannot be
obtained by polishing. The buffing process consists of applying a very fine abrasive with a rotating
wheel.
173. What is broaching?
Broaching is a process of removing metal from a work piece by a cutting tool called broach.
Broach is a tool having multiple cutting edges arranged along its length. The tool may be pulled
(or) pushed over a surface on the work piece.
174. Define pitch
The linear distance from the cutting edge of one tooth to tooth corresponding edge on the next
tooth is called pitch.
175. How does the centre less grinding operate?
The centre less grinding operates with two wheels as the cutting or grinding wheels, to remove
excess stock and a regulating wheel is used to control the speed of rotation of work and rate of
feed.
176. Explain axial hobbing process?
a. Gear blank is brought towards the hob for required depth.
b. Table slide is the clamped.
177. What is chucking grinder? ( AU Apr/May 2010)
To grind an internal surface, a small wheel moves inside the hollow of the work piece, which is
gripped in a rotating chuck. On a surface grinder, the work piece is held in place on a table that
moves under the rotating abrasive wheel.
178. What is the use of template gear cutting process( AU Apr/May 2010)
i. internal gear will be easily cut
ii. The mechanism is simple iii. Cluster gear can be cut.
179. How is the gearing ratio calculated for differential indexing? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
GEAR RATIO = Driving gear / Driven gear
180. What is the difference between in feed, end feed & through feed in grinding( AU Nov/Dec
2009)
In through-feed grinding, the part rotates between the grinding wheel and a regulating wheel as
shown below.
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In-feed grinding differs from through-feed grinding in that the part is not fed axially so that the
ground surface does not need to be a right circular cylinder. The grinding wheel can be dressed to
accommodate the part. Once the work piece part is in place, the grinding wheel is fed in radically.
In end-feed grinding, the part moves in axially between the grinding wheels, stops for grinding,
and then moves out again. The wheel can be dressed to form more complex shapes, but the part
can only get progressively smaller in diameter.
PART C
16MARKS
181. What are the various methods of center less grinding and each briefly? [AU May june2012, AU
May-13]
182. Explain the external cylindrical grinding process and surface grinding process. ( AU April/may
2010)
183. Explain the vitrified and retinoid bonding process.[ AU may june 12]
184. Explain the operations of horizontal broaching machine with a neat sketch.
185. Explain the gear cutting by a formed tool.
186. Differentiate between gear forming and generating.
187. Explain the principle of operation of gearing hobbing operation. What are the advantages of gear
hobbling?[AU May june2012, AU May-13]
188. Give the advantages and limitations of gear hobbing.
189. Explain the salient features of a center less grinding machine and discuss the different operations
that can be carried out in it. Mention some advantages.[AU May-13]
190. Briefly discuss about different types of abrasives used in grinding wheel.
191. Explain the gear shaving, gear honing and gear lapping processes. ( AU April/may 2010)
192. Write a short note on wheel turing & dressing and explain how this process is carried out. ( AU
Nov/Dec 2009,2010)
193. What are the precautions to be taken before mounting a grinding wheel? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
194. Explain the working principle of abrasive jet grinding and its applications. ( AU Nov/Dec 09)
195. write short notes on buffing and polishing( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
196. sketch the through feed centre less grinding?[ AU MAY JUNE 2012]
197. Explain the factors to be considered to select a grinding wheel and recommenced parameters? ?[
AU MAY JUNE 2012]
198. The setup of wheel in feed and end feed centre less grinding? ?[ AU MAY JUNE 2012]
199. Write short notes on i] honing ii] super finishing iii] lapping iv] polishing v] buffing?[AU Jun 12,AU May-13]
UNIT-V CNC MACHINE TOOLS AND PART PROGRAMMING
PART-A
1MARKS
200. If the average cutting speed for machining mild steel is 70 m /min then the material of the
cutting tool will be
a. high speed steel b. carbon steel c. diamond
201. While using high speed steel tools the average cutting speed is highest for
a. mild steel b. alloy steel
c. stain less steel
d. carbon steel
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202. While using carbide tool for machining mild steel the maximum material will be removed at
a temperature of
a. 50C
b. 75C
c.100C
d.275C
203. Tool life is
a. time between tool sharpening
b. time for which the tool is in contact with the work
piece c. measured by the volume of material between tool sharpening
d. all of the above
204. Tool life is affected by
a. depth of cut
b. cutting speed
c. feed d. all of the above
205. The tool life is finished when
a. surface finish is obtained is poor b. there sudden increase in cutting
c. overheating and fumes due to friction starts
d. all of the above
206. If the back gear is engaged in a back geared head stock, the spindle speed considerably
a. increases b. decreases
c. remains same
207. In lathe the spindle speed will be minimum in
a. plain turning
b. thread cutting
c. taper turning
d. finishing
208. Lathe spindles are generally made hollow and provided with
a. external taper
b. internal taper
c. both a & b d. none of the above
209. Chuck used on a lathe is
a. dog carrier b. face plate c. collets
d. mandrel
e. all of the above
210. For turning of aluminium casting the chuck preferred is
a. collect chuck b. magnetic chuck c. 3 jaw self centering chuck d. 4 jaw self centering chuck
211. For setting up of heavy and irregular shaped work the chuck preferred is
a. collect chuck b. magnetic chuck c. 3 jaw self centering chuck d. 4 jaw self centering chuck
212. For quick setting and accurate centering of a work piece the chuck preferred is
a. collect chuck
b. magnetic chuck
c. combination chuck
d. 3 jaw universal chuck
213. A round nose tool has no
a. back rake b. side rake c. both a & b above
214. Drilling is an operation of
a. oblique cutting
b. orthogonal cutting c. uniform cutting d. simple cutting
215. In drilling operation, the metal is removed by
a. extrusion b. shearing
c. both a & b d. none of the above
216. Pushing the headed billet of metal through the orifice is known as
a. drilling
b. shearing
c. extrusion d. none of the above
217. Drilling machine is used for mass production is
a. gang drilling machine
b. multi spindle drilling machine c. deep hole drilling machine
d. radial drilling machine
218. Brown and sharp taper used in
a. lathes
b. shapers
c. drillsd. milling machines
ANSWERS
200
201
201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
59
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
217
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PART-B
2MARKS
219. Define numerical control machine.
Numerical control can be defined as a form of programmable automation in which the process is
controlled by numbers, letter and symbols.
220. What is NC part programming?[AU MAY JUNE12]
NC part programming is the procedure of by which the sequence of processing steps to be
performed on the NC machine is planned and documented.
221. Define check surface.
This is the surface that stops the movement of the tool in its current direction in a sense, the
forward movement of the tool.
222. What is CNC? [AU MAY JUNE12]
CNC is an NC system that utilizes a dedicated, stored program computer to perform some or all of
the basic numerical control functions.
223. What is APT language? ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
APT is not only a NC language, it is also the computer program that performs the calculations to
generate cutter position based on APT statement.
224. What is a part program?
Part program is a high level language program containing the instruction for machining a part on
sheets with respect to various standard words/codes and symbols.
225. What is mean by manual part programming?
Manual part programming is a process of writing programs which consists of a set of instructions
to carry out the machining work.
226. What is preparatory function?
It is word address format represented by the letter G, followed by a numerical code for the
operation of the control unit to instruct the machine tool.
227. What is tool length offset?
When tools with different length are, then the difference in their lengths with respect to datum is
known as offset of each tool.
228. What is tape reader?
The tape reader feeds the data from the tape to the buffer in blocks.
229. List the main elements of NC machine tool. (AU April/may 2010)
1. NC program
2. Machine tool
3. Control unit
230. Which is closed loop control system? (AU April/may 2010)
231. Write the function of G21 & M10. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
G21- Input in metric, M10- Spindle orientation
PART-C
232. List the various drive explain the principle of any two drive system.
233. Explain open loop and closed loop system.
234. What is machining centers explain in detail?
235. Explain various types of CMM.
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236. Explain the part programming procedure with a good example.[AU MAY-13]
237. List and explain G and M code for turning milling operations.
238. Explain NC axis conventions.
239. Discuss the important design features of CNC machine tools. (AU April/may 2010)
240. Write short notes on:
i) NC machine tool classification ii) APT programming structure ii) G and
M codes iv) CNC machine vs. conventional machine
241. State a few typical applications where the use of numerical control
would be justified.
242. Describe in brief the basic components of a tape-operated NC machine tool.
243. Discuss the advantages of computer numerical control system.
244. What is the difference between positioning machines and contouring machines?
245. Explain the components of turning centre with neat sketch & describe the various operations that
can be performed on it. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
246. Explain the various components of NC machines with neat sketch. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009)
247. Explain general format of manual part programming with an example. ( AU Nov/Dec 2009) [AU
MAY JUNE12]
248. Sketch & explain a turning centre & mention it superiority over the CNC lathe. (AU April/may
2010)
249. What are the special requirements of feed drives of CNC machines ?what type of motor are used in
driver motors?[ AU MAY JUNE12]
250. Sketch the explain the following features of CNC machines?
I] hydro static slide way ii] linear bearing with ball? [ AU MAY JUNE12, AU MAY-13]
251. Classify linear interpolation.
ENGINEERING MATERIALS AND METALLURGY
UNIT I
CONSTITUTION OF ALLOYS AND PHASE DIAGRAMS
PART-A
1MARKS
1..May be visualized as forming from a centre of freezing or nucleus which is
composed small group of atoms oriented into one of the common crystal patterns?
a. crystal
b. grain
c. fine d. cubic
2. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small group of atoms is called the
a. unit cell b. split cell
c. fine cell
d. all the above
3. Every point of a space lattice has .surroundings
a. cubic b. Identical c. System d. phase
4. Very common space lattices is that of the . Pattern
a. fine b. pattern c. cubic d. all the above
5. type of To a great extent the properties
a metal
depends upon the .
formed due solidification?
a. Space lattice b. Fine course c. System d.all the above
6. Hexagonally latticed antimony and bismuth are ..
a. ductile
b. alloy c. brittle d. all the above
7. existing of a given metal in two are more suitable but different crystal structure is
know as ..
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a. allotropy b. Points c. Alloys d. all the above

8. The . Grain structure has a small grain size whereas grain
structure has a large grain size
a. better b. fine course c. alloys d. all the above
9. The grain size is controlled by several factors out of which and.
Are important
a. temperature time of heating b. time of cooling c. time medium d. none of these
10. course grained structure has a workability than fine grained structure
a. better
b. system c. low d. none of these
11. The . Solution of carbon in iron constitutes the basis of steel hardening
a. interstitial b. substitution c. grain d. all the above
12. The eutectic temprature and composition determine a point on the phase diagram
know as
a. Eutectic point b. eutectoid point c. paratactic point d. all the above
13. The eutectoid temperature and composition determine a point on the phase diagram
know as..
a. eutectic point b. eutectoid point c. peretectoid point d . paratactic point
14. A .is a unit of the composition variable of the system
a. component
b. system c. element d. all the above
15. A.is a physically and chemically homogeneous portion of a system
separated from the other portion of a surface interface
a. one b. phase c. alloys d. system
16. The paratactic temperature and composition determine a point on the phase diagram
know as .
a. paratactic point
b. peritectiod point c. eutectoid point d. all the above
17. The number of phase in a system cannot exceed the number of component
plus.
a. two b. one c. zero d. four
18. The solidification of a metal alloy is clearly demonstrated by means of
a. Phase diagram b. alloy diagram c. equilibrium
d. all the above
19. The solution of mixing in iron carbide
a. ferrite b. pearliest c. cemented d. carburet
20. A.Is a crystal with almost any shape but with on internal atomic structure
based upon the space lattice with which it was born
a. system
b. grain c. elements d. all the above
ANSWERWS
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
20
A
PART-B
21. What is an alloy?
Is a mixture of two or more metals{or}a metal and a non metal
22. What are alloying elements.[AU, NOV-08]
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The element which is present in the largest proportion is called the base metal and all other
elements presents are called alloying base elements.
23. What are cooling curves?
The cooling curves are obtained by fatling the measure temperature at equal interval during the
cooling period melt to a solid.
24. Define paratactic reaction?[AU, MAY-08]
In paratactic reaction, up on cooling, a solid and a liquid phase transform isothermally and
reversibly to a solid phase having a different composition.
Liquid + Solid== solid2
25. Define eutectoid reaction?
Is isothermal reversible reaction in Which one solid phase transforms into two intimately mixed
new solid phase upon cooling.
Solid 1=== Solid 2+Solid3
26. What is steel?
Steel is a composition unto 0.008% carbon are regarded as commercially pure iron those from
0.008-2%. Carbon represent to the steel.
27. What is an equilibrium phase reaction Diagram?
Phase diagrams are graphical representations of what phases are present in an alloy system at
various temperatures, pressures ,and compositions.
28. State Gibbs phase rule?
Pressure variable is kept constant at one atmosphere
Gibb phase rule F=c-p+2; F=c-p+1(condensed Gibb phase rule.
29. What meant by base metal? [AU MAY-08]
The element which present in the largest proportion is called the base metal
30. Differential between substitution and interstitial solid solutions?(AU MAY2O11)
When the solute (Impurities) substitute for parent solvent atoms in a crystal lattice, they are called
substitution atoms, and the manure of the two elements is called a substitution solid solution
31. What is isomorphism?(AU MAY 2011, MAY-12)
Miller indicates are used to designate the planes in a crystal lattics that is called
isomorphism.
32. What will interstitial solid solution occurs? (AU MAY 2011)
When the solute (Impurities) substitute for parent solvent atoms in a crystal lattice, they are called
substitution atoms
33. How are plain carbon steel classified? (AU APRIL2010)
a. low carbon steel
b. medium carbon steel
c .high carbon steel
34. What is austenite and its crystal structure?
Solid solution of carbon and iron maximum solubility of carbon 2% and temprature1140
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PART C
16MARKS
35. What are cooling curves? How does the time-temperature cooling curve of an alloy of eutectic
composition differ from that of a pure metal? That of a non eutectic composition alloy?(AU
MAY-2011)
36. How will you plot binary phase diagram for two metals which are completely soluble in liquid and
solid states? [AU MAY-08]
37. Explain the following invariant reactions with reference to a phase diagram
(a)eutectic react (b) eutectoid reaction C)Paratactic reaction (d) protection reaction .
38. What is the micro constituents of iron carbon alloys? Explain the general characteristics of
each? [AU MAY-08]
39. Draw Iron-iron carbide equilibrium diagram and mark on it all salient temperatures and
composition fields.
40. Name phase reactions occurring in Fe-Fe3c system .What are the temperatures and compositions at
which they occur? (AU MAY -2011, MAY-12)
41. Explain the primary crystalation of eutectoid steels hypoetectiod steels and hypereutectoid steels?
[AU MAY-10]
42. Explain the primary crystallization of eutectic cast irons hypoeutectic cast irons and hypoeutectic
cast iron with the help of neat sketch .
43. What are the properties and applications of types of cast Iron Explain in brief?(AUC 2013)
UNIT-2
HEAT TREATMENT
PART-A
1MARKS
44. Vanadium steel is often used for.
a. bearing b. electro magnet c. machine beds d. axle and spring
45. NI is used in
a. pressure sensitive elements b. Electrode of thermionic valve c. Bulb
Filaments d. automatic voltage regulator
46. is the property of steel due to which it can withstand the blow of
hammer.
a. hardness b. toughness c. malleability d. plasticity
47. High purity copper is obtained by.
a. casting b. elastic refining c. introduction heating d. rolling
48. Which on of the following alloys has Magnesium as the principal constituents?
a. Y-alloy b. Babbitt metal
c. Dow metal d. Belt metal
49. German silver is an alloy consisting of
a. copper aluminum and nickel b. copper and lead c. copper zinc and
nickel d.
chromium and copper
50. The main constituent of duralumin is
a. aluminum b. manganese c. copper d. magnesium
51. For melting one tone of cast iron in a cupola the volume of air required is
a. 50m
b. 150m c. 700m d. 7000m
52. The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp curves is
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a. MN steel
b. CR steel c. cast steel d. mild steel
53. Gun metal is a alloy of.
a. CU ,TI, ZN,
b. AL, lead and tin c. lead cupper and tin d. AL lead
And NI
54. IS the process in which wrought iron is manufacturing from pig iron
a. annealing b. shingling c. pudding d. roasting
55. Application of tin is in
a. Low current fuses b. bulb filaments c. transducers d. conductor for stator
56. Which of the following is not valid for blister steel?
a. it cannot be forged b. It cannot be welted c.
it is produced by cementation
process d. It is full of produced by cavities
57. General silver is an alloy of
a.CU and tungsten
b. CU and NI C.SI and TIN D. tungsten and tin
58. has the lowest point
a. tin b. lead c. copper d. cast-iron
59. Munoz metal is an alloy of ..
a. ZN and lead b. CU and ZN c. tin and ZN D. LEAD and white metal
60. IRON are rich is FE content is
a. siderite b. magnetite c. hematite d. limonit
61. IN a pudding furnace pig iron is remitted to produce
a. cast steel b. wrought iron c. cast iron d. chilled iron
62. Product of blast furnace is known as. .
a. pig iron b. cast iron c. wrought iron d. malleable iron
63. Corrosion resistance of stainless steel is due to.
a. CR
b. Carbon
C. sulper d. vanadium
ANSWER
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
PART-B
2MARKS
64. What is meant by heat treatment?
Heat treatment is the controlled heating and cooling of metals for the purpose of alternating their
properties
65. What is meant by annealing? [AU, NOV-08] ,(AU MAY-2011, MAY-12)
Annealing is the heat treatment for the general purpose of softening or stress relieving a material
66. What is meant by normaling? [AU, MAY-10]
Norma ling is a heat treatment obtained by austenitising and air cooling to produce a fine pearlite
structure.
67. What is meant by hardening? [AU, NOV-08, MAY-12]
Hardening is heat treatment process it which increases the hardness by quenching.
68. What is meant by tempering?
Is a heat treatment in which martensite is reheated in this the ductility and martensite can be
enhanced by reducing the hardness of materials.
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69. What is meant by carburizing?

Carburising is a process in which carbon atoms are introduced on to the surface of low corbon
steels to produce a hard case of surface while the interior or core remains soft.
70. Define the term nitriding? [AU, NOV-08]
Nitriding is defined as the process of introducing both nitrogen and carbon to obtain hard surface
of the steel component.
71. Define the term flame hardening?
Is a process of selective hardening with a combustible gas flame as the source of heat for
austenitizing.
72. What is a CCT?
CCT means (continuous cooling transformation) plot of temperature versus the logarithm of time
for a steel alloy of composition.
73. What is a TTT diagram?
Its a plat of temperature versus the logarithm of time for a steel alloy and composition it is used to
determine the transformation begins and end for an isothermal constant temperature (heat
treatment)of a previously austenitized alloy.
74. What is the use of the isothermal transformation diagram?(AU MAY2011)
Its a plat of temperature versus the logarithm of time for a steel alloy and composition it is used to
determine the transformation begins and end for an isothermal constant temperature (heat
treatment)of a previously austenitized alloyTTT diagrm also known as TTT diagram.
75. Name the various method of heat treatment of steel?(AU APRIL 2010)
a. annealing b. nitrining C.corburising
76. Define the term Stress relief annealing and Spheroidizing.
Stress relief annealing is the heat treat to remove residual stress caused by machining ,grinding,
non cooling of metal ,phase transformation with different densites.
Spheroidizing: Medium &High carbon steels are changed their grain structure from coarse pearlite
to spherodite structure toget softness and ducility for easy machining.
77. Differentite between Tempering and Maraging.
Tempering is the process of heating martensite steel to250 c to 650 c to get the property of
ductility & toughness .
Maraging:Maraging steels are low corbon high alloy steels these are very higg strength materials
that can be hardned to obtain tensile strengths upto 1900MPA NI-18% CO-7%and small amount
amount of other elements such as titanium the corban content is low lessthan .05
PART C
16MARKS
78. What is the difference between TTTdiagram and iron carbon equilibrium diagram?
79. Why are TTT diagrams usually not applicable to industrial engineering practices?
80. What are the difference between surface hardening by diffusion methods and thermal methods?
81. Define the following surface hardening process:
82. (a) Carburishing
(b) Nitriding
83. (c) Cyaniding and
(c)Carbonitriding. [AU, NOV-08]
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84. Difference between pack carburishing and gas carburishing?

(a)
What do you understand by hardening of steel?
(b) Discuss the reason why martensite is very hard.
(c)
Also discuss the various characteristics of martensite transformation. [AU, NOV-08]
85. Draw a neat sketch of the TTTdiagram for a eutectoid steel and labelo the regions.Mark the
difference products formed on this diagram.
(d) what is a CCt diagram ?
(e)
Describe various cooling curves on TTT diagrams. How such curves are down?
(f)
Write short notes on critical cooling rate.
86. What is meant by carburishing of steels? Brifly explain the various types of
carburishing.[AU, MAY-12]
87. Explaining the process of nitriding . list and discuss the advantages of nitriding over
carburizing. [AU, NOV-10, MAY-12 AUC 2013]
88. Give a detailed account on annealing, normalizing, ,austempering and case haredening,
(AU MAY2011, MAY-12)
89. Distinguish between annealing and normalizing?(AU APRIL2010)
90. Explain how surface hardening is achieved using flame hardening?(AU APRIL 2010)
UNIT III
FERROUS AND NON FERROUS METALS

PART-A
1MARKS
91. The mild steel to be used as a rein forcing materials should be free from..
a. loose rust
b. oil and grease c. loose mill scale d. paint e. all the above
92. Cast iron is used for
a. column and struts b. wire nails c. member subjected to tension d. trusses
93. Bass is an alloy of
a. lead and tin b. copper and zinc c. tin and silver d. nickel and zinc
94. Galvanizing is done with a thin layer of
a. copper b. zinc c. lead d. cadmium
95. The specific gravity of cast iron is usually?
a. 4.1 b. 5.8 c. 6.5 d. 7. 25
96. The percentage of chromium stainless steel used for cutlery is usually in the range
a. 0.5-1.1% b.1.2-2.7%
c. 10-20% d. 20-30%
97. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of aluminium?
a. least affinity for oxygen
b. high thermal conductivity
c. lightness . d. good
electrical conductivity
98. Which varity of copper has the best conductivity?
a. induction horned coppe b.pure annealed copper c.hard drawn copper d. none of the above
99. Which variety of copper has the best mechanical strength?
a. Hard drawn copper b. cast copper c. soft paper d. annealed paper
100. Which material will have highest limiting strength?
a. Aluminum
b. cast iron c. mild steel d. wrought iron
101. Corrosion resistance of stainless steel is due to?
a. CR
b. VI
C. Carbon
D. Sulper
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102. PVC stands for

a. polyvinyl chloride b. polythene vinyl chloride c. phosphoric vanadium carbide d.
plastic very compact
103. Filler are added to molding powders for plastic to ?
a.Increasing heat resistance b. reduce cost c.
increase mould ability d. reduce mould
shrinkage e. all the above
104. Bakelite is
a. highly inflammable
b. low
c.. a semi conductor d. incombustible
105. Plasticizers are added to plastics to
a. crystallize in to granules b. impart color c. impart desirable properties of strength and
toughness
d. reducing melting temperature
106. .. is not a thermosetting plastics
a. cellulose b. phenol formaldehyde c. Urea formaldehyde
d. acrylic
107. Plastic item can be mfg by
a. impregnation
b. extrusion c. casting d. coating
108. Plastics can be broadly classified as.
a. Elastic and rigid b. monomer and polymers c. soft and hard
d. thermosetting and thermoplastics
109. Approximate Brielle hardness number for talc is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5-10 d. 20-30 e.50-80
110. Vicker hardness number for diamond could be of the order of
a. 1500 b. 1200 c. 8000 d. 4000 e. 800
ANSWER
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
PART-B
2MARKS
111. What are Alloy steels? [AU, NOV-08]
Alloy steel mean any steels other than carbon steels.the steel product manual defines alloy steel as
steel that exeed one or more of the following items
MN-1.65% SI-0.60% C-0.60%
112. What are stainless steels? [AU, NOV-07]
Stainless steel are alloy of iron, cr, and other elements that resist corrosion from many
environments.
113. What are tool steels?
Tool steel are metal used to make tools and ties for cutting forming or otherwise shaping a material
in to a components or part for a specific applications.tool steel are metals desined to provide wear
resistance and toughness combined with high strength.
114. What are HSLA?(AU,MAY2011)
HSLA steels also known as micro alloyed steels are low carbon steel containing small amount of
alloying elements
115. What are maraging steels?
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Maraging steels are low corbon high alloy steels these are very higg strength materials that can be
hardned to obtain tensile strengths upto 1900MPA NI-18% CO-7%and small amount amount of
other elements such as titanium the corban content is low lessthan .05%
116. What are the two types of aluminium alloy? [AU, MAY-08]
1.heat treatable aluminium alloy
2. non heat treatable aluminium alloy
117. What are bearing materials?
The materials which are used for making bearing are know as bearing materials.
i.White metal
2.copper base alloy
3. AL-base alloy
4. plastic materials and ceramics
118. Define the term copper?
Copper is a highly ductile metal with high electrical conductivity and the pure metal is used in
many electrical and electronic application.
119. What are vthe important types of copper alloys? [AU, NOV-08]
1.Brasses[CU-ZNalloys]
2. Bronzes[CU-SN alloy]
3. Gun metal[CU-SN- ZN alloy]
4. cupronickels[cu-ni alloy]
120. What is meant by precipitation hardening?
It is the most important method of strengthening hardning the most of non ferrous alloys by
solid state reaction.
121. Compare spherical cast-iron and malleable cast iron?(AU MAY 2011)
Malleable cast iron that has been heat treated so that it has significant and meallability
122. What is cast iron? (AU APRIL2010)
Castiron can be defined as the ferrous alloy with greaterthan2%carbon they also contain
small amount of silicon manganese and phosphorus.
123. What are the properties of steel?
Ductility
Hardness
Machinineability
Shock resistance
Toughness
124. What is precipitation hardening?
It is the process of hardening a metal when allowed to remain or age after heat treatment .It is also
known as AGE hardening.
PART- C
16MARKS
125. What are the main classification of stainless steel? [AU, MAY-10]
[b]Discuss the different types of stainlees steel making reference to approximate composition,
structure heat treatment.
[c] Give typical application for each of the main categories of stainless steel ?
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126. Write an engineering brief about the following steels?(AUAPRIL 2010)

[a] tool steel [b] HSLA steel [c] merging steels
127. Explain principle characteristics of cast iron and explain the factors which affect the
structure of cast iron? [AU, NOV-08]
128. Give the classification of steels?
[b] Describe the properties and application of low medium and high carbon steels?
[c] What is an alloy steels ?how are alloy steels classified? Explain them?
129. Discuss the composition properties and typical application of any four copper alloy?(AU
MAY 2011)
130. Explain the composition properties and typical application of some
aluminium alloy?
[AU, MAY-10,MAY-12(AUC 2013)]
131. What is meant affects of ageing temperature and time on the properties of alloy?
Summaries the effect of the flowing elements as alloying additions to steel;
[a] manganese [b] silicon [c] chromium [d] vanadium [e] Titanium(AUC 2013)
132. Write a short notes on?(AU MAY 2011)
a. Precipitation hardening b. bearing alloy C.tool steel
UNIT IV
NON METALLIC MATERIALS
PART-A
1MARKS
133. Molecules are discrete group of atoms which are ?
a. weakly bonded together b. strongly bonded together c. any of the above d. none of the
above
134. Electron may behave?
a. either as particles or as waves b. as partials c. As waves d. None off the above
135. Percentage of iron in pig iron approximately?
a. 99.9% b. 95% c. 90% d. 80% e. 78%
136. Which off the following is easiest to bend?
a. cast iron b. Grey pig iron c. Molted pig iron d. steel e. wrought iron
137. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of ?
a. P and TN B. NI and chromium
c. lead and vanadium d. molybdenum and tungsten
138. The Brunel Hardness tester the load for aluminum is
a. 3000kg b.1500kg c. 1000kg d. 500kg e. 100kg
139. Dielectric materials are used primarily for?
a. insulation b. charge storage c. reducing dielectric loss d. none off theses
140. reflectivity of the medium is the reciprocal of ?
a. permeability b. retentivity c. resistivity d. susceptibility
141. When the bond length is decreased the bond energy?
a. remains constants b. also decreases c. increases d. none off the above
142. the materials having different properties in different direction is know as
a. amorphous
b. co polymer c. anisotropic d. austenite
143. The ability of the material to withstand bending without fracture is known as
a. mechanical strength
b. stiffness c. toughness d. ductility
144. The ability of material to resist elastic deflection is known as
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a. mechanical strength
b. stiffness c. toughness d. ductility
145. Magnetism is nonlinearly related to the applied field in case of
a. diamagnetic field
b. paramagnetic field c. ferromagnetic field d. all of the above
e. none of the above
146. The net msagnetic moment is zero in case of
a. ferromagnetic materials b. ferromagnetic materials c. antiferromagnetice above d. all of
the above
147. Which of the following materials has body centered cubic structure?
a. molybdenum
b. cadmium c. glass d. magnesium e.zinc
148. Which of the following materials has body centered cubic structure?
a. vanadium
b. potassium c. lithium
d. calcium
chromium
149. Dilute nitric acid applied to a clean fracture of white cast iron will produce
a. white stain
b. grey stain c. black stain d. brown stain e. pink stain
150. Which of the following is not true in case of white cast iron?
a. it is whitish in color
b. it is strong c. it is hard
d. it is brittle
151. Hardening by carburizing is limited to
a. 0.05mm
b. 0.1mm
c. 2mmd. 5mm
152. Free cutting steel usually have super content of ?
a. 0.002% b. 0.02%
c. 0.21%
d. 0.2%
e. 10
ANSWERS
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
PART-B
2MARKS
153. Define the term polymer? [AU, NOV-08]
The term polymer is derived from the two greek words poly[means many] meros[means unit] thus
polymers are composed of a large number of repeting units [small molecules] called monomers
154. What are synthetic polymer?
Polyethylene ,polystyrene,nylon,terylene,dacron,etc are synthetic polymers and are termed under
plastic ,fibres and elastomers.
155. What is condensation polymerization ? [AU, NOV-08, MAY-12]
Condensation polymerization is the formation of polymers by stepwise intermolecular chemical
reactions that normally involve more than one monomer speices.
156. How are polymers classified ?(AU MAY 2011)
Polymers are classified according to the mechanical behavior at elevated temperatures as
1.Thermoplasts(or thermoplastic polymers) 2.ThermOsets (or thermosettings polymers)
157. What is the characterstics of of thermoplasts? [AU, NOV-08]
1.Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)and polystyrene used in articles such as plastic wall and floor tile.
2.Polystyrene-Flouresent light reflectors.
3.Polymethyl Methacrylate Plastic lenses.
158. What is the characteristic of thermoplasts?(AU APRIL 2010)
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Thermoplasts (or)Thremoplastic polymers soften when heated (and eventually liquify) and harden
when cooled.They can be repeatedly moulded and remoulded to the desired shapes.
159. Define plastics. [AU, MAY-10]
A plastic is defined as an organic polymer, which can be moulded into any desired shape and size
with the help of heat,pressure (or)both .The plastic,in its liquid form,is known as resin.
160. What are the thermosetting polymers?
1. Epoxies.2.Phenolics.3.Polyesters.4Urea formaldehyde.5.Melamine formaldehyde.
161. Define rubber. [AU, MAY-10]
The rubber may be defined as an organic polymer ,which elongates on stretching and regains its
original shape after the removal of the stress .
162. Define ceramics.
Ceramic material are defined as those containing phase that are compounds of metallic and
nonmetallic elements .In short ,ceramics are inorganic, non-metallic materials.
Ex: Stone, brick, concrete, clay, glass, vitreous enamel and refractories.
Majority of these are composed of silicates.
Name two refractory materials .
The ceramics materials such as magnesia(with melting point of 28800C) and alumnia (with melting
point of 20400C) are excellent choice of refractory materials.
163. Brief about any two types of polymers.
Polymers are classified according to the mechanical behavior at elevated temperatures as
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)and polystyrene used in articles such as plastic wall and floor tile.
2.Polystyrene-Flouresent light reflectors.
3.Polymethyl Methacrylate Plastic lenses.
.Thermoplasts(or thermoplastic polymers) 2.ThermOsets (or thermosettings polymers)
reactions that normally involve more than one monomer speices.
164. What are applications of poly styrenes?
1 Packaging
2 Insulation foams.
3 Lighting panels.
4 Egg boxes.
5 Walls Tiles.
6Battery cases.
165. Sketch Slip and Twinning types of deformation.
Slip deformation is defined as the sliding of blocks of cral over one another along definite
crystallographic planes called slip planes.
Whereas Twinning deformation is atoms in a part of crystal subjected to stress , and rearranging
themselves so that one part of crystal becomes a mirror image of of another part.
PART-C
16MARKS
166. Describe the difference between thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics?
167. Write on engineering brief about the flowing thermoplastics;
[a] polyethylene[b] Polyvinyl chloride [c] Acetyl [d] polyamides [AU, NOV-10(AUC 2013)]
168. List the properties and typical application of the following thermoplastics
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a]PTFE [b] PMMA[c] PET [d] PEEK[AU, MAY-12]

169. What are ceramics? list and brifly explain five important properties of ceramics that make them
useful engineering materials? [AU, MAY-08, MAY-12]
170. What is the main classification of ceramic materials?[AU, MAY-12]
171. Discuss the properties and typical application of the following engineering ceramics?
[a] AL2O3 [b] SIC [c] SI3N4 [d] PSN [e] Silons
172. List the advantages and limitations and application of composite materials. [AU, NOV-08]
173. Explain the difference between commodity plastics and engineering plastics?
174. Describe the molecular structures properties and application of the following polymers?
[a] polyvinyl chloride[PVC] [b] polystyrene[PS]
[C] Polyethylene terephthalate[PET] [D] polycarbonate[PC] [AU, MAY-10 (AUC 2013) ]
175. Give a detailed accont on ?
a. urea formaldehyde b.fibre rain forced plastics c. cellulose niterate(AU MAY 2011)
UNIT-5
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES AND TESTING
PART-A
1MARKS
176. Which bond is available in the three states of mater?
a. metallic band b. covalent band c. ionic band d. vander wall band
177. The formation of solid helium is due to the?
a. covalent band b. dispersion band c. hydrogen band d. metallic band
178. Silicon doped with phosphorous is a
a. intrinsic semi conductor b. extrinsic semi conductor
c. p-semiconductor d. n-type
semiconductor
179. Reciprocal of resistance is known as?
a. conductance b. inductance c. capacitance d. reluctance
180. Dielectric constant of mica is.?
a. 10
b.6 c. 12 d. 16
181. Which one of the following is a ceramic materials?
a. zinc b. iron c. SIC d wood
182. Which one of the following is an organic materials?
a. wood b. zinc c. iron
d. copper
183. Which one of the following of a ferrous metal?
a. copper b. iron c. brass d. plastic
184. The crystal structure of a germanium is?
a.HCP b. BCC C. FCC
D. diamond cube
185. All of the following are magnetic materials except?
a. NI b.CO c. iron d. ZN
E. cast iron
186. Nickel is ..
a. ferromagnetic b. ferroelectric
c. dielectric d. paramagnetic e. none of the above
187. The atomic packing factor for face centered cube is nearly?
a. 0.52 b. 0.68
c. 0.74
d. 0.81 e. 0.91
188. Which of the following is the hardest?
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a. Talc b. flu rite c. quartz d. topaz e .topaz

189. Which of the following is the softest materials?
a. corundum b. diamond c. calcite d. quartz e. flu rite
190. Percentage of carbon in mild steel is ?
a. 0.010-0.025
b. 0.10-0.25 c. 0.8-0.85 d.1.0-1.25
e. 3.0-4.50
191. Which of the following is usually made dead mild steel
a.Flanges b. shaft c. fish plate d. gears e. spates
192. How many atoms are three per unit cell in a body centered cubic lattice system?
a .2
b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e .8
193. How many molecules per unit cell are three in a face centered cubic lattice?
194. Dielectric strength of material is?
a. the capacity to take two or more
stresses b. the capacity of withstand higher voltages
c. the capacity to withstand and mechanical shock d. none of above
195. In which of the materials the magnetization is nonlinearly related to the applied
filed?
a. ferromagnetic materials b. Paramagnetic materials c. diamagnetic materials d. all the above
ANSWER
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175
176
177
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
PART-B
2 MARKS
196. Explain twinning.[AU, MAY-12]
Twinning is the two plastic deformation which takes place along the planes due to a set of forces
acting on a given metal. The two planes are usually parallel to each other and are called the twin
planes. Here each atom moves only a fraction of an inter atomic distance relative to its
neighbours.
197. Define fracture. [AU, NOV-08]
Fracture can be defined as the breaking up (or) separation of a solid into two (or) more parts when
subjected to an external load.
Fracture can occur as the end result of extensive plastic deformation (or)as the end result of fatigue
in a part of the material.
198. What is brittle fracture?
A ductile farcture can be defined as a fracture which is the result of intense localized plastic
deformation and very rapid crack propagation. It consist of destroying the interatomic bonds with
normal stresses.
199. Define ductile fracture . [AU, MAY-08]
A ductile fracture can be defined as a fracture which is the result of intense localised plastic
deformation of the metal at the tip of the crack .At elevated temperatures all fractures tend to
become ductile because slip can occur more easily.
200. Explain the fatigue fracture.
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Fatigue fracture is the fracture that occur under repeatedly applied fatigue stresses. This fractures
occurs at a stress well below the tensile strength of the materials.
201. What is creep fracture ? [AU, NOV-09] (AU APRIL-2010)
Creep fractures is seen to take place by two ways
Sliding of grain boundaries
Movement of dislocations from one slip to another , by climbing.
202. What is the use of tensile test?
The tensile test is used to determine the mechanical properties of material.IT also gives
information on how material behave under tensile loading condition.
203. Define elastic limit. [AU, MAY-10]
The elastic limit can be defined as the greatest amount of stress that the material can withstand and
still return to its original state when the load is removed .
204. What is proportional limit ?
Proportional limit is the stress at which stress-strain curve deviates from linearity.
205. What is the use of Izod test?[AU,MAY-12]
The Izod test is the impact test which is used to determine the impact strength of a material.
206. Define endurance limit in fatigue test.
Endurance limit is defined as the value of stress below which the material will not fail when it is
loaded for infinite number of cycles.
207. What properties are determined from tension testing of metallic products? [AU, NOV-08]
(1) Limit of proportionality ,(2)Yield strength, (3) Maximum tensile strength, (4) Breaking
strength, (5) Percentage elongation, and (6) Modulus of elasticity.
200Define eutectic reaction.
Eutectic reaction is the reversible, isothermal reaction of a liquid which transforms two
different solid phase upon cooling and written as
Liquid cooling solid1 + solid2.
201How steel is classified?
Steels are classified as per carbon content asEutectoid ,Hypoeutectoid, Hypereutectoidsteel
varies from.8%c to2.0%c.
200 Differentiate between Fatique and Creep tests.
Fatique test s are to test the metal load carrying capacity of repeated load andfluctuating
loads.
Creep test on metals are to find the metal under steady load.
PART- C
16MARKS
208. Describe a Brinell hardness test to determine the hardness of a metal?[AU, MAY-12]
209. Explain the procedure for performing the Rockwell test? [AU, NOV-08]
210. Explain the distinguish Izod test and charpy test to determine the impact strength of a
materials?(AU MAY 2011)
211. Write an engineering brief about the creep test? [AU, NOV-09]
212. Explain the mechanism of plastic deformation of metals by slip and twinning?
213. Explain the characteristics of ductile fracture and brittle fracture?
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214. Explain the testing procedure for Vickers hardness testing? [AU, MAY-10,MAY-12]
215. Explain the two modes of plastic deformation in metals with neat sketches?
216. What is brittle fracture? Explain the Griffith theory on brittle fracture and deduce an expression for
the critical stress required to propagate a crack simultaneously in a brittle materials? [AU, MAY-10]
,(AU MAY 2011)
217. Critically compares the deformation by slip and twinning? [AU NOV-09]
218. Sketch the describe the test?
a. Rockwell hard nests test, b. impact test [AU, MAY-12]
219. Sketch and describe the brinell hardness test?(AU, APRIL 2010, MAY-12)
220. Explain the mechanism of
plastic deformation by slip and twinning with neat
sketches?(AU APRIL 2010)
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
UNIT-I STRESS, STRAIN AND DEFORMATION OF SOLIDS
PART-A
1MARKS
1.Hooks law holds is good
(a) Yield point (b) Limit of proportionality (c) Breaking point (d) Elastic limit (e) Plastic limit
2.The unit of youngs modulus
2
(a) mm/mm (b) kg/cm
(c) kg (d) kg/cm
(e)kgcm2
3.Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
(a) Strain
(b) Lateral strain
(c) Leaner strain
(d) Leaner stress
(e) Unit strain
4.The materials having same elastic properties in all direction are called
(a) Ideal materials (b) Uniform materials (c) Isotropic materials (d) Practical materials
(e) Elastic materials
5.The impact strength of material is an index of its
(a)Toughness
(b) Tensile strength (c) Capability of being cold worked (d) Hardness
(e) Fatigue strength
6.Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 0%
(d) 15%
(e) 60%
7.The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called
(a) Unit stress(b) Bulk modulus (c) Modulus of rigidity (d) Modulus of elasticity
(e) Principal stress
8.For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared in to tension
(a) same
(b) Half
(c) one-third (d) two-third (e)one-fourth
9. Which of the following has no limit?
(a) Kinematic viscosity (b) Surface tension (c) Bulk modulus
(d)Strain
(e)Elasticity
10. Which of the following materials is most elastic?
(a) Rubber (b)Plastic
(c)Brass
(d)Steel
(e)Glass
11. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of
(a)2.1x105 kg/mm2 (b)2.1x106 kg/mm2 (c) 2.1x107 kg/mm2 (d) 0.1x105 kg/cm2
(e) 3.8x105 kg/cm2
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12. The value of passion ratio for steel is between

(a)0.01to0.1 (b) 0.23to0.27
(c) 0.25to0.33 (d) 0.4to0.6 (e)3to4
13. Which the material the passions ratio is more than unity
(a)steel
(b)copper
(c)Aluminum (d)Cast iron (e) none of the above
14. The change in unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its passions ratios
(a)Increase (b) Decrease(c) remain same (d) increase initially and then decrease (e)none of the above
15. If the material heating it expands freely due to will develop
(a)Thermal stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) bending (d) Compressive stress (e) No stress
16. Flow stress corresponds to
(a)Fluids in motion (b) breaking point
(c) plastic deformation of solids (d) rupture stress
17. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
(a)Resilience (b) Proof resilience (c )Modulus of resilience (d) Toughness (e)Impact energy
18. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at end is increased, the failure will occur
(a)in the middle (b)at the tip below the load (c)at the support (d)anywhere (e) none of the above
19. Rivets are made of following type of material
(a) tough
(b) hard
(c) resilient (d) ductile
(e) malleable
20. A beam of length l, having uniform load of w kg per unit length, it supported freely at the
ends .the bending moment at mid span will be
(a)
hi
)
(b)
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5
B d c C a
hi
(c)
6
c
7
d
8
b
hi
9
d
(d)
hi
C
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
d b c E b e c a c d d
PART-B
2 MARKS
21. Define Stress. AU DEC-(2006)
When an external force acts on a body, it undergoes deformation. At the same time the body
resists deformation. The magnitude of the resisting force is numerically equal to the applied force.
This internal resisting force per unit area is called stress.
22. Define strain (e). (AU 2007)
When an external force acts on a body, there is some change of dimension in the body.
Numerically the strain is equal to the ratio of change in length to the original length of the body.
23. State Hookes law. (AU 2005, 2009, 2010)
It states that when the material is loaded, within its elastic limit, the stress is directly proportional
to the strain.
Stress Strain
24. Define Factor of Safety. (MK-UDEC-2003)
It is defined as the ratio of ultimate tensile stress to the permissible stress(working stress).
25. State the tensile stress & tensile strain.
When a member is subjected to equal & opposite axial pulls the length of the member is
increased. The stress is included at any cross section of the member is called Tensile stress & the
corresponding strain is known as Tensile strain.
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26. Define Modulus of Elasticity. (AU DEC-2008) (AU DEC-2012)

The ratio of tensile stress to the corresponding tensile strain is constant within its elastic limit. The
ratio is known as Youngs Modulus or Modulus of Elasticity.
27. State Bulk Modulus. (AU 2007,)
The ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is constant within elastic limit.
The ratio is known as Bulk Modulus.
28. Define poisons ratio. (AU 2007,)
When a body is stressed, within its elastic limit, the ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
is constant for a given material.
29. Define Principal plane. (AU 2009, June 2011)
The planes, which have no shear stress, are known as principal planes. These planes carry only
normal stresses.
30. What is the use of Mohrs circle? (AU APR-2006)
It is used to find out the normal, tangential, resultant stresses and principal stress and their planes.
31. Define Principal Stresses. (AU 2009, June 2011)
The normal stresses, acting on the plane is called principal stress.
32. Give the relationship between Modulus of Elasticity and modulus of rigidity.
1
j . 2k l1 < n
m
E=youngs modulus
C=modulus of rigidity
1/m=passion ratio
PART-C
16MARKS
33. A bar 30 mm in diameter was subjected to a tensile load of 54 kN and measured extension on 300
mm gauge length was 0.112 mm and change in diameter was 0.00366 mm. Calculate Poissons
ratio and the values of three elastic modulii. (AU- MAY-2006)
34. Derive a relation for change in length of a bar of uniformly tapering circular section subjected to
an axial tensile load W.(AU-APR-2005) .
35. A reinforced concrete column 500 mm 500 mm in section is reinforced with 4 steel bars of 25
mm diameter, one in each corner, the column is carrying a load of 1000 kN. Find the stresses in
the concrete and steel bars. Take E for steel = 210 103 N/mm2 and E for concrete = 14 103
N/mm2 (AU-APR-2005) .
36. A metallic bar 250 mm 100mm 50mm is loaded as shown in figure Q. 13 (B). Find the
change in volume. Take E = 2 105 N/mm2 and Poissons ratio = 0.25. Also find the change that
would be made in the 4MN load, in order that there should be no change in the volume of the bar.
(AU-DEC-2004)
37. i) Find the stresses in each section of the bar shown in Fig. Q. 11(a)
(ii) Find the total extension of the bar shown in Fig. Q. 11(a). E = 2.1 105 N/mm2.(AU 2010)
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38. A steel rod of 25 mm diameter is placed inside a copper tube of 30mm internal diameter and 5
mm thickness and the ends are rigidly connected. The assembly is subjected to a compressive load
of 250 KN. Determine the stresses induced in the steel rod and copper tube. Take the modulus of
elasticity of steel and copper as 200 Gpa and 80 Gpa respectively. (AU-DEC-2006).
39. Find the total strain energy stored in a steel bar of diameter 50 mm and length 300 mm when it is
subjected to an axial load of 150 kN. Take modulus of elasticity of steel as 200 103 MPa. (AUDEC-2006).
40. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter passes centrally through copper tube of 50 mm external diameter
and 40 mm internal diameter. The tube is closed at each end by rigid plates. If the temperature of
the assembly is raised by 50C, Calculate the stresses developed in copper and steel. Take E steel
=200 KN/mm2, E copper = 100 KN/mm2, s= 12 * 10-6/C, c= 18 * 10-6/C (AU 2010)
41. The following data relate to a bar subjected to tensile test
Dia of bar = 30 mm
Tensile load P = 54 KN
Gauge length = 300 mm
Extension of the bar = 0.112 mm
Change in dia = 0.00366 mm
Calculate passions ratio & the values of three moduli. (AU June 2011)
42. A steel tube of 30mm external diameter and 20mm internal diameter encloses a copper rod of
15mm diameter to which it is rigidity joined at each end. If at a temperature of 10oC there no
longitudinal stress, calculate stress in the rod and tube when the temperature raised to 200oC.
Take E for and copper as 2.1 x105N/mm2 and
1 x105N/mm2 respectively. The value of coefficient of leaner expansion for steel and copper is given as 11x10-6per oC and 18x10-6per oC
respectively (A.U-June- 2012)
43. a bar of crass section 8mmx 8mm is subjected to an axial pull of 7000N the lateral dimension of
the is found to be changed to 7.9985mm x7.9985mm. if the modulus of rigidity of the material is
0.8x105N/mm2, determine the modulus of rigidity and passion ratio.(A.U- June- 2012)
44. a bar of crass section 8mmx 8mm is subjected to an axial pull of 7000N the lateral dimension of
the is found to be changed to 7.9985mm x7.9985mm. if the modulus of rigidity of the material is
0.8x105N/mm2, determine the modulus of rigidity and passion ratio.(AU 2013)
45.
UNIT-II BEAM -LOADS & STRESSES
PART-A
1MARKS
46. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
(a)leaner stress due to longitudinal stress
(b)stress to volumetric strain
(c) shear
stress to shear strain
(d)stress to strain
(e) stress to longitudinal strain
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47. A structure, made up of several bars, joined together is known as

(a)beam
(b)column
(c)strut
(d)tie (e)frame
48. Thin cylinders are used to store
(a)water
(b)oil
(c)gas
(d)steam
(e) any one of the above
49. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point in a in solid
circular shaft
(a)1
(b)1/2
(c)2
(d)2/3 (e)3/2S
50. Mohrs circle can be used to determine the following stress on inclined surface
(a)principal stress
(b) normal stress
(c)tangential stress
(d)maximum shear stress (e) all of the above
51. A large cylindrical vessel was sealed in summer what is likely to happen to in winder
(a)nothing (b)explode
(c)buckle and collapse(d)become lighter
(e) seal will get loosened
52. Unit of strain are
(a)dimensionless (b)cm/cm
(c)kg/cm2/cm
(d)kg/cm
(e)none of the above
53. A cylindrical bar of L meters deforms by l cm. the strain in bar is
(a)l/L
(b)0.1l/L
(c)0.01l/L
(d)100l/L
54. A composite bar made up of steel and copper is heated up the stress developed in steel and
copper will be
(a)compressive and tensile
(b)compressive and bending
(c)bending and tensile
(d)tensile and compressive (e)tensile and torsional
55. A structural member is subjected to an axial compressive force is called
(a) Beam (b) column
(c)frame
(d)strut
(e) structure
56. Torsion bars are in series
(a)if same torque acts in each
(b)if they have equal angle of twist and an applied
torque apportioned between them
(c)are not possible
(d)if there ends welded
together
57. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in case of a circular beam
transmitting power is equal to
(a)3/2
(b)4/3
(c)7/4
(d)2 (e)5/2
58. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in case of a rectangular beam
subjected to torsion is
(a)3/2
(b)4/3
(c)7/4
(d)2 (e)5/2
59. Compression members tend to buckle in the direction of
(a)axis of load
(b)perpendicular to axis of load
(c)minimum
crass
section
(d)least radius of gyration
(e)unpredictable
60. Moment of inertia of an area is always least with respect to
(a)bottom-most axis
(b) radius of gyration
(c)central axis
(d)centradial axis
61. Section modulus Z is expressed as
(a) I/y
(b)E/I
(c)
M/I (d)EI (e) Iy
60.If the section of the beam is increases, then bending stress will
(a)decrease (b) increase (c) remain same (d) there is no such correlation (e) none of the above
62. If the load at free end on a cantilever is increased so us to cause rupture, same will occur
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(a) below the load(b)at fixed end (c)between fixed end and centre(d) at centre
(e) between center and free end
63. Strength of a beam is directly proportional to its
(a)length
(b)breath (c)width (d)moment of inertia (e) all of the above
64. Strength of a beam is directly proportional to the square of its
(a)length
(b)breath
(c)width
(d)moment of inertia (e) all of the above
65. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in case of a circular beam
transmitting power is equal to
(a)3/2
(b)4/3
(c)7/4
(d)2 (e)5/2
ANSWERS
44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63
c e E a e c a c a d a b a d D a b b c b
PART-B
2MARKS
66. Define beam? (MU- DEC-2002)
Beam is a structural member which is supported along the length subjected to external loads
acting transversely. ie., perpendicular to the centre of the beam. Beam is sufficiently long as
compared to external load.
67. What is meant by transverse loading on beams?
If a load is acting on the beam which perpendicular to the support centre line
Then it is called transverse loading.
68. How do you classify the beams according to its supports? (A.U June- 2012)
The beam may be classified according to the support
Cantilever
Simply supported beam
Over hanging beam
Fixed beam
Continuous beam
69. What is cantilever beam?
A beam with one end free and other end fixed is called Cantilever beam
70. What is simply supported beam?
A beam supported or resting freely on the supports at its both ends the its is called simply
supported beam.
71. What is over hanging beam? (AU June 2011)
If beam one or both end extend beyond the support limit then it is called as over hanging beam.
72. What are types of transverse loads?
Point or Concentrated load
Uniformly distributed load
Uniformly varying loads.
73. What is uniformly distributed load? (AU APR-2006)
If a load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that rate of loading w is uniform through
out the length, then it is called as UDL.
74. Define shear force and bending moment at a section. (AU 2005, -2006, 2009, 2010 )
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Shear force
SF at any cross section of is defined as the algebraic sum of all the forces acting either side of a
beam.
Bending Moment
BM at any cross section if the algebraic sum of the moments of all forces which are placed either
side from the support.
75. What is meant by positive or sagging BM? (AU APR-(2009)
BM is said to be positive or sagging if the moment of the forces in the left side of the beam is
clockwise or right side of the beam is counter clock wise. Otherwise the beam to bend like
concave manner.
76. What is meant by negative or hogging BM? (AU-APR (2006)
BM is said to be positive or sagging if the moment of the forces in the left side of the beam is
counter clockwise or right side of the beam is clock wise. Otherwise the beam to bend like
concave manner. (AU-APR-2005)
77. What is point of contra flexture? (AU 2007, 2010 June- 2012)
The point where the BM changes its sign or zero is called the point of contraflexture.
PART-C
16MARKS
78. A beam of length 10 m is simply supported at its ends carries two concentrated loads of 5 kN each
at a distance of 3 m 7 m from the left support and also a uniformly distributed load of 1 kN/m
between the point loads. Draw shear force and bending moment diagrams. Calculate the
maximum bending moment. (AU- MAY-2006)
79. A timber of rectangular section is to support a load of 20 kN uniformly distributed over a span of
3.6 m, when the beam is simply supported. If the depth of the section is to be twice the breadth
and the stress in the timber is not to exceed 7 N/mm2, find the breadth and depth of the cross
section. How will you modify the cross section of the beam, if it carries a concentrated load of 30
kN placed at the mid span with the same ratio of breadth to depth.(AU- MAY-2006)
80. A simply supported beam is loaded as shown in fig Q. 12 (b). Draw the shear force and bending
moment diagrams. (AU-APR-2005)
81. Derive the relation between shear force and bending moment.
82. A cast iron beam is of T section as shown in figure Q.14 (a). The beam is simply supported on a
span of 8 m. The beam carries an uniformly distributed load of 1.5 kN/m length on the entire
span. Determine the maximum tensile and maximum compressive stresses.
(AU-DEC-2004)
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83. A steel rod of 20 mm passes centrally through a copper tube of 50 mm external diameter and 40
mm internal diameter. The tube is closed at each end by rigid plates. If the temperature of the
assembly is raised by 50C, calculate the stresses developed in the copper and steel. Take Es = 200
kN/mm2. Ec = 100 kN/mm2, s = 12 10-6 per C, c = 18 10-6 per C. (AU-DEC-2005).
84. A member ABCD is subjected to loads as shown in Fig. Q 12b. Find the value of P and determine
the total change in length of the bar. E = 210 kN/mm2. (AU-DEC-2005)
AB = 300 mm, BC = 200 mm,
CD = 300 mm
AAB = 25 mm2,
ABC =100 mm2, ACD = 50 mm2
85. Draw the S.F and B.M diagram for the beam shown in Fig. Q. 12(a). Determine the points of
contra flexure. (AU-DEC-2006).
(16)
86. A timber beam of rectangular section is to support a load of 20 kN uniformly distributed over a
span of 3.6 m, when the beam is simply supported. If the depth is twice the width of the section
and the stress in timber is not to exceed 3.5 N/mm2, find the dimensions of the cross section?(AUDEC-2006, MAY-2012)
87. Derive the relation between Shear Force & Bending Moment. (AU 2009, Dec 2010).
88. Draw the S.F. and B.M diagram for SSB of span 4m, and a point load of 2KN, 4KN, & 2KN
acting on 1m, 2m, & 3m respectively from left support. (AU June 2011).
89. A symmetrical section of 200 mm deep has a MI of 2.26 * 10-5 m4 about its neutral axis.
Determine the longest span over which, when simply supported, the beam would carry a
uniformly distributed load of 4 KN/m run without the stress due to bending exceeding 125
MN/m2 (AU June 2011)
90. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram for the beam shown in Fig. q. 11 and also
indicate the points of contra flexure if any.
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91. A cantilever 1.5mm long is loaded with uniformly distributed load of 2KN/m run over the length
of 1.25 m from the free end. It also carries a point load of 3kNat a distance of 0.25m from the free
end. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam (AU June 2012)
92. A cantilever 1.5mm long is loaded with uniformly distributed load of 2KN/m run over the length
of 1.25 m from the free end. It also carries a point load of 3kNat a distance of 0.25m from the free
end. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam (AU 2013)
93.
UNIT III TORSION
PART-A
94. Moment of a beam is defined as its section modulus is multiplied by
1MARKS
(a) Moment of inertia (b) stress

(c) strain
(d) co-efficient of elasticity (e) half the depth
90. The point of contra-flexure occurs only in
(a)cantilever beam
(b) over hanging beams
(c) simply supported beams
(d)continuous beams (e) uniform beams
91. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force
(a) is maximum
(b)is minimum
(c)is equal
(d) changes sign
(e) is zero
92. The rate of change of bending moment is equal to
(a)shear force at this section
(b) deflection at this section
(c) loading at this
section
(d)slope at this section
(e) intensity of loading at that section
93. The steel bars in reinforced cement concrete beam are located at
(a) top
(b)bottom
(c) centre
(d) natural axis
(e) uniformly distributed
94. The rate of change of shear force is equal to
(a) bending moment (b) loading (c)deflection
(d) intensity of loading
(e) slope
95. The moment diagram for cantilever beam carrying concentrated load at end of the will be
(a)rectangle (b)triangle
(c) parabola
(d)cubic parabola
(e) circular arc
96. Point of contraflexure occurs
(a)simply supported bam
(b) beams carrying load
varying from zero at one end to
maximum at other (c)centilevers
(d) overhanging beams
(e) any type of beam
97. In the case of cantilever irrespective of type of the loading the maximum bending moment
and maximum shear force occur at
(a) free end (b) under the load
(c) fixed end
(d) middle
(e) any point
98. When the shear force along the section is zero
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(a) B.M maximum (or) minimum

(b) B.M is zero
(c) B.M is in between
maximum and minimum value
(d) B.M infinity
(e) B.M is unpredictable
99. Hoop stress in thin walled cylinder is
(a) compressive stress (b) radial stress (c) circumferential tensile stress(d) longitudinal stress
(e) shear stress
100. When a strip made up of iron and copper is heated
(a) it does not bend
(b)its gets twisted
(c) it bends with iron on concave side
(d) it bends with iron on convex side
101. During the tensile test of a class rod the nature of stress-strain curve is
(a)straight and drooping
(b)sudden break
(c) straight line
(d) parabolic (e) none of the above
102. Radio of thickness to diameter for thin cylinder is
(a)1/10
(b)1/15
(c)1/20
(d)1/40
(e)1/30
103. The hoop stress of thick cylinder is considered at it is maximum at
(a) near centre b) outer radius (c)inner radius (d) depends on the type of loading
104. The stress at any point of the thick cylinder are
(a) tensile (b)compressive
(c) shear
(d) compound (e) principal
105. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on
(a) hoop stress
(b) longitudinal stress
(c) volumetric stress
(d)average of hoop and longitudinal stress (e) all of the above
106. Proof load for spring is the maximum load that can be under take
(a) without producing permanent deformation in spring
(b)up to elastic limit
(c)
up to yield point
(d) to straighten fully the leafs a
carriage spring (e) to satisfy
fatigue requirements
107. An overhanging beam is
(a) same as cantilever
(b) not same as cantilever
(c) one which extends
beyond its support at either end
(d) one which extends beyond its support at both
ends(e) none of the above
108. Neutral plane of the beam
(a)is in middle
(b) posses through the c.g
(c) is one whose length remains
unchanged during the deformation (d) lies at bottom most fiber (e) none of the above
ANSWERS
91 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99
b B a a b d b D c a c
100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108

c
b
c
c
e
a
a
c
c
PART-B
2MARKS
109. Define Torsion.
When a pair of forces of equal magnitude but opposite directions acting on body, it tends to twist
the body. It is known as twisting moment or torsional moment or simply as torque.
110. What are assumptions made in Torsion Equation.
The material of the shaft if homogeneous, perfectly elastic and obeys Hooks law
Twist is uniform along the length of the shaft.
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The stress does not exceed the limit of proportionality.

he shaft circular in section remains circular after loading.
Strain and deformation are small.
111. Why hollow circular shafts are preferred when compared to solid circular shafts? (AU
2009)
The torque transmitted by the hollow shaft is greater than the solid shaft.
For same material, length and given torque, the weight of the hollow shaft will be less compared
to solid shaft.
112. Define polar modulus? (AU Dec 2010)
The ratio between polar moment of inertia and radius of shaft is called as polar modulus.
113. What is meant by spring?
Spring is a device which is used to absorb energy by taking very large change in its form without
permanent deformation and release the same when it is required.
114. Classify the spring.
Torsional spring, bending spring
115. Mention any two function of spring. (AU June 2011)
Spring in the clock work is used absorb the energy when clock wound.
Leaf spring in Automobiles which absorb the road shock by continuous absorbing energy due to
shock by their deformation and then dissipating the same by vibrating.
116. Define stiffness. (AU June 2011)
The stiffness of the spring is defined as load required to produce unit deflection.
117. Write the expression for torsional rigidity of solid circular shaft. . (au june 2012)
8
T= o - &
1
T-Torque
Diameter of the shaft
118. State the difference between open coil and closed coil helical springs. . (au june 2012)
Closed coil helical spring
Open coil helical spring
Adjutant coil is very closed to each other
Large gap between adjutant coil
Only tensile load can carry
and compressive load can carry
Helix angle is negligible
Helix angle is considerable
PART-C
16MARKS
119. Calculate the power that can be transmitted at a 300 rpm by a hollow steel shaft of 75 mm
external diameter and 50 mm internal diameter when the permissible shear stress for the steel is
70N/mm2 and the maximum torque is 1.3 times the mean. Compare the strength of this hollow
shaft with that of an solid shaft. The same material, weight and the length of both the shafts are
the same. (AU- MAY-2006)
120. A steel cylindrical shell 3 m long which is closed at its ends, had an internal diameter of 1.5 m
and a wall thickness of 20 mm. Calculate the circumferential and longitudinal stress induced and
also the change in dimensions of the shell if it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.0 N/mm2.
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Assume the modulus of elasticity and poissons ratio for steel as 200 kN/mm2 and 0.3
respectively. (AU- MAY-2006)
121. A solid shaft is subjected to a torque of 100 Nm. Find the necessary shaft diameter if the
allowable shear stress id 100 N/mm2 and the allowable twist is 3 per 10 diameter length of the
shaft. Take C = 1 105 N/mm2. (AU-APR-2005)
122. Derive a relation for deflection of a closely coiled helical spring subjected to an axial downward
load W(AU-APR-2005)
123. A steel tube 30 mm external diameter and 25 mm internal diameter encloses a gun metal rod 20
mm diameter to which it is rigidly joined at each end. The temperature of the whole assembly is
raised to 150C. Find the intensity of stress in the rod when the common temperature has fallen to
20C. The value of the Youngs modulus for steel and gun metal are 2.1
105N/mm2.respectively. The coefficient of linear expansion for steel is 12 10-6 per C and for
gun metal is 20 10-6 perC. (AU-DEC-2004)
124. A cylindrical shell 3 m long which is closed at the ends has an internal diameter of 1 m and a wall
thickness of 15 mm. Calculate the circumferential and longitudinal stresses induced and also
change in the dimensions of the shell, if it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. Take
E = 2 105 N/mm2, = 0.3. (AU-DEC-2004)
125. A hollow shaft, having an internal diameter 50% of its external diameter, transmits 600 kW at 150
rpm. Determine the external diameter of the shaft if the shear stress is not to exceed 65 N/mm2
and the twist in a length of 3 m should not exceed 1.4 degrees. Assume maximum torque = 1.2
times the mean torque and modulus of rigidity = 1 105 N/mm2.(AUDEC 2004)
126. A hollow shaft with diameter ratio 3/8 is required to transmit 500 kW at 100 rpm, the maximum
torque being 20% greater than the mean. The maximum shear stress is not to exceed 60 N/mm2
and the twist in a length of 3 m is not to exceed 1.4Calculate the minimum diameters required for
the shaft. C = 84 kN/mm2. (AU-DEC-2005)
127. A hollow steel shaft of outside diameter 75 mm is transmitting a power of 300 kW at 2000 rpm.
Find the thickness of the shaft if the maximum shear stress is not to exceed 40 N/mm2. (AUDEC-2006).
128. A close coiled helical spring is to have a stiffness of 1.5 N/mm of compression under a maximum
load of 60 N. The maximum shearing stress produced in the wire of the spring 125 N/mm2. The
solid length of the spring is 50 mm. Find the diameter of coil, diameter of wire and number of
coils C = 4.5 104 N/mm2. (AU-DEC-2006).
129. A quarter elliptic leaf spring 60 cm long is made of steel plates width 10 times the thickness. The
spring is to carry a load of 3kN and the end deflection is limited to 5 cm. the bending stress of the
plates must not exceed 3000 N/mm2. Find suitable values of the size and number of plates to be
used. Take e = 2 105 N/mm2(AU-APR-2005).
130. A helical spring of circular cross-section wire 18 mm in diameter is loaded by a force of 500 N.
The mean coil diameter of the spring is 125 mm. The modulus of rigidity is 80 kN/mm2.
Determine the maximum shear stress in the material of the spring. What number of coils must the
spring have for its deflection to be 6mm?(AU- MAY-2006)
131. A hollow steel shaft is made to replace a solid wrought iron shaft of the same external diameter,
the material being 35 percent stronger than the iron. Find what fraction of the outside diameter the
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internal diameter may be. Also neglecting the coupling, fine the percentage saving in weight by
the substitution, assuming that steel is 2 percent heavier than wrought iron. (AU June 2011).
132. A closed coil helical spring has mean diameter of 75 mm and spring constant of 90 KN/m. It has
8 coils What is the suitable diameter of the spring wire if maximum shear stress is not to exceed
250 KN/m2?. Modulus of rigidity of the spring wire materials is 80 GN/m2, what is the maximum
axial load the spring can carry? (AU June 2011)
133. A solid circular shaft transmit 75 KW power at 200rpm calculate the shaft diameter, if the twist
in the shaft is not to exceed 1o in 2 meters length of the shaft , and shear stress limited to 50
N/mm2 take modulus of rigidity C=1x105N/mm2(AU June 2012)
134. The stiffness of the closed coiled helical spring is 15 N/mm of compression under a maximum
load 60N. The maximum shearing stress produced in the wire of the spring 125 N/mm2 the solid
length of the spring (when the coils are touching ) is given as 5cm. find diameter of the wire
,mean diameter of the coil, number of coil required take modulus of rigidity
C=4.5x104N/mm2(AU June 2012)
135. The stiffness of the closed coiled helical spring is 15 N/mm of compression under a maximum
load 60N. The maximum shearing stress produced in the wire of the spring 125 N/mm2 the solid
length of the spring (when the coils are touching ) is given as 5cm. find diameter of the wire
,mean diameter of the coil, number of coil required take modulus of rigidity
C=4.5x104N/mm2(AU 2013)
136.
UNIT-IV BAEM DEFLECTION
PART-A
1MARKS
137. The load taken by a laminated spring to make it flat is called
(a) Ultimate load (b) proof load (c) bending load (d) maximum safe load (e) yielding load
138. According to the hooks law stress and strain
(a) are directly proportional
(b) are inversely proportional
(c)
are
curvilinearly related
(d) have unpredictable relationship (e) none of the above
139. Stress in a beam and the second modulus
(a) are directly proportional
(b) are inversely proportional
(c)
are
curvilinearly related
(d) have unpredictable relationship (e) none of the above
140. The steel bars in a concrete beam are embedded
(a)uniformly
(b) near bottom section
(c) in the centre
(d) near
top section (e) anywhere
141. The point on a beam where shearing force changes sign is known as the point of
a) Zero shear
(b) uniform strength
(c) no load
(d) neutrality (e)
none of the above
142. The point of contraflexure is a point where
(a) Shear force in zero
(b)shear force changes sign
(c)bending
moment
changes sign
(d) bending moment maximum
(e) beam is liable to break
143. The maximum shear stress in mohrs circle will act at following to the principal plane
(b) 30o
(c)
45o
(d) 60o (e) none of the above
(a) 0o
144. One the plane are maximum or minimum principal stress, the tangential stress will be
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(a)minimum
(b)maximum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e)some
value
depending upon magnitude of two stress
145. If the principal plane be subjected to maximum principal stress, then shear stress on this
plane will be
(a) Zero
(b) maximum
(c)minimum
(d)infinity
(e)any value
146. Maximum shear stress in mohrs circle is equal to
(a) radius of circle
(b) diameter of circle
(c)centre of circle from y-axis(d)chord
of circle
147. The shear stress on manually perpendicular plane are
(a) zero
(b)minimum
(c)maximum
(d)equal (e) none of the above
148. The shear along the principal plane subjected to maximum principal stress is
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) any value depending
upon loading condition
(e) negative
149. The planes of minimum shear stress with reference to principal planes are located
(a)0o
(b) 22 .5o
(c) 45o
(d) 90o (e)135o
150. The normal stress on the plane of minimum stress in the case plane stress problems will be
(a)zero
(b) maximum
(c) half the difference of two mutually perpendicular
stress
(d) principal stress
151. In case of pure shear at a point, the sum of normal stress on two orthogonal planes is equal
(a) maximum shear stress
(b) twice the maximum shear stress
(c) half of the
maximum shear stress
(d) zero
152. The stress at the boundary of the kern is
(a) Maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) any value (e) none of the above
153. The equivalent length of column supported firmly at one-end at free at other end is
(a) 2l
(b)0.7l
(c)l
(d) 0.5l (e) none of the above
154. Damping capacity of a material its ability to
(a) absorb shock
(b) absorb vibration
(c) withstand compression
(d) absorb impact loads
(e) with stand creep failure
155. Dilatometer is an instrument used for measuring
(a)strain
(b) expansion contraction due to change in temperature (c) stress
(d) damping capacity
(e) vibrations
156. Maximum deflection in a cantilever due to pure bending moment M at its end is
(a)
ì
[p
(b)
ì
&[p
(c)
ì
)[p
(d)
ì
1[p
(e)
ì
C[p
ANSWERS
136
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
1438
149
150
151
152
153
154
PART-B
2MARKS
156. Define buckling facto r and buckling load. (AU APR-2005)
Buckling factor : It is the ratio between the equivalent len gth of the column to the minimum
radius of gyration.
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Buckling load : The maximum limiting load at which the column tends to have lateral
displacement or tends to buckle is called buckling or crippling load. The buckling takes place
about the axis having minimum radius of gyration, or least moment of inertia
157. Define safe load.
It is the load to which a column is actually subjected to and is well below the buckling load.
It is obtained b y dividing the buckling load by a suitable factor o f safety (F.O.S).
Safe load =
Buckling load /Factor of safety
158. State the assumptions made in Lame s theory.
The material is homogeneous and isotropic.
Plane sections perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the cylinder remain
plane after the application of internal pressure.
The material is stressed within the elastic limit.
All the fibers of the material are to expand or contract independently without being
constrained by the adjacent fibers.
159.Write any two method for finding slope and deflection of beams. (AU Janu 2011)
1. Macaulays method
2. Conjucate beam method
160.What are the unit of slope & deflection.
Slope in radians, & Deflection in mm
161.What is shear centre or angle of twist?
The shear centre for an y transverse section of the beam is the point of intersection of
the bending ax is and the plane of the transverse section.
162. Who postulated the theory of curved beam?
Winkler-Bach postulated the theory of curved beam.
163. What is the shape of distribution of bending stress in a curved beam?
The distribution of bending stress is hyperbolic in a curved beam.
164. Where does the neutral axis lie in a curved beam?
The neutral axis does not coincide with the geometric axis.
165. Where does the maximum stress in a ring under tension occur? (AU DEC-2004)
The maximum stress in a ring under tension occurs along the line of action of load.
166.What is the most suitable section for a crane?
Trapezoidal section.
167.What is pure bending of a beam?
When the loads pass through the bending axis of a beam, then there shall be pure
bending o f the beam.
168. Define: Column and strut. (MKU APR-2000)
A column is a long vertical slender bar or vertical member, subjected to an axial
compressive load and fixed rigidly at both ends.
A strut is a slender bar or a member in an y position other than vertical, subjected to a
compressive load and fixed rigidly or hinged or pin jointed at one or both the ends.
169. What are the types of column failure? (AU
APR-2005,2006)
a. Crushing failure:
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The column will reach a stage, when it will be subjected to the ultimate crushing stress,
beyond this the column will fail by crushing The load corresponding to the crushing stress is
called crushing load. This type of failure occurs in short column.
b. Buckling failure:
This kind of failure is due to lateral deflection of the column. The load at which the
column just buckles is called buckling load or crippling load or critical load. This type of
failure occurs in long column
170. What is slenderness ratio ( buckling factor)? What is its relevance in column?
It is th e ratio of effective length of column to the least radius of
gyration of the
cross sectional ends of the column.
Slenderness ratio = l eff / r
l eff = effective length of column
r = least radius of gyration
Slenderness ratio is used to differentiate the type of column. Strength of the column
depends upon the slenderness ratio, it is increased the compressive strength of the column
decrease as the tendency to buckle is increased.
171. What are the factors affect the strength column?( MKU DEC-2002)
Slenderness ratio Strength of the column depends upon the slenderness ratio, it is increased the
compressive strength of the column decrease as the tendency to buckle is increased.
2. End conditions: Strength of the column depends upon the end conditions also
172. What are the limitations of the Euler s formula? (AU June 2012)
1. It is not v laid for mild steel column. The slenderness ratio of mild steel column is less
than 80.
2. It does not take the direct stress. But in excess of load it can withstand under direct
compression only.
173. Write the Eulers formula for different end conditions. (AU APR-(2007)
1. Both ends fixed.
PE 2 EI
(0.5L) 2
2. Both ends hinged
PE 2 EI
(L) 2
3. One end fixes, other end hinged.
PE 2 EI
(0.7L)2
4. One end fixes, other end free.
PE 2 EI
( 2L)2
L = Length of the column
174. Define: Equivalent length of the column. (AU -APR-2004, June 2011)
The distance between adjacent points of inflection is called equivalent length of the
column. A point of inflection is found at ever y column end, that is free to rotate and
every point where there is a change of the axis. ie, there is no moment in the inflection points.
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(Or) The equivalent length of the given column with given end conditions, is the length of an
equivalent column of the same material and cross section with hinged ends , and having the
value of the crippling load equal to that of the given column.
175. What are the uses of south well plot? (column curve).
The relation between the buckling load and slenderness ratio of various column is
known as south well plot.
The south well plot is clearly shows the decreases in buckling load increases in
slenderness ratio.
It gives the exact value of slenderness ratio of column subjected to a particular amount of
buckling load.
176. Give the expression for deflection of a simply supported beam carrying a point load at
centre. (AU June 2012)
rs!
Maximum deflection%q .
)C[p
PART-C
16MARKS
177. Find the Euler critical load for a hollow cylindrical cast iron column 150mm external diameter,
20 mm wall thickness if it is 6 m long with hinged at both ends. Assume Youngs modulus of cast
iron as 80 kN/mm2. Compare this load with that given by Rankine formula. Using Rankin
constants = 1/1600 and 567 N/mm2. (AU- MAY-2006)
178. A simply supported beam AB uniform section, 4 m span is subjected to a clockwise moment of 10
kN.m. applied at the right hinge B. Derive the equation to the deflected shape of the beam. Locate
the point of maximum deflection and find the maximum deflection. (AU-APR-2005).
179. Derive the bending formula M/I = f/y = E/R. (AU-APR-2005, 2009).
180. A cantilever of length 2 is carrying a load of W at the free end, and another load of W at its
centre. Determine by moment area method, the slope and deflection of the cantilever at the free
end. (AU-APR-2005).
181. Find the deflection at B for the cantilever loaded as shown in Fig. Q.11 (i) using the moment area
method. Take EI = 30000kNm2. (AU-DEC-2004).
182. For the beam shown in Fig. Q 13a find deflection at C and maximum deflection. EI = 360000
kNm2.
(AU-DEC-2005).
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183. A cantilever beam of 5 m span carries a point load of 10 kN at midspan. Find the deflection at the
free end. EI = 360000 kNm2 (AU-DEC-2005).
184. Using principal of virtual work, find the deflection at the free end of the cantilever beam of span 3
m carrying a point load of 50 kN at free end. EI = 360000 kNm2. (AU-DEC-2005).
185. Using energy method, find the slope at the end of a simply supported beam carrying a point load
of 50 kN at the centre of the span = 6 m EI = 360000 kNm2(AU-DEC-2005).
186. Find the maximum deflection of the beam shown in Fig. Q. 14(a). EI = 1 1011 kN/mm2. Use
Macaulays method. (AU-DEC-2006).
187. For the cantilever beam shown in Fig. Q. 14(b). Find the deflection and slope at the free end. EI =
10000 kN/m2. (AU-DEC-2006).
188. A beam with a span of 4.5 meters carries a point load of 30 KN at 3 meters from the left support.
If for the section, Ixx = 54.97*10-6 & E = 200 GN/m2 by using Macaulays method find, a. The
deflection under load b. The position and amount of max. deflection. (AU June 2011)
189. A bar of length 4 m when used as a simply supported and subjected to a UDLof 30 KN/m over the
entire span, deflects 15mm at the center. Determine the crippling loads when it is used as a
column with following end conditions.
Both ends pin jointed
One end fixed and other eng hinged : and
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Both end fixed.

(AU June 2011)
190. A 1.5m long column has a circular crass section of 5cm diameter . one of it the ends of the
column is fixed in the direction and position and the other end is free taking factor of safety as3
calculate safe load using
191. Rankins formula take yield stress 560N/mm2 Rankins constant a=1/1600.
192. Euilers formula, Elastic modulus=1.2x 105 N/mm2 (AU June 2012)
193. Beam is simply supported at its ends over a span of 10 m and carries two concentrated loads of
100 kN and 60 kN at a distance of 2 m and 5 m respectively from the left support. Calculate (i)
slope at the left support (ii) slope and deflection under the 100 kN load. Assume EI = 36 104
kN-m2 (AU- MAY-2006)
UNIT-V ANALYSIS OF STRESSES IN TWO DIMENSIONS
PART-A
1MARKS
194. Maximum deflection in a cantilever beam of length l carrying a load P at its end will be
ti!
(a) &[p
ti!
ti
(b) C[p
(c) &
ti!
(d) 1)[p
[p
(e)
ti!
C[p
195. Maximum slope in case of cantilever beam of length l carrying a load P at its end will be
(a)
ti
[p
(b)
ti
[p
(c)
ti
&[p
(d)
ti
)[p
(e)
ti
1[p
196. Ties are load carrying members which carry

(a) torsional loads (b) axial compressive loads (c) axial tension loads (d) transverse load
(e) vertical compression loads
197. Sum of normal stress on any two mutually perpendicular planes as compared to sum of
stress sx and sy is
(a) Some
(b) more
(c) less (d) depends on other condition
(e) could be anything
198. When a beam is subjected to a transverse shearing force, the shear stress upper fiber will b
(a) Maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) depends on other data (e) none of the above
199. A continues beam is one which is
(a) Infinitely long
(b) supported at two places
(c) supported at one point
(d) supported at more than two supported (e) none of the above
200. The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress in thin walled cylinder is
(a) 1
(b)1/2
(c)2
(d) 1/4 (e) 4
201. Rankines constant for a M.S. column both ends hinged
(a)
u22
(b) &u22
(c) uu22
(d) vu22
(e) wu22
202. As the slenderness ratio of column increases, its compressive strength

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain unchanged
(d) may increase or
decrease depending on length
(e) un predictable
203. Eulers formula applicable for determining the buckling load for
(a) long columns
(b) intermediate column
(c) medium size column
(d) intermediate columns but with certain amendments it can be used both for short as well as
long column
(e) shorts columns
204. A long column fails by
(a) crushing (b) tension
(c) shearing
(d) buckling (e) buckling and crushing
205. For eccentrically loaded strut, following section preferred
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(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) reinforced
(d) composite (e) any one of the above
206. A column with maximum equivalent length has
(a) both end fixed
(b) both ends hinged
(c) one end fixed other hinged (d) one
end fixed other free (e) both ends free
207. A column has its equivalent length equal to its length in case of
(a) both end fixed
(b) both ends hinged
(c) one end fixed other hinged
(d) one end fixed other free (e) both ends free
208. Deflection in a beam is maximum where the slop is
(a) Maximum
(b) minimum (c) zero
(d) change in sign
(e) any value
209. The distribution of stress in a beam of rectangular crass section will be
(a) Triangular (b) rectangular
(c) parabolic
(d) elliptical (e) part of a circle
210. In a beam at a place where the shear force is maximum, the bending moment will be
(a) Maximum b (b) minimum (c) zero
(d) neither minimum nor maximum
211. Elasticity of M.S specimen is defined by
(a) hooks low (b) yield point (c) when plastic flow starts (d) proof stress (e) permanent section
212. A coil is cut in to two halves, the stiffness of cut coils will be
(a) double
(b) half
(c) same
(d) something else
(e) none
of the above
213. The ratio of longitudinal stress to shear stress in thin walled cylinder
(a) 1
(b)1/2
(c)2
(d) 1/4 (e) 4
ANSWERS
194
195
196
197
198
199
200
201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
209
210
211
212
213
PART-B
2MARKS
212.Define principal stresses and principal plane? (AU June 2011, 2012)
Principal Stresses: The magnitude of normal stress, acting on a principal plane are known as
principal stresses.
Principal Plane: The plane which have no shear stress are known as principal planes.
213. What is the radius of Mohrs circle?
Radius of Mohrs circle is equal to the maximum shear stress.
214. What is the use of Mohrs circle?
To find out the normal, tangential, resultant stresses and principal stress and their planes.
215. What are the planes along which the greatest shear stresses occur?
Greatest shear stress occurs at the planes which is inclined at 45
216. Define: Strain Energy (AU 2009)
When an elastic body is under the action of external forces the body deforms and work
miss done b y these forces. If a strained, perf ectly elastic body is allowed to recover
slowly to its unstrained state. It is capable of giving back all the work done by these
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external forces. This work done in straining such a body may be regarded as energy stored
in a body and is called strain energy or resilience.
217. Define: Unit load method.
load is removed and the unit load is applied at the point, where the
deflection
or rotation is to found
218. Give the procedure for unit load method. (AU DEC-2004)
1. Find the forces P1, P2, . in all the members due to external loads
2. Remove the external loads and apply the unit vertical point load at the joint if
the vertical deflection is required and find the stress
3. Apply the equation for vertical and horizontal deflection.
219. What are the assumptions followed in Euler s equation?
1. The material of the column is homogeneous, isotropic and elastic.
2. The section of the column is uniform throughout.
3. The column is initially straight and load axially.
4. The effect of the direct axial stress is neglected.
5. The column fails by buckling only.
220. Out line any two stresses developed in thin cylinder shells. (AU 2011,June2012)
Hoop stress
Longitudinal stress
221. State the variation of hoop stress in a thick cylinder.
The hoop stress is maximum at the inner circumference and minimum at the outer
Circumference of a thick cylinder.
222. How can you reduce hoop stress in a thick cylinder.
The hoop stress in thick cylinders are reduced by shrinking one cylinder over another Cylinder.
PART-C 16
MARKS
223.The state of stress at a certain point in a strained material is shown in Fig. 1. Calculate (i)
principal stresses (ii) inclination of the principal planes (iii) normal, shear and resultant stresses
on the plane MN. (AU- MAY-2006)
224. Derive a relation for strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress. (AU-APR-2005)
225. A rectangular body 500 mm long, 100 mm wide and 50 mm thick is subjected to a shear
stress of 80 MPa. Determine the strain energy stored in the body. Take N = 85 103
N/mm2.(AU-APR-2005).
226. Stresses at a point are px = 80 N/mm2, py = -35 N/mm2, q = 11.5 N/mm2. Determine principal
planes, principal stresses and maximum shear stress. (AU-DEC-2005)
227. The normal stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions are 110 N/mm2 and 47 N/mm2
both tensile. The complementary shear stresses in these directions are of intensity 63 N/mm2.
Find the principal stresses and its planes(AU-DEC-2006).
228. A cylinder shell 3 m long which is closed at the ends has an internal diameter 1 m and wall
thickness of 15 mm. Calculate the change in dimensions and change in volume if the internal
pressure is 1.5 N/mm2 E = 2 105 N/mm2. = 0.3. (AU-DEC-2006).
229. At a point a strained material, the principal stresses are 100 N/mm2. (tensile) and 40 N/mm2
(compressive). Determine analytically the resultant stress in magnitude and direction on a
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plane inclined at 60' to the axis of major principal stress. What is the maximum intensity of
shear stress in the material at that point?(AU APR-2007) .
230. A thin cylindrical shell 1.5 m long, internal diameter 300 mm and wall thickness 10 mm is
filled up with at atmospheric pressure. If the additional fluid of 300 103 mm3 is pumped in
the shell, find the pressure exerted by the fluid on the shell. Take E = 2 105 M/mm2 and 1/m
= 0.3. Also find the hoop stress induced. (AU-APR-2005)
231.The principles stresses in the wall of a container are y = 40 MN/m2 and x = 80 MN/m2,
Determine the normal, shear and resultant stresses in magnitude and direction in a plane, the
normal of which makes an angle of 30 with the direction of maximum principal stress. (AU
June 2011)
232. A cylindrical shell of 3m long which is closed at the end has an internal diameter of 1 m and a
wall thickness of 15 mm. Calculate the circumferential and longitudinal stress induced and also
change in dimensions of the shell if it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m2. Take E
= 200 GN /m2, & passions ratio = 0.3. (AU June 2011).
233. A cylindrical thin drrum 80cm in diameter and 3m long has a shell thickness of 1cm if the drum
subjected to a internal pressure of 2.5 N/mm2 determine change in diameter, change in length
and change in volume take E=2x 105 N/mm2 and possion ratio =0.25 (AUJune12).
234. At a certain point in a strained material , the indensities of stress on a two planes at right angle
to each other are 20N/mm2 and 10N/mm2 both tensile .they are accompained by the shear stress
of magnidute10 N/mm2 find the graphaly (or) other wise, the oriandation of principal planes and
evaluvate the principal stress. (AU June 2012).
234 Explain in brief the Testing of materials to measure Tension and Compression with a
graph
and anexample(AUC 2013)
235 What are hardness test & Impact test? Explain with sketch and an example? (AUC 2013)
234. At a certain point in a strained material , the indensities of stress on a two planes at right angle
to each other are 20N/mm2 and 10N/mm2 both tensile .they are accompained by the shear stress
of magnidute10 N/mm2 find the graphaly (or) other wise, the oriandation of principal planes and
evaluvate the principal stress. (AU June 2013).
EC1260- ELETRONIC MICROPROCESSOR

UNIT 1: SEMICONDUCTORS AND RECTIFIERS
PART A
(1 MARKS)
1. Flow of electrons is generally termed as
a) electric current
b) electric shock
c) semiconductor
d) none of the above
2. A _______________ is a material which offers very little resistance to theflow of current through it.
a) good conductor
b)insulator
c) semiconductor
3. The resistance offered by ______________ is extremely large for the flow of current through it.
a) good conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
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4. The materials which behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & athigher temperatures, they
behave like a good conductors are termed as
a) good conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
5. The conductivity of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
6. The conductivity of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
7. The resistance of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
8. The resistance of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) cant say
9. The charge of an electron is
a) 1.602*10+27Coulomb
b) 1.602*10-27 Coulomb
c) 1.602*10+19Coulomb d) 1.602*10-19 Coulomb
10.The energy band in relation to valence electrons is termed as
a) valence band
b) energy band
c) conduction band
d) forbidden band
11. A p-n junction conducts when it is
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased
12. A p-n junction blocks conduction when it is
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) un-biased
d) no-biased
13.The direction of conventional current is always ____________ to the direction of drifting electrons.
a) same
b) opposite
c) cant say
14. The Iav for a half-wave rectifier is
a) Im/3
b) Im/2
c) 2Im /3
d) Im /3
15.The IRMS for a half-wave rectifier is
a) Im/3
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/3
d) Im/3
16.The Iav for a full-wave rectifier is
a) Im/ 3
b) Im/2
c) 2Im/ 3
d) Im/ 3
17. The efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is
a) 40.6%
b) 81.2%
c) 0.483%
d) 1.21%
18.The efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is
a) 40.6%
b) 81.2%
c) 0.483%
d) 1.21%
19.The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier is
a) 40.6
b) 81.2
c) 0.483
d) 1.2
20.The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is
a) 40.6
b) 81.2
c) 0.483
d) 1.21
ANSWERS
98
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1
A
2
A
3
B
MECH/IV SEM
4
C
5
A
6
B
7
B
8
A
9
D
10
A
11
A
12
B
SY&QB
13
B
14
A
15
B
16
C
17
A
18
B
19
C
20
D
PARTB
(2 MARKS)
21. What are valence electrons?
Electron in the outer most shell of an atom is called valence electron.
22. What is forbidden energy gap?
The space between the valence and conduction band is said to be forbidden Energy gap.
23. What are conductors? Give examples?
Conductors are materials in which the valence and conduction band overlap each other so there is
a swift movement of electrons which leads to conduction.
Ex. Copper, silver.
24. What are insulators? Give examples?
Insulators are materials in which the valence and conduction band are far away from each
other. So no movement of free electrons and thus no conduction.
Ex glass, plastic.
25. What are Semiconductors? Give examples?
The materials whose electrical property lies between those of conductors and insulators are
known as Semiconductors.
Ex germanium, silicon.
26. What are the types of Semiconductor?
i. Intrinsic semiconductor 2. Extrinsic semiconductor.
27. What is Intrinsic Semiconductor?
Pure form of semiconductors are said to be intrinsic semiconductor.
Ex germanium, silicon.
28. What is Extrinsic Semiconductor?
If certain amount of impurity atom is added to intrinsic semiconductor the resulting
semiconductor is Extrinsic or impure Semiconductor.
29. What are the types of Extrinsic Semiconductor?
P-type Semiconductor 2. N- Type Semiconductor.
30. What are the charge carriers found in P type material?
Majority carriers = Holes
Minority carriers = Electrons
31. What are called P and N type semiconductor? (may/june 2013
P- Type semiconductor:
When a small amount of trivalent impurity (e.g. gallium, Indium) is added to a pure
semiconductor crystal the resulting extrinsic semiconductor is known as P-type semiconductor.
N-Type semiconductor:
When a small amount of pentavalent impurity (e.g. Antimony, Arsenic) is added to a pure
semiconductor crystal the resulting extrinsic semiconductor is known as N-type semiconductor.
32. What is meant by doping in a semiconductor?
The process of adding impurity to pure semiconductor to increase the electrical
Characteristics of semiconductor are known as doping.
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33. Define Zener diode.

When reverse voltage is reaches breakdown voltage on normal PN junction diode, the current
through the junction and the power dissipated at the junction with adequate power dissipation
capabilities to operate in the break down region . One such a diode is known as zener diode.
Zener diode is heavily doped than the ordinary diode.
34. Draw the V-I characteristics of zener diode ?
35. Define zener breakdown voltage.

The reverse voltage applied across the zener diode, which cause the breakdown is
known as zener breakdown voltage.
36. List the uses of zener diode.
It can be used as voltage regulator.
ii)It can be used as limiter in wave shaping circuits.
iii)It can be used in protection circuit against damage from accidental over voltage.
iv)It can be used as a fixed reference voltage in a network for calibrating voltmeters.
37. Give the diode current equation.
I = I0[ ev/Vt - 1]
Where
I = Forward (or reverse ) diode current.
I 0 = Reverse saturation current at temperature T.
V = Doide voltage.
V T = Threshold voltage
T = Temperature of diode junction.
38. What is depletion region in PN junction?
The diffusion of holes and electrons will result in difference in concentration across the
junction which in turn results in the movement of the mobile charge carriers to the junction thus
resulting in a region called depletion region.
39. What is meant by rectifier?
A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC), which periodically
reverses direction, to direct current (DC), which flows in only one direction. The process is
known as rectification.
PART C
(16 MARKS)
40. Explain in details about the intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors.(May/June
2013)
41. Explain in detail about the PN junction characteristics.
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42. Explain in detail about the characteristics of the zener diode.

43. Explain in detail about the voltage regulator.
44. Explain in detail about the Full wave rectifier and Half wave rectifier.
45. Explain in detail about the Half wave rectifier.
46. Explain in detail about the characteristics of the PN junction & zener diode. .(May/June 2013)
UNIT II TRANSISTORS AND AMPLIFIERS

PART A
(1 MARK)
47. During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the emitter diode is
a) Unbiased
b) forward biased
c) reverse biased
48. During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the collector diode is ______________
a) unbiased
b) forward biased
c) reverse biased d) none of the above
49. The reverse current which results in a transistor due to minority charge carriers across the
collector-to-base junction is called as
a) base current b) emitter current c) collector current
d) collector-to-base leakage current
50. Varying the input current by varying the input voltage at constant output voltage is
a)
static
input
characteristics
b)
static
output
characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics d) none of the above
51. Varying the output current by varying the output voltage at constant input current is
a) static input characteristics
b) static output characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics
52. The ratio of change in collector current to the change in emitter current atconstant collector to base voltage
is ___________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
53. The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current at constant collector to
emitter voltage is
a)
b)
c)
d)
54. The ratio of change in emitter current to the change in base is
a)
b)
c)
d)
55. Varying the input current by varying the input voltage at constant output voltage is
a) static input characteristics b) static output characteristics c) transistor i/o characteristic
56. The ratio of change in collector current to the change in emitter current atconstant collector to base voltage
a)
b)
c)
d)
57. The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current at constant collector to
emitter voltage is
a)
b)
c)
d)
57. The ratio of change in emitter current to the change in base is ___________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
58. A ______________ circuit has a very high input resistance and very low output resistance.
a) common base b) common emitter c) common collector d) none of the above
59. In the saturation region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are _________________ biased.
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a) forward b) reverse c) unbiased

d) none of these
60. In the cut-off region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are _________________ biased
a) forward b) reverse c) unbiased d) none of these
ANSWERS
46
47
48
B
C
D
49
A
50
B
51
A
52
B
53
C
54
A
55
A
56
B
57
C
58
C
59
A
60
B
PART B
(2 MARKS)
61. What is an amplifier?
An amplifier is a device which produces a large electrical output of similar characteristics to that
of the input parameters.
62. How are amplifiers classified according to the transistor configuration?
1. Common emitter amplifier 2.Common base amplifier 3. Common collector amplifier.
63. What are the types of feed back?
1.Positive feedback 2. Negative feedback.
64. What is positive feedback?
If the feedback signal is applied in such a way that it is in phase with the input signal and thus
increases it is said to be positive feedback.
65. What is negative feedback?
If the feedback signal is applied in such a way that it is out of phase with the input signal and
thus decreases it is said to be positive feedback.
66. List out the different types of biasing.
Voltage divider bias
Base bias
Emitter feedback bias and
Collector feedback bias
67. What is SCR ?
A Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR) is a three terminal, three junction semiconductor device .It
is unidirectional device. It converts alternating current into direct current and control the amount
of power fed to the load.
68. What are the methods used to turn on SCR ?
i. Voltage trigerring
ii. dV / dt trigerring
iii. Gate trigerring
69. Why germanium instead of silicon is used for construction of SCR?
For the construction of SCR germanium is preferred than silicon because, more silicon per
ampere current is required. Hence the current rating is increased, it require more silicon.
70. Write an two different characteristics of SCR ?
Forward characteristics
Reverse characteristics
71. Mention the application of SCR.
It can be used as a speed control element in DC and Ac motors.
(ii)It can be used as an inverter.
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(iii) It can be used as an Converter.

72. Define breakdown voltage of SCR.
It can be defined as the minimum forward voltage at which the SCR starts conducting heavily.
73. Define holding current of an SCR .
It can be defined as the minimum value of anode current required to keep the SCR in ON
position.
74. What is DIAC?
Diac is a two terminal, bi-directional semiconductor switching depending upon the polarity of
the voltage applied across its main terminals .In operation, diac is equivalent to two 4 layer
diodes connected in anti parallel.
75. List out the applications of DIAC.
It is used as a trigger device in TRIAC power control systems.
It is used in lamp dimmer circuits
It is used in heater control circuits
It is used for speed control of universal motor.
76. State the classifications of FET devices.
FET is classified as
Junction Field Effect Transistor (JFET)
Metal oxide semiconductor family (MOS).
PART C
(16 MARKS)
77. Explain in detail about the CB, CC and CE amplifier Characteristics.
78. Explain in detail about the characteristics of FET amplifier.
79. Explain the feedback of the amplifier circuits.
80. Explain in the SCR, DIAC and TRIAC working method and its characteristics.
81. Explain the application in temperature and Speed control of the motor.
82. Explain various characteristics of BJT in common collector confiqueration
83. Explain the working of SCR with the help of its two transistor equivalent circuits,Draw its
forward and reversre chatracterics
UNIT III DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
PART A
81. The Generic Logic Arry (GLA) device is
a). one time programmable
b). reprogrammable
c). a CMOS device
d). reprogrammable and a CMOS device
1 MARK
82. A J-K flip-flop is in a "no change" condition when ________.

a). J = 1, K = 1
b).J = 1, K = 0
c). J = 0, K = 1
d).J = 0, K = 0
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83. On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when
________.
a). the clock pulse is LOW
b).the clock pulse is HIGH
c). the clock pulse transitions from LOW to HIGH
d).the clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW
84. The OR operation implies
a) boolean addition
b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction
d) boolean division
85. The AND operation implies
a) boolean addition
b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction
d) boolean division
86. The output of a NAND gate is ___________, when all the inputs are high.
a) low
b) high
c) low or high
d) none of these
87. The output of a NOR gate is ___________, when all the inputs are low.
a) low
b) high
c) low or high
d) none of these
88. A bubbled AND gate and a _____________ are equivalent.
a) XOR gate
b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate
d) NAND gate
89. A bubbled OR gate and a _____________ are equivalent
a) XOR gate
b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate
d) NAND gate.
90. A decoder converts ________.
a). Non-coded information into coded form
b).coded information into non-coded form
c). HIGHs to LOWs
d).LOWs to HIGHs
91. The output of a NOT gate is HIGH when ________.
a). the input is LOW
b).the input is HIGH
c). the input changes from LOW to HIGH
d).voltage is removed from the gate
92. A DAC changes ________.
a. an analog signal into digital data
b. digital data into an analog signal
c. digital data into an amplified signal
93. What is a digital-to-analog converter?
a. It takes the digital information from an audio CD and converts it to a usable form.
b. It allows the use of cheaper analog techniques, which are always simpler.
c. It stores digital data on a hard drive.
d. It converts direct current to alternating current.
94.What are the symbols used to represent digits in the binary number system?
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a. 0,1
b. 0,1,2
c. 0 through 8
d. 1,2
95. The output of an AND gate is LOW ________.
a. all the timec
b. when any input is LOW
c. when any input is HIGH
d. when all inputs are HIGH
96. Which of the following is not an analog device?

a. Thermocouple
b. Current flow in a circuit
c. Light switch
d. Audio microphone
97. Give the decimal value of binary 10010.
a. 610
b. 910
c. 1810
d. 2010
98.Any number with an exponent of zero is equal to:

a. Zero
b. One
c. that number
d. Ten
99. A decoder converts ________.
a. non-coded information into coded form
b. coded information into non-coded form
c. HIGHs to LOWs
d. LOWs to HIGHs
100. A DAC changes ________.
a. an analog signal into digital data
b. digital data into an analog signal
c. digital data into an amplified signal
101.In the decimal numbering system, what is the MSD?
a. The middle digit of a stream of numbers
b. The digit to the right of the decimal point
c. The last digit on the right
d. The digit with the most weight
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102.A demultiplexer has ________.

a. one data input and a number of selection inputs, and they have several outputs
b. one input and one output
c. several inputs and several outputs
d. several inputs and one output
103. A flip-flop has ________.
a. one stable state
b.no stable states
c. two stable states
d.none of the above
104. Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric code for computer input and
output?
a.Gray
b.ASCII
c.Parity
d.EBCDIC
105. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 1-of-32 decoder?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
ANSWERS
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B
D
C
A
B
A B C D B A B A A B C C B B
100 101 102 103 104 105
B
D
A
C
B
C
PART-B
(2 MARKS)
106. Define binary logic?
Binary logic consists of binary variables and logical operations. The variables are designated by
the alphabets such as A, B, C, x, y, z, etc., with each variable having only two distinct values: 1 and 0.
There are three basic logic operations: AND, OR, and NOT.
107. What are the basic digital logic gates?
The three basic logic gates are AND gate, OR gate and NOT gate
108. What is a Logic gate?
Logic gates are the basic elements that make up a digital system. The electronic gate is a circuit
that is able to operate on a number of binary inputs in order to perform a particular logical function.
109. Which gates are called as the universal gates? What are its advantages?
The NAND and NOR gates are called as the universal gates. These gates are used to perform
any type of logic application.
110.Give the classification of logic families
Bipolar Unipolar
Saturated Non Saturated PMOS
NMOS
CMOS
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RTL Schottky TTL

ECL DTL
IIL
TTL
111. What are the types of TTL logic?
1. Open collector output
2. Totem-Pole Output
3. Tri-state output
112. What is High Threshold Logic?
Some digital circuits operate in environments, which produce very high noise signals. For
operation in such surroundings there is available a type of DTL gate which possesses a high threshold
to noise immunity. This type of gate is called HTL logic or High Threshold Logic.
113. Define- Flip flop.
The basic unit for storage is flip flop. A flip-flop maintains its output state either at 1 or 0 until
directed by an input signal to change its state.
114. What are the different types of flip-flop?
There are various types of flip flops. Some of them are mentioned below they are,
RS flip-flop
SR flip-flop
D flip-flop
JK flip-flop
T flip-flop
115. What is the operation of D flip-flop?
In D flip-flop during the occurrence of clock pulse if D=1, the output Q is set and if D=0, the
output is reset.
116. What is the operation of JK flip-flop?
When K input is low and J input is high the Q output of flip-flop is set.
When
K input is high and J input is low the Q output of flip-flop is reset. When both the inputs K and J are
low the output does not change. When both the inputs K and J are high it is possible to set or reset the
flip-flop (ie) the output toggle on the next positive clock edge.
117. What is the operation of T flip-flop?
T flip-flop is also known as Toggle flip-flop.
When T=0 there is no change in the output.
When T=1 the output switch to the complement state (ie) the output toggles.
118. Define race around condition.
In JK flip-flop output is fed back to the input. Therefore change in the output results change in
the input. Due to this in the positive half of the clock pulse if both J and K are high then output toggles
continuously. This condition is called race around condition.
119. What is edge-triggered flip-flop?
The problem of race around condition can solved by edge triggering flip flop. The term edge
triggering means that the flip-flop changes state either at the positive edge or negative edge of the clock
pulse and it is sensitive to its inputs only at this transition of the clock.
120. What is a master-slave flip-flop?
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A master-slave flip-flop consists of two flip-flops where one circuit serves as a master and the
other as a slave.
121.Define Half adder and full adder
The logic circuit that performs the addition of two bits is a half adder. The circuit that performs
the addition of three bits is a full adder
122. Define multiplexer?
Multiplexer is a digital switch. If allows digital information from several sources to be routed
onto a single output line.
123. Define Decoder?
A decoder is a multiple - input multiple output logic circuit that converts coded inputs into
coded outputs where the input and output codes are different.
124. What is binary decoder?
A decoder is a combinational circuit that converts binary information from n input lines to a
maximum of 2n out puts lines.
125. Define Encoder?
An encoder has 2n input lines and n output lines. In encoder the output lines generate the binary
code corresponding to the input value.
126. What is priority Encoder?
A priority encoder is an encoder circuit that includes the priority function. In priority encoder, if
2 or more inputs are equal to 1 at the same time, the input having the highest priority will take
precedence.
PART C
(16 MARKS)
127. Explain with neat diagrams TTL.
128. Discuss all the characteristics of digital ICs.
129. Explain with neat diagram how an open collector TTL operates.
130. Explain the different applications of open collector TTL
131. Explain in detail about serial in serial out shift register.
132. Explain in detail about the Full Adder and Half Adder circuit.
133. (a)Explain the working of A/D and D/A Convertor.(May/June 2013)
(b) Design and implement the halforder and full order using logic gates(May/June 2013)
UNIT IV 8085 MICROPROCESSOR
PART-A
134. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST6.5 d) RST 7.5
135. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?
a) Stack pointer
b) Program counter
c) a & b
d)none of these
136. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?
a) RST5.5, RST6.5, RST7.5
b) INTR, TRAP
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c) a & b
d) none of these
137. What is the RST for the TRAP?
a) RST5.5
b) RST4.5
c) RST4
d) none of these
138. What are level Triggering interrupts?
a)INTR&TRAP
b)RST6.5&RST5.5
c)RST7.5&RST6.5
d) none of these
139. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
a) RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
b) RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
c) a & b.
d) none of these
140. What are software interrupts?
a) RST 0 - 7
b) RST 5.5 - 7.5
c) INTR, TRAP
d) none of these
141. Which stack is used in 8085?
a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) FILO
d) none of these
142. Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?
a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU.
b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus.
c) a & b.
d) none of the a and b.
143. What is SIM?
a) Select Interrupt Mask
b) Sorting Interrupt Mask
c) Set Interrupt Mask
d) none of these
144. RIM is used to check whether, ______
a) The write operation is done or not
b) The interrupt is Masked or not
c) a & b
d) none of the a and b
145. What is meant by Maskable interrupts?
a) An interrupt which can never be turned off.
b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer.
c) none
146. the register in the microprocessor that keeps the track of the result or answer of any
arithmetic or logic operation is the
a) stack pointer
b) program counter
c) instruction register
d) accumulator
147. Itanium processor of Intel is a
(a) 32 bit microprocessor.
(b) 64 bit microprocessor.
(c) 128 bit microprocessor.
(d) 256 bit microprocessor.
148. EPROM is generally erased by using
(a) Ultraviolet rays
(b) infrared rays
(c) 12 V electrical pulse
(d) 24 V electrical pulse
149. Which bus is bidirectional bus?
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a) address bus
b) data bus
c) address bus and data bus
d) none of these
150. Which of the following bus is primarily used to carry signals that direct other ICs to
find out what type of operation is being performed?
a) data bus b) address bus c) control bus
d) address decoder bus
151. Which of the following are the three basic sections of a microprocessor unit?
a)operand, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)
b)control and timing, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)
c)control and timing, register, and memory
d)arithmetic/logic unit (ALU), memory, and input/output
152. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is,
a) Faster
b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O
c) Require a bigger address decoder
d) All the above
153. The circuits in the 8085A that provide the arithmetic and logic functions are called the:
a. CPU
b. ALU
c. I/O
134
C
144
B
135
C
145
B
136
C
146
D
137
B
147
B
138
B
148
A
139
B
149
B
140
A
150
C
141
B
151
B
142
A
152
D
143
C
153
B
PART- B
(2 MARKS)
154. What is meant by microprocessor?
A microprocessor is a multipurpose, programmable logic device that reads binary
instructions from a storage device called memory, accepts binary data as input and processes
data according to those instructions and provide result as output.
155. Give the signal classification of 8085?
All the signals of 8085 can be classified into 6 groups
1.Address bus
2.Data bus
3.Control and status signals
4.Power supply and frequency signals
5.Externally initiated signals
6.Serial I/O ports
156. What are operations performed on data in 8085?
1.store 8-bit data
2.perform arithmetic and logic operation
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3.test for conditions

4.sequence the execution
5.S tore data temporarily during execution
157. What are theSteps involved to fetch a byte in 8085?
(i)The PC places the 16-bit memory address on the address bus.
(ii)The control unit sends the control signal RD to enable the memory chip.
(iii)The byte from the memory location is placed on the data bus.
(iv)The byte is placed in the instruction decoder of the microprocessor and the
task is carried out according to the instruction.
158. How many interrupts does 8085 have, mention them?
The 8085 has 5 interrupt signals,
they are INTR, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5 and TRAP
159. Basic concepts in memory interfacing
The primary function of memory interfacing is that the microprocessor should be able to
read from and right into a given register of the memory chip. To perform these operations the
microprocessor should be
Be able to select the chip
Identify the register
Enable the appropriate buffer
160. What is the use of ALE?
The ALE is used to latch the lower order address so that it can be available in T2 and
T3 and used for identifying the memory address. During T1 the ALE goes high, the latch is transparent
ie, the output changes according to the input data, so the output of the latch is the lower order address.
When the ALE goes low the lower order address is latched until the next ALE.
161. What is an instruction?
An instruction is a binary pattern entered through an input device to command the
microprocessor to perform the specific function.
162Explain the different instruction formats with examples?
The instruction set is grouped into the following formats
One byte instruction MOV C,A
Two byte instruction MVI A,39H
Three byte instruction JMP 2345H
163. Define addressing modes , mention the different types.
The various formats of specifying the operands are called addressing modes, it is used
To access the operands or data. The different types are as follows
1. Immediate Addressing
2. Direct Addressing
3. Indirect Addressing
4. Register Addressing
5. Implied Addressing
164. Mention the types of Instruction set of 8085.
1. Data Transfer Instruction
2. Arithmetic Instruction
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3. Logic Instruction
4. Branch Instruction
5. Machine Control Instruction
165. What is PSW?
The PSW or Flags are used to reflects the data conditions in the accumulator. The 8085- flags
are S- Sign Flag
A- Auxiliary Flag
Z- Zero flag
CF- Carry Flag
P- Parity Flag
166. Define the signals HOLD, READY and SID?
HOLD indicates that a peripheral such as DMA controller is requesting the use of
address bus, data bus and control bus.
READY is used to delay the microprocessor read or write cycles until a slow responding
peripheral is ready to send or accept data.
SID is used to accept serial data bit by bit
167. Mention the categories of instruction and give two examples for each category?
The instructions of 8085 can be categorized into the following five
Data transfer MOV Rd,Rs STA 16-bit
Arithmetic ADD R DCR M
Logical XRI 8-bit RAR
Branch JNZ 16-bit
Machine control HLT NOP
168. Differentiate between absolute and linear select decoding?
Absolute decoding
All higher address lines are defined to select the memory or I/O device
Linear decoding
Few higher address lines are decoded to select the memory or I/O device
169. What is the use of bi-directional buffers?
It is used to increase the driving capacity of the data bus. The data bus of a
Microcomputer system is bi-directional, so it requires a buffer that allows the data to Flow in both
directions.
170. Give the resister organization of 8085?
B, C,D,E,H,L,Z, W
171. Define stack and explain stack related instructions?
The stack is a group of memory locations in the R/W memory that is used for the
temporary storage of binary information during the execution of the program.
The stack related instructions are PUSH,POP
172. Define instruction cycle, machine cycle and T-state?
Instruction cycle is defined as the time required completing the execution of an instruction
Machine cycle is defined as the time required completing one operation of accessing
memory, acknowledging an external request. T-cycle is defined as one subdivision of the operation
performed in one clock period.
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PART- C
(16 MARKS)
173. Draw and Explain the Architecture of 8085 microprocessor.
174. Explain in detail about the Addressing modes of 8085.
175. (a)Explain in detail about the instruction set of 8085.
(b)Architecture of 8085 microprocessor with neat functional diagream give the salient features of
8085 micro processor(May/June 2013)
(b).ii.Write an 8085 assembly language program to add and subtracttwo 16 bit numbers
(May/June 2013)
UNIT V INTERFACING AND APPLICATIONS OF MICROPROCEESOR
PART- A
(1 MARK)
176. How many buses are connected as part of the 8085A microprocessor?
a.2
b.3
c.5
d.8
177. Address line for TRAP is?
a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H d) 0034H.
178. The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:
a). assembly language
b). Firmware
c). machine language code
d). BASIC interpreter instructions
179. The circuits in the 8085A that provide the arithmetic and logic functions are called the:
a)
CPU
.
a). memory-mapped I/O
b).ported I/O
c). dedicated I/O
d).wired I/O
183.When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced?

a).1969
b).1974
c).1979
d).1985
ALU
180. The ________ ensures that only one IC is active at a time to avoid a bus conflict caused
by two ICs writing different data to the same bus.
a). control bus
b). control instructions
c). address decoder
d). CPU
113
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MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
181. How many bits are used in the data bus?

a).7
b).8
c).9
d).16
182. The technique of assigning a memory address to each I/O device in the computer system
is called:
184. What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an input port?
a). Decoder
b). Latch
c). Tri-state buffer
d). None of the above
185. The 8085A is a(n):
a). 16-bit parallel CPU
b).8-bit serial CPU
c). 8-bit parallel CPU
d).none of the above
186. What kind of computer program is used to convert mnemonic code to machine code?
a).Debug
b).assembler
c).C++
d).Fortran
187. Direction flag is used with
a) String instructions.
b) Stack instructions.
c) Arithmetic instructions.
d) Branch instructions.
188. Ready pin of a microprocessor is used
a) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive inputs.
b) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive outputs.
c) to introduce wait states.
d) to provide direct memory access.
189. Direction flag is used with
(a).String instructions.
b).Stack instructions.
c). Arithmetic instructions.
d).Branch instructions.
190. The Pentium microprocessor has execution units.
a).1
b).2
c).3
d).4
191. All computer programs for a machine are called:
a. Software
b. Firmware
c. Hardware
ANSWERS
176
177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191
B
C
A
B
C
B
A
B
B
C
B
A
C
A
C
A
PART-B
2 MARKS
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Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
192. What is mean by input and output port?

It is used to read the data from the input device such as keyboard.
The simplest form of input port is a buffer.
The input device is connected to the micro processor through buffer.
It is used to send data to the output device such as display from the microprocessor.
193. Give few applications of 8085 microprocessor.
(i) Used to measure and control temperature.
(ii) Used to control stepper motor.
(iii) Used to control traffic light system
(iv) Used to control speed of DC motor.
194. List the advantages of microprocessor based system design.
a) It simplifies system design.
b) It reduces size and cost
c) It is flexible in operation
195. What is a Buffer?
It is storage device. It can store a bit. It has one input and output.
196. What is a tristate buffer?
It is a buffer, which has one input line, one output line and an enable line.
When enable line is low it acts as a buffer, otherwise it acts as a high impedance state.
197. What is meant by memory address space?
Memory address space is the maximum possible memory size which can be
used in a microprocessor.
198. What is mean by BSR mode of 8255?
In individual bits of port C can be set or reset by sending out a single OUT instruction to
the control register. When port C is used for control / status operation, this feature can be used to set
or reset individual bits.
199. What are the precautions to be carried out, while interfacing high power devices with
Thus to interface high power devices such as lights, heaters, solenoids, and motors we have
to use driver circuit between port pin and the high power device. Integrated
circuit buffers.
Isolation circuits.
Electromagnetic relays
Solid state relays.
Transistor buffer.
200. What are the operating modes of port A of 8255?
Mode 0: simple I/O port
Mode 1 : handshake I/O port
Mode 2 : bi-directional I/O port
201. What is the use of CS pin of a memory chip?
A chip select is used to enable the memory chip.
202. What is memory mapping?
The assignment of memory addresses to various registers in a memory chip is
115
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
called memory mapping.

203. What is I/O mapping?
The assignment of addresses to various I/O devices in a memory chip is called I/O
mapping.
204. What is memory mapped I/O?
The microprocessor assigns 19 bit address to I/O device. The memory map is Shared
between memory and I/O.
205. What is I/O mapped I/O?
The I/O devices have separate addresses. The microprocessor assigns 8 bit Address to I/O
devices.
206. Mention the advantages of memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O.
Arithmetic or logical operations can be directly performed directly with I/O data.Whole
address space is available for memory device and less hardware is required.
207. Explain the function of IO/M in 8085.
The IO/M is used to differentiate memory access and I/O access. For IN and OUT
instruction it is high .For memory reference instructions it is low.
208. What is the use of ALE signal?
It abbreviated as address latch enable which is used to demultiplex address and data bus.
When this signal is enable it act as a data bus.
209. What is the purpose IO/M signal?
It is used to differentiate memory and IO operations. When 1 means IO Operation, 0 means
memory operation.
210. What is an interrupt?
Interrupt is an signal send by an external device to the processor so as to request the
processor to perform a particular task or word.
211. What is the different type of ADC?
Successive approximation
Counter type ADC.
Flash type ADC
Integrated converters
Voltage to frequency converter
212. Name the two classifications of stepper motor.
(i) Permanent magnet type
(ii) Variable reluctant type.
213. List the applications of stepper motor.
Used in printers,
Robot alarms,
X-Y plotter.
PART-C
(16 MARKS)
214. Explain in detail about the interfacing of I/O devices.
215. Explain in detail about the interfacing of temperature control of microprocessor.
216. Explain in detail about the stepper motor control of an interfacing.
116
Dr.NNCE
MECH/IV SEM
SY&QB
217. Explain in detail about the traffic light control of the interfacing
218. Explain in detail about the input and output interfacing techniques of 8085 micro
processor(May/June 2013)
219 Draw and explain in detail about stepper motor inter face(May/June 2013)
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Heat and Mass Transfer

Electronics and Microprocessors

UNIT II BEAMS - LOADS AND STRESSES 12

Classification of solids based on energy band theory-Intrinsic semiconductors-Extrinsic

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19. Write down the condition for convergence of N-R method?

(iii)gives exact solution

that differences of some order constant.

+ , -, . &[(y0 + yn)+4(y1+ y3+ y5+.)+2(y2+ y4+ y6+)]

62.Find the sixth term of the sequence 8,12,19,29,42. .(AU-May 2008)

66.Taking h=(3/10 ,evaluate *2 sin , -, by simpsons (1/3) rule. .(AU-Dec 2009)

82.Using eulers method ,solve y=-y,given that y(0)=1.(AU-Dec 2009)

Cross multiplying, we get yi-1= 1yi+yi+1=C

90.Use eulers method ,with h=0.1 to find the solution of y=x2+y2,y(0)=0in

92.Use milens method ,solve if

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100.A part selected from the population is

111.In chi-square test statistic is_____________

115.The normal distribution is called standard normal variance if X=________and

121.Mention of various steps involved in testing of hypothesis.

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134.Examine Whether the Difference in the Variability in yields is significant at 5% level of

S.D per plot

UNIT-V DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS

139.The term ANOVA (analysis of variance) was introduced by _________

148.What are the basic steps In ANOVA? .(AU-Dec 2010)

151.Why a 22 latin square is not possible?Explain. .(AU-May 2008)

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34. Explain the significance of thermal diffusivity.

CONVECTIVE HEAT TRANSFER

55. Depending on the radiating properties, the bodies are classified as

(a) equal to 1.0

Gr = Intertia force x Buoyancy force / [Viscous force]2

UNIT III PHASE CHANGE HEAT TRANSFER AND HEAT

(a) Rankin cycle

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a. heavy and long work pieces

30. Define cutting power and specific metal removal rate.

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d. none of the above

49. Centre less grinding used to produce taper is

a. diamond b. stainless steel

154. Slow spindle is required on

168. What is grinding?[AU MAY-13]

a. allotropy b. Points c. Alloys d. all the above

69. What is meant by carburizing?

84. Difference between pack carburishing and gas carburishing?

FERROUS AND NON FERROUS METALS

102. PVC stands for

126. Write an engineering brief about the following steels?(AUAPRIL 2010)

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a]PTFE [b] PMMA[c] PET [d] PEEK[AU, MAY-12]

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES AND TESTING

a. Talc b. flu rite c. quartz d. topaz e .topaz

12. The value of passion ratio for steel is between

26. Define Modulus of Elasticity. (AU DEC-2008) (AU DEC-2012)

47. A structure, made up of several bars, joined together is known as