SAT(K-10)

Question Booklet Sl. No.

NTSE
DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING
NO. 4, 100 FT. RING ROAD, BANASHANKARI, 3RD STAGE, BANGALORE 560 085

gd lz J.n.J.E. jP, A g, 2013

STATE LEVEL NTSE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2013

wP II B /PAPER II B

vgUw 10/CLASS 10

AVP w jP / SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

REGISTER NO :

Ai : 90 U

EAV/Pq

Uj CAPU : 90

TIME : 90 MINUTES

ENGLISH / KANNADA

MAX. MARKS : 90

Instructions to Candidates
1. The Question Booklet containing 90 questions and the OMR answer sheet is given to you.
2. All questions are compulsory, each question carry one mark.
3. During the examination,
Read the questions carefully.
Completely darken/shade the relevant oval against Question No. in the OMR answer sheet,
using blue/black ball point pen. Do not try to alter the entry and not do any stray marks on
OMR Sheet.
Ex: In an question paper if Sl. No. 3 is correct answer for Question No. 20, then darken OMR
answer sheet using blue/black ball point pen as follows.
20. 1

(This is an example only)

4. If more than one oval is darkened for a given question, such answer is treated as wrong and no
marks will be given.
5. The candidate and Room Supervisor should sign in the OMR sheet.
6. Candidate should return the OMR answer sheet only to the room supervisor before leaving the
examination hall.
7. The calculator, mobiles and any other electronic equipments are not allowed inside the
examination hall.
8. English version of the question paper will be considered as final, in case of any dispute arising
out of variation in translation version.
9. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by DSERT will be final.

W : aW Pv B D P W qr.

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SAT(K-10)

AVP
w jP
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Aia/CONTENTS
SL.NO.

SUBJECT

QUESTION NO.

P.A.

Ai

FROM

PAGE

TO

AS
EAz

l>

.......

12

3-5

.......

13

23

6-8

.......

24

35

9-13

.......

36

45

14-16

.......

46

54

17-19

06. ECONOMICS & CIVICS

Cx v g

.......

55

70

20-25

07. MATHEMATICS

.......

71

90

26-30

01. PHYSICS

sv
02. CHEMISTRY

gAi
03. BIOLOGY

f
04. HISTORY

Ew
05. GEOGRAPHY

s
U v

Utv

2

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SAT(K-10)

sv

PHYSICS

1. F P V U Ai i Qg t U

1. Which of the following rays will

cause more damage to human body ?

i
zP Z AiAl
iqv ?

1) X rays

1) X QgtU

2) rays

2) QgtU

3) rays

3) QgtU

4) rays

4) QgtU
2. z z G g v Ev U

2. The waxing and waning of sea is

GAmU Pgt :

due to :
1) Gravitational force

1) UgvP

u

2) Rotation of the earth

2) s
Ai zA Z

3) Rotation of the moon

3) ZAz
zA Z

4) Planetary motion

4) UU Z
3. r = 36,000 Q., Ve = 11.2 Q../U v

3. r = 36,000 km, Ve = 11.2 km/sec and

T = 24 UAm EU AAgz :

T = 24 hrs. These are related to :

1) Rocket

1) gPm

2) Geo Stationary Satellite

2) s
g GU
P

3) Artificial Satellites

3) PvP GUP

4) Moon Mission [Chandra Yaan]

4) ZAzA
iiP
4. PVU Aii Cw Z

4. Which one of the following material

Q s

ZAP
Az ?
1) U
2) g
3) d
4) ert

has more refractive index ?

1) Air
2) Water
3) Diamond
4) Clay
3

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SAT(K-10)
5. Red Shift is related to :
1) Thamson effect
2) Doppler effect
3) Compton effect
4) Tyndall effect

5. PA l
AAgz
1) x juP
2) qg juP
3) PA juP
4) nAq juP
6. PU Png zzAv UtP
Ai X v Y jAi

6. In the given electrical circuit the

current at X and Y is :

1) 5A and 8A
3) 5A and 2A

zv :

2) 3A and 5A
4) 1A and 2A

1) 5A v 8A
3) 5A v 2A

2) 3A v 5A
4) 1A v 2A

7. v PU [P.C.] j zz:

7. 10 par sec [P.C] is equivalent to :

1) 36.2 light year

1) 36.2 ew
U

2) 62.3 light year

2) 62.3 ew
U

3) 23.6 light year

3) 23.6 ew
U
4) 32.6 ew
U

4) 32.6 light year

8. Match the following :
Temperature

8. A gj :

Colour of the Star

A. 2,000 3,500 K

i. Orange yellow

B. 3,500 5,000 K

ii. Red

C. 5,000 6,000 K

iii. Bluish white

C = iii

D = ii

2) A = ii

C = iv

D = iii

C=i

D = iii

B=i

3) A = iv B = ii
4) A = i

B = iii C = iv

B. 3,500 5,000 K

ii. PA

C. 5,000 6,000 K

iii. bAi

Ai

D. 10,000 60,000 K iv. Yellow

1) A = iv B = i

A. 2,000 3,500 K

P vU


i. Qv

D. 10,000 60,000 K iv. Qv

1) A = iv B = i

C = iii

D = ii

2) A = ii

C = iv

D = iii

C=i

D = iii

B=i

3) A = iv B = ii

D = ii
4

4) A = i

B = iii C = iv

D = ii

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SAT(K-10)
9. In photoelectric effect the energy
of the photoelectron is :
1) Greater than the energy of the
incident photon
2) Less than the energy of the
incident photon
3) Equal to the energy of the incident
photon
4) Not depending on the energy of
incident photon

9. zw z v j u z z w

EP QA i :
1) v
s m QV
Av ZVgvz

2) v
s m QV
Av Prgvz

3) v
s m QU Vgvz
4) v
s m QAi

CAg

10. The power of the concave lens is

10. z
tz x 0.05 .-1.

0.05 cm1. At what distance should

D z
tAz 10 . zgz

w A q A i Pz g
z
tAz J zgz
n
g
P ?
1) - 20 .

the object from the lens be placed

so that it forms an image at
10 cm from the lens ?
1
cm
20

1) 20 cm

2)

3) 10 cm

4) 30 cm

2) -

1
.
20
10 .

3) 4) -30 .

11. The acceleration due to gravity of

the earth is 9.82 m/s 2 and the
radius of the earth is 6400 103m.
What is the mass of the earth ?
G = 6.67 1011 Nm2/Kg2 :
1) 6.021 10 24 Kg
2) 16.24 1020 Kg
3) 100.02 1024 Kg
4) 47.02 1024 Kg

11. s
Ai Ugv Uv

2
9.82 ./ . v s
Ai wd
3
6400 10 . Uzg s
Ai

12. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel,

because :
1) Burns without smoke

12. eP C MAz Gv EAzs

,

gAi ?

2) Leaves no residue on burning

3) Heating capacity is high
4) All the above

G = 6.67 1011 . ./P.f.

1) 6.021 1024 P.f.
2) 16.24 1020 P.f.
3) 100.02 1024 P.f.
4) 47.02 1024 P.f.

KPAzg :
1) Uz GjAivz
2) V GjAivz
3) CP R Gvz
x
4) J

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gAi

CHEMISTRY

13. Qgt l EAU - 14 (14C)

CzsAi 5760
U . 200
.U A . w Z A i (sample)
WlU
Aq 25 .UA.U

13. The half-life of radio active 14C is 5760

years.

In

how

many

years

200 mg sample will reduce to 25 mg ?

vUz
P

1) 23,040
U
2) 17,280
U
3) 11,520
U
4) 5,760
U

1) 23,040 years
2) 17,280 years
3) 11,520 years
4) 5,760 years

14. F PP A
q PU

Aiiz j ?

14. Which of the following statement

1) J LmU Qgt

is correct ?

lvVgv

1) All isotopes are radio active

2) D QgtU Itzz

2) Alpha rays are negatively charged

Agv

3) Beta rays are not reflected by an

3) m QgtU zv P v
Az

electric field

svU

4) Gamma rays are not reflected by

4) Ui QgtU PAvPv
Az

svU

magnetic field

15. P i z W l P

15. The composition of nicrom alloy is :

1) Cu, Ni, Cr

2) Fe, Ni, Cr

3) Al, Ni, Cr

4) Mn, Ni, Cr

U
:

16. Which of the following series

represent only unsaturated hydro
carbons :?

1) Cu, Ni, Cr

2) Fe, Ni, Cr

3) Al, Ni, Cr

4) Mn, Ni, Cr

q Aii tAi CAii

16. F PP A
q PU
w
vz
?

1) C2H6 , C3H8, C4 H10

1) C2H6, C3H8, C4H10

2) C2H6 , C3H6, C4 H10

2) C2H6, C3H6, C4H10

3) C2H4 , C3H6, C4H6

3) C2H4, C3H6, C4H6

4) C2H4 , C3H8, C4H6

4) C2H4, C3H8, C4H6

6

i v

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
17. In the following equation x stands

17. F PV
gAiP Pgt
z x

for 2Al + x H2SO4 Al2 (SO4)3 + 3H2 :

2Al+xH2SO4 Al2 (SO4)3 +3H2 :

1) 2

2) 3

3) 1

4) 5

1) 2

2) 3

3) 1

4) 5

18. P tz Gz g u A i P U

18. The substance which are put into

the blast furnace in the manufacture

PU U

:

of iron

1) Ptz Cg, CaO, Ca(OH)2 v

1) Iron ore, CaO, Ca(OH)2 and CaSiO3

CaSiO3

2) Iron ore, Coke, Lime Stone and

2) Ptz Cg, PP, tz P

CaSiO3

v CaSiO3

3) Iron ore, Coke, Lime Stone and

3) Ptz Cg, PP, tz P

Hot air

v U

4) Iron ore, CaO, Lime Stone and Hot

4) Ptz Cg, CaO, tz P

air

v U

19. Match the following :

19. A gj :
A. aAU qg i. CaSO4.2 H2O

A. Bleaching Powder i. CaSO4.2 H2O

B. Washing Powder

ii. NaHCO3

C. Plaster of Paris

iii. Na2CO3

D. Gypsum

iv. CaOCl2

1)
2)
3)
4)

A = iv
A=i
A = iv
A = iv

B = iii
B = iii
B=v
B = iii

B. AU qg ii. NaHCO3
C. g
Ds

iii. Na2CO3

j
D. fi

iv. CaOCl2
1
v. CaSO4. H2O
2

1
v. CaSO4. H2O
2
C=v D=i
C = v D = iv
C = iii D = i
C = ii D = v

1) A = iv B = iii C = v

D=i

2) A = i

D = iv

B = iii C = v

3) A = iv B = v

C = iii

4) A = iv B = iii C = ii
7

D=i
D=v

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

20. z qPjP DzAU

20. The metals which liberate hydrogen

U PP q zt
zAU
w zU dd P q U q
iq U
:
1) Na v K
2) Zn v Al
3) Fe v Mn
4) Cu v Ag

gas with dilute hydrochloric acid as

well as caustic soda solution are :
1) Na and K
2) Zn and Al
3) Fe and Mn
4) Cu and Ag

21. MAz zgzAU

21. When a metal is alloyed with

mercury the resulting alloy
[Amalgum] will have :

j vAiijzU

(CiUi )
1) QAv Pr zv Pv

Agv
2) QAv Pr PgU
Az
Agv
3) 1 v 2 jAiiV
4) 1 v 2 jAiiVg

1) Less electrical conductivity than

pure metal
2) Lower melting point than pure
metal
3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
4) Both 1 and 2 are wrong

22. m Jz

22. Proton is
1) Nucleus of Deutarium

1) qmjAiA dPAz

2) Ionised hydrogen molecule

2) CAiiPjz ddPz
Ct
3) CAiiPjz ddPz
g
i t
4) D Pt

3) Ionised hydrogen atom

4) An alpha particle

23. PU

Ai ZU Pgt :

23. The Brownian motion in colloidal

solution is due to :
1) Temperature fluctuation
2) Attraction or repulsion between
charged colloidal particles
3) Bombardment of molecules of
dispersion medium on the colloidal
particle
4) None of the above

1) Gv
A
i v
2) zAP PPtU DP
u

Cx P
u
3) P P t U v g t
izsz Ct q rQ
qzU
4) Aiiz C
8

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

BIOLOGY
24. An enzyme secreted by an
endocrine gland which is present
in an exocrine gland :
1) Paratharmone
2) Thyroxin
3) Glucogon
4) Adrinalin

24. MAz Ai UA
yAig

UA yAz
q
1) gx
2) xgQ
3) UP
U
4) Cr

25. Which of the following activity is

controlled by Medulla oblongata ?
1) Maintain balance of the body
2) Peristaltic movement in alimentary
canal
3) Controlling body temperature
4) Facial expression

25. P V Ai i Q A i Ai t g

26. The tissue which is helpful for the

movement of ovum in the Fallopian
tube is
1) Columnar Epithelial Tissue
2) Ciliated Columnar Epithelial
Tissue
3) Cuboidal Epithelial Tissue
4) Squamous Epithelial Tissue

26. CAqz vwAi ZU Ai

27. Blur vision in Diabetic patients is

due to

27. zs gVU C z

AiAw vz
?
1) zz v Pqz
2) fuAU z

js
t Z
3) zz Gv
AiAw z
4) Rz -s vrz

iq CAUA
1) As CP CAUA
2) iAU v As CP
CAUA
3) WPw CP CAUA
4) P CP CAUA
GAmUzP Pgt
1) g z
gzPv
PrAiiUz
2) dg zs v g z P v
PrAiiUz
3) PZPg zsv gzPv
PrAiiUz
4) Uz

1) Decrease in the transparency of

lens
2) Decrease in the transparency of
aqueous humar
3) Decrease in the transparency of
vitreous humar
4) Enlargement of pupil
9

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SAT(K-10)

28. zwAu QAiAi vgAzsz

28. In photosynthesis, the function of

R PAi
1) vgt
z CO2 JAi M
UAv iqz
2) vgt
z O2 JAi M
UAv iqz
3) JAz CO2 vgtP
qz
4) JAz O2 v g t P
qz

stomata is to let
1) CO2 in to the leaf from atmosphere
2) O2 in to the leaf from atmosphere
3) Out CO 2 from the leaf to
atmosphere
4) Out O 2 from the leaf to
atmosphere

29. m d ZPz

m

29. The function of Nitrosomonos

QjAiiz PAi
1) C A i i
tU
m mUV Gvz
2) m mU m mU V
Gvz
3) m mU C Ai i
tUV Gvz
4) m mU m mU V
Gvz

bacteria in Nitrogen cycle is to

1) Oxidise ammonium salts into
nitrites
2) Oxidise nitrites into nitrates
3) Oxidise nitrites into ammonium
salts
4) Oxidise nitrates into nitrites

30. UV AiAU AAz PV

30. Which of the following statement

is correct that is related to phloem
of plants ?

Aii P j ?
1) z AiA, AiA
g MU
Argvz
2) Ai PAw z Ai A,
gAP C MU
Arg
3) P z AiA, AUw
fP
U

MU
Argvz
4) e z z A i A ,
gAP MU
Arg

1) Phloem in pinus contains phloem

fibres
2) Phloem in sunflower does not
contain parenchyma
3) Phloem in cycas contains
companion cells
4) Phloem in Maize does not contain
parenchyma
10

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

31. PA A g CAU PA
B g CAUAU A

31. Match each item in Column A with

suitable one in Column B :
Column A

gj :

Column B

A. CO2

PA A
i.

A. CO2

i. Regulation of body
temperature

B. Hypothalomus ii.

B. Hypothalomus ii. Green House effect

C. Corpus luteum iii. Balancing the body

C. Corpus luteum iii.

iv. Secretion of
Dopamin

iv.

v. Required to plants
v.

for respiration
vi. Secretion of
progesterone
1) A = v

B = iii C = vi

2) A = ii

B=i

C = iv

3) A = ii

B=i

4) A = v

B = ii

vi.

PA B
zz Gv
v
g
ju
zz
v
Pqz
q
P
U
GglP
CP
e

g
P

1) A = v

B = iii C = vi

2) A = ii

B=i

C = iv

C = vi

3) A = ii

B=i

C = vi

C = vi

4) A = v

B = ii

C = vi

i UU d rg M
32. DvA

32. A mother who gave birth to a child

in hospital complains that her child
is interchanged with other child. The
technique used to find her child is

v v U Evg UAU
Cz - z DVz JAz zgwz.
F vAi dz U
PAqrAi vAv :
1) fz
APgt
vAve
jPu

2) gZ vAve
3) g AAifv DNA vAve

4) v vAve

1) Germplasm Hybridisation
Technology
2) Finger print technology
3) Recombinant DNA technology
4) Genetic engineering
11

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
33. In water purification plants, water

33. j Pgt WlPU g

is made to come out in the form of

PgAf jw aAv iqUvz

.
Ezg CP

fountain. This helps in

A. Ai U


Q jAiiUAz

A. Bacterial decomposition of

Wnz

organic compounds

B. jg Pt fU

P z
C. j A i g u

B. Killing the microbes of water

C. Removal of odour of water

iqz

D. Removal of nitrates and

D. j g m mU v

phosphates of water

mU
gu iqz

1) A and B

2) A and C

1) A v B

2) A v C

3) B and D

4) B and C

3) B v D

4) B v C

34. Which of the following is not an

34. F PV
Aiiz z fP
U
U

intention of producing plants using

v Av z U
Gvw iq
Q
z JA vvz
Dzsgz P
u izs z z CAUAz

a portion of a plant tissue or cells

in a suitable nutrient medium based
on the principle plant cells have

aPs U Cx fP
U
Az U


Gvw iqzg Gz
?

the capacity to produce plants of

their own kind ?

1) DgUAv v Z Ej

1) To obtain disease resistant and

q U
qA
iz

high yielding variety of plants

2) CP U
fZ
P z
CA i

2) To reduce the period of life span

Pr iqz

of plants

3) Pr Aiz Pr CA
i

3) To develop large number of plants

a
U
U
z
4) Z s v v A i dU
Ag U
qA
iz

in a limited space and time

4) To obtain plants which produce
more fertile seeds
12

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
35. Which of the following diagram

35. w g z U q U

shows adaptation of eye to see

PtU AztPAi PV
Aii av vjvz
?

nearest object ?

Light ray from the object

Light ray from the object

1)
1)

2)

2)

3)

3)

4)

4)

13

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
HISTORY

Ew

36. Jammu and Kashmir acceded to

the Indian Union on :

MPlP d v Pg
36. sgvz
qAiizz :

1) 26th October 1947

1) 26 CPg 1947

th

2) 26 January 1948

2) 26 dj 1948
3) 26 dj 1947
4) 26 CPg 1948

th

3) 26 January 1947
th
4) 26 October 1948

37. After the Second World War, the

I.N.A. Soldiers were arrested and
tried by :
1) Japanese
2) English
3) League of Nations 4) U.N.O.

37. Jgq Aizz Avg L.J.J.

38. Match List I with List II by using

the code given below :

38. Z A i G A i V n 1
g g A i U n 2 g

List I

List II

A. Dyarchy was abolished

in the provinces
B. State reorganization
Commission
C. Macaulays minutes
D. Liberation of Goa
Code :
1) A 5
2) A 4
3) A 4
4) A 1

Pg
A ZguU
Mr
z
1) dAig
2) EAVg
3) gU
AW 4) A

B3
B1
B1
B2

1. 1953
A.
2. 1955
B.
3. 1961
4. 1935
5. 1835

C2
C3
C5
C4

C.
D.

Png EU ev
n 1
R Pg

AvU

gz U
z
gdU AUqu

DAiU
P sg
U Z

Z :

D1
D2
D3
D5

1)
2)
3)
4)

A5
A4
A4
A1

B3
B1
B1
B2

A :
n 2
1. 1953
2. 1955
3. 1961
4. 1935
5. 1835

C2
C3
C5
C4

D1
D2
D3
D5

39. Aiv MPlz vz Avg

39. After the dissolution of U.S.S.R, the

Commonwealth of Independent
States came into existence in :
1) 1990
2) 1991
3) 1994
4) 1995

v
A v gdU MPl (.q.L.J.)
CvP Azz :
1) 1990
3) 1994

14

2) 1991
4) 1995

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

40. AUz njU JA

40. Diwani was granted to the British

sPAzAi iq P
zgQz :

in Bengal in :
1) 1757

2) 1761

3) 1765

4) 1774

1) 1757
3) 1765

2) 1761
4) 1774

41. Consider the following statements

as true or false by choosing the
code given below :
1) Sir Thomas Roe, the British
ambassador secured trading
licence from Jehangir, The
Mughal ruler.
2) The British secured the marshy
island of Mumbai from the
Portuguese.
3) The Treaty of Mangalore was
between Haidar Ali and the British.
4) Queen Victorias is proclamation
has been described as Magna
Carta of the Indian people.
Code :
1) 1, 2 and 4 True
2) 2 and 3 False
3) 1, 2 and 3 False
4) 2 and 3 True

Png PU

ZA i
41. PU

42. Who among the Socio-Religious

reformers of Renaissance India was
influenced by the thinker Thomas
Paine ?

42. sgwAi e gf Cx

GAiV Aiiz v Cx j
JAz zsg ir :
1) Ug zgAiiz dAVgAz
g x g JA n
gAi s j g i q
CwAi qz

.
2) eU z A Ai
ng ZVjAz qz
g
.
3) AU
g MAz n U
zgD q Dv.
4) gt P jAi i W u
sgwAijU iU PmzAv
JAz Vz.
Z :
1) 1, 2 v 4 - j
2) 2 v 3 - v
3) 1, 2 v 3 - v
4) 2 v 3 - j
zAi Pz ifP U
zsP zsgPg

aAvP
z x
ZgU
Az
s vgVzg

Aiig ?
1) FgZ
A
z zUg
2) ew s
3) Arv gi
4) P ZAz

1) Iswara Chandra Vidya Sagar

2) Jyothiba Phule
3) Pandita Ramabai
4) Kesavchandrasen
15

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

43. Jg q Ai z z v Az g U

43. The Marshall Plan for the

reconstruction of Nations
destroyed during the Second World
War was proposed by :

M U z z U g v P V
i AidAi gzg
:
1) yAiqg g

1) Theodore Roosevelt
2) Franklin De Roosevelt

2) sA
P r g

3) Truman

3) l

4) Woodro Wilson

4) q
44. r
m Ai SV Ai

44. The private army of Benedito

Mussolini was called as :

g:

1) Red Shirts

1) PAAV z

2) Black Shirts

2) PAV z

3) Brown Shirts

3) PAzAV z (m)

4) None of the above

4) z Aiiz C
45. ZA
i GAiV n 1 g

45. Match List I with List II by using

Eg gU n 2 gg
z
U
ev A :

the code given below :

List I

List II

A. Bedas

1. Surpur

B. Bhaskar Rao

n 1

n 2

2. Mundaragi

A. qg

1. gg

C. Bheema Rao

3. Halagali

B. sgg

2. AqgV

D. Venkatappa Naik

4. Kittur

C. g

3. U

5. Nargund

D. APlAiP

4. Qvg
5. gU
Az

Code :
1) A 2

B1

C4

D5

2) A 4

B5

C2

3) A 3

B5

4) A 1

B2

Z :
1) A 2

B1

C4

D5

D3

2) A 4

B5

C2

D3

C2

D1

3) A 3

B5

C2

D1

C3

D4

4) A 1

B2

C3

D4

16

SAT(K-10)

sU

GEOGRAPHY

*SATK10*

46. Which one of the following is the

46. F PP A
q U
Aiiz UAU Ai

correct sequence of the tributaries

of Ganga from East to West ?
A. Ghaghra

B. Kosi

C. Gandak

D. Gomati

G
U
Az z PqU

g jAiiz P
Vz ?
A. WW
B. P
C. UAqP
D. Uw

1) B, C, D, A

2) B, C, A, D

1) B, C, D, A

2) B, C, A, D

3) C, B, D, A

4) D, B, C, A

3) C, B, D, A

4) D, B, C, A

47. Which part of India does not

receive rainfall during Rainy
Season ?
1) Thar Desert
2) Northern Plain
3) Tamil Nadu
4) Punjab

47. sgvz Aii sU Uz

48. Some statements are given below :

48. F PU
P PU

Pnz :

Ai qA i ?
1) xg gs
2) Gvgz
z
3) vq
4) Ae
A. CP , CP GA v

A. Heavy rainfall, high temperature

and high humidity are
responsible for growth of dense
forests
B. Babul, Kasavi and Kikar trees
are important in tropical thorn
forests
C. Teak, Sal and Sandal wood are
the important trees in tropical
evergreen vegetation
D. Silver fir, Oak, Spruce, Chestnut,
Pine are trees in coniferous
vegetation

CP Dz
vAi zl CgtU
tUU PgtVz
B. , P
v QPg gU

G

Aiz PgZ U

z
zsUV
C. vU, v UAzs E
vj
zt
CgtU
gU
V
D. gsg
, NP, , Zm
,
U at U
z
gUV

Which of the above statements are

true ?
1) A, B and D

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D

4) A, B and C

Aq PU

jAiiz UA zg
1) A, B v D
2) A, C v D
3) B, C v D
4) A, B v C
17

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

49. n A Ai dzZQ Gvz

49. Column A is the list of Hydro

Electric Power Projects and
Column B is the list of states
where located.
Column A

AidU
v n B Ai C
U
Arg gdU qVz.

Column B

A. Sileru

i. Gujarath

B. Dhuvaran

ii. Karnataka

C. Shabarigiri iii. Andhra Pradesh

D. Chakra

iv. Kerala

n A

n B

A. g

i. Udgv

B. zsg

ii. PlP

C. jVj

iii. DAzs
z

D. ZP

iv. Pg

Which one of the following correctly

matched set ?

PP A
q U
jAiiV erg
UA Aiiz ?

1) A ii

B iii

Ci

D iv

1) A ii

B iii

Ci

D iv

2) A iii

Bi

C iv

D ii

2) A iii

Bi

C iv

D ii

3) A iv

Bi

C ii

D iii

3) A iv

Bi

C ii

D iii

4) A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

4) A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

50. F PP A
q Aii Pt v GQ

50. Which one of the following Iron and

Steel Plant was established during
Third Five Year Plan ?

g g A Z P
AidA i
A iiv ?
1) Aii
2) Pg
3) gg
4) zUg

1) Bhilai
2) Bokaro
3) Rurkela
4) Durgapur
51. Jharia, Bokaro, Giridh and Karanpur

51. ghijAii, Pg, Vjzs v

are important coal fields of which

P g u g U R P z
P v U Vz , F P P A q Ai i
gdz ?
1) eRAq
2) g
3) Mr
4) bwWg

one of the following States ?

1) Jharkhand
2) Bihar
3) Odisha
4) Chattisgharh
18

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
52. Which one of the following is the
correct set of natural gas producing
sites ?
1) Bombay High, Digboi, Godavari
basin, Ankaleshwar
2) Ankaleshwar, Bombay High,
Digboi, Godavari basin
3) Bombay High, Ankaleshwar,
Godavari basin, Cauvery basin
4) Bombay High, Godavari basin,
Digboi, Ankaleshwar

52. F PP A
q U
s P C

Gv w g P v U j Ai i z
P
i tP Aiiz ?
1) A , UAii, Uzj
Rd, CAPg
2) CAP g, A , UAii,
Uzj Rd
3) A , CAP g, Uzj
Rd, Pj Rd
4) A , Uzj Rd,
UAii, CAP g

53. Identify the correct group of fresh

water lakes in India
1) Dal, Nal, Kolleru, Wular
2) Chilka, Dal, Sambhar, Pulicat
3) Dal, Chilka, Nal, Kolleru
4) Kolleru, Pulicat, Wular, Nal

53. s g v z j g g U

54. Which one of the following is

correctly matched of Column I
and Column II ?
Use the code given below :
Column I
Column II
A. Kolkatta
i. Biggest Port
of India
B. Nhava Sheva ii. Oldest Port of
India
C. Mumbai
iii. Terminal Port
of India
D. Chennai
iv. J a w a h a r l a l
Nehru Port
Code :
1) A iii
Bi
C iv D ii
2) A iv B iii C ii
Di
3) A iii
B iv C i
D ii
4) A i
B ii C iii D iv

54. PV
n I v n II g
jAiiV

jAiiz UA Ugw
1) z, , Pg, g
2) a, z, Asg, Pm
3) z, a, , Pg
4) Pg, Pm, g,

APAiiVgz Aiiz ?
aAi GAiV :
n II
n I
A. Pv
i. s g v z C w
zq Azg
B.
ii. sgvz
a
Azg
C. A
iii. sgvz
l
Azg
D. Z
iv. d g
g Azg
Z :

19

1)
2)
3)
4)

A iii
A iv
A iii
Ai

Bi
B iii
B iv
B ii

C iv
C ii
Ci
C iii

D ii
Di
D ii
D iv

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

Cx v g

ECONOMICS & CIVICS

55. sgvz Cw Jvgz zgz

55. Indias highest television tower is

Ug U

Argz E :

located at :
1) Arvi

2) Doon

1) D

2) q

3) Pune

4) Pitampura

3)

4) vAg

56. sgvz
P Pvz
AzgPU Cw

56. The strong reason for the

backwardness of Indian Agriculture

z PgtAzg :

is :

1) vAq s qU

1) Fragmentation of land holdings

2) s
Mqv
z

2) Land ownership problem

3) gj Pgv

3) Lack of irrigation

4) Ut Itsgv

4) Rural indebtedness

57. gvg v P Gv U
Ug
U

U

57. The farmers carry their produce to

the cities and problems faced by

P Aq Ai v g v

C g

them are :

Cs

R UA zg

A. High trade commission

A. CP g z

B. Advance to farmers from the

B. zzgjAz gvjU AUq

money lenders

C. Cheating in weights and

C. vP v CvU

measures

D. igl irz vPtz tz

D. Not immediate settling amount

v
qgP

after the sale

Aq PU

jAiiz U

Which of the above statements are

Aiiz ?

true ?
1) A, B and D

2) A, C and D

1) A, B v D

2) A, C v D

3) B, C and D

4) A, B and C

3) B, C v D

4) A, B v C

20

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
58. P GvU

jAiiz Rgu
U V 1965 g s g v z
Aiiz A F PPAqU
Aiiz ?

58. To facilitate proper storage of

agricultural produce, which one of
the following institution was
started in India in 1965 ?
1) TAPMCS

2) CFTRI

1) TAPMCS

2) CFTRI

3) FCI

4) IGSC

3) FCI

4) IGSC

59. Which one of the following bank

has been directed to provide loans
to cottage and small scale
industries ?

q U
Aii AP t
59. F PP A
v Ur PUjPU
U q
z

qvz
?
1) IDBI

1) IDBI
2) NABARD

2) NABARD

3) CO-OPERATIVE BANK

3) CO-OPERATIVE BANK

4) KSSIDC

4) KSSIDC

zg :
60. CPPg w gA
1) Dz irPAq z gP
U

60. Favourable balance trade means :

1) The value of visible exports is less
than the value of visible imports

i Q A v g s i rz z
gPU i Pr Egz
2) Jgqg
iU Vgz
3) Dz irPAq z gP
U
i v g s irz z gP U
iU

v
gz
4) gs irz z gP
U i
Dz irPAq z iQAv
CPVgz

2) The value of both is equal

3) The value of visible exports and
value of visible imports is different
4) The value of visible exports is
more than the value of visible
imports

61. F P V Ai i U A z U

61. Which one of the following is a set

of countries having both
democracy and republic ?
1) India and Great Britain
2) India and Japan
3) The U.S.A. and China
4) India and the U.S.A
21

e

s v v Utgd - Jgq

izjU
A ?
1) sgv v l
2) sgv v d
3) CjP AAiP AU

v
a
4) sgv v CjP AAiP
AU

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
62. Which one of the following regions

62. F PV
MAz PvP z

has been given a Special Status ?

PqVz. Cz _________

Identify it :

1) A PlP

1) Bombay, Karnataka
2) Old Mysore province

2) g Av

3) Hyderabad, Karnataka

3) zgz PlP

4) Coorg and Bellary regions

4) PqU v j sU

63. Several independent states coming

63. g vA
v gdU MmV j

together to form a nation involves

MAz g
PnzU z
gdU

all the constituent states ______

1) z CPg
Agv

1) having equal powers

2) z CPg Ag

2) having unequal powers

3) PAz PgP J DqvvP

3) are subordinate to the central

AiU
CVgv

government in all matters of

administration
4) are

absolutely

4) tV vA
v
z DqvvP
free

in

CPg
Agv

administration

64. az D Cw Z Dz

64. It is feared that a steep rise in

import duty on gold leads to

AP jgzjAz GAmU

1) Corruption

1) sZg

2) Black marketing

2) PAv

3) Smuggling

3) P UtP

4) Profiteering

4) sPgv
22

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
65. F

65. Examine the following statements

P V P U j

and select the correct option :

jAiiz Gvg


Dj :

A : Some nations of the world

A : z P gU
sgv sz
v

argued that India should not be

wAi SAiA z
v qA
i

made a permanent member of

U gzs Pr
.

the Security Council

B : C sAi AiP gV,

B : As the leader of the NAM, India

A Ai Aw Pq

has played a significant role in

peace keeping activities of the

ZlnPU sgv vz

U.N.O.

v z.

1) Both A and B are true

1) A v B Jgq
jAiiV

2) Both A and B are false

2) A v B Jgq
v

3) A is true and B is false

3) A j Dzg B v

4) A is false and B is true

4) A v v B j

66. Which one of the following is not a

66. e

s v izjAi gU

F PV

challenge to political parties in a

Ai i CA gdQAi P U U

democratic set up ?

z ?

1) Money and muscle power

1) t v zP QAi
s

2) Decline in ideological differences

2) gdQAi P U w v v U

v PrAiiVgz

among parties

3) w Ai Az P z z jU

3) Equal opportunities to all the

z CP
Pqz

members in each party

4) MAz Az
g
CPg

4) Dynastic succession

P z
23

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

Ai WlPU
v
67. A

67. Match the agencies of the U.N.O

CU Dqv Pbj PAzU

A gj :
i. Dg v P a. f
A
ii. CAvgg
Ai b. j
P vv

iii. CAvgg
Ai c. gi
tP
iv. CAvgg
Ai d. AUl r.
PP AW
e. AiiP

with their head quarters :

I

II

i. F.A.O.

a. Geneva

ii. UNICEF

b. Paris

iii. I.M.F.

c. Rome

iv. I.L.O.

d. Washington D.C.
e. Newyork

1) i b

ii e

iii a

iv c

2) i c

ii a

iii d

iv e

3) i e

ii c

iii b

iv a

4) i c

ii e

iii d

iv a

1)
2)
3)
4)

ib
ic
ie
ic

ii e
ii a
ii c
ii e

iii a
iii d
iii b
iii d

iv c
iv e
iv a
iv a

68. sgvz
g Pq Cu egAig

68. Anna Hazare conducted campaign

sZg gzz DAzU

qzg.

against corruption across in the

country.

F P V Ai i P U F
DAzU
PtU
wv ?
A. Cz MAz Z
B. i dg AiA gu
Az
DAzU

sU
zU Cz
MAz P Z Aiiv
C. F DAzU vUzPAq
zsgU

Pg ej
UPA CAiv Ez
D. F DAzz Cx-Pgz
PAiU
dPg gV
sUzg-JAzUvz
1) A, B v Civ
2) A v C iv
3) B v D iv
4) A v B iv

Which of the following statements are

the features of the above said event ?
A. It was a movement
B. It was a collective action of
commoners who participated
spontaneously in it
C. Its decisions were binding on the
government
D. It meant direct participation of
people in the government
1) A, B and C only
2) A and C only
3) B and D only
4) A and B only
24

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
69. The following is the list of
Commonwealth Nations :
a. Ghana
e. Nigeria
b. Newzealand
f. Malaysia
c. Australia
g. Zimbabwe
d. India
h. Canada

nAi P z

69. F PV
gU
E :
a. W
b. fAq
c. DAii
d. sgv

Which one of the following sets

represents the nations that have
recognised the Queen of Britain as
their titular head ?
1) a, b and h only
2) c, d and f only
3) b, c and h only
4) b, e and g only

C. The developed countries are

interested in helping the weaker
countries through this policy.
D. The developing countries are
subjected
to
economic
exploitation in the name of free
trade policy.
4) T, F, F, T

h. Pq

j (T) Cx
z equA i
v (F) JA CP
DAi ir :
A. g AAi J z

gU
U P g wAi
ejUz.
B. C Azwg gU
F
wAz s
UPAr.
C. F wAz C Az
g U Az z g U U
Ai iq DQAi F
wAi P vj.
D. C Azwg gU
F
wAi P DyP uU

Mn.

B. The developing nations are

immensely benefited by free
trade policy.

3) F, T, T, T

g. fA

70. F PV
PU

A. The W.T.O has formulated a

policy of free trade among the
member nations.

2) F, F, T, T

f. Aii

F PV
Aii UA gU
l
gt A i g i P j JAz
CAVPj ?
1) a, b v h iv
2) c, d v f iv
3) b, c v h iv
4) b, e v g iv

70. Choose the correct sequence to

indicate the following statements
as True (T) or False (F) :

1) T, T, F, F

e. fjAii

1) T, T, F, F
3) F, T, T, T
25

2) F, F, T, T
4) T, F, F, T

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

Utv

MATHEMATICS

71. zv ePwAi Eg AiU

71. The number of regions in the given

graph is :

1) 6
3) 5

AS :

2) 2
4) 7

1) 6
3) 5

72. In the given figure ABCD is a

rectangle in which segments AP
and AQ are drawn as shown. The
length of (AP + AQ) is

1) 180 cm
3) 150 cm

2) 2
4) 7

72. ABCD DAi v z AP v AQ

gSRAqU

avz

vjzAv
JAiVz. Uzg (AP + AQ)
Gz :

2) 120 cm
4) 100 cm

1) 180 A.
3) 150 A.

2) 120 A.
4) 100 A.

73. The value of tan 7 tan 23 tan

60tan 67tan 83 is
2
3
1)
2)
3
2
1
3)
4) 3
3

73. Tan 7 tan 23 tan 60tan 67tan

83 Ai :
2
3
1)
2)
3
2
1
3)
4) 3
3

74. A town has total population of

25,000 out of which 13,000 read the
Deccan Herald and 10,500 read The
Times of India and 2,500 read both
papers. The percentage of
population who read neither of
these news papers is :
1) 15%
2) 14%
3) 16%
4) 10%

74. Ev z g dA
Sg MAz

ltz 13,000 dg qP g
wP A i, 10,500 dg mi
Ds EArAii wP A i v 2,500
dg Jgq wPU Nzvg.
Uzg dA SAi Pq Jg

d Jgq wP U


Nz ?
1) 15%
3) 16%

26

2) 14%
4) 10%

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

75. (a, 0), (0, b) v (1, 1) U g

g SUv

75. If the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (1, 1)

1 1
are collinear, then + =
a b
1) (2 2)0

2) 20

3) 21

4) 21

AzUV. Uzg
1) (2 2)0
3) 21

1
2
x + 2 is :
x

2) 2

3) 4

4) 6

2) 3

3) 1

4)

1) 0

2) 2

3) 4

4) 6

77. v U x2 + 3 ax + 2a2 = 0

77. If and be the roots of

x2 + 3 ax + 2a2 = 0 and 2 + 2 = 5
then the value of a is
1) 2

2) 20
4) 21

1
2
76. x (x 2) = 1 Dzg x + 2 :
x

76. If x (x 2) = 1 then the value of

1) 0

1 1
+ =
a b

P g t z U v
2 + 2 = 5 Dzg a

1
2

1) 2

2) 3

3) 1

4)

1
2

78. The condition that the equation

ax2 + bx + c = 0 has both the roots
positive is that
1) a and c have of the same sign
opposite to that of b
2) b and c have the same sign
opposite to that of a
3) a and b are of the same sign
4) a, b, c are of the same sign

78. ax2 + bx + c = 0 Pgt

z J

1 0
4
79. If A =
then A =
0
1

1 0
79. A =
Dzg A4 =

0 1

U zs
vP
Vg Pzg Eg
Azs
1) a v c U MAz a A.
i gzV.
Dzg E b aA
2) b v c U MAz a A.
i gzVz.
Dzg E a aA
3) a v b U MAz a A.
4) a, b, c U MAz a A.

4 0
1)

4 0

3 3
2)

2 2

4 0
1)

4 0

3 3
2)

2 2

2
3)
3

1 0
4)

0 1

2 3
3)
`
3 4

1 0
4)

0 1

3
4

27

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
80. In figure AB = 4 cm, BC = 5 cm and

80. avz

AB = 4 A., BC = 5 A.

CD = 8 cm then the length of AD =

v CD = 8 A. Dzg AD Ai Cv

1) 10 cm

2) 12 cm

1) 10 A.

2) 12 A.

3) 13 cm

4) 15 cm

3) 13 A.

4) 15 A.

81. Every person in a room shakes hands

with every other person. The total
number of hand shakes is 153. The
number of persons in the room is
1) 16
2) 17
3) 18
4) 19

81. MAz PorAig w

Ai dg

82. A student is required to answer 6 out

of 10 questions which are divided into
two groups each containing 5
questions and he is not permitted to
attempt more than 4 from each group.
The number of ways he can choose
the questions is
1) 200
2) 150
3) 300
4) 100

82. Jgq sUz

5
Ug Ml

83. The rationalizing factor of ab n

v v
W irPg
.
Ml
WU

AS 153 Dzg
PorAig dg AS
1) 16
3) 18

v
U
M zyAi MAz
sUz QAv Z U
v U z P z Ml Dg U
Gvj
zz Ml zsU


1) 200
3) 300

a
b

83. ab n

is
1) ab n
3)

a
b

a n1
bn1

2)

4)

2) 17
4) 19

a
b

a
b

1) ab n

a n+1

3)

bn+1
28

2) 150
4) 100

CPgt
P gP
a
b

a n1
bn1

2)

4)

a
b
a n+1
bn+1

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
84. The volume and surface area of a
sphere are numerically the same.
The volume of the smallest cylinder
in which the sphere exactly fits is
2) 36
1) 54
3) 27
4) 9

84. U z t v

W

s U V. F U

jAiiV P Uv
g Aqg
Eq Pzg, Czg Uv
1) 54
3) 27

2) 36
4) 9

85. In a triangle the side of length

12 cm is perpendicular to the side
of length 5 cm. The lateral surface
area of the solid got by rotating on
the side 12 cm is
2) 65 cm 2
1) 156 cm 2
3) 60 cm2
4) 35 cm2

85. MAz ws dz 12 A. Gzg

86. In an examination Arithmetic mean

and standard deviation of
Pradyumna are 60 and 3.84 and
that of Chintu are 66 and 5.61. Then
the true statement among the
following is
1) Pradyumna is better scorer than
Chintu
2) Pradyumna is more consistent
than Chintu
3) Chintu is more consistent than
Pradyumna
4) Both Pradyumna and Chintu are
equally consistent

86. MAz jPAi z Uz

87. A club consists of members whose

ages are in A.P. the common
difference being 3 months. If the
youngest members of the club is
just 7 years old and the sum of the
ages of all the members is 250
years, then the number of members
in the club are
1) 15
2) 20
3) 25
4) 30

87. MAz AWz

g
z
g AiU

5 A. Gzg U
AVz. 12 A.
w s d wg VzU GAmU
WPwAi t
1) 156 A.2 2) 65 A.2
3) 60 A.2 4) 35 A.2
gj v iP ZU
60 v
3.84 U aAlz 66 v 5.61
DV. PV
U
jAiiz P
1) z
aAlVAv Z CAP
Ug
2) z
aAlVAv Z gv

Ag
3) aAl z
VAv Z gv

Ag
4) z
v aAlU gv
MAz
DVz

iAvg tAiz CvAv aP

z A i K Vz .
wAi z q Ai
CAvg g wAUVz. Cg Ml
Ai v 250 U Dzg,
Cg z
gU AS
1) 15
3) 25

29

2) 20
4) 30

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)

88. avz PQR ||| PST, PQR

vv : PST vv = 3 : 4 Dzg
PST Ai t : PQR

88. In the figure PQR ||| PST and

perimeter of PQR : perimeter of
PST = 3 : 4 then area of PST :
area of PQR is

1) 3 : 4
3) 9 : 16

t =

2) 16 : 9
4) 4 : 3

1) 3 : 4
3) 9 : 16

2) 16 : 9
4) 4 : 3

89. MAz g v g q M A i

89. Twelve defective pens are

accidentally mixed with 132 good
ones. It is not possible to just look
at a pen and tell whether or not it
is defective. One pen is taken out
at random from this lot. The
probability of pen taken out is a
good one is :

U AU 12 v q Q g
(defective) U DP P V
gv
PAr. P qzjAz
CU
vqQzAi E JAz
Ugw zs. MAz
AiizaP
V vUA iVz. vUz
F
MAi Vg As

Aiv

1)

11
12

1)

11
12

2)

1
12

2)

1
12

3)

1
2

3)

1
2

4) 1

4) 1

90. The LCM of (x + y)2, (x y) 2 and

90. (x + y)2, (x y)2 v (x2 y2) U

..C

(x2 y2) is
1) (x2 y2)

2) (x2 + y2)2

1) (x2 y2)

2) (x2 + y2)2

3) (x2 y2)3

4) (x2 y2)2

3) (x2 y2)3

4) (x2 y2)2

30

*SATK10*

SAT(K-10)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

av gP V

31

SAT(K-10)

Cs yUU ZU


1.

r N.Ji.Dg.
qVz.

2.

J
U PqAi, w

U MAz CAPz.

3.

jP CA
i,

(OMR)

Gvg wP U,

90

*SATK10*

Ug PAi U

w

Ai eUg
Pv
Az Nj.
N.Ji.Dg. (OMR) lz w

ASU j Az Gvg

Ugw

qVg vU
Q jAiiz Gvgz
v
/P Ai

q irz
Am iv GAiV Ugv ir. M Gvg
z CP v Aiiz CUv
UgvU
N.Ji.Dg. (OMR)
Gvg wPAi iqPqz.
Gz : 20
Ai j Gvg
P. A. 3 DVz N.Ji.Dg. (OMR) lz P. A.

g Az F jw /P Am GAiV v
Ugv
iqz. F PU vjzAv AtV vAP.
20

20. 1

(Ez Gzgu
iv)

4.

MAz
U Gvg
V MAzQAv Z vU Ugv irz CAv GvgU
vAz jUt
CAPU

q g.

5.

N.Ji.Dg. (OMR) lz Uv z

Cs y U Por ZgPg
vz
iqP.

6.

jP C Vz Avg Gvjz N.Ji.Dg. (OMR) l Por ZgPj

U
vz Mv
Pz.

7.

jP PorAiU, P lg, zgtAi (Ez JPP

GPg
t
U
) vg z z.

8.

Cv
wP U


Aiiz U
Gzz
wP A
i EAV gAvg

CAwAz wAiP.

9.

Aiiz AiU Ez

DSERT

Az l vdg CAi CAw.

Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this booklet.