MOCK TEST

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EE : ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Duration : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1.

Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet unlit you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

2.

Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instruments printed on the ORS carefully. If you find the Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner
of this page does not match with the Booklet Code on the ORS, exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed
Question Booklet.

3.

On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test
paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration
number, your name and name of the examination center and put your signature at the specified location.

4.

This Question Booklet contain 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the
seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

5.

There are a total of 65 Question carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only
on correct answer. Question must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble
(marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the
bubble of the correct answer. More than on answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

6.

Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the
ORS very carefully.

7.

Question Q. 1 Q. 25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q. 26 - Q. 55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks question include two
pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer of the second question of the
linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair
is wrongly answered or is unattemped, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

8.

Question Q. 56 - Q. 65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Question Q. 56 - Q.60
carry 1 mark each, and questions Q. 61 -Q. 65 carry 2 marks each.

9.

Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark
questions 1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for
each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong
answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

10.

Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

11.

Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for
rough work.

12.

Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a
blank ink ball point pen.

Names
Registration Number

EE

For Answer Key and Full Solution mail to enquiry@nodia.co.in.

MOCK TEST FIRST

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MOCK TEST

Q. 1- Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

The median of 0, 2, 2, -3, 5, -1, 5, 5, -3, 6, 6, 5, 6 is

(A) 0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2

Q.2

(D) 3.5

If v = 2xy , then the analytic function f (z) = u + iv is

(A) z2 + c
(B) z2 + c
(C) z3 + c

Q.3

Q.4

# exdx 1

is equal to

(A) log (ex 1)

(B) log (1 ex )

(C) log (ex 1)

(D) log (1 ex )

If Rolles theorem holds for f (x) = x3 6x2 + kx + 5 on [1, 3] with c = 2 + 1 , then

3
value of k is
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 7

Q.5

(D) z3 + c

(D) 11

Consider the feedback system shown below

For this system root locus is

Q.6

The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is G (s) =

system to be stable the range of K is
(A K > 1
(B) K < 3
4
(C) 1 < K < 3
4

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K (s2 4)
. For the
s2 + 3

(D) marginal stable

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Q.7

Q.8

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In the signal flow graph shown below the transfer function is

(A) 3.75

(B) 3

(C) 3

(D) 3.75

Consider the given circuit and waveform for the input voltage. The diode in circuit
has cutin voltage V = 0 .

The waveform of output voltage vo is

Q.9

If (211) x = (152) 8 , then the value of base x is

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7

Q.10

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(D) 9

In the following circuit, Initially flip flop is cleared. If input clock frequency is fi , then
frequency at output will be

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Q.11

MOCK TEST

(A) 2fi

(B) f/2

(C) 4fi

(D) will be same as input

The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best
approximated by
(A) a parabola
(B) a straight line
(C) an exponentially decaying function

Q.12

(D) a rectangular hyperbola

A single-phase half controlled converter shown in the figure feeding power to highly
inductive load. The converter is operating at a firing angle of 60c.

If the firing pulses are suddenly removed, the steady state voltage (V0) waveform of
the converter will become

Q.13

Wagner Earth devices in AC bridge circuits are used for

(A) Shielding all the bridge elements from external magnetic field
(B) Eliminating the effect of stray capacitance
(C) Minimizing the effect of inter-component capacitance
(D) Eliminating all the node to earth capacitances

Q.14

A single-phase full bridge voltage source inverter feeds a purely inductive load as
shown in figure, where T1 , T2 , T3 , T4 are power transistors and D 1 , D 2 , D 3 , D 4 are

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feedback diodes. The inverter is operated in square-wave mode with a frequency of

50 Hz. If the average load current is zero, what is the time duration of conduction of
each feedback diode in a cycle?

Q.15

(A) 5 msec

(B) 10 msec

(C) 20 msec

(D) 2.5 msec

A Lissajou pattern observed on an oscilloscope is stationary and has 5 horizontal

tangencies and 2 vertical tangencies. If the frequency of horizontal input is 1,000 Hz,
then frequency of vertical input is
(A) 2500 Hz
(B) 500 Hz
(C) 400 Hz

Q.16

The errors introduced by an instrument fall in which category ?

(A) Systematic errors
(B) Random errors
(C) Gross errors

Q.17

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(D) 2000 Hz

(D) Environmental errors

A simple equivalent circuit of the 2 terminal network shown in figure is

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Q.18

Q.19

Q.20

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MOCK TEST

In the following RC circuit the value of vC (0) = 10 V , then the value of vC (t) is

(A) et V

(B) 5et V

(C) 10et V

(D) 10 + et V

In the bridge shown below Z1 = 300 , Z2 = (300 j 600) , Z 3 = (200 + j 100) . The
Z 4 at balance is

(A) 400 + j 300

(B) 400 j 300

(C) j 100

(D) j 900

The Laplace transform of signal u (t + 2) is

(A) 1
s

(B) 1
s

2s
(C) e
s

2s
(D) e
s

A Fourier transform pairs is as following

1,
F
x (t)
X (j) = 2 sin where x (t) = *

0,
The Fourier transform of signal shown below is

j2
(A) e sin 2
2

(C)
Q.22

4ej2 sin 2

t <1
otherwise

j2
(B) e sin 2

(D)

4e j2 sin 2

Consider the following function for the rectangular voltage pulse shown below

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(1) v (t) = u (a t) # u (t b)
(2) v (t) = u (b t) # u (t a)
(3) v (t) = u (t a) u (t b)

Q.23

The function that describe the pulse are

(A) 1, and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) all

A single phase transformer has 350 and 700 turns in its primary and secondary
winding. The primary is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz ac supply. If the net crosssectional area of core is 50 cm2 , the maximum value of flux density in the core is
(A) 51.48 T
(B) 2.57 T
(C) 1.03 T

Q.24

(D) can not be determined

ACSR conductor implies

(A) aluminium conductor steel reinforced.
(B) all conductors surface treated and realigned.
(C) anodised core steel reinforced.
(D) none of the above.

Q.25

Which of the following is true about the sequence reactance of transformer ?

(A) Negative and positive sequence reactances are equal to the leakage reactance.
(B) Negative sequence reactance is larger than the positive sequence reactance.
(C) Negative sequence reactance is smaller than the positive sequence reactance.
(D) None of above

Q. 26- Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

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Consider the circuit shown below :

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MOCK TEST

If the ideal source supplies 1000 W, half of which is delivered to the 100 load, the
value of a and b are
(A) 6, 0.47
(B) 5, 0.89
(C) 0.89, 5
Q.27

Consider three different signal

n
x1 [n] = ;2n b 1 l E u [n]
2
x2 [n] = 2n u [ n 1] + 1n u [ n 1]
2
x 3 [n] = 2n u [ n 1] 1n u [n]
2
Following figure shows the three different region. Choose the correct for the ROC of
signal

R1
(A) x1 [n]
(B) x2 [n]
(C) x1 [n]
(D) x 3 [n]
Q.28

R2
x 2 [ n]
x 3 [ n]
x 3 [ n]
x 2 [ n]

R3
x 3 [ n]
x 1 [ n]
x 2 [ n]
x 1 [ n]

A 220 V dc shunt motor takes 5 A current on no load while running at a speed

of 1000 rpm. It has an armature and a shunt field resistance of 0.3 and 200
respectively. Now the motor is driving a load drawing 40 A current from the supply.
If the armature reaction weakens the field by 2.5% on this load, what would be speed
of the motor ?
Assume magnetic circuit to be unsaturated.
(A) 954 rpm
(B) 976 rpm
(C) 1023 rpm

Q.29

(D) 0.47, 6

(D) 238.5 rpm

An industrial system has a load of 100 kVA at 0.6 pf lagging. A synchronous motor is
added to the system to improve the overall power factor. If the synchronous motor is
operating at 10 kW and 0.5 pf leading, then the overall power factor of the system is
(A) 0.58 (lagging)
(B) 0.74 (lagging)
(C) 0.99 (leading)

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(D) 0.39 (leading)

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Q.30

Q.31

Three single-phase transformer are connected in Y to form a 3-phase transformer

bank as shown in the figure. It is used to step-down the voltage of a 3-phase, 6600 V
transformer line. If the primary line current is 10 A and the turns ratio is 12, the
output kVA will be

(A) 66

(B) 198

(C) 38.1

(D) 114.3

A 120 V, 60 Hz capacitor start motor has the following impedances for the main and
auxiliary windings at stand still
Main winding
Z main = 4.5 + j3.7
Auxiliary winding Z aux = 9.5 + j3.5
The value of starting capacitance that will place the main and auxiliary winding
current in quadrature at starting is
(A) 177 F
(B) 610 F
(C) 15 F

Q.32

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(D) 36.25%

A balanced delta-load having a resistance of 15 per phase is in parallel with a

balanced star-load having phase impedances of 8 + j6 . The combined load is
supplied from a 110 V three-phase supply through three lines having impedance of
2 + j5 each.
What is the value of line voltage at the combined loads ?
(A) 28.13 V
(B) 48.72 V
(C) 84.32 V

Q.34

(D) 125 F

A 50 Hz, 3-phase, 4 pole, induction motor operating at 4% slip draws 40 kW of

power. The stator copped-loss and the the mechanical losses are 1.5 kW and 0.8 kW
respectively. What is the efficiency of the motor ?
(A) 94.25%
(B) 90.4%
(C) 92.4%

Q.33

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(D) 16.24 V

The reactance diagram of a system is shown in figure. The bus admittance matrix
YBUS for the system is

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Q.35

MOCK TEST

R
R
V
V
5. 0
5. 0 W
S 10.5 0
S0.724 0.620 0.656 0.644W
S 0
S0.620 0.738 0.642 0.660W
8. 0 2. 5
5. 0 W
(A) YBUS = j S
(B) YBUS = j S
W
W
2.5 18.0 10.0 W
S 5. 0
S0.656 0.642 0.702 0.676W
5.0 10.0 20.0W
S 5. 0
S0.684 0.660 0.676 0.719W
TR
TR
X
V
VX

10
.
5
0
5
.
0
0
10
0
0
.
5
0
.
5
S
S
W
W
S 0
S 0 2.5
8.0
0
5.0 W
8
0.5 W
(C) YBUS = j S
(D) YBUS = j S
W
0 18.0 10.0WW
S 5.0
S 0.5 j8 0.18 0.1 W
5.0 10.0
0 W
0.1 0.5W
S 5.0
S 0.5 0.5
T
T
X
X
In the system shown in figure, consider the grid as an infinite bus. The specifications
are given as following
Transformer : 3-phase, 33/11 kV, 6 MVA, 0.01 + j0.08 pu impedance
Load : 3-phase, 11 kV, 5,800 kVA, 0.8 lag, j0.2 pu impedance
Feeder : Impedance of 9 + j18 each

What is the required MVA rating of circuit breaker on 6 MVA base ?

(A) 17.75 MVA
(B) 44.72 MVA
(C) 0.80 MVA
Q.36

A 500 MW, 21 kV, 50 Hz, 3-phase, 2-pole synchronous generator having a rated pf
= 0.9, has a moment of inertia of 27.5 # 103 kg-m2 .The inertia constant (H ) will be
(A) 2.44 s
(B) 2.71 s
(C) 4.88 s

Q.37

(D) 33.46 MVA

(D) 5.42 s

The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is

K (s + 2)
G (s) = 2
(s + 1) (s + 4) (s 1)
The range of K , that will make the system stable, is
(A) 12 < K < 2
(B) 33 < K < 2
(C) K > 2

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(D) Unstable

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Q.38

11/16

Consider the following system

5
a. T (s) =
(s + 3)( s + 6)
c. T (s) =

b. T (s) =

10 (s + 7)
(s + 10)( s + 20)

d. T (s) = s2+ 2
s +9

20
s2 + 6s + 44

(s + 5)
(s + 10) 2
Consider the following response
1. Over damped

2. Under damped

3. Under damped

4. Critically damped

e. T (s) =

The correct
1
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) c
Q.39

match
2
c
a
a
b

is
3
d
d
e
e

4
e
e
d
d

A PMMC instrument has full-scale deflection current of 100 A and a coil resistance
of 1 k. The value of required shunt resistance to convert the instrument into an
ammeter with a full scale deflection current of 100 mA is Rsh . The same instrument
is converted into an ammeter with a full scale deflection current of 1 mA by using a
R
shunt resistor Rsh . The ratio sh approximately equals to
Rsh
(A) 10
(B) 100
1

(C) 0.1
Q.40

A 50 Hz, bar primary CT has a secondary with 300 turns. The secondary supplies 5 A
current into a burden which consists of a resistance and reactance of 1.5 and 1.0
respectively. The magnetizing mmf is 100 A and the iron loss is 1.2 W. The phase
angle between the primary and secondary is
(A) 11.7c
(B) 2.34c
(C) 4.025c

Q.41

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(D) 1

(D) 0.847c

In the following circuit the 3 dB cutoff frequency is

(A) 10 kHz

(B) 1.59 kHz

(C) 354 kHz

(D) 689 Hz

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MOCK TEST

Q.42

Consider the common-source circuit with source bypass capacitor. The signal frequency
is sufficiently large. The transistor parameters are VTN = 0.8 V, Kn = 1 mA/V 2 and
= 0 . The voltage gain is

Q.43

Q.44

(A) 15.6

(B) 9.9

(C) 6.8

(D) 3.2

An X Y flip-flop whose characteristic table is given below is to be implemented

using a J-K flip-flop
X

Qn + 1

Qn

Qn

This can be done by using

(A) J = X, K = Y

(B) J = X , K = Y

(C) J = Y, K = X

(D) J = Y , K = X

Consider a binary weighted n -bit D/A converter shown in the following circuit of
figure. What is the tolerance of resistance to limit the output error to the equivalent
of ! 1 LSB ?
2

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(A)

13/16

1
2n 1

(C)
Q.45

Q.46

(B) 1n
2

n1

1
2 +1
n

2
Consider the following 8085 program
MVI A, DATA 1
ORA A,
JM DSPLY
OUT PORT1
CMA
DSPLY :
ADI 01H
OUT PORT1
HLT
If DATA1 = A7H, the output at PORT1 is
(A) 47H

(B) 58H

(C) 00

(D) None of the above

The system equations x + y + z = 6 , x + 2y + 3z = 10 , x + 2y + z = 12 is inconsistent,

if is
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 0

Q.47

(D)

(D) None of these

For the differential equation

dy
dx

= x y 2 given that

x:

0.2

0.4

0.6

y:

0.02

0.0795

0.1762

Using Milne predictor-correction method, the y at next value of x is

(A) 0.2498
(B) 0.3046
(C) 0.4648

(D) 0.5114

Statement for Question 48-49 :

A single phase half-bridge inverter is operated from a 24 V source and supplies power
to a resistive load.
Q.48

Q.49

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Total harmonic distortion(THD) is

(A) 48.4%

(B) 19.8%

(C) 60%

(D) 28%

The harmonic factor and the distortion factor for the lowest order harmonic are
respectively
(A) 20%, 2.22%
(B) 7.68%, 33.33%
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(C) 33.33%, 3.7%

(D) 35.88%, 3.98%

Statement for Q. 50-51

A power plant consisting of two generations G1 and G2 supplies a total load of 450
MW. The fuel costs of two generations G1 and G2 are C1 and C2 respectively, given
as following
C1 = 100 + 2P1 + 0.005P 12
C2 = 200 + 2P2 + 0.01P 22
where P1 and P2 are the generation in MW of G1 and G2 respectively.
Q.50

The economic load scheduling of the two units will be

(A) P1 = 225 MW
(B) P1 = 180 MW
P2 = 225 MW

Q.51

P2 = 270 MW

(C) P1 = 300 MW
(D) P1 = 240 MW
P2 = 150 MW
P2 = 210 MW
The incremental fuel cost of the power plant in Rs/MWh will be
(A) 4.25 Rs/MWh
(B) 10 Rs/MWh
(C) 5 Rs/MWh

(D) 6.5 Rs/MWh

Statement for Q. 52-53 :

A state flow graph is shown below

Q.52

The state and output equation for this system is

0 1 x1
x1
0
xo1
(A) > o H = >5 21H> H + > H u , y = 85 4B> H
x2
1
x2
4 x2
0
1 x1
x1
0
xo1
(B) > o H = > 5 21H> H + > H u , y = 85 4B> H
x2
1
x2
4 x2
0
1 x1
x1
1
xo1
(C) > o H = > 5 21H> H + > H u , y = 84 5B> H
x2
1
x2
4 x2

Q.53

0
1 x1
x1
1
xo1
(D) > o H = > 5 21H> H + > H u , y = 84 5B> H
x2
1
x2
4 x2
The system is

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(A) Observable and controllable

(B) Controllable only

(C) Observable only

(D) None of the above

Statement for Q. 54-55:

Two generators G1 and G2 are to be operated in parallel to deliver a total current
of 60 A. Generator G1 has a terminal voltage of 280 V on no-load and 240 V when
supplying 40 A current. Similarly the second generator has a voltage of 300 V when
on no-load and 240 V when supplying 50 A of current.
Q.54

The output voltage of each generator will be

(A) 240 V
(B) 238.2 V
(C) 271.7 V

Q.55

(D) 256.4 V

The output power PG and PG delivered by generator G1 and G2 will be

(A) PG = 5.6 kW, PG = 8.7 kW
(B) PG = 9.6 kW, PG = 12 kW
1

(C) PG = PG = 9.3 kW
1

(D) PG = 6 kW, PG = 9.3 kW

1

General Aptitude(GA)Questions
Q.56- Q 60 carry one mark each
Q.56

Which one of the following is the Antonym of the word NULLIFY ?

(A) void
(B) legitimize
(C) repose

Q.57

Which one of the following is the synonym of the word REPEAL ?

(A) sharp
(B) applaud
(C) acceptance

Q.58

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(D) Sweater

A pair of CAPITALIZED words shown below has four pairs of words. The pair of
words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized
pair, is
UNITY : DIVERSITY
(A) Single : Multiple
(B) One : Many
(C) Homogeneous : Heterogeneous

Q.60

(D) abrogation

One of the four words given in the four options does not fit the set of words. The odd
word from the group, is
(A) Cardigan
(B) Pullover
(C) Tuxedo

Q.59

(D) indomitable

(D) Singular : Plural

In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is left unfinished. Four different ways
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MOCK TEST

of completing the sentence are indicated. The best alternative among the four, is
The interest generated by the soccer World Cup is....................compared to the way
cricket.................the nation.
(A) milder, fascinates
(B) lukewarm, electrifies
(C) tepid, inspires

(D) unusual, grips

Q. 61-65 carry two marks each

Q.61

Q.62

What is the digit in the units place of 253 ?

(A) 2

(B) 8

(C) 1

(D) 4

The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest
score are not considered the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, the lowest will be
(A) 55
(B) 60
(C) 62

Q.63

A box contains 6 red balls and 5 blue balls. Each ball is of a different size. The
probability that the red ball selected is the smallest red ball, is
(A) 1/18
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/6

Q.64

(D) 2/3

A piece of paper is in the shape of a right angled triangle and is cut along a line that
is parallel to the hypotenuse, leaving a smaller triangle. There was 35% reduction in
the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original triangle was
34 square inches before the cut, what is the area (in square inches) of the smaller
triangle.
(A) 16.665
(B) 16.565
(C) 15.465

Q.65

(D) cannot be determined.

(D) 14.365

A slab of ice 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 2 inches thick was melted
and resolidified into the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod,
in inches, is nearest to
(A) 3
(B) 3.5
(C) 4

(D) 4.5
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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