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When a motor is overloaded, it will usually

A.
B.
C.
D.

Overheat
Slow down
Speed up
Vibrate

Which motor that produces the highest increase in torque


considering the same increase in current?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dc shunt
Dc series
Cumulatively compounded
Diferentially compounded

Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a half-wave


rectifier with a 12Vrms input?
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.7 V
3.8 V
4.5 V
5.4 V

To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors, a


resistance should be added to limit the current in the _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Series field winding


Shunt field winding
Armature Winding
All of these

When a dc motor has no load, what will happen to the back


emf?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reduces
Increases
Becomes maximum
Becomes zero

When can we get a maximum mechanical power from a dc


motor?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Eb = 0
Eb = V
Eb = 1 V
Eb = 2 V

The torque of a dc motor is


A.
B.
C.
D.

Directly proportional to the field strength


Inversely proportional to the field strength
Directly proportional to the armature current
A and C are correct

What is the most common method used in varying the


speed of a dc motor?
A.
B.
C.
D.

By varying the supply voltage


By changing the effective number of conductors
in series
By varying the armature resistance
By varying the field strength

A motor whose speed increases as the load is increased.


A.
B.
C.
D.

Series DC
Dc shunt
Cumulatively compounded
Differentially compounded

In applications where an almost constant speed is required,


a _____ motor is a good choice.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dc shunt
Dc series
Cumulatively compounded
Diferentially compounded

In applications where a high torque is needed during


starting a ______ motor is preferred.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dc shunt
Dc series
Cumulatively compounded
Diferentially compounded

In applications where sudden heavy loads happen for short


duration, a ______ motor is the best choice.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dc shunt
Dc series
Cumulatively compounded
Diferentially compounded

In motors of the same rating, which has the least starting


torque?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dc shunt
Dc series
Cumulatively compounded
Diferentially compounded

What is the average voltage of an alternating voltage, v =


100sin120t?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0 (zero) V
31.8 V
63.6 V
70.71 V

A semiconductor diode that is called a cat-whisker?


A.
B.
C.
D.

Point-Contact Diode
Diac
PIN diode
Thyrector

Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage of a 20 V fullwave power supply with a filter capacitor C = 220 F when
delivering a load current of 50 mA.
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.0 Vpp
3.79 Vpp
5.67 Vpp
7.9 Vpp

A 12 V DC power supply is regulateed using 7805IC and is


used as TTL circuits that require a 0.2 amps current.
Determine the dropout voltage of the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4V
5V
6V
7V

Semiconductor-based, volatile data storage device that can


be written and read randomly.
A.
B.
C.
D.

RAM
PROM
EPROM
EEPROM

In which of the following places would a transistor battery


be the best power-source choice?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A heart pacemaker.
An electronic calculator.
An LCD wristwatch.
A two-way portable radio.

In which of the following places would you most likely


choose a lithium battery?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A microcomputer memory backup.


A two-way portable radio.
A portable audio cassette player.
A rechargeable flashlight.

Where would you most likely find a lead-acid battery?


The production of an emf in a circuit composed of two
dissimilar metals when their two junctions are at different
temperature
A.
B.
C.
D.

Seebeck effect
Peltier Effect
Thomson Effect
None of the above

Semiconductor device that composed of two diodes in


series with opposite direction
A.
B.
C.
D.

Point-Contact Diode
Diac
PIN diode
Thyrector

A cell that cannot be recharged is:


A.
B.
C.
D.

A dry cell.
A wet cell.
A primary cell.
A secondary cell.

A direct short-circuit of a battery can cause:


A.
B.
C.
D.

An increase in its voltage.


No harm other than a rapid discharge of its
energy.
The current to drop to zero.
An explosion.

A cell of 1.5 V supplies 100 mA for seven hours and


twenty minutes, and then it is replaced. It has supplied:
A.
B.
C.
D.

7.33 Ah.
733 mAh.
7.33 Wh.
733 mWh.

The energy in a cell or battery depends mainly on:


A. Its physical size.
B. The current drawn from it.
C. Its voltage.
D. All of the above.

A.
B.
C.
D.

In a portable audio cassette player.


In a portable video camera/recorder.
In an LCD wall clock.
None of the above

Which kind of battery should never be used until it dies?


A.
B.
C.
D.

Silver-oxide.
Lead-acid.
Nickel-cadmium.
Mercury.

The current from a solar panel is increased by:


A.
B.
C.
D.

Connecting solar cells in series.


Using NICAD cells in series with the solar cells.
Connecting solar cells in parallel.
Using lead-acid cells in series with the solar cells.

An interactive solar power system:


A.
B.
C.
D.

Allows a homeowner to sell power to the


utility.
Lets the batteries recharge at night.
Powers lights but not electronic devices.
Is totally independent from the utility.

One reason why it is impractical to make an extremely


high-voltage battery of cells is that:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Theres a danger of electric shock.


It is impossible to get more than 103.5 V with
electrochemical cells.
The battery would weigh to much.
There isnt any real need for such thing.

The production or absorption of heat at the junction of two


metals when current is passed through the junction
A.
B.
C.
D.

Seebeck effect
Peltier Effect
Thomson Effect
None of the above

One causes why the shaft torque is less than the developed
armature torque of a dc motor.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A differential circuit uses a _____.


a. Capacitor in its feedback circuit
b. RLC in its feedback circuit
c. Inductor in its feedback circuit
d. Resistor in its feedback circuit.

Which of the following shells contain 2 electrons?


a. L
b. N
c. M
d. K

What amplifier is used when power from a


convertion servoamplifier is too small to drive large
servomotors (either A.C or D.C.)?
a. Differential amplifier
b. RD amplifier
c. Audio amplifier
d. Operational amplifier

An amplifier which is designed to be used with


other circuit component to perform either
computing functions or some type of transfer
operation?
a. Differential amplifier
b. RD Amplifier
c. Audio amplifier
d. Operational amplifier

What type of LC oscillator is sometimes called a


tickler oscillator in reference to the transformer
secondary or tickler coil that provides the feedback
to keep the oscillator going?
a. Colpitts
b. Clapp
c. Armstrong
d. Hartley

The ratio of the DC collector current Ic to the


emitter current Ie is called the DC ______.
a. Delta
b. Beta (Bdc)
c. Echo
d. Alpha (Adc)

The effect of 60 Hz A.C. over 100 mA or DC over


300 mA on the human body.
a. Mascular inhibition
b. Respiratory failure
c. Surprise
d. Usually fatal

The bit storage capacity of a Read Only


Memory(ROM) with a 512 x 8 organization is
_____ bits.
a. 1024
b. 8192
c. 4096
d. 2048

Eddy current
Field loss
Brushes loss
Friction loss

The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is _____.


a.
b.
c.
d.

To compare input signals.


To amplify small signals that are riding
on large common mode voltages.
To reject unwanted signals.
To trim small signals that are riding on large
common mode voltages.

In a series RLC circuit, what is the condition of the circuit


if there is high impedance, low current, and low reactance
voltages?
e. Ideal circuit
f. Percent circuit
g. Resonant
h. Non-resonant

The most accurate type of test equipment used for


measuring high power is the _____.
a. Bolometer
b. Wavemeter
c. Calorimeter
d. Wattmeter
The effect on the human body of 21-20 millamperes, 60 Hz A.C. or 80-?? milli-amperes D.C is
______.
a. Respiratory failure
b. Mascular inhibition
c. Reflex action
d. Surprise

A straight line plot of collector current Ic and Vce


for a transistor circuit is called the _____.
a. Threshold line
b. DC loadline
c. Loading limit
d. Linear level

If a transformer has a turns ratio of 1:3, what is the


current ratio?
a. 1:3
b. 1:9
c. 3:1
d. 9:1

There is a _____ degrees of inversion between gate


and drain voltages of an FET.
a. Zero
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270

The device used to produce a gradual chance of


impedance at the end of a waveguide is called a
_____.
a. Funnel
b. Load
c. Dummy
d. Horn

In a robots, he axis that allows rotation are often


referred to as _____ joints
a. Revolving
b. Revolute
c. Resolute
d. Rotary

The most widely used combination bias system in


basic transistor amplifier
a. Limited type
b. Current divider type
c. Voltage-divider type
d. Base current type

The open-loop gain of an op-amp is given at


225,000. Find the gain in dB.
a. 1070
b. 107
c. 214
d. 10.7

A _____ is a solid material formed by atoms


bonding together in a fixed pattern.
a. Block
b. Crystal
c. Lattice
d. Pyramid

Elements with 5 or more valence electrons are


called _____.
a. Semi-conductors
b. Conductors
c. Molecule
d. Insulators

When the resistance of the load is high with respect


to the resistance of the source _____ in a circuit is
achieved.
a. Maximum power
b. High efficiency
c. Maximum transfer
d. High voltage

As the input voltage varies within specified limits,


the zener diode maintains a nearly constant output
voltage across its terminal. This is called _____.
a. Auto regulation
b. Specific regulation
c. Line regulation
d. Load regulation

The method of assigning more sectors to the outer


disk tracks is referred to as _____ recording.
a. Random
b. Zone
c. Sector
d. System

_____ is the unit of electrical current flow.


a. Volt
b. Ohm
c. Amepere
d. Watt
e.
According to Ohms Law, what happens to the
circuit current if the circuit resistance increases?
a. Current double
b. Current decreases
c. Current increases
d. Current remains constant

Determine the open loop gain of an Op-am whose


cur-off frequency is 100 Hz with a midrange
voltage gain of 100,000.
a. 7,071
b. 707.1
c. 70,710
d. 70.71

DC biasing is used to establish a steady level of


transistor current. This is called the _____.
a. Operating coordinates
b. Threshold point
c. Range of operation
d. DC operating point

Arc blow can be avoided in electrical welding by


_____
a. Increasing arc length
b. Welding away from the earth ground
connection
c. Using bare electrodes
d. Using AC welding machines

The distance covered or traveled by a waveform


during the time interval of one complete cycle.
a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Time slot
d. Wave time

_____ is the non-linear distortion characterized by


the appearance (at the system output)_ of
frequencies equal to the sums or difference of two
or more frequencies at the input.
a. Differential distortion
b. Inter modulation distortion
c. Mutual distortion
d. Modulated distortion

Find the phase angle between the voltage across and


the current through the circuit when Xc is 25 ohms,
R 100 ohms and Xl is 50 ohms.
a. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the
current
b. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the
current
c. 14 degrees with the voltage leading
the current
d. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the
current
If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the
applied voltage is kept constant, the current will
_____.
a. Be quadrupled
b. Remain the same
c. Be cut in half
d. Be doubled
To produce tin film resistors, which of the
following materials is the most widely used?
a. Titanium
b. Tantalum
c. Nichrome
d. Chromium cermets

List the two advantages of a voltage divider in DC


biasing
a. Unstable, uses two supply voltages
b. Unstable, uses one supply voltage
c. Stable, uses one supply voltages
d. Stable, uses two supply voltages

_____ is a kind of oscilloscope which consist of


narrowband if filter and a local oscillator (receiver)
capable of showing transmitter carriers, spacing,
harmonics and sidebands.
a. Polygraph
b. Harmonics analyzer
c. Spectrum analyzer
d. Computerized tomography

One cycle is equal to how many degrees of rotation


of a conductor in a magnetic field?
a. 270
b. 360
c. 180
d. 90
A measuring device which will result to full scale
reading at shorted terminal condition
a. Voltmeter
b. Ammeter
c. Electrostatic meter
d. Ohmmeter

If the voltage gain for each input of a summing


amplifier with a 4.8 kilo-ohm feedback resistor is
unity, the input resistors must have a value of _____
kilo-ohm.
a. 4.8 times the number of inputs
b. 48
c. 4.8 divided by the number of inputs
d. 4.8

To match the waveguide to the load, _____ devices


are placed in the waveguide.
a. Standing wave
b. Resistive
c. Metal plate
d. Impedance changing

What is the generic term for utilities and programs


needed to operate a computer system?
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. People water
d. Tupper ware

The computer worm that infected computer systems


world-wide in 10 minutes, making it the fastest
computer virus ever known is called _____.
a. Claw Hammer
b. Sledge Hammer
c. SQL Hammer
d. SARS Virus

The channel of JFET is between the _____.


a. Input and output
b. Drain and source
c. Gate and drain
d. Gate and source

What is the common use of a push-pull amplifier?


a. AN OPAM
b. A driver
c. Wideband amplifier
d. A coupler

For a bipolar junction transition(eto tlga yung


nakalagay) (BJT) to operate properly, the basecollector junction should be _____ biased.
a. Positive
b. Forward
c. Negative
d. Reverse

Large centralized data-processing complexes like


multi-national companies, departments and
corporations use which type of general-purpose
computer that operates programs simultaneously?
a. Mini-computer
b. Micro0computer
c. Main-frame computer
d. Super-computer

In parallel resonant LC circuit, what is the


impedance at resonant frequency?
a. Zero
b. The maximum impedance value
c. Infinity
d. Determined solely by the dc resistance

The area in which the axis motion of a robot


manipulator can operate without any obstruction is
called the e_____.
a. Work area
b. Range of operation
c. Range of motion
d. Work envelope

The BEST choice electronic device to turn a device


at a particular voltage is a/an _____.
a. SCR
b. SCS
c. DIAC
d. PUT

What term is used to describe the ability a system to


distinguish between targets that are close together?
a. Radar sensitivity
b. Target designation
c. Radar agility
d. target resolution

What do you call a concept which describes the


relationship of all functional components of a
computer such as CPU and input./output devices?
a. Engineering development
b. Architecture
c. Prototyping
d. Pre-production modeling

The use of feedback to achieve the desired response


of a dynamic system in the presence of
uncertainties, disturbance or constraints is called
_____.
a. Synchronization
b. Response
c. Control
d. Servomechanism

The primary purpose of a voltage regulator is to


provide an output voltage with little or no _____.
a. Figure of merit
b. Value
c. Regulation
d. Variation

In waveguide theory, what causes the currentcarrying area at the center conductor of the coaxial
line to be restricted to a small layer at the surface?
a. Dielectric losses
b. Standing wave
c. Skin effect
d. Copper losses

This peak current specified for a given number of


cycles or portion of a cycle.
a. Surge current
b. Maximum current
c. Peak surge current
d. High current

An electron moves into the electrostatic field


between a positive charge and a negative charge.
Toward which charge will the electron move?
a. Outwards
b. The negative charge
c. The center
d. The positive charge

_____ is the definite discrete amount of energy


required to move an electron from a lower shell to a
higher shell
a. Quantum
b. Positive energy
c. The center
d. The positive charge

Monolithic integrated circuits are usually referred to


as _____.
a. Selenium rectifiers
b. ?? (ndi ko na mabasa)
c. Silicon chips
d. Hybrids

_____ is an intermodulation condition that occurs


when a carrier modulates by an undesired signal.
a. Short modulation
b. Cross modulation
c. Under modulation
d. Over modulation

In microwave tubes, what is the basic principle of


operations of a klystron?
a. Strong electrostatic field
b. Energy transfer and amplification
c. Oscillation
d. Velocity modulation

An English scientist who drew up plans for the first


programmable computer in 1830
a. Vannevar bush
b. William oughtred
c. Charles Babbage
d. Herman hollerith

In an optical coupler, this parameter is the ratio of


the output current to the input current through the
LED, expressed in percentage. What is this ratio?
a. DC current coupling ratio
b. AC current transfer ratio
c. AC current coupling ratio
d. DC current transfer ratio

_____ refers to the difference between the carrier


frequencies of an FM signal and the instantaneous
frequency of its modulated wave.
a. Differential frequency
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulated frequency
d. Frequency band

The most widely used abrasive is _____.


a. Tungsten
b. Graphite
c. Silicon carbide
d. Alumina

The most common bias circuit providing Q-point


stability with a single polarity supply voltage is
what type bias circuit
a. Collector feedback
b. Voltage divider
c. Emitter
d. Base

What happens to the portion of the wave front that


do not satisfy the boundary conditions, when a
wavefront is radiated into a waveguide?
a. It collapses
b. It decreases to zero
c. It is reflected back
d. It increases to maximum

The schokeydiode(eto tlga yungnakalagay. Schokey


diode) is a thyristor that conducts when the voltage
across its terminal exceed the _____ potential.
a. Trigger
b. Breakover
c. Operating
d. Maximum

The value of the drain-to-source voltage of a GFET


at which the drain current becomes constant when
the gate-to-source voltage is zero is called _____
voltage.
a. Breakdown
b. Cut off
c. Threshold
d. Pinch off

Insulators are characterized by a _____ energy gap


between its conduction bands an valence band.
a. Very narrow
b. Wide
c. Very wide
d. Narrow

_____ is an electrical current that flows in one


direction only.
a. Normal current
b. Alternating current
c. Direct current
d. Eddy current

The input resistance at the gate of an FET is _____.


a. Relatively low
b. Zero
c. Extremely high
d. Average

It is the generated in a D.C. motor as armature coils


out the field flux opposes the applied voltage, and
limits the flow of armature current.
a. Electromotive force
b. Field excitation
c. Counter-electromotive force
d. Armature excitation

The person responsible for the researend(as is)


design and development of a complete information
system.
a. PROGRAMMER
b. PEOPLE WARE
c. SYSTEM ANALYST
d. COMPUTER OPERATOR

In a robotic system, how many degrees of freedom


can be given to a manipulator by adding a wrist?
a. Four
b. Six
c. Three
d. Two

Term for energy that is stored in electromagnetic or


electrostatic field.
a. Amperes-joules
b. Joules-coulombs
c. Potential energy
d. Kinetic energy

What do you call the Filter between a corporate


network and the internet that keeps the corporate
network secure from intruders while giving
corporate users unhibited access to the internet?
a. Bandstep (as is)
b. Bandpass
c. Firewall
d. Firestorm
Two basic categories of voltage regulators are
a. Differential, integral
b. Capacitive, inductive
c. Linear switching
d. Centrifugal, centripetal
A measure of the energy absorbed from radiation by
tissue or other biological material and is a equal to
the transfer of 1 x 10-2 Joules energy per kilogram
of material is called a _____.
a. Radical
b. Rad
c. Radian
d. Radius
The type of feedback used to increase amplitude of
output signal.
a. Negative feedback
b. Unwanted feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. Fidelity feedback
A transistor constructed with three-doped
semiconductor region separated by two pn junction
is called a _____.
a. Metal oxide semiconductor FET
b. Field effect transistor
c. Junction field effect transistor
d. Bipolar junction transistor

A type of filter that passes a narrow band of


frequencies though a current and attenuates the
desired band of frequencies that are high or lower
than the desired band of frequencies.
a. Low-pass filter
b. Band-reject filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. High-pass filter

Which of the following are circuit control devices?


a. Switches
b. Solenoid
c. Relays
i. B and C only
ii. A and B only
iii. A, B, and C
iv. A and C only

What is an electric measuring equipment used in


navigation which uses time measurement concept
for a wave to travel from a place receiving station
and back?
a. Tacan
b. OODR
c. ILS
d. DME

In a stand alone supply of power the rationale of


cells making in series is to _____.
a. Increase current capacity
b. Increase voltage output
c. Decrease voltage output
d. Decrease internal resistance

_____ is the total number of magnetic lines of force


in a magnetic field.
a. Magnetic potential
b. Magnetic flux
c. Magnet flux intensity
d. Flux density

An electronic device that can be turned on and


turned off by a gate pulse is called a _____.
a. Bipolar junction transistor
b. Silicon-controlled switch
c. Silicon-controlledrectirifer
d. Shockley diode

A hot-carrier diode is a diode that ____.


a. Emits light when forward biased
b. Switches very fast
c. Varies resistance with temperature
d. Changes its capacitance with voltage

An amplifier exhibits three critical frequencies in its


low-frequency response
a. None of these
b. 167hertz
c. 130 hertz
d. 75 hertz

In a transformer, the principle of electromagnetic


induction is also known as _____.
a. Coupling action
b. Transformation
c. Matching action
d. Transformer action

The symbols 1, 2 and 3 through 9 are what type of


numerals?
a. Boolean
b. Roman
c. Binary
d. Arabic

Type of semiconductor diode varies its internal


capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals
varies.
a. A zener diode
b. A varactor diode
c. A silicon-controlled rectifier
d. A tunnel diode

What is the charge magnitude, Q of a body if it


lacks 5 electrons?
A. 5 x 10-19 Coulomb
B. 5 Coulomb
C. 8 x 10-19 Coulomb
D. 19 x 10-19 Coulomb
ANSWER:
C

The net movement of charged particles in one


direction or another.
A. flow
B. current
C. drift current
D. diffusion current
ANSWER:
B

The rate at which electrons pass a given point in


the circuit gives the magnitude of
A. electron current
B. magnetic current
C. drift current
D. diffusion current
ANSWER:
A

The unit of current.


A. Ampere
B. Ampere/sec.
C. Ampere-sec.
D. Ampere-hr.
ANSWER:
A

The unit Ampere is equivalent to


A. one Coulomb/second
B. one Coulomb/min
C. one Joule/sec
D. one Joule/min
ANSWER:
A

When one coulomb of electric charge


continuously passes a given point every second,
the electric current is said to
A. 1 A
B. 1 mA
C. 1 A
D. 10 A
ANSWER:
C

One ampere is equal to how many electrons per


second?
A. 1 x 1018 electrons/sec.
B. 1 x 1019 electrons/sec.
C. 6.25 x 1018 electrons/sec.
D. 6.25 x 1019 electrons/sec.
ANSWER:
D

The bigger the diameter of a wire,


A. more current can pass
B. less current can pass
C. more heat is generated when current
flow
D. the higher is the electrical resistance
ANSWER: A

If in a material, current can hardly pass, it means


A. the material is very hard
B. the material is very soft
C. the material has high resistance
D. the material has less resistance
ANSWER:
C

The greater the diameter of a wire, the _______ is


the resistance.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. harder
D. bigger
ANSWER:
B

The longer the wire the ________ is the


resistance
A. higher
B. lesser
C. harder
D. smaller
ANSWER:
A

If a conductors cross-sectional area is doubled


and its length is halved, the value of its resistance
will
A. double
B. quadruple
C. decrease by a factor of two
D. decrease by a factor of four
ANSWER:
D

The amount of resistance that a wire has with


regards to the flow of electric current
A. is less for a conductor than for an
insulator
B. is less for an insulator than for a
semiconductor
C. is less for a semiconductor than for a
conductor
D. is high for a semiconductor than for an
insulator
ANSWER:
A

The area of a conductor whose diameter is 0.001


inch is equal to
A. one angstrom
B. one circular mil
C. one micron
D. one steradian
ANSWER:
B

A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional area


A=10-3 m2 has a resistance of 10. Determine the
resistivity of the wire.
A. 10-2 -m
B. 10-3 -m
C. 10-4 -m
D. 10-5 -m
ANSWER:
C

the reciprocal of resistance


A. permeance
B. elastance
C. inductance
D. conductance
ANSWER:
D
The science of physical phenomena at very low
temperature, approaching absolute zero is called
________.
A. crytanalysis
B. cybernetics
C. temperature inversion
D. cryogenics
ANSWER:
D
What happens in the resistance of copper wire
when its temperature is raised?
A. decreased
B. steady
C. increased
D. zero
ANSWER:
C
A wire has a resistance of 5 at room
temperature and a temperature coefficient
=4x10-3/C, calculate the wire resistance at
75C.
A. 8.925
B. 7.925
C. 6.925
D. 6.050
ANSWER:
D
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a
certain wire is known to be 0.004/C at zero
degrees Celsius. What would be the
temperature coefficient at room temperature?
A. 0.00018/C
B. 0.00036/C
C. 0.00180/C
D. 0.00360/C
ANSWER:
D

Where does practically all of the RF current flow


in a conductor?
A. along the surface
B. in the center of the conductor
C. in the electromagnetic field in the
conductor center
D. in the magnetic field around the
conductor
ANSWER:
A

________ is one factor that does not affect


resistance.
A. Cross sectional area
B. Resistivity
C. Mass
D. Length
ANSWER:
C

Why is the resistance of a conductor different for


RF current than for DC?
A. Because of skin effect
B. Because conductors are non-linear
devices
C. Because the insulation conducts current
at radio frequency
D. Because of the Heisenberg effect
ANSWER:
A

The ability of a material to resist current flow


is called resistance. What is (are) the
factor(s) that affect its value?
A. temperature
B. length & cross-sectional area
C. atomic structure
D. all of these
ANSWER:
D

Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric that


has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the 18th
power protons.
A. 29 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
B. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
C. 14.5 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
D. 29 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
ANSWER:
C

Electron volt (eV) is a unit of


A. power
B. energy
C. magnetic field
D. magnetic force
ANSWER:
B

One electron volt (eV) is equivalent to


A. 1.0 watt-sec
B. 1.6 x 10-19 watt-sec
C. 1.0 Joule
D. 1.6 x 10-19 Joules
ANSWER:
D

What law that describes the force of attraction


or repulsion between two charges is directly
proportional to their strengths and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance
between them?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Coulombs third law
D. Coulombs law or law of electrostatics
ANSWER:
D
What is the law whereby the force of attraction
and repulsion between poles is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance
between them?
A. Newtons first law
B. Newtons second law
C. Nortons law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER:
D

Is usually used to detect the presence of electric


charge.
A. experimental charge
B. unit charge
C. dipole
D. test charge
ANSWER:
D

Test charge has a charge of


A. 0 Coulomb
B. +1 Coulomb
C. -1 Coulomb
D. Infinity
ANSWER:
B

Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C are


placed inside a sphere, what is the total charge
of the sphere?
A. +5 Coulomb
B. -6 Coulomb
C. -7 Coulomb
D. +6 Coulomb
ANSWER:
D

Refers to a force of field that exists between


ions where they either repel or attract each
other.
A. Resisting field
B. Potential field
C. Dielectric
D. Electromotive
ANSWER:
D

The imaginary lines representing the electric


field.
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER:
D

What is true in visualizing electric field lines of


force from a charge body?
A. Field lines are continuous curve and
they never intersect.
B. The spacing between these lines
increases as they get far from the
charged body.
C. The number of field lines is directly
proportional to the magnitude of the
electric field.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER:
D

What do you call the total number of electric


lines of force in an electric field?
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER:
B

The number of lines per unit area in a plane


perpendicular to the electric lines of force.
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER:
C

A combination of two charges, with equal charge


magnitude but opposite signs.
A. magnetic dipole
B. static dipole
C. dynamic dipole
D. electric dipole
ASNWER:
D

Electric lines of force leave and enter the charge


surface at what angle?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 90
ANSWER:
D

The space outside or surrounding an electric


charge where it has a force of attraction or
repulsion.
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Electromagnetic field
D. Electric flux
ANSWER:
A

Find the dielectric constant of air.


A. approximately 1
B. approximately 0
C. approximately 2
D. approximately 4
ANSWER:
A

Electric field intensity is measured in terms of


A. Volts/meter
B. Newtons/meter
C. Watts/meter
D. Amperes/meter
ANSWER:
A

The absolute permittivity of air or free space.


A. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
B. 36 x 10-9 F/m
C. 1/36 x 10-19 F/m
D. 36 x 10-19 F/m
ANSWER:
A

Electric field intensity is


A. a scalar quantity
B. a vector quantity
C. an absolute value
D. a relative value
ANSWER:
B

The relative permittivity of air.


A. 0
B. 1
C. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER:
B

Electric flux is a/an ________ quantity.


A. scalar
B. vector
C. absolute
D. relative
ANSWER:
A

Calculate the permittivity of a material with


relative permittivity of 5.
A. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
B. 4.42 x 10-11 F/m
C. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER:
B

Electric flux density is a/an ________ quantity.


A. scalar
B. vector
C. absolute
D. relative
ANSWER:
B

What is the term used to express the amount of


electrical energy stored in an electrostatic
field?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Coulombs
D. Joules
ANSWER:
D

How does permittivity affect electric field


intensity?
A. It causes the field intensity to increase.
B. It causes the field intensity to decrease.
C. It causes the field intensity to fluctuate
up and down.
D. It has no effect on field intensity.
ANSWER:
B

Relative permittivity is also known as


A. dielectric constant
B. dielectric strength
C. isolation strength
D. permeability
ANSWER:
A

Most materials relative permittivity lies between


A. 0.01 1
B. 1 10
C. 10 50
D. 50 100
ANSWER:
B

Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +7 C are


inside a sphere, what is the total electric flux
passing through the surface of the sphere?
A. 5 Coulombs
B. 6 Coulombs
C. 7 Coulombs
D. 8 Coulombs
ANSWER:
B
An electric charge produces a total electric
field of 6 Coulombs, calculate the electric flux
density in an area of one square meter (1m2).
A. 1 C/m2
B. 2 C/m2
C. 4 C/m2
D. 6 C/m2
ANSWER:
D
The measure of density of the electric charge
A. Electric gradient
B. Electric current
C. Electric charge
D. Electric potential
ANSWER:
D
The ability of the material to store electrical
potential energy under the influence of an
electric field.
A. capacity
B. permeability
C. permittivity
D. conductivity
ANSWER:
C

Charge body at rest is said to exhibit electric


field, which interacts with other bodies. The
study of this phenomena is known as
A. electricity
B. electrostatics
C. electromagnetism
D. field interactions
ANSWER:
B

The value of k in Coulombs electrostatic force


equation ( F = kQ 1 Q 2 /r2 ) is oftentimes
expressed as 1/4. What is ?
A. absolute permeability
B. absolute permittivity
C. relative permeability
D. relative permittivity
ANSWER:
B

The basic law for interaction of charged bodies at


rest.
A. Charged law
B. Gauss law
C. Faradays law
D. Coulombs law
ANSWER:
D

The measure of electric field strength per unit


length is known as electric field intensity or
simply electric intensity. What is its unit?
A. Volt/meter (V/m)
B. Joules/Coulomb-meter (J/Cm)
C. Newton/Coulomb (N/C)
D. All of the above
ANSWER:
D

The force between the two electrically charged


body is called
A. electromotive force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromagnetic force
D. magnetic force
ANSWER:
B

Calculate the electric field intensity 10cm from


a charge Q=5nC.
A. 450 N/C
B. 900 N/C
C. 4.5 x 103 N/C
D. 9.0 x 103 N/C
ANSWER:
C

Determine the magnitude of the electric field


inside a sphere that encloses a net charge of
2C.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. infinite
ANSWER:
A

Determine the force in Newton between 4C


charges separated by 0.1 meter in air.
A. 1.44 N
B. 14.4 N
C. 144 N
D. 1440 N
ANSWER:
B

Calculate the total electric field at the surface


of a sphere of radius r=1cm, and enclosing a
net charge of 2C.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. infinite
ANSWER:
C

What will happen when two opposite charges


get closer?
A. repels less
B. attracts less
C. repels more
D. attracts more
ANSWER:
D

A 2nC point charge will produce what


potential at 2m away?
A. 4.0 Volts
B. 6.0 Volts
C. 7.5 Volts
D. 9.0 Volts
ANSWER:
D

A charged body in free space produces 10-V


potential at a distance 25cn away. What will be
the potential at 50cm away?
A. 5.0 Volts
B. 7.5 Volts
C. 10.0 Volts
D. 15.0 Volts
ANSWER:
A

The force between two electrically charged body


is
A. directly proportional to the charge
B. inversely proportional to the charge
C. not affected by the charge
D. universally constant
ANSWER:
A
In 1784, who demonstrated that the force
between charges is inversely related to the
square of the distance between them?
A. Maxwell
B. Gauss
C. Tesla
D. Coulomb
ANSWER:
D

What do you call the phenomenon whereby


substance attracts pieces of iron?
A. Permeability
B. Magnetism
C. Naturalism
D. Electromagnetism
ANSWER:
B

Is believed to be the pole where the magnetic


lines of force are originating.
A. North Pole
B. South Pole
C. Unit Pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER:
A

The condition in which a substance attracts


pieces of iron is known as
A. Electromagnetism
B. Electrolysis
C. Magnetism
D. Magnetic Induction
ANSWER:
C

What do you call a pole that when place in air


with a similar and equal pole will cause a force
of repulsion of 1/4 Newtons?
A. South Pole
B. Unit pole
C. Convergence pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER:
B

A substance that attracts pieces iron is known


as
A. magnet
B. conductor
C. ferrite
D. superconductor
ANSWER:
A

In a magnet, the straight line passing through


the two poles is called
A. real axis
B. imaginary axis
C. Cartesian axis
D. magnetic axis
ANSWER:
D

Group of magnetically aligned atoms.


A. Lattice
B. Crystal
C. Domain
D. Range
ANSWER:
C

The phenomenon in which a substance


becomes a magnet when placed near a magnet.
A. magnetic transfer
B. magnetic induction
C. electromagnetism
D. magnetism
ANSWER:
B

In a magnet, what do you call the point in


which the magnetic lines of force is
maximum?
A. maximum pole
B. intensified pole
C. unit pole
D. magnetic pole
ANSWER:
D

A force which causes a substance to become a


magnet.
A. magnetizing force
B. magnetomotive
C. creative force
D. electromagnetic force
ANSWER:
A

What do you call the quantity of magnetism


retained by a magnetic material after the
withdrawal of a magnetizing force?
A. Left over magnetism
B. Coercivity
C. Hysteresis
D. Residual magnetism
ANSWER:
D

Is the property of magnetic materials, which


retain magnetism after the withdrawal of
magnetizing force.
A. retentivity
B. permeability
C. reluctivity
D. susceptability
ANSWER:
A

A natural magnet
A. loadstone
B. carbon
C. lodestone
D. magnesium
ANSWER:
C

Which of the following refers to a


characteristic of a magnetic line of force?
A. Travels from south to north through the
surrounding medium of a bar magnet
B. Travels back and forth between the
north and south pole of a bar magnet
C. Travels from north to south through the
surrounding medium of a bar magnet
D. Stay stationary between the north and
the south of a bar magnet
ANSWER:
C

A substance having high retentivity is best


suited in making
A. an electromagnet
B. a temporary magnet
C. a permanent magnet
D. two pole magnet
ANSWER:
C

Materials with permeability slightly less than


that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER:
A

Which of the materials below that can be easily


magnetized?
A. soft magnetic materials
B. hard magnetic materials
C. low conductive materials
D. high conductive materials
ANSWER:
A

Materials with permeability slightly greater


than that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER:
B

Materials that can be easily magnetized in both


directions
A. soft magnetic materials
B. hard magnetic materials
C. diamagnetic
D. paramagnetic
ANSWER:
A

What do you call materials, which possess very


high permeabilities?
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER:
C

Ability of a material to conduct magnetic flux


through it refers to
A. permittivity
B. permeability
C. reluctivity
D. conductivity
ANSWER:
B

What is the relative permeability


paramagnetic substance?
A. slightly greater than 1
B. very much greater than 1
C. slightly less than 1
D. very much smaller than 1
ANSWER:
A

The ability to concentrate magnetic lines of


force.
A. retentivity
B. permeability
C. susceptability
D. reluctivity
ANSWER:
B

The permeability of free space.


A. 4 x 10-7 H/m
B. 12.56 x 10-7 F/m
C. 8.854 x 10-7 H/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER:
A

Permeability of a material means:


A. The ability of the material to conduct
electric field
B. The conductivity of the material for
electromagnetic field
C. The ability of the material to hold
magnetic flux
D. The conductivity of the material for
magnetic lines of force
ANSWER:
D

Nonmetallic materials that has ferromagnetic


properties.
A. termites
B. ferrites
C. ferrous
D. loadstone
ANSWER:
B

Cores of magnetic equipment use magnetic


material which has
A. very low permeability
B. moderate permeability
C. low permeability
D. high permeability
ANSWER:
D

The ratio of material permeability to the


permeability of air or vacuum.
A. relative conductivity
B. relative permeability
C. inverse permeability
D. inverse permittivity
ANSWER:
B
What is the relative permeability of air?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4 x 10-7 H/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER:
B

of

Hydrogen is an example of a _________


material.
A. diamagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. paramagnetic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
A

Cobalt is an example of a _________ material.


A. diamagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. paramagnetic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
B

The space outside a magnet where its poles has


a force of attraction or repulsion on another
magnetic pole.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER:
A
The imaginary lines representing the magnetic
field.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER:
D
What do you call the total number of magnetic
lines of force in a magnetic field?
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER:
B
The number of lines per unit area in a plane
perpendicular to the magnetic lines of force.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER:
C
The direction of field lines outside a magnet is
A. from north to south pole
B. from south to north pole
C. either from north to south or south to
north pole
D. dependent on the magnets orientation
with respect to the earths magnetic
pole
ANSWER:
C

The entire group of magnetic field lines


flowing outward from the north pole of a
magnet.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux density
C. magnetic flux
D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER:
C

Magnetic lines of force are called


A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux density
C. magnetic flux
D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER:
C
What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI system?
A. Weber
B. Maxwell
C. Tesla
D. Gauss
ANSWER:
A
The unit of magnetic flux density in SI:
A. Gauss
B. Weber
C. Maxwell
D. Tesla
ANSWER:
D

A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an area


of 5 sqcm. results in flux density of
A. 5,000 Gauss (G)
B. 125,000 G
C. 5,000 Tesla (T)
D. 125,000 T
ANSWER:
A

Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G) having


a flux of 12,000 Mx through a perpendicular
area of 6cm.
A. 200 G
B. 2,000 G
C. 7,200 G
D. 72,000 G
ANSWER:
B

What does a gaussmeter measure?


A. flux
B. magnetic field
C. magnetic flux density
D. mmf
ANSWER:
C

The capacity of a substance to become


magnetized. This is expressed as a ratio
between the magnetization produced in a
substance to the magnetizing force producing
it.
A. magnetic conductivity
B. magnetic susceptibility
C. magnetic resistivity
D. magnetic reluctivity
ANSWER:
B

The typical saturation flux density for most


magnetic materials.
A. 0.1 Wb/m2
B. 2 Wb/m2
C. 10 Wb/m2
D. 20 Wb/m2
ANSWER:
B

The force between two magnetic poles is


_________ permeability of the medium.
A. directly proportional to the
B. inversely proportional to the
C. not dependent of the
D. exponentially proportional to the
ANSWER:
B

If the distance between two magnetic poles is


halve, the force between them
A. decreases two times
B. decreases four times
C. increases two times
D. increases four times
ANSWER:
D
A force of 20 N is acting on a 10 Wb magnetic
pole, calculate the intensity of the magnetic
field?
A. 0.5 N/Wb
B. 2 N/Wb
C. 10 N/Wb
D. 20 N/Wb
ANSWER:
B
Unit of permeability
A. Henry/meter (H/m)
B. Farad/meter (F/m)
C. Henry-meter (H-m)
D. Farad-meter (F-m)
ANSWER:
A
The unit of permittivity
A. Henry/meter (H/m)
B. Farad/meter (F/m)
C. Henry-meter (H-m)
D. Farad-meter (F-m)
ANSWER:
B
Magnetic intensity is
A. a vector quantity
B. a scalar quantity
C. an imaginary quantity
D. either a vector or scalar
ANSWER:
A
The Gauss is a unit of
A. permeability
B. electromagnetic force
C. magnetic force
D. magnetic flux density
ANSWER:
D

What is the unit of flux in cgs?


A. Ampere-turn (At)
B. Coulomb/sec. (C/s)
C. Maxwell (Mx)
D. Gauss
ANSWER:
C

One Weber is equivalent to


A. 108 Maxwells
B. 106 Maxwells
C. 104 Maxwells
D. 102 Maxwells
ANSWER:
A

The equivalent of 1 x 109 Maxwells is


A. 1 Weber
B. 10 Weber
C. 100 Weber
D. 1,000 Weber
ANSWER:
B

A magnetic flux of 500,000,000 lines is


equivalent to
A. 5 x 108 Maxwells
B. 5 Weber
C. 500 x 106 MAxwells
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

The unit of flux density in mks


A. Gauss
B. Weber/m2
C. Maxwell
D. Tesla
ANSWER:
B

What do you call the force that sets up or tends


to set up magnetic flux in a magnetic circuit?
A. electromotive force
B. potential difference
C. magnetomotive force
D. dynamic force
ANSWER:
C

Voltage in electrical circuits is analogous to


_________ in magnetic circuits.
A. Ampere-turn
B. Magnetomotive force
C. Magnetizing force
D. Flux
ANSWER:
B

Electrical current is analogous to _________ in


magnetic circuits.
A. Ampere-turn
B. Magnetomotive force
C. Magnetizing force
D. Flux
ANSWER:
D

__________ capability
permeance.
A. Admittance
B. Conductance
C. Reluctance
D. Resistance
ANSWER:
B

Resistance in electrical circuits is analogous to


_________ in magnetic circuits.
A. Conductance
B. Permeance
C. Elastance
D. reluctance
ANSWER:
D

is

analogous

to

The property of a material which opposes the


creation of magnetic flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. reluctance
ANSWER:
D

The Oersted (Oe) is the same as


A. 1 Gb/cm
B. 1 Gb/m
C. 10 Gb/cm
D. 10 Gb/cm
ANSWER:
A

The unit of reluctance


A. Gilbert
B. Tesla
C. At/Wb
D. Gauss
ANSWER:
C

It is the specific reluctance of a material.


A. resistivity
B. retentivity
C. reluctivity
D. permeability
ANSWER:
C
At/m is a unit of
A. magnetic field
B. reluctance
C. magnetizing force
D. magnetic power
ANSWER:
C

The reciprocal of reluctance


A. conductance
B. permeance
C. elastance
D. capacitance
ANSWER:
B

Permeance is analogous to
A. conductance
B. resistance
C. impedance
D. elastance
ANSWER:
A

Magnetomotive force has a unit of


A. Volt (V)
B. Watt (W)
C. Joule (J)
D. Ampere-turn (At)
ANSWER:
D

The cgs unit of magnetomotive force


A. Volt
B. Weber
C. Gilbert
D. Ampere-turn
ANSWER:
C

One Gilbert is equal to


A. 0.0796 At
B. 0.796 At
C. 7.96 At
D. 79.6 At
ANSWER:
B

One Ampere-turn (At) is equivalent to


A. 0.126 Gilbert
B. 1.260 Gilberts
C. 12.60 Gilberts
D. 126 Gilberts
ANSWER:
B

The current needed for a coil of 200 turns to


provide a 400 ampere turn magnetizing force is
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 6 A
D. 8 A
ANSWER:
A

Is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the


readiness of a material to develop magnetic
flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. conductance
ANSWER:
B
Magnetic circuit property that permits flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. conductance
ANSWER:
B
It is easier to establish flux line in soft iron
than it is to establish them in air, this is
because iron has a lower
A. Permeance
B. Inductance
C. elastance
D. reluctance
ANSWER:
D

Determine the ampere-turns when a 10 V


battery is connected across a solenoid having
100 turns and a resistance of 5 .
A. 50 At
B. 200 At
C. 100 At
D. 1,000 At
ANSWER:
B

What is residual magnetism?


A. The external magnetic field when the
current is flowing through the exciting
coil.
B. The flux density, which exist in the iron
core when the magnetic field intensity
is reduced to zero.
C. The flux density, which exist in the iron
core when the magnetic field intensity
is at its maximum value.
D. The flux density when the magnetic
core is saturated.
ANSWER:
B

When you demagnetize property by applying


an AC field and then gradually reduced it to
zero, it is called
A. damping
B. decaying
C. degaussing
D. gaussing
ANSWER:
C
In a magnetic circuit, a flux that drifts away
from its intended path is called
A. lost flux
B. linked flux
C. drift flux
D. leakage flux
ANSWER:
D
Is the quantity of magnetizing force needed to
counter balance the residual magnetism of a
magnetic material.
A. hysteresis
B. degaussing
C. retentivity
D. coercivity
ANSWER:
D
What do you call the loss of electrical energy
in counter balancing the residual magnetism in
each cycle?
A. hysteresis
B. magnetomotive
C. leakage
D. coercivity
ANSWER:
D

The amount of magnetic field needed to


remove residual magnetism from a transformer
core during each half cycle is called the
A. coercive force
B. residual field
C. hysteresis field
D. demagnetizing force
ANSWER:
A

If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.3 A of


current, calculate the magnetomotive force in
Gilbert.
A. 163.3
B. 16.33
C. 1.633
D. 0.1633
ANSWER:
A

An advantage of an electromagnet over a


permanent magnet
A. An electromagnet can be demagnetized
B. An electromagnet is simpler
C. An electromagnet is cheaper
D. An electromagnet can be switched ON
and OFF
ANSWER:
D

Electromagnet whose core is in the form of a


close magnetic ring
A. solenoid
B. relay
C. toroid
D. circular
ANSWER:
C

Magnetic flux can always be attributed to


A. static charged particles
B. motion of charge particles
C. static electric field
D. every applied potential
ANSWER:
B

What is a magnetic field?


A. A force set up when current flows
through a conductor.
B. A force set up when a charged body is
at static.
C. The space between two electrically
charged particles.
D. The space around a conductor.
ANSWER:
A

Which of the following determines the strength


of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. amount of current
B. diameter of the conductor
C. length of the conductor
D. amount of voltage
ANSWER:
A

The magnetic flux around a straight, current


carrying wire, is stronger
A. near the edge
B. near the wire
C. at the center
D. at both edge
ANSWER:
B

The physical motion resulting from the forces


of magnetic fields.
A. motor action
B. linear motion
C. rectilinear motion
D. generator action
ANSWER:
A

In what direction is the magnetic field about a


conductor when current is flowing?
A. In a direction determined by the lefthand rule.
B. Always in a clock wise direction.
C. Always in a counter clockwise
direction.
D. In a direction determined by the righthand screw rule.
ANSWER:
A

What law in electronics where an induced


current will be in such a direction that its own
magnetic field will oppose the magnetic field
that produces the same?
A. Electromagnetic law
B. Nortons law
C. Lenz law
D. Maxwell law
ANSWER:
C

If the electrical current carried by each of the


two long parallel wire is doubled, and their
separation is also doubled, the force between
them
A. also doubles
B. increases by a factor of four
C. decreases by a factor of four
D. decreases by a factor of two
ANSWER:
A

A changing magnetic field


A. produces an electric field
B. induces potential
C. produces a fluctuating electric field
D. produces a steady electric field
ANSWER:
B

The emf induced in a coil due to the change of


its flux linked with it is called
A. mutual emf
B. crossfire induced emf
C. self induced emf
D. virtually induced emf
ANSWER:
C

If two coils are close enough together for their


magnetic fields to interact, a change in current
in one will induce a corresponding voltage in
the other, This condition is known as
A. self-inductance
B. mutual inductance
C. crossfire inductance
D. linked inductance
ANSWER:
B

If the magnetic flux through a coil changes, the


induced EMF acts in such a direction as to
A. oppose that change
B. magnify that change
C. augment that change
D. amplify that change
ANSWER:
A

When a conductor is moved through a


magnetic field a voltage is always induced.
The amount of voltage is always proportional
to
A. the diameter of the conductor used
B. the length of the conductor
C. the distance of the conductor from the
field
D. the rate at which the conductor is
moved
ANSWER:
D

Reversing the flow of current in a circuit


A. reverses the magnetic polarity
B. increase the magnetic field intensity
C. decreases the magnetic intensity
D. enhances hysteresis
ANSWER:
A

Is used to maintain strength of magnetic field.


A. storer
B. energizer
C. gausser
D. keeper
ANSWER:
D

What law that describes the force of attraction


or repulsion between two magnetic poles is
directly proportional to their strengths?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Amperes law
D. Gauss law
ANSWER:
A

What is the law whereby the force of attraction


or repulsion between poles is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance
between them?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Coulombs third law
D. Coulombs law
ANSWER:
B

The term of energy that is stored in an


electromagnetic or electrostatic field
A. kinetic energy
B. static energy
C. dynamic energy
D. potential energy
ANSWER:
D
What is meant by back EMF?
A. A voltage that is applied in the reverse
direction.
B. An EMF that is dude to the fly wheel
effect.
C. An EMF that is generated from the
back of an electromagnet.
D. A voltage that opposes the applied
EMF.
ANSWER:
D
When current in a conductor increases, Lenz
law states that the self-induced potential will
A. produce current opposite to the
increasing current
B. tend to produce more magnetic field
C. tend to augment the increase in current
D. produce current with the same direction
to the increasing current
ANSWER:
A
If a magnetic flux occurs across 100 turns at a
rate of 2 Wb/sec. What is the induced voltage
as per Faradays law?
A. 100 V
B. 400 V
C. 200 V
D. 800 V
ANSWER:
C
The circuit element that is used represent the
energy stored in a magnetic field.
A. resistance
B. capacitance
C. inductance
D. elastance
ANSWER:
C
Which of the given below can produce the
most induced voltage?
A. 1 A dc
B. 1 A, 60 Hz
C. 50 A dc
D. 1 A, 400 Hz
ANSWER:
D
In all cases of electromagnetic induction, the
current set-up by an induced voltage tends to
create flux whose direction opposes any
change in the existing flux. This law is called
A. Amperes law
B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER:
B

In electromagnetism, what law that determines


the polarity of an induced voltage?
A. Amperes law
B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER:
B
In electromagnetism, what law that determines
the amount of induced voltage?
A. Amperes law
B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER:
D

Electromotive force (emf) is induced whenever


a conductor cuts magnetic flux
A. Faradays first law
B. Faradays second law
C. Coulombs first law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER:
A

The magnitude of electromotive force (emf)


that is induced when a conductor cuts magnetic
flux is directly proportional to its rate.
A. Faradays first law
B. Faradays second law
C. Coulombs first law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER:
B

The effect that describes the ability of a


mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire to
recognize rapid switching of magnetization
when subjected to a DC magnetic field.
A. Wiegand effect
B. Wertheim effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER:
A

The concept whereby a small voltage is


generated by a conductor with current in an
external magnetic field is known as
A. Wiegand effect
B. Hall effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER:
B

_________ is called the magnetic field.


A. The force that drives current through a
resistor
B. Current flow through space around a
permanent magnet
C. The force between the plates of charged
capacitor
D. A force set up when current flow
through a conductor
ANSWER:
D

The natural magnet refers to


A. steel
B. soft iron
C. magnesia
D. loadstone (lodestone)
ANSWER:
D

The force between two magnetic poles in


relation to their pole strength is ________.
A. not related
B. inversely proportional
C. directly proportional
D. independent
ANSWER:
C
What do you call an amplifier which has an
output current flowing during the whole input
current cycle?
A. class AB amplifier
B. class B amplifier
C. class A amplifier
D. class C amplifier
ANSWER:
C

What is the distinguishing feature of a class C


amplifier?
A. Output is present for less than 180
degrees of the input signal cycle
B. Output is present for the entire signal
cycle
C. Output is present for exactly 180
degrees of the input signal cycle
D. Output is present for more than 180
degrees but less than 60 degrees of the
input signal cycle
ANSWER:
A

A full 360 sine-wave signal is applied as an


input to an unknown class of amplifier, if the
output delivers only a pulse of less than 180, of
what class does this amplifier belongs?
A. class AB
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
ANSWER:
C

Class A amplifier can be built from what


transistor configuration?
A. common base
B. common emitter
C. common collector
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which class of amplifiers that is intended for


pulse operation?
A. class B
B. class C
C. class D
D. class S
ANSWER:
C

If a transistor amplifier provides a 360 output


signal, it is classified as
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
ANSWER:
A

An amplifier that delivers an output signal of


180 only.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class AB
D. class D
ANSWER:
B

How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify


either amplitude modulated (AM) or frequency
modulated (FM) signals?
A. class C
B. class BC
C. class D
D. class S
ANSWER:
D

Which class of amplifiers that has the highest


efficiency?
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
ANSWER:
D

What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A


amplifier?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 78.5%
D. above 90%
ANSWER:
A

A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal


swings more than 180 but less than 360.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class AB
ANSWER:
D

A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only


25%, but this can be increased if the output is
coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is
its efficiency will reach due to coupling?
A. 36.5%
B. 50%
C. 68.5%
D. 78.5%
ANSWER:
B

Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of


180 and have a maximum efficiency of
A. 50%
B. 68.5%
C. 78.55
D. above 90%
ANSWER:
C

Transistorized class C power amplifiers will


usually have an efficiency of
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 78.5%
ANSWER:
B

For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is


mostly used. How efficient is a class D amplifier?
A. about 25% efficient
B. less efficient than class B
C. more efficient than class A but less
efficient than class B
D. its efficiency reaches over 90%
ANSWER:
D

An amplifier of class AB means its output signal


is between the output of class B and A, such that
it varies from 180 (class B) to 360 (class A).
How about its efficiency?
A. Efficiency of class AB is in between
the efficiency of class A and B, that is
from 25% - 78.5%.
B. It is always as efficient as class A
(25%).
C. It is always as efficient as class B
(78.5%)
D. The efficiency of class AB is the
average of the efficiencies of both class
A and class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 =
51.75%
ANSWER:
A

Among the given amplifiers below, which is the


most efficient?
A. class A (series-fed)
B. class A (transformer-coupled)
C. class A (directly-coupled)
D. class A (capacitor-coupled)
ANSWER:
B

In order to have the best efficiency and stability,


where at the loadline should a solid state power
amplifier be operated?
A. Just below the saturation point
B. At 1.414 times the saturation point
C. Just above the saturation point
D. At the saturation point
ANSWER:
A

In most transistor class A amplifiers, the


quiescent point is set at
A. near saturation
B. near cutoff
C. below cutoff
D. at the center
ANSWER:
D

For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Qpoint is set at


A. the top of the load line
B. saturation
C. the center
D. cutoff
ANSWER:
D

The Q-point for class A amplifier is at the active


region, while for class B it is at cutoff region,
how about for class AB?
A. it is slightly below saturation
B. it is slightly above cutoff
C. it is slightly above saturation
D. it is at the saturation region
ANSWER:
B

Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier


positioned?
A. at saturation region
B. at active region
C. at cutoff region
D. below cutoff region
ANSWER:
D
The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or
positioned at what region in the load line?
A. below saturation
B. above cutoff
C. at cutoff
D. any of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which of the amplifiers given below that is


considered as non-linear?
A. class A
B. class B
C. class AB
D. class C
ANSWER:
D
Which amplifiers can be used for linear
amplification?
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class A or B
ANSWER:
D
What do you call an amplifier that is biased to
class C but modulates over the same portion of
the curve as if it were biased to class B?
A. class S
B. class D
C. class AB
D. class BC
ANSWER:
D
Two class B amplifiers connected such that one
amplifies the positive cycle and the other
amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both
output signals are then coupled by a transformer
to the load.
A. transformer-coupled
push
pull
amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary
push-pull
amplifier
D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
ANSWER:
A
A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp
transistors to amplify the positive and negative
cycles respectively.
A. transformer-coupled
push
pull
amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary
push-pull
amplifier
D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
ANSWER:
B
A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp
as its final stage. The circuit configuration looks
like the complementary-symmetry.
A. transformer-coupled
push
pull
amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary
push-pull
amplifier
D. feed-back pair amplifier
ANSWER:
C

Amplifiers conversion efficiency are calculated


using what formula?
A. ac-power/dc-power
B. ac-power/dissipated power
C. dc-power/ac-power
D. A or B are correct
ANSWER:
D

Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least


distortion?
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
ANSWER:
A

A type of distortion wherein the output signal


does not have the desired linear relation to the
input.
A. linear distortion
B. nonlinear distortion
C. cross-over distortion
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
B

Distortion that is due to the inability of an


amplifier to amplify equally well all the
frequencies present at the input signal.
A. nonlinear distortion
B. amplitude distortion
C. harmonic distortion
D. cross-over distortion
ANSWER:
B

A nonlinear distortion in which the output


consists of undesired harmonic frequencies of the
input signal.
A. amplitude distortion
B. frequency distortion
C. cross-over distortion
D. harmonic distortion
ANSWER:
D

Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an


output signal having a fundamental amplitude of
3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V.
A. 1.0%
B. 10%
C. 23.33%
D. 43.33%
ANSWER:
B

An amplifier has the following percent harmonic


distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% and D4=1%. What
is the amplifier % THD?
A. 5.33%
B. 11.22%
C. 16.0%
D. 22.11%
ANSWER:
B

Which of the following refers to the gain of a


circuit?
A. Input quantity of an amplifier divided
by the output quantity.
B. The difference between the input
voltage and the output voltage of a
circuit.
C. The ratio of the output quantity to input
quantity of an amplifier.
D. The total increase in output quality over
the input quantity of an amplifier.
ANSWER:
C

A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the


output collector of the first stage provides input
to the emitter of the second stage. The final
output is then taken from the collector of the
second stage.
A. cascade configuration
B. cascode configuration
C. quasi-complementary
D. complementary amplifier
ANSWER:
B

Famous transistor amplifier configuration


designed to eliminate the so called Miller effect.
A. cascode amplifier
B. darlington amplifier
C. differential amplifier
D. complementary-symmetry
ANSWER:
A

The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is


A. the sum
B. the average of each
C. the product
D. 100% the sum
ANSWER:
C

What are the transistor configurations used in a


cascade amplifier?
A. common-base and common-emitter
B. common-base and common-collector
C. common-collector and common-emitter
D. common-emitter and common-base
ANSWER:
D

If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in


cascade, how much is the overall gain?
A. 72
B. 24
C. 512
D. 8
ANSWER:
C

Transistor configuration known to have a superbeta (2).


A. cascade
B. cascode
C. darlington
D. differential
ANSWER:
C

A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a


conventional series manner, the output of one
stage is forward-coupled to the next stage.
A. cascaded amplifier
B. cascoded amplifier
C. darlington configuration
D. feed-back pair configuration
ANSWER:
A

What is the approximate threshold voltage


between the base-emitter junction of a silicon
darlington transistor?
A. 0.3 V
B. 0.6 V
C. 1.6 V
D. 3.0 V
ANSWER:
C

Transistor arrangement that operates like a


darlington but uses a combination of pnp and npn
transistors instead of both npn.
A. differential
B. common
C. cascode
D. feedback pair
ANSWER:
D

A
direct-coupled
two-stage
transistor
configuration wherein the output of the firs
transistor is directly coupled and amplified by the
second transistor. This configuration gives a very
high current gain.
A. cascade configuration
B. cascode configuration
C. darlington configuration
D. feed-back pair
ANSWER:
C

An amplifier basically constructed from two


transistors and whose output is proportional to
the difference between the voltages applied to its
two inputs.
A. differential amplifier
B. cascode amplifier
C. complementary amplifier
D. quasi-complementary amplifier
ANSWER:
A
An amplifier having high direct-current stability
and high immunity to oscillation, this is initially
used to perform analog-computer functions such
as summing and integrating.
A. operational amplifier (op-amp)
B. parametric amplifier (par-amp)
C. instrumentation amplifier
D. DC-amplifier
ANSWER:
A
One of the most versatile and widely used
electronic device in linear applications.
A. SCR
B. FET
C. UJT
D. op-amp
ANSWER:
D
It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with
very high input impedance and very low output
impedance.
A. par-amp
B. op-amp
C. differential amp
D. complementary amp
ANSWER:
B
What are the possible applications of operational
amplifiers (op-amps)?
A. ac and dc-amplifiers
B. oscillators and signal conditioning
C. voltage-level detectors and comparators
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D
An operational amplifier must have at least how
many usable terminals?
A. 3 terminals
B. 5 terminals
C. 8 terminals
D. 14 terminals
ANSWER:
B

The circuit at the input stage of operational


amplifiers
A. differential amplifier
B. cascaded amplifier
C. current mirror
D. complementary amplifier
ANSWER:
A

An amplifier whose output is proportional to the


difference between the voltages applied to its two
inputs.
A. differential amplifier
B. differencing
C. delta amp
D. cascode-amp
ANSWER:
A

In op-amps functional block diagram, what


follows the differential amplifier?
A. cascode-amplifier
B. complementary amplifier
C. level shifter
D. high gain amplifier
ANSWER:
D

A good op-amp has a


A. very high input resistance
B. very low input resistance
C. very high output resistance
D. very low CMRR
ANSWER:
A

Ideally, op-amps have infinite input resistance


and ________ output resistance.
A. infinite
B. zero
C. variable
D. a highly stabilized
ANSWER:
B

How does the input of an op-amp made high?


A. by using super beta transistor at the
input differential stage
B. by using FETs at the input differential
stage
C. by connecting a very high resistance in
series with the input differential stage
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D

What type of amplifier commonly used at the


output stage of op-amps?
A. differential amplifier
B. cascade-amplifier
C. complementary amplifier
D. darlington stage amplifier
ANSWER:
C

The transistor configuration used at the output


complementary stage of most op-amps
A. cascode configuration
B. common emitter
C. common collector
D. common base
ANSWER:
C

Why do most op-amps use a common collector at


the output stage?
A. to have a higher output power
B. to have a better frequency response
C. to have a low harmonic distortion
D. to have a very low output resistance
ANSWER:
D

The stage followed by the output complementary


in op-amps functional block diagram.
A. level shifter
B. phase shifter
C. current mirror
D. polarizer
ANSWER:
A
What is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps?
A. to set and/or adjust the output voltage
to zero when the input signal is zero
B. to set and/or adjust the input offset
voltage to zero
C. to shift the input offset current to zero
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
A
Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar
power supply, however, we can also use single
polarity power supply by
A. generating a reference voltage above
ground.
B. floating the negative supply terminal
(V-) of the op-amp.
C. simply connecting the negative supply
terminal (V-) of the op-amp to ground.
D. isolating the negative supply terminal
(V-) by a capacitor.
ANSWER:
A

Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the


inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs. What
is the significance of its name?
A. If a sine-wave is applied to the
inverting (-) input, the output will be
inverted or shifted by 180, while if
applied to the non-inverting (+) there
will be no phase shift at the output.
B. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-)
input, the positive pulse becomes
negative at the output and vice versa,
while if applied at the non-inverting
(+) there will be no reversal of the
pulse at the output.
C. In dc amplifier applications, increasing
input at the inverting (-) terminal
causes the output to decrease and vice
versa, while at the non-inverting (+)
input, the output magnitude goes with
the input.
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER:
D

When the same signal is applied to both inverting


and non-inverting input terminals of an ideal opamp, the output voltage would be
A. zero (0) V
B. +VSAT
C. VSAT
D. offset voltage
ANSWER:
A

The operating mode of an op-amp, when both


inputs are tied together or when the input signal
is common to both inputs.
A. differential mode
B. rejection mode
C. double-ended mode
D. common mode
ANSWER:
D

What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if


operated in common mode input?
A. differential gain
B. common gain
C. double-ended gain
D. rejection gain
ANSWER:
B

When one input of the op-amp is connected to


ground and the other is to the signal source, its
operation is called
A. single-ended output
B. double-ended output
C. single-ended input
D. double-ended input
ANSWER:
C

If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its


gain is technically termed as
A. common-mode differential gain
B. differential gain
C. open-loop gain
D. closed-loop gain
ANSWER:
B

What is the maximum output voltage swing of an


op-amp?
A. +V to -V (supply voltage)
B. +VSAT to -VSAT
C. +V to -V
D. depends on the input signal
ANSWER:
B

In op-amps, which gain is the highest?


A. common-mode gain
B. differential gain
C. closed-loop gain
D. open-loop gain
ANSWER:
D

The ratio of the differential gain and common


gain of an op-amp
A. differential-common mode ratio
B. common-mode ratio
C. differential-mode rejection ratio
D. common-mode rejection ratio
ANSWER:
D

The A741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a


differential-mode voltage amplification of
200,000.What is the op-amps common-mode
voltage gain?
A. 31,622.778
B. 632.40
C. 6.324
D. 0.158
ANSWER:
C

The current needed at the input of an op-amp to


operate it normally
A. input bias current
B. input offset current
C. input threshold current
D. input holding current
ANSWER:
A

Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real


op-amp needs a very small input current called
input bias current. At both inputs, the bias
currents have a slight difference. What do you
call this difference?
A. differential input current
B. differential bias
C. input offset difference
D. input offset current
ANSWER:
D

The change in input offset current due to


temperature change
A. delta input offset current
B. slew rate
C. input offset current drift
D. PSRR
ANSWER:
C

The reason why a slight difference between the


input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the
unsymmetrical circuit component parameters.
This unsymmetrical condition also produces a
difference in input voltage called what?
A. drift voltage
B. differential voltage
C. input offset voltage
D. input threshold voltage
ANSWER:
C

An operational amplifier has a common-mode


voltage gain of 10 and a differential-mode
voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its commonmode rejection ratio (CMRR).
A. 200
B. 2,000
C. 20,000
D. 200,000
ANSWER:
B
Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a
common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-mode
gain of 100,000.
A. 1000 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 80 dB
D. 40 dB
ANSWER:
C
The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an opamp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and 1.0
mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a commonmode voltage gain of 10 and a differential-mode
gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage?
A. 5.0 V
B. 5.0125 mV
C. 5.0125 V
D. 25.0125 V
ANSWER:
C

As electronic circuit operates, its operating


temperature changes which causes device
parameters to change. In op-amps, what do you
call the change in input offset voltage due to the
change in temperature?
A. input differential drift
B. input offset voltage drift
C. slew rate
D. PSRR
ANSWER:
B

An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback


resistor of 100 k and input resistor of 10 k. If
the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV,
approximate the amplifier output offset voltage
due to this input offset voltage.
A. 10 mV
B. 11 mV
C. 20 mV
D. 22 mV
ANSWER:
D

It is known through experiment that the input bias


currents at the non-inverting (IB+) and inverting
(IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100 nA and 80
nA, respectively. Determine the op-amps input
offset current.
A. -20 nA
B. 20 nA
C. 90 nA
D. 180 nA
ANSWER:
B

The output offset voltage of an op-amp is


the input offset current and voltage. If 1
due to the input offset current and 22 mV
the input offset voltage, what is the total
offset voltage of the op-amp?
A. 11.5 mV
B. 22 mV
C. 23 mV
D. 45 mV
ANSWER:
C

Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero


when there is no input signal, however, in
practical circuits, a small output voltage appears,
this voltage is known as
A. minimum output voltage
B. pinch-off voltage
C. output offset voltage
D. saturation voltage
ANSWER:
C

How will you minimize the output offset voltage


due to the input offset current of an op-amp?
A. by
installing
a
bias-currentcompensating resistor
B. by increasing the value of the feedback
resistor
C. by decreasing the value of the input
resistor
D. B and C above
ANSWER:
A

The output offset voltage of an op-amp is (are)


due to
A. input offset current
B. input offset voltage
C. voltage and current drift
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D

What is a bias-current compensating resistor in


op-amp circuits?
A. A resistor used to reduce the undesired
output offset voltage due to the input
offset current.
B. A resistor connected between the noninverting terminal and ground.
C. A resistor used to balance both input
bias currents and therefore eliminates
the input offset current.
D. all of these
ANSWER:
D

The approximate value of the bias-current


compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is
A. equal to the feedback resistor
B. equal to the input resistor
C. equal to the series combination of the
input and feedback resistors
D. equal to the parallel combination of the
input and feedback resistors
ANSWER:
D

Calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting


amplifier using op-amp with an input offset
current of 10 nA. The circuit is having an input
resistance of 10 k and a feedback resistance of
100 k.
A. 0.1 mV
B. 1.0 mV
C. 10.0 mV
D. 100.0 mV
ANSWER:
B

due to
mV is
due to
output

In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is


represented by
A. a battery
B. a signal generator
C. Thevenins voltage source
D. Nortons current source
ANSWER:
A

The battery representing the input offset voltage


in op-amp circuit analysis is connected where?
A. between the inverting and ground
terminal
B. between the non-inverting and ground
terminal
C. between the inverting and noninverting terminal
D. either B and C above
ANSWER:
B

What is the effect of the input offset voltage to


the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback
element?
A. causes the output to be always at cutoff
B. causes the output to saturate towards
positive
C. causes the output to saturate towards
negative
D. causes the output to saturate either
towards positive or negative
ANSWER:
D
How can we minimize the effect of the input
offset current and input offset voltage at the
output offset voltage?
A. by making the feedback resistance
small
B. by making the feedback resistance
large
C. by making the input resistance small
D. by making the input resistance large
ANSWER:
A
An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier
with an input and feedback resistances of 1 k
and 100 k, respectively. When the input signal
is set to zero, the output was found to have an
offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the input
offset voltage.
A. 0.01 mV
B. 0.1 mV
C. 1.0 mV
D. 10.0 mV
ANSWER:
C

What is the most effective way of minimizing the


output offset voltage of an op-amp?
A. by reducing the value of the feedback
resistor
B. by increasing the value of the input
resistor
C. by a capacitor-compensation technique
D. by properly using and adjusting the
offset-null terminals
ANSWER:
D

What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset


voltage of op-amps to change?
A. change in operating temperature
B. component aging
C. variations in supply voltage
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally


affects its small signal dc-amplification
performance?
A. input bias current
B. input offset voltage
C. input offset current
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Op-amp parameter(s) that is important in large


signal dc-amplification.
A. input offset voltage
B. input offset current
C. slew rate
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
C

In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp,


which parameter has the least effect on its
performance?
A. drift
B. slew rate
C. input offset voltage
D. input offset current
ANSWER:
A

For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what


parameters can affect its performance.
A. input offset current and voltage
B. input bias current and voltage
C. drift and slew rate
D. slew rate and frequency response
ANSWER:
D

If an op-amp is used to amplify small acsignals, what parameter you should greatly
consider to ensure better performance?
A. input bias current
B. drift
C. frequency response
D. slew rate
ANSWER:
C

What do we mean by internally compensated


op-amps?
A. Op-amps with internal frequency
compensation capacitor to prevent
oscillation.
B. Op-amps with an internal compensating
resistor to make the output offset
voltage zero.
C. Op-amps with internal coupling
capacitor to block dc-voltages and
allows ac-voltages to pass.
D. Op-amps with internal active
components to make its gain constant at
the entire operating frequency.
ANSWER:
A

The frequency at which the open-loop gain of


an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low
frequency
A. threshold frequency
B. break frequency
C. minimum frequency
D. operating frequency
ANSWER:
B
What will happen to the voltage gain of opamp when its operating frequency is increased?
A. also increases
B. increases exponentially
C. will decrease
D. decreases exponentially
ANSWER:
C
The reduction of op-amps gain due to
increasing operating frequency.
A. Cutoff
B. roll-off
C. diminishing factor
D. reduction step
ANSWER:
B

What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade roll-off?


A. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per
decade
B. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per
decade
C. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per
10 Hz increased in frequency
D. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per
10 Hz increased in frequency
ANSWER:
A

A reduction of op-amps voltage gain by a


factor of two each time the frequency doubles.
A. 2 dB/octave
B. 2 dB/decade
C. 6 dB/octave
D. 6 dB/decade
ANSWER:
C

Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp


reduces to unity.
A. unity-gain frequency
B. cutoff frequency
C. bandwidth point
D. unity-gain bandwidth product
ANSWER:
D

The low and high cutoff frequencies of an


amplifier is also called
A. corner frequencies
B. 0.707 frequencies
C. 3-dB frequencies
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER:
D

Calculate the cutoff frequency (f c )of an opamp having a unity-gain bandwidth product B 1
= 1 MHz and a open-loop voltage gain A OL =
100,000.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 200 Hz
ANSWER:
A

An op-amp has a specified transient response


rise time of 0.3 s, calculate its unity-gain
bandwidth.
A. 0.857 MHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.167 MHz
D. 2.334 MHz
ANSWER:
C

Rise time is defined as the time required for


the output voltage to rise from _______ to
________ of its final value.
A. 0% - 100%
B. 1% - 99%
C. 5% - 95%
D. 10% - 90%
ANSWER:
D

The maximum output voltage rate of change of


an op-amp.
A. rise time
B. maximum voltage swing
C. differential rate
D. slew rate
ANSWER:
D

Factor(s) or parameter(s) that determine(s) the


op-amps maximum operating temperature
A. PSRR
B. slew rate
C. unity-gain bandwidth product
D. B and C above
ANSWER:
D
What is the maximum signal frequency that
can be used in an op-amp having a specified
slew rate of 0.5 V/sec? The maximum output
voltage desired is 5 V.
A. 16 kHz
B. 32 kHz
C. 100 kHz
D. 1 MHz
ANSWER:
A
What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be
used in order to provide an undistorted output
voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of 100,000
rad/sec?
A. 0.1 V/sec
B. 0.5 V/sec
C. 1.0 V/sec
D. 6.28 V/sec
ANSWER:
C
When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the
output voltage would be +VSAT if
A. V+ > VB. V- > V+
C. V- = V+
D. V- and V+ are both zero
ANSWER:
A

Two comparators using op-amps, configured


such that it can detect voltage levels within a
certain range of values rather than simply
comparing whether a voltage is above or below
a certain reference.
A. analog comparator
B. regenerative comparator
C. parallel comparator
D. window comparator
ANSWER:
D

What gain is significant when an op-amp is


used as a voltage comparator?
A. open-loop gain
B. common gain
C. differential closed loop gain
D. closed loop gain
ANSWER:
A

An op-amp zero-crossing detector without


hysteresis,
A. uses a resistor as its feedback element
B. uses a capacitor as its feedback element
C. uses an inductor as its feedback
element
D. has no feedback
ANSWER:
D

The feedback element of a differentiator


constructed from op-amp is
A. a resistor
B. an inductor
C. a capacitor
D. an RC network
ANSWER:
A

An active integrator uses an op-amp, what is


its feedback element?
A. Resistor
B. capacitor
C. inductor
D. RC network
ANSWER:
B

The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage


follower.
A. unity
B. Rf/Ri
C. 1 + Rf/Ri
D. depends on the type of op-amp
ANSWER:
A

Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an


inverting amplifier having a feedback and an
input resistance of 100 k and 10 k,
respectively.
A. 10
B. 11
C. 100
D. 110
ANSWER:
A

The gain of an inverting amplifier is


determined by the ratio of the feedback and
input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select
any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the
same. What op-amp parameter that helps us
determine the appropriate values of these
resistors?
A. CMRR
B. PSRR
C. SR
D. input bias current
ANSWER:
D

What is the noise gain of op-amps?


A. equal to the open loop gain
B. Rf/Ri
C. 1 + Rf/Ri
D. equal to the common gain
ANSWER:
C

A unity-gain summing amplifier has three


inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV, and V3 =
2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage.
A. 2.5 mV
B. 3.5 mV
C. 4.0 mV
D. 5.0 mV
ANSWER:
D

The random voltage at the output of an op-amp


which could occupy the entire bandwidth.
A. noise
B. hash
C. interference
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which of the following of the resistor


combinations that provides lesser noise in opamp circuits?
A. Make both the feedback and input
resistances as large as possible
B. Make the feedback as large as possible,
while the input as low as possible.
C. Make the feedback as low as possible,
while the input as large as possible.
D. Make the feedback and input
resistances as small as possible.
ANSWER:
D

In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the


feedback resistor is shunted with a very small
capacitance, what is its purpose?
A. to prevent oscillation
B. to improve stability
C. to minimize high frequency noise
D. to compensate for high frequency loss
ANSWER:
C

Approximate the noise gain of an inverting


adder using op-amps if it has five inputs.
A. unity (1)
B. two (2)
C. four (4)
D. six (6)
ANSWER:
D

Op-amps
with
internal
frequency
compensation are very stable with respect to
signal frequencies. However, the trade-off for
frequency stability is (are)
A. limited small-signal bandwidth
B. slow slew rate
C. limited open-loop frequency response
D. all of these
ANSWER:
D

What do we mean by externally compensated


op-amps?
A. op-amps with frequency-compensation
terminals
B. op-amps with provision to externally
compensate for frequency stability
C. op-amps whose gain is externally
compensated
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D

What is true about the external frequencycompensation capacitor?


A. the higher its value, the wider is its
bandwidth
B. the lower its value, the wider is its
bandwidth
C. the higher its value, the faster its slew
rate
D. A and C above
ANSWER:
B
Typical value of the external frequencycompensating capacitor of op-amps.
A. 3 - 30 nF
B. 30 - 300 nF
C. 0.3 - 3.0 F
D. 3.0 - 30 F
ANSWER:
D
What do we mean by a general-purpose opamps?
A. op-amps with limited unity-gain
bandwidth up to approximately 1 MHz
B. op-amps with slew rate about 0.5
V/sec
C. op-amps that has unlimited application
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D
Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate,
about 2000 V/sec and at high frequencies,
more than 50 MHz.
A. general purpose op-amps
B. high power op-amps
C. high-stability op-amps
D. high-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps
ANSWER:
D
Generally, where does hybrid op-amps found
its application?
A. for high-output voltage
B. for high-output current
C. for high-frequency
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D
The magnitude of the op-amps input offset
voltage before it can be classified as a lowinput offset voltage op-amp
A. 0.2 mV
B. 2.0 mV
C. 2.5 mV
D. 5.0 mV
ANSWER:
A

Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can


be controlled externally are categorize as
A. general purpose op-amps
B. programmable op-amps
C. variable op-amps
D. externally compensated op-amps
ANSWER:
B

What op-amp parameter(s) that can be


governed by the bias control in a
programmable op-amp?
A. open-loop gain and slew rate
B. unity-gain bandwidth
C. input bias current
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

The most popular op-amp packages are the


metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of
these corresponds to TO-99?
A. metal can
B. 8-pin DIP
C. SMT
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
A

Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as


A. TO-99
B. TO-91
C. TO-116
D. TO-220
ANSWER:
C

For high density ICs involving many op-amps,


what packaging is suitable?
A. metal can
B. 14-pin DIL
C. SMT
D. flat-pack
ANSWER:
C

Example(s) of surface-mounted technology


(SMT) devices.
A. PLCCs
B. SOICs
C. LCCCs
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which condition must exist for a circuit to


oscillate?
A. It must have a negative feedback
sufficient to cancel the input
B. It must have a gain of less than 1
C. It must have a positive feedback
sufficient to overcome losses
D. It must be neutralized
ANSWER:
C
Which of the following is not an essential part
of an oscillator?
A. Source of energy that supply the losses
in tank circuit.
B. A resistor IC combination circuit.
C. Resonant circuit consist of inductance
and capacitance.
D. Regenerative feedback circuit.
ANSWER:
B
Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating
current or voltage.
A. Damper
B. Generator
C. oscillator
D. mixer
ANSWER:
C

What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses


a tapped coli in the tuned circuit?
A. Pierce
B. Colpitts
C. Hartley
D. Ultraudion
ANSWER:
C

What determines the resonant frequency of a


crystal?
A. external components
B. the temperature of the crystal
C. the size and thickness of the crystal
material
D. the hermitic seal
ANSWER:
C

Type of oscillator whose frequency is


dependent on the charge and discharge of RC
networks.
A. Hartley oscillator
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER:
C

A microwave oscillator
A. Hartley oscillator
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER:
D

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is


divided into input and feedback portions by a
capacitive voltage divider.
A. Hartley capacitor
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER:
B

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is


divided into input and feedback portions by an
inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil.
A. Hartley oscillator
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER:
A

A circuit usually containing two transistors or


tubes in an RC-coupled amplifier, the two
active devices switch each other alternately on
and off.
A. Multivibrator
B. Signal generator
C. Oscillator
D. Thyristor
ANSWER:
A

A multivibrator that generates one output pulse


for each input trigger pulse.
A. monostable
B. astable
C. bistable
D. tristate
ANSWER:
A

Monostable multivibrator is also known as


A. one shot
B. single shot
C. direct shot
D. one shot or single shot
ANSWER:
D

What determines the pulse time in


monostable multivibrator?
A. resistor combinations
B. capacitor combinations
C. inductor combinations
D. resistor and capacitor combinations

ANSWER:

A multivibrator having two stable state


A. monostable
B. bistable
C. astable
D. unstable
ANSWER:
B

Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit


A. Monostable multivibrator
B. bistable multivibrator
C. astable multivibrator
D. unstable multivibrator
ANSWER:
B

Flip-flop is actually a _______ multivibrator.


A. Monostable
B. bistable
C. astable
D. unstable
ANSWER:
B

Considered as a free-running multivibrator


A. monostable
B. bistable
C. astable
D. unstable
ANSWER:
C

One type of circuit control device which may be


manual, automatic or multi-contact
A. fuse
B. breaker
C. switch
D. relay
ANSWER:
B

What are the primary methods of controlling


electrical power?
A. by using manual switches and rheostats
B. by using variable reactance and
transformers
C. by using electronic switches, such as
diodes, transistors thyratrons, and
thyristors
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D
Common method(s) of controlling electrical
power with reactance
A. switching a tapped inductor
B. using a saturable reactor
C. by a matching transformer
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
D

A reactive device used in controlling electrical


power by using two windings on a common iron
core. The control winding is supplied with small
dc-current which causes the reactance of large acwinding to change accordingly.
A. tapped inductor
B. saturable reactor
C. auto transformer
D. LVDT
ANSWER:
B

A saturable reactor with regenerative feedback.


A. tapped inductor
B. auto transformer
C. LVDT
D. magnetic amplifier
ANSWER:
D

Thyratrons in industrial electronics refers to


____________.
A. a gas-filled diode
B. a vacuum tube
C. gas-filled triode
D. an electron triode
ANSWER:
C

An electronic switch that has the highest singledevice current capacity and can withstand
overloads better.
A. Thyristors
B. ignitrons
C. SCR
D. triac
ANSWER:
B

A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the


highest single-device current rating
A. thyristor
B. triac
C. SCR
D. Quadric
ANSWER:
C

The purpose of installing thyrectors across the


incoming power lines to the speed control system
is to ___________
A. cause the motor to caution
B. protect drive circuits from high voltage
transient surges
C. increase the counter emf
D. allow the field winding current to
continue flowing
ANSWER:
B

Semiconductor devices equivalent to thyratrons


are generally called
A. thyrector
B. thyristor
C. diac
D. ignitron
ANSWER:
B

Using electronic devices as switches, what is(are)


the general methods of controlling electrical
power?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. static switching
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Which power control switching method that


greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore
limited to low-frequency applications?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. inverter control
D. static switching
ANSWER:
A

One of the electronic semiconductor devices


known as diac, function as
A. four terminal multi-directional switch
B. two terminal bi-directional switch
C. two terminal unidirectional switch
D. three terminal bi-directional switch
ANSWER:
B

Which of the trigger diodes has the highest


holding voltage?
A. bidirectional-trigger diac
B. bidirectional-diode-thyristor diac
C. Shockley diode
D. thyrector
ANSWER:
A

General term of electronic devices used to control


or trigger large-power switching devices.
A. thyristor
B. thyrector
C. break-over devices
D. triggering devices
ANSWER:
C

A break-over device that is basically a diode.


A. thyristor
B. thyrector
C. thyratron
D. triggering diode
ANSWER:
D

A four-element solid state device that combi9nes


the characteristics of both diodes and transistors
A. varactor
B. zener diode
C. tunnel diode
D. SCR
ANSWER:
D

The most popular thyristor used in electrical


power controllers
A. SCR
B. triac
C. SCS
D. PUT
ANSWER:
A

Find the
SCR.
A.
B.
C.
D.

two stable operating conditions of an

Conducting and non-conducting


Oscillating and quiescent
NPN conduction and PNP conduction
Forward conducting and reverse
conducting
ANSWER:
A

How do you stop conduction during which SCR


is also conducting?
A. remove voltage gate
B. increase cathode voltage
C. interrupt anode current
D. reduce gate current
ANSWER:
C

How do we turn ON or trigger an SCR?


A. by making the gate (G) positive with
respect to its cathode (K)
B. by making the gate (G) positive with
respect to its anode (A)
C. by making the cathode more positive
with respect to the anode
D. A and C above
ANSWER:
A

What is true about SCRs after they are being


switched ON?
A. The anode (A) to cathode (K) continues
to conduct even if the gate triggering
voltage is removed.
B. The gate (G) must be provided with the
required holding current to continue its
conduction.
C. A small holding voltage at the gate is
required for a continuous conduction.
D. B and C above
ANSWER:
A

The voltage across the anode (A) and cathode (K)


terminals of an SCR when conducting.
A. holding voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. breakback voltage
D. trigger voltage
ANSWER:
A
The minimum amount of current needed for an
SCR to conduct continuously.
A. holding current
B. triggering current
C. threshold current
D. average sustaining current
ANSWER:
A

What is(are) the condition(s) in triggering SCR?


A. The gate voltage must be equal to or
greater than the triggering voltage.
B. The gate current must be equal to or
greater than the triggering current.
C. The anode (A) must be positive with
respect to the cathode.
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

The voltage decreased across the anode (A) and


cathode (K) of an SCR from non-conducting state
to conducting state.
A. holding voltage
B. forward breakdown voltage
C. triggering voltage
D. breakback voltage
ANSWER:
D

An SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling


switch in a circuit powered by 50Vdc. When the
SCR fires ON, its anode (A) to cathode (K)
voltage was observed to be 2 V. Calculate the
breakback voltage of the SCR.
A. 25 Vdc
B. 32 Vdc
C. 41 Vdc
D. 48 Vdc
ANSWER:
D

The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR before


it conducts.
A. minimum-gate trigger voltage
B. maximum-gate trigger voltage
C. minimum-gate peak-inverse voltage
D. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage
ANSWER:
A

What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs and


triacs?
A. maximum-gate power dissipation
B. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage
C. maximum-gate trigger current and
voltage
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D
How can we extend the rating of SCRs?
A. by external cooling
B. by external circuitry
C. by connecting them in series/parallel
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Use of heat sinks, forced air, and


are examples of external cooling
other devices. Which of these
recommended to be used for the
dissipating device?
A. metal heat sinks
B. forced air
C. water cooling
D. A and B above
ANSWER:
C

How can we increase the forward-voltage


blocking capability of SCRs?
A. by connecting them in series
B. by connecting them in parallel
C. by cascading them
D. by connecting back to back in parallel
ANSWER:
A

In connecting two SCRs in series, during OFF


state, the voltage source must be properly shared
between them, but due to devices differences,
there might be unequal voltages across each SCR.
How do we equalize these voltages?
A. by installing a snubber circuit
B. by adding a gate-to-cathode resistor
C. by shunting a capacitor across the
anode (A) and cathode (K) of each
SCR
D. by using a blocking-equalizing resistor
ANSWER:
D

What is true regarding blocking-equalizing


resistors in SCRs connected in series?
A. Blocking-equalizing
resistors
are
shunted across each SCR.
B. The value of these resistors is about
10% of the value of the blocking
resistance of the SCR it is shunted with.
C. These resistors increases the leakage
current towards the load.
D. All of the above
ANSWER:
D

A circuit used for voltage equalization during


ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in series.
A. snubber circuit
B. crow-bar
C. clipper
D. clamper
ANSWER:
A

water cooling
in SCRs and
is the only
largest power

When a high current is needed, SCRs are


connected in parallel. The problem with
paralleled SCRs is, when they are not perfectly
matched, one will conduct first before the other
and carries the full-load current that is for sure
greater than its maximum rating. To avoid this
situation, both SCRs should be turned ON at the
same time. How can we do this?
A. by using high triggering gate voltage
B. by using a gate-triggering transformer
C. by using reactors
D. all of the above are possible
ANSWER:
D
In controlling electrical power using phase
control method with SCR/triac being the active
device, what do we call the period of the cycle
before the device switches to conduction?
A. trigger time
B. trigger delay time
C. firing frequency
D. firing delay angle
ANSWER:
D
How many times per second does an SCR is
turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a fullwave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz?
A. 30 times
B. 60 times (HV)
C. 90 times
D. 120 times (FW)
ANSWER:
D
A three terminal device that behaves roughly like
SCR, except that it can conduct current in either
direction when at ON.
A. thyristor
B. SUS
C. SBS
D. GTO
ANSWER:
C
What is the difference between a triac and a
silicon bilateral switch (SBS)?
A. An SBS is usually used as breakover
device, while a triac is a load
controlling device.
B. An SBS is for low voltage applications,
while a triac is generally for high
voltage applications.
C. An SBS has better and stable
symmetrical-firing voltage than a triac.
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

A triac can be triggered ON by the application of


a
A. positive voltage at the gate with respect
to MT1
B. negative voltage at the gate with
respect to MT1
C. positive or negative gate voltage with
respect to MT2
D. all of the above are correct
ANSWER:
D

Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?


A. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
B. Gate, source and sink
C. Base, emitter and collector
D. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
ANSWER:
A

What are the three terminals of a triac?


A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate
(G)
B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2
(MT2), and gate (G)
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G)
D. both A and B are acceptable
ANSWER:
D

A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as s


small power triac, and has three terminals
namely,
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate
(G)
B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2
(MT2), and gate (G)
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G)
D. both A and B are acceptable
ANSWER:
D

A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except


that it has low voltage and current ratings. It is
very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable
to be used as triggering device.
A. UJT
B. GTO
C. SBS
D. SUS
ANSWER:
D

Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have


a breakover voltage of 8 V, however, this value
can be altered by normally connecting a zener
diode. How is the diode installed?
A. across the gate (G) and cathode (K)
terminals, with the diodes anode at
the gate
B. anode to anode, cathode to cathode
C. diodes cathode to SUSs anode and
diodes anode to SUSs cathode
D. diodes cathode to SUSs gate and
diodes anode to SUSs cathode
ANSWER:
D

A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward


breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener diode is
connected between its gate and cathode terminals
with the diodes cathode at SUSs gate. If the
zener voltage is 3.9 V, what is the new forward
breakover voltage of the device?
A. 0.49 V
B. 2.05 V
C. 4.50 V
D. 11.9 V
ANSWER:
C
Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely
resembles that of SCRs and SUSs, except that
its forward breakover voltage (+VBO) is not
alterable, for the device has no gate terminal.
A. diac
B. thyrector
C. UJT
D. Shockley diode
ANSWER:
D
What will happen to the forward breakdown or
breakover voltage of SCRs and triacs if the gate
current is increased?
A. will decrease
B. will also increase
C. will not change
D. will either increase or decrease, it
depends on their current coefficient
ANSWER:
A
A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three terminal
breakover-type switching device. Its three
terminals are called base 1, base 2, and emitter.
Though this is a transistor and has base and
emitter terminals, this operates very different
from a BJT and is not used as a linear amplifier.
Its applications are for
A. timers and oscillators
B. signal generators
C. triggering control for SCRs and triacs
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D
A UJT has an internal resistances of R B1 = 6 K
and R B2 = 3 K, what is its interbase resistance?
A. 2 K
B. 3 K
C. 6 K
D. 9 K
ANSWER:
D

For a unijunction transistor (UJT) to witch ON


A. the base 1 voltage should be greater
than the peak voltage
B. the base 2 voltage should be greater
than the peak voltage
C. the emitter voltage should be greater
than the peak voltage
D. the voltage between the emitter and
base 1 should be greater than the peak
voltage when emitter being more
positive
ANSWER:
D

Semiconductor devices with inherent ON-OFF


behavior and has no linear operating regions are
called thryistors. Examples are SCRs, triacs,
SUSs, SBSs, Shockley diodes, diacs, PUTs, and
SCSs. In selecting thyristors for a particular
application, which of the statement below is
generally desirable?
A. thyristors with high current and
voltage ratings
B. thyristors
with
high
holding
current/voltage
C. faster thyristors
D. thyristors with high breakback-voltage
ANSWER:
D

Why does thyristors with high breakback voltage


desirable?
A. it dissipates less power
B. it generates less heat
C. it is more efficient
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D

Portion in the welding process interval during


which the welding current is flowing is called
____________.
A. cool sub-interval
B. released interval
C. squeeze interval
D. heat sub-interval
ANSWER:
D

In automatic welding system, basically there are


how many intervals?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
ANSWER:
B

In automatic welding what do you call the first


interval wherein the material to be welded are
held together?
A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER:
A

After the squeeze interval, what comes next in an


automatic welding system?
A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER:
B

During the welding or weld interval, when a


welding current is flowing the system is said to
be at
A. weld interval
B. cool subinterval
C. heat subinterval
D. hold interval
ANSWER:
C

The portion of the weld interval during which the


current is absent
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER:
A

After the welding interval, it goes to _________


interval wherein the electrode pressure is
maintained on the metal surfaces.
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER:
C
Next to hold interval is __________ interval in
automatic welding system.
A. squeeze
B. cool
C. standby
D. release
ANSWER:
D

After the release interval in automatic welding,


the system will go to
A. cool interval
B. squeeze interval
C. standby interval
D. hold interval
ANSWER:
C

Refers to the system that has no feedback and is


not self correcting
A. Close-loop system
B. Coal slurry system
C. Feed forward control system
D. Open-loop system
ANSWER:
D

The system is ____________ if a position servo


system does not respond to small changes in the
input.
A. under stabilized
B. underdamped
C. stabilized
D. overdamped
ANSWER:
D

What is the purpose of using a differential


synchro instead of a regular synchro?
A. Handles more signals only
B. Performs addition and subtraction
function only
C. Differential synchros can handle more
signals and also performs addition and
subtraction function
D. Handles two signals only
ANSWER:
C

Industrial circuit or system that is not selfcorrecting


A. open-loop
B. closed-loop
C. system with feed back
D. non-servo
ANSWER:
A

What do you call a circuit or system that is selfcorrecting?


A. open-loop
B. closed-loop
C. system without feed back
D. servo
ANSWER:
B

Open-loop in control system means:


A. it has no feedback
B. it is not self-correcting
C. it is not self-regulating
D. all are correct
ANSWER:
D

In control system, closed-loop means:


A. it has feedback
B. it is self-correcting
C. it is self-regulating
D. all are correct
ANSWER:
D

When a closed-loop system is used to maintain


physical position it is referred as
A. gyro system
B. feedback system
C. servo system
D. differential system
ANSWER:
C

In closed-loop system, what do you call the


difference in the measured value and the set value
or desired value?
A. error
B. differential voltage
C. potential difference
D. threshold
ANSWER:
A

Mode of control wherein the controller has only


two operating states. This mode is also known as
bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER:
A

Error signal in closed-system is also known as


A. difference signal
B. deviation
C. system deviation
D. all are correct
ANSWER:
D

In a closed-loop control system, when the error


signal is zero the system is at
A. null
B. saturation
C. cut-off
D. halt
ANSWER:
A

____________ is a mode of control wherein the


controller has a continuous range of possible
position, not just two as in bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER:
B

Proportional mode of control wherein the


controller is not only considering the magnitude
of the error signal but as well as the time that is
has persisted.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral *
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER:
C

Proportional mode of control wherein the


controller is not only considering the magnitude
of the error signal but as well as its rate of
change.
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative *
D. Proportional
plus
integral
plus
derivative
ANSWER:
C

What is (are) being considered in Proportional


plus Integral plus Derivative (PID) mode of
control?
A. error signal magnitude
B. error signal period of occurrence
C. error signal rate of change
D. all are considered *
ANSWER:
D

If On-Off mode of control is the simplest, what is


its opposite or the most complex?
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative
D. Proportional
plus
integral
plus
derivative *
ANSWER:
D

The __________ are two of the most common


mechanical configuration of industrial robots.
A. Spherical and pneumatic
B. Articulated arm and cylindrical *
C. Spherical and hydraulic

The small error signal or system deviation where


the system cannot correct anymore
A. threshold
B. holding
C. offset
D. bias
ANSWER;
C

A good closed-loop control system has the


following characteristics
A. with very small offset signal or voltage
B. quick response
C. highly stable
D. all are correct
ANSWER:
D

In control system, the manner in which the


controller reacts to an error is termed as
A. mode of operation
B. type of operation
C. mode of control
D. reaction style
ANSWER:
C

What are the general basic modes of control in


control system?
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER:
D

One advantage of hydraulic actuator in industrial


robots include _____________.
A. great force capability handling heavy
loads *
B. lower operating cost than the other type
C. low initial cost than the other type
D. clean-no oil leaks
ANSWER:
A

Actuators used in industrial robots


A. electric motors
B. fluid motors
C. fluid cylinders
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER:
D

____________ includes tow of the actuator type


used in industrial robots.
A. Pneumatic and Jointed-arm
B. Hydraulic and Pneumatic
C. Electric and Spherical
D. Hydraulic and Cylindrical
ANSWER:
B

Which of the actuators that has the greatest force


capability?
A. electric
B. hydraulic fluid
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
B

Actuator that requires the highest initial cost:


A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
B

Robot actuator that has the highest operating


cost:
A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
B

The most messy robot actuator:


A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER:
B

Advantages of electric actuators:


A. Lower initial cost than either hydraulic
or pneumatic
B. Much lower operating cost than
hydraulic
C. Accurate positioning and good velocity
control
D. All of these are correct
ANSWER:
D

Advantages of pneumatic actuators:


A. lower initial and operating cost than
hydraulic actuators
B. Clean, no oil leaks
C. Quick response
D. All are correct
ANSWER:
D

D. Jointed-arm and electric


ANSWER:
B

A system in which the precise movement of a


large load is controlled by a relatively weak
signal.
A. hydraulic
B. electro
C. synchro
D. servo
ANSWER:
D
A programmable, multifunction manipulator
designed to move materials, parts, tools or
specific devices.
A. Industrial robot
B. Android
C. Actuator
D. End effector
ANSWER:
A

The technology for automations


A. avionics
B. cryogenics
C. cryotronics
D. robotics
ANSWER:
D

What
is(are)
the
common
mechanical
configurations for industrial robots?
A. articulated-arm or jointed-arm
B. spherical configuration
C. cylindrical configuration
D. all of these
ANSWER:
D

The number of axis a robot is free to move is


called
A. freedom axis
B. degrees of freedom
C. movement degrees
D. mechanical axis
ANSWER:
B

Advantages of hydraulic actuators


A. Great holding strength when stopped
B. Accurate positioning and good velocity
control
C. Intrinsically safe
in
flammable
environment such as painting
D. All of these are correct
ANSWER:
D
Disadvantages of pneumatic actuators:
A. Weak force capability
B. Not so much holding strength when
stopped as compared to hydraulic
system
C. Accurate positioning and velocity
control is impossible
D. All of these are correct
ANSWER:
D
Disadvantages of electric actuators in industrial
robots:
A. Less force capability as compared to
hydraulic system
B. Very little holding strength when
stopped which causes a heavy load to
sag
C. Usually requires mechanical brakes
D. All are correct
ANSWER:
D

A robot software or program that produces only


two-position motion for a given robot axis.
A. positive-stop
B. point-to-point
C. continuous-path
D. hard interrupt
ANSWER:
A

A robot program that has the ability to move a


robot to any position within the range but without
specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program
ANSWER:
B

A robot program that has the ability to move a


robot to any position within the range with
specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program
ANSWER:
C
When a robot moves on several axis at the same
time, it is to have
A. intrinsic motion
B. extrinsic motion
C. compound motion
D. universal motion
ANSWER:
C

In robotics, SCARA means:


A. Selective Compliant Articulated Robot
Arm
B. Selective Compliant Assembly Robot
Arm
C. Selective Computer-Actuated Robot
Arm
D. A and B are correct
ANSWER:
D

SCARA Robots has how many axis of motion?


A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
ANSWER:
B

SCARA Robots are designed


applications?
A. Machining
B. Welding
C. Assembling
D. Handling heavy loads
ANSWER:
C

Why is SCARA Robot attractive in industry?


A. because it is relatively cheaper
B. because it can carry very heavy loads
C. because it has unlimited movement
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
A

for

what