Safety 10 13 Publish

USCG
Engineering Test
ABS
VER Question
290001
290001
290049
290051
290051
290051
290052
290052
290053
290053
290054
290056
290100
290100
290100
290102
7
1
290103
290200
290202
290202
On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid

cargo fire to occur would be __________.
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to
occur on a tanker would be __________.
Through which of the listed processes is sufficient
heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
The chief source of spontaneous combustion
aboard tankers is __________.
The most likely place for a fire to start through the
process of spontaneous combustion is in
__________.
Which of the listed substances is susceptible to
spontaneous combustion?
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause the
ignition of fuel vapors?
Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause
fuel vapors to ignite?
A fire can be extinguished by removing
__________.
A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is
removed from the fire?
Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a
substance to burn?
All of the following are part of the fire triangle
EXCEPT __________.
Combustible material which is stored adjacent to a
compartment where there is a fire, may also be
ignited. This ignition can occur by __________.
It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks
surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in
order to __________.
The spread of fire can be prevented by
__________.
Radiation can cause a fire to spread by
__________.
A fire may be spread by which of the following
means?
Which of the poisonous gases listed is the most
likely to be found in a closed compartment
involved in a fire?
Which of the following can result in an oxygen
deficiency in a closed space?
Which of the listed conditions could cause a
dangerous reduction in oxygen in a shipboard
compartment?
Crawford Nautical School
Environmental and Safety
Formatted by Bruce Sherman
Choice A
Choice B
in the midships house
at the main deck manifold at the vent header
in the pumproom
in the midships house
at the main deck manifold at the vent header
in the pumproom
Heat of expansion
Latent heat of
Latent heat of sublimation
condensation
Heat of oxidation
JP4 cargo
gasoline cargo
kerosene cargo
oil soaked rags or rubbish
an electrical switchboard
the pressure tanks
the fuel oil tanks
the oily rag bin
Coal
Scrap rubber
Leather
All of the above
Loose wiring
Explosion proof lights
Loose wiring
All of the above
Static electricity
Static electricity
An open running electric

motor
An open and running
motor
Choice C
Choice D
Illus
Ans
the heat
the fuel
the oxygen
any of the above
Oxygen
Fuel
Heat
Any of the above.
The temperature of the

The air must contain
substance must be equal oxygen in sufficient
to or above its fire point. quantity.
The mixture of vapors with

air must be between the All of the above.
LEL and the UEL.
fuel
heat
oxygen
heat convection through

the bulkheads
heat conduction of
combustion gases
cool the metal below its

ignition temperature
form a dense coating of

smothering steam
electricity
heat radiated from the

direct radiation emitted by
bulkhead by the adjacent
the adjacent fire
fire
prevent the fire from
prevent oxygen from
spreading by the
reaching the flames
conduction of heat
cooling surfaces adjacent removing combustibles

reducing or limiting the
to the fire
from the endangered area oxygen supply
all of the above
transmitting the heat of a

fire through the ship's
metal
Conduction of heat to
adjacent surfaces
heated gases flowing

burning liquids flowing into
through ventilation
another space
systems
the transfer of heat across

an unobstructed space
Direct radiation
Convection
All of the above
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Rusting
Cargo residue
Fuel oil residue
All of the above
Fire
Rusting or the drying of

paint
Decomposing organic
material
All of the above conditions
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
www.crawfordnautical.com
USCG Engineering Test

ABS
290204
VER Question
1
290205
290215
290219
290300
290300
290305
290305
290305
290306
290308
290406
290408
290501
A good approach to personnel safety is to assume

that all tanks and pump rooms are potentially
dangerous. You should immediately leave an area
whenever __________.
Prior to entering a shipboard compartment
containing spilled sewage, you should test the
atmosphere in the compartment for __________.
Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of
rotten eggs. A hazard to personnel regarding
hydrogen sulfide is __________.
The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that
will result in death with short- term exposure is a
minimum of __________.
When required to work in an area where explosive
gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools
which are __________.
When required to work in an area where explosive
gases may accumulate, you should use tools
which are __________.
Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard

any vessel should include __________.
When welding or burning aboard a vessel,
precautions should always include that
__________.
When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you
must be certain that the space __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
you have irritation of the

eyes, nose, or throat
you smell an unusual odor
you experience an
any of the above
abnormal bodily sensation conditions occur
Hydrogen sulfide
Methane Gas
Oxygen
All of the above
dizziness
asphyxiation
death
All of the above
100 ppm
200 ppm
400 ppm
700 ppm
approved by the Coast

Guard
high carbon steel
fixed with a ferrous cover nonferrous
approved by the Coast

Guard
high carbon steel
fireproof
non-ferrous
requiring the fire watch to

remain on post for an
providing an extinguisher
posting a fire watch in the
adequate cool down
which is ready for
All of the above.
immediate area
period after the
immediate use
completion of welding or
burning
the surrounding area has no welding be allowed on
the space is properly
no exposed flammable
the outside of fuel tank
all of the above
ventilated
material
walls
contains no explosive
has no oil or flammable
is properly vented
all of the above
fumes
material in the area
checking fireman's outfits checking relevant
and other personal rescue communications
equipment
equipment
all of the above
all firefighting equipment

is at the scene
the fixed systems are

activated
the fire is contained and

no longer spreading
The owner
A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by

regulation, include __________.
starting the fire pumps
A fire is considered 'under control' when

__________.
all hands are at their fire

stations
In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is

responsible to make records available to the Coast Officer-in-Charge, Marine The person who caused
Guard official authorized to investigate the
Inspection
the casualty
casualty?
The company man
The master or person in charge of a MODU must

record the date of each test of emergency lighting on the Certificate of
systems, power systems, the condition of each and Inspection
the performance of the equipment __________.
in the Operations Manual in the official log
Flame screens must be maintained in good

condition and fitted in the opening they protect in
order to __________.
on the Muster List

("Station Bill")
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
prevent flammable vapors allow the escape of

from entering the tank
flammable vapors
contain flammable vapors allow dissipation of heat

within the tank
from any flame

ABS
VER Question
290501
290501
290504
290505
290506
290551
290557
290607
290608
290612
290613
290615
290616
290616
Flame screens must be maintained in good

condition and fitted properly in the vent opening
they protect in order to __________.
Tank vent flame screens must be maintained in
good condition and properly fitted in the opening
they protect in order to __________.
Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent
flames from entering a tank by __________.
According to 46 CFR, a single layer of tank vent
flame screen must be composed of corrosion
resistant wire and at least a mesh of __________.
A tubular type of device designed to prevent the
passage of flames into an enclosed space is
commonly called a ________.
In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of
the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire
to be given in the annunciator cabinet?
Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may
be arranged to sense __________.
What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical
sample of uncontaminated air?
The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by
volume in air. If you sample an empty tank that had
contained benzene and obtained a reading of 50%
L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator, then the
__________.
A vapor sample is drawn into the combustible gas
indicator shown in the illustration. The needle
deflects to the explosive range of the scale and
then returns to rest at 20%. What does this
indicate?
The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0%
by volume in air. If a reading of 50% of the lower
explosive limit is obtained, using the meter shown
in the illustration, the vapor concentration at the
sample point is __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Illus

flammable vapors
contain flammable vapors allow proper dissipation of

within the tank
heat from a flame

flammable vapors
contain flammable vapors allow dissipation of heat

within the tank
from open flame
reducing the crosssectional area of the

opening
restricting the flow of

gases through the
opening
dissipating heat from the

creating turbulence in the
flame into the surrounding
exiting gas stream
metal
8x 8
10 x 10
20 x 20
30 x 30
'flame relief valve'
'flame stopper'
'safety valve'
'flame arrester'
A manual fire alarm box is

All of the above.
activated.
smoke
ionized particles
12%
vapor/air mixture is too
lean to burn
15%
all of the above

18%
vapor/air mixture is not

vapor concentration at the
within the flammable
sample point is 0.7%
range
D
21%
all of the above
The concentration of
The indicator is improperly
combustible vapor in the
calibrated.
sample is twenty percent
sample is twenty percent.
of its lower explosive limit.
SF-0002
sample is above the upper
explosive limit.
3.3% by volume
too lean to burn
in the flammable range
too rich to burn
SF-0002
A combustible gas indicator is used to determine

__________.
most petroleum vapors

When testing the atmosphere of a compartment
are lighter than air and
with a combustible gas indicator, the operator must
accumulate around deck
remember that __________.
longitudinals
the indicator guarantees a the meter scale indicates

safe atmosphere for a
only the upper explosive
maximum of two hours
range
the indicator tests only the

atmosphere at the end of
the suction tube
Which of the following conditions is an important

consideration to remember when using a
combustible gas indicator?
Any movement of the

needle indicates an
They do not work properly
unsafe condition
in oxygen deficient
specifically related to the
atmospheres.
toxicity of petroleum
vapors present.
All of the above.
A rise in temperature
The fire alarm test pushactivating a heat detector. button is operated.
rate of temperature rise
Ans
if there is sufficient oxygen the toxicity of flammable

to support life
gases or vapors
They detect vapor at the

sample point only.
the amount of CO2

present in flue gas
the presence of flammable

gases or vapors in the air

ABS
290617
290617
290618
290620
290621
290621
VER Question
1
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
an audible signaling
device
an inflatable bag
a pressure relieving
device
flame arrestors
The length and diameter

A series of baffles within
The test burn occurs
of the sampling tube are
the instrument prevents a
outside the tested space.
designed to prevent a
flashback.
flashback.
Meter readings are

Which of the following statement is true concerning obtained instantaneously
the meter shown in the illustration?
upon release of the
squeeze bulb.
only sample around the
deck longitudinals as
gases are lighter than air
Flame arresters are

placed at the inlet and
outlet of the combustion
chamber.
As gas samples are drawn

into the instrument they
SF-0003
are burned within the
case.
sample only near the

ullage openings as all
vapors accumulate there
avoid sampling in the

vicinity of deep webs to
prevent false readings
sample as much of the

tank as possible,
especially at the bottom
gas absorption detector
combustible gas indicator
The instrument shown in the illustration is used to

indicate the __________.
oxygen content of the

atmosphere
diesel exhaust analysis by boiler stack gas analysis

volume
by weight
At which of the listed tank locations should you

obtain oxygen content readings prior to tank
washing?
Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned,
it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and
a/an __________.
The instrument shown in the illustration has not
been used for several weeks. Prior to its use for
testing a compartment, you should __________.
At the center of the ullage

At the hatch coaming and At the hatch coaming and At the middle and bottom
and one meter below
tank bottom.
middle of the tank.
of the tank.
deck.
290623
D
concentration of explosive
SF-0003
gases in a tank
Orsat apparatus
flame safety lamp
Halide torch
check or renew the

batteries
purge the meter
adjust the meter pointer to

all of the above
zero
Send a gas sample

ashore for laboratory
analysis.
Enter the tank with a

Use an explosimeter.
teledyne oxygen analyzer.
Send a gas sample

analysis.

Use an explosimeter.
teledyne oxygen analyzer.
Send a gas sample

analysis.

Use an explosimeter or
teledyne oxygen analyzer. combustible gas indicator.
Use the open flame test

How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for
on a small sample that
explosive gases?
has been taken from the
tank.
Use the open flame test
Which of the following procedures is the generally
accepted method of determining whether the
atmosphere within a cargo tank is flammable?
tank.
Which of the following procedures is the generally Use the open flame test
accepted method of determining whether the
atmosphere within a cargo tank is over rich,
explosive, or too lean to support combustion?
tank.
If there is any liquid in the

tank being tested, the
sampling tube should be
submerged in it to obtain
the most accurate
reading.
flame safety lamp
Ans
SF-0003
If the meter needle moves

to the extreme right side
of the scale and remains
there, the atmosphere is
safe.
Illus
An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air

mixtures, usually measures the concentration in
toxic vapor meter
terms of the lower explosive limit, and is known as
a __________.
290622
290624
Choice A
When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with

an explosimeter, you should __________.
290624
290622
290624
Combustible gas indicators are used to detect

flammable gases or vapors in the atmosphere. As
a safety feature, they are equipped with
__________.
The reading on the combustible gas indicator,
shown in the illustration, is obtained by burning the
vapor sample within the instrument. How is the
flame prevented from igniting the vapor within the
space being tested?
D
D
D
SF-0003

ABS
290650
290701
VER Question
290704
290804
290806
291001
291051
291052
291052
291054
291054
291054

Choice A
A three inch overboard discharge line, located six

feet below the waterline, has ruptured and
separated from the hull. What would be the
minimum number of strokes per minute required
45 strokes per minute
from a 10" x 8" x 11" duplex double acting
reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 93%
efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to
rise?
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
The combustible gas

indicator hose must be
100 feet (30.5 m) in
length.
not less than 50 feet in
length
Boots and gloves must be

electrically nonconducting.
made of steel or bronze

wire rope
corrosion resistant
wheelhouse
galley
engine room
stairway enclosure
Location of fire doors
Location of the remote

means of stopping fans
Particulars of the fire

detecting system
All of the above.
absorb smoke and gases rapidly contract as water vaporize and rapidly
as water is converted from is converted from a liquid expand as water absorbs
liquid to vapor
to a vapor
heat
All of the above
A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire

extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.
alternate expansion and

contraction as water in
liquid state becomes
vapor
When entering a burning compartment equipped

with a fire hose and an all- purpose nozzle, you
should first direct __________.
a straight stream aimed at the high velocity fog into

the flames of the fire
the center of the fire
The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is

to __________.
remove oxygen from the

area
The most practical method of extinguishing a class

"A" fire, involving burning dunnage, is to use
chemical foam
__________.
a hand portable CO2

extinguishers
Purple K powder and light

water
water
Sweep the exterior

Which of the following methods should be used to
bulkheads with a solid
prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment,
stream of water until the
with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the
fire is reportedly
adjacent compartments?
extinguished.
Sweep the exterior

bulkheads with a solid
stream of water until
steam is no longer
produced, secure the
nozzle, and repeat as
necessary.
Sweep the exterior

bulkheads with water fog
until the fire is reportedly
extinguished.
Sweep the exterior

bulkheads with water fog
until steam is no longer
necessary.
Sweep all exterior

surfaces with a solid
stream of water until the
fire is reportedly
extinguished.
Sweep all exterior

surfaces with a solid
stream of water until
steam is no longer
necessary.
Sweep all exterior

surfaces with water fog
until steam is no longer
necessary.
Prevent oxygen from

reaching the flames
Prevent the fire from

spreading by heat
conduction
Which of the following methods should be used to

prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment,
with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the
adjacent compartments?
Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads, decks,

and overheads surrounding an involved
compartment fire?
Sweep all exterior

surfaces with water fog
until the fire is reportedly
extinguished.
Cool the metal below its
Illus
Ans
SF-0034
Which of the following statements represents U.S. The flashlight must be an The lifeline must be
Coast Guard regulations concerning the equipment approved 3 cell fireproof phosphor bronze wire
used with firemen's outfits?
type.
rope only.
The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must
be __________.
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), A
fire door that is held open by magnets may be
found in the __________.
What safety information can be found in the fire
control plan that is posted or available in booklet
form on your ship?
the high velocity fog at the the high velocity fog at the
deck to cool it for entry
overhead to absorb heat
cool the substance below

smother the fire with foam smother the fire with CO2
its ignition temperature
Form a dense coating of

smothering steam
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
291056
291058
291060
291063
291064
291069
291069
291102
291102
291105
291150
291151
291151
291151
1
1
When fighting the fire depicted in figure 1 of the

illustration, which letter denotes where the attack
hose line would be used?
You are assigned to patrol the boundaries of the
fire shown in figure 1 of the illustration. What signs
would indicate the fire was spreading to an
adjacent compartment?
The airflow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is
an example of which type of ventilation?
When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the
hose team should crouch as low as possible to
__________.
A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge
room accessed by door "E". You should
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
SF-0013
Bulkhead is hot.
Paint on bulkhead is
blistering.
Temperature inside
compartment is higher
than outside.
All of the above.
SF-0013
Horizontal.
Vertical.
Parallel.
Combination.
protect themselves from

smoke
obtain the best available

air
allow the heat and steam

All of the above
to pass overhead
open doors, hatches,

portholes, or similar
openings to the affected
space
advance the hose team

into the room without any increase the ventilation to remove combustibles from
SF-0013
additional preparatory
the involved space
adjacent spaces
action
A large fire has developed in the main space of

your vessel and you are assigned to the hose team
and have suited up in a firefighter's ensemble suit. Atmospheric conditions.
What will determine the time allowed to combat the
fire before you should be relieved?
You are assigned to the hose team and have

suited up in a firefighting ensemble to fight a large
2 fire in the engine room. What will determine the
time allowed to combat the fire before you should
be relieved?
A solid stream of water is produced by an all10 purpose firefighting nozzle when the handle is
__________.
When the handle is in position "B", and piece "D" is
6 in place, the device shown in the illustration will
produce __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR),
2 which of the firefighting devices listed is not
permitted for use in the engine room?
A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an allpurpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator
1
is prevented from rotating in the joint by
__________.
Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into
5 an all-purpose combination nozzle, you must
__________.
Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into
4 the nozzle shown in the illustration, you must
__________.
To produce a low velocity water fog spray with an
8 all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must
__________.
Fire location.
Intensity of the fire.
Available air supply.
Illus
Ans
D
SF-0013
D
D
All of the above.
D
Intensity of the fire.
Available air supply.
All of the above.
D
pushed all the way
forward
pushed forward one notch pulled halfway back
pulled all the way back
no flow
a solid stream
low velocity fog
high velocity fog
Any rubber lined hose
Semi-portable CO2 fire

extinguishers
Combination nozzles
Eight foot applicators
water pressure
a locknut
a keeper screw
a spring-loaded catch
tighten the high velocity

fog tip
put the control handle in

the solid steam position
put the control handle in

the fog position
remove the high velocity

fog tip
move the handle to

position "B"
remove the device

move the handle to
indicated by the letter "E" position "A"
remove the device

indicated by the letter "D"
push the nozzle handle

completely forward
change the fire pump

discharge pressure
insert a low velocity fog

applicator
D
SF-0011
D
D
pull the nozzle handle

completely back
D
SF-0011
D
D

ABS
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
It sprays large droplets.
It is chained to the
combination nozzle.
It sprays a fine mist.
Illus
Ans
291151
Which of the following statements is true

concerning a low velocity fog tip?
It is usually kept in the

nozzle when stowed.
291154
Low velocity water fog is very effective in

__________.
removing toxic fumes from controlling the movement removing combustible

the air
of burning oil
vapors from the air
shielding fire fighters from

the fire
One of the uses for low velocity fog is to

__________.
Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a
__________.
help produce mechanical break apart class "A"

foam
combustibles
act as a heat shield to

protect the fire fighter
all of the above
291154
291155
291156
291200
291203
291205
291207
291207
291210
291254
cooling agent
a given amount of water

Water applied as a 'fog' can be more effective than
can absorb heat faster
water applied as a 'solid stream', because
when it is in the form of
__________.
fog
Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled
into a rack with the __________.
Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to

indefinitely maintain fire hoses?

the type of fire hose coupling threads required for
vessel fire equipment, on or after July 1, 1954,
shall be __________.
smothering agent
sweep burning liquids

overboard
barrier against radiant
heat
it reduces the total amount

of water that must be
it does not have to hit the
of all of the above
pumped into the ship to
seat of fire to be effective
fight a given fire
male and female ends

connected together to
prevent damage
Gasoline and oils act to
dissolve the rubber or
cement which holds the
inner jacket and lining
together.
female end available to be

male end attached to the
quickly connected to the
adjacent fire hydrant
hydrant
ABS standard
U.L. standard
nozzle end arranged to be

easily run out to the fire
Moisture will cause

Heat causes the rubber
mildew to form on the
All of the above.
lining to harden and crack. jacket which destroys the
cotton fiber.
American standard
a spanner wrench
a hose rack or other

device for stowing hose
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require fire

hydrants to be located in the propulsion machinery
spaces containing oil fired boilers. In addition,
straight through nozzle
vessels of 1,000 gross tons and over are to be
equipped with a __________.
12 foot low velocity fog

applicator
100 foot length of lined fire

coupling spanner wrench
hose
291254
291257
The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the

horizontal to any position pointing __________.
According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR), which of the following statements
concerning fire main shore connections for a
20,000 gross ton cargo vessel on an international
voyage is correct?
all of the above
A 2-1/2 inch hose should

Which of the following statements is FALSE
Hose nozzle thrust
be deployed with a
concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire
increases with an increase
minimum of a nozzleman
hose?
in hose pressure.
and two hose men.
Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be
installed __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), one length of fire hose
each fire hydrant must have at least __________. with an approved nozzle
National standard
Backup hoseman should

be positioned wherever
the hose makes a
significant turn.
The fire hose should be

partially charged before
deploying the hose from
the hydrant.
in screened enclosures in where they are protected

all passageways
from the weather
in a protected location to
prevent cargo damage
pointing downward or
horizontal to prevent
kinking of the fire hose
45 upward
vertically upward
90 upward
vertically downward
There must be at least

one shore connection to
the fire main system on
each side of the vessel.
Shore connections must

be in an accessible
location and fitted with
cutoff and check valves.
There must be at least

one portable international
All of the above.
shore connection flange
available.
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
automatic suction valve

shut off
pressure gage and relief

valve on the discharge
side
For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, butterfly valve on the
fire pumps are fitted with a/an __________.
discharge side
air priming valve on the

impeller housing
A cutoff valve in the fire main system of a MODU

may be closed to protect a portion of the system
on an exposed deck from __________.
damage from crane

operations
being used for wash down accidental diversion of

purposes
flow to wrong location
Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.
destroying the burning

materials
chemical reaction with the absorbing the burning

burning material
material
291403
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a lowbe dryer

expansion foam will __________.
291404
The agent cannot be used AFFF can only be

in conjunction with dry
produced from fresh
concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?
chemicals.
water.
291300
291352
291400
291405
291405
291453
291453
291500
291550
291551
291552
291600
291601
291601
291630
Which of the firefighting foams listed would require

the mechanical mixing of air and foam
concentrate?
Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in
both 3% and 6% concentrations?
The device shown in the illustration is a
__________.
The firefighting equipment shown in the illustration
is a/an __________.
One of the limitations of foam as a fire
extinguishing agent is that foam __________.
Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam
__________.
The most effective means for combating an oil fire
on the water surrounding a vessel is to use
__________.
The best means of combating an oil fire on the
water surface near a vessel tied to the pier, is to
use __________.
When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are
protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system,
what additional protection is required by Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the
machinery space entrance?
be less heat resistant
Ans
freezing
smothering the burning

material
not cling to vertical
surfaces
D
D
Because AFFF works

through surface tension, it
cannot be broken up if it is
agitated.
AFFF controls the

vaporization of flammable
liquids by means of a
water film.
Synthetic and alcohol

foams
Aqueous film forming

foam (AFFF)
All of the above
Mechanical foam
Protein foam

foam
All of the above
suicide nozzle
spanner hose pipe
fog applicator
mechanical foam nozzle
SF-0020
'suicide' nozzle
all-purpose nozzle
fog applicator
SF-0020
cannot be made with salt

water
penetrates to the bottom
of the fire
is heavier than oil and

sinks below it surface
is kept saturated with low
velocity water fog
solid streams of water
directed at the edge of the
fire
is corrosive and a hazard

conducts electricity
to fire fighters
mixes with the burning
completely covers the top
fuel oil
of the burning liquid
dry chemicals over the fire
foam directed against the

side of the vessel
solid water streams

directly into the fire
dry chemical around the

fire
foam directed against the

vessel's side
Protein foam
high velocity fog over the

fire
a fixed CO2 system
At least one portable foam At least ten cubic feet of

extinguisher
sand of with scoop
A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a

3 months
tank vessel must be recharged every __________.
At what interval must a foam fire extinguisher be
recharged if the vessel's Certificate of Inspection is Quarterly
issued for a period of two years?
The preferred fire extinguishing agent used in
fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is
CO2
__________.
be lighter
Illus
At least two fire hydrants

At least one semieach equpped with hose,
portable CO2 extinguisher
nozzle and applicator
6 months
9 months
12 months
Semiannually
Biennially
Annually
dry chemical
water
foam
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
291632
If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is

a Coast Guard inspection the safety man aboard the the designated person-in- the manufacturer, or his
not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid
officer
unit
charge of the unit
authorized representative
must be tested by __________.
291650
Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301

fire extinguishing equipment?
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a

Halon 1211
chain breaking action to put out a fire?
291651
291700
291751
291830
2
2
291902
291952
291952
291954
291955
291960
291964
The agent is highly toxic

under all conditions.
The agent is less effective Halon extinguishes the fire The agent is a colorless
than CO2.
by smothering.
odorless gas.
Halon 1301
Purple K
All of the above
Flammable gas fires are

not extinguished by fixed
systems; controlled
burning is recommended
until the fuel source can
be shut off.
Conventional fixed fire

extinguishing systems
may not be effective for
All of the above.
use against 'class D' fires
involving combustible
metals.
Which of the following conditions are true

concerning shipboard fire extinguishing systems?
Carbon dioxide and Halon

are both effective fixed
systems that protect
against 'class C' fires.
After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it

should be __________.
put back in service if more

than 50% of the charge
repainted
remains
hydrostatically tested
before reuse
discarded
base of the equipment
power source
source of the fire
Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should

be directed at the __________.
concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire
extinguishing agent?
In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces
from a fixed fire extinguishing system, you must
__________.
top of the equipment
Carbon dioxide is
corrosive when exposed
to fire.
Carbon dioxide should be

Its total cooling effect is
applied slowly to a large
far greater than water.
engine room fire.
open the engine room
actuate an alarm and
actuate an alarm and
control valve and shut off
engine room ventilation
control valve
CO2 releasing valve
fans
Two separate control
Only one control activation
An alarm must sound for
handles are required
handle is required for
at least 20 seconds before
when a stop valve is
discharge piping systems
CO2 is released into a
installed in the CO2
designed without a
space that is likely to be
discharge line leading to
separate stop valve.
occupied.
the protected space.
Its smothering effect is

excellent for class B fires.
control valve and then the
CO2 releasing valve

concerning the control station activation handles
for a space protected with a CO2 fixed fire
extinguishing system?
If heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from a

leave the door and vents open the door completely
partially open door of a paint locker having a CO2
enter and use a portable
open, but release the CO2 to evaluate the extent of
fire extinguishing system, the FIRST firefighting
extinguisher
flooding system
the fire
attack should be to __________.
secure the door and

vents, then manually
release the CO2
Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems

Sprinkler
is most effective for use in the cargo holds?
The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire

extinguishing system may be located inside the
50 pounds
protected space if the quantity of CO2 required to
protect that space is not more than __________.
In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, where
provision is made for the release of CO2 by the
inside the engine room
operation of a remote control, provision is also to
be made for releasing the CO2 from __________.
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
All of the above
Chemical foam
Dry chemical
CO2
75 pounds
100 pounds
300 pounds
D
D
D
the bridge
the engineering control

station
the cylinder location

ABS
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
47 lbs (21.3 kg)
50 lbs (22.7 kg)
55 lbs (24.9 kg)
70 lbs (31.7 kg)
cylinder bottle control

valve
hose reel type CO2 horn

in the open position
292000
If the empty weight of a B-III semi- portable CO2

fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what is its full
charged weight?
292001
In a semi portable CO2 system, the latch shown in all-purpose nozzle in a

the illustration is used to lock the __________.
solid stream position
portable foam nozzle in

the open position
A safety 'ring pin' is usually inserted in the handle the cylinder valve from
of a CO2 fire extinguisher to prevent __________. coming loose
when the remaining
Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should charge volume is less
be sent ashore to be recharged __________.
than 90 percent of the
required volume
Which portable fire extinguisher is normally
Dry chemical (cartridgerecharged in a shore facility?
operated)
How much warning must be provided by the CO2
warning alarm before CO2 is discharged into a
5 seconds
space?
Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind
Possible suffocation from
after using a 15 pound CO2 fire extinguisher on a
the CO2 gas.
small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?
You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor
plates of the engine room with a 15 pound (6.8 kg) Complete lack of oxygen
CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed
in the engine room.
should be prepared for next?
The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 cylinder
is 314 pounds. What is the total minimum weight of 282 lbs.
the cylinder before it must be recharged?
You receive the record of cylinder weights, shown
in the illustration, at the annual servicing of your
101 and 102
ship's CO2 system. Which pair of CO2 cylinders
requires recharging?
the handle from contacting contamination of the valve accidental discharge from
the cylinder
parts
the extinguisher
292003
292006
292008
292050
292052
292052
292100
292100
292103
292103
292103
292105
292105
If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has

tagged and restowed
been partially discharged, it should be immediately
properly in its rack
__________.
when the remaining
Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be charge volume is less
recharged __________.
than 90% of the required
volume
Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be
weighed annually and sent ashore for recharging if
Foam
the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of a full
charge?
Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a
It is more effective than
fire extinguishing agent?
CO2.
Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a
It is more effective than
fire extinguishing agent?
CO2.
at each inspection for

certification
at each annual inspection
Water (cartridgeoperated)
Water (pump tank)
Carbon dioxide
10 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
Forgetting to secure the

engine room ventilation
system.
CO2 gas being drawn into

nearby engine or air
Rekindling of the fire.
compressor intakes.
Chemical reaction of the

CO2 and oil forming
carbonic acid.
Sudden stoppage of the

main engine.
Rekindling of the fire.
294 lbs.
300 lbs.
304 lbs.
103 and 106
106 and 108
103 and 108
Illus
Ans
D
SF-0017
D
D
when the charge weight

loss exceeds 10%
D
D
D
D
D
D
SF-0014
D
weighed and the charge
loss recorded before
being returned to its rack
tagged 'empty' and

given to the chief engineer
stowed separately from
for recharging
charged extinguishers
when the remaining

at each biennial inspection at each annual inspection charge weight is 10% less
than the required weight
Soda acid
Dry chemical
Carbon dioxide
It leaves no residue.
It is noncorrosive.
It is always non-toxic.
It leaves no residue.
It is noncorrosive.
All of the above.
10

ABS
292106
VER Question
2
292106
292150
292154
292201
292204
292206
292250
1
4
292250
292251
292252
292301
292352

Choice A
What would be the approximate internal pressure

of a fully charged hand/portable 15 lb. CO2 fire
50 PSI
extinguisher, stored at average room temperature?
What would be the approximate internal pressure
of a hand/portable 15 lb. CO2 fire extinguisher that
has been partially discharged and lost 50% of its 50 PSI
charge and stored in a "Used Extinguisher Locker"
at room temperature?
Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by
soda acid
__________.
Following an engine room bilge fire which is
no sooner than 15
believed to be extinguished after using a fixed CO2
minutes after the fire is
fire extinguishing system, the investigating team
believed extinguished
should reenter the closed space __________.

which of the following statements is true
concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing
systems?

the piping, valves, and fittings for a fixed CO2 fire
extinguishing system shall have a bursting
pressure of not less than __________.
According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for
storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system must be
hydrostatically retested and restamped every
__________.
Aboard a MODU, a CO2 fire extinguisher must be
weighed __________.
After using a CO2 fire extinguisher on a MODU, it
should be __________.
On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide fire
extinguishing or other approved system, must be
installed __________.
Which of the listed firefighting systems is best
suited for fighting a fire in an oil rig ballast control
room?
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
200 PSI
400 PSI
850 PSI
Illus
Ans
D
200 PSI
400 PSI
850 PSI
foam
water fog
carbon dioxide
via the lowest access door

and equipped with SCBAs
via the lowest access door no sooner than 30
minutes after the fire is
believed extinguished
The space containing the

cylinders shall be properly
ventilated and designed to
preclude an ambient
temperature in excess of
100F (37.78C)
The cylinders which are

fitted with flexible or bent
siphon tubes may be
inclined not more than 30
from the vertical.
2000 psi (13.8 MPa)
2800 psi (19.3 MPa)
via the highest access

door and equipped with
SCBAs, one hour after the
fire is believed
extinguished
All cylinders used for

storing carbon dioxide
shall be fabricated, tested,
and marked in accordance
with the applicable section
of the American Welding
Society code.
The cylinders may be

located within the space
protected provided the
system consists of not
more than 300 pounds
(136.1 kg) of carbon
dioxide.
4000 psi (27.5 MPa)
6000 psi (41.1 MPa)
D
once in every calendar
year
5 years
monthly
quarterly
8 years
12 years
put back in service if some

CO2 remains
semiannually
annually
retagged
recharged
where oil or chemical

drums are stored
in a space with an oil fired

in paint lockers
boiler
in all of the above

locations
Automatic sprinkler
system
Steam smothering system Dry chemical system
Carbon dioxide system
removing the fuel by

Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire
absorbing the heated
by __________.
vapors
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration will
light water
be charged with __________.
D
D
cooling and removing the smothering and removing breaking up the molecular
oxygen from the fuel
the oxygen from the fuel chain reaction
chemical foam
11
carbon dioxide
dry chemical
D
SF-0006

ABS
292353
292355
VER Question
1

portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers are
classified by a letter and numeric designator. The
letter designation indicates __________.
In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire
extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated,
the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher
__________.

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
whether this type of

extinguisher is to be used the size of the
on deck or in machinery extinguisher
spaces
the type of extinguishing

agent
the type of fire the unit

could be expected to
extinguish
with the squeeze grip

trigger on top of the
container
by squeezing the control

valve carrying handle
by turning the activating

handle on the bottom of
the container
with the squeeze-grip

on/off nozzle at the end of
the hose
adding water to the

powder
painting the CO2 cartridge puncturing the CO2

red
cartridge
shaking the extinguisher

to loosen the caked-up
portions of the powder
Illus
Ans
Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire

extinguisher will include __________.
292400
Which of the following procedures should be used Make certain that the
Check to see that hose
to examine a cartridge- operated dry chemical fire pressure cartridge has not
and nozzle are clear.
extinguisher?
been punctured.
Ensure that dry chemical

is not become caked.
292455
Which of the listed methods, is the most effective

Direct the extinguisher
Approach the fire from the
to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using
discharge at the base of
windward side.
a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?
the fire.
Move the discharge

stream back and forth in a All of the above.
rapid sweeping motion.
292534
On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire

extinguishers are considered __________.
hand portable units
all-purpose units
fixed fire extinguishing

systems
292538
Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a

MODU must be marked with __________.
the name of the unit on

which it is located
the date that it was

installed on the unit
the names of the

an identification number
individuals qualified to use different from other
it
extinguishers on the unit
An example of class "A" fire is a/an __________.
electrical fire in the engine oil fire in the engine room oil fire involving a grade
room
bilges
"A" petroleum product
mattress fire in a
stateroom
292555
Burning magnesium is considered to be which of

the listed classes of fire?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
292602
When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you

should __________.
use only carbon dioxide
use only dry chemical
extinguish the fire, then

secure the source of gas
secure the source of gas,

then extinguish the fire
evacuate all engine room fight the fire with hand

personnel
portable extinguishers
activate the main CO2

bank
stop the flow of leaking

fuel oil
Dry chemical
CO2
Foam
All of the above
CO2
Dry chemical
Halon
All of the above
2.5 gallons of foam
20 pounds of dry chemical
35 pounds of carbon
dioxide
All of the above
15 pounds of carbon
dioxide
All of the above
Grease
All of the above
292400
292550
292603
292605
292605
292610
292610
292611
The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room

fire resulting from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is
to __________.
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be
used to effectively combat a class B fire?
Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be
used to fight a class "B" fire involving the duct work
for the galley stove?
According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed
fire extinguishers would be considered hand
portable/semi portable and capable of combating a
class "B" fire?
According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed

fire extinguishers would be considered hand
2.5 gallons of foam
portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?
10 pounds of dry chemical
Which of the listed burning materials would be

described as a class "B" fire?
Lube oil
Acetylene
12
All of the above.
semi-portable units
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
292613
292613
292650
292651
292651
5
4
292651
If ignited, which of the listed materials would be a

class "B" fire?
Which of the following substances is to be
considered as fuel for a class "B" fire?
If an electric motor catches fire, you should first
__________.
A class "C" fire is burning __________.
A class "C" fire would occur in __________.
Which of the listed materials would be considered
as a burning class "C" fire?
292653
When combating a class C fire, which of the

following dangers may be present?
292654
One of the main concerns when fighting a galley

fire is __________.
292655
292700
292700
292701
292702
292702
292753
292801
292803
292803
292804
Class C fires may be combated using a

__________.
A class "D" fire would be considered as burning
__________.
Fires involving combustible metals are classified
as __________.
A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class
__________.
A magnesium fire would be classified as a
__________.
Fires occurring in combustible metals, such as
sodium or magnesium, are classified as a
__________.
In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures'
means __________.
Records of tests and inspections of all fire
extinguishing systems onboard a cargo vessel
shall be kept onboard __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)
for uninspected vessels, all hand portable fire
extinguishers must be approved by the
__________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that the
maximum number of type B-II hand portable fire
extinguishers required aboard a 299 gross ton
uninspected motor vessel with 7000 BHP main
propulsion diesel engine is __________.
If your vessel's Certificate of Inspection requires
six B-II, two A-II and one B-V fire extinguisher,
which of the listed combinations will provide the
amount and type required?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Magnesium
Paper
W ood
Diesel Oil
W ood
Rags
Electrical insulation
Fuel oil
use a CO2 extinguisher
cool the motor with air
remove the load
de-energize the circuit
diesel oil
bedding
magnesium
pipe insulation
dunnage
paint
electrical insulation
a generator
D
D
D
Fuel oil
W ood
Celluloid
Electrical insulation
Water damage to
Increased surface area of
Toxic fumes from burning
Flooding of the vessel
machinery not involved in
the burning fluid
insulation or electric shock
the fire
the igniting of a grease fire
contamination food with
spreading of fire through
the loss of stability
in the range hood
extinguishing agent
the engineering space
ventilation system
carbon dioxide
dry chemical extinguisher
Halon extinguisher
all of the above
extinguisher
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
wood
oil
electrical equipment
magnesium
class "A" fires
class "B" fires
class "C" fires
class "D" fires
"A" fire
"B" fire
"C" fire
"D" fire
class A
class B
class C
class D
class A
class B
class C
class D
taking measures to
protecting exposed areas prevent the spread of fire
of the superstructure from from the involved
flames
compartment to an
adjacent compartment
for the period of validity of
until the next Coast Guard
the vessel's current
inspection
Certificate of Inspection
protecting fire fighters

from direct exposure to
the heat of the fire
keeping flames from

burning at the tank vents
for 1 year
for 2 years
American Bureau of
Shipping
National Fire Protection

Association
National Cargo Gear

Bureau
U.S. Coast Guard
one
three
six
nine
D
D
D
Six 2 1/2 gallon soda acid, Six 2 1/2 gallon foam, two Six 15 pound CO2, two 2
Eight 2 1/2 gallon foam
two 2 1/2 gallon foam, and 15 pound CO2, and one 1/2 gallon foam, and one
and one 100 pound CO2
one 40 gallon foam
30 pound dry chemical
50 pound CO2
13

ABS
292804
VER Question
293021
293026
293026
293027
293028
293031
293034
293035
293036
293037
293037
293039
293041
293043
293050
293055
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46

CFR Part 95), a 25,000 gross ton cargo vessel on
an ocean route, having two 10,000 HP oil fired
boilers, requires a certain quantity of hand portable
and semi-portable fire extinguishing systems in the
engine room. Which of the following quantities of
extinguishing agents would meet these
requirements?
If a vessel loses its reserve buoyancy, it will
__________.
The value of the maximum righting arm is
dependent upon the position of the center of
buoyancy and the __________.
The value of the maximum righting arm is
dependent upon the position of the center of
buoyancy and the __________.
The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical
upward support. The point through which this
support is assumed to act is known as the center
of __________.
In the absence of external forces, the center of
gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above
the __________.
If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or
greater than the displacement tonnage, the ship
will __________.
The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the
__________.
With no environmental forces present, the center
of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned
with the __________.
If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are
no movable or moving weights onboard, the center
of gravity will __________.
If additional weight is placed on the main deck of
the vessel shown in the illustration, __________.
If weight is added at "K" to the ship shown in the
illustration, __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
100 lbs. CO2, 20 lbs. dry

chemical
40 gals. Foam, 30 lbs

CO2
50 lbs. dry chemical, 5

gals. foam
All of the above
Illus
Ans
D
float upright with the main capsize and float on its
deck awash
side
remain unaffected if the

hull remains intact
most likely sink
longitudinal center of
gravity
transverse center of
gravity
down flooding angle
vertical location of the

center of gravity
longitudinal center of
waterplane area
transverse center of
waterplane area
down flooding angle
position of the center of

gravity
effort
flotation
gravity
buoyancy
D
D
D
D
metacenter
amidships
center of flotation
geometric center of the

displaced volume
require ballast added to

only the port side tanks
be down by the head
sink
float
height of the metacenter
righting arm
righting moment
metacentric height
longitudinal centerline
center of flotation
original vertical centerline center of buoyancy
move to port
move to starboard
move directly down
stay in the same position
K will rise
KB will go down
GM will increase
G will rise
SF-0023
"B" will go down
"G" will rise
'GM' will decrease
"G" will go down
SF-0023
The important stability parameter 'KG' is defined as

metacentric height
the __________.

above the keel
height of the center of

buoyancy above the keel

gravity above the keel
Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's

stability by __________.
decreasing off center

weight
increasing water area on

the keelson
preventing the free

surface effect
preventing water from

draining to the bilge well
A vessel which has been holed as shown in the

illustration, will probably __________.
The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel
is called __________.
Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a
vessel is known as __________.
flood until a state of

equilibrium is reached
result in a loss of reserve

reduce transverse stability
all of the above
buoyancy
yaw
sway
heave
surge
pitch
surge
sway
roll
14
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
SF-0005

ABS
293100
VER Question
3
293131
293132
A vessel is subjected to 'hogging' when it

__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
has its main deck under

compressive stress
has its bottom plating

under tensile stress
is supported on a wave
whose crests are at the
bow and stern
whose crest is amidships
list to starboard
trim by the stern
list to port
degree of list
amount of roll
difference in fore and aft

drafts
To use it as a secondary
service system.
To store reserve feed or

potable water for
extended cruises.
To stabilize the ship by

flooding certain designed
tanks with seawater.
mean draft
calculated draft
deep draft
load line draft
change of draft
centerline
angle of inclination
displacement
SF-0022
displacement
beam limit
bilge level
baseline
SF-0022
displacement
beam limit
center of buoyancy
baseline
SF-0022
If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the

go down by the head
ship will __________.
If a vessel initially has no list and no significant
trim, which of the developments shown in the
A
illustration will result in the greatest list?
293135
The trim of a vessel is the __________.
293153
To permit flooding of any

Which of the following statements describes one of
fuel oil storage tank on
the functions of the ballasting system?
any class of ship.
293155
293157
293158
293158
293158
293164
293165
293168
293206
293208
293250
293251
The maximum draft to which a mobile offshore

drilling unit may be safely loaded is called
__________.
Symbol #1, as shown in the illustration, refers to
__________.
The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration,
represents __________.
The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration,
represents a vessels __________.
Which symbol shown in the illustration is used as a
reference line from which the height of the center
of gravity is measured.
A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure
adequate stability and __________.
Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment
for a MODU must be made at intervals not
exceeding __________.
A load line for a MODU is assigned by the
__________.
value of the mean draft
D
SF-0025
D
D
2 SF-0022
lifesaving equipment
structural strength
18 months
two years
three years
five years
Minerals Management
Service
Department of Energy
Corps of Engineers
a recognized classification
society approved by the
Coast Guard
15
Tanks which are 40% full.
the vessel's draft is

increased, thus increasing a portion of liquid is
the vessel's wetted
removed from a full tank
surface area
only when there is neutral
at all times
stability
same as half the height of
zero
the metacenter
D
D
riser tension
Tanks which have been

completely emptied.
Ans
mooring tension
A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free

Tanks which have been
surface. Which of the listed conditions would
Tanks which are 95% full.
pressed up to full capacity.
develop the greatest adverse effect?
the vessel's draft is
Adverse effects due to free surface will become
the vessel is trimmed by decreased exposing more
apparent when __________.
the stern
surface area to the wind
and current
For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and
only when there is positive only when there is
the metacenter are in the line of action of the
stability
negative stability
buoyant force __________.
When the height of the metacenter has the same
value as the height of the center of gravity, the
gravity
metacentric height is equal to __________.
Illus
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
metacenter
center of buoyancy
center of flotation
center of gravity
incline further
flop to the other side
return to the angle of loll
capsize
incline less
flop to the other side
return to the angle of loll
ballast control alarms
excessive draft
excessive list or trim
a continual worsening of
list or trim
trim
yaw
heel
loll
intact stability
initial stability
immersion stability
damage stability
metacentric height
righting arm
righting moment
vertical moments
list to stabilize at an angle trim to stabilize at an

of loll
angle of loll
trim to increase
trim to decrease
increase the righting

moment
increase the righting arm
increase list or trim
decrease list or trim
increase the righting

moment
cause an increase in the

righting arm
bring the unit to an upright cause the unit to flop to a

equilibrium position
greater angle
in 50 knot winds
in 70 knot winds
in 100 knot winds
in any sea condition
gusset
joist
web
strongback
293252
The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or

compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in
the height of the __________.
293256
When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly

capsize
greater than the angle of loll, it will __________.
293256
293261
293262
293263
293265
293266
293302
293305
293306
293500
293504
293600
293605
293751
293753
293758
When the floating MODU inclines to an angle

slightly less than the angle of loll, it will
__________.
Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated
by __________.
The angle to which a floating MODU, with a
negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest
in still water is the angle of __________.
The stability existing after the unintentional
flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called
__________.
If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in
the height of the center of gravity, there will always
be an increase in the __________.
For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an
increase in 'GML' causes __________.
If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to offcenter ballast, counter flooding into empty tanks
will __________.
If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is
negative initial stability, counter flooding into empty
tanks may __________.
A weather tight door on a MODU must not allow
water to penetrate into the unit __________.
A flat block placed under the end of a wooden
shore for the purpose of distributing pressure
against a damaged structure is referred to as a
__________.
Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage
control to __________.
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
force a warped bulkhead
back into its normal
position
In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the

waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be welding over a plate patch
temporarily sealed by __________.
A hole in the hull above the waterline may be
pillows
temporarily patched with __________.
Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU
Damage below the
should be repaired first?
waterline.
control flooding, control
The order of importance in addressing damage
fire, repair structural
control on a MODU is __________.
damage
The procedure of strengthening damaged
structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is
bracing
called __________.
prevent fractures from

spreading
force a sprung bulkhead

back into place
support a damaged
bulkhead in position
stuffing a mattress in the

hole
rigging a collision mat
using a soft wooden plug
blankets
mattresses
All of the above.
Damage to interior
watertight boundaries.
restore vital services,
control fire, control
flooding
Damage to or in the
machinery rooms.
Damage at or just above

the waterline.
control fire, control
flooding, repair structural
damage
battening
blocking
16
control fire, restore vital

services, control flooding
shoring
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
readily accessible to
provided for all personnel
persons in the engine
on watch
room
readily accessible to
provided for all personnel
persons in the engine
on watch
room
Choice D
294000
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that

lifejackets shall be __________.
provided for each person

onboard
294000

lifejackets shall be __________.
provided for each person

onboard
294001
Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests

__________.
may be substituted for 10 should be stowed

percent of the required life adjacent to rescue boats
preservers
and emergency stations
may be used by boat

crews and line handlers
during rescue boat drills
should be used when

carring out duties near a
weather deck's edge
When it is approved by
the Coast Guard
When working near or

over the water
When stowed away from

the ring buoys
A work vest may never be

counted as a lifejacket
When it is approved by
the Coast Guard
When working near or

over the water
When stowed away from

the ring buoys
A work vest may never be

counted as a lifejacket
used as seats, pillows, or

left on open decks
foot rests
294001
294001
294003
294003
294006
Kapok lifejackets require proper care and should

NOT be __________.
Which of the following statements is TRUE

concerning lifejackets?
Lifejackets can be worn

Buoyant vests may not be
with any side facing
substituted for lifejackets.
outwards.
Lifejackets are designed

to turn a person's face
clear of the water when
unconscious.
Which of the following statements concerning

immersion suits is correct?
The immersion suit seals

Suits are not required to
in all body heat and
automatically turn an
provides protection
unconscious person faceagainst hypothermia for
up in the water.
weeks.
The suits provide for

The suit is flameproof and
limited body movement
provides protection to the
such as walking, climbing
wearer while swimming
a ladder, and picking up
through burning oil.
small objects like a pencil.
The external floatation bladder of an immersion

suit should be inflated __________.
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit
should be inflated __________.
only after two hours in the

water
only after two hours in the
water
294007
294008
294010
294010
294100
all of the above
stowed near open flame

or where smoking is
permitted
294007
294008
Which of the following conditions will allow for a

work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the
total count of the required lifesaving gear?
Which of the following conditions will allow for a
work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the
total count of the required lifesaving gear?
all of the above
If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship

while far at sea, it is important for the crew
members to __________.
use your hands to hold

your knees to your chest
throw a life ring overboard hail 'Man Overboard'

throw them a life ring
hail 'Man overboard'
To replace a damaged life

For use during fire drills.
preserver.
17
D
D
D
D
D
D
cover your eyes with one

enter the water at the bow
hand while pinching your
or stern, on the windward
nose shut and covering
side of the vessel
your mouth with the other
pass the word to the
bridge
pass the word to the
bridge
Ans
All of the above
only after four hours in the

before entry into the water upon enter into the water
water
only after four hours in the
before entry into the water upon entry into the water
water
remain together in the
separate from each other get away from the area
area because rescuers
immediately head for the
as this will increase the
because sharks will be
will start searching at the
nearest land
chances of being rescued attracted to the vessel
vessel's last known
position
break the water surface

When jumping into water upon which there is an oil
with your hands when
fire, you should __________.
diving head first
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should
__________.
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should
__________.
On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted
for a required life preserver?
all of the above
Illus
D
D
D
all of the above
all of the above
For use during boat drills. At no time.

ABS
294100
VER Question
3
294103
294103
294104
294104
294107
294108
294109
294109
294200
294200
To replace a damaged life

jacket.
above 20 degrees North
and below 20 degrees
South
South
when the power source is
replaced
when the power source is
replaced
Choice B
Choice C
For use during fire drills.
For use during boat drills. At no time.

South
South

South
South
each year after installation every six months

each year after installation every six months
Choice D

South
South
when it is no longer
serviceable
as indicated by the
expiration date
upon entering the

helicopter
after reaching the water,

prior to reaching the water but prior to exiting the
helicopter
after exiting clear of the

helicopter
Once a month
Once a year
Once a week
Once every four months
held as tightly against

your chest as possible
in a kneeling position
extended straight down

and crossed at the ankles
If you have to jump into the water when

abandoning a MODU, your legs should be
__________.
spread apart as far as

possible


one category 1 406 MHz

satellite EPIRB
at least one lifebuoy on

each side of the vessel
fitted with a buoyant
lifeline
at least 12 rocket
parachute flares
all of the above
10 Each OSV must carry __________.
13
294200
294200
294201
294202
Choice A
If you have to jump in the water when abandoning spread apart as far as
ship, your legs should be __________.
possible
294200
294202
On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted

for a required life jacket?
The immersion suit requirements for MODUs apply
to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean
__________.
The immersion suit requirements for OSVs apply
to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean
__________.
The light on a personal flotation device on a
MODU must be replaced __________.
The light on a personal flotation device on a OSV
must be replaced __________.
You are involved in an emergency landing of a
helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life
jacket __________.
How often is the line throwing appliance required
to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
standing on the inflating
cylinder and pulling on the
straps on the underside of
the raft
standing on the inflating
cylinder and pulling on the
straps on the underside of
the raft
If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be

righted by __________.
filling the stabilizers on

one side with water
releasing the CO2 cylinder
If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be

righted by __________.
filling the stabilizers on

one side with water
releasing the CO2 cylinder
pushing up from under

one end
manropes
sea painter
righting strap
manropes
sea painter
righting lines
shallow draft
large sail area
all of the above
To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down,

canopy
you should pull on the __________.
To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down,
canopy
you should pull on the __________.
Liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due
shape
to their __________.
If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the
liferaft just after it has inflated, you should
__________.
quickly hunt for the hole

before the raft deflates

__________.

pushing up from under

one end
Illus
check the painter line

check the sea anchor line
attachment for a tear
for a tear if the seas are
caused by the initial
rough
opening
rough
opening
18
not panic as the relief

valves allow excess
pressure to escape
valves allow excess
pressure to escape

ABS
294202
VER Question
8

__________.
You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable
raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous
hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube.
Which of the following statements identifies the
cause of this situation?
A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is
__________.
A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C


rough
opening
Choice D
valves allow excess
pressure to escape
Illus
Ans
The inflation pump is in

The saltwater is activating
automatic operation to
the batteries of the marker
keep the tubes full
lights on the canopy.
inflated.
A deflation plug is partially Excess inflation pressure

open allowing the escape is bleeding off and should
of CO2.
soon stop.
overhead safety straps
built in seats
internal releasing hooks
overhead safety straps
built in seats
internal releasing hooks
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require

a first aid kit
inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.
an instruction manual
a sea anchor
all of the above
12
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require

a first aid kit
inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.
an instruction manual
a sea anchor
all of the above
294203
294203
4
9
Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
an oil lantern
an oil lantern
canned milk
canned milk
a towing bridle
a towing bridle
294203
Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. jackknife
towing connection
lifeline
all of the above
294203
10 Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. jackknife
towing connection
lifeline
All of the above
should be kept in a
watertight cover except in
an emergency
should be kept in a
watertight cover except in
an emergency
will inflate the raft in its

cradle if operated
manually
will inflate the raft in its
cradle if operated
manually
must be submerged to a
certain depth to release
automatically
must be submerged to a
certain depth to release
automatically
at the stern
in the middle
all around
loosening the turnbuckle

on the securing strap
pushing the button on the

hydrostatic release
removing the rubber

packing strip
throwing the entire

container overboard
pushing the plunger on
the center of the
hydrostatic release
294202
294203
294203
294203
294203
a portable radio
a portable radio
294204
20
A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft

__________.
must be wet before it will

release
294204
33
A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft

__________.
must be wet before it will

release
294204
A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft

22
__________.
A raft should be manually released from its cradle
by __________.
294204
11
294204
An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by

14
__________.
294204
21
294204
294204
13
45
If you wish to remove an inflatable liferaft from its

cradle, the best way to free it is by __________.
To launch a liferaft by hand, you should
__________.
To launch a liferaft by hand, you should
__________.
at the bow
cutting the straps that
enclose the container
pulling a cord
cutting the restraining
strap
removing the rubber

sealing strip from the
container
cutting the wire restraining
bands
unscrewing the turnbuckle

lifting one end of the raft
on the back of the cradle
cut the casing bands,

detach the operating cord,
throw the raft over the
throw the liferaft over the throw the raft over the
side and pull the operating
side and it will then inflate side and it will then inflate
cord
detach the operating cord,
throw the raft over the
throw the liferaft over the throw the raft over the
side and it will inflate
side and it will inflate
cord
19
the use of water stabilizing

pockets
the use of water stabilizing
pockets
throw the liferaft over the

cord
throw the liferaft over the
cord
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
294204
294205
294205
294206
294206
294206
294206
294206
294206
294208
294208
294209
294210
294211
294211
294211
294216
VER Question
Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated
23 liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which
sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to
1
__________.
You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to
6
__________.
After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept
2
dry inside by __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
The hydrostatic release
A shear pin
A Rottmer release
A weak link in the painter
keep the liferaft from

capsizing
capsizing
opening the automatic
drain plugs
navigate against the

current
navigate against the
current
keep personnel from

getting seasick
keep personnel from
getting seasick
using the electric bilge
draining the water pockets
pump
help stay in the general

location
stay in the general
location
using the bailers and
cellulose sponge
each raft should go in a

different direction in
search of land
the possibility of a search

aircraft finding you is
increased by spreading
out
reduce the number of rafts

tie each of the rafts
by getting as many people
together and try to stay in
as possible into as few
a single group
rafts as possible

If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel
has sunk, __________.
search of land

out

a single group
rafts as possible

If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel
14
has sunk, __________.
search of land

out

a single group
rafts as possible
13
If more than one liferaft is manned after a vessel

has been abandoned, __________.
separate the rafts as

When a ship is abandoned and there are several
much as possible to
6 liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be
increase chances of
done is __________.
detection
separate the rafts as
When a ship is abandoned and there are several
much as possible to
12 liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be
increase chances of
done is __________.
detection
In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it
1
lifelines
on deck, you should heave on the __________.
In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it
4
lifelines
on deck, you should heave on the __________.
The lights on the outside of the canopy of an
by turning the globe
6
inflatable liferaft operate __________.
clockwise
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters.
Wet clothes during the
1 Which of the following procedures should be used day to decrease
during a prolonged period in a liferaft?
perspiration.
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft
2
asphyxiation from CO2
will provide protection against __________.
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft
3
will provide protection against __________.
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will
4
provide protection against ________.
The painter on a rigid liferaft must have a length
2 sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an
5 meters (16 feet)
additional __________.
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
transfer all supplies to one transfer all the injured to

raft
one raft
secure the rafts together

to keep them from drifting
apart
transfer all supplies to one transfer all the injured to

raft
one raft
secure the rafts together

to keep them from drifting
apart
righting strap
sea anchor
towing bridle
righting strap
sea anchor
towing bridle
by a switch at each light
by a light sensor
automatically when the

raft is inflated
Get plenty of rest.
Keep the entrance

curtains open.
All of the above.
rough seas
cold water temperatures
rough seas
rough seas
15 meters (50 feet)
20 meters (66 feet)
loss of air in the sides of

the raft
the raft
the raft
10 meters (31 feet)
20

ABS
VER Question
294300
294300
294301
294301
294301
294301
294302
294303
294306
294306
Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat

includes __________.
Required equipment for a lifeboat includes a
__________.
If help has not arrived in 10 to 12 hours after
abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should
__________.
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after
abandoning ship in a lifeboat, you should
__________.
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having
abandoned a MODU in a survival craft, you should
__________.
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having
abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should
__________.
the fuel tanks of motor- propelled lifeboats shall be
__________.
Frapping lines __________.
Each personal flotation device light on a MODU

3 that has a non-replaceable power source must be
replaced __________.
Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that
20 has a non-replaceable power source must be
replaced __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
a boathook
painter
whistle
all of the above
boathook
first aid kit
whistle
all of the above
go in one direction until

the fuel runs out
plot course for the nearest plot a course for the

land
nearest sea lane
shut down the engines if

installed, and set the sea
anchor

the fuel runs out
plot course for the nearest plot a course for the

land
nearest sea lane
shut down the engines

and set the sea anchor

the fuel runs out
plot course for the nearest take a vote on which

land
direction you should go
shutdown the engines and

set the sea anchor

the fuel runs out
plot course for the nearest take a vote on which

land
shutdown the engines and

set the sea anchor
emptied and gas freed

when the ship is drydocked
294306
When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a

17 survival craft, you should activate the signal
__________.
every six months after

initial installation
every 12 months after


on or before the expiration

date of the power source
every six months after



on or before the expiration

date of the power source
straight ahead
at the vessel whose

attention you want to
attract
approximately 60 above
the horizon
at the stern of the craft
on the downwind side of

the craft
into the wind
at about 60 degrees
above the horizon
into the wind
at about 60 degrees
above the horizon
on the upwind side of the

inside the craft
craft
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it

straight overhead
should be aimed __________.
294306
13
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it

straight overhead
should be aimed __________.
294308
294308
294310
emptied and the fuel

changed at least once
each year
give the occupants a

reduce the swinging of the
safety line when the boat
lifeboat at the embarkation
is being lowered from the
level
embarkation level
294306
Which of the following persons may command a

3
lifeboat in ocean service?
Who is charged with appointing persons to be in
4 command of the lifeboats and/or liferafts on a
mobile offshore drilling units?
After having activated the emergency position
12 indicating radio beacon(EPRIB), you should
__________.
constructed so as to be
completely spill proof
hydrostatically tested at
each inspection for
certification
secure the lifeboat in the bring the lifeboat close

davits when in the stowed alongside the rail in the
position
embarkation position
When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should

into the wind
be aimed __________.
294306
at the vessel whose

attract
at the vessel whose
attract
Licensed deck officer
Able seaman
Certified lifeboatman
All of the above
Rig superintendent
Tool pusher
Company man
Designated person- incharge
turn it off for five minutes

every half- hour
turn it off and on at five

minute intervals
turn it off during daylight

hours
leave it on continuously
21
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
turn it off for five minutes

every half- hour
turn it off and on at five

minute intervals
turn it off during daylight

hours
leave it on continuously
294310
After having activated the emergency position

indicating radio beacon, you should __________.
294310
must be stowed in a
must be stowed where it is
Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must
is a device that transmits
manner so that it will float readily accessible for
have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.
a radio signal
free if the vessel sinks
testing and use
all of the above
16
If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be

used to __________.
hold the lifeboat's head up

generate orange smoke
into the seas
seal leaks in rubber rafts
send radio homing signals

to searching aircraft
294310

used to __________.

into the seas

294310
13

used to __________.

into the seas

Your radio call sign.
Your position by latitude

and longitude.
Your radio call sign.
Your position by latitude

and longitude.
294310
294311
294312
294313
294314
294314
294315
294316
294319
294320
294322
Ans
294310
294310
Illus
D
D
D
You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress

message. What information would be essential to The nature of the distress. The time of day.
your rescuers?
You are in a survival craft, broadcasting a distress
message. What information would be essential to The nature of the distress. The time of day.
your rescuers?
mechanically stop the
The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a automatically stop the
boat when the hand brake
lifeboat handling winch is intended to __________. boat if electric power fails
fails
You will find a limit switch on a __________.
liferaft cradle
radial davit
keep the davits from
The purpose of the wire stretched between the
keep the movement of the
slipping when they are in
lifeboat davit heads is to __________.
davits at the same speed
the stowed position
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a
use the voice transmission
liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon
switch the EPIRB to the
capability of the EPIRB to
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
homing signal mode
guide the aircraft to your
should __________.
raft
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a
use the voice transmission
liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon
switch the EPIRB to the
capability of the EPIRB to
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
homing signal mode
guide the aircraft to your
should __________.
raft
Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient
6 hours
12 hours
fuel to operate for how many hours?
prevent vibration during

lowering of the boat
18 hours
24 hours
AMVER is a system which provides __________.
weather information
position reporting service
An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft

means the cable can be released __________.
The backup system on an electric start survival
craft is a __________.
The air regeneration canister on a survival craft is
designed to __________.
automatically control the

hold the load suspended
speed of lowering by
during lowering operations
gravity
sheath-screw davit
gravity davit
support the manropes
use visual distress signals

turn on the strobe light on
in conjunction with the
the top of the EPIRB
EPIRB
use visual distress signals
turn on the strobe light on
in conjunction with the
the top of the EPIRB
EPIRB
satellite communications
navigational information
only when the load is

taken off the cable
only when activated by the

only there is a load on the
controls at the lowering
at any time
cable
station
hydraulic system
pneumatic system
assist in cold starting the

engine
spare battery
fill the accumulator bottles help start the engine
22
D
D
D
D
D
hand crank
remove carbon dioxide

and provide oxygen

ABS
294324
294324
294324
294325
294327
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside to
person being lifted slips
boat to assist the person prepare for their transfer provide body weight for
from the sling
being lifted
to the helicopter
stability
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a

survival craft, the other individuals in the craft
should __________.
enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside the
craft to assist the person prepare for their transfer craft to provide body
from the sling
being lifted
to the helicopter
weight for stability
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an

enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat
should __________.
enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside to
boat to assist the person prepare for their transfer provide body weight for
from the sling
being lifted
to the helicopter
stability
2
2
6
294327
294327
294332
When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman

should instruct the crewman to __________.
If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival
craft, you should first __________.
If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival
craft, you should first __________.
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you
should first __________.
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you
should first __________.
MODU survival craft is manufactured with fire
retardant __________.
check the fuel level

abandon the survival craft
increase the speed of the
survival craft
foam
open the doors
marine plywood
The diesel engine will take

The ventilators will
its air supply from outside
automatically close by the
the lifeboat to prevent
action of fusible links.
asphyxiation of the crew.
294335
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to pass out food and water to open the doors and start
arrive at the survival craft should __________.
personnel
the sprinkler system
294335
Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft? Roustabout
294337
Seawater may be used for drinking water

__________.
When you are wearing a self-contained breathing

heat in the canister or
apparatus, you should immediately return to fresh
hose
air if you feel __________.
294408
While wearing a self-contained breathing

apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of
the following conditions does this indicate?
Why should you wear a self-contained breathing

apparatus before entering a closed compartment
to fight a fire?
take the lifejackets off
shift all personnel to the

check for cracks in the hull
stern
bow
stern
stern
stern
Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed

lifeboats. Which of the following statements is
correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?
294406
Choice D
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a

rescue boat, the other individuals in the boat
should __________.
294406
Choice C
294327
294333
steel
First man aboard
Last man aboard

if gather during or
at a maximum rate of two after mixing with an equal
immediately after a hard
ounces per day
quantity of fresh water
rain
excess air flow in the
mask
There is approximately
There is a 4-5 minute
500 psi (3.5 MPa) of
supply of air remaining in
pressure left in the air
the air cylinder.
cylinder.
The fire produces smoke,
The fire produces carbon
which contains toxic
monoxide which causes
gases that cause
an oxygen deficiency in
breathing difficulties and
the brain and body,
irritation of the respiratory
leading quickly to death.
tract.
23
Ans
check that hooks are fully

locked in place
check the bilge drain plug
check the bildge drain

plug
check the bilge drain plug
check the bildge drain

plug
fiberglass
A pressurized air tank will

A water spay system to
provide approximately ten
cool the outside of the
minutes of air for the
boat is operated by a highsurvivors and the diesel
volume manual pump.
engine.
activate the emergency
release handle
Illus
open the doors and

prepare the craft for
boarding
Helmsman
under no circumstance
two pulls on the safety line
nauseous, dizziness or
high breathing resistance
The wearer should

immediately leave the
contaminated area.
All of the above.
D
D
D
D
D
The fire consumes oxygen

which may lead to
All of the above.
asphyxiation.

ABS
VER Question
294409
294409
294410
Choice D
The weight of the unit

The lens of the face piece
The attached lifeline limits All of the above are
changes the user's center reduces the user's
the user's mobility.
correct.
of gravity.
peripheral vision.
The weight of the unit
The lens of the face piece
The attached lifeline limits
changes the user's center reduces the user's
All of the above.
the user's mobility.
of gravity.
peripheral vision.
the donning of the face

piece
the stowing of the face

piece
the maintenance of the

face piece
all of the above
Put on an approved selfcontained breathing

apparatus.
Have someone stand by

the entrance.
Wear a lifeline.
All of the above.
Protective clothing and

explosion-proof flashlight
Flame safety lamp and

resuscitation equipment
Combustible gas indicator Self-contained breathing

and canister gas mask
apparatus and lifelines
Wear an approved selfcontained breathing

apparatus.
Attach a lifeline to the

rescuer.
Have someone stand by

All of the above.
outside the compartment.
Which type of respiratory protection is preferable U.S. Navy Oxygen

for the repair/investigation personnel in a hydrogen Breathing Apparatus
sulfide (H2S) environment?
(OBA)
Emergency Escape
Breathing Apparatus
(EEBA)
Self-Contained Demand- Postive Self- Contained

Type Breathing Apparatus Breathing Apparatus
(SCDBA)
(SCBA)
Manufacturers of self contained breathing

apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate
Size "Small" is green.
different sizes. Which of the following statements is
true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces?
Size "Large" (standard) is

Size "Extra Large" is red. All of the above.
black.
Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed

on the __________.
manning list
294420
294420
295000
Choice C
a toxic atmosphere in the

all of the above
compartment
294420
295000
Choice B
an explosive mixture in
the compartment
294426
Choice A
sufficient oxygen to
sustain human life
294416
294422
What operational limitation should the user of a

self-contained breathing apparatus be concerned
with when using the device?
While wearing a self-contained breathing
apparatus, the user must be aware of the
bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined
spaces. Of what other limitations should the user
be aware?
You are about to enter a compartment to
investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're
not wearing an self- contained breathing
apparatus, you should test the compartment's
atmosphere to determine if there is/are
__________.
The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a
self-contained breathing apparatus is directly
influenced by __________.
A crew member has been overcome by toxic
fumes in the pump room. Which of the following
actions should be taken before entering the pump
room to rescue the victim?
When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to
rescue an unconscious person, which items of the
equipment listed are you required to be using?
Which of the following is considered as the correct
action for the rescue of an unconscious person
from a compartment containing an unsafe
atmosphere?
12 Where should muster lists be posted?
295000
295001
Ans
ship's articles
D
D
D
official log book
Muster List ("Station Bill")
In the engine room
All of the above
permit to proceed
certificate of inspection
boat recall
man overboard
boat stations (abandon

ship)
In crew's accommodation
On the navigating bridge
spaces
Your assigned emergency stations aboard your

clearance papers
vessel can be found on the ship's __________.
When more than six short blasts and one long
blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the
fire and emergency
same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded,
the signal is for __________.
Illus
24

ABS
295001
295001
295004
VER Question
9
295005
295005
295005
295005
295007
295008
295008
295008
4
2
When more than six short blasts and one long

blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the
same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded,
the signal is for __________.
While working in the engine room, you hear seven
short blasts followed by one long blast on the
ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal
on the general alarm bells. You should
__________.
survival craft, you should activate the signal
__________.
Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR, stipulate that in
addition to emergency signals, muster lists must
specify _________.
specify __________.
specify __________.
specify_____________.
According to 46 CFR Part 199, emergency signals
for use on passenger vessels are to be
conspicuously posted and listed __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR
Part 199), all United States merchant vessels are
required to have muster lists to be posted
__________.
Each person on the rig has a designated area to
proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is
shown clearly on the rig's __________.
What information must be entered on the MODU
Muster List ("Station Bill")?
The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be
indicated __________.
What safety precautions should be observed by
the crew while working around machinery in an
engine room?

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
fire and emergency
boat recall
man overboard

ship)
start the fire pump to

charge the fire main
actions to be taken by
persons on board when
each signal is sounded
the duties assigned to

the signal for abandoning
different members of the
the vessel
crew
the order to abandon the
vessel
crew
vessel
crew
vessel
crew
all of the above

all of the above
all of the above
all of the above
All of the above
on the navigating bridge
in the crew
accommodation spaces
all of the above
firefighting plan
shipping articles
Duties and station of each

person during
emergencies.
on the Muster List
("Station Bill")
Use and application of

special equipment.
Listing of approved
emergency equipment.
at each alarm bell
at each alarm actuator
near all exits
They should wear safety

shoes.
They should wear ear

protection.
They should not wear

jewelry.
Keep a load on the hoist

until all personnel are
finished working.
Set the load on a movable Have one man keep a

Insure that the lifting gear
dolly when transportation hand on the load to steady
capacity is not exceeded.
may be needed.
it.
295104
To safeguard the operator and other personnel

working on or near a hoisting operation, which of
the following precautions should be observed?

all exposed and dangerous areas around
covers
machinery, such as gears and rotating parts, shall
be properly protected with __________.
guards
rails
D
D
D
D
D
D
Names of all crew

members.
295102
Ans
D
the craft
at normally occupied
spaces
in the engine room
Illus
go to your lifeboat station
on the Emergency
at each Muster Station
Instructions Cabin Poster
standby the main console

and await orders from the go to your fire station
engineer on watch

inside the craft
craft
295009
295106
All of the above.
D
D
D
D
any of the above
D
25

ABS
VER Question
295106
295109
295120
295200
295201
295203
295205
295207
295208
295208
295210
For the protection of personnel, moving parts of

rotating machinery are required to be fitted with
________.
If accidents are considered as an 'unexpected
contact', you will be able to perform a better job by
observing which of the following practices?
Under Title 33 CFR, at or above what level of
"Blood Alcohol Concentration" would constitute a
crew member as being considered "Under the
Influence of Alcohol" on a commercial vessel?
During severe storms, when survival becomes a
major concern, it may become necessary to relieve
high anchor tensions on the windward side of the
MODU by __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
audible alarms
bright lights
reflective tape
cover guards
Looking for unsafe

practices.
Inspecting for unsafe

conditions.
Analyzing jobs for safer

methods.
All of the above.
0.16%
0.12%
0.08%
Illus
D
D
0.04%
D
deballasting the rig
ballasting the rig
paying out cable on the

windward side
paying out cable on the

leeward side
National Ocean Service.
Appropriate Officer- inCharge, Marine

Inspection.
To which of the listed authorities must a MODU

report a collision with an aid to navigation?
Nearest Oceanographic
Office.
Personnel who are moving or handling material

aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed
practices?
Closing, tagging, or
Signaling that all
Examining material for
securing valves that
Throwing materials from
personnel are clear before sharp edges or protruding permit entrance of steam,
high places to the deck.
lifting or lowering material. points before handling.
water, or air into a fitting or
other equipment.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended

safe practice?
Captain of the Port.
Securing equipment
Operating machinery at its Repairing loose handles
against slipping or drifting. recommended speed.
on tools before using.
Using tools for purposes

for which they are not
designed.
According to Federal Regulations, a confined or

enclosed space that is being prepared for crew
members to enter, should be tested and
13.50%
15.50%
17.50%
designated "NOT SAFE FOR WORKERS" if the
oxygen content of the atmosphere in the
compartment is LESS than ____.
concentration of
adjacent spaces have not
enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared
oxygen content is above flammable vapors in the been inspected for
for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and
all of the above
22%
atmosphere is 10% or
combustible materials and
designated "NOT SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if
more of the L.E.L.
possible spread of fire
_______.

enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared oxygen content is below
for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and 22%
designated "SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if _______.
concentration of
flammable vapors in the
atmosphere is less than
10% of the L.E.L.
adjacent spaces have

been inspected for
all of the above
An injury to a crew
member which renders
According to 46 CFR, what accident situation on a that person unfit to
vessel would be considered by the Coast Guard as perform routine vessel
a "Serious Marine Incident"?
duties and requires
professional medical
treatment.
Damage to property in
excess of $100,000.
A discharge of 10,000
gallons or more of oil into
All of the above.
navigable waters of the
U.S.
Ans
D
D
D
D
19.50%
D
26

ABS
295211
295213
VER Question
1
295501
295501
295510
295516
295516
295600
296001
296002
296003
296007
296007
296009
296009
According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly

involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are
required to submit a urine specimen for screening
of dangerous drug use within ______.
According to 46 CFR, all mariners directly involved
in a "Serious Marine Incident" are prohibited from
consuming alcohol until alcohol testing has been
performed or _____.
abandoning an OSV, your legs should be
__________.
abandoning ship, your legs should be
__________.
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters.
Which of the following procedures should be used
during a prolonged period in a liferaft ?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
2 hours
12 hours
24 hours
32 hours
2 hours following the

incident

incident

incident

incident

possible



possible


Get plenty of rest.
Keep the entrance

curtains opened.
All of the above.
The raft may be boarded

before it is fully inflated.
All of the above.
The raft may be boarded

before it is fully inflated.
All of the above.
Crew members can jump

into the raft without
damaging it.
Crew members can jump
into the raft without
damaging it.
According to 46 CFR, the float free link attached to 100-134 lbs for buoyant
200-268 lbs for buoyant
400-536 lbs for buoyant
a sea painter on a liferaft shall have a breaking
apparatus with a capacity apparatus with a capacity apparatus with a capacity All of the above
strength of __________.
of 10 persons or less
of 11 to 20 persons
of 21 persons or more
Ans
Wet clothes during the

day to decrease
perspiration.
The floor may be inflated
for insulation from cold
concerning an inflatable liferaft?
water.
The floor may be inflated
Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable
for insulation from cold
liferaft?
water.
A person suffering from a heart attack may show

which of the following symptoms?
A person suffering from a heart attack may show
which of the following symptoms?
When applying chest compressions on an adult
victim during CPR, the sternum should be
depressed about __________.
You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim.
While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent
that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the
following actions should you take?
While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent
that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the
following actions should you take?
Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of
__________.
Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of
__________.
Illus
D
D
D
D
D
D
Shortness of breath
Pain in the left arm
Nausea
All of the above
Shortness of breath
Pain in the left arm
Nausea
All the above
1/2 inch or less
1/2 to 1 inch
1 to 1 1/2 inches
1 1/2 to 2 inches
Press on the victim's

lungs so that air pressure
will blow out any
obstruction.
will blow out any
obstruction.
Blow harder to force the

air past the tongue.
Raise the victim's head

higher than his feet.


drowning
electrocution
poisoning
All of the above
drowning
electrocution
poisoning
All of the above
27
Re-tip the head and try

again.

again.

ABS
296011
296011
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
ignore it and continue

If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the
mouth-to- mouth
best immediate procedure to follow is __________.
ventilation
pause for a moment until

turn the patient's body to
the patient appears quiet switch to mouth-to- mouth
the side, sweep out the
again, then resume mouth- ventilation
mouth and resume CPR
to-mouth ventilation
by not stopping the
respiration for more than
five minutes
by not stopping the
respiration for more than
five minutes
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial

respiration should be done __________.
at ten minute intervals
296015

296020
The MOST important element in administering

CPR is __________.
having the proper

treating for shock
equipment for the process
The MOST important element in administering

CPR is __________.
296101
296109
Choice D
pause for a moment until

turn the patient's body to
the patient appears quiet switch to mouth-to- mouth
the side, sweep out the
again, then resume mouth- ventilation
mouth and resume CPR
to-mouth ventilation
296021
Choice C
ignore it and continue

If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the
mouth-to- mouth
best immediate procedure to follow is __________.
ventilation
296015
296020
You are administering chest compressions on an

adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be
depressed about __________.
A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration
of the arm requiring sutures to close if medical
facilities were available. Which of the following
remedies can be done to temporarily close the
wound?
A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of
the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can
be done as an alternative to suturing to close the
wound?
In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a
wound should be controlled by __________.
296111
296113
A person reports to you with a fishhook in his

thumb. To remove it you should __________.
296202
A compound fracture is a fracture __________.
296203
You are treating a shipmate with a compound

fracture of the lower arm. Which of the listed
actions should you take?
only with the help of two

other people
without losing the rhythm

of respiration
only with the help of two

other people
without losing the rhythm

of respiration
administering of oxygen
starting the treatment

quickly
having the proper

treating for shock
administering of oxygen
starting the treatment

quickly
1/2 inch or less
1/2 inch to 1 inch
1 inch to 1-1/2 inches
1-1/2 inch to 2 inches
Wrap a tight bandage

around the wound.
Gently close the wound

Apply butterfly strips and
and while holding it closed Use temporary stitches of
cover with a sterile
applya compression
sail twine.
dressing.
bandage.
Massage the area to

maintain circulation.
Use temporary stitches of Wrap a tight bandage

sail twine.
around the wound.
Apply butterfly strips, then

a sterile dressing.
submerging the wound in applying direct pressure to

applying a tourniquet
cooling the wound with ice
lukewarm water
the wound
push the barb through, cut
cut the skin from around
have a surgeon remove it pull it out with pliers
it off, then remove the
the hook
hook
in which the same bone is
which causes external
in which more than one
which is accompanied by
broken in more than one
bleeding at the site of the
bone is broken
internal bleeding
place
fracture
Apply a bulky, sterile,
Apply traction to the hand
pressure dressing to
Apply a tourniquet to
Force the ends of the
to keep the bones in line,
control bleeding, then
control bleeding then align
bones back into line, treat
splint and apply a
apply a temporary splint
the bones and splint.
the bleeding, and splint.
pressure dressing.
and place the victim in
bed.
28
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
296209
296210
VER Question
1
296300
296302
296305
296306
296400
296401
The symptoms of a fractured back are

__________.

Choice A
Choice C
Choice D
vomiting and involuntary

urination or bowel
movement
pain at the site of the

fracture and possible
numbness or paralysis
below the injury
The person should be

moved from the scene but
not allowed to walk on
their own power without
assistance.
The person should not be

allowed to lie down where
injured but should be
moved to a chair or bunk.
The person should not be

moved (unless remaining
on the scene is unsafe),
but made comfortable until
medical assistance
arrives.
Application of CPR
Removal of any foreign

objects
Administration of oxygen
Treatment for traumatic

shock
Warm and dry
Warm and damp
Cold and dry
Cold and damp
cold and clammy skin
rapid and shallow

breathing
increased state of
confusion
all of the above
vigorous shaking
sequence of back blows
pericardial thump
ammonia inhalant
Minor burn
Superficial burn
Extremity burn
First degree burn
pain and uncontrolled

leg cramps in the muscles
jerking of the legs and
in one or both legs
arms
The person should be

If a person suffering from possible broken bones
examined on the scene
and internal injuries is correctly being administered and then walked to a bunk
first aid, what statement is true?
to await the arrival of
medical assistance.
In any major personal injury, first aid is to include
the treatment of the injury and what additional
treatment?
Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a
person in shock?
The general signs and symptoms of a patient
suffering from shock are _______.
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is
a/an __________.
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a
reddening of the skin but no other apparent
damage. This is an example of what kind of burn?
Choice B
If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the

drain any blisters
arm, you should __________.
apply antiseptic alcohol on scrub the arm thoroughly

the burn area
to prevent infection
Before washing with

water, the lime should be
brushed away gently and
removed from skin
contact.
Which of the following precautions should be taken

Water should be applied
when treating burns caused by contact with dry
in a fine spray.
lime?
296409
If a person gets something in his eye and you

observe that it is not embedded, you can
__________.
get him to rub his eye until remove it with a match or remove it with a piece of
the object is gone
toothpick
dry sterilized cotton rag
296600
A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should

first be __________.
given mild seawater

kept standing and
given a glass of water and
moved to a cool room and
solution to drink to replace encouraged to walk slowly told to return to work after
told to lie down
salt and fluids
and continuously
15 minutes of rest
A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should

first be __________.
given a mild seawater

kept standing and
given a glass of water and
moved to a cool room and
solution to drink to replace encouraged to walk slowly told to return to work after
told to lie down
salt and fluids
and continuously
15 minutes of rest
296406
296600
296600
296600
The symptoms of heat exhaustion are

__________.
The symptoms of heat exhaustion are
__________.
remove it with a moist

cotton-tipped applicator
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
slow and strong pulse
flushed and dry skin
slow and deep breathing
pale and clammy skin
slow and strong pulse
flushed and dry skin
slow and deep breathing
pale and clammy skin
rub briskly to restore

circulation
rub briskly to restore
circulation
warm exposed parts

wrap tightly in warm cloths
rapidly
warm exposed parts
wrap tightly in warm cloths
rapidly
296602
Treatment of frostbite is to __________.
rub with ice or snow
296602
Treatment of frostbite is to __________.
rub with ice or snow
The burned area should

be immersed in water.
The entire burn area

should be covered with
ointment.
immerse the arm in cool

water
Illus
29
D
D

ABS
VER Question
296604
296604
296702
296704
Which of the following conditions is a symptom of

heat stroke __________.
Which of the following conditions is a symptom of
heat stroke __________.
If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for
evidence of __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
cold and moist skin, high

body temperature
cold and moist skin, high
body temperature
cold and dry skin, low

body temperature
cold and dry skin, low
body temperature
hot and moist skin, high

body temperature
hot and moist skin, high
body temperature
hot and dry skin, high

body temperature
hot and dry skin, high
body temperature
high fever
head injury
broken limbs
irregular breathing
completely restrain the

victim
give the victim one 30mg

tablet of Phenobarbital
keep him from injuring

himself
The most beneficial assistance for a person having give the victim artificial
an epileptic convulsion is to __________.
respiration
An effective method for moving a patient with
spinal injuries to a stretcher or spine board is
known as the __________.
Where there are multiple accident victims, which
injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency
treatment?
Any combustible liquid having a flash point of
150F or above is grade __________.
Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
296709
296713
297000
297004
297004
Bunker "C", a grade "E" combustible liquid, will

__________.
297101
The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by

volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of
__________.
Liquid petroleum products will become electrically splashing or spraying of

charged as a result of the __________.
oil into a tank
movement of water
oil moving through the
droplets in an oil filled tank pipe lines
All of the above are

correct.
Which of the following substances would be

classified as a combustible liquid?
turpentine
kerosene
all of the above
can not be ignited by a

spark unless the vapor is
in a confined space
are nontoxic in all

concentrations
can not be ignited by a

spark unless they are at
their auto ignition
temperature
are heavier than air
When taking on fuel it is important to remember

that petroleum vapors are __________.
not volatile unless the

ambient air temperature
exceeds 90F
lighter than air and

dissipate rapidly
unlikely to ignite except in heavier than air and may

the presence of an open enter the bilges and/or
flame
deckhouse

concerning Bunker "C" vapors?
They can not be ignited by

They are nontoxic in all
a spark unless the vapors
concentrations.
are in a confined space.
297103
297104
297105
297105
297105
297106
297107
297107
4
3
2
1
Diesel fuel vapors __________.
pack strap carry
two man extremities carry fireman's drag
Major multiple fractures
Eye injuries
Back injuries with spinal

cord damage
Airway and breathing

difficulties
D liquid
E liquid
A liquid
B liquid
have a Reid vapor
give off flammable vapors
pressure of 14 psi (96.5
below 80F (26.7C)
kPa) or more
diesel oil
viscosity
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
self-ignite at temperatures have a flash point of

below 150F (65.5C)
150F (65.5C) or more
5 percent methane by
volume will give a reading
volume is too rich to burn volume is too lean to burn volume is too rich to burn of 100 percent L.E.L. on a
The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with

conductivity
the __________.
Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may
temporary blindness
cause __________.
only if the source of the
Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.
vapor is above its flash
point
four man log roll
Illus
D
D
D
They can not be ignited by

a spark unless vapors are
They are heavier than air.
at their auto ignition
temperature.
volume
specific gravity
permanent deafness
severe internal bleeding
unconsciousness and
suffocation
only if the vapor is

between the upper and
lower explosive limit
only if the oxygen

at all times due to their
concentration is below 16
toxicity
percent
30

ABS
VER Question
297108
297110
297111
297114
297115
297202
297203
297250
297252
297304
297305
297306
297307
297318
297318
Which of the following hazards is associated with

the handling of petroleum products?
The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid
to __________.
Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are
__________.
Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash
point below 150F (65.5C)?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Fire
Explosion
Asphyxiation
All of the above
percolate
explode
asphyxiate
vaporize
heavier than air
toxic
highly explosive
all of the above
Lubricating oils
Road oils
Asphalt
Light fuel oils
Placing an insulating
Using a cargo hose with a Connecting a bonding
Which of the following methods will reduce the
flange or a section of nonbuilt in electrical bonding wire between the shore
All of the above.
possibility of producing an electrical spark?
conducting hose in the
wire.
side piping and the vessel.
hose setup.
the detector sensor is
Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG,
the detector is sampling a a flammable vapor
sampling a space where
are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at
an explosion is about to
space in which 30 percent concentration exists at the
the cargo vapor
30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector
take place
of the atmosphere is
sample point, but it is too
concentration is 30
alarms sounds, this means __________.
explosive
lean to burn
percent by volume
An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas
detecting system to detect methane leaks in the
barrier spaces
cargo handling rooms
boiler burner supply piping all of the above
__________.
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel
escape of explosive
contamination from other damage to tank
cargo tanks should be kept in good working order
oil spillage on deck
vapors
tanks
boundaries
to prevent __________.
Which of the following pressures represents the
normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum
22.7 psia - 14.7 psia
20.7 psia - 14.6 psia
18.7 psia - 14.4 psia
16.7 psia - 14.2 psia
relief valve as normally found on tank vessels?
Both pumps operating at Both pumps operating at Each pump operating at a Each pump operating at a
Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be
the same speed and
the same speed and
different speed and taking different pressure and
hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps are
discharging into a
taking suction from a
suction from a common
discharging into a
used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid?
common line.
common line.
line.
common line.
When should you expect to find an insulating
flange in a fueling hose?
When transferring LNG.
To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling close the tank filling
system during bunkering, you should __________. valves quickly
pump room ventilation on a U.S. flag tanker may
be accomplished by __________.
According to 33 CFR Part 156, during annual
inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose
which is tested, must not burst, bulge, leak, or
abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of
__________.
The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo
hose assembly must be at least __________.
When a bonding cable is

employed.
When static electricity is

not expected to be a
problem.
When the terminal is

equipped with a cathodic
protection system.
top off all tanks at the

same time
fill one tank at a time
reduce the loading rate

when topping off
natural ventilators
all of the above
the pressure applied by

the shore side pump
1 1/2 times the maximum

allowable working
pressure
steam or air actuated gas

power blowers
ejectors
100 pounds
300 psi
the pressure of the relief

valve setting
400 psi
31
500 psi
600 psi
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
297319
297321
VER Question
297324
297331
297333
297402
297405
297408
297501
297507
297508
297510
297511

Choice A
Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR) require that the

oil transfer procedures which must be posted on
every vessel having a capacity of 250 or more
valve
barrels of oil, must contain a description of each oil
transfer system installed on the vessel and shall
also identify the location of each __________.
One consideration for determining the safest
maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be
received is by the __________.
Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by
using a __________.
After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be
disconnected and __________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
pump
vent
all of the above
size of the fuel storage

tanks ashore
distance to the fuel

storage tanks ashore
a multistage centrifugal
pump
draped over the fantail to
dry out
the water displacement

the load on top system
method
drained over the side and drained into the bilges and
washed out
washed out
have a standby pump
When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a lift the relief valve by hand draw a small quantity of
running with the discharge
centrifugal pump, you should __________.
to check its operation
liquid to prime the pump
valve closed
Place 5 gallon containers
During fueling operations, which of the listed
Reduce the pumping rate
under all flange
precautions should be taken when topping off fuel by closing the deck filling Close all overflow valves.
connections in the fuel
tanks?
valve.
line.
An ullage reading is the distance from a given

point at the __________.
sounding tube to either

side of the tank
As a precaution against oil spills when topping off

fuel tanks, you should __________.
close the deck filling valve

close all tank vents to
to reduce the pumping
prevent overflow
rate
top of the tank down to the top of the liquid down to

bottom of the tank
the tank bottom
fill the tank to the bottom

of the expansion trunk
The function of the scrubber in an Inert Gas

system is to __________.
cool the gases
The blowers of an inert gas generation system

aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if
__________.
the temperature of the

normal water supply at the inert gas being delivered the cooling water supply
water seal is lost
to the cargo tanks is more to the scrubbers is lost
than 150F
An inert gas system is designed to reduce the

possibility of tank explosions by __________.
Ans
type of fuel transfer pump
On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined

capacity of the inert gas generating system as
compared to the total capacity of all the cargo
pumps which can be operated simultaneously?
An inert gas system incorporating a separately
fired inert gas generator shall be provided with
visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the cooling water flow
power supply to the generator, the automatic
control system, and __________.
Illus
remove solids from the

gases
50%
number of tanks to be
filled
a positive displacement
pump
drained into buckets or
fuel tanks
check for gland leakage
and any fire hazard
Reduce the pumping rate
and sound tanks
frequently
top of the sounding tube
down to the surface of the
liquid
notify the shore pumping
station to reduce the
pumping rate as tanks
near full capacity
remove sulfur compounds

all of the above
from the gases
75%
100%
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
all of the above
D
125%
D
combustion air temp too
low
high sea water

temperature
insufficient fuel supply
eliminating sparks and fire removing all hydrocarbon

blanketing cargo tanks
in the vicinity of cargo
gases from the cargo
with inert foam
tanks
tanks
32
reducing the oxygen

concentration below levels
necessary for combustion

ABS
297511
297513
297518
297527
297651
297653
297655
297656
297656
297656
297657
VER Question
2
1
1

Choice A
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function De-energizes the

to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
"charged mist" effect.
Where are remote readouts for oxygen
concentration, pressure, and temperature of an
inert gas system required to be located?
Which of the following conditions will result in an
automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas
system?
When securing the operation of an inert gas
system, the final step should be _________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Maintains a positive
pressure on the vent
header to cool the
flammable vapors.
Inert gas filters out the

flammable vapors from
the cargo tank spaces.
Inert gas dilutes the

flammable vapor and air
concentrations to keep
them below the lower
explosive limit.
Main deck and engine

control consoles
Cargo control and engine

control consoles
Bridge and engine control Bridge and tank(s) being

consoles
inerted
Oxygen content of the gas Low temperature water

High temperature gas
falls below 5%.
leaving the scrubber seal. entering the scrubber.
close the deck isolating
valve
close the flue gas isolating secure the inert gas

valve
blower
High temperature gas

discharge from inert gas
blowers.
secure the salt water
supply to the scrubber
entry without a breathing

apparatus may be made
If personnel are required to enter a cargo tank that
at the top of the tank,
has not been certified as "gas free", __________.
since petroleum vapors
are heavier than air
a person may work safely

without breathing
apparatus in cold weather,
since the vapors are less
volatile
breathing apparatus would

not be necessary, if
self-contained breathing
expected to be in the tank apparatus should always
for only a short period of be used
time
The residues in the

Which of the following conditions must be met
compartment must not be
before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for
capable of producing any
a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot
toxic gas under existing
work"?
atmospheric conditions.
combustible gases in the
compartment's
atmosphere must be less
than 10 percent of the
lower flammable limit.
The toxic gases in the

compartment's
atmosphere must be
within permissible
concentrations.
The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested

and designated "gas free". Which of the following
statements is correct concerning this tank?
flammable gas in the
The tank should be
compartment is less than
frequently retested.
10% of the lower
flammable limit.
A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a

marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe the ambient temperature
for fire." This condition may change
changes
if___________.
If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen
content is not within permissible concentration, and
dangerous gases are either present, or may be
Safe for Men - Safe for
produced by residues, what would be the safety
Fire
designation listed on a marine chemist's
certificate?
the gas or oxygen
The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for
concentrations within a
fire" means __________.
compartment is not within
permissible limits
The only portable electrical lamp permitted in a
compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is battery fed
__________.
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
D
All of the above.
The gas free status is

good as long as the initial
All of the above.
conditions remain
unchanged.
a product leaks into the

certified tank
muck, sludge, or scale in

the tank give off additional all of the above
vapors
Safe for Men - Not Safe

for Fire
Not Safe for Men - Safe

for Fire
dangerous gases are

present
the compartment was not

tested due to the
all of the above
presence of ballast slops
or bunkers
self-contained
approved explosion proof All of the above
Not Safe for Men - Not

Safe for Fire
33
D
D

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
all of the above as
necessary
297658
If emergency welding repairs must be made to the

upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent gas freed
compartments may need to be __________.
inerted
filled with water
297660
A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the

tank is __________.
inerted with carbon

dioxide for 24 hours
free of most flammable

gas concentrations
free of all dangerous

thoroughly ventilated for at
concentrations of
least 24 hours
flammable or toxic gases
Which of the following precautions are necessary

when using any electrical equipment in a
hazardous location, such as a cargo pump room?
The pump room is to be

gas free.
The adjacent
compartments are to be
gas free.
Each compartment where

flammable gas is
All of the above.
expected to accumulate is
to be closed and secured.
carcinogen
teratogen
297662
297702
297703
297703
297704
297704
297706
297709
297709
298001
A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material

Safety Date Sheet (MSDS), that can cause genetic
changes in sperm or egg cells is called a
__________.
A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS), having a flash point below 100F
(37.78C) is called a/an __________.
Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS) that violently self-reacts under commonly
occurring conditions is called __________.
Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS) which describes chemicals that produce
health effects requiring medical attention where
damage may be permanent but is neither lifethreatening nor seriously disabling, is called
__________.
What term is listed on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can
produce lifethreatening or seriously disabling
health hazard ?
Which health hazard term is listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to indicate that contact
with the substance will freeze body tissue on
contact?
The physical data term on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by
a material is lighter or heavier than air is called
__________.
cryogenic
Ans
mutagen
D
viscous liquid
explosive liquid
combustible liquid
flammable liquid
flammable
toxic
explosive
unstable
moderate exposure level
high toxicity
high exposure level
moderate toxicity
D
D
D
Low toxicity
Recommended toxicity
Moderate toxicity
High toxicity
D
Freeze hazard
Cyanosis
Freon hazard
Cryogenic
D
vapor pressure
vapor gravity
vapor level
vapor density
How much force the vapor

What does the vapor pressure listed in Section III How fast a chemical gets How much of the chemical Whether the vapor is
exerts inside a closed
of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) indicate? into the air.
can evaporate.
lighter or heavier than air.
container.
adapter or shore
A vessel over 100 gross tons in coastwise service deballasting pump which
oil and water separator to
stop-check valve located
connection made in
is to deballast its fuel tanks to a facility while in
is independent of the
retain oily waste in a
at the pump discharge
accordance with 33 CFR
port. This vessel must have a/an __________.
ballasting pump
holding tank
Part 155
Illus
34

ABS
298001
298002
298003
298009
298011
298011
VER Question

CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer
operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure
within what percent of the actual pressure?
151
Choice C
153
Choice D
Illus
154
Any permanently
connected flange coupling Approved quick- connect
must have a bolt in each couplings may be used.
hole.
3%
When a temporary
connection utilizes an
American National
Standard Institute (ANSI)
All of the above.
standard flange, a bolt in
every other hole is
acceptable if at least four
bolts are used.
5%
7%
D
10%
D
all ballast is processed
through the oily water
separator
ballast is taken on and

discharged through a
separate main deck riser
ballast and cargo tanks

are separated by
cofferdams
all ballast lines, tanks, and

pumps are independent of
those used for oil
If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped

notify the terminal
notify the Coast Guard of reduce pumping pressure spread absorbent material
by tightening the coupling bolts, you should
operator, then shutdown
a potential oil spill
to reduce the leakage rate on deck beneath the leak
__________.
and repair the leak
apply dispersants to the

sheen
repair the leak with duct

tape
reduce the rate of transfer shut down operations
notify the terminal

superintendent
place a large drip pan

under the leak and plug
the scuppers
repair the hose with a

patch
replace the hose
33 CFR 151
18 CFR 201
46 CFR 41
46 CFR 162
The deck scuppers should be plugged

__________.
only if fixed containment is only if portable

not used
containment is not used
only if fixed containment

drains are open
whenever the vessel is

being fueled
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33

CFR), the pump being used for cargo transfer has
a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a static head of
55 psi
10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose used for the
transfer must have a maximum allowable working
pressure of at least __________.
at least four times the sum

for the pressure of the
relief valve setting plus
static head pressure
at least more than the

sum of the pressure of the
relief valve setting plus the
static head pressure
Ans
155
spread absorbent material stop transfer operations

on deck beneath the leak and renew the gasket
298011
298018
Choice B
notify the Coast Guard of reduce the pumping

a potential pollution
pressure to reduce the
incident
leakage rate
298015
A segregated ballast system is a system where

__________.
If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped

by tightening the coupling bolts, you should
__________.
While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose begins
leaking, causing a sheen on the water. You should
__________.
Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak
develops in the hose and you have ordered the
pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you
should __________.
On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating
equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must
be approved under __________.
298011
298012
Choice A
An ocean going ship of 4000 gross tons must be

fitted with a standard discharge shore connection
for the discharge of oily wastes to a reception
facility. The dimensions for the connection are
specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations
under Part __________.

concerning oil transfer connections?
98 psi
35
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
298021
298024
298026
VER Question
298030
298101
298105
298110
298112
298203
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require

a 1500 gross ton vessel (constructed before July
1, 1974) equipped with a fill fitting for which
discharge containment is impractical to
__________.
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations
(33 CFR Part 156), which of the following
conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as
being suitable for use in transferring oil?

Choice A
Choice B
have the fill fitting altered

on or before December
31, 1986
have a designated crew

use a drip collar on the fill
use an automatic back
member stand watch over
fitting
pressure shut off nozzle
the fill fitting
A small cut in the hose

cover which just pierces
the reinforcement.
An slight oil seepage

between the hose and
flange connection.

Twice the distance
CFR), how much hose should you use in
between ship and dock.
transferring oil in bulk?
The International Oil Pollution Prevention
Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of
__________.
To comply with the Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), regarding fuel oil
discharge containment, a vessel of 300 or more
but less than 1600 gross tons must have a fixed
container or enclosed deck area under or around
each fuel oil tank vent that has at least a
__________.
For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after
30 June 1974, a fixed container, or enclosed deck
area, must exist under or around each fuel oil tank
vent. The container must have a capacity of at
least __________.
A ship of 6000 gross tons constructed after June
30, 1974, must have a fixed container, or enclosed
deck area under or around each fuel oil vent,
overflow, and fill pipe. This fixed container, or
enclosed deck area must have a capacity of at
least __________.

Choice C
Evidence of internal or
external deterioration.
Choice D
2 barrel capacity which

may be bolted in place
below the loading
manifold valves
5 gallons (18.9 l)
10 gallons (37.8 l)
21 gallons (79.5 l)
42 gallons (158.9 l)
5 gallons
21 gallons
1/2 barrel
1 barrel
The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the

removal of surface oil is __________.
298303
298206
one-half barrel capacity
each part of the transfer

According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention system not necessary for
each scupper or drain in a
the discharge containment
Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil the transfer operation is
discharge containment
all of the above
is in place
to or from a vessel unless __________.
securely blanked or shut
system is closed
off
In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank,

you should dispose of the waste oil by
__________.
The emergency shutdown requirements of
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part
155) apply to __________.
One and one half times

Sufficient for maximum
Not over 300 feet (91.4 m)
the distance between ship
vessel movement without
of hose.
and dock.
straining the hoses.
3 barrel capacity
Ans
All of the above.
one year from the date of two years from the date of three years from the date four years from the date of
issue
issue
of issue
issue
5 U.S. gallon capacity
Illus
the most common method too expensive for common

generally safe to sea life
used in the United States use
generally harmful to sea

life
pumping it into the sewer centrifuging and

connection
reclaiming it
circulating it through an oil discharging it into a slop

and water separator
barge or holding tank
condensate pumps
induced draft fans
air compressors
36
cargo transfer systems
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
298306
298307
298308
298500
298501
298502
298502
298502
298552
298557
298570
298601
298601

Choice A
If you detect oil in the water around your vessel

try to find out where the oil
while discharging fuel, the FIRST thing to do is
is coming from
__________.
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply
the vessel with a means in which the vessel's
designated person-incharge may stop the flow of
oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in electrically
the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc.
This means of control may be activated
__________.
If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while
close the static leg filling
the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer
valve
should __________.
The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention
fuel oil only
Regulations (33 CFR), means __________.
The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes
sludge
__________.
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations Leakage of oil to the water
(33 CFR), which of the following qualifies as a
by an improperly blanked
discharge of oil?
transfer hose.
The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
spilling
regulations, means __________.
The word "discharge" as used in Pollution
leaked into navigable
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 151) applies
waters
to oil __________.
A person on a fixed, or floating platform engaged in
oil exploration, located 10 nautical miles from
food waste
nearest land MAY discharge __________.
According to MARPOL, the definition of gray water
toilets
includes drainage from __________.

concerning the overboard discharge of vessel
sewage at sea?
Choice B
Choice C
call the Master
have the pumpman check

shutdown operations
the discharge piping
pneumatically or
mechanically
via a communications
device used for no other
purpose
Choice D
Illus
Ans
All of the above.
D
close the overflow tank
filling valve
reduce the fuel oil

pumping rate
stop the fuel oil pumping

operation
crude oil only
liquefied petroleum gas
petroleum oil of any kind
oily ballast water
bilge slops
all of the above
Spilling oil on the main

deck and having it flow
over the side.
Pumping oil overboard

through a fixed piping
system.
All of the above.
leaking
dumping
all of the above
poured into navigable

waters
pumped into navigable

waters through a fixed
piping system
all of the above
food, ground to less than

1"
paper, ground to less than

none of the above
1"
hospital sinks
cargo spaces
dishwashers
The vessel may discharge The vessel may discharge

disinfected and
sewage into the sea, from
comminuted sewage into an approved system
The vessel must have an the sea, from an approved which is not comminuted
All of the above
approved sewage plant. system, only if the vessel or disinfected, only if the
is more than three nautical vessel is more than 12
miles from the nearest
nautical miles from the
land.
nearest land.
each part of the transfer

According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 each hose is supported in
system necessary to allow
CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a
a manner that prevents
the flow of oil is lined up
vessel unless __________.
strain on its coupling
for transfer
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state

spectacle flanges are
that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel installed in cargo pump
unless the __________.
overboard discharges
packing glands of the

transfer pump must not
leak at all
37
each oil transfer hose has

no loose covers, kinks,
bulges, or soft spots, and
All of the above.
no gouges, cuts or
slashes that penetrate the
hose reinforcement
vessel is surrounded by
an oil containment boom
fuel hose is supported to

prevent strain on its
couplings
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
298606
298606
VER Question
Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
require that the person-in-charge of transfer
operations is to insure that the __________.
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify

that the person-in-charge of bunkering is
vessel draft
responsible for the __________.
298607
298609
298610
298612
298613
298616
298617
298620
298620
Choice A
298606
298607
drains and scuppers are transferor and transferee

closed by the mechanical know the identity of the
means
product to be transferred

vessel draft
responsible for the __________.
(33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a
oil record book
vessel unless each person in charge has signed
the __________.
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
state that a person may not transfer oil or
hazardous materials to or from a vessel unless
machinery log
each person-incharge has signed the
__________.
The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations
master of the vessel and
(33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil
the terminal
transfer operation. That meeting must be between
superintendent
the __________.
No person may transfer oil to or from a vessel

unless the person in charge __________.
According to 33 CFR Part 156, each pressure

gage used in an oil transfer operation must be
accurate to within __________.
An applications for a waiver of any requirements of
the regulations for oil transfer operations must be
submitted __________.
The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil
transfer operations rests with the __________.
quantity of fuel received
Choice C
Choice D
hose is supported to
all of the above
prevent kinking or damage
quality of fuel received
possession of a copy of
the facilty operations
manual or vessel transfer
procedures
communications with
terminal operator
valve inspection record
declaration of inspection
Illus
Ans
D
D
D
oil record book
valve inspection record
Declaration of Inspection
D
master and chief engineer terminal supervisor,
of the vessel and the
Master of the vessel and
terminal supervisor
the Coast Guard
has in his or her

has notified the captain of
has in his or her
possession a valid
the port at least 24 hours
possession a copy of the
Certificate of Inspection or
before beginning each oil
vessel's Oil Record Book
Tank Vessel Examination
transfer operation
Letter
According to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), a

"suspension order" to suspend oil transfer
Captain of the Port
operations can be withdrawn by the appropriate
__________.
Any local Coast Guard
(33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of
representative
when oil transfer may begin?
The transfer procedures for oil products are
required to be posted __________.
Choice B
person-in-charge of the oil

transfer operations on the
vessel and the person-incharge of the oil transfer
operations at the facility
is in the immediate vicinity
and immediately available
to the oil transfer
personnel
Officer-In-Charge, Marine
District Commander
Inspection
all of the above
The senior deck officer

Captain of the Port officer
present
Designated persons- incharge of vessel and

facility
in the pilothouse
in the officer's lounge
in the upper pump room

flat
where they can be easily

seen or readily available
1 percent
3 percent
5 percent
10 percent
the day before the

operations
5 days before the

operations
10 days before the

operations
30 days before the

operations
Nearest Coast Guard

office
Officer-in-Charge, Marine
Area Commander
Inspection
38
Captain of the Port
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
298621
VER Question
2
No person may serve as the person-incharge of

both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer
operation unless __________.
Choice A
Choice B
there is ready access

between the two
the person in charge has

the vessel and facility are a rapid means of
immediately adjacent
transportation between
the two
recorded as cubic meters

verified by the Chief
with a conversion to
Engineer
barrels
Choice C
Choice D
the Captain of the Port
authorizes such procedure
consistently recorded
through the Oil Record
recorded directly from the
Book in one specified unit
oil discharge monitor
(gallons, barrels, cubic
meters)
298703
When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all

quantities should be __________.
298704
Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must

engineer on watch
be signed by the __________.
Chief Engineer
If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record

Book, you should __________.
completely black it out and draw a single line through

notify the ship's officer-inmake the correct entry
the wrong entry and initial
charge
alongside
it
298705
298706
298710
298710
erase the entry and

rewrite it
When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the

date, operational code, and item number shall be recorded only for
inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, accidental oil discharges
the required particulars shall be __________.
Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR) require any
transfer or discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be
bridge log
recorded in the __________.
Chief Mate
Master
signed by the oiler who

enters them in the Oil
Record Book
recorded chronologically
in the blank space
Master's log
engine room log
oil record book
The discharge overboard

in port or at sea of any
The loading or unloading
bilge water accumulated of any or all oil cargo.
in machinery spaces.
are on a voyage of more
than 24 hours
have a valid International have a valid National

Oil Pollution Prevention
Pollutant Discharge
Certificate
Elimination System permit
The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not are on an international

apply to MODUs that __________.
voyage
298716
Passenger vessels shall maintain an Oil Record

Book, if the vessel is __________.
150 gross tons and above 200 gross tons and above 300 gross tons and above 400 gross tons and above
According to 33 CFR Part 151, which of the

following is NOT required to be provided as part of
the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan?
a list of agencies or
officials of Coastal State
administrations
responsible for receiving
and processing incident
reports
a list which specifies who

a list of agencies or
will be responsible for
a list of personnel duty
officials in regularly visited informing the parties listed
assignments
ports
and the priority in which
they must be notified
According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a

shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires
after __________.
one year
two years
298907
According to 33 CFR Part 151, shipboard oil

pollution emergency plans must be reviewed
__________.
annually by the owner and

and the entire plan
annually by the owner and only once every five years
submit a letter to the
resubmitted for approval
a letter submitted six
and a letter submitted six
Coast Guard within one
once every five years, six
months prior to expiration months prior to expiration
month of the anniversary
months prior to expiration
date of the plan approval
299000
According to 33 CFR, records of garbage disposal until each quadrennial

are required to be maintained __________.
Coast Guard inspection
until the end of each

voyage
39
four years
for a minimum of one year
D
D
298906
All of the above.
298714
298903
Ans
recorded only for

operations involving
discharge of oily waste
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker

must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank- Any internal transfer of oil
to-tank basis according to Coast Guard
cargo during a voyage.
Regulations?
Illus
five years
for a minimum of two

years
D
D
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
299006
299008
299020
299022
299102
299106
299110
299142
299142
299144
299148
299152
299152
299205
299206

Choice A
Plastic garbage bags containing comminuted

paper and rags may only be discharged
3 miles from land
__________.
Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be
posted on the vessel describing the proper
33 CFR Part 159.51
disposal of garbage?
What would be the minimum distance from any
shoreline that a vessel must be located before it is
permitted to perform a complete ballast water
12 nautical miles
exchange to be in compliance with U.S. Federal
Ballast Water Management Regulations?
To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast
Water Management regulations, which of the
following procedures may be followed by an ocean
vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an
international voyage?
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
12 miles from land
25 miles from land
ashore
33 CFR Part 157.37
33 CFR Part 157.100
33 CFR Part 151.59
50 nautical miles
100 nautical miles
200 nautical miles
A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of

survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined liferaft
life cushion
as a _______.
Life jackets should be marked with the
maximum weight allowed stowage space assigned
__________.
Prior to entering U.S.

waters, use any Coast
Guard approved
alternative
environmentally sound
method of BWM.
All of the above
life preserver
buoyant apparatus
vessel's home port
vessel's name
The suits provide for

limited body movement
such as walking, climbing
a ladder and picking up
small objects like a pencil.
at the stern
in the middle
all around
A sheer pin
A rottmer release
A weak link in the painter
An inflatable liferaft can be manually released from cutting the straps that
its cradle by __________.
enclose the container
removing the rubber

sealing strip from the
container
loosing the turnbuckle on pushing the button on the

the securing strap
hydrostatic release
After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept

opening the automatic
dry inside by __________.
drain plugs
An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by
a boat bucket
using __________.
using the electric bilge

draining the water pockets
pump
an oar and canvas
an air tank filled with water
weighted down
Your survival craft is rolling in heavy seas. You can shifting the rudder
reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________. constantly
moving all personnel

forward and low
moving all personnel aft
rigging a sea anchor
one 50 meter line
one first aid kit
all of the above
ahead and the victim just

off the bow
just off the bow and the

victim to windward
just off the bow and the

victim to leeward
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall

buoyant oars
include __________.
When a person who has fallen overboard is being
astern and the victim just
picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should
off the bow
normally approach with the wind __________.

in body heat and provides
protection against
hypothermia indefinitely.
A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft

at the bow
__________.
Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated
liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which The hydrostatic release
sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
Ans
Prior to discharging ballast

water in U.S. waters, the
vessel must perform a
Retain ballast water on
complete ballast water
board the vessel.
exchange in an area no
less than 200 nautical
miles from any shoreline.
Not all models will

Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
unconscious person faceup in the water.
Illus
40
D
D
D
D
D
D
using the bailers and

cellulose
All of the above
D
SF-0042
D
D
D
D

ABS
VER Question
299304
299305
299307
299351
299353
299353
299355
299378
299403
299407
1
1
299451
299452
299457
299460
299462
299471
299500
A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and

lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is
indicating __________.
Distress signals may be __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
danger, stay away
all is clear, it is safe to

pass
all is clear, it is safe to

approach
a distress signal
red flares
smoke signals
sound signals
All of the above
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by

__________.
displaying three black

displaying a large red flag
balls in a vertical line
As a vessel changes course to starboard, the

compass card in a magnetic
compass___________.
Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass
by___________.
Which would influence a magnetic compass?
A vessel heading NNW is on a course of
__________.
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke
signal must be replaced not later than the marked
date of expiration, or not more than how many
months from the date of manufacture?
first turns to starboard

then counterclockwise to
port
making a structural
change to the vessel
Electric wiring
Coast Guard approved buoyant work

vests__________.
A life line must be connected to the liferaft
__________.
Which procedure should NOT be done for a
person whom has fainted?
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is
__________.
A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the
head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of
concussion. If the patient feels no indication of
neck or spine injury, recommended treatment
would include __________.
274.5
292.0
All of the above
315.5
337.5
D
D
D
36
42
may be used by boat

should be used when
crews and line handlers
carrying out duties near a
during rescue boats drills weather deck's edge
at the bow
at the stern
in the middle
all around
Revive the person with

smelling salts.
Loosen the clothing.
Lay the person

horizontally.
Give pain reliever.
tea
coffee
whiskey and water
Ammonia inhalant
turning the victim's head

to the side to keep his
airway open
positioning the victim so

giving the victim water if
the head is lower than the
he is thirsty, but no food
body
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops

breathing. You must __________.
immediately give a
stimulant, by force if
necessary
make the victim

comfortable in a bunk
Radio
may be substituted for 10 should be stowed

percent of the required life adjacent to rescue boats
preservers
and emergency stations
immediately start CPR
perform the Heimlich

maneuver
The sea anchor shown as item number 18 will

NOT __________.
All of the above
24
A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial

obstruction of the airway. An observer should
__________.
The symptoms of a fractured back are

__________.
belt buckles
Ans
D
D
turns counterclockwise to remains aligned with

port
compass north
a short circuit near the

compass
Iron pipe
12
Illus
sounding four short blats

and after two seconds
continously sounding the
sounding three more rapid fog horn
blasts on the whistle
also turns to starboard
pain and uncontrolled

leg cramps in the muscles
jerking of the arms and
in one or both legs
legs
check the liferaft's way
give back blows and

something to drink
allow the person to

continue coughing and
dislodge the obstruction
on his own
administer oxygen
immediatly start CPR
vomiting and involuntary

urination or bowl
movement
keep the liferaft end on to reduce the possibility of

the sea
broaching or capsizing
41
elevating the head and

shoulders slightly
pain at the site of the

fracture and possible
numbness or paralysis
below the injury
right the raft if it inflates
inverted
D
D
D
SF-0042

ABS
VER Question
299502
299503
290050
290051
290053
290101
290101
290104
290105
290106
290200
290200
290201
290203
290203
290206

Choice A
Choice B
In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item

number __________.
In the illustration shown, where would you find the
Item #2
knife?
By definition, spontaneous combustion is a result
of __________.
an outside heat source

heating a substance until
it ignites
Hydrogen
Choice D
13
Item #4
The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can the accumulation of

contribute to __________.
explosive gases
Choice C
Spontaneous combustion can occur in

paint thinner in an open
__________.
can
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish
removing the heat
a shipboard fire by __________.
transmitting the heat of a
A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of
fire through the ship's
_______.
metal
To prevent the spread of fire by convection
cool the bulkhead around
__________.
the fire
Fusible link fire dampers are operated by
a mechanical arm outside
__________.
the vent duct
The midships house of your ship is constructed
with an interior stair tower from the main deck to
the bridge. According to 46 CFR Part 92.07, under They are to be kept closed
which of the circumstances listed may the doors
at all times.
from each deck to the stair tower be kept open
when underway?
One of the common hazards onboard a vessel is

represented by the accumulation of harmful gases
in tanks, holds, etc. Which of the following gases is
the most dangerous to personnel safety in
confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the
blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen?
Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of
incomplete combustion and is often present when
a fire burns in a closed compartment?
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower
must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by
__________.
Before entering any space that has been sealed,
its oxygen level should be tested. What level of
oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen
is present for safe entry into a seldom used cargo
tank?
The airborne concentrations of substances (such
as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all
workers may be repeatedly exposed without
adverse effects are called __________.

Illus
15
Item #22
18 SF-0042
SF-0042
Item #23
conduction of heat
chemical reactions within
through a wall of material
All of the above.
a substance
to the substance
fuel accumulated in the
bilges
oily rags stored in an

unvented compartment
removing the oxygen
removing the fuel
hot combustion gases

burning liquids flowing into
flowing through ventilation
another space
systems
remove combustibles from close all openings to the
direct exposure
area
electrical controls on the the heat of a fire melting
bridge
the link
Ans
gasoline stored in steel

drums
interrupting the chain
reaction
the transfer of heat across
an unobstructed space
C
C
C
shut off all electrical power
a break-glass and pullcable system
They can be kept open if

They may be kept open if
They may be kept open if the Muster List ("Station
the ventilation or air
they can be automatically Bill") has personnel
conditioning system is
closed from the bridge.
designated to close them
shut down.
in case of fire.
faster cooling of the fire
the fire spreading by way fixed foam systems to be

of the ventilation system ineffective
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
C
C
Ammonia
C
Carbon dioxide
Hydrogen sulfide
Carbon monoxide
Nitric oxide
ventilation
radiation
convection
conduction
10.00%
15.80%
20.80%
C
C
25.80%
Test tank atmosphere with Observe the amount of

a combustible gas
rust deposited on the
indicator.
tank's surface.
Ventilate the tank with

fresh air and test with an
oxygen indicator.
Open the manhole cover

for approximately ten
minutes.
exposure limits
threshold limit values
substance limit values
concentration limits
C
C
C
42

ABS
290206
290207
VER Question
Choice A
When hydrogen sulfide is burned (flared) on a

MODU, which of the following conditions can be
expected to occur?
Requirements for hydrogen sulfide preparation and

equipment usage aboard MODUs in U.S. offshore U.S. Coast Guard
waters are administered by the __________.
290210
290214
290215
Locations on a MODU, where flammable

hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to
drilling operations, are defined as __________.
Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has
been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig
signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the
crew should use __________.
On a MODU, if there is a probability of
encountering hydrogen sulfide during the drilling of
a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be
installed to dilute the concentration of gas at the
__________.
What additional precautions should be taken when
making temporary repairs to a MODU that is
operating while hydrogen sulfide is present?
Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour
crude oil the characteristic odor of rotten eggs.
One of the hazards associated with hydrogen
sulfide is __________.
When pumping sour crude, which gas should be
tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to
repair a leaking pump?
American National
Standards Institute
designated locations
Ans
pipe rack
crown block
shale shaker
all of the above
C
Seal off all tank and
compartment ventilation.
Remove all bulk materials Provide respiratory

All of the above.
from the P- tanks.
protection and monitoring.
chemical burning of the

skin
irritation of the intestinal

tract
its high toxicity resulting in dependency addiction to

death
the highly toxic fumes
Benzene
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen sulfide
Tetraethyl lead
label the fixed firefighting

system
Smoking near the burner
front
To initially combat a fire, the ventilation system to a allow the exhaust fans to
compartment should be secured to __________. remove the smoke
According to 46 CFR Part 199, on a cargo vessel,

fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of
leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced
is more than __________.
store paint cans on metal not allow oily rags to

shelves only
accumulate in the space
place a portable fire

extinguisher immediately
outside the locker
Smoking in the machine

shop
Stowing oily rags in a

paint locker
Stowing portable
acetylene bottles in the
vertical position
lower the carbon

monoxide smothering
capabilities
reduce the amount of

available oxygen to the
fire
protect the fire fighters

from smoke
5%
10%
25%
C
C
it also tends to numb the

the gas is odorless in any
it is better to rely on eye
sense of smell after initial
concentration
irritation as a detector
exposure
Minerals Management
Service
only the windward survival

only the windward liferafts
capsules
A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of

accidental fires in the paint locker, is to
__________.
290306
Only 80% of the hydrogen

The hydrogen sulfide not
sulfide will be converted to
converted will not be
sulfur dioxide or free
dangerous.
sulphur.
only the leeward survival

capsules and liferafts
Hydrogen sulfide gas (H2S) is highly toxic and has

a characteristic odor of rotten eggs. The sense of it has a smell similar to
smell cannot always be depended upon to detect petroleum products
hydrogen sulfide gas because __________.
290304
Illus
all survival capsules and

liferafts
Which of the practices listed should be avoided

since it represents a fire hazard?
U.S. Corps of Engineers
Choice D
classified locations
290216
Choice C
hazardous locations
290302
Choice B
gaseous locations
290215
290302
All of the hydrogen sulfide

All of the hydrogen sulfide
will be converted to
will be converted to sulfur
hydrogen and free
dioxide.
sulphur.
290209
290212
C
C
C
40%
C
43

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Illus
290306
On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held

within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of
the crew replaced is more than __________.
290307
As soon as you hear the fire and emergency

signal, you should ensure that __________.
the ring buoys are thrown

the engines are stopped
overboard
the fire pump is started
everyone is suited in an
approved life vest
290307
As soon as you hear the fire and emergency

signal, you should ensure that the __________.
ring buoys are thrown

overboard
engines are stopped
fire pumps are started
life preservers have been

issued to everyone
290307
locate the fire
determine which type of

fire is burning
sound the alarm
fight the fire
290307
Engine room ventilation

should be started.
Main engines should be

secured.
The fire pump should be

started.
The fixed CO2 system

should be activated.
290307
290309
290402
290403
290404
290405
290406
290406
290406
290500
290502
3
1
290503
290503
290554
At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel,

you must FIRST __________.
Which of the actions listed should be taken by the
engineer on watch when the general alarm is
sounded continuously for 10 seconds?
While on watch in the engine room, you hear a
continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which
of the following actions should you take?
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you
should __________.
Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a
MODU must be stowed __________.
How often must the emergency generator be
tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
Fire axes required on MODUs must be stored in
the enclosure for fire hoses with the location
marked '_________________.'
On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be
inspected once every __________.
According to regulations, the master or person-incharge of a MODU is required to submit a report of
a loss of life __________.
According to regulations, the master or person-incharge of a MODU is required to submit a report of
a loss of life __________.
After a fire aboard a MODU, the Coast Guard must
be notified if there is death, an injury resulting in
more than 72% incapacitation, or property damage
in excess of __________.
A device for preventing sparks or flames from
entering a tank, while permitting the free passage
of gases, is called a __________.
5%
10%
25%
40%
Open the master control

Make an entry in the
valves on the fixed CO2
official logbook.
system.
remove combustibles from cool the bulkhead around
direct exposure
the fire
in a locked cabinet in the in an unlocked cabinet in
machinery space
the machinery space
Secure auxiliary
Start the fire pump and
condenser overboard
check discharge pressure.
discharge.
close all openings to the
shut off electrical power
area
in a separate and
at a fire hydrant location
accessible location
Once each day
Once each week
Once each month
Once each year
Fire Axe Location
Hose Station No. _____
Fire Station No. _____
Firefighting Equipment
three months
six months
twelve months
eighteen months
only when it happens

while underway
to the next of kin
to the nearest OCMI
to the nearest coroner
only when it happens

while underway
to the next of kin
to the nearest Marine

Safety or Marine
Inspection Office
to the nearest coroner
$(SA)15,000
$(SA)10,000
$(SA)25,000
$(SA)50,000
gas absorption detector
pressure-vacuum relief
valve
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
flame screen
Why are flame screens on tank vents an important They provide a 'dead air
safety device?
space' within a fuel tank.
They accelerate the

dispersal of fuel vapors.
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion

resistant wire mesh screen to __________.
Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion
resistant screens to prevent __________.
The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm
siren is obtained from __________.
dissipate fumes leaving

the vent
They help prevent the

passage of flames from or
into the vent line.
prevent flames from
entering the tank
entry of sea water

the general alarm 24 volt
DC bus
Ans
prevent dirt from entering

the tank
escape of flammable
vapors
the emergency power and
lighting bus
44
sacrificial anode
They smother flames once
a fire has been started.
C
C
prevent accidental
overflow
flames entering the tank
damage to the ball check
the flow of CO2 under

pressure
all of the above

ABS
290602
VER Question
290604
290608
290610
290612
290612
290615
290621
290650
290700
290702
290703

Choice A
Choice B
smoke density has been

After a fire has been extinguished in a closed
decreased sufficiently to
a lifeline and explosion
space, personnel may safely enter the space when see the bulkhead opposite
proof flash light are used
__________.
the compartment's
entrance
If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated
compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of
__________.
The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8%
by volume in air. The instrument shown in the
illustration is used to sample a tank that had
contained benzene and a 90% reading is obtained.
What percentage of benzene vapor would be
indicated at the sampling point?
The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0%
by volume in air. If a tank having contained
kerosene is tested with the combustible gas
indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of
50% is obtained, this means __________.
Combustible gas indicators measure the
concentration of combustible gases as a
percentage of the lower explosive limit of the gas.
If the hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds
the upper explosive limit __________.
When using the combustible gas indicator to test a
cargo tank, and the hydrocarbon content of the
atmosphere exceeds the upper explosive limit
(UEL), __________.
Combustible gas indicators measure the presence
of combustible gases as a percentage of the
__________.
To detect the presence of explosive gases in any
space, tank, or compartment, you should use a
__________.
efficiency, to keep the bilge water level from
continuing to rise?
Which of the following is required to be included in
the fireman's (emergency) outfit?
As part of the emergency outfit required to be
carried onboard all tank vessels over 1000 gross
tons, flashlights must be __________.
A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels,
must have a __________.
unburned carbon particles excess nitrogen
0.42%

Choice C
Choice D
all smoke and toxic fumes

are removed and an
adequate oxygen supply
is present
overhaul has been

completed to remove any
possible source of
reignition
a lack of oxygen
excess hydrogen
0.98%
1.26%
Illus
Ans
C
C
7.20% SF-0002
C
the atmosphere contains
insufficient oxygen exists
50% kerosene vapor by
in the space to support life
volume in air
the sample is below the

the sample contains

approximately 3.0%
SF-0002
kerosene vapor by volume
the needle will rise slowly the needle will move

to and remain at the
rapidly to and remain at
maximum reading
the maximum reading
the needle will move to

the maximum reading and it will not be detected
return back to zero

zero and stay there

an audible beeping will be
the maximum reading and the maximum reading and
heard
stay there
return to zero immediately
flash point
upper explosive limit
flame scanner
halide torch
combustible gas indicator detector filament
Chemical protection face

shield
Approved work vest
Self-contained breathing
apparatus
5 cell approved flashlight
of a minimum number of
two explosion proof type
listed by NEMA and

bearing its label
of the Type II or Type III
all of the above
canister-type gas mask
fresh-air breathing
apparatus
apparatus
fire point
C
C
SF-0034
45
C
C
C

ABS
290802
290805
290807
VER Question
1
291003
291003
291004
291050
291051
291051
291052
291053
291054
291055
291059

Choice A
Before making any welded repairs to the internals

of a vessel's fuel tank in a U.S. port, the tank must the chief engineer
be examined by __________.
Fire doors are released by a/an __________.
After completing an international oil pollution

prevention (IOPP) certificate survey under Coast
Guard Regulations (33 CFR Part 151), no
significant change may be made in the
construction, equipment, fittings, arrangements, or
materials covered by the survey without the
sanction of the __________.
The most common and widely used cooling agent
used for fighting fires on merchant vessels is
_______.
The most common cooling agent used for fighting
fires on tank vessels is __________.
Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least
hazardous to personnel?
After you have put water on a burning mattress,
and the fire appears to have been extinguished,
you should then __________.
hydraulic directional valve

that automatically
releases the door in the
event of a disruption to the
control power system
To effectively and safely combat a passageway

fire, __________.
When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard
ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire
and __________.
A straight stream of water should be used to
extinguish __________.
In order to complete ventilation of the
compartments shown in figure 2 of the illustration,
you should___________.
Choice B
Choice C
the master of the vessel
a certified marine chemist the insurance underwriter
spring-loaded catch that

automatically lifts to
release the door in the
event of the presence of a
fire
method that automatically

releases the door in the
pneumatic heat sensor
event of a disruption of
control system power
State Water Management Environmental Pollution

Authority
Agency
U.S.C.G. Officer in
Charge of Marine
Inspection
Choice D
Illus
Ans
Marine Pollution
Investigatory Board
C
carbon dioxide
flue gas
water
steam smothering
carbon dioxide
flue gas
water
steam smothering
CO2
Steam
W ater
Carbon tetrachloride
pull the mattress apart to

ensure no fire remains
secure the mattress in a

well ventilated area
dry the mattress in a warm make sure the fire is out

area
with CO2
To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed

compartment, the nozzleman should open a door sweep a straight stream
enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially
around the compartment
__________.
When entering a burning compartment equipped
with a fire hose and an all- purpose nozzle, you
should first direct __________.
Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT
suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?
hold the nozzle steady

while applying a straight
sweep a fog stream
stream in the area where
around the compartment
he suspects the source of
the fire to be
hold the nozzle steady

and direct a fog stream in
the area where he
suspects the fire
a straight stream into the

center of the space
the high velocity fog into

the center of the space
the high velocity fog at the the high velocity fog at the
overhead to absorb heat deck to cool it for entry
Dry chemical
Foam
W ater
two hose teams should

attack the fire from
opposite directions
water must not be used if

the fire should be attacked the fire should be attacked
the passageway is above
from above if possible
from one direction only
the metacentric height
contain the burning liquid
prevent any deformation

of the tank top
cool the surrounding metal
galley grease fires
fuel oil fires
burning bedding materials a fire in the paint locker
close the portholes in

compartments A and C
open the door and

portholes in compartment do nothing
B
46
C
C
Carbon dioxide
eliminate flammable
combustion gases
close the door in

compartment D
C
C
SF-0013

ABS
VER Question
291059
291061
291064
291068
291070
291070
291100
291101
291102
291102
291152
291154
291158
In the illustration shown, the type of ventilation

depicted in figure 1 and figure 2 respectfully is
__________.
In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to
compartment "B" by the following method:
I. radiation
II. convection III. Conduction
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
horizontal; vertical
vertical; combination
combination; horizontal
cross-flow; horizontal
SF-0013
II
III
I and III
SF-0013
cool adjoining horizontal

and vertical surfaces
before opening the door to
extinguish the fire
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and

attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is
important to __________.
not rotate personnel, in

station personnel on the
order to consistently and hot deck, immediately
quickly extinguish the fire above the fire
cool the deck directly

All of the above
above the space of the fire
10 minutes
30 minutes
15 minutes

into the room without any
action
SF-0013
60 minutes
C
10 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
mechanical foam pick up

tube
high velocity fog tip
chemical foam applicator
water pressure
a keeper screw
a spring-loaded catch
a locknut
suicide nozzle
fog applicator
combination nozzle
in-line fog nozzle
SF-0011
a fog
a spray
no flow
a solid stream
SF-0011
C
C
The significant difference between the high velocity

difference in available
fog tip and the low velocity fog applicator used with
water pressure
the all-purpose nozzle is the __________.
Which of the listed firefighting agents and
associated applications provide the largest
Straight stream of water
shielding effect for the fire fighter?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each
machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an
may not exceed 3 feet in
approved combination nozzle and applicator. The
length
maximum allowable length of the applicator
__________.
Ans
only need to set up a hose

keep the door tightly
team to cool the door,
room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you closed until all the oil has then open the door and
should __________.
been consumed by the fire extinguish the fire using a
type B-II extinguisher
According to 46 CFR's Part 96, what is the

minimum period of time that an approved selfcontained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is required
to provide an air supply?
What is the minimum period of time that the air
supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is
required to last?
The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is
used to latch in place the __________.
A low velocity fog applicator is held in an allpurpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator
is prevented from rotating in the joint by
__________.
The correct name for the device shown in the
illustration, is a/an __________.
With the handle of the device shown in the
illustration is in the position labeled "C" the nozzle
will deliver __________.
Illus
number of personnel
degree to which the water ability to exclude free
required to effectively use
stream is broken up
oxygen
each of them
Light water and foam
mixture
Low velocity water fog

length
must be less than 6 feet in must be less than 10 feet

length
in length
Carbon dioxide interface
C
C
C
C
47

ABS
291158
291159
VER Question
291200
291201

Choice A
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each

machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an
approved combination nozzle and applicator. The
length
maximum allowable length of the applicator
__________.
An extinguishing agent which effectively cools,
dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat
and smoke screen is __________.
A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the
__________.
Halon 1301
hose sections
disconnected
Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting

Vise grips
and disconnecting fire hose couplings?
Choice B
Choice C

length
may be greater than 6 feet

in length when
demonstrated to OCMI
must be less than 6 feet in
that the applicator will not
length
interfere with the
placement of the
machinery
dry chemical
water fog
carbon dioxide
foam nozzle attached
all-purpose nozzle
attached
hose sections rolled

separately
Channel locks
Spanner wrench
Pipe wrench
291203
To properly maintain fire hoses, you should

__________.
keep them rolled tightly in

keep exterior linings damp thoroughly drain them
the rack with female
by periodic washdowns
after each use
coupling protected
291203
Which of the following statements concerning fire

hose couplings is true?
Male fire hose couplings

are strong and not easily
damaged.
291204
291206
291206
291210
291251
291255
291302
If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure

with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will
__________.
Which of the following statements is correct
concerning fire hoses used within the machinery
spaces of cargo vessels, on which the fire main
installations were contracted for on, or after 26
May 1965?
concerning fire hoses used within the machinery
spaces of cargo vessels?
burst under pressure
keep them partially filled

with fresh water
Male fire hose couplings

Fire hose couplings must
Fire hose couplings
can be easily damaged by
be lubricated with oil.
should be painted red.
dropping.
lash about violently
remain motionless
become elongated by
125%
The fire hoses must be 1

The fire hoses must be in
1/2 inches in diameter or
75 foot lengths.
less.
The fire hoses must all be

The fire hoses must be of
fitted with approved 5/8
the lined type.
inch nozzles.
The fire hoses must be 1

The fire hoses must be in
1/2 inches in diameter or
75 foot lengths.
less.
The fire hoses must all be

The fire hoses must be of
fitted with approved 5/8
the lined type.
inch nozzles.
A spanner wrench must
There is less hose nozzle
always be used when
thrust when using high
attaching nozzles or
velocity fog when
additional lengths of
compared to straight
hoses.
stream.
at least two streams of
at least 25 psi delivered
water from separate
pressure
outlets
A 2-1/2 inch hose should Backup hoseman should

Which of the following statements is FALSE
be deployed with a
be placed wherever the
concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire
minimum of a nozzleman hose makes a significant
hose?
and two hose men.
turn.
According to 46 CFR, a ships fire main system
must have enough fire hydrants for each
accessible space to be reached with __________.
While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses
from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant
outlet, you need only turn the valve handle
__________.
The relief valve for a fire pump should be set at 25
psi above the pressure necessary to maintain the
required fire hose streams, or at a minimum
pressure of ______, whichever is greater.
Choice D
a low velocity spray

applicator
a water spray or solid

stream
at the base of the "Y" in

either direction
at the base of the "Y"

counterclockwise 180
on each leg of the "Y" 90
50 psi
75 psi
125 psi
on each leg of the "Y"

180
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
150 psi
C
48

ABS
291303
291303
291350
VER Question
3
1
1
291353
291354
291355
291355
291400
291400
291401
291401
291403
291408
291450
291451
291451
291453
Pressure within a firemain system will vary from

point to point due to __________.
There is always a lower water pressure at the fire
hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the
pump. Which of the following reasons is the
common cause of this loss in pressure?
How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a
mobile offshore drilling unit?
If not attached to the nozzle, each low velocity
spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed
__________.
A fire pump used on a MODU requires 175 psi
discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi
pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants.
The maximum pressure setting for this installation
relief valve is __________.
Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment
with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by
__________.
Fighting an oil rig fire in the ballast pump room with
hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig
most by __________.
Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a
result of __________.
When using foam, a 'Class B' fire is extinguished
by __________.
Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also
known as __________.

Choice A
Choice B
leaky pilot valves
friction in the piping and

leaky pump suction valve valves and position in the wear in the hydrant
system
Leaky pilot valve
Leaky pump suction valve
Once a week.
Once a month.
Choice C
Choice D
Friction in the piping and

valves
Wear in the hydrant
Once a year.
During each drill.

on a rack inside the
quarters near the entrance
125 psi
225 psi
175 psi
200 psi
Illus
Ans
next to the fire hydrant to

in a protected area on the inside a machinery space
which the fire hose is
main deck
near the entrance
attached
C
C
C
reducing the level of drill
progressive down flooding water from the storage
tanks
increasing the
reduction of drill water
permeability of the pump
from the storage tanks
room
causing a list due to the

reducing the KG to
water in the compartment minimum allowable
a list caused by water
filling the compartment
A reduced KG caused by
water filling the
compartment
C
C
cooling
dampening
smothering
vapor absorption
cooling the surface
replacing the fuel
smothering the fire
all of the above
chemical foam
high-expansion foam
mechanical foam
all of the above
dry chemical and water
foam chemical with air

and water
bicarbonate soda with air

and water
be dryer
be lighter
be more heat resistant
cling to vertical surfaces
200 gallons
420 gallons
667 gallons
986 gallons
one spare extinguisher
one spare charge
five spare charges
ten spare charges
Halon 1211
Carbon dioxide
Foam
Dry chemical
Halon 1211
Carbon dioxide
Foam
Dry chemical
Chemical foam
Low velocity fog
Mechanical foam
High velocity fog
Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced

soda acid and water
by mechanically mixing and agitating __________.
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a lowexpansion foam will __________.
A tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate
aboard. Approximately how much foam solution
can be produced from this supply?
If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire
extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at
least __________.
Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing
when stowed in low temperatures?
Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the
freezing when exposed to low temperatures?
The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is
used in conjunction with a fire hose to produce
which of the listed fire extinguishing agents?
49
C
C
C
C
SF-0020

ABS
291454
VER Question
291550
291550
291552
291553
291553
291555
291630
291651
291651
291652
291751
291800
291801
1
2
4

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Illus
educting mechanical foam

The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit educting air through "D"
educting chemical foam
through "D" and mixing it
shown in the illustration, is produced by
and mixing it with water in through "D" and mixing it
with water and air in
__________.
chamber "E"
with water in chamber "E"
chamber "E"
educting air through "C",

mechanical foam through
SF-0020
"D", and mixing them with
water in chamber "E"
Immediately after a class "B" fire has been

extinguished by the use of foam, crewmen should
__________.
The rekindling of a fire can occur when a fire,
extinguished by smothering, is resupplied with
oxygen. Which of the fire extinguishing agents
listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will
prevent rekindling?
A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can
be effectively fought using __________.
Foam is effective in combating which of the listed
classes of fire?
When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank,
caused by an explosion or collision, the best
firefighting agent to use is __________.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) is correct?
carefully apply a low

wade through the foam
velocity fog over the foam blanket to evenly
blanket
distribute the foam
be careful not to disturb

the foam blanket
sweep the foam blanket

overboard and secure
firefighting equipment
Low velocity fog
Chemical foam
Dry chemical
High velocity fog
C
C
dry chemical
soda acid
foam
high velocity fog
Class A
Class B
Classes A and B
Classes B and C
water
CO2
foam
carbon tetrachloride
AFFF can be used

effectively on live
electrical equipment.
AFFF can be used to

extinguish combustible
metal fires.
AFFF may be used in a

joint attack with dry
chemical.
AFFF is an effective chain

breaking agent similar to
Halon.
Foam testing station
Foam fire protection

system
Fire alarm
producing excess CO2
breaking the chain

reaction
foaming action
Which of the listed equipment must be provided on

a MODU helicopter deck equipped with fueling
Fuel testing station
facilities?
Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as
cooling
Halon 1301 extinguish fires by __________.
The agent can not be

Halon extinguishes the fire
The agent is less effective
used on electrical fires
by a chain breaking
than carbon dioxide.
because it leaves a
reaction.
residue.

as stored in pressurized
cylinders.
Which of the listed factors should be considered

most important when combating an engine room
fire with a fixed Halon 1301 system in a motor
vessel?
The engine will ingest a

substantial quantity of the
The high engine
The engine will absorb the available Halon through its
combustion temperatures Halon into its cooling
intake and exhaust it out
liquefy the Halon.
system.
the stack if the engine is
not automatically shut
down.
The amount of Halon remaining in a fire

extinguisher cylinder is determined by
__________.
internal inspection
The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon

fire extinguishers is that _________.
The passive safety device installed on each Halon

fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over
safety valve
pressurization is called a __________.
Ans

concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing
agent?
Choice D
Halon is lighter than air
C
C
C
The engine will stall

regardless of how little
Halon has been taken in
through the air intake.
checking the quantity

indicating gauge
weighing the cylinder
it will produce skin

irritation
it produces toxic vapor

it will produce eye irritation
byproducts when exposed immediately after
directly to flame
discharge from cylinder
relief valve
rupture disc
50
checking the tag
control head
C
C

ABS
VER Question
291850
291850
291951
291951
291951
291952
291952
291953
291954
291954
291959
291962
292002

CFR), portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a
MODU may be charged with __________.
Portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a MODU
may be charged with __________.
Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the
automatic shutdown of the __________.
CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated
discharge heads will discharge automatically when
__________.
In a fixed CO2 system, the 'pilot' cylinders are
used to __________.
Control valves for a CO2 fire extinguishing system
may be located within the protected space when
__________.
In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces,
you must physically open the engine room
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
HALON 1301 only
HALON 22 only
HALON 1211 only
HALON 1301 or 1211
HALON 1301 only
HALON 22 only
HALON 1211 only
HALON 1301 or 1211
supply and exhaust

ventilation
pressure from the control
cylinders is initially
detected
mechanical and natural

ventilation
the control cylinders have
been completely
discharged
fuel supply only
exhaust ventilation only
the discharge valve is

open
the control box glass is

broken
direct CO2 to the pilot

house
activate individual groups

automatically activate the
of CO2 bottles in a
activate the main bank all
main bank if an abnormal
predetermined time delay at once
heat rise is detected
sequence
it is impractical to locate
them outside
there is also a control

valve outside
control valve and actuate CO2 releasing valve and

the alarm
actuate the alarm
The empty weight of a '100 pound' cylinder in a

fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system is 130 pounds.
200 lbs
What is the minimum acceptable weight of the
cylinder before recharging would be required?
A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on
a vessel equipped with a combination smoke
detection/carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing
system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied
and properly sealed off, you should NEXT
__________.
On a cargo ship equipped with a combination
detection-carbon dioxide system, the presence of
fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in
two spaces: #3 hold upper between decks,
containing bagged coffee beans; and #4 lower hold
containing fertilizer. To combat these fires you
should __________.
A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing
system is normally designed for a storage tank
pressure and temperature of approximately
__________.
following statements is FALSE concerning the
regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide
cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing
system?
210 lbs
the CO2 cylinders are also an automatic heat sensing

in the space
trip is installed
control valve, then open
the CO2 releasing valve
control valve, then shut off

the engine room
ventilation
220 lbs
230 lbs
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
open the three-way valve

close all three-way valve
whose number (on the
operate the control heads levers that are in the
handle) corresponds with
mounted on the main pilot detecting position with the
the line index chart
cylinders
exception of the valve(s)
number for the space on
to the involved space
fire
open the applicable threeopen the three-way valves
way valve for #3 hold and
to each space
fight the fire in #4 hold
simultaneously
with water
open the applicable threeway valve for #4 hold.

After discharge, secure
the valve; then open the
applicable valve for #3
hold.
lock the smoke detector

indicator on the monitoring
line, which automatically
activates the CO2
extinguishing system
activate the pilot CO2
cylinders, directing the
discharge to #3 hold, then
to #4 hold through the
three- way valve
14.7 PSIA and 0 degrees 150 PSIG and 72 degrees 300 PSIG and 0 degrees
Fahrenheit
Fahrenheit
Fahrenheit
1500 PSIG and 72

degrees Fahrenheit
The ambient temperature

The compartment must be of the room should never The door must be kept
properly ventilated.
be allowed to exceed 130 unlocked.
degrees Fahrenheit.
The compartment shall be

clearly identified and
marked.
Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-Each cylinder must weigh The cylinders are
portable CO2 system?
less than 50 pounds.
mounted horizontally.
51
It has a portable hose and It has distribution piping

nozzle.
installed permanently.
C
C

ABS
292003
292010
292011
VER Question
2

Choice A
To operate a CO2 fire extinguisher equipped with a

squeeze grip handle, you are to remove the
raise the lower grip
locking pin and __________.
You notice a large amount of smoke coming from

an open laundry room doorway, accompanied by
the odor of burning cotton fabric. After activating
the fire alarm, your next course of action should be
to ______.
Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2
system to extinguish a serious fire, you would
__________.
What danger to personnel exists when a carbon
dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small
enclosed space?
begin breaking out the

nearest fire hose
A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge

piping to prevent __________.
The empty weight of a '100 pound' (45.4 kg)

cylinder in a fixed CO2 system is 130 pounds (58.9
200 lbs (90.7 kg)
kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight
of the cylinder before recharging is required?
292102
292103
292104
rotate the cutter disc valve

wheel
Electric shock
over pressurization of the rupture of cylinder due to

space being flooded
temperature increase
How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing

systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are Quarterly.
within 10% of the stamped full charge weight?
Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when
the weight of the charge has diminished to what
percent?
Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when
the cylinder charge weight is less than what
percent of the stamped full weight charge?
Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged
when the charge weight is less than _____.
When is it required for carbon dioxide fire
extinguishers to be recharged?
210 lbs (95.2 kg)
close the door to the room
Ans
locate and don an

available SCBA
Burst eardrums
over pressurization of the flooding of a space where

CO2 discharge piping
personnel are present
220 lbs (99.8 kg)
230 lbs (104.3 kg)
C
Semiannually.
Annually.
Biannually.
80%
85%
90%
95%
80%
85%
90%
95%
80%
85%
90%
95%
At least once each year.
The extinguisher should

A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
be returned to its proper
extinguisher has been partially discharged. What is location for future
the proper action to take?
availability for use
regardless of weight.
directing the carbon

bouncing the discharge off
dioxide at the base of the
an adjacent bulkhead just
flame in a slow sweeping
above the burning surface
motion
Suffocation
292102
depress the upper grip
Second degree burns
292053
invert the extinguisher
activate the fixed CO2

system
Illus
evacuate all engine room

turn off electrical power
personnel
292102
Choice D
start the emergency diesel stop the main engine
292052
Choice C
292101
Choice B
The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide

discharging the carbon
forming a cloud cover over
from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by
dioxide to the top of the
the flames
__________.
flame
292050
292100
Each time the vessel dry- When the charged weight When the trigger seal has
docks.
decreases by 10%.
been broken.
location for future
availability for use as long
as the weight loss is no
more than 15%.
52

be replaced with a fullycharged spare and recharged before it can be
available for use.

location for future
availability for use as long
as the weight loss is no
more than 25%.
C
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question
292150
292150
292150
292150
292151
292152
292154
292155
292156
292204
292208
292250
292251
292300
If a fire broke out in an automation console, you

would first secure the power and then proceed to
use which of the listed hand portable fire
extinguishers?
To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use
__________.
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the
most effectively used for putting out a paint locker
fire?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be
most effective to use on a fire in a small electric
motor?
Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed
fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room,
as quickly as possible?
The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been
activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge
fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible
products from the engine room?
When reentering an engine room that has been
flooded with CO2, the investigating team should
initially __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Soda acid
Dry chemical
CO2
Foam
mechanical foam
chemical foam
carbon dioxide
soda acid
Solid stream of water
Soda acid extinguisher
Carbon dioxide
Dry powder
Soda acid
Foam
CO2
Light water
The fire may warp the

CO2 piping.
To keep the fire from

spreading through the
bulkheads.
Carbon dioxide takes a

Updraft from the fire tends
long time to disperse to all
to carry the CO2 away.
portions of a space.
Immediately after the fire

is extinguished.
One half-hour after the fire After the metal surfaces

is extinguished.
have cooled down.
Ans
enter from the highest

leave the access door
enter from the lowest
level with breathing
partially open
possible level
apparatus
Hand portable, semiIf a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room Fixed CO2, semi- portable Semi-portable CO2, fixed
portable CO2, then as a
bilges, in which of the following sequences should CO2, then hand portable CO2, then hand portable
last resort the fixed CO2
the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used? CO2.
CO2.
system.
The most effective method in the use of a CO2 fire
base or nearest edge of a
extinguisher is for the discharge to be directed at middle of a fire
top and sides of a fire
fire
the __________.
When a cylinder is used to store CO2 in a fixed
firefighting system and is retested in accordance
with regulations, all flexible connections between 2750 psi
1500 psi
1000 psi
cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed
or tested at __________.
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of
One B-II and One C- II
2,900 square feet. According to 46 CFR Part 95,
One B-I extinguisher
One B-II extinguisher
extinguisher
what will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?
A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU
used at the earliest
has lost 10% of its charge. It now must be
hydro tested
recharged
opportunity
__________.
A fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system on a MODU.
with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms)
two or more releasing
automatic release in event an audible alarm and time
CO2, protecting spaces other than tanks, must
stations
of a fire
delay
have __________.
The advantage of using a dry chemical fire
extinguishing agent is __________.
Illus
After any personnel in

fireman outfits reenter the
engine room.
attempt to operate
propulsion machinery
Hand portable, fixed CO2,
then as a last resort the
semi- portable CO2.
highest flames of a fire
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
300 psi
C
One B-III extinguisher
weighed again in one
month
an audible and visible
alarm
permanent extinguishment
its good stability and nonregardless of the reignition its excellent cooling ability
all of the above
toxicity
sources
53
C
C

ABS
292301
VER Question
1
292350
292350
292352
292352
292352
292403

Choice A
Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire cooling the fuel below
by __________.
Regarding the fire extinguisher shown in the
illustration, the small cylinder, labeled as #4,
contains __________.
To operate the dry chemical fire extinguisher
shown in the illustration, you must FIRST
__________.
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
should be filled with __________.
The fire extinguishing agent used in the fire
extinguisher shown in the illustration is
__________.
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
Illus
removing the fuel by

smothering and removing breaking up the molecular
absorbing the heated
the oxygen from the fuel chain reaction
vapors
compressed air
nitrogen
carbon dioxide
Halon
SF-0006
operate the squeeze grip

valve
invert the extinguisher
depress the puncturing

lever
remove the cartridge

guard
SF-0006
light water
foam
dry chemical
Halon 1301
SF-0006
light water
chemical foam
dry chemical
carbon dioxide
SF-0006

concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the
illustration?
The large canister piece

contains light water.
The state of charge can

be determined by
examining the pressure
gage.
The extinguisher can be

recharged aboard ship.
All of the above.
SF-0006
In addition to weighing the cartridge, what other

routine maintenance is required for a cartridgeoperated dry chemical extinguisher?
Weigh the powder in the

canister.
Discharge small amount

to see that it works.
Check the hose and

nozzle for clogs.
Check the external

pressure gage.
292450
292452
292452
292453
292454
292500
292530
292532
292532
292535
with any other dry

Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective
with any foam
strictly in a cooling
chemical extinguishing
when used __________.
extinguishing agents
capacity
agents
dry chemical leaves a
The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical
powder conducts
extinguishing action is not
powder residue which
fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the
electricity back to the fire
as good as with soda acid
may render electrical
__________.
fighter
equipment inoperative
When an electrical fire has been extinguished with
electrical contacts or
machinery suffering
fire being rekindled by
a dry chemical agent, there is always a possibility
relays being rendered
thermal shock damage
spontaneous combustion
of the __________.
inoperative
sweep the chemical
direct the chemical
When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight attack the fire from the
discharge back and forth
discharge into the center
a fuel oil fire, you should __________.
leeward side
across the burning fuel
of the burning fuel surface
surface
Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively
Class "A" only
Class "B" only
Class "B" and "C" only
used on which of the listed classes of fires?
15 pound CO2 fire
CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is
1 3/4 gallon foam
12 gallon foam
extinguisher
equivalent to a __________.
Cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguishers
used on MODUs, should have the propellant
three months
six months
12 months
cartridge weighed every __________.
On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are
II only
II and III
I and II
size(s) __________.
On a MODU, size I and II fire extinguishers are
fixed systems
steam generated
hand portable units
considered ____________,
Semi-portable fire extinguishers used on MODUs
II, III, and IV
I, II, and III
III, IV, and V
are of the sizes __________.
54
Ans
C
C
C
C
on materials that contain

their own oxygen
extinguisher will need to
be recharged
chemical crystals
suffocating the fire fighter
invert the dry chemical
extinguisher to fight the
fire
Class "A" and "C" only
35 pound CO2 fire
extinguisher
two years
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
I only
semi-portable units
IV and V

ABS
VER Question
292537
292555
292602
292603
292603
292603
292605
292606
292606
292612
292614
292650
292650
292651
292651
292651
292651
292655
292655
292655
Each hand portable, semi-portable, and fixed fire

extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and
inspected at least once every __________.
A fire discovered in an operating laundry room
dryer is considered to be which of the listed
classes of fire?
Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flammable
gases are generally extinguished by __________.
If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a
high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST
__________.
If a fire occurs in the fire room as a result of fuel oil
leaking from the boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST
action taken should be to __________.
When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a
broken fuel line, you should FIRST __________.
An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire
may be made by using __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
six weeks
six months
twelve months
two years
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
stopping the flow of gas
interrupting the chemical

chain reaction
cooling below the ignition cutting off the oxygen

point
supply
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
secure the ventilation
find a soda acid

extinguisher
shut off the fuel oil supply secure the generator
pressurize the fire main
activate the CO2 system
secure the fuel supply
sound the general alarm
look for a CO2

extinguisher
use a soda acid

extinguisher
a mechanical foam
system
shut off the fuel supply
smother the fire with rags
the range hood

extinguishing system
fire dampers only
fires in an electronics
console
small oil fires on the

engine room floor plates
fires in an ullage opening
SF-0006
Fire in an electronics
console
Small oil fire on the engine

Fire in an ullage opening
room floor plates
SF-0006
water
The device illustrated would be used to extinguish

mattress fires
__________.
Which of the listed type of fires would the fire
extinguisher, shown in the illustration, be suitable
for extinguishing?
During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred
due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST
__________.
Which of the following would be considered a
Class "B" fire?
Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire
involving an electric-driven centrifugal pump, you
should FIRST __________.
When fighting an electrical fire, you should first
__________.
A burning AC motor would be considered what
class of fire?
A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be
__________.
A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded
electrical motor, is considered a __________.
Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as
one involving electrical equipment?
Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a
main switchboard fire?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be
used on an electrical fire aboard ship?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be
used on an electrical fire aboard ship?
Mattress fire
blanket the cargo spill with apply CO2 on the burning

prevent the spread of fire
stop the transfer of cargo
foam
fuel at its source
with a foam dam
C
C
C
C
C
Electrical fire in a motor
Waste rag fire in the

engine room
Oil fire in the engine room Fire in the main

bilges
switchboard
insulate your shoes
ground the fire hose
secure its power supply
start the fire pump
stop ventilation to the area stop the vessel
secure electricity to the

circuit
apply CO2 to the fire
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
class "A" fire
class "B" fire
class "C" fire
class "D" fire
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
Foam
Soda acid
Carbon dioxide
Carbon tetrachloride
Foam
Soda acid
Carbon dioxide
Low velocity fog
55
C
C

ABS
VER Question
292657
292703
292802
292803
292803
292804
292804
293021
293021
293022
293024
293033
293034

Choice A
The most important property of any extinguishing

agent used in fighting class "C" fires is the agent's cooling capacity
__________.
"Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a
mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the
Class B
extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight
which type of fire?
When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing
systems, and associated equipment are not
required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a
cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner,
they __________.
299 gross ton 2800 horsepower uninspected motor
towing vessel would require __________.
On an uninspected vessel, all portable fire
extinguishers are required by law to be approved
by the __________.
Part 95.50), how many B-II hand portable fire
extinguishers are required in a space containing
two 4000 bhp main propulsion diesel engines?
How many approved B-II fire extinguishers must
be carried in the machinery space of a 3000 HP
vessel?
Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a
serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always
__________.
The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of
__________.
The center of volume of the immersed portion of
the vessel is the __________.
In small angle stability, when external forces exist,
the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically
upwards through the center of buoyancy and
through the __________.
Stability is determined principally by the location of
two points in a vessel. These points are the center
of buoyancy and the __________.
When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from
the keel to the metacenter is called the
__________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
ability to suppress
rekindling
non-conducting property
lack of fumes
Class C
Class D
all of the above
Illus
Ans
C
must be removed from the
vessel as the only
systems allowed and
approved are those listed
on the Coast Guard
need only to be Coast

Guard inspected and/or
tested after their initial
installation
three hand portable B-II

fire extinguishers
are exempt from all tests

and/or inspections as
normally required by a
Coast Guard inspector if
maintained in a suitable
working condition and
used only as a back up
must also be inspected

and/or tested in
accordance with Coast
Guard Regulations at
each Inspection for
Certification
five hand portable B- II fire six hand portable B-II fire nine hand portable B- II
extinguishers
extinguishers
fire extinguishers
insurance underwriter
American Bureau of
Shipping
U.S. Coast Guard
American Society for the

Testing of Materials
(ASTM)
Two
Four
Six
Eight
C
C
C
1
increase the trim
2
change the free surface
effect
3
decrease ship stability
7
cause a serious list
the void portion of the ship all cofferdams, double

below the waterline which bottoms, and wing tanks
is enclosed and watertight that are slack
the percentage of the

the part of the enclosed
volume of a compartment
and watertight portion of a
which can be occupied by
vessel above the waterline
water if flooded
center of flotation
metacentric height
center of buoyancy
center of gravity
center of gravity
center of flotation
metacenter
metacentric height
C
C
C
C
C
keel
geometric center of the

water plane area
center of gravity
center of flotation
metacentric differential
height of the baseline
righting arm
56
C
C

ABS
VER Question
293034
293034
293040
293042
293044
293051
293052
293052
293104
293106
293131
1
1
293135
293135
293138
293150
293151
293160
293170
When the height of the metacenter is less than the

height of the center of gravity, a vessel has what
type of stability?
When the height of the metacenter is less than the
type of stability?
Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial
flooding with free communication to the sea will
__________.
At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a
vessel's stability is determined by the vessel's
__________.
Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is
greatest at the __________.
Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known
as __________.
Heave is the motion of a vessel along the
__________.
The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as
__________.
What is the usual effect of moving weight from low
in the vessel to above the main deck?
Which of the listed conditions will occur to the
ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is
transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore
side?
A vessel would most likely develop a list if you
were __________.
The difference between the average of the forward
and aft drafts is __________.
The difference between the forward and aft drafts
of a vessel would be the _________.
For a vessel with a block coefficient of 1, the
addition of weight at the center of flotation will
__________.
What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P
double bottom to #3P double bottom have on the
trim of a vessel?
The distance between the bottom of the hull and
the waterline is called __________.
Symbol #5 shown in the illustration, represents
__________.
Compliance with the terms of the load line
certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Stable
Neutral
Unstable
Positive
Stable
Neutral
Negative
Positive
increase reserve
buoyancy
decrease the free surface

seriously reduce stability
effect
result in the ship's sinking
metacentric height
displacement
righting moment
inclining moment
bow
stern
keel
boot topping
pitch
surge
sway
heave
longitudinal axis
transverse axis
vertical axis
centerline axis
surge
sway
heave
pitch
The stability is increased. The draft is increased.
The reserve buoyancy is

The stability is decreased.
decreased.
The center of gravity will

The reserve buoyancy will
remain in the same
rise.
position.
The center of gravity will

be lowered.
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
C
The reserve buoyancy will

remain the same.
using water from two

equally sized tanks on
using fuel from tanks on
either side of the
the port side only
centerline simultaneously
using water from the fore

peak tank
list
heel
trim
flotation
list
heel
trim
flotation
burning fuel from a

centerline tank
increase the forward draft decrease the forward draft

have no effect on the
and decrease the after
and increase the after
have no effect on the trim
stability
draft
draft
The mean draft will
increase.
The mean draft will

decrease.
The forward draft will

decrease.
The after draft will

decrease.
tonnage
reserve buoyancy
draft
freeboard
displacement
leverage center
centerline
counterflood limits
Ballast Control Operator
Barge Supervisor
Master or Offshore
Installation Manager
Operator representative
57
C
C
C
SF-0022
C
C

ABS
293201
VER Question
2
293202
293257
293263
293265
293266
293271
293272
293300
293301
293302
293501
293505
293506
293603
293750
293752

Choice A
The principal effect of liquid free surface is

dependent upon the volume of displacement of the height of liquid in the tank
vessel and the __________.
The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid
density of the liquid
tank decrease with increased __________.
If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU
be tender
will __________.
which exists when the
Damage stability of a MODU is the stability
wind speed is less than 50
__________.
knots
A floating MODU with an initial negative
will capsize
metacentric height __________.
For a MODU with a list, a decrease in 'GMT' will
stabilize at an angle of loll
cause the angle of inclination to __________.
Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to
the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a 'FSCL'
MODU yields __________.
Adding the transverse free surface correction to
the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a 'FSCT'
Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by
transferring drill water
securing watertight boundaries and __________.
The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU
It returns the MODU to an
serves which of the purposes listed?
even keel.
During counter flooding to correct a severe list or
trim aggravated by an off center load, a MODU
continue counter flooding
suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side.
in the same direction
You should __________.
Main wooden shoring for use in damage control, is
usually less than 10 feet long and has a nominal
2"x 2"
cross-section dimension of ______.
The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is
bearing against the hatch coaming and is
Shore "A" will support the
supporting a load in the direction indicated by the
greatest load.
arrows. Which of the following statements is
correct for the condition?
After an emergency shoring installation has been
completed, the __________.
The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell
plating of a ship may be prevented by
__________.
The best information on the nature and extent of
damage on a MODU is obtained from
__________.
Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at, or
above the waterline, reduces the threat of
__________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
amount of liquid in the

tank
dimensions of the liquid

surface
weight of liquid in the tank
placement of the tank

above the keel
have a slow and easy
motion
displacement volume of
the MODU
size of the surface area in

the tank
be stiff
have a tendency to yaw
before collision
after flooding
at survival draft
will incline further
may lie at an angle of loll
may be initially level
decrease
increase
remain constant
'KG'
'KGL'
'GML'
'KG'
'KGT'
'GMT'
dumping bulk materials

It reduces free surface
effect.
pumping out flooded

compartments
It lowers the center of
gravity.
Illus
Ans
C
C
evacuating the unit
It raises the center of

gravity.
continue counter flooding,

immediately stop counter deballast from the low
but in the opposite
flooding
side
direction
2"x 4"
4"x 4"
2"x 6"
Shore "A" will not slip

under load.
Shore "B" will support the Shore "B" will crack at the
SF-0018
load without it cracking.
pointed end.
C
C
shoring should be
repair is completed and no timbers are nailed in place
frequently inspected for
further action is needed
to prevent looseness
looseness
damaged plating should

be straightened by heating
welding brackets across

both ends of the crack
chipping out and slot

welding the entire crack
drilling a hole at each end cutting a square notch at

of the crack
each end of the crack
alarms and monitoring

devices
the tool pusher
personnel at the scene of person-in-charge of the

the damage
affected spaces
free surface effects
capsizing the MODU
continued progressive
flooding
58
wind overturning moments
C
C
C
C

ABS
293757
293764
VER Question
1
1
293765
293766
294000
294000
294000
294000
294001
294001
294002
The object of plugging holes below the waterline

on a MODU should be to __________.
Progressive flooding in the engine room may be
minimized by securing watertight boundaries and
__________.
The jettisoning of topside weight from your ship
serves which purpose?
During counter flooding to correct a severe list or
trim aggravated by an off center load, your ship
suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side.
Your first course of action should be __________.
Lifejackets should always be stowed in
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
only plug holes in

eliminate all water
machinery or other vital
entering through the hole
spaces
reduce the entry of water

as much as possible
plug the largest holes first
transferring reserve feed

water
dumping fuel oil
pumping out flooded

compartments
evacuating the engine

room
It returns the ship to an

even keel.
It reduces free surface

effect.
It lowers the center of

gravity.
It raises the center of

gravity.
the after peak
readily accessible spaces
Lifejackets should be stowed in __________.
the forepeaks
the pump room
survival craft
mess rooms
the forepeak
the after peak
may be used as a
substitute for approved life
preservers during routine
drills, but never during an
emergency
should not be stowed

where they could be
confused with life jackets
in an emergency
may be used as a
substitute for approved life
preservers during routine
drills, but never during an
emergency
should not be stowed

where they could be
confused with life jackets
in an emergency
294004
294004
294005
294005
294005
11
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations,

__________.
Which of the following statements is NOT true

concerning life-jackets?
Where would you find a list of the lifesaving
equipment onboard your supply boat?
Where would you find a list of the lifesaving
equipment onboard your supply boat?
According to 46 CFRs Part 199, for each
passenger vessel normally operating above 32
degrees north latitude, the minimum number of
immersion suits to be carried for each lifeboat is at
least __________.
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an
__________.
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an
__________.
should be stowed in
engineering spaces in lieu
of approved life
preservers because they
are less bulky and permit
free movement in confined
spaces
should be stowed in
engineering spaces in lieu
of approved life
preservers because they
are less bulky and permit
free movement in confined
spaces
locked watertight
containers
locked watertight
containers
locked watertight
containers
locked watertight
containers
C
C
C
C
all of the above
They come in two sizes,

child and adult.
They must be worn with

They are required to be of
the correct side facing
a highly visible color.
outward.
Ship's articles
Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection
Ship's articles
Ans
continue counter flooding,

continue counter flooding
immediately stop counter deballast from the low
but in the opposite
in the same direction
flooding
side
direction
the forepeak
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations,

__________.
Illus
All of the above
C
They must be able to
support the wearer in an
upright position.
U. S. Coast Guard
Regulations
U. S. Coast Guard
Regulations
3
C
C
C
4
C
air bottle for breathing
whistle, strobe light, and

reflective tape
whistle, strobe light, and
whistle and handheld flare
reflective tape
whistle and handheld flare
59
whistle, handheld flare,

and sea dye marker
whistle, handheld flare,
and sea dye marker
C
C

ABS
294005
294005
294006
294007
294007
294007
VER Question
294009
294102
294102
294108



How is the external flotation bladder of an

immersion suit inflated?
How is the external flotation bladder of an

immersion suit inflated?

Choice A
Choice B
After purchasing, the suit

Immersion suits should be
should be removed from
worn during routine work
its storage bag and hung
on deck to provide
on a hanger where it will
maximum protection.
be readily accessible.
should be removed from
worn during routine work
its storage bag and hung
on deck to provide
on a hanger where it will
maximum protection.
be readily accessible.

Choice C
During the annual
maintenance, the front
zipper should be
lubricated only with
manufacturers
recommended lubricant
During the annual
zipper should be
lubricated according to
manufacturers
recommendations.
It is inflated by a small
CO2 bottle that is
automatically tripped
CO2 bottle that is
when the front zipper is at manually tripped.
the top of zipper track.
It is inflated by blowing
through an inflation tube.
CO2 bottle that is
automatically tripped
CO2 bottle that is
when the front zipper is at manually tripped.
the top of zipper track.
It is inflated by blowing
through an inflation tube.
60
It inflates by sea water

bleeding into the flotation
bladder and reacting with
a chemical.
It inflates by sea water

bleeding into the flotation
bladder and reacting with
a chemical.
Some leakage should be

Contact the manufacturer expected and a topping off
for repair instruction.
tube is provided; no other
action is necessary.
In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that

each manned watch
are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be
the mess room
the steering gear room
station
stowed at ___________.
Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how
1
2
many must be equipped with a water light?
Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV on
ocean service, how many must be equipped with a
1
2
water light?
For a MODU not on an international voyage, an
approved substitute for an impulse projected
shoulder type throwing
spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line
rocket type line throwing appliance is a
gun
__________.
Ans
Small leaks or tears may

be repaired using the
repair kit packed with the
suit.

Not all models will
provides protection
up in the water.
weeks.
Replace the inflation

bladder.
Illus
Small leaks or tears may

be repaired using the
repair kit packed with the
suit.
The wearer of the suit is

The suit will still be
no way restricted in body
serviceable after a brief (2 movement and the suit
seconds) exposure to
may be donned well in
flame and burning.
advance of abandoning
ship.
You are testing the external inflation bladder on an

immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak.
Replace the suit.
Which of the actions listed should be taken?
Choice D
each fire station
C
C
C
C
heaving line

ABS
294108
294114
294200
294200
294200
VER Question
5
2
3
294201
294204
10
294204
36
An inflatable liferaft has inflated on top of you in an Wait for others to lift the
upside down position. What should you do next? raft off of you.
If a liferaft should capsize, __________.
If the liferaft you are in should capsize, all
personnel should leave the raft and __________.
One feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep
people stationary in rough weather is the set of
__________.
An inflatable liferaft can be launched by
__________.
An inflatable liferaft can be launched by

__________.
An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container,

attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is
sinking rapidly. Which of the actions listed should
be taken with respect to the liferaft container?
294204
An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container,

attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is
41
sinking rapidly. Which of the actions listed should
be taken with respect to the liferaft container?
294204
294204
Choice A
Choice B
For a OSV not on an international voyage, an

approved substitute for an impulse projected
spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line
rocket type line throwing appliance is a
__________.
During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual
without the option of a survival craft or liferaft
there is a rescue craft in water temperature is
should enter the water on the leeward side, except the area
below 40F
when __________.
294204
294204
If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an

18 inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and
becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________.
The most important thing to remember when
44 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to
__________.
The most important thing to remember when
12 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to
__________.
swim away from the raft
climb onto the bottom
swim away from the raft
lashings on the floor of the

straps hanging from the
raft for the passenger's
overhead
feet
the float-free method only
Choice C
Choice D
shoulder type throwing

gun
heaving line
kicking the hydrostatic

release
kicking the hydrostatic

release
right the raft using the

righting straps
right the raft using the
righting straps
You should remove your

lifejacket before
attempting to right an
inflatable raft.
safety straps on the inside ridges in the floor of the

of the raft
raft
throwing the entire
container overboard, then removing the securing
pulling on the operating
straps
cord to inflate the raft
throwing the entire
container overboard, then removing the securing
pulling on the operating
straps
cord to inflate the raft
Manually open the
container and inflate the
liferaft with the hand
pump.
Cut the painter line so it

will not pull the liferaft
container down.
Swim away from the

container so you will not
be in danger as it goes
down.
Take no action as the pull

on the painter will cause
the liferaft to inflate and
open the container.
Manually open the

pump.
set the water lights on

immersion
release the dye marker

from the liferaft
free the liferaft from the

vessel
break the seal on the

carbon dioxide cylinder
ensure that the operating

cord is secured to the
vessel
ensure that the operating
cord is secured to the
vessel
inflate the raft on the

vessel, then lower it over
the side
inflate the raft on the
vessel, then lower it over
the side
open the raft container
61
inflate the righting bag
Take no action as the pull

on the painter will cause
the liferaft to inflate and
open the container.
open the CO2 inflation

valve
Swim away from the

down.
open the raft container
Ans
inflate the righting bag
Cut the painter line so it

will not pull the liferaft
container down.
open the CO2 inflation

valve
Illus
there is a severe list to the

a rigid survival craft is in
windward side of the
the area
MODU
Pull yourself out from

Dive down to prevent your
under the raft in a face up
lifejacket from fouling as
position to keep your
you come out.
lifejacket clear of the raft.
climb onto the bottom
the float-free method only
C
C
C
C

ABS
294204
VER Question
7
The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a

length of __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
6 fathoms
50 feet
100 feet
300 feet
294204
24
The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be

__________.
free running on deck
294204
37
The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be

__________.
free running on deck
294204
Which of the following operations should be carried

16
Open the liferaft casing
out when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
294207
The most important reason for taking antiseasickness pills as soon as possible after
entering a liferaft is to __________.
294207
The most important reason for taking antiseasickness pills as soon as possible after
entering a liferaft is to __________.
294207
294208
294208
294210
294210
294213
294213
294219
294301
294301
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high

latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.
An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard
the ship by using __________.
An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard
the ship by using __________.
While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical
weather __________.
While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical
weather, __________.
In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is
provided to make quick, emergency, temporary
repairs to a cut, or rip in a raft?
When making a permanent repair to an inflatable
liferaft using a repair kit, how long after the repair
is made should you hold off 'topping up' the lost
air?
In the illustration shown, the sea painter is
identified as item number _____.
When abandoning a MODU, following the
launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
When abandoning ship, after launching the motor
lifeboat you should __________.

Illus
Ans
secured to a permanent
faked out next to the case object on deck via a weak stowed near the raft
link
secured to a permanent
faked out next to the case object on deck via a weak stowed near the raft
link
C
C
Make sure the operating

Turn the valve on the CO2 cord is secured to the
cylinder to start inflation
vessel before throwing it
over the side
After inflation, detach

operating cord from liferaft
assist in sleeping
reduce appetite by
decreasing nausea
prevent loss of body

moisture by vomiting
prevent impaired
judgment due to motioninduced deliriousness
assist in sleeping
reduce appetite by
decreasing nausea
prevent loss of body

moisture by vomiting
prevent impaired
judgement due to motioninduced deliriousness
hypothermia caused by
cold temperature
starvation
the towing bridle
all of the above
the towing bridle
All of the above
deflating the floor panels

may help to cool
personnel
the entrance curtains

should never be opened
deflating the floor panels

may help to cool
personnel
the entrance curtains

should never be opened
Self-adhesive rubberized
canvas patches
2 hours
asphyxiation due to
collapse of the raft due to
keeping the canopy
cold temperatures
closed
the single hook at the top two lines passed under
of the raft
the raft
the single hook at the top two lines passed under
of the raft
the raft
the pressure valve may be
the canopy should be
periodically opened to
deflated so that it will not
prevent excessive air
block cooling breezes
pressure
the pressure valve may be
the canopy should be
periodically opened to
deflated so that it will not
prevent excessive air
block cooling breezes
pressure
There is no equipment
provided
Glue and rubber patches
Several various- sized

repair clamps
You do not have to hold

off
12 hours
24 hours
C
C
C
C
C
3
9 SF-0043
plot a course for the

nearest land
take a vote on which

stay in the immediate area
plot course for nearest

land
go only with the direction

of the sea
go one direction until fuel

runs out
62
go one direction until fuel

runs out
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question
294302
294303
294303
294304
294304
294305
2
1
294305
294305
294306
294307
294307
294308
294308
294308
294310
294310
11
294310
The person-in-charge of a MODU shall insure that

the fuel tank of each motor- propelled lifeboat is
emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once
every __________.
When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be
rigged __________.
When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in
heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines
__________.
The No. 2 lifeboat on a vessel would be found
__________.
The No. 3 lifeboat would be __________.
The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts
on a MODU must be approved by the
__________.
The instructions for launching lifeboats liferafts on
must be approved by the __________.
The instructions for the launching procedures of
controls rescue boats and life rafts on an OSV
must be approved by the __________.
In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual
distress signals is acceptable for daylight use
only?
The person-in-charge shall insure that each
lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the water,
launched, and operated at least once every
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
three months
six months
twelve months
twenty-four months
before the gripes are

released
before the boat is moved

from the davits
before the tricing pendant after the boat is in the

is released
water
on only the forward falls
on only the after falls
fore and aft with a lead of from the falls to the tricing
about 45 to the boat
gear
aft of No. 1 lifeboat port

side
next to boat No. 2 on the
starboard side
aft of No. 1 lifeboat

starboard side
aft of boat No. 1 on the
port side
lease operator
Minerals Management
Service
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
on the port side
on the starboard side

starboard side

port side
Coast Guard
person-in-charge of the
unit
lease operator
Minerals Management
Service
Coast Guard
unit
lease operator
Minerals Management
Service
Coast Guard
unit
Handheld red flare
Self-contained rocket
propelled parachute red
flare
Orange smoke signal
Red aerial pyrotechnic

flare
month
two months
three months
six months
two months
A qualified person must be assigned as the second

in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat 20 persons
has a capacity of more than __________.
30 persons
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU shall

surfaced with a nonskid
insure that each deck from which lifeboats are
texture
launched is __________.
The master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall
surfaced with a nonskid
insure that each deck from which rescue boats are
texture
launched is __________.
"Category 1" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that
offshore supply vessels
are monitored by __________.
"Category 1" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that
offshore supply vessels
are monitored by __________.
Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested
using the integrated test circuit and output indicator week
every __________.
C
C
C
C
The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue

boat on a OSV is lowered to the water, launched, month
and operated at least once every __________.
three months
six months
C
40 persons
50 persons
kept clear of any

obstructions that would
interfere with launching
kept clear of any
obstructions that would
interfere with launching
posted with a list of

persons assigned to the
lifeboat
posted with a list of
persons assigned to the
lifeboat
C
roped off to prevent
unnecessary access
roped off to prevent
unnecessary access
commercial fishing
vessels
commercial fishing
vessels
two weeks
63
C
C
orbiting satellites in space naval warships
orbiting satellites in space naval warships
month
two months

ABS
294310
294311
VER Question
15

Choice A
Each EPIRB required on a OSV, other than an

EPIRB or SART in an inflatable liferaft, shall be
week
tested using the integrated test circuit and output
indicator every __________.
According to 46 CFR Part 199, the maximum
lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity davits must 70 feet per minute
not be more than __________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
two weeks
month
two months
Illus
Ans
C
114 feet per minute
256 feet per minute
500 feet per minute
shutting off the current to

the winch
pushing the switch lever

arm while the winch is
running
all of the above
294312
Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested

by __________.
the engineers, from a

panel in the engine room
294312
The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to

__________.
control the descent rate of control the ascent rate of

a lifeboat
a lifeboat
cut off power to the winch cut off power to the winch
when the lifeboat nears
when the lifeboat reaches
the final stowed position the davit bumpers
To cut off power when the

To stop the davits from
davits hit the track safety
going too fast.
stops.
To cut off power when the

davits are about 12 inches
None of the above.
from the track safety stops
when hoisting.
8 hours
12 hours
24 hours
The lower ballast tanks

are filled with water.
The fuel tanks are not less The passengers are

than half full.
strapped to their seats.
The sea anchor is

deployed to windward.
oxygen
nitrogen
compressed air
nitrogen and oxygen
greater than outside air

pressure
equal to outside air

pressure
294312
294315
294317
294318
294318
294320
294321
294323
294323
294323
294323
Which of the following statements defines the

purpose of the lifeboat gravity davit limit switch?
At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival
craft should last __________.
Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival
capsules will automatically right themselves if they
capsize. This will occur when which of the
following conditions exists?
The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should
be refilled with __________.
With the air supply on, the air pressure in the
survival craft will be __________.
changing in relation to the less than outside air

speed of the craft
pressure
When inspecting a survival craft, you should check

sea anchor is deployed
to make sure that the __________.
hydraulic starting system

has been drained
If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the

personnel should be __________.
When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in
heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat
should __________.
When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft
in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival
craft should __________.
loaded equally on both

sides with more forward
loaded more on port side

to forward
48 hours
hydraulic pressure is
steering controls are
within the specified range locked
loaded equally on both

sides with more aft
wait for calmer weather
transfer all personnel
tie up close to the rescue
before transferring
immediately
vessel
personnel
transfer only those
wait for calmer weather
tie up to the rescue vessel personnel who are not
before transferring
seasick
personnel
allowed to sit anywhere

transfer only those
personnel who are not
seasick
transfer all personnel
immediately
climb on top of the

When transferring survivors from a survival craft to remove their lifejackets to
survival craft while waiting
a rescue vessel, personnel onboard the craft
make it easier to climb
for their turn to transfer to
should __________.
onboard the rescue vessel
the rescue vessel
remain seated inside the

survival craft and make
enter the water and swim
the transfer one person at over to the rescue vessel
a time
climb on top of the

When transferring survivors from a survival craft to remove their lifejackets to
survival craft while waiting
a rescue vessel, personnel onboard the craft
make it easier to climb
for their turn to transfer to
should __________.
onboard the rescue vessel
the rescue vessel
remain seated inside the

survival craft and make
enter the water and swim
the transfer one person at over to the rescue vessel
a time
64
C
C
C
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question
294327
294330
294331
294334
294336
1
5
294337
294341
294411
294414
294415
294418
294419
294420
294423
Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important

item to check is the __________.
The survival craft engine is fueled with
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
oars
sail
boat plug
life preservers
kerosene
unleaded gasoline
diesel oil
liquefied gas
On all vessels, regardless

of voyage duration, the
entire steering gear,
Which of the following statements is true regarding
whistle, and bridgethe operational testing and inspecting of a cargo
engine room
vessel's lifesaving equipment by the ship's force?
communication systems
must be tested within 12
hours of departure.
Where motor- propelled

All emergency lighting and
lifeboats are carried,
power systems,
regardless of length or
regardless of source, must
person capacity, each
be operated and tested at
lifeboat motor must be
least once each week
operated ahead and
under load for at least 2
astern at least 3 minutes
hours.
once a week.
All of the above.
Davit launched lifeboats must be equipped with

__________.
ballast tanks to prevent

the boat from capsizing
auxiliary mechanical
propulsion (Fleming gear)
tanks for the storage of

drinking water
Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival

small sips at regular
a complete daily ration at
situation has been established, the drinking routine
intervals during the day.
one time during the day.
should include __________.
be safe if mixed with fresh
Drinking salt water will __________.
prevent seasickness
water
asphyxiation due to
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high
collapse of the raft due to
keeping the canopy
latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.
cold temperatures
closed
The equipment is
What is a major advantage of using a positive
lightweight and the wearer The average operating
pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus? can work without difficulty time is over an hour.
in confined spaces.
While donning the positive-pressure selfcontained breathing apparatus, you discover that
the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator
pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi.
Which of the components listed are
interchangeable between different backpack selfcontained breathing apparatus produced by
various manufacturers?
On a MODU, the locker or space containing the
self-contained breathing apparatus must be
__________.
For use as protection from gas leaking from a
refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped
with a __________.
The recommended equipment for a pump room
rescue aboard a tank vessel is a lifeline, harness,
and breathing apparatus. The regulations state
that each approved lifeline must __________.
Clean air standards, referred to as 'Grade D', apply
to compressed air for use in __________.
Replace the defective

gages with a new pair
from the spare parts
inventory.
Replace the air cylinder.
The face piece
The regulator
buoyant oars or paddles
Illus
Ans
one-third the daily ration small sips only after

three times during the day. sunset.
promote urine excretion
protect against heat

cramps
cold temperature
starvation
The speed with which it

can be put into operation
is around 45 seconds.
Facial hair will not affect

the mask performance.
Assume that the lower

gage reading is correct.
Take the average of the

two gages as the correct
pressure.
The air cylinder
All of the above
C
C
C
C
C
equipped with battery
located in close proximity
powered emergency
to the main control station
lighting
marked 'SELFCONTAINED
BREATHING
APPARATUS'
all of the above
portable ventilation
system
flame safety lamp
apparatus
gas mask
be a new nylon line
be a minimum of a two
inch line
not be less than 50 feet in not be more than 100 feet

length
in length
high pressure fluid

accumulators
driving air powered

plunger pumps
filling open circuit

breathing systems
65
bladder type accumulators
C
C

ABS
VER Question
295000
11
295000
295000
295001
295002
295003
295003
In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned,

you should look at the __________.
Where would you look to find out what your duties
are during a fire?
You can find the location of your abandon ship
post by checking the __________.
If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by
one long blast on the whistle, and supplemented
by the same signal on the general alarm, you
should __________.
While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of
two short blasts of the ship's whistle is sounded.
This indicates __________.
A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period
of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a
continuous sounding of the general alarm for a
period of not less than 10 seconds, is the
__________.
A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle,
supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
general alarm bells for a period of not less than 10
seconds, is the signal for __________.
Which of the following signals represents the

emergency signal for a fire aboard a U.S. flag
merchant vessel?

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
fire control plan
muster list or station bill
ship's articles
Coast Guard Regulations Certificate of Inspection
Muster list
Ship's articles
vessel's logbook
vessel's documentation
muster list
start the fire pump
go to your man overboard

go to your lifeboat station stand by for collision
station
abandon ship
commence lowering boats stop lowering boats
secure from boat stations
boat stations signal

fire alarm signal
signal
lower lifeboats signal
man overboard
295003
295004
295107
295108
295109
a 30 second on - 30
The signal to man emergency stations on MODUs
second off alternating
is __________.
signal
Ans
C
C
fire stations
secure from all drills
You hear the general alarm bells and ships whistle

13 sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the abandon ship
signal for __________.
boat stations
A long continuous blast of

Rapid short blasts of the Rapid short blasts of the the ships whistle for a
ship's whistle for a period ships whistle for a period period of not less than 10
of not less than 5
of not less than 10
seconds, supplemented
by the continuous ringing
by the same signal on the by a continuous ringing of of the general alarm bell
general alarm bell.
the general alarm bell.
for not less than 10
seconds.
295010
Illus
295003
During the required periodic boat drill aboard a

MODU, each person not assigned duties as per
the Muster List ("Station Bill") is __________.
Which of the actions listed and instituted on your
part will have the greatest lasting effect on the
crew with respect to safety?
Which of the listed conditions can be considered
as the single greatest cause of accidents?
Which of the following conditions can contribute to
accidents?
A long continuous blast of

the ships whistle for a
period of not less than 5
by the same signal on the
general alarm bell.
dismissal from drills
fire and emergency
lower lifeboats
the continuous ringing of

the general alarm signal
an intermittent ringing of
the general alarm for not
less than ten seconds
announced over PA
system
shown a video
instructed in the use of
demonstrating lifeboat
portable fire extinguishers
launching
instructed in the use of life not required to attend the

preservers
boat drill
Displaying posters
Showing video tapes of
illustrating safety practices actual accidents
Incorporating safety
practices in daily routine
Publishing comprehensive
safety rules
Speed
Excessive knowledge or
skill
Human error
Excitement
Good housekeeping
Inspections
Unsafe conditions
Intelligent work habits
66
C
C

ABS
295110
295208
295502
VER Question
1
295513
295515
295517
295517
296000
296000
296001
296001
296001
When working around deck machinery it is a good

safety practice to avoid standing in a 'bight' of a
rope because __________.
enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared
for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and
designated "NOT SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if
_______.
Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing
an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface
upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which
action should you take?
Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival
situation has been established, the drinking routine
should include __________.
If you are forced to abandon an OSV, following the
launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
The abandon ship signal is __________.

The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessels
whistle is __________.
When administering only mouth-to- mouth
resuscitation, you should continue the victim's
ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?
When administering only mouth-to- mouth
resuscitation, you should continue the victim's
ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?
If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased
breathing, you should __________.
The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal
during mouth-to-mouth ventilation by pinching the
victim's nostrils and __________.
during mouth-to-mouth ventilation by pinching the
victim's nostrils and __________.

Choice A
Choice C
Choice D
oxygen content is 21%
adjacent spaces have not

been inspected for
all of the above
Cut the painter so it will

not pull the liferaft
container down.
Swim away from the

down.
Take no action because

the painter will cause the
liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
small sips at regular

intervals during the day
a complete daily ration at one third the daily ration small sips only after
one time at noon
three times during the day sunset
plot a course to the

nearest land
take a vote on which

direction to go
more than 6 short blasts

A continuous ringing of the
a continuous ringing of the
and 1 long blast of the
general alarm, and
general alarm bells for at
ships whistle and the
sounding of the ships
least 10 seconds
same on the general
whistle
alarm bells
6 short blasts and 1 long
blast
and 1 long blast
C
1 long blast of at least 10
seconds
12
20
12
20
cupping a hand around

the patient's mouth
keeping the head elevated
applying his mouth tightly holding the jaw down

over the victim's mouth
firmly

the patient's mouth

firmly
make the victim

296010
After a person has been revived by artificial

respiration, they should be __________.
walked around until he is

back to normal
a continuous sounding of
the ships whistle
296010
given several shots of

whiskey
given several shots of
whiskey
67

the fuel runs out
make the victim

After a person has been revived by artificial

respiration, they should be __________.
Ans
Manually open the

pump.
immediately give a
necessary
Illus
a sudden yank on the line your work shoes may

may trap your leg
cause damage to the rope
concentration of
flammable vapors in the
atmosphere is 5% of the
L.E.L.
immediately give a
necessary
walked around until he is
back to normal
Choice B
the coil may become

it doesn't allow for proper
tangled and difficult to
faking of the line
manage
If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased

breathing, you should __________.
296002
administer oxygen
administer oxygen
allowed to do as he
kept lying down and warm
wishes
asked about the
kept lying down and warm circumstances of the
accident
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C

ABS
296012
296016
296016
VER Question
2
296017
296017
296019
296021
296021
296102
296103
296200
In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim,

__________.
When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that
no air is getting into the lungs. What should you
do?
When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that
no air is getting into the lungs. What should you
do?
during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching
the victim's nostrils and __________.
during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching
the victim's nostrils and __________.
When administering mouth to mouth rescue
breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the
rate of how many breaths per minute?
You are administering chest compressions during
CPR. Where on the victim's body should the
pressure be applied?
You are administering chest compressions during
CPR. Where on the victim's body should the
Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear
__________.
A person reports to you with a fishhook in their
thumb. The accepted procedure for removing it
should be to __________.

Choice A
Choice B
start chest compressions

before the victim is
removed from the water
drain water from the lungs begin mouth-to- mouth

before ventilating
ventilations
Choice D



again.

the patient's mouth

firmly

the patient's mouth

firmly
12
20
Lower half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
Tip of the sternum
Top half of the sternum
Lower half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
dark red with a steady

flow
bright red with a steady

flow
bright red and in spurts
296211
296301
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for

traumatic shock?
296303
After an accident, the victim may go into shock and

Slightly elevate the head
die. Which of the following actions should be taken
and feet.
to help prevent shock?
pull it out with pliers
Tip of the sternum
push the barb through, cut

cut the skin from around
it off, and then remove the
the hook
hook
not be moved, but made
comfortable until medical
be examined then walked
assistance arrives,
to a bunk
provided he is in a safe
environment
Ans

will blow out any
obstruction.
will blow out any
obstruction.

again.
Illus
do not tilt the head back

since it may cause
vomiting

296201
Choice C

A person suffering from possible broken bones and be assisted in walking

internal injuries should __________.
around
What is the primary purpose for applying a splint
when administering first aid?
What is the primary purpose of a splint when
applied in first aid treatment?
dark red and in spurts

have a surgeon remove it
not be allowed to lie down

where injured but moved
to a chair or bunk
C
C
C
C
C
Control bleeding
Reduce pain
Immobilize the fracture
Reset the bone
Reduce pain
Control bleeding
Immobilize a fracture
Reset the bone
Keep the patient warm,

but not hot.
Have the injured person

lie down.
Massage the arms and

Relieve the pain of the
legs to restore circulation. injury.
Keep the person awake.
Keep the person lying

Give the person a
down and at a comfortable stimulant to increase
temperature.
blood flow.
68

ABS
296303
VER Question
2
The fundamental treatment for preventing

traumatic shock following an accident is to
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
have the victim exercise to stay away from electrical

increase circulation
equipment

Choice C
Choice D
keep the victim warm and apply ice packs and avoid
dry while lying down
excitement
attempt to stand him
upright to restore
consciousness
296306
If a crew member faints, you should __________.
lay him down with his

head slightly raised
administer a liquid
stimulant
lay him down with his

head lower than his feet
296306
Which of the following should NOT be done for a

person who has fainted?
Get the person in the

open air.
Loosen the clothing.
Lay the person with the

Splash cold water in the
head higher than the feet. face.
296306
Which of the following should NOT be done for a

person who has fainted?
Provide fresh air
Loosen clothing
Elevate head
Stimulate face with cold

water
An unconscious person should NOT be

__________.
placed in a position with

the head lower than the
body
given an inhalation
stimulant
given something to drink
treated for injuries
Third degree burn
Second degree burn
Blister burn
296307
296400
296400
296401
296402
296404
296407
296500
296502
296504
296506
296600
296600
A man has suffered a burn on his arm

characterized by reddening of the skin, blistering,
Major burn
and swelling. This is an example of what kind of
burn?
First, second, and third degree burns are classified
area of the body burned
according to __________.
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
source of heat causing the

layers of skin affected
size of the burned area
burn
make the person stand up
When treating a person for third degree burns, you submerge the burn area in
cover the burns with thick break blisters and remove
and walk to increase
should __________.
cold water
sterile dressing
dead tissue
circulation
In treating a person for first degree thermal burns,
disfigurement
infection
pain
asphyxia
it is important to prevent or reduce __________.
complete obstruction of
Severe airway burns will cause __________.
nausea
reddening of cheeks
nosebleed
respiratory passages
Administer a strong
What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with
Cover the affected area
Immerse the area in a
Wash the area with soap
stimulant and treat for
tank residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline?
with petroleum jelly.
solution of boric acid.
and water immediately.
shock.
If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric
administer ammonia
check for serious burns on determine if he/she is
massage vigorously to
shock, you should first remove the victim from the
smelling salts
the body
breathing
restore circulation
electrical source and then __________.
cover the burned area
brush away the charred
apply rubbing alcohol to
Basic emergency care for a victim of a serious
flood the burn area with
with a clean cloth and
skin and wrap the burned
the burned area and wrap
electrical burn is to __________.
water for two minutes
transport the patient to a
area
with a clean cloth
medical facility
Which of the following symptoms may be observed
weak pulse at wrist or
respiration is weak or has
in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric
flushed face
All of the above symptoms
neck
stopped
shock?
remove the patient from
When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim
apply ointment to the
flush water over any
shutdown electrical power the vicinity of the live
in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his
burned areas on the
burned area of the patient
in the area
electrical equipment or
first step is to __________.
patient
wiring
To effectively treat a person suffering from heat
administer artificial
put him in a tub of ice
give him sips of cool
take his blood pressure
exhaustion, you should __________.
respiration
water
saline solution
To effectively treat a person suffering from heat
give him sips of cool
take his blood pressure
exhaustion, you should __________.
respiration
water
saline solution
Illus
69
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
be the best thing to try if
there were no rescue in
sight
there was no rescue in
sight
296601
Physical exertion on the part of a person who has

fallen into cold water can __________.
296601

fallen into cold water can __________.
The most effective warming treatment for a crew

member suffering from hypothermia is
__________.
Which of the listed procedures should be followed

when individuals are rescued in cold climates and Give them brandy
suffer from hypothermia?
296603
296603
296603
296700
running or jumping to
create heat
Which of the listed procedures should be followed

when individuals are rescued in cold climates and Give them brandy
suffer from hypothermia?
If a person with diabetes has been injured, the
reduced appetite and
symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma would
thirst
include __________.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
increase survival time in

the water
increase the rate of heat

loss from the body
not affect the heat loss

from the body

the water

loss from the body

from the body
lying in the sun
a warm water bath
mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation
Get them to a hot room
Apply warm compresses Cover with an electric

to the neck, chest wall and blanket set for maximum
groin.
temperature
Get them to a hot room
Immerse them in a warm

bath 104F (40)
Cover with an electric

blanket set for maximum
temperature
sneezing and coughing
excessive thirst and fever
slurred speech and loss of

coordination
Muscle tenseness in
almost the entire
abdomen
evacuate patient to a
hospital
Which of the following symptoms would be

indicated if a person's appendix ruptured?
Dilated pupils and shallow Diarrhea and frequent

breathing
urination
When a patient is suspected of having

appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.
When giving first aid, you should understand how
to conduct primary and secondary surveys in
addition to __________.
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking
motions which affect fluids in the __________.
give patient a laxative to

relieve pain
give patient morphine

sulfate to relieve pain
which medications to
prescribe
how to diagnose an illness the limits of your

from symptoms
capabilities
how to set broken bones
stomach
lower intestines
bladder
When administering first aid you should avoid

__________.
any conversation with the

instructing bystanders
patient
296712
Normal average body temperature is __________. 72.0F
96.8F
98.6F
296712
97.5F
98.6F
296715
296802
Normal mouth temperature is __________.

After an injury, which of the following can be
determined by examining the condition of a victim's
pupils?
To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is
__________.
296803
Which of the following best defines First Aid?

concerning the actions of a properly organized
rescue party for removing an unconscious victim
from a tank containing toxic vapors?
296705
296706
296707
296708
296711
296901
96.4F
inner ear
Extreme sweating and

reddening skin
give patient aspirin with a
glass of water
unnecessary haste and

touching the patient
appearance of uncertainty
30.0C
99.7F
Whether or not the
The degree of pain being The degree of vision
Whether or not the brain is
victim's blood pressure is
suffered.
impairment.
functioning properly.
normal.
aromatic spirits of
bicarbonate of soda
paregoric
aspirin
ammonia
Dosage of medications
Medical treatment of
Setting of broken bones
Emergency treatment of
and application of
internal injuries
and transport of victim
the injury at the scene
bandages
The rescue party should The tank vapors should be
The victim should not be The victim should be fitted
provide the victim with
tested with an
moved until the extent of with a canister type OBA
oxygen or fresh air
explosimeter before
his injuries is determined. as soon as possible.
immediately.
personnel enter.
70
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C

ABS
296902
296903
296906
296908
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
not interfere, but should

wait for the victim to
encourage the victim to
bend the victim over and
become unconscious then
cough till the restriction is give them four back blows
give them four back blows
cleared
being used on the types of
floating for at least two
helicopters serving the
all of the above
hours
unit
For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a

result of a partial obstruction of the airway by a
foreign body, a rescuer should __________.
immediately give the

victim four abdominal
thrusts and four back
blows
The litter on a MODU must be capable of

__________.
carrying at least two

injured persons
297104
297104
297105
297105
Choice D
Illus
Ans
C
C
Send the QMED to the

Immediately enter the
After finishing your round, Promptly notify the deck area and have him
area and see if the person
notify the bridge.
watch officer.
determine if the person
is conscious.
has fainted.
are highly volatile with a have a flash point of 80F give off flammable vapors
spontaneously ignite
flash point of 0F
or higher
at or below 80F
diesel oil
Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and

__________.
will normally dissipate

rapidly
Leave the accident scene

Immediately begin cardiac Immediately begin artificial Shut off power or remove
and summon medical
massage.
respiration.
the wire from the victim.
assistance.
lighter than air
A liquid having a flash point above 80F, but below

A flammable liquid
150F, would be termed a grade __________.
Which of the petroleum products listed has the
Hydraulic oil
lowest flash point?
297114
297115
An insulating flange should be used in a cargo

hose connection instead of a bonding wire
__________.
297115
When fueling, it is important to ground the ship

fuel hose before the
with regard to static electricity. Therefore, you must
bonding cable
connect the __________.
297116
Where in the Code of Federal Regulations will you

Title 46 Subchapter D
find information about the compatibility of cargoes?
297300
297308
Choice C
You have found a person laying prone and not

breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim.
Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you
should do?
You are making a round of the engine room and
while entering the cargo pump room, you discover
a person laying at the bottom of the ladder. What
action should be taken first?
By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which
__________.
Which of the following substances would be
classified as a flammable liquid?
A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that
they are __________.
297113
297310
when pumping LNG only
Which of the precautions listed should be observed Secure all lighting to the
when taking on diesel fuel?
main deck.
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed
cargo lines at the terminal
at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of
before loading
__________.
To determine if all requirements of the Declaration
of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations
the vessel is responsible
prior to bunkering from a shore side facility,
to provide an inspected oil
inspections are required to be made of both the
hose
bunkering facility and the vessel. Which statement
is true?
lube oil
alcohol
kerosene
not explosive at low

heavier than air
inert in stable air
temperatures
will always form explosive
are of no concern if the
vapors below 32F
may collect in ship's bilges
wind is blowing
ambient
C
C
C flammable liquid
D combustible liquid
E combustible liquid
Lubricating oil
Diesel oil
Refrigeration oil
when the terminal is

when static electricity may
equipped with a cathodic
be generated
protection system
during cold weather
bonding cable only if

sparks are seen
bonding cable before the

fuel hose has been
connected
bonding cable through a

ground fault circuit
breaker
Title 46 Subchapter N
Title 46 Subchapter O
Title 33 Subchapter O
Provide a portable fan to

blow away fumes.
Prohibit smoking in the

area.
Display a black triangle

during daylight hours.
product before the start of product during the final

loading
phase of loading
product after the final

discharge
the bunker facility must be

inspected by the
designated person-incharge of the vessel and
vice versa for the vessel
vessel and bunker facility

must be inspected by a
representative of the
Coast Guard Captain of
the Port
71
vessel and bunker facility

must be independently
inspected by the
designated persons- incharge
C
C
C
C

ABS
297311
297313
VER Question
1
297323
297327
297328
297331
297334
297337
297340
297401
297401
297401

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
All of the above
During fueling operations oil is detected in the

water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is
determined to be from some source other than
your vessel, you should __________.
secure operations until the

make an entry in the oil
exact type of oil is
record book to that effect
determined
notify the Coast Guard
The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil

carriers, is to provide a method for __________.
calculating the ullage in

the cargo tanks
loading ballast by gravity
the loading of new cargo

calculating the ratio of
into a decanted slop tank
cargo expansion in a
as a procedure to
cargo tank
minimize pollution
Corps of Engineers

Association
Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter

Federal Aviation
refueling must meet the standards of the
Administration
__________.
A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank
when discharging cargo, this would indicate that
tank liquid is too viscous
the __________.
After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses

should be drained __________.
In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil
wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must
be __________.
In a crude oil washing system, according to Coast
Guard regulations (33 CFR), each cargo tank shall
be fitted with a sufficient number of machines,
such that those areas unwashed by direct
impingement shall not exceed 10% for horizontal
areas, and __________.
When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the
tape should be lowered and brought back quickly
to __________.
The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel
tank when fuel oil is being received, is determined
by the __________.
National Transportation
Safety Board
tank foot valve is partially
clogged
a Butterworth system
a mechanism which filters using crude oil instead of
and purifies crude oil
water as the cleaning
medium
a cleanup for pump room

bilges
over the side
into a bucket
all of the above
opened to the atmosphere

gas free
for ventilation
inerted
full of cargo
5% for vertical areas
reduce the time the

sounding tube is open
avoid creating a spark
lessen the effect of roll or lessen the effect of heave

pitch on the reading
on the reading
quantity of fuel to be
received
flash point of the fuel as it fuel temperature as it is

is received
received
to the bilges
viscosity of the fuel being

received
Fueling valve may
become stuck closed and
cause the fuel oil to spill
before the valve can be
opened.
Increased viscosity of the

product needs higher
Air pockets may cause the The change in its specific
loading pressure, which
fuel to bubble out of the
volume when heated may
increases the chance of a ullage hole.
cause an overflow.
spill.
The fueling valve may

become stuck closed and
cause the fuel oil to spill
before the valve can be
opened.
C
C
C
C
C
C
Increased viscosity of the

Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks product needs higher
Air pockets may cause the A temperature rise of the
not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold
loading pressure, which
fuel to bubble out of the
fuel will cause an overflow
temperatures?
increases the chances of ullage hole.
from the tank vent.
a spill.
Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be

topped off when loading cold oil?
Ans
pump discharge pressure

pump is sucking air
is excessive
A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as a water operated

__________.
Butterworth system
Illus
72
C
C

ABS
297404
297407
VER Question
1
After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers

completed, which of the listed procedures should
be followed next?
When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during

bunkering operations, the tank valve should be
closed __________.
297410
297501
297508
297511
297523
297525
297525
297528
297530
297650
2
2
When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a

tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you
should position yourself __________.
The component in an inert gas system used for
cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion
products, while simultaneously cooling the inert
gas, is called the __________.
What is the required gas supply capacity of an
inert gas system?

Choice A
Choice B
The pressure- vacuum

relief valve should be
reset.
The tanks should be made

The tanks should be
seaworthy to prevent
sounded to verify levels.
contamination.
slowly to prevent surge

stresses
to prevent gas from

escaping through the
pressure-vacuum relief
valves
on the windward side of

the opening
so that the obstruction of

on the leeward side of the at a right angle to the wind
your body will protect you
opening
direction
from the fumes
filter
cooler
scrubber
125% of forced draft rate
125% of shore side

loading rate
125% of cargo pump

capacity
dilute tank atmospheres to
keep gas concentrations
below the lower explosive
limit
If the inert gas system was not in operation while

loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action
would you take?
Choice C
Choice D
The tanks should be
marked with a bull stamp
on the manifold filling
valve.
after the shore pumps are

rapidly to prevent overflow
stopped
the majority of crude oil

tank cleaning
Immediately stop loading.
125% of fan capacity

prevent fires in the
pumproom by continually
displacing flammable
vapors
areas where direct

washing the entire bottom impingement from deck
all vertical surfaces
of the tank
mounted machines cannot
be satisfactorily reached
Continue loading under

Continue loading, as this
"Emergency Procedures". is a normal procedure.
Immediately start up the

inert gas system and
admit gas to the deck
main when oxygen
content is below 8%.
continue only under

be shut down immediately monitored more frequently
"Emergency Procedures"
Crude oil washing has which of the following

disadvantages?
Allows buildup of cargo

residue on tank walls.
Its cleaning ability is very

poor.
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes"

are faced with additional problems for their safe
additional time for tank
operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric cleaning.
oxidation" and results in ________.
The number of fire

extinguishers required
onboard.
Ans
C
C
purifier
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to continue at a slower rate
maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content until these requirements
less than 8%, cargo operations should _________. are met
What information can be obtained from a marine

chemist's certificate issued to a fishing vessel?
Illus
prevent the generation of blow out cargo lines to

An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to
flammable or combustible prevent gas
__________.
gas in tanks
concentrations
Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are

primarily used for _________.
It requires following
additional work
procedures and close
attention by the crew
during cargo operations.
When completed, more

cargo is retained aboard
the ship than with water
washing.
a second scrubber, known

as an alkaline scrubber, to
be added in series to the
"normal" scrubber.
particles of rust in the

tanks reaching a high
temperature during "gas
free" operations.
a lighter grade of crude

being needed for tank
washing.
The quality of fuel in the

vessel's tanks
The tanks which are safe

The vessel's stability
to enter when the
information
certificate was issued
73
C
C

ABS
VER Question
297650

chemist's certificate issued to a fishing vessel?
297650

chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
297652
297654
297660
297661
297700
297702
297703
297705
298013
298014

Choice A
The number of fire
onboard.
The number of fire
onboard.
Choice B

Choice C
The tanks which were

safe to enter when the
The tanks which are safe
The quality of the barge's
to enter when the
cargo.
certificate was issued.

vessel's tanks
A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is

an absence of dangerous concentrations of
all flammable liquids
any combustible liquid
__________.
What would be considered the normal percentage
of oxygen contained in the earths atmosphere at
8%
16%
21%
sea level?
A tank or compartment is considered gas free
when it is free of dangerous concentrations of
all flammable liquids
any combustible liquid
__________.
While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs
It is solely the chief
are to be carried out on a section of heating coil
Prior to any hot work, an
engineer's responsibility to
located in a tank having last contained a grade "D"
The repair work cannot be inspection must be made
ensure all safety
product. According to 46 CFR Part 91, within the
done at this time due to
by the senior officer
precautions are observed,
subpart pertaining to "special operating
the lack of the chemist's present, and an entry
and all entries are to be
requirements", which of the following procedures
certificate.
made in the official
made in the engine room
should be followed when a certified marine chemist
logbook.
log.
is not available?
A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of
exposed people or animals to develop an allergic
reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure skin contact hazard
physical hazard
sensitizer
is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
as a __________.
A category of health hazard, as listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which includes
pyrophoric hazard
teratogens and mutagens, is called a __________.
A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety
Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required
to start or support fire is called a/an __________.
A specific document which identifies a chemical,
and lists its physical properties, health hazards,
required controls, firefighting procedures, clean up
methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling
and storage requirements, is commonly called a
__________.
A self-propelled ship of 400 gross tons,
constructed in January 1974, may carry fuel oil in
tanks forward of the collision bulkhead, if such
tanks were __________.
reproductive hazard
Illus

information
Ans
The barge's stability

information.
residues from cargo oil

79%
all cargo oil
C
C
C
Repairs should proceed

as scheduled since a
chemist's certificate is not
required for that type of
work.
C
skin absorption hazard
C
contamination hazard
irritant
polymerization hazard
Hazardous Chemical
Information Sheet
Physical/Chemical
Material Safety Data
Characteristics Document Sheet
oxidizer
toxin
Hazardous Chemical
Loading Document
C
designated for fuel oil
carriage after Jan 31,
1975
The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution

due to collisions
occurring during tanker operations is __________.
reactive hazard
Choice D
installed for fuel oil

carriage on August 1,
1974
designated, installed, or
constructed for fuel oil
carriage before July 1,
1974
routine discharge of oil

during ballasting and tank loading and discharging
crude oil washing
74
designed for cargo oil

using specifications from
1976 Pollution Prevention
Regulations
due solely to groundings
C
C

ABS
298014
298015
298016
298018
298022
298022
298023
298024
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
routine discharge of oil

during ballasting and tank loading and discharging
crude oil washing
Choice D
The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution

due to collisions
occurring during tanker operations is __________.
Small oil spills on deck can be kept from

contaminating the surrounding waters by
__________.
driving wooden plugs into closing the lids on the

the vents
vents
plugging the scuppers
keeping plugs in the

sounding pipes
A ocean going ship having an inoperative oily

water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by
__________.
slowly operating the bilge

circulating them through
pump at half capacity so
the lube oil purifier to
that it never completely
remove water and debris
dewaters the bilges
holding its slops onboard

until they can be
discharged to a shore side
reception facility
pumping them into a

settling tank for separation
before pumping the oily
water residue overboard
55 psi
75 psi
98 psi
298027
298028

CFR Part 154), the pump being used for cargo
transfer has a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a
static head of 10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose
used for the transfer must have a maximum
allowable working pressure of at least
__________.
An ocean going ship of 400 gross tons or above
must be fitted with a standard oil discharge shore
connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted
with a suitable __________.
An ocean going ship of 6000 gross tons or above
must be fitted with a standard discharge shore
connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted
with a __________.
According to Coast Guard Pollution Prevention

Regulations (33 CFR), each hose assembly used
for transferring oil must have a __________.

(33 CFR), which of the following conditions would
disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for
use in transferring oil?
prohibits draining __________.
state that a ship's oily bilge slops may be pumped
in port only if the __________.
65 psi
due solely to groundings
Illus
Ans
C
C
C
portable flange adapter
using a four bolt pattern
and a bolt circle diameter
of 83 mm

using a five bolt pattern
of 183 mm
portable connection using suitable discharge shore

a four bolt pattern
connection
minimum design burst

pressure of at least 250
psi
minimum burst pressure

of at least two times the
sum of the relief valve
pressure plus the static
head pressure of the oil
transfer system where the
hose is installed
A cut in the cover which

makes the reinforcement
visible.
A blown gasket when

hydrostatic test pressure
is applied.
fuel oil burners into

buckets
oil transfer hoses into

buckets
local port authority has
completed the required
pollution inspection
local port authority gives

permission
75

using a six bolt pattern
of 183 mm

using a eight bolt pattern
of 83 mm
portable adapter that

clip-on flange suitable for
meets the same
service pressure of 4
specification outlined in 33
kg/cm2
CFR, Subchapter "O"
maximum allowable
working pressure (MAWP)
for each hose assembly
must be more than the
distinct marking on the
sum of the relief valve
female end to identify the
setting plus the static
manufacturer of the hose
head pressure of the
transfer system, where the
hose is installed.
Evidence of internal or
external deterioration.
fuel oil strainers into the
ship's bilges
discharge is led to a
reception facility
All of the above.
C
lube oil strainers into fixed
drip pans
engineer on watch has
signed the declaration of
inspection
C
C

ABS
298029
298032
298033
298034
298038
298038
298041
298045
VER Question
2
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
overboard only through an

overboard on the outgoing
approved oily water
anytime as long as the oil
overboard only after dark
tide
separator and oil content content is very little
monitor
the vessel owners cease
An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
the ship changes its port the certificate exceeds 2 an intermediate survey as
to belong to IMO
Certificate ceases to be valid on a U.S. Ship when of documentation to San years from the date of
required by 33 CFR
(International Maritime
__________.
Francisco
issue
151.17 is not carried out
Organization)
A "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard must be
fixed in a conspicuous place in each machinery
33 CFR 151
33 CFR 153
33 CFR 155
46 CFR 42
space, or at the bilge and ballast pump control
station as required by __________.
Exemption or partial exemption from compliance
with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous
OCMI in the vessel's
Commandant of the Coast
Material Pollution Prevention Regulations
Captain of the Port
vessel's Chief Engineer
home port
Guard
prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the
__________.
Tanks storing oil in the
forepeak compartment.
Oil tanks in the afterpeak

compartment.
Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the

Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?
Part 155
Part 156
The discharge of
The discharge of plastic or dunnage, lining, and
According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part
garbage mixed with plastic packing materials that do
151), which of the following statements is accurate
into any waters is
not float is prohibited
concerning the discharge of garbage?
permitted.
within 25 nautical miles of
the nearest land.
298102
Illus
Ans
Bilges may be pumped __________.
298200
Choice A
"Prohibited oil spaces" as specified in the Pollution

A vessels double- bottom A vessels midship fuel
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) provide
fuel oil tanks.
tanks.
regulations for which of the following?
298047
298111
Part 151
provided with flush back

According to Code of Federal Regulations 33,
capabilities insuring the
grinders or comminuters used for the discharge of
passage of all ground
garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the
particles through a final
nearest land must be __________.
control element
Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have
an official logbook shall __________.
Fuel oil and bulk lubricating oil discharge
containment on a 200 gross ton ship (constructed
before July 1, 1974) may consist of a/an
__________.
maintain a logbook on
Form CG-706
Part 154
provided on all vessels

that may operate on the
Great Lakes and shall
discharge under the
highest load line of the
vessel
not be required to
maintain a logbook
The discharge of all

garbage is prohibited in
the navigable waters of
All of the above are
the United States and in
correct.
all other waters within
three nautical miles of the
nearest land.
capable of reducing the
size of garbage so that it
will pass through a screen
with openings no greater
than 25 millimeters
capable of processing all

garbage generated
onboard the vessel
including all deck and
engine department refuse
maintain an unofficial
logbook
report only major events

to the OCMI
fixed container with a

enclosed deck area with a fixed container with a
overflow manifold that
capacity of 5 U.S. gallons capacity of 5 U.S. gallons capacity of one-half barrel
empties into the day tank
(19 l)
(19 l)
(.08 m3)
Where will you find the procedures for the

reporting of oil discharge into the water?
The vessel's Certificate of The vessel's Oil Record

Inspection
Book
The vessel's Oil Transfer

Procedures
The vessel's International

Oil Pollution Prevention
Certificate
In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck

occurring while fueling, you should __________.
wash down the area

immediately with a fire
hose
cover the area with

absorbent material
cover the area with foam
wash down the area with

kerosene
76
C
C
C
C
C
C

ABS
298203
VER Question
1
298205
298207
298208
298300
298300
298300
298302
298302
298306
298306
298309
298310
298311
A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil

spills would be the use of __________.
In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical
agents would __________.
In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or
reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of
which type of oil removal?
require that all oil spills in United States waters be
reported immediately to the __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
skimmers
straw
dispersants
sawdust
absorb the oil for easy

removal
remove the oil from the

water
disperse or dissolve the oil

not affect the oil
in the water
Chemical agent removal
Mechanical removal
Absorbent removal
None of the above
local port authority
Corps of Engineers
U.S. Coast Guard
state pollution board
shuts off the firefighting

foam systems
stops the flow of oil to

shore facility or other
vessel
secures electrical power

to all motors

shuts off the main
CFR), tank vessels are required to have a means
propulsion plant
of emergency shutdown. This device __________.
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels
is transferring oil to a facility, the Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), require an
emergency means to stopping the flow of oil which
must be operable from __________.
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels
is transferring oil to a facility, the Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), require an
emergency means to stopping the flow of oil which
must be operable from __________.
If an emergency pump control is used as the
emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must
stop the flow of oil through __________.
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow
of oil during oil transfer operations. That
emergency means may be a/an __________.
If you observe any situation which presents a
safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer
operations, which of the following actions should
be taken FIRST?
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water
near the barge. Which of the following actions
should you carry out FIRST?
While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams
open. You should FIRST __________.
Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side
facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent,
which of the following actions should be taken
FIRST?
If you observe any situation which presents a
safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer
operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions
should be taken first?
two or more locations on

the tank vessel
two or more locations on

the tank vessel
the main deck manifold
a remote location of equal the usual operating station the engine room, cargo
distance from the tank
of the person in charge of control room and bridge
vessel and facility
the oil transfer
sequentially
a remote location of equal the usual operating station the engine room, cargo
distance from the tank
of the person in charge of control room and bridge
vessel and facility
the oil transfer
sequentially
the facility
manually-operated quick- self-closing automatic

closing valve
disconnect fitting
the pump
a means that is not

dependant on electrical
power
emergency pump control

on the cargo deck
automatic pressuresensitive oil flow regulator
Close the valves at the

transfer manifold.
Notify the person in

charge of the shore
facility.
Shut down the transfer

operation.
Sound the fire alarm.
Search the vessel for

leaks
Notify terminal
superintendent
Stop loading
Notify the Coast Guard
order the shore facility to

shut down
call the chief engineer
run out the vessel's fire

unplug the deck scuppers
hose
Set out drip pans and

Signal the shore control
sawdust and begin to mop
point to shutdown.
up the spill.
Close the valve on the

tank vent line.
Wait for the person- incharge to act.
Notify the ballast control

operator.
Sound the fire alarm.
77
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
C
Open the intake valve to

an adjacent tank.
Shutdown the transfer

operations.
Illus
C
C

ABS
298503
298551
298554
298555
VER Question
1
Choice C
Choice D
53 miles
100 miles
200 miles
300 miles
is drilling on the Outer

Continental Shelf
moves to a new drilling

location in U.S. waters
engages in a voyage to a
port of another country
All of the above
which is a party of
MARPOL
3 nautical miles
5 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
sharps
expired pharmaceuticals
dialysis wastes
3 nautical miles
6 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
25 nautical miles
hoses shall be blown

down with air
soundings shall be
entered in the oil record
book
valves used during

transfer shall be closed
persons on duty during oil

transfer shall be
accounted for

156), state that no person may transfer oil to or
from a vessel unless __________.
oil residue has been

drained from all hoses
an oil containment boom all parts of the transfer

is available for immediate system have been
use
properly lined up

156), state that no person may transfer oil to or
from a vessel unless __________.
oil residue has been

drained from all hoses
the maximum amount of

oil to be transferred has
been recorded on the
declaration of inspection
the maximum transfer rate a representative sample

and pressure has been
established
oil being received
paper issued by the Coast

According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations Guard marine inspector
(33 CFR), the declaration of inspection is the
which allows you to
__________.
conduct a transfer
operation
application you must

complete and submit to
the Coast Guard to have
an inspector visit your
vessel
document signed by
vessel and shore facility
persons-incharge
declaring that all transfer
requirements have been
met
annual report submitted

by vessel personnel to the
Coast Guard declaring
that all transfer equipment
has been inspected
Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of

is the same as the
Inspection required by Coast Guard Regulation (33
CFR) __________.
describes the procedure

for draining the sumps of
oil lubricated machinery
into the bilges of U.S.
vessels
must be signed by both

the person-incharge of
the pumping and the
person-in-charge of
receiving
requires the "Discharge of

Oil Prohibited" placard to
be posted at the gangway
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention

give a schedule for
Regulations (33 CFR), the oil transfer procedures
inspection of valves as
required for an uninspected towing or fishing
required in 155.410
industry vessel should __________.
give a description of the

oily water separator
required in 155.380
include a copy of the

be permanently posted or
Certificate of Inspection of
available at the fueling
the towing or fishing
station
vessel
298600
298605
Ans
Which of the circumstances listed is an exception

The garbage to be
to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V
discharged will sink.
to MARPOL 73/78?
According to MARPOL, the definition of medical
waste does NOT include __________.
How many miles out to sea must a vessel be
located before it can pump overboard an untreated
sewage holding tank?
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require
that on the completion of oil transfer operations all
__________.
Illus
25 nautical miles
pathological wastes
298614
Choice B
The destination port or

terminal cannot receive
garbage.
298570
298607
Choice A
A person falls overboard,

and a plastic ice chest is
thrown for flotation.
298607
Garbage accumulation
onboard has exceeded
storage space.
298558
298605
The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the

baseline of territorial sea of the United States
seaward ___________ .
Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a
mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
certificate when the unit __________.
A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in
oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the
sea when the distance from the nearest land is at
least __________.
78
a representative sample
oil being received
C
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question
298620
298700
298702
298710
298713
298717
298718
298722
298900
298904
298905
299003
299003
An application for an exemption of any

requirements of the regulations for oil transfer
operations must be submitted to the __________.
On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of
10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100
ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the
bilge monitor continuous record must be
__________.
In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of
operational items are grouped into operational
sections. Each section is codified by a/an
__________.
Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR), require any
transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be
recorded in the __________.
A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book,
and must maintain the book on board for
__________.
The overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil
Record Book is given to ________.
With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil
tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain
entries in ________.
Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily
mixture that requires an entry in the OIL Record
Book shall be fully recorded ________.
According to 33 CFR Part 151, all tankships of 150
GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and
above, are required to prepare and maintain a
USCG approved __________.
When amendments are made to the shipboard oil
pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be
submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is

required of __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
District Commander
Commandant
Captain of the Port
Nearest Coast Guard

office
detached monthly for

kept readily available for 1
enclosure in the Oil
year only
Record Book
maintained onboard for

not less than 3 years
initialed after each

engineering watch by the
watch engineer
number
letter
abbreviation
Illus
Ans
all of the above
C
Pollution Control Record
Bridge log
Oil Record book
Masters log
one year
two years
three years
four years
Chief Mate
Chief Engineer
Master
Cargo Engineer
Part I only
Part II only
Both Part I and Part II
Part III
within 24 hours of
completion of the project
within 48 hours of
completion of the
operation
without delay
within 12 hours of
completion of the
operation
shipboard oil pollution

emergency plan
vapor recovery
procedures plan
synthetic plastic discharge

oil discharge plan
plan
one month prior to the

anniversary date of the
plan
and cannot be
six months prior to the end
implemented without
of the approval period
approval
all vessels, regardless of

size and commercial
application
any barge or other ship

which is constructed or
operated in such a
manner that no oil in any
form can be carried
aboard
According to 33 CFR Part 151, when off loading

garbage to another ship, your records must identify overall length
the ships name and __________.
When off-loading garbage to another ship, your
records must identify that ship by name and
home port
__________.
an oil tanker of 150 gross

tons or above, or other
ship of 400 gross tons or
above
C
C
C
and can be implemented

without immediate
approval as long as final
approval is received within
six months of submittal
an oil tanker of 400 gross
tons and above, or other
ships of 150 gross tons
and above
operator's name of record ships official number
records kept onboard for

three years
operator's name of record official number
master's name
79
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
Illus
According to 33 CFR Part 151, a vessel sailing

through specific "special areas" may discharge or
dispose of __________.
fairly dense material that victual waste when at

incinerated ash at anytime will sink, i.e. metal cans or least 12 nautical miles
glass bottles at anytime
from shore
absolutely no garbage at
anytime
Regulations concerning the recordkeeping

requirements of shipboard garbage disposal can
be found in _______.
46 CFR Part 32
33 CFR Part 151
33 CFR Part 155
To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast

Water Management regulations, which of the
following procedures may be followed by an ocean
vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an
international voyage?
Prior to discharging ballast

water in U.S. waters, the
vessel must perform a
Ballast water may only be
complete ballast water
discharged overboard if
exchange in an area no
the vessel is underway.
less than 100 nautical
miles from any shoreline.
Prior to entering U.S.

waters, a vessel may use
any Coast Guard
approved alternative
environmentally sound
method of BWM.
Ballast water may only be

discharged overboard
through an approved oily
water separator.
299109
An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n)

____________.
whistle and light
whistle, light, and

reflective tape
whistle, light, and sea dye

marker
299110


in body heat and provides
protection against
hypothermia for weeks.
All models will

the suit should be donned
just after the survival craft
unconscious person faceare launched.
up in the water.
299005
299009
299022
299140
299147
299151
299154
299206
299300
299302
2
1
299350
299351
If a hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable

liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes
inoperable, it will fail to __________.
If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an
inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and
becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.
In each inflatable rescue boat, what piece of
equipment is provided to make quick, emergency,
temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft?
46 CFR Part 56
set the water lights on the release the dye maker

immersion
from the liferaft
set the water lights on
immersion
release the dye- maker for free the liferaft from a

the liferaft
sinking vessel
No equipment is provided. Glue and rubber patches.
lashings on the floor of the

A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep
raft for the passenger's
straps from the overhead
people stationary in rough weather is __________.
feet
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked
up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in
an approach from
an approach from leeward
danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be
windward
maneuvered to make __________.
Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts
a rocket shoulder rifle
an oil lantern
include __________.
A distress signal __________.
free the liferaft from the

vessel
80

Self-adhesive rubberized
canvas patches.
lifelines on the inside of

the raft
ridges in the floor of the

raft
the most direct approach
an approach across the

wind
A magnetic compass card is marked in how many

90
180
degrees?
remains aligned with
then counterclockwise
compass north
compass___________.
Several various- sized

sealing clips.
an air horn
consists of 5 or more short consists of the raising and may be used individually
blasts of the fog signal
lowering of a large white or in conjunction with
apparatus
flag
other distress signals
360
C
C

red flares
Ans
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
is used to indicate doubt

about another vessel's
intentions
400
turns counterclockwise to
port
C
C
C

ABS
VER Question
299352
299355
299355
299355
299355
299356
299375
299377
299390
299400
1
1
299405
299409
299410
299412
299413
299454
299459
299463
The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part

of the compass?
A vessel heading ENE is on a course of
__________.
A vessel heading NW is on a course of
__________.
A vessel heading SSE is on a course of
__________.
A vessel heading WSW is on a course of
__________.
Which visual distress signal is acceptable for
daylight use only?
What is the maximum length of time that distress
flares are approved for?
By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will
expire not more than how many months from the
date of manufacture?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Card
Needle
Lubber's line
Gimbals
022.5
045.0
067.5
090.0
274.5
292.0
315.5
337.5
112.5
135.0
157.5
180.0
202.5
225.0
247.5
271.0
Handheld red flare
Self-contained rocket
propelled red parachute
flare
Orange smoke signal
Red aerial pyrotechic flare
1 and 1/2 years
2 years
3 and 1/2 years
5 years
24 months
36 months
42 months
54 months
four rockets, two of which five rockets, two of which

shall be the buoyant type shall be the buoyant type
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts,

how should they be maintained?
Have your crew check

them annually.
They do not need any

maintenance.
Have them sent ashore to

Have them serviced by
an approved maintenance
the shipyard.
facility.
Your vessel is required to have an impulseprojected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line
must __________.
On vessels on an international voyage, each
inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of
not less than __________.
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean
service is required by regulation to carry
__________.
be of light color
be 250 meters in length
have a breaking strength

of 9000 lbs force
be made of synthetic
material
50 percent of all persons

on board
75 percent of all persons

on board
6 persons
10 persons
8 liters of fresh water
12 units of provisions
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts,

how should they be maintained?
Have your crew check

them annually
They do not need any

maintenance
Have them sent ashore to

Have them serviced by
an approved maintenance
the shipyard annually
facility annually
15 months
17 months
Ans
C
C
three rockets, one of

Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain two rockets, one of which
which shall be buoyant
__________.
shall be the buoyant type
type
Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved

servicing facility every 12 months or not later than
the next vessel inspection for certification.
12 months
However, the total elapsed time between servicing
cannot exceed __________.
placed in a position with
An unconscious person should NOT be
the head lower than the
__________.
body
If a person gets something in his or her eye and
get them to rub their eye
you see that it is not embedded, you can
until the object is gone
__________.
medical treatment of
First aid means __________.
accident
Illus
C
C
C
C
C
C
18 months
C
given an inhalation
stimulant
given something to drink
remove it with a match or remove it with a moist,

toothpick
cotton-tipped applicator
setting of broken bones
81
emergency treatment at
the scene of the injury
treated for injuries until

conscious
remove it with a piece of
dry sterile cotton
dosage of medications
C
C
C

ABS
299463
299464
VER Question
2
1
When administering first aid you should avoid

__________.
To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is
__________.
To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion,
you should __________.
299467
299468

fallen into cold water would __________.
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking

motions which affect fluids in the __________.
299469

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
any conversation with the

instructing bystanders
patient
Choice D
bicarbonate of soda
paregoric
respiration
there was no rescue in
sight

water
give him sips of cool water cover him with a light cloth

the water

loss from the body

from the body
lower intestines
inner ear
bladder
Muscle tenseness in
almost the entire
abdomen
Extreme sweating and

reddening of skin
stomach
What are the symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?
Dilated pupils and shallow Diarrhea and frequent

breathing
urination
299475
The most effective treatment for warming a crew

__________.
increase circulation
raising body temperature

rapidly by placing hands
and feet in hot water
bundling the body in

blankets to rewarm
gradually
laying prone under heat

lamps to rewarm rapidly
create heat
lying in the sun
a warm water bath
laying prone under heat

lamps to rewarm rapidly
299475
299501
299505
299506
215710
290050
290051
290051
290051
290054
290054
3
4
2
Spontaneous combustion can result from

__________.
The four basic components of a fire are chain
reaction, heat, fuel, and __________.
The three basic elements necessary for any fire
are __________.
1
Item #2
12
Item #12
flash point
16
Item #13
fire point
Ans
touching the patient

unnecessary haste and
before washing your
appearance of uncertainty
hands
aromatic spirits of
aspirin
ammonia
299473
The most effective warming treatment for a crew

__________.
In the illustration, the sea painter is item number
__________.
In the illustration, which item correctly identifies the
ballast bags?
The external recognition light can be seen for up to
two miles and is shown as item
number__________.
The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed
from a liquid ignites in the presence of an ignition
source and continues to burn steadily is called the
________.
The process that occurs when heat is generated
by a chemical reaction within a substance and
continues to a point of ignition is known as
__________.
Fires resulting from "spontaneous combustion" are
usually caused by the improper disposal of
__________.
In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from
spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?
Illus
C
C
C
C
C
18 SF-0042
SF-0042
Item #22
8
23 SF-0042
B
chemical ignition
spontaneous combustion chemical combustion
radiation ignition
B
cigarette butts
oily rags
burner torches
lighted matches
Engine room bilges
Paint locker
Battery storage locker
Fuel oil tank
water dripping on a
running electric motor
smoking in a battery room

oil soaked rags stored in a
an open flame near a fuel
or near a battery storage
closed compartment
tank vent
locker
carbon monoxide
oxygen
heat, gas, and flames
fuel, heat, and oxygen
82
B
B
B
carbon dioxide
any gaseous substance
heat, nitrogen, and fuel
fuel oil, nitrogen, and

oxygen

ABS
VER Question
290101
290104
290200

Choice A
The spreading of fire as a result of heat being

carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an conduction
example of heat transfer by __________.
Fire dampers installed in the ships galley
ventilation system, which automatically close
remote operated valve
during a fire, are normally operated by the use of a
__________.
Which of the following gases represents the
greatest threat to personnel safety in an engine
Nitrogen
room where the exhaust gas is leaking from a
diesel engine?
290202
A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long

period of time. Which of the following statements is The tank is safe to enter.
true?
290205
Highly toxic concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas Fire room bilges where
are most likely to be found in which of the locations hydrazine has
listed?
accumulated.
The characteristic odor of "rotten eggs" is normally

nitrogen oxide
associated with which toxic and poisonous gas?
290206
290212
290213
290216
290216
290217
290301
290301
The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to

which workers may be regularly exposed without
adverse effects is __________.
Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified
location on a MODU must provide a complete
change of air every __________.
Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas on a
MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is
important to know that this gas is __________.
High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are
most dangerous to personnel because inhaling this
gas can __________.
High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are
most dangerous to personnel because they can
__________.
When hydrogen sulfide has been encountered on
a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices
must sound an alarm (differing from the lower
concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees
when the concentration of the gas reaches or
exceeds how many parts per million?
Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by
__________.
To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting
they should be __________.
Choice C
Choice D
Illus
convection
radiation
windage
fusible link
CO2 system pressure

switch
heat or smoke detector
Carbon trioxide
Hydrogen sulfate
Ans
Which of the statements listed is accurate

concerning fires involving carbon tetrachloride?
290206
Choice B
Carbon monoxide
290201
It will explode if exposed

to a flame.
You cannot use water to

Phosgene gas may be
It will burn rapidly once
fight the fire because it will
formed if it comes in
ignited.
react with the carbon
contact with hot metal.
tetrachloride.
Water vapor present when
The tank is especially
Carbon monoxide is
the tank was sealed has
dangerous to enter.
present.
oxidized.
Engine room bilges where Emergency battery
Sewage compartment
chemical cleaners and
storage compartment
bilges where leaked
solvents have
where discharge gases
sewage has accumulated.
accumulated.
have accumulated.
hydrogen sulfide
hydrogen chloride
sodium chloride
10 ppm
20 ppm
40 ppm
80 ppm
three minutes
five minutes
seven minutes
ten minutes
lighter than air
heavier than air
a yellow gas that is easily

mildly toxic
recognized
cause involuntary skeletal paralyze your breathing

muscle contractions
system
cause eye inflammation
cause dizziness
cause involuntary skeletal paralyze your breathing

muscle contractions
system
cause eye inflammation
cause dizziness
20
50
100
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
200
B
allowing better access in
an emergency
kept in nonmetal
containers
eliminating potential fuel

sources
discarded as soon as
possible
83
eliminating trip hazards
improving personnel
qualifications
cleaned thoroughly for

reuse
kept in the paint locker

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should

be __________.
290304
Which of the following procedures reduces the

possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from
rapidly spreading?
stowed safely at the work

site until work is
completed
Having a portable CO2
ready at each duct
opening.
290307
When the general alarm is sounded continuously,

the engine room personnel should __________.
proceed to their man

overboard stations
While on watch in the engine room, you hear a

continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which
of the following actions should you take FIRST?
How many fireman's outfits are required on a
MODU?
How many people onboard a MODU must be
trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?
Secure the burners then Start the fire pump and

proceed to your assigned establish flow to the fire
boat station.
main.
290302
290307
290402
290402
290402
290403
290405
290406
290406
290409
290410
290500
290500
one hour
secure the propulsion

diesel engines and
evacuate the engine room
four people
the boots and gloves that

are made of rubber or
electrically non-conductive
material, if used when
repairing electrical
equipment
the lifeline, if used by

personnel entering a
compartment which might
be deficient of oxygen
ten hours
four hours
B
B
during abandon drill
during fire drill
quarterly
The pilot.
The owner.
The surveyor.
The engineer.
Pilot
Engineer
84
B
B
when the rig is being

moved
Officer-in-Charge, Marine
Owner
Inspection
three people
senior mechanic, or
The person on a MODU who is responsible for
chief engineer, or
master, or person-inmechanic on duty if no
maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and
engineer-in-charge if no
charge
senior mechanic
sanitary condition is the __________.
chief engineer is required
designated
Control of a fire on a MODU should be addressed immediately after restoring
following control of
immediately
__________.
vital services
flooding
Which of the devices listed below is designed to
prevent flames from entering through fuel tank
Safety cap
Flame screen
Spark arrester
vents?
Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent
flames from entering a fuel tank through tank
Ball check
Flame screen
Spark arrester
vents?
Keeping the duct exterior

clean.
Ans
Open the master control

Open the guardian valve
valves on the fixed CO2
and standby to maneuver.
system.
2
two hours
Illus
drained into a common

container after each use
put on lifejackets and go

to their abandon ship
stations
start the fire pump
two people
Choice D
covered with a fine mesh

screen to protect from
ignition sources
Having a fire hose
charged at each duct
opening.
Keeping the duct interior

clean.
the self contained

The fireman outfits required for MODUs are not to the oxygen and explosion breathing apparatus,
be used for any other purpose except for
meter when it is used for when used as protection
__________.
detection of flare gases
from gas leaking from a
refrigeration unit
Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore
drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full
load for at least __________.
On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated
__________.
Who is responsible for reporting a casualty for a
mobile offshore drilling unit?
Who shall insure that all records required by
regulations are retained onboard a mobile offshore
drilling unit involved in a casualty?
Choice C
returned to the paint

locker after each use
1
one person
senior electrician, or
electrician on duty if no
senior electrician
designated
following establishment of
fire boundaries
Flame inhibitor
Flame inhibitor
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
290552
290552
290555
290556
290600
290600
290601
290603
290605
290609
290610
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Sprinkler heads installed

in the living spaces would
have a higher melting
point fusible link than
those installed in the
galley.

in the galley would have a
higher melting point
fusible link than those
installed in the living
spaces.

in the galley and living
spaces would have the
same fusible link melting
point.
None of the above;

sprinkler heads with
fusible links are prohibited
aboard U.S. flag vessels.

in the living spaces would
Which of the following statements is true regarding
have a higher melting
an overhead fire fighting sprinkler head which is
point fusible link than
activated by the melting of a fusible link?
those installed in the
galley.

in the galley would
generally have a higher
melting point fusible link
than those installed in the
living spaces.

in the galley and living
spaces would have the
same fusible link melting
point.
Sprinkler heads with

fusible links are prohibited
aboard U.S. flag vessels
You are in compartment "A", shown in the

illustration, and suspect a fire in compartment "B".
open the watertight door
In order to check for and confirm the fire in
compartment "B" you should __________.
feel the bulkhead
tap the bulkhead
move a lighted candle

SF-0005
along watertight door seal

following statements is true regarding sprinkler
heads which are normally activated by the melting
of a fusible link?
The primary function of an automatic sprinkler

system is to __________.
limit the spread of the fire protect people in the

instantaneously extinguish
and control the amount of areas which have had
the fire which triggered it
heat produced
sprinkler heads installed
An oxygen indicator will detect __________.
concentrations of
explosive gas
the presence of harmful

an oxygen deficiency in a
amounts of carbon
space
monoxide
To determine that a compartment contains

sufficient oxygen to sustain life, you should use
a/an __________.
explosimeter
oxygen indicator
A gas sample should only

Which of the following statements is true regarding be taken from the lowest
oxygen indicators?
portion of the tank to test
for oxygen.
fresh air indicator
The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of

flammable vapors and air is defined as
__________.
that concentration above

that concentration above
which there is just enough
which the mixture is too
flammable vapor to
rich to burn
produce an explosion
The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5%

to 15%. If the combustible gas indicator reading is
50% when sampling a compartment containing
0.5% by volume
methane, the flammable vapor concentration at the
sample point is __________.
The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0%
by volume in air. The combustible gas indicator
reading is 50% of the lower explosive level. The
too rich to burn
flammable vapor concentration at the sample point
is __________.
2.5% by volume
Ans
alert the crew to the fire
B
all of the above
all of the above
Prolonged exposure to
An oxygen reading of 14%
gases such as CO2 may
is considered safe for
All of the above.
affect the accuracy of the
entering.
indicator.
Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely

The fire area is safe for
The cause of the fire is to
out, which of the following conditions must be
men to enter without a
be known.
established?
breathing apparatus.
Illus
The fire area is sufficiently

cooled so that accidental All of the above.
skin burns will not occur.
the percentage of
flammable vapor by
volume in air sufficient to
create an explosion
the percentage of oxygen

present in the air sufficient
to support combustion
7.5% by volume
50.0% by volume
B
B
B
0.35%
2.65% in the flammable range
B
85

ABS
290613
VER Question
290615
290615
290618
290621
290650
290701
290701
290702
291000

Choice A
The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8%

by volume in air. If a combustible gas indicator is
The meter will deflect to
used to sample a tank that contains a Benzene
the 70% explosive
vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by
position.
volume in air, which of the listed indications will be
observed on the meter?
concentration of
The reading of a combustible gas indicator
flammable gas in a
indicates the percentage of the __________.
compartment
To identify combustible
What is the purpose of an explosimeter?
gases.
Combustible gas indicators are used to detect
flammable gases or vapors present in a tank. This
inflatable bag
is accomplished by an intricate instrument
incorporating a/an __________.
Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the
flame safety lamp
use of the __________.
rise?
The assembled lifeline
What Coast Guard Regulations apply to the
shall have a breaking
equipment of a fireman's outfit?
strength of at least 2,500
pounds.
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
The meter will deflect to

the 50% explosive
position.
The meter will deflect full

scale and return to zero.
The meter will be unable

to detect a concentration
of 0.7% Benzene vapor in
air.
lower explosive limit of a

flammable gas
concentration
To detect combustible
gases.
upper explosive limit of a

flammable gas
concentration
To indicate the absence of
oxygen.
heated filament
sensitive liquid chemical
All of the above.
vapor detecting carbon

compound
oxygen indicator
Ans
concentration by weight of
nonflammable gas in a
compartment
combustible gas indicator gasometer
Illus
B
B
SF-0034
B
The helmet shall provide
effective protection
against impact.
The boots and gloves

All protective clothing
shall be fire retardant and must be electrically
water resistant.
nonconducting.
Which of the following statements represents the

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) applicable to
the equipment required in a fireman's outfit?
The flashlight must be of

an approved three cell
fireproof type.

shall have a minimum
breaking strength of 1,500
pounds (683.8 kg).
The combustible gas

100 feet (30.48 m) in
length.

must be electrically nonconductive.
According to CFRs, how many emergency outfits

are required to be carried onboard all tankships
over 1,000 gross tons?
One emergency outfit
Two emergency outfits
Three emergency outfits
Four emergency outfits
will completely remove

toxic fumes from the air

combustible vapors from
the air
absorption of heat
displacement of gases of
combustion
extinguishment of incipient
smoldering
cool and smother the fire
break up burning embers
extinguish hard to reach

electrical fires
smothering and cooling
cooling and washing out
none of the above
water in a solid stream
foam
dry chemical
291000
291002
291002
291050
When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, has the greatest ability to has the greatest cooling
water fog __________.
produce foam
ability
When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent,
the fire is extinguished principally by the
__________.
A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting
to __________.
Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by
__________.
The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning
mattress fire is the use of __________.
isolation of the fuel

apply large droplets of
foam
smothering and washing
out
carbon dioxide
86
B
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
you must wear rubber

gloves
the flames should be

a straight stream of water a straight stream of water
beaten back from the door should be used to cool the should be used to cool the
with water fog
door
fire fighters
When entering a compartment which is on fire,

__________.
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would

be suitable for use on an oil fire, but dangerous on CO2
an electrical fire?
Why should passageway fires be fought from one

end only?
291055
291059
291051
291052
291053
291060
291064
291064
291066
291067
291068
291070
Water fog
Choice C
Halon
Choice D
Illus
Dry chemical
This action will cause the

passageway to become
slippery and difficult for
fire fighters to stand.
So that one hose team

It is impossible for the fire
does not push the flames
main to handle two fully
heat and smoke directly at
pressurized hoses.
the other hose team.
So that the extinguishing

water can be trapped at
the end of the
passageway.
Which of the listed types of fires should be

extinguished with a straight stream of water?
Bilge
Mattress
Switchboard
What is the purpose of opening the doors and

portholes in figure 2 of the illustration?
To keep the hose teams

cool.
To allow venting of
To provide airflow around To allow water used to
combustion products from the compartment in the
fight the fire to flow out of
the fire to the atmosphere. order to contain the fire.
the superstructure.
SF-0013
As shown in figure 2, fresh air entering through

windward doorways and portholes while pushing
heat and smoke out leeward doorways and
portholes is known as _________.
vertical ventilation
horizontal ventilation
SF-0013
Galley range
loop ventilation
cross-flow induction
B
B
B
set up a hose team to cool
only need to keep the
the closed door to set the
immediately shut down
door tightly closed until all boundary, then open the
ventilation for the involved
SF-0013
the oil has been
door and extinguish the
space
consumed by the fire
fire using a type B-II
extinguisher
only need to advance a

hose team into the room
room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you
without any additional
should __________.
preparatory action
remotely de-energize the

only need to keep the
power to the purifiers and
A large fire has developed in the HFO purifier room
door tightly closed until all ventilation fans in the
accessed by door "E". To combat this fire you
the burning oil has been room and activate the
should __________.
consumed by the fire
fixed fire extinguishing
system for that space
cool the purifier room door

using a 12 foot applicator
into the room without any prior to sending in
SF-0013
personnel equipped with
action
type B- II portable
extinguishers
When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members

securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling
water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while
safety perimeter
monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are
setting a _________.
fire boundary
buffer zone
Which fire boundary should be set FIRST, after the An adjacent store room
discovery of a fully evolved fire in a ship's laundry containing spare engine
room which is too hot for a direct entry?
parts.
A store room directly

above the laundry room
containing combustibles.


stand erect and not stay
hot deck, immediately
low or crouch on the deck
above the fire
All of the above
A fully charged standard SCBA can be expected to

supply air under non- stressful conditions for
15 minutes
approximately _______.
30 minutes
60 minutes
Ans
not rotate personnel for

consistency
cooling zone
87
An adjacent store room

containing spare bed
mattresses.
45 minutes
An adjacent store room

containing laundry
detergent.
B
B

ABS
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
30 minutes
45 minutes
60 minutes
Illus
291070
What is the minimum period of time that the air

supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is
required to last?
15 minutes
291100
The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose

firefighting nozzle should always be __________.
stowed separately in a clip attached to the allcoated with heavy grease painted red to be identified
or rack at each fire station purpose nozzle by a chain to prevent corrosion
as emergency equipment
291102
291102
291102
291102
11
291103
291106
291152
291157
291158
The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable

by itself of producing a solid stream of water
__________.
When the handle "A" is in the mid- position of the
combination nozzle shown in the illustration, which
of the following statements will be correct?
With the handle in position "A", the device shown
in the illustration will produce __________.
With the handle in the position labeled "A", shown
in the illustration, the nozzle will deliver
__________.
A person manning a fire hose under pressure with
an all-purpose nozzle attached should be aware
that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the
handle position is changed from __________.
As a general rule of thumb, with no adverse wind
conditions, approximately how far could a straight
stream of water reach from a fire hose having a
nozzle pressure of 100 psi?
and low velocity water fog
and high and low velocity

water fog
Low velocity fog will be

emitted from the part
labeled "D".
High velocity fog will be

labeled "D".
A solid stream will be

labeled "B".
No water will be emitted

from the nozzle.
SF-0015
low velocity fog
a solid stream
no water flow
high velocity fog
SF-0011
a low velocity fog
a solid water stream
no water flow
minimum water flow
SF-0011
solid stream to fog
shut to solid stream
low velocity to high

velocity fog
fog to shut
150 feet
200 feet
100 feet
B
B
B
The physical difference of the water spray patterns

a difference in water
developed by the high velocity fog tip and low
pressure
velocity fog applicator is due to __________.
low velocity fog spray applicators be provided for
the combination hose nozzles in the machinery
spaces of tank vessels. How many applicators are
required to be maintained in the machinery spaces
of these vessels?
Each fire hydrant serving the machinery spaces of
a MODU containing oil fired boilers, internal
fireman's outfit
combustion machinery, or fuel oil units, must be
equipped with a __________.
the method of breaking up the type of fire being

the water stream
fought
the capacity of the fire

pump
B
low velocity spray
applicator
marine strainer
pick axe
Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire

main in a manner which will allow __________.
all sections to be quickly

connected
the nozzle end to be run

out to the fire
all sections to be quickly

drained
291201
Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect

fire hose couplings?
Locking wrench
Spanner wrench
Crescent wrench
Pipe wrench
291203
A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on

Graphite
the female coupling is lubricated with __________.
Grease
Soap
T alc
The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must

1 inch
be either 1 1/2 inches or __________.
2 1/2 inches
3 inches
3 1/2 inches
291206
and high velocity water

fog
the nozzle and fittings to

be easily and quickly
inspected
291200
only
50 feet
Ans
88
B
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Replacement of valve
seats at each fire main
station.
protect the fire pumps
from becoming clogged
with marine growth
How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire

hose nozzle?
Using a Cadmium
Chloride coating.
Use of in-line system

strainers.
291250
Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire

main system at individual fire hydrants to
__________.
prevent rust and foreign

matter from entering the
system piping
291250
The device shown in the illustration is used to

__________.
produce both straight

steam and fog patterns
prevent rust and foreign

matter from entering the
hoses and nozzles
prevent foreign matter
from clogging hoses and
nozzles
Lower level fire main stations in the engine room

should undergo regular routine maintenance,
including __________.
fire main cut out valves shall be sealed open at all
times except when the __________.
operating the selfflushing out the hydrants repacking valve stems at

cleaning strainers once a
with full fire main pressure three month intervals
day
291250
291253
291258
291258
291300
291304
291304
291304
291305
291306
291350
291354
291400
Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on

exposed decks shall be __________.
The discharge side of every fire pump must be
provided with a __________.
According to 46 CFR Part 108, when fire pumps
are used for purposes other than firefighting
service, each pipe connection to the other service
(except for branch lines used for deck washing)
must have a __________.
Fire hose can be used for purposes other than
firefighting service when __________.
Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may
be used for other purposes, provided that one
pump is __________.
fire main is in actual use
fire pump is secured
filter out some of the salt

in an effort to reduce
pipeline scaling
produce mechanical foam SF-0010
a weekly replacement of
fire hose fittings
fire main is being used for
washdown purposes
gate valve
pressure gage
check valve
strainer
check valve installed in

the line
shut off valve at a

manifold near the pump
quick disconnect union

regulator in the line set at
within ten feet of the pump 125 psi
used for portable water

service
used for drills and testing
determined by the Chief

Engineer
Ans
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
on line and in operation at kept available for use on

all times to the fire main
the fire main at all times
Sea chest suction
approved by OCMI
capable of being quickly

connected to the fire main rated at or above 125 psi
with a suitable pipe spool
Cofferdam sluice valve
Fire pump stuffing box
place a cement box patch

replace the spool piece
on the spool piece
silver braze a patch over

the leak
patch the leak with epoxy

sealer
American Petroleum
Institute
American Society of
Mechanical Engineers
Underwriter's
Laboratories, Inc.
National Standard Fire

Hose Coupling
On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other

purposes if __________.
the other services are run a separate fire pump is

off a reducing station with available for use on the
pressure gage
fire main
all other services are

operated by a manifold
near the pump
all of the above conditions

are met
Foam tends to extinguish a fire by __________.
chemically absorbing the

oxygen
chemically absorbing the

burning material
releasing large amounts of

carbon dioxide
Illus
Periodic shutdown and

backflush of fire main.
opened up and internally

protected against freezing
behind glass or a suitably
examined at each Coast
or be fitted with cutout
all of the above
marked enclosure
Guard biannual inspection
valves and drain valves
for certification
Which of the following components provides a

Rosebox suction
direct source of seawater for the fire main system?
While in dry-dock in a U.S. port, you discover that
the spool piece for the fire pump sea suction is
wasted away. You should __________.
Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have
threads to meet the specifications of the
__________.
fire main is drained in

freezing weather
provide high velocity fog

patterns
Choice D
smothering the burning

material
89
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question
291403
291403
291453
291453
291501
291552
291552
291552
291553
291553
291553
3
4
291633
291650
291650
291650
291651
291653
When compared to low-expansion foam, a highexpansion foam will __________.

Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a
buoyant blanket to separate the burning vapors
from air?
The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is
used with a fire hose to produce __________.
Which of the devices listed must be used in
conjunction with the portable in- line foam
proportioner to produce foam?
Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for
producing chemical foam, should be stored
__________.
The usual method for effectively applying foam on
a fire is by __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
be wetter
be lighter

surfaces
CO2
Low-expansion foam
Water fog
Steam
high velocity fog
mechanical foam
low velocity fog
light water
A plain or common fire

hose nozzle
The mechanical foam

nozzle
Any low velocity applicator An all-purpose nozzle
in a freezer
in a cool dry place
at a temperature not less

than 80F
flowing the foam down a

vertical surface
play the foam stream off
When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should play the foam stream
nearby vertical vessel
__________.
directly on the burning oil
structures
When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire,
the stream of foam is most effective when directed at the overhead
at a vertical surface
__________.
The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire

is through the use of a __________.
Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is
best suited for use on a large class "B" fire
occurring on the open deck of a vessel?
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent
combinations is the best for simultaneous use on a
large oil fire?
A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing
system on a MODU must be marked with the
__________.
Which of the following statements describes the
advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher
versus a CO2 fire extinguisher?
spraying directly on the

base of the fire
onto the deck
CO2

foam
Dry chemical
A solid stream of water in Precool with water fog

conjunction with CO2.
before applying foam.
CO2 applied in
conjunction with foam.
maximum pressure
allowed at that branch
name of the space or

spaces which it serves
date of the last

maintenance inspection
Halon cools rather than

smothers a fire.
Halon is more effective

than CO2.
Halon can extinguish

combustible metal fires.
The agent is extremely

The agent leaves no
toxic in any concentration. residue.

concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing
agent?
Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K,
suppress the fire by __________.
Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a __________.

at normal room
temperature.
dissipating heat
powder
in open bins
directly into the bilge

water
foam and soda acid
extinguishers
Steam smothering system
CO2 applied in
conjunction with dry
chemical.
pressure needed to
maintain an effective
stream at that point
Halon is not toxic and safe
to breathe under all
conditions.
The agent extinguishes a

All of the above.
fire by smothering.
The agent can not be

The agent by weight is
Halon extinguishes the fire
used on electrical fires as
more effective than CO2. by smothering.
it leaves a residue.
breaking the chain
removing the fuel
all of the above
reaction
gas
pellet
glassy slag
90
Illus
Ans
B
B
sweeping the fire with the spraying directly on the

foam
surface of the fire
play the foam stream on
only use the foam on
the base of the fire with
flowing liquids
whirling motion
dry chemical extinguisher foam extinguisher and low foam extinguisher and
and solid stream water
velocity water fog
solid stream water

concerning Halon 1301?
SF-0020
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
291700
VER Question
291751
291751
291830
291901
291902
291902
291902
291903
291904
Which of the following statements holds true for

both CO2 and Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing
systems?
Inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves
checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and
__________.
Inspection of a portable CO2 fire extinguisher
involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and
__________.
Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B"
fire should be directed __________.
After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the
fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for
the space to be __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
A cylinder is considered
satisfactory if its weight is
within 10% of the stamped
full weight of the charge.
If a protected space is
ventilated mechanically,
the ventilation system
must be automatically
shutdown by the release
of the agent.
To avoid confusion during

an emergency situation,
there should be only one
All of the above.
action necessary (such as
a single pull box) to
activate the system.
each sight glass
weighing of the
extinguisher
the service technicians

report
the last date it was

charged
each sight glass
weighing of the
extinguisher
the service technicians

report
the last date it was

charged
at the top of the flames

opened and burned
material removed
A separate supply of
carbon dioxide must be
provided for each space
protected.
291951
Operation of the release control valve on a fixed

release CO2 to the
CO2 fire extinguishing system, must automatically
protected space
__________.
291951
What is the function of the small gas accumulator

cylinder attached to the discharge piping of the
engine room fixed CO2 system?
Which of the following statements describes how

the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an
engine room from most fixed CO2 fire
extinguishing systems?
291951
at the base of the fire near

in short, quick bursts
the edge
left closed with ventilation
checked for the proper
off until all boundaries are
oxygen level
cool
a blanket of bubbles
CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.
formed on the surface of smothering
the fire
The fire extinguishing action of CO2 comes mostly breaking the fire chemical
smothering
from __________.
chain reaction
a blanket of bubbles
The fire extinguishing action of CO2 is derived
formed on the surface of smothering
mostly from __________.
the fire
For which of the listed classes of fire combinations
would carbon dioxide be most suitable as the
Class "A" and class "B"
Class "B" and class "C"
extinguishing agent?
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow
reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its Foam
CO2
ignition temperature?
concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing
systems?
291950
Manually releasing the

bottles in groups of four.
CO2 pressure from the

pilot cylinders.
91
toward the upwind side of

the fire
opened and doused with
water to prevent reflash
cooling
isolating the heat from the

fuel
cooling

fuel
cooling

fuel
Class "A" and class "C"
Class "C", class "D", and

class "E"
Water stream
Water fog
Distribution piping within

The piping shall be used
the space shall be
for no other purpose
proportioned from the
except that it may be
supply line to give the
incorporated with the fireproper throttling to the
detecting system.
outlets.
secure all mechanical
ventilation in the protected
signal for a fire
space
It absorbs the pressure

It delays the release of
shock to the piping
carbon dioxide into the
resulting from the initial
engine room.
release of carbon dioxide.
Choice D
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
All of the above.
B
sound an alarm in the
ballast control room
It directly activates the

warning siren in the
engine room.
It controls the rate of

discharge of carbon
dioxide into the engine
room.
Steel wire trigger lines

provided to all bottles in
the main bank.
Remote pull cables

provided to each group of
four bottles in the main
bank.

ABS
291952
291952
291952
VER Question
6
291955
291955
291956
291960
291963
291965
292000
292000
292003
292005

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
three independent
controls
four independent controls
two separate controls to

release the CO2
three separate controls to

release the CO2
operating a separate
control to release CO2
listening for the sound of

the warning siren
modulating the proper

amount of CO2 from
individual bottles
U.S. Coast Guard
American Bureau of
Shipping
Marine Fire Protection

Guild
Paint locker
Cargo hold
All of the above
A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a

machinery space, designed with a stop valve
one control
two independent controls
installed in the line leading to the protected space,
is actuated with __________.
Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems for
machinery spaces are actuated by one control
the same control releasing a separate control
operating the stop valve leading to the space and the CO2
releasing the CO2
__________.
When fighting a machinery space fire, you should visually checking to see
operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control that CO2 is discharging
valve to the space protected and __________.
through the piping
If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on
any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the
Association
__________.
In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed
CO2 extinguishing system can result in which of
Machinery space
the following areas?
100 pounds
300 pounds
Ans
600 pounds
B
B
B
An excessive amount of
The pilot cylinder
insulation has been
discharge valve is leaking. installed on the tank and
piping.
What would be the most probable cause for a high

An air leak has developed The tank cooling system
pressure alarm to be activated in a Low Pressure
in the tank.
has malfunctioned.
CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system ?
Normally manned machinery spaces protected by
a fixed carbon dioxide system fitted with storage
cylinders of at least 300 pounds in extinguishing
gas weight are required to be fitted with audible
alarms so arranged that the alarm will be sounded
prior to the discharge of CO2. According to CG
regulations pertaining to CO2 fire protection
systems, what is the minimum delay period?
When pilot cylinder pressure is used to initialize
the release of CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing
system containing four storage cylinders, what
would be the minimum number of pilot cylinders
required in this installation?
which of the listed CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire
extinguishers by size is classified as B-II?
The empty weight of a B-II CO2 fire extinguisher is
34 pounds, therefore, the full charged weight is
__________.
To use a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you must
FIRST __________.
Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V
are considered __________.
Illus
900 pounds
15 seconds
20 seconds
45 seconds
90 seconds
B
1
B
5 lbs (2.27 kg)
15 lbs (6.81 kg)
25 lbs (11.35 kg)
35 lbs (15.89 kg)
44 lbs
49 lbs
54 lbs
59 lbs
B
B
turn the tank upside down pull the locking pin
open the valve on the side

shake thoroughly
of the tank
portable units
fixed systems
semi-portable units
92
disposable units

ABS
VER Question
292007
292009
292011
292050
292050
292051
292052
292100
292103
In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire

extinguisher, the operator must FIRST
__________.
Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on
electrical fires?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice D
open the discharge valve remove the locking pin
invert the CO2

extinguisher
squeeze the two trigger

handles together
Foam
Dry Chemical
Water fog
CO2
Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be for the first 20 seconds
for at least 20 seconds
equipped with an alarm which is to sound
CO2 is being released into
prior to release of CO2
__________.
the space
To let them know they
Why is it necessary to warn engine room
To make them aware
should leave the engine
personnel before activating the fixed CO2 system? there is a fire.
room.
As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous
under certain conditions as it can cause
hallucinations
freeze burns and blistering
__________.
prolonged exposure to
One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide the 'snow' which is
high concentrations of
to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is
sometimes discharged
CO2 gas causes
__________.
along with the gas is toxic
suffocation
During the annual servicing of your ship's fixed

CO2 system, you receive the report shown in the
illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require
recharging?
Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire

extinguisher includes __________.
Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be
easily recharged aboard ship?
The fire protection provided for the propulsion
motor and generator of a diesel electric drive
vessel is usually a __________.
292150
292152
Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it

is advisable to __________.
Which of the following statements describes the

correct method to use when applying CO2 from a
portable fire extinguisher?

Choice C
If conditions permit, locate

and use the nearest
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry
Immediately act to protect
portable fire extinguisher
room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which spaces adjacent to the
and attempt to gain
of the following should you do FIRST?
fire.
immediate control or
minimize the fire spread.
292103
292156
105 103 and 108
Illus
Ans
B
B
Immediately act to protect

Go to the nearest fire
the compartment that is
station and begin to break
directly above the laundry
out the fire hose.
room.
B
during the entire period
that CO2 is being
released
if all doors and ventilation

are not secured
To make them aware that

To prevent possible injury
ventilation will
from frostbite.
automatically stop.
undulation
carbon monoxide
poisoning
rapid dissipation of the

CO2 vapor
the CO2 gas is lighter

than air and a large
amount is required to
extinguish a fire near the
deck
109 All of the above
B
B
B
SF-0014
B
inspecting the pressure
gauge to ensure the
needle is within operating
range
weighing the cylinder and

recharging if weight loss hydrostatic testing of the
exceeds 10% of the
cylinder
weight of the charge
discharging, cleaning
inside, and recharging
Soda acid
Carbon dioxide
Dry chemical, cartridgeoperated
fixed foam extinguisher
fixed CO2 system
steam smothering system
pressurized water
sprinkler system
thoroughly ventilate the

space of CO2
jettison all burning

materials
use all CO2 available to

standby with water or
cool the surrounding area other agents
Bounce the CO2 off the
bulkhead.
Apply CO2 to the base of Apply the CO2 to the top

the flames in a sweeping of the flames with a
motion.
beating motion.
93
Foam
Direct the CO2 in as near

a vertical upward direction
as possible.
B
B
B

ABS
292202
292204
292205
VER Question
1
292207
292207
292250
292350
292350
292350
292350
292352
292354
292400
4
1
1
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for carbon

dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems require
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
the total supply of CO2 to

a separate supply of CO2
be at least sufficient for
be provided for each
the space requiring the
space protected
greatest amount
According to 46 CFR Part 95, a fixed CO2 fire

fighting system which contains a maximum of 2450
pounds of carbon dioxide to be maintained aboard
1.5 inches
the vessel, the minimum nominal pipe size of the
fixed system branch lines to the various spaces
must be __________.
how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire
extinguishers are required to be installed in a
Four
machinery space containing an 8,000 horsepower
main propulsion diesel engine?
A vessel carries a total of ten B-II CO2 fire
extinguishers. How many spare extinguishers must
the vessel carry?
A vessel has eight B-II CO2 fire extinguishers. How
many spare extinguishers must the vessel carry?
2 inches
The unit shown in the illustration is pressurized

and operated by __________.
carry the extinguisher

squeezing the springloaded nozzle
The weight of the charge

Which of the following statements is true regarding is equal to the gross
the device illustrated?
weight stamped on the
unit.
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is a
__________.
The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the
illustration is a large __________.
cartridge-operated foam
extinguisher
CO2 hose reel system
Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire

pressure gage is within
extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring
the operating range
that the __________.
Illus
the total supply of CO2 be

equal to the gross
all of the above
tonnage of the vessel
divided by 30
2.5 inches
Ans
3 inches
B
Six
Eight
Ten
B
0
10
On a MODU, a CO2 fire extinguisher is checked by

discharging a small
reading the gage pressure weighing the extinguisher
__________.
amount of CO2
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
requires the use of the puncture lever indicated by
1
3
piece number __________.
The purpose of piece #3 on the fire extinguisher
shown in the illustration, is to __________.
Choice D
initiate the pressurization

of the extinguisher
94
checking for broken

inspection seals
4
B
5 SF-0006
indicate the state of

hang the extinguisher on a
SF-0006
charge of the extinguisher bulkhead
removing the cartridge

depressing the puncturing
guard, lifting the
lever and squeezing the
puncturing lever, and
nozzle
squeezing the nozzle
The upper handle (#1) is
for operating the valve,
The lower handle (#10) is
the lower handle (#10) at for operating the valve,
the top of the left side of the upper handle (#3) is
the large cylinder is for
for carrying.
carrying.
cartridge-operated dry
cartridge-operated CO2
chemical extinguisher
type extinguisher
dry chemical hose reel
light water hose reel
system
system
powder is not caked and
there is a full charge
tightening the vent cap

and puncturing the
cartridge seal
SF-0006
The unit must be turned

upside down to operate.
SF-0006
B
B
B
foam extinguisher
SF-0006
Halon 1301 hose reel

system
SF-0009
cartridge weight is not less recharge of weight loss

than 1/4 ounce of weight exceeds 10% of the
stamped on cartridge
weight of charge

ABS
292400
292400
VER Question
5
292402
292404
292405
292450
292451
292453
292454
292455
292501
292531
292533

Choice B
Choice C
Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire

pressure gage is within
extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring
the operating range
that the __________.
powder is not caked and

there is a full charge
cartridge weight is not less

correct amount of water is
than 1/4 ounce of weight
stored in the container
stamped on cartridge
The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher

__________.
is always ready for use

and requires no attention
may cake up and fail to

discharge properly if not
occasionally agitated
deteriorates to an
puts out the fire with its
unusable condition within
cooling action
three years
Recharging a previously used cartridge- operated

dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by
__________.
According to CFR 91.25-20, the performance of
annual preventive maintenance on the fire
extinguisher illustrated, by the vessel's crew, would
include what item?
During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find
sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium
bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These
chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship
for _______.
When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the
listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be
sprayed directly into the fire?
replacing the propellant

authorized fire equipment
cartridge and refilling it
servicing personnel only
with powder

concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the
illustration?
Choice A

Choice D
puncturing the cartridge

seal after installation
Illus
examining seal on cylinder renewing handle return

piece No. 4
spring in piece No. 1
hydrostatically testing
piece No. 6
degreasing machinery
parts
recharging dry chemical

fire extinguishers
descalling evaporator
tubes
engine jacket water

treatment
B
Halon
Solid water stream
Low velocity fog
Steam smothering
The initial discharge of the

extinguisher should be at
close range to scatter the
burning material.
The agent may be applied

in short bursts by opening
and closing the squeeze
nozzle piece #1.
There is no danger of
reflash in using the
illustrated extinguisher on
a class B fire.
The illustrated
extinguisher must never
be used in conjunction
with water.
If a vessel has four hand portable fire extinguishers

that can be recharged by personnel onboard, how
many spare charges must be carried?
B
SF-0006
B
SF-0006
discharge a stream at the

discharge a stream
base of the fire, starting at play the stream off
use concentrated amounts
The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type horizontally and allow it to
the near edge, and use
adjacent vertical surfaces in small locations and put
fire extinguisher in fighting a fire, is to __________. flow down evenly on all
side-to-side sweeping
until the area is blanketed the fire out in sections
burning surfaces
motions
To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon
chemically treated saw
mechanical foam
dry chemical
chemical foam
dioxide or __________.
dust
When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in
a windy location, you should direct the stream from downwind
upwind
across the wind
directly above
__________.
On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15

pounds of CO2 or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a
size __________.
Fire extinguishers used on MODUs are indicated
by size using the designators "I" through "V", with
"I" being __________.
recharging the cartridge

and refilling it with powder
oiling the hinge on piece

No. 3
Ans
B
B
B
B
I
II
III
IV
used for electrical fires

only
the smallest size
the most accessible size
the most effective size
95
B
B

ABS
292536
292539
VER Question
1
292540
292541
292600
292600
292601
292603
292608
292609
292613
292613
292613
292614
292614
292614
292650
292650
292651
292656
292700
The inspection of portable fire extinguishers on a

MODU must be __________.
If a mobile offshore drilling unit has four hand
portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged
by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges
must be carried?
The minimum number of portable C-II fire
extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU
is __________.
To determine the number of portable fire
extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling
unit, you should check the __________.
A fire in the paint locker would probably be
__________.
Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an
example of which of the following classes of fire?
A grade "E" petroleum product is __________.
If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a
leaking fuel line, you should FIRST __________.
A galley grease fire would be classified as
__________.
The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is
essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a __________.
An oil fire would be classified as a __________.
Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class
of fire?
A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the
__________.
Which of the following classes of fire would
probably occur in the engine room bilges?
Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely
occur in the engine room of a vessel?
To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action
You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to
the day tanks by means of an electric fuel oil
transfer pump. If the pump motor catches fire, you
would FIRST __________.
A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the
__________.
Which of the hazards listed is of a primary
concern, other than fire damage, associated with a
class C fire?
A class "D" fire would involve the burning of
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
accomplished by an
authorized servicing
representative
recorded by the person-in- completed every six

charge
months
1
Choice C
Choice D
Illus
all of the above
Ans
B
4
B
1
hot work permit
Safety of Life at Sea

Certificate
operations manual
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
a flammable liquid
a combustible liquid
kerosene
B
B
notify the engineer on

watch
isolate and secure the

piping
throw sand on the fire
light fuel oil

extinguish the fire using a
combination nozzle with
applicator
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
class A
class B
class C
class D
Class A fire
Class B fire
Class C fire
Class D fire
class A
class B
class C
class D
B
B
B
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
B
B
main switchboard
engine room bilge
breathing compartment
electric fresh water

transfer pump
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Classes A and B
Classes B and C
Classes C and D
Classes A and D
apply a low velocity fog
secure the power
Completely discharge a
15 pound (6.8 kg) CO2
extinguisher
apply mechanical or
chemical foam
secure the fuel manifold
shut off power to the

pump
shut off the power

ventilation
spray water on the fire
engine room bilges
main switchboard
paint locker
rag bin
Susceptible to reflash
Electrocution or shock
Explosion
Deep seated fire
diesel oil
magnesium
dunnage
96
B
B
B
B

ABS
292750
292751
VER Question
1
292751
292754
292756
292803
292803
292804
293001
293003
293020
293021
293021
293021

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
are susceptible to
spontaneous ignition
all of the above
activate the fixed CO2

system
activate the portable CO2

system
Activate the CO2 system

to that tank.
Shut off the steam heating

coils.
closing the sea chest
flooding the compartment

with salt water
does not block access to

the fire station hydrant
will cover less than 25

percent of deck space
will be easily visible from

the bridge
When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with

are more susceptible to
an aluminum superstructure, it is important to
generate poisonous fumes collapse than steel
remember that aluminum structures exposed to the
structures
high heat __________.
secure any source of air
cool nearby decks and
supply by closing tank
To extinguish a fire in an oil cargo tank, you should
bulkheads with high
tops, ullage openings, PV
FIRST __________.
velocity fog
valves, and other
openings
Commence draining that
Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST
Seal off all vents to that
tank as quickly as
to control an oil fire in a fuel oil tank?
tank.
possible.
A fire in an oil rig ballast pump room can be
cooling the outside
shutting all sources of air
brought under control with minimal impact on
bulkheads with water
into the compartment
stability by __________.
If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that is not higher than 12
it __________.
inches above the deck
Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) state that all
handheld portable fire extinguishers required
aboard uninspected motor vessels shall be type
__________.
Where would you look to find the number of hand
portable fire extinguishers required on an
uninspected towing or fishing industry vessel?
CFR), what quantity of B-II extinguishers would be
required in an oil fired boiler space on a 25,000
gross ton cargo vessel in which no sand, soda
impregnated sawdust, or other approved dry
materials are provided?
When opening a watertight door to check a
compartment suspected of flooding, which of the
dogs shown in the illustration should you back off
FIRST?
Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to
determine whether or not a compartment has
flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to
return to its original position is caused by the
__________.
Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in
a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always
__________.
Ans
B
B
B
B
B
Subchapter C, Rules and
Modern Marine Engineer's
The Damage Control
Regulations for
Manual
Book
Uninspected Vessels
Fire fighter's Handbook
B
1
4 SF-0019
B
open the watertight door
and take a quick look
open a hatch dog on the

side of the hinges
tap the bulkhead with a

hammer to check for a
water level
movement of the center of

movement of the center of
upward movement of the
buoyancy toward the low
gravity
center of flotation
side of the vessel
increase ship stability
feel the bulkhead to see if

it is hot
increased free surface in
the buoyant wedge
reduce ship stability
cause a serious
permanent list
decrease the heeling

moment
difference between
buoyancy in salt and fresh
waters
none of the above
Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
unoccupied space below

the waterline
volume of intact space

above the waterline
excess of the buoyant

force over gravitational
force
The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly

with changes in the vessel's __________.
free surface
freeboard
rolling period
Illus
97
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
293021
293022
VER Question
2
293032
293033
293033

Choice A
With damaged floating vessels, the most important

bilge pumping capacity
consideration is the preservation of __________.
A vessel should normally behave as if all of its
weight is acting downward through the center of
gravity and all of its support is acting upward
through the __________.
Which abbreviation represents the height of the
center of buoyancy?
Stability is determined principally by the
relationship of the center of gravity and the
__________.
The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant
ship is the method for determining the exact
location of the __________.
keel
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
reserve buoyancy
level attitude
instability
center of buoyancy
tipping center
amidships section
Illus
Ans
B
BK
KB
CB
BM
aft perpendicular
center of buoyancy
keel
center of flotation
ship's displacement in
seawater
position of the ship's

center of gravity

center of buoyancy

metacenter
determine the location of

the metacenter
determine the position of

the lightship center of
gravity
verify the hydrostatic data
verify data in the vessel's

operating manual
stable
neutral
positive
negative
freeboard is increased
tanks are ballasted
reserve buoyancy
increases
trim is increased
Standard Logarithmic
Rule
Simpsons Rule
Reynolds Number Rule
Pythagorean Rule
pitch
surge
sway
roll
yaw
sway
surge
heave
pitching
rolling
swaying
surging
Longitudinal
Transverse
Vertical
Centerline
A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging'

__________.

compressive stress
has its main deck plating

has its bottom plate under has its bottom plating

tensile stress
under ductile stress
293100
A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging' has its

__________.
main deck under

compressive stress
main deck plating under

tensile stress
bottom plate under

shearing stress
bottom and deck plating

under compressive stress
293100
If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave

pitch poling
amidships, the vessel is subjected to __________.
hogging stresses
sagging stresses
yawing stresses
293101
A vessel which is subjected to 'sagging'

__________.

tensile stress
has its bottom plating

is said to be under a form
whose crest is amidships of transverse bending
A vessel having a concentration of weight toward

the top of the vessel is said to be __________.
stiff
tender
buoyant
293033
293034
4
8
293038
293047
293050
293051
293055
293056
293100
293102
The purpose of the a vessels "inclining

experiment" is to __________.
When the height of the metacenter is the same as
the height of the center of gravity, the upright
equilibrium position is __________.
A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the
__________.
What standard mathematical formula is commonly
used to calculate a vessels water plane area for
stability purposes?
Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while
underway is known as __________.
The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a
vessel is called __________.
Transverse oscillating rotation about the
longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as
__________.
Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow
of a ship oscillating about which axis?
98
neutral
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
293103
293105
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
virtual rise in the center of value of the moment to

gravity
trim 1 inch (MT1)
Illus
Ans
A ballast tank is one-third full when additional

ballast is added until it is two- thirds full. The
free surface effect
increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the
greatest influence on the __________.
transverse stability
You can generally improve the vessel's stability in

a hazardous situation by __________.
ballasting appropriate port transferring ballast

or starboard deep tanks
athwartships
deballasting double
bottoms
virtual rise in the center of

vertical weight distribution
gravity
virtual rise in the center of
vertical weight distribution
gravity
moment to trim 1 inch

(MT1)
moment to trim 1 inch
(MT1)
to starboard
to port
forward
aft
go down by the head
list to starboard
trim by the stern
list to port
angle of list
change of trim
angle of trim
change of draft
list
heel
trim
flotation
list
heel
trim
flotation
the righting arm couple
longitudinal stability
metacentric height
transverse inclination
293107
293107
293130
293131
293134
293136
293136
293137
293139
293156
293159
293159
293159
293161
293162
293163
The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the

ship's period of roll is the __________.
The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the
ship's period of roll is the __________.
If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on
fuel, you would transfer fuel __________.
If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone,
the ship will __________.
The difference between the initial trim of a vessel
and the trim after a new load condition is known as
__________.
A stiff wind has caused a difference to occur
between the port and starboard drafts. This
condition is known as __________.
The difference between the starboard and port
drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is
__________.
pumping double bottoms

to the forepeak
Vertical position of KB
length of KB
list until the center of

In the absence of external forces, adding weight to
trim to the side opposite
heel until the angle of loll buoyancy is aligned
decrease draft at the
one side of a floating vessel will cause the vessel
TCG until all moments are
is reached
vertically with the center of
center of flotation
to __________.
equal
gravity
The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel
weight required to sink the
displaced submerged
total weight of the vessel
reserve buoyancy
floating in sea water is equal to the __________. vessel
volume
Symbol #3, shown in the illustration, represents
displacement
amidships
forward perpendicular
baseline
__________.
The symbol shown in the illustration and used to
represent amidships, is indicated by number
2
3
4
__________.
The symbol shown in the illustration to represent
the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft
2
3
4
perpendiculars is __________.
Keeping the draft of a MODU at, or below the load
line mark, insures the unit will have adequate
reserve ballast
reserve buoyancy
lightweight displacement critical motion
__________.
Load line regulations are designed to insure that a
MODU has adequate structural strength and
lifesaving equipment
stability
mooring tension
riser tension
sufficient __________.
The document certifying the correctness of the
Certificate of
load line marks on a MODU is called the
Load Line Certificate
SOLAS Certificate
Documentation
__________.
99
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
SF-0022
5 SF-0022
5 SF-0022
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
293166
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
Illus
Ans
any person from the Coast

Guard who performs
duties with respect to the
inspection, enforcement,
and administration of Title
52 of the revised statute
Many uninspected motor vessels require load

lines. For the purpose of the Load Line
Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means
__________.
an officer of the Coast

any person designated by
Guard designated by the
any person from the Coast
the American Bureau of
Commandant to command
Guard who is in charge of
Shipping who actually
all Coast Guard activities
a marine inspection zone
examines the vessel
within his district
Many uninspected vessels require load lines to

indicate the maximum __________.
reserve buoyancy under

any condition
amidship's draft to which a angle of reduced

vessel can be lawfully
freeboard for subdivision
submerged
calculations
volume of liquid in the

tank
volume of displacement of location of the tank in the height of the center of

the MODU
MODU
gravity of the MODU
volume of liquid in the

tank
displacement of the
MODU
B
293166
293201
293203
293205
293205
293207
293207
293207
293207
The effects of free surface on initial stability

depend upon the surface area dimensions of the
free liquids and the __________.
The free surface corrections depend upon the
surface area of the free liquids and the
__________.
Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has
the effect of raising the __________.
Reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank
has the effect of lowering the __________.
Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying
liquid cargo should be avoided in order to
__________.
Free surface effect occurring in partially filled cargo
or fuel storage tanks on board a vessel should be
avoided to __________.
Vessel stability can be adversely affected by
__________.
When any tank or compartment is partially filled
with a liquid free to move as the ship rolls, the free
surface effect is present. This condition will usually
__________.
uncorrected 'KG'
uncorrected 'KG'
location of the tank in the height of the center of

MODU
gravity of the MODU
virtual height of the center

metacenter
of gravity
virtual height of the center
metacenter
of gravity
reduce hogging and

sagging
maintain vessel stability
prevent oil pollution
all of the above
increasing the free surface ballasting down by the

decreasing the laden draft
effect
bow
ballasting down by the

stern
increase reserve
buoyancy
change the ship's trim
A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU

may be caused by __________.
293252
A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU

may be caused by __________.
filling a partially filled tank
293259
B
B
B
293252
all of the above
Although 'KG' for a MODU in a lightweight

condition is relatively high, the vessel is stiff
'KM' is small
because __________.
Subtracting the height of the center of gravity
corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from
'GM'
the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a
metacentric height
prevent oil pollution
cause a permanent list
maintain good stability
reduce ship stability
metacentric height
maintain hog and sag
using an onboard crane to

emptying a partially filled
filling a partially filled tank lift a freely swinging heavy
tank
object
293255
freeboard for the light ship

displacement
using fuel from a pressed emptying a partially filled

fuel tank
tank
transferring pipe from the

setback area to the pipe
rack
transferring pipe from the
setback area to the pipe
rack
'KM' is high
'BL' is small
'KB' is large
'GML'
'KGL'
'KML'
B
B
B
100

ABS
VER Question
293259
293261
293264
293266
293266
293266
293267
293268
293269
1
1
1
293273
293307
293401
293401
293401
293501
293502
293700
4
3

Choice A
Subtracting the height of the center of gravity

corrected for transverse free surface effects from
'GM'
the height of the transverse metacenter of a
A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating
negative 'GM'
MODU indicates __________.
When the force of the wind causes a floating
MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.
For a MODU with a list, an increase in 'GMT' will
cause the inclination to __________.
For a MODU with transverse inclination, an
increase in 'GMT' causes __________.
For a MODU with trim, an increase in 'GMT' will
cause the inclination to __________.
When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the
center of buoyancy will __________.
The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a
MODU is used as a measure of __________.
The volume of a floating MODU above the
waterline that can be made watertight is its
__________.
The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a
floating MODU decrease with the __________.
Where are self-closing doors required on a
MODU?
If double bottom fuel tank levels are found to have
increased after a ship's grounding, you should
suspect __________.
centers of buoyancy and

gravity are in the same
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
'GMT'
'KGT'
'KMT'
progressive flooding
structural failure
an immediate need to
counterflood
Ans
righting moment equals

down flooding point is
the wind heeling moment below water
deck edge immersion

occurs
B
B
stabilize at an angel of loll decrease
increase
remain constant
list to stabilize at an angle list to decrease
trim to decrease
list to increase
stabilize at an angle of loll decrease
increase
remain constant
remain stationary
stability at all angles of
inclination
displacement volume
move to the height of the

move toward the low side move toward the high side
metacenter
stability at angles less
stability at angle less than
initial stability
than the limit of positive
the downflooding angle
stability
reserve buoyancy
B
B
surface area of the tank
displacement volume
draft of the MODU
In the galley
In each stair tower
To each sleeping room
To the engine room
a damaged pneumercator a puncture, crack, or hole improper record keeping

line
in the skin of the vessel
of fuel transfer activities
contamination of the
contaminated steam
supply system
contamination of the
contaminated steam
supply system
a crack in the hull portion

a load of bad fuel
of the fuel tank
contamination from the

saltwater flushing system
10 feet (3.048 m)
20 feet (6.09 m)
16 feet (4.87 m)
approximately 1/2 inch

shorter than measured
to the same length as the
shorter per foot of shoring
length to allow for the use measured length
to allow wet expansion
of wedges
on the lowest level of the
on or above the weather
below the weather deck in engine room in locations
deck in locations
a paint or lamp locker
designated by the chief
designated by the master
engineer
101
net tonnage
height of the tank above
the keel
Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel

oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level
condensation in the fuel
has increased. You therefore should suspect
tank
__________.
Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension
of 4" X 4" (10.2 cm X 10.2 cm) should not be
8 feet (2.43 m)
longer than __________.
After measuring the length to which a section of
longer than measured
shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring
length to allow for
__________.
trimming
in containers labeled in
According to 46 CFR Part 35, containers which
accordance with ABS
exceed a capacity of five gallons and contain
requirements for
flammable liquids and gases other than diesel fuel
flammable liquids and
must be stowed __________.
gases
gross tonnage
If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a damaged pneumercator a puncture, crack, or hole improper record keeping
a grounding, you should suspect __________.
line
in the skin of the vessel
of fuel transfer activities
Illus
B
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question
293754
293755
293756
293759
293760
293762
293763
294000
294000
294001
294002
294002
294003
294004
294004
Control of flooding on a MODU should be

addressed __________.
When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a
MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates
__________.
When patching holes in the hull of a MODU,
pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be
used as __________.
The two courses of action to take if the underwater
hull of a MODU is severely damaged, are to plug
the opening and to __________.
In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags,
wedges, and other materials should be used in
conjunction with plugs to __________.
The objective of shoring the damaged area of a
MODU is to __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
first
following control of a fire
following restoration of
vital services
only if a threat exists
the tank is full
the tank may be partially

flooded
the tank level has dropped
the tank is completely

flooded
caulking
gaskets
strong backs
wedges
dewater the compartment
establish and maintain

flooding boundaries
secure power to the

compartment
counterflood to maintain
even keel
reduce the water pressure reduce the water leaking

on the hull
in around the plugs


Which of the documents listed will describe
lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
Which of the documents listed will describe
lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
prevent progressive rapid reduce the possibility of

flooding
stress fractures
force the warped, bulged,

support and hold the area withstand subsequent
or deformed sections back
in the damaged position additional damage
into place
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is

required to submit a casualty report of an
At the owner's discretion
international grounding under what condition?
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will
locked up
be __________.
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will
locked up
be __________.
Approved buoyant work vests may be carried
aboard tank vessels and shall be worn by crew
members __________.
If it creates a hazard to
navigation
make a watertight seal at

the damaged area
If the grounding lasts over

Under any condition
48 hours
inaccessible to
readily accessible for use
passengers
inaccessible to
passengers
on the topmost deck of the

vessel at all times
vessel at all times
when working near or over

under the supervision and
the water under
control of designated
unfavorable working
ship's officers
conditions
as substitutes for the

approved life preservers
during routine drills,
all of the above
weather permitting, when
a vessel is moored pier
side

Buoyant vests may be
to turn an unconscious
substituted for lifejackets. person's face clear of the
water.
to turn an unconscious
substituted for lifejackets. person's face clear of the
water.
Lifejackets must always

be worn with the same
side facing outwards to
float properly.
be worn with the same
side facing outwards to
float properly.
Lightly stained or faded

lifejackets will fail in the
water and should not be
used.
Lightly stained or faded
lifejackets will fail in the
water and should not be
used.
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
Kapok lifejackets must

have plastic- covered pad be worn with the same
substituted for lifejackets.
inserts.
side facing outwards.
Lifejackets are not

designed to turn a
person's face clear of the
water when unconscious.
Forecastle card
Clearance papers
Forecastle card
Clearance papers
102

ABS
294005
294006
VER Question



Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Illus

should be stowed in the
worn while performing
storage bag in which it
routine work on deck.
was received.
During the annual

zipper should be
lubricated using light
machine oil or mineral oil.
Any tear or leak will

render the suit
unserviceable and it must
be replaced.
The immersion suit

Not all models will
reduces the rate of body
cooling and greatly
unconscious person faceincreases the survival time
up in the water.
in cold water.

provides protection to a
wearer swimming in
burning oil.
The suit provides a full

range of body movement
and is suitable for routine
wear on deck.
294007
The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit

before you enter the water after you enter the water
after one hour in the water
after you notice that your

suit is losing buoyancy
294007
The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit

before you enter the water after you enter the water
after one hour in the water
after you notice that your

suit is losing buoyancy
294008
294010
294101
294101
294102
294102
294105
294106
294110
keep both hands in front

enter the water on the
If you must enter the water on which there is an oil protect your lifejacket by
of your face to break the
windward side of the
wear very light clothing
fire, you should __________.
holding it above your head
water surface when diving
vessel
head first
immediately jump into the
run to the radio room to
A person who observes an individual fall overboard
call for help and keep the
go to the control room for
water to assist the
send an emergency
from an OSV should __________.
individual in sight
the distress flares
individual
message
On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to
One ring life buoy.
have a buoyant line attached?
One ring life buoy on each

Three ring life buoys.
side of the MODU.
Two ring life buoys on

each side of the MODU.
On a OSV, how many ring buoys are required to

have a buoyant line attached?
What is the minimum required number of ring life
buoys on a MODU?
What is the minimum required number of ring life
buoys on an OSV on ocean service ?
One ring life buoy on each

Three ring life buoys
side of the OSV
Two ring life buoys on

each side of the OSV
One ring life buoy
Only a light layer of

clothing may be worn
underneath.
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
12
16
12
16
They provide sufficient

flotation to do away with They should be tight
the necessity of wearing a fitting.
lifejacket.
A tear in the suit will not

appreciably reduce its
value.
operating line throwing
equipment

concerning an immersion suit and its use?
One life preserver or buoyant work vest is required

to be worn on a MODU when a person is
working on the rig floor
__________.
working over water
tie themselves to the unit

If there are a number of survivors in the water after
to avoid drifting with the
abandoning a MODU, they should __________.
current
group to form a small

circle of survivors to
send the strongest
create a warmer pocket of swimmer to shore for
water in the center of the assistance
circle
Ans
103
working on the pipe racks
B
B
form a raft by lashing their

lifejackets together

ABS
294110
294110
294110
294110
VER Question
8
4
294112
294114
294200
294201
294201
294201
294203
294203
294203
294203
294204
294204

Choice A
If there are a number of survivors in the water after tie themselves to the unit
abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft or liferaft to avoid drifting with the
are in sight, they should __________.
current
tie themselves to the unit

If there are a number of survivors in the water after
to avoid drifting with the
abandoning a vessel, they should __________.
current
If you continue to wear extra clothing when
entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it weigh you down
will __________.
If you wear extra clothing when entering the water
weigh you down
after abandoning a MODU it will __________.
immediately jump into the
A person who observes an individual fall overboard
water to assist the
from a MODU should __________.
individual
there is a rescue craft in
should enter the water on the leeward side, except the area
when __________.
Choice B
create a warmer pocket of
water in the center of the
circle
create a warmer pocket of
water in the center of the
circle
preserve body heat
preserve body heat
send the strongest

swimmer to shore for
assistance

send the strongest

swimmer to shore for
assistance

reduce body heat
make it more difficult to

breathe
reduce your body heat
make it more difficult to

breathe
Ans
water temperature is
below 40F

the area
standing on the CO2

bottle, holding the bottom
straps, and throwing your
weight backwards
getting at least three or

doing nothing; it will right
four men to push down on
itself after the canopy
the side containing the
supports inflate
CO2 cylinder
Illus
there is hydrogen sulfide

present
act as stabilizers by filling

The purpose of the four water pockets, located on stow rainwater; these four
with sea water as soon as
the underside at each corner of the raft, is to
spaces will not take up
raft is inflated and in an
__________.
valuable space
upright position
hold the freshwater

required by regulation to
be provided in the raft
when packed
none of the above
B
B
B
catching rain water
stability
easy drainage
maneuverability
catching rain water
stability
easy drainage
maneuverability
a pistol
a pistol
in one of the equipment
bags
bags
a towing connection
a towing connection
in a special pocket near
the forward entrance
in a special pocket near
the forward entrance
a portable radio
a portable radio
on a cord hanging from
the canopy
on a cord hanging from
the canopy
canned milk
canned milk
in a pocket on the first aid
kit
kit
B
B
B
breaking the weak link
releasing the tie- down

strap
pulling the operating cord
releasing the CO2

canister
To some fixed object on

the ship.
Stand on it with your foot.
To the special pad eye on

the 'raft davit launcher'.
Do not attach the cord to

If a raft is to be released manually, where should
anything but throw it
15 the operating cord be attached before throwing the
overboard with the raft
raft overboard?
container.
Choice D
go to the control room for

the distress flares
If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can

pushing up on one side
right it by __________.
Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable

liferaft are for __________.
Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable
6
liferaft are for __________.
11 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
2 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will
8
always be located __________.
The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will
3
always be located __________.
As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the
17 hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from
its cradle by __________.
Choice C
run to the radio room to

call for help and keep the
send an emergency
individual in sight
message
104
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question
294204
47
294204
294204
294204
The first step to manually launch an inflatable

liferaft is to _______.
The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also
serves as a __________.
Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
lifeline
painter
drogue
marker
Which of the following is the correct procedure to Connect the stainless

Pull the line (painter) from
Open the canopy relief
40 follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand steel link (float free link) to the container and make it
valves.
from an OSV?
the vessel.
fast to the cleat provided.
Remove the raft from the

container to permit
complete inflation.
Which of the following must be carried out in order

to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
294204
38

to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
294204
294204
39
294206
294206
10
294206
11
294206
15
294206
16
294207
294207

to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not
designed for float- free operation?
to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not
designed for float- free operation?
One of the first actions to be taken by survivors
when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to
__________.
__________.
__________.
__________.
__________.
Pull on the hydrostatic

release, pull on the sea
painter.
painter.
It will be easily launched
by simply breaking the
weak link.
It will be easily launched
by simply breaking the
weak link.
Push on the hydrostatic

painter.
painter.
Depress the hydrostatic
release button.
Depress the hydrostatic
release button.

release, push on the sea
painter.
painter.
It is easily launched by
cutting the container
securing straps.
It is easily launched by
cutting the container
securing straps.

painter.
painter.
It is only necessary to
attach the weak link to the
vessel.
It is only necessary to
attach the weak link to the
vessel.
stream the sea anchor
take an antiseasickness open the pressure relief

pill
valve
drink at least one can of

water
break out food rations
read the instruction card
open the pressure relief

valve

water
prepare to cut the sea

painter

valve

water
take antiseasickness pill

valve

water
stream the sea anchor

valve

water
the cold temperature
collapsing of the raft due

to the cold temperature
starvation
the cold temperature
collapsing of the raft due

to the cold temperature
starvation
asphyxiation due to
The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at
keeping the canopy
sea in an inflatable liferaft is __________.
closed
asphyxiation due to
The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at
keeping the canopy
sea in an inflatable liferaft is __________.
closed
In accordance with SOLAS regulations, which of
the following is true concerning inflatable liferaft
battery powered lights?
Ans
Remove the raft from the

container to permit
complete inflation.
Illus
use the float-free method

pull on the operating cord
trip the hydrostatic release
release the gravity brake
only
to inflate the raft
Which of the following is the correct procedure to Connect the stainless

Pull the line (painter) from
Open the canopy relief
follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand steel link (float free link) to the container and make it
valves.
from an ocean going vessel?
the vessel.
fast to the cleat provided.
294204
294209
The lights must be

Outside and inside canopy
capable of being shut off
lights must be manually
during daylight hours to
switched on after inflation.
extend battery life.
105
The lights must

The lights must always
automatically turn on and
remain on.
off by photoelectric cells.
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
294209
VER Question
5
294209
294212
294212
294215
294215
294216
294218
294303
294303
294304
294304
294306
1
4
294309
294309
294311
On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries

to operate the light on the inside of rafts can be
made to last longer by _______.
On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries
to operate the light on the inside of the rafts can be
made to last longer by __________.
Each liferaft container without an indicated
maximum stowage height above the waterline,
must be stowed at a height not more than
__________.
Each liferaft container without an indicated
maximum stowage height must be stowed at a
height not more than __________.
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a
liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
__________.
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a
liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
__________.
According to regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is
required to be marked __________.
In the illustration shown, the hydrostatic release is
identified as item number _____.
A frapping line, shown in the illustration, is
indicated by number __________.
Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into
the vessel while boarding passengers are called
__________.
On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides, the No. 2
lifeboat would be located __________.
The No. 1 lifeboat on a ship would be found
__________.
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke
signal must be replaced not later than the marked
date of expiration, or from the date of manufacture,
not later than __________.
Which of the following steps should normally be
taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat in
an emergency situation?
Which of the following steps should normally be
taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat in
an emergency situation?

Choice A
Choice B
unscrewing the bulb

during daylight
operating the switch for

the light
unscrewing the bulb

during the daylight
operating the "off switch"

for the light during the
daylight
3 meters (10 feet) above

the waterline
18 meters (59 feet) above indicated on the vessels

the waterline
required by the vessels

3 meters (10 feet) above

the waterline
18 meters (59 feet) above indicated on the vessels

the waterline
required by the vessels

poured overboard
passed around so all can
because of salt washed
drink
off the canopy
poured overboard
passed around so all can
because of salt washed
drink
off the canopy
on the Muster List
on a sign next to the
("Station Bill")
liferaft
Choice C
Choice D
taking no action as there

is no way of preserving
power
taking no action as there
is no way of preserving
power
taking no action as they

shut off automatically in
daylight
Illus
removing the batteries

during the daylight
saved to be used at a later

used to boil food
time
B
B
B
saved to be used at a later

used to boil food
time
on the Certificate of
Inspection
Ans
in the Operations Manual
10 SF-0043
4 SF-0029
lifelines
frapping lines
tricing lines
forward of lifeboat No. 4

forward of lifeboat No. 4

on the port side
aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the

all of the above
starboard side
on the port side
aft of the forward lifeboat

on the port side
aft of the forward lifeboat

48 months
42 months
36 months
12 months
tripping lines
B
B
B
B
Ration food and water
supplies.
Search for survivors.
Determine position and

closest point of land.
Check pyrotechnic
supplies.
Ration food and water

supplies
Search for survivors
Determine position and

closest point of land
Check pyrotechnic
supplies
applied by dropping the

counterweighted lever
controlled by the
centrifugal brake
mechanism
automatically engaged if
lowering speed is
excessive
manually disengaged
The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.
when hoisting a boat
106
B
B
B

ABS
294311
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
the gripes should be

released after the boat is
moving
the davits should always

be hand cranked the last
12 inches into the final
stowed position
the boats are generally

the tricing pendant should
lowered by surging the
be tripped prior to
falls around cruciform bits releasing the gripes
When operating gravity davits, __________.
294311
When using the hand crank to retrieve and stow a

Make certain the hand
lifeboat on gravity davits, which of the listed
brake is disengaged.
precaution should always be observed?
Put the emergency

disconnect switch in the
'off' position.
Make certain the crank is Disconnect the limit

in the locked position.
switch.
294312
After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit

heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks hoist man
until the movement is stopped by the __________.
limit switch
brake handle
It is important to test lifeboat davit limit switches on damage to the winch

a regular basis to prevent _________.
motor
the possibility of the davit

wires parting when the
damage to the releasing
lifeboat is being retrieved gear
and stowed in its davit
the lifeboat from being

lowered at an unsafe
speed
removal of drain plugs

replacement of limit
from electrical enclosures switches
disconnecting emergency
switches
294312
294312
294315
294318
294322
294325
294325
10
The required periodic inspection of MODU lifeboat removal of electrical

winch control apparatus must include __________. enclosure covers
A right-handed propeller will cause the survival

craft to __________.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the

Provides combustion air
pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat? for the diesel engine.
Pressurizes the water

spray system.
To activate an air regeneration canister on a

survival craft, you __________.
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch
operator should stop the winch and check
__________.
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch
operator should stop the winch and check
__________.
After being launched from a MODU, a totally
enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over
a long period of time, requires __________.
After being launched from an OSV, a totally
enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over
a long period of time, requires __________.
tear off the tabs on the

canister
that the cable has not
jumped any grooves on
the drum
that the cable has not
jumped any grooves on
the drum
1
3
5
294327
294327
294327
294329
294329
294332
walk the stern to starboard walk the stern to port in

in reverse
reverse
that all personnel are

seated in the craft
that all personnel are
seated in the craft
B
B
preventer bar
frequent opening of
hatches to permit entry of
fresh air
frequent opening of
hatches to permit entry of
fresh air
run faster than a lefthanded propeller
right the survival craft if

capsized
Prevents smoke and other
Provides air for passenger
noxious fumes from
respiration.
entering craft.
turn it upside down
push 'on' button
which way the wind is

blowing
the hydraulic fluid level

before lifting
which way the wind is

blowing
the hydraulic fluid level

before lifting
frequent flushing of the

regular checks of bilge
use of ear plugs to
water spray system with
levels
dampen engine noise
fresh water
frequent flushing of the
regular checks of bilge
use of ear plugs to
water spray system with
levels
dampen engine noise
fresh water
the small lever to release
the cap should be
the cage must be free of there is an automatic ball
In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate
the rubber ball float must
removed to drain the boat rubbish or the ball may not check located in a siphon
properly __________.
be turned
when it is waterborne
seat properly
tube
counterclockwise
Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted
Hatches
Releasing gear lever
Boat hooks
Compass
bright red?
Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted
Buoyancy tanks
Releasing gear lever
Boat hooks
Oars
bright red?
With the sprinkler system and air system on, and
a fire and toxic
a drop greater than ten
all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected a nuclear environment
a hurricane
environment
feet
from __________.
Ans
put it into an container of

water
Illus
107
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
294336
294336
VER Question
2
294336
294340
294340
294406
294407
294408
294414
294419
294424
295000
295000
295000
295000
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel,

water should be given only to personnel who are
__________.
When should food or water be provided to
survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a
liferaft or lifeboat. How much water per day should
you permit each person after the first 24 hours?
Provided every effort is used to preserve body
moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how
long is it normally possible to survive in a survival
craft without stored quantities of water?
Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as
preserve body moisture content by avoiding
perspiration, how long is it normally possible to
survive without stored quantities of water?
You are wearing a self-contained breathing
apparatus while fighting a fire in an enclosed
space. If sudden strong resistance to breathing is
experienced, your first action should be to
__________.
Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the
wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide
oxygen to sustain life?
To safely enter a closed compartment, where CO2
has been released from a fixed extinguishing
system, you should __________.
While donning the positive-pressure selfcontained breathing apparatus, you discover that
the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator
pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi.
Which of the listed action should you consider as
appropriate?
A MODU must have a self-contained breathing
apparatus to be used as protection from gas
leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this
requirement, you may use __________.
Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in

a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed
10
on the __________.
In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned,
2
you should look at the __________.
In order to find out which liferaft you are assigned,
14
you should look on the __________.
Where would you look to find out what your duties
3
are during a fire?
1
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
thirsty
sick or injured
wet
awake
After 48 hours
Some food and water

should be consumed
immediately and then not
until 48 hours later
After 12 hours
After 24 hours
Illus
Ans
1 can
1 pint
1 quart
1 gallon
Up to 3 days
Up to 14 days
Up to 25 days
Up to 35 days
B
B
B
Up to 3 days
8 to 14 days
15 to 20 days
25 to 30 days
B
give two or three strong
take a deep breath and
exhalations to increase
remove your apparatus for
the flow through the
adjustment
apparatus
tug twice on your lifeline

and slow your breathing
until help arrives
retreat immediately to
outside air
A fresh air breathing

apparatus
A self-contained breathing
An ammonia gas mask
apparatus
All of the above
test the air with an Orsat

apparatus
wear a self- contained

breathing apparatus
wear a canister type gas

mask
test the air with an

explosimeter
20 PSI
200 PSI
1000 PSI
2000 PSI
B
B
B
B
a gas mask certified by
the Mine Safety and
Health Administration
Wet handkerchief
an oxygen breathing
the same self- contained
apparatus, provided that
breathing apparatus
the device has been
required with the fireman's
inspected within three
outfit
years
Self-contained breathing
Canister type mask
apparatus
Dust or gas mask
forecastle card
ship's articles
muster list
Muster List ("Station Bill") Ship's Articles
Fire Control Plan
Muster List ("Station Bill") Ship's Articles
Fire Control Plan
Ship's articles
U.S. Coast Guard

Regulations
108
bunk card
a portable ventilation
system that will provide a
complete change of air
every three minutes

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Muster List ("Station Bill") vessel's logbook
vessel's documentation

ship)
295000
You can find the location of your abandon ship

post by checking the __________.
295001
Seven short blasts and one long blast of the ship's

whistle and the same signal on the general alarm fire or emergency
bell is sounded, this signal indicates __________.
295001
295001
295001
295002
295002
295002
295002
295002
295003
295003
The signal for abandon ship is __________.
three short blasts on the

whistle or three rings on
the general alarm
Choice C
man overboard
Choice D
More than six short blasts

and one long blast of the
whistle, along with the
same signal on the
general alarm bells.
Steady rapid ringing of the

ship's bell for at least 10
seconds, along with the
same signal on the
Less than five short blasts

same signal on the
Three short blasts of the

Which of the following emergency signals are used whistle along with the
to report for boat stations or boat drills?
same signal on the

same signal on the
Steady rapid ringing of the

ship's bell for at least 10
seconds, along with the
same signal on the
Less than five short blasts

same signal on the
1 short blast of the ship's

whistle
1 short blast of the ships
whistle
3 long blasts of the ship's

whistle
3 long blasts of the ships
whistle
1 long blast of the ship's

whistle
1 long blast of the ships
whistle
raise all boats
drill is over, secure all

boats
3 short blasts of the ship's

whistle
3 short blasts of the ships
whistle
use the float-free method

lower all boats
only
abandon ship
abandon ship
boat station
fire station
collision station
man overboard station
B
B
B
B
B
B
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a

period of not less than 10 seconds; supplemented
go to your lifeboat station go to your fire station
by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells
for the same time period, you should __________.
Ans
more than six short blasts

and one long blast on the rapid ringing of the ship's four long blasts on the
whistle and the same
bell and general alarm for whistle and the same on
signal on the general
at least 10 seconds
the general alarm
alarm

Which of the following emergency signals are used whistle along with the
to report for boat stations or boat drills?
same signal on the
The signal given to commence lowering the

lifeboats is __________.
The traditional signal to commence lowering
lifeboats and liferafts is __________.
When whistle signals are used as commands for
launching the lifeboats, one short blast means
__________.
While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal
consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This
indicates __________.
While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal
consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This
indicates __________.
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a
period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented
by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells
for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to
your __________.
Illus
109
standby for collision
proceed to your man

overboard muster station

ABS
295003
295003
295003
295003
295003
295004
295006
295006
VER Question
The fire alarm signal onboard United States flag
merchant vessels is a continuous blast of the
whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
8 supplemented by the continuous ringing of the
general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Where can this information be readily found
aboard ship?
The fire alarm signal onboard United States flag
merchant vessels is a continuous blast of the
whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
12 supplemented by the continuous ringing of the
general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Where can this information be readily found
aboard ship?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
SOLAS Safety
Construction Certificate
Fire Alarm Zone Chart
SOLAS Safety
Construction Certificate
Continuous blast of the

ship's whistle for a period
of not less than 10
and one long blast on the
seconds supplemented by
whistle.
the same signal on the
general alarm.

whistle supplemented by
general alarm.
Which of the following represents the emergency

signal for fire aboard ship?

of not less than 10
whistle.
general alarm.

general alarm.
The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is

__________.
the continuous blast of the

ships whistle for not less
than 10 seconds
an intermittent ringing of
a 30 second on 30 second
supplemented by the
the general alarm for not
off alternating signal
continuous ringing of the less than ten seconds
general alarm bells for not
less than 10 seconds
During an emergency drill on a vessel, you hear

"three (3) short blasts on the whistle and three (3)
short rings on the general alarm bells". This is the
signal is for __________.
When you hear three short blasts on the ship's
whistle and the same signal on the general alarm
bells, you __________.
Ans
Fire Alarm Zone Chart
B
general alarm.
Which of the following represents the emergency

signal for fire aboard ship?
Illus

of not less than 10
whistle.
general alarm.
Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard a vessel is

10
__________.
abandon ship
dismissal from fire and

emergency stations
are required to be at your

are dismissed from drills
liferaft
110
fire and emergency

general alarm.

general alarm.

general alarm.
announced over the PA

system
B
man overboard
B
should point to the man
overboard
should start the fire pump

ABS
VER Question
295006
295006
295006
295011
295012
295101
295105
295200
295202
295511
295512
1
1

bells, you __________.
bells, you __________.
While reading the muster list, you see that 'three
short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same
signal on the general alarm bells' is the signal for
__________.
At the required fire drill conducted aboard a
MODU, all persons must report to their stations
and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties
assigned to them __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) states that
duties assigned to the crew by the Muster List
("Station Bill") will __________.
You are replacing a section of heavy piping on
deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of
the following precautions should be taken to
prevent personal injury?
One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly
painted compartment where there are an
excessive amount of paint fumes, is to
__________.
Survival practice in the MODU mooring system is
to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and
__________.
On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes
which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?
When should food and water be provided to
survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
are required to go to your

liferaft

overboard
are required to go to your

liferaft

overboard
abandon ship
fire and emergency
man overboard
by the tool pusher
in the Muster List ("Station by the person conducting at the previous safety
Bill")
the drill
meeting
be given on a bid basis
be comparable with their

regular work
not exceed regular hours
be overtime duties
Place an old mattress

Position several men
Attach lines to the ends of
under the hoist to prevent Have a first aid kit at the
under the pipe so they can the pipe and have your
the load from hitting the
job site.
catch it if it falls.
helpers steady the load.
deck.
wear a breathing
apparatus while working
keep a charged fire hose

handy
adjust as evenly as
deballast the unit to transit
practical the windward
draft
tensions
release the anchors on

the windward side
tighten the anchor buoys

on the leeward side
anchors
Over speed trip.
Water injector.
Fuel cutoff valve.
After 24 hours
After 48 hours
Some food and water

immediately and then not
until 48 hours later
sick or injured
wet
awake
take shallow breaths of air ventilate the area
After 12 hours
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel,

water should be given only to personnel who are thirsty
__________.
Artificial resuscitation to an adult should be
4 to 6 times per minute
administered __________.
When artificial respiration is being given to an adult
that shows indications of having a pulse, it should 4 to 6 times per minute
be administered __________.
Air inlet shut off.
B
B
296000
296006
The most essential element in the administration of to have the proper

the speed of treatment
CPR is __________.
the administration of
oxygen
the treatment for traumatic

shock
296006
The most essential element in the administration of to have the proper

the speed of treatment
CPR is __________.
the administration of
oxygen
the treatment for traumatic

shock
When administering artificial respiration, it is of the use the mouth-to- mouth

utmost importance to __________.
method
use rhythmic pressure

method
know all approved

methods
12 to 15 times per minute 20 to 30 times per minute
clear airways
111
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
At least 30 times per

12 to 15 times per minute 20 to 30 times per minute
minute
Ans
296000
296006
Illus
At least 30 times per

minute
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
296006
When administering artificial respiration, it is of the use the mouth-to mouth

utmost importance to __________.
method
clear airways
use rhythmic pressure

method
know all approved

methods
296009
The necessity for administering artificial respiration

vomiting
may be recognized by the victim's __________.
blue color and lack of

breathing
irregular breathing
unconscious condition
296009
The necessity for administering artificial respiration

vomiting
may be recognized by the victim's __________.
blue color and lack of

breathing
irregular breathing
unconscious condition
A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding

only __________.
As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to
__________.
A person has suffered a laceration of the arm.
Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a
sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the
following actions should be taken next?
when all other means

have failed
296100
296100
296104
296106
296108
296201
296203
296301
296303
296304
296400
296401
296404
296405
when the victim is

with puncture wounds
unconscious
hold a large bandage in
hold a victim in a stretcher stop uncontrolled bleeding
place
Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled

by __________.
If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you
should __________.
Unless there is danger of further injury, a person
with a broken bone should not be moved until
bleeding is controlled and __________.
Which of the following treatments is used for
traumatic shock?
heavy application of a
disinfectant
apply a tourniquet without
delay
pouring ice water directly

into the wound
alternately apply hot and
cold compresses
the bone has been set
radio advice has been

obtained
the wound has been

washed
Open clothing to allow

cooling of the body
avoid self-inflicted wounds
caused by spastic
movement
Keep the victim in a sitting

position
protect the person from
injury during
transportation
When treating a person for shock, you should wrap

decrease body heat
the victim in warm coverings to __________.
If there is no head injury, extreme physical
discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in
shock should be placed in which of the positions
listed?
A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm.
There is extensive damage to the skin with
charring present. This is an example of what kind
of burn?
Surface burns should first be treated by
__________.
The FIRST action in the treatment of a person
suspected of having airway burns is to
__________.
The most effective first aid treatment for chemical
burns is to immediately __________.
preserve present body

heat
Flat on back with feet
raised 12 to 18 inches
Flat on back with head

Arms above the head
and feet at the same level
Dermal burn
Third degree burn
Second degree burn
washing the area with a

warm soap and water
solution
flooding, bathing, or
covering the area with
immersing the area in cool talcum power and
water
bandaging tightly
move him to a cool

location
confirm and maintain an

open airway
apply cool damp dressing

have him drink cool liquids
to his neck
apply ointment to burned

area
flood the affected area

with water
wrap the burn with sterile apply an ice pack to the

dressing
burned area
Head up and feet down
applying direct pressure to

pinching the wound closed
the wound
prevent further movement
attempt to set the fracture
of the bone
Administer fluids
restrain a delirious victim
apply a hot towel to purge

the wound, then medicate
and cover it
the fracture is immobilized
apply an ice pack to the

wound and cover it when
the bleeding stops
Administer CPR
stop the bleeding, clean,

medicate, and cover the
wound
Ans
to prevent bleeding from

minor wounds
Apply a tourniquet to
Remove any small foreign Administer fluids to assist
Apply a pressure bandage
prevent the bleeding from
matter and apply
the body in replacing the
over the dressing.
restarting.
antiseptic.
lost blood.
have the patient lie down

First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds
and cover the wound
when the bleeding stops
Illus
B
B
B
B
B
B
Lethal burn
112
leaving them exposed to

the atmosphere
B
B
B

ABS
296408
296500
296600
296600
296603
296603
296605
VER Question
If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling
a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with
__________.
Since electrical burn victims have been subjected
2 to electric shock, the FIRST medical response is to
check for __________.
Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive
5
__________.
Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive
10
__________.
A crew member suffering from generalized
3
hypothermia should be given __________.
A crew member suffering from generalized
6
hypothermia should be given __________.
1
296605
296701
296701

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
boric acid solution
water
baking soda solution
ammonia
location of burns
bleeding injuries
indication of broken bones breathing and heartbeat
a large meal
a brisk rub down
a small dose of alcohol
treatment for shock
a large meal
a brisk rub down
Temperature falls below

Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun normal, pulse is rapid and
stroke?
feeble, and skin is cold
and clammy.
Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun normal, pulse is rapid and
stroke?
feeble, and skin is cold
and clammy.
If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is
soda crackers and water
conscious, he should be given __________.
If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is
soda crackers and water
conscious, he should be given __________.
296704
While providing assistance to a victim of an

epileptic seizure, it is most important to
__________.
move a patient to a
comfortable bed
296705
Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in

the abdomen located in the __________.
lower left side
Temperature is high, pulse Temperature is high, pulse Temperature falls below

is strong and rapid, and
is slow and feeble, and
normal, pulse is rapid, and
skin is hot and dry.
skin is clammy.
skin is clammy.
Temperature is high, pulse Temperature is high, pulse Temperature falls below
is strong and rapid, and
is slow and feeble, and
normal, pulse is rapid, and
skin is hot and dry.
skin is clammy.
skin is clammy.
orange juice or a candy
bar
orange juice or a candy
bar
muscular convulsions with
partial or complete loss of
consciousness
296710
Beginning at the back of

Which of the following procedures can be used for the neck, and proceeding
checking for spinal cord damage to an
to the buttocks, press the
unconscious patient?
spine to find where it
hurts.
296713
The sorting of accident victims according to the

severity of their injuries is called __________.
evaluation
B
B
a cup of warm tea
a glass of milk
upper left side
upper right side
reddening of skin and

hives
providing enough fluids to

prevent dehydration
Prick the skin of the hands

and the soles of the feet
with a sharp object to
check for reaction.
Selectively raise each arm

and each leg and watch
patient's face to see if he
registers pain.
Roll patient onto his

stomach and prick along
the length of his spine to
check reaction.
triage
surveying
prioritizing
113
a glass of milk
severe agitation and

sudden thirst and craving
desire to get out of close
for candy
spaces
keep the patient awake
get professional medical
remove any soiled
and make him walk if
advice for further medical
clothing and put the
necessary to keep him
care
patient in a clean bed
awake
lower right side
an ounce of whiskey
stomach cramps and

Symptoms of seasickness include __________.
fever and thirst
nausea and dizziness
diarrhea
relieving the patient's pain avoiding possible injury to preventing convulsions
The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient
by giving aspirin or
the spinal cord by
and muscle spasms
is __________.
stronger medication
incorrect handling
caused by the injury
treatment for shock
loss of body temperature
severe nausea and

cramps
loss of body temperature
Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder

characterized by __________.
296709
Ans
intake of water when

working or exercising
intake of water when
working or exercising
Illus
loss of water and salt from

gain in body temperature
the body
loss of water and salt from
gain in body temperature
the body
296703
296708
B
B

ABS
296714
296716
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, provide the necessary

the rescuer must be able to __________.
medication
rapidly evaluate the

seriousness of obvious
injuries
accurately diagnose the

ailment or injury
prescribe treatment for the

victim
If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life

threatening situation, the person giving first aid
must __________.
pull the victim by the feet
avoid subjecting the victim

to any unnecessary
disturbance during
movement
not move the victim to a

another location until all
injuries have been
assessed
place the victim on a

stretcher before
attempting removal
Illus
Ans
296800
Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
promote healing
prevent infection
reduce inflammation
increase blood circulation
296800
Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
speed healing
prevent infection
reduce inflammation
increase blood circulation
296904
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a

liferaft. How much water per day should you permit 1 can
each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
1 pint
1 quart
1 gallon
296905
297001
297002
297100
297102
297103
1
1
When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the

vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first
step is to __________.
remove the person from

shutdown electrical power flush water over any
the vicinity of the electrical
in the area
burned area of the victim
equipment or wiring
Which of the following is classified as a grade "E"

Benzene
combustible liquid?
flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8
A
1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80F or below,
is a grade __________.
apply ointment to the

burned area of the victim
Bunker "C"
Very light naphtha
Most commercial gasoline
B
B
B
there is no possible
an ethylene oxide spill
ethylene oxide
always results in an
concentration in air which
explosion
is too rich to burn
a 2.0% concentration of
ethylene oxide in air would
give a reading of 2.0% on
a combustible gas
indicator
0% to 1% by volume
1% to 6% by volume
6% to 12% by volume
12% to 20% by volume
diesel engine cylinder
cargo tank during

Butterworthing
fuel tank vent outlet
flash evaporator flash

chamber
there is no possible
Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0%
ethylene oxide
and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in
concentration in air which
air. This means __________.
is too lean to burn
The explosive range of petroleum vapors when
mixed with air is __________.
An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a
__________.
Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading

static electricity could be
excessive fuel vapors will
liquid through an open hatch or manhole because
generated by fuel falling
be released
__________.
through vapor- laden air
spillage of fuel could occur water contamination of the

with an open hatch
fuel could occur
297103
When handling petroleum products, static

electricity is generated by moving machinery and
__________.
a grounded person
the flowing petroleum

liquids
stray electric currents
a short circuit
297103
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist"

on a tanker?
In a common vent header In a cargo tank during

during tank ballasting.
"Butterworthing".
In a cargo tank during

inerting operations.
In the overflow line while

topping off.
flammable liquid
combustible liquid
coal base oil
synthetic base oil
lighter than air
heavier than air
odorless
nontoxic
297103
297104
297105
Any liquid with a flash point above 80F is a

__________.
The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are
flammable, explosive, and __________.
114
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question
297105
297106
297109
297111
297112
297112
297117
297117
297117
297118
297119
297204
297254
297302
297309
297314
The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier

than air and are __________.
As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil
stored in a tank will __________.
The highest concentration of a harmful substance
to which a person may be exposed without danger
to health, is termed the __________.
By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is
__________.
Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low
volatility, but the fumes will self-ignite and continue
to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the
__________.
If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are
considered to be within the flammable range
__________.
A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is
too __________.
The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of
flammable vapors and air, is defined as
__________.
Which of the following conditions is true
concerning flammable liquid vapors with a
concentration above the upper explosive limit?
Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest
potential for an explosion?
The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
odorless
explosive
nontoxic
visible
remain the same
increase
decrease
none of the above
odor threshold
threshold limit value
vapor pressure
tolerance point
kerosene
gasoline
caustic potash
animal and vegetable oils
flash point
ignition point
volatility point
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
an explosion may occur if
the vapor air mixture is too
the vapor air mixture is too the upper explosive limit
a source of ignition is
rich to burn
lean to burn
has been exceeded
present
rich to burn
lean to burn
cool to burn
dense to burn
the concentration above

the concentration above
which just enough
which the mixture is too
flammable vapor exists to
rich to burn
produce an explosion
the percentage of
the percentage of oxygen
flammable vapor by
present in the air sufficient
volume in the air sufficient
to support combustion
to create an explosion
The mixture is too lean to The mixture is too rich to

burn.
burn.
The vapor is about to

explode.
A partially filled tank of

A full tank of diesel oil
diesel oil
upper and lower
percentage of vapor
two temperatures between
concentrations in an
which an atmosphere will
atmosphere which will
self- ignite
burn if an ignition source
is present
calibrate the gas leak
inert the barrier spaces
detectors
A partially filled tank of

A full tank of lubricating oil
hydraulic oil
Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas

carriers to __________.
CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge
6 months
piping every __________.
When you have completed bunkering operations,
blown down with inert gas
the hoses should be __________.
"Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually
provided with a water supply from the
inert gas scrubber
__________.
Which of the following operations must be
personally supervised by the person- in-charge
when taking on fuel?
Conditions are perfect for

combustion.
upper and lower

pressures between which
an atmosphere will not
burn
two temperatures between

which an atmosphere will
burn if an ignition source
is present
odorize the cargo
detect leaks in cargo

piping
12 months
18 months
24 months
drained into drip pans or

tanks
stowed with their ends

open for venting
steam cleaned and

flushed with hot water
firemain
mucking supply system
potable water supply
Overboard disposal of all

waste oil or slops from
drip pans.
Sampling performed
periodically during loading
to ensure uniformity.
Posting of the Declaration

of Inspection in a
Topping off any tanks
conspicuous place under being loaded.
glass.
115
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
297314
297321
VER Question
297326
297332
297338
297339
297400
297403
297409
297503
297505
297507
297508
2
3
Which of the listed operations must be personally

supervised by the person-incharge while taking
on fuel?

Choice A
Choice B
Posting of the Declaration

of Inspection in a
Topping off of any tanks
conspicuous place under being loaded.
glass.

Choice C
Choice D
Disposing overboard all

waste oil or slops from
drip pans.
Periodic sampling during

the loading to ensure
uniformity.
The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly type of fuel transfer pump temperature of the fuel oil size of the fuel storage
related to the __________.
aboard
being received
tanks ashore
When using portable tank cleaning machines, the
hoses may be disconnected when __________.
Which of the listed cargo hoses presents the
greatest resistance to collapsing when operated
under vacuum?
Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil
washing system must be provided in order to avoid
one head being used during the tank washing
procedure more than __________.
the machine is inside the

tank
the machine is not inside

the tank
a sailor is standing by the the hose has been

machine
partially drained
Lightweight cargo hose
Rough bore cargo hose
Smooth bore cargo hose
All of the above
2 times
3 times
4 times
5 times
one meter
one and one-half meters
B
B
B
B
two meters
to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to

the bottom of the
98.5 % of the cargo tank 1 to 3 inches from the tank 1 to 3 inches from top of
expansion trunk
volume
top
the vent pipe
hose joints are made up
During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate

terminal operator
must be personally supervised by the __________.
After allowing for pressure losses, the pressurevolume capacity of an inert gas blower must be
able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, with
a minimum of __________.
Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be
fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual
warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas
exceeds __________.
Each inert gas system gas main must have an
automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas
production plant. This valve must close
automatically upon __________.
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas
system is related to the __________.
Ans
To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude

oil washing process, due to the presence of water
in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any
one-half meter
tank to be used as a source of crude oil for
washing must first reduce a portion of the tank
contents by a vertical height equal to __________.
According to 33 CFR Part 155, to prevent the
overflow of cargo tanks due to thermal expansion,
to what is the maximum level that cargo tanks are
allowed to be filled for topping-off purposes?
The most critical part of the bunkering operations,
which can result in an oil spill, is when the
__________.
distance from the fuel oil

storage tanks ashore
Illus
50 millimeters of water
tanks are being topped off system is being lined up
pumping operation is first

started
person-in-charge
master
chief engineer
B
B
B
B
4% by volume
8% by volume
12% by volume
16% by volume
B
cargo pump failure
blower failure
deck seal low water level
low inert gas temperature
shore side loading rate
maximum cargo pump

discharge rate
size of the largest cargo

boiler forced draft fan rate
tank
116

ABS
VER Question
297512
297513
297514
297514
297514
297515
297516
297517
297521
297524
297531
1
1
297600
297601
Which of the following methods is used to supply

inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo
tanks?
Each inert gas system must be equipped with the
following instruments: oxygen concentration
indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and
recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of
measurement for these instruments must be
located __________.
Which of the following represents the maximum
percent of oxygen, by volume, permitted to be
discharged by a ship's inert gas system when
operating properly?
percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be
achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the
commencement of crude oil tank washing?
percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be
achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the
commencement of crude oil tank washing?
Each tank ship having an inert gas system must
have portable instruments to measure
concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert
atmospheres. The ship must also carry
instruments that can measure concentrations of
_________.
The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas
system is to _________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Exhaust gas pressure
High capacity fan
Inert gas compressor
Natural aspiration
after the gas regulating

valve
downstream of the
blowers
scrubber outlet
upstream of the liquid

filled breaker
Explosive and flammable gases are most likely to

be encountered on a MODU __________.
Illus
Ans
B
less than 6%
less than 8%
less than 10%
less than 12%
B
6%
8%
10%
12%
B
6%
8%
10%
12%
nitrogen
oxygen
carbon dioxide
water vapor
generate a high oxygen

content gas
produce a gas of 100%

pure nitrogen
likely to over pressurize

the cargo tanks
likely to over heat the

deck water seal
the solvent effect of the

crude oil
a higher temperature
none of the above.
dirty ballast
segregated ballast
dedicated ballast
be stopped until the oil

can settle out, then
resumed at a slower
discharge rate
be completed only after

"load on top" has been
completed
Liquid muds may flood

adjoining spaces.
An oxygen-deficient
atmosphere may be
present.
B
produce 100% oxygen
free gas
Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________. highly recommended

Both crude oil washing and water washing use
direct impingement to remove residue from tanks.
Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in
utilizing __________.
When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and
ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is
referred to as _________.
When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering
the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the
oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the
deballasting must _________.
Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of
liquid mud handling areas presents which of the
possible listed hazards?
a higher pressure jet
clean ballast
supply conditioned gas

with reduced oxygen
content
undesirable and it may
lead to high oxygen
content of the inert gas
be completely discharged be terminated

in order to load
automatically
Toxic gasses may be

present.
Flammable gasses may

be present.
in machinery spaces
on the drill floor and liquid

in bulk storage tanks
mud handling areas
117
at any location
B
B
B

ABS
VER Question
297650
297663
297700
297702
297703
297703
297703
297703
297703
297705
297707
297708
297709

chemist's certificate issued to an offshore supply
vessel?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require
electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks,
to be battery powered and __________.
A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety
Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like
reaction in some people after repeated exposure is
__________.
A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can damage the
fetus during development is called a __________.
Data Sheet (MSDS) that can undergo a sudden
and violent release of pressure and heat is called
__________.
Data Sheet (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst
into flames when exposed to air at temperatures
below 130F (55.5C) with no ignition source
needed, is called __________.
The lowest temperature at which a liquid, listed on
a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off
enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an
ignition source is called its __________.
The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to
a gas is called its __________.
Which of the following terms is the minimum
temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off
sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the
presence of an ignition source?
A written document identifying chemical material,
listing its physical properties, describing health
hazards, required controls, correct procedures for
firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal,
and the safe handling and storage of the material,
is called an __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D

information
The tanks which were

safe to enter when the
The number of fire

extinguishers required to
be aboard

vessel's tanks
flame resistant
explosion proof
corrosion resistant
moisture proof
skin contact hazard
sensitizer
pyrophoric hazard
oxidizer
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
pyrophoric
teratogen
mutagen
cryogenic
combustible
explosive
flammable
toxic
B
explosive
pyrophoric
unstable
flammable
B
boiling point
flash point
viscosity point
toxic point
B
flash point
boiling point
condensation point
reactive point
Explosion point
Flash point
Fire point
Danger point
HCIS
MSDS
The physical data term on a Material Safety Data

Sheet (MSDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter solubility
or heavier than water is __________.
In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by
vapor on the walls of the container above the liquid storage pressure
surface is called __________.
PELS
PPES
If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Paints or coatings that are The name of each
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?
safe to use with it.
hazardous ingredient.
Other similar mixtures of

liquids, solids or gases.
None of the above.
specific gravity
viscosity
flotation point
vapor pressure
over-pressure
reactive pressure
118
B
B
B

ABS
298000
298000
VER Question
1
298000
298001
298006
298007
298009
298011
298011
298015
298017
298018
298020
298027

CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in
an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is
__________.
Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum
number of bolts required in a temporarily
connected standard ANSI coupling?
The minimum number of bolts necessary for a
standard ANSI oil transfer hose temporary flange
coupling (eight bolt hole flange) is __________.
According to 33 CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over
400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard
discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle
diameter is required for this shore connection to
transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception
facility?
To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when
ballasting through the cargo piping system, you
should FIRST __________.
An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated
oil found in the pump room bilges is to
__________.
Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be
discharged overboard without being processed
through an oily water separator?
CFR), if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its
fabric, you may transfer oil after __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
three
four
six
nine
Ans
B
2 bolts
4 bolts
6 bolts
8 bolts
B
two bolts
four bolts
six bolts
eight bolts
125 mm
183 mm
215 mm
250 mm
B
open sea suction valves, start the cargo pump, then open block valves, then
then start the cargo pump open sea suction valves start the cargo pump
open sluice valves, then

start the cargo pump
transfer the oil to the sea

chest
pump the oil into the slop discharge the oil over the pump the oil into a clean
tanks
side on an outgoing tide ballast tank
Cargo tank ballast
Segregated ballast
Engine room bilges
Cargo pumproom bilges
the terminal foreman is

notified
the hose is replaced
the hose leak is securely

wrapped
a drip pan is placed under

the leak
If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be

stopped by tightening the coupling joint, you
should __________.
reduce the pumping

pressure to reduce the
leakage rate
spread absorbent material notify the local port

stop the fueling operation
on deck beneath the leak authority of a potential oil
and correct the leak
in order to confine it
spill
Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from

entering the water by __________.
Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude
oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded
as __________.
CFR), the maximum allowable working pressure
(MAWP) for each hose assembly used for
transferring oil must be __________.
keeping the drip pans

empty
plugging all scuppers and placing floating booms

drains
alongside the ship
closing ullage openings

between soundings
clean ballast
dirty ballast
crude oil
at least 600 psi (4.14

MPa)
more than the sum of the at least four times the sum more than the maximum
pressure of the relief valve for the pressure of the
pump pressure when a
setting
relief valve setting
relief valve is not installed
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 use one gallon portable

CFR), a vessel built in 1977 with a gross registered containers under tank
tonnage of 219 tons, must __________.
vents when fueling

prohibit draining __________.
Illus
use an automatic back

pressure shut off nozzle
when fueling
lube oil purifiers into the

waste oil into the slop tank
bilge
119
segregated ballast
use a fixed container or

enclosed deck area under fill fuel tanks forward of
or around each lube oil
the collision bulkhead first
tank vent when fueling
fuel oil heaters into
buckets
lube oil strainers into drip

pans
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
298031
298033
298035
298036
298037
298040
298044
298046
298100
298101
298109
VER Question
1
1

Choice A
Choice B
The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33

CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the
Port Authority
U.S. Coast Guard
__________.
foreign vessels not in U.S. U.S. Vessels 26 feet or
CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is
navigable waters
more in length
required on all __________.

Choice C
Choice D
Corps of Engineers
State Pollution Board
Foreign vessels when

engaged in
noncommercial service
U.S. vessels less than 26

feet in length
having undergone a major

having undergone a major
Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
for which the building
conversion for which the
conversion and has been
the delivery of which is on
only apply to "new ships." Under these regulations,
contract has been placed contract was placed
completed before
or after June 10, 1975
a new ship is a ship __________.
after December 31, 1975 between June 30, 1974
December 31, 1979
and December 31, 1975
Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by
__________.
draining it into the bilges
If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not

comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Inspector General
Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the
__________.
According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR
151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is
U.S. Coast Guard
not operated unless a waste management plan is
utilized?
the final discharge of
sewage treatment plants
discharging it to a
pumping or throwing it
dockside oil waste station over the side in port
dumping it in fuel storage

tanks
Captain of the Port
state pollution board
Vessel's Master
Vessel owner
any garbage that comes

from food or food
provisions
the resultant sludge that is

the final waste product of
collected after water
a manufacturing process
washing a boiler
B
B
B
B
Vessel operating company
A passenger vessel
equipped with a USCG
A crude oil tanker
approved system
engaged in the coastwise
designed to kill aquatic
trade.
organisms in ballast water.
Victual waste is __________.
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from

mandatory requirements on ballast water
United States Navy
management for control of non-indigenous species frigate.
in waters of the United States?
A vessel engaged in the

foreign export of Alaskan
North Slop Crude Oil.
The tanks used for oily waste on a new ocean

going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet
certain requirements for isolation between oil and 33 CFR 155.370(b)2
bilge systems. These requirements are set forth in
__________.
46 CFR 56.50-50(h)
According to 33 CFR Part 155, a 1500 gross ton

freight vessel, with a keel laid in 1969, must have a
self-closing scupper
fuel oil discharge containment for the fuel tank
drains
vents. This containment must consist of
__________.
portable containers of at
least 5 U.S. gallon
capacity
A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000

barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed
container, or enclosed deck area under or around
each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer
connection point. The capacity of these
containment areas is based upon __________.
inside transfer hose

diameter or loading arm
nominal pipe size
diameter
Ans
cargo oil service pressure
local port authority
Illus
33 CFR 151.23(a)2
46 CFR 74.15-10(b)
120
20 inch high coamings
number of cargo oil tank

vents, overflows and fill
pipe connections
a container with a capacity

of 3 barrels if it serves one
or more vents; each with
an inside diameter of 3
inches or more
all of the above

ABS
298200
298200
298201
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
wash down immediately

with a fire hose
wash down immediately

with an oil dispersing
solvent
If an oil spill occurs on deck, you should

__________.
cover the area with foam
cover the area with

absorbent material
When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill

occurs on deck, you should __________.
remove plugs from

scuppers and wash fuel
overboard with water
remove plugs from

use absorbent material,
scuppers to allow the spill
such as sawdust, to clean
to run overboard and wipe
up the spill
the area dry with rags
remove plugs from

scuppers and wash the
fuel overboard with a
solvent
The most common type of containment device for

spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.
straw
booms
chemical dispersants
skimmers
298208
If 1/4 liter of oil is spilled during fueling and causes must be reported to the
a sheen upon the water, it __________.
fire department
must be reported to the

Coast Guard

harbormaster
298208
If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a must be reported to the
sheen upon the water it __________.
fire department

Coast Guard

harbormaster
298301
298306
298400
298550
298556
298570
298602
While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the

transfer hose has developed a large bulge. Which
of the following actions should be taken, according
to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), if you are
the person-in-charge?
You are taking on fuel when you notice oil in the
water around your vessel. You should immediately
stop fueling and __________.
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,
any ship operating under the authority of the
United States which engages in coastwise or
international voyages is prohibited from
discharging any oil or oily mixture overboard while
in a "special area". The descriptions of the "special
areas" are designated in __________.
The International Oil Pollution Certificate required
by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the
__________.
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at
or above __________.
Wrap the bulge area with

Stop the transfer of fuel.
nylon line.
Ans
B
B
B
B
Report the incident to the Simply order new hose for

Coast Guard
the next fueling operation.
B
begin cleanup operation
notify the U.S. Coast

Guard
leave the area
notify the Army Corps of

Engineers
33 CFR 150
33 CFR 151
33 CFR 156
33 CFR 159
B
International Maritime
Organization
U.S. Coast Guard
American Bureau of
Shipping
Environmental Protection
Agency
100 gross registered tons 150 gross registered tons 300 gross registered tons 400 gross registered tons
Disinfected and
comminuted sewage from
an approved system may
be discharged into the
sea, if the vessel is more
than two nautical miles
from nearest land.

concerning the overboard discharge of vessel
sewage at sea?

bonding cables are
require that no person may transfer oil to or from a
installed on all tanks
vessel unless __________.
need not be reported

since the spill was less
then 1 barrel
need not be reported
since the spill was less
than 250 barrels
Illus
Disinfected and
comminuted sewage from
an approved system may
be discharged into the
sea, if the vessel is more
than three nautical miles
from nearest land.
Uncomminuted sewage
from an approved system
may be discharged into
the sea, if the vessel is
more than six nautical
miles from nearest land.
flange couplings are

properly bolted
scuppers and drains are

unplugged
121
B
B
Uncomminuted sewage
from an approved system
may be discharged into
the sea, if the vessel is
more than ten nautical
miles from nearest land.
B
an oil containment boom
is ready for immediate use

ABS
VER Question
298608
298621
298621
298623
298707
298721
298723
298901
298902
299001

(33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil
transfer may begin?
According to 33 CFR Part 156, no person may
serve as the person-incharge of oil transfer
operations on more than one vessel at a time
__________.
No person may serve as the person-incharge of
oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at
a time __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
The senior deck officer

present
The designated person-inThe captain of the port

charge
under any circumstances
unless authorized by the

Captain of the Port
unless radio
communication is set up
between the vessels
Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast

Operations) of the Oil Record Book?
A ship of 150 gross tons A non-tanker that carries

or above, other than an oil more than 200 cubic
tanker.
meters of oil in bulk.
unless the vessels are

moored clear of all docks
A ship of 200 gross tons

An oil tanker of 100 gross
or above, other than an oil
tons or above.
tanker.
discharging at an
instantaneous rate of oil
at anchor or stopped
content not exceeding 30
liters per nautical mile
According to Coast Guard regulations (CFR 33),

the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan must
include __________.
all information ordinarily

provided in the oil record
book
an explanation and
purpose of this plan
Which of the following is NOT a mandatory

requirement of the shipboard oil pollution
emergency plan?
reporting requirements
Which statement regarding garbage disposal is

correct?
Records for ground

garbage disposal are not
required when disposal
into the sea occurs more
than 25 miles offshore.
Any local Coast Guard

representative
unless radio
unless authorized by the
unless the vessels are
under any circumstances
communication is set up
Captain of the Port
moored clear of all docks
between the vessels
A 6" inside diameter
nonmetallic oil transfer
Each pressure gauge in
Each nonmetallic oil
hose having a small slash
Which of the following statements concerning oil
the system must indicate transfer hose, larger than
penetrating the hose
transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections a reading that is within 5% a 3" inside diameter must
All of the above.
reinforcement may remain
is true?
of the actual system
be inspected, and tested
in service if there is no
pressure.
annually.
visible internal
deterioration.
detailed listing of all
The sections of an Oil Record Book preceding the damage control plan for
list of machinery space
complete classification of organizations to call in the
log pages contain a __________.
isolating firemain valves operation items
hazardous materials
event of an accidental oil
spill
Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not

more than 12 nautical
discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo
tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless
land
the vessel is ________.
Choice D
is within "Special Areas"

defined in Regulation 1
(10) of Annex I to
MARPOL 73/78
a one-line schematic of
the plan to be
implemented
the operating instructions

for any and all oily-water
separators installed
aboard the vessel
diagrams
steps to control a
discharge
national and local

coordination
Discharging or transfer of
garbage while in port to a
shore facility must be
recorded.
Maintaining records for

the incineration of
garbage aboard ship is
not required.
The recording of garbage

disposal should include
the approximate weight.
122
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
B

ABS
299002
VER Question
299021
299100
299103
299108
299110
299150
299152

Choice A
the U.S. Coast Guard

When dumping garbage into the sea, other than in
must be notified for each
special areas, __________.
occurrence
Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management
33 CFR Part 110
Regulations can be found in __________.
On a rigid liferaft which is equipped with all the
required equipment you will NOT find a
bailer
__________.
A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of
survivors to hold on to while in the water would be life ring
correctly called a __________.
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and
their use?
Only a light layer of

clothing may be worn
underneath.
Choice B

Choice C
records must be provided

an entry into the official
and maintained for two
log book must be made
years
Choice D
no record is required if
dumping is carried out
more than 25 miles
offshore and there is no
included plastic material
33 CFR Part 151
46 CFR Part 35
46 CFR Part 56
bilge pump
first aid kit
painter
life float
inflatable liferaft
survival capsule
They provide sufficient

floatation to do away with They should be tight
the necessity of wearing a fitting.
life jacket.
A puncture in suit will not

appreciably reduce its
value.

provides protection to a
wearer swimming in
burning oil,
The suit provides a full

range of body movement
and is suitable for routine
wear on deck.
If you find an inflatable liferaft with the steel bands

still in place around its case, you should
double wrap with line
__________.
tell the Mate
remove the bands yourself
A sea anchor is __________.
a heavy metal anchor with a cone shaped bag used

a pad eye to which the
an extra long line used to to slow down the wind drift
sea anchor is made fast
anchor in deep water
effect
made of wood, if it is an
approved type
299152
When a sea anchor for survival craft is properly

rigged, it will __________.
completely stop the

prevent the survival craft
help to prevent broaching
survival craft from drifting
from pitching
prevent the survival craft

from rolling
299157
The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be

located __________.

bags
in a special pocket on the on a cord hanging from

exterior of the canopy
the canopy

kit
299170
You must insure that lifesaving equipment is

__________.
locked up
inaccessible to
passengers

vessel at all times
299171
The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can

be determined by __________.
examining the Certificate

of Inspection
examining the plate on the referring to the Muster List referring to the Shipping
outside of the container
("Station Bill")
Articles
299172
Information on the specification of a rescue boat

can be found by __________.
examining the certificate

of inspection
examining the nameplate referring to the Muster List referring to the shipping
on the transom
("Station Bill")
articles
299200
299300
For the purpose of training and drills, rescue boats

on an OSV should be launched if reasonable and once a week
practicable __________.
An approved signaling device required on
pistol
inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.
once a month
once a year
twice a year
orange smoke signal
air horn
lantern
123
Ans
B
B
B
The immersion suit

Not all models will
reduces the rate of body
cooling and increases the
unconscious person facesurvival time in cold water
up in the water.
to hours or days.
leave the bands in place
Illus
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
299352
299352
299355
299355
299355
299391
VER Question
The lubber's line of a magnetic compass
__________.
The lubber's line of a magnetic compass indicates
3
__________.
A vessel heading NE is on a course of
10
__________.
A vessel heading SE is on a course of
7
__________.
A vessel heading SW is on a course of
4
__________.
The breaking strength of the service lines of the
1 rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket
type line throwing appliances is __________.
2

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
indicates the vessel's

heading
the direction of the
vessel's head
is always parallel to the

vessel's transom
is located on the compass

card
a relative bearing taken
with an azimuth circle
022.5
045.0
067.5
090.0
112.5
135.0
157.5
180.0
202.5
225.0
247.5
270.5
300 lbs
500 lbs
1000 lbs
1500 lbs
Shipyard personnel
A certified lifeboatman
Shipyard personnel
five knots
ten knots
always shows true north

compass north
An approved servicing
facility
facility
magnetic north
299401
Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
The Chief Mate
299401
Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
The person in Charge
The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line

strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded
liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
one knot
What is NOT requirement for testing the line

throwing appliance on a vessel?
A regular service line

The appliance should be
should be used when
tested every three months
testing
An entry about the test

A regular projectile should
must be made in the
be used when testing
Official Log Book
36 feet
50 feet
100 feet
300 feet
The chief mate
facility
Shipyard personnel
six months
twelve months
eighteen months
twenty-four months
boric acid solution
water
baking soda solution
ammonia
299404
299405
299406
299410
299412
299413
299458
299461
299462
299466
299469
2
2
The painter of an inflatable liferaft must have a

minimum length of __________.
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean
service is required by regulation to carry
__________.
When scheduled service is required on an
inflatable liferaft, who should perform the tests and
inspections?
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and
inspected at a USCG approved servicing facility
every __________.
A person who gets battery acid in an eye should
IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.
two knots
While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic

give artificial respiration
seizure, it is most important to __________.
prevent patient from

hurting himself
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops

breathing. You must __________.
immediately check his

pulse and start CPR
What are the symptoms of sunstroke?

Symptoms of seasickness include __________.
administer oxygen
keep the patient awake

remove any soiled
and make him/her walk if
clothing and put the
necessary to keep him/her
patient in a clean bed
awake
immediately give a
make the victim
necessary

Temperature is high, pulse Temperature is high, pulse
normal, pulse is rapid and
is strong and rapid, skin is is slow and feeble, skin is
feeble, skin is cold and
hot and dry.
clammy.
clammy.
stomach cramps and
fever and thirst
nausea and dizziness
diarrhea
124

normal, pulse is rapid,
skin is clammy.
reddening of skin and
hives
Illus
Ans
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B

ABS
299471
299471
299474
299476
299504
299507
299509
299510
299511
299512
290051
290051
290051
290053
290054
290055
290100
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
relieving the patient's pain avoiding possible injury to preventing convulsions

The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient
by giving aspirin or
the spinal cord by
and muscle spasms
is __________.
stronger medication
incorrect handling
caused by pain
providing enough fluids to

prevent dehydration
Beginning at the back of

the neck, and proceeding
What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord
to the buttocks, press the
damage in an unconscious patient?
spine to find out where it
hurts
Selectively raise each arm

and each leg and watch
patient's face to see if he
resisters pain
Roll patient onto his

stomach and prick along
the length of hos spine to
check reaction
Give them brandy or other

Which procedure should be followed when
alcoholic stimulation to
Move them to a warm
individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer promote a return to an
room to gradually raise
from hypothermia?
acceptable body
their body temperature.
temperature.
Keep them moving to

stimulate circulation to
raise their body
temperature.
Warm them under an

electric blanket to rapidly
regain normal body
temperature.
Prick the skin of the hands

and the soles of the feet
with a sharp object to
check for reaction
A crew member suffering from hypothermia should

1
treatment for shock
a large meal
a brisk rub down
be given __________.
In the illustration shown, the righting strap is shown
1
8
9
12
16
as item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is
1
3
4
9
11
indicated as item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the external lifelines are
1
1
12
15
21
shown as item number __________.
As shown in the illustration, item #8 would be a(n)
rain water catchment tube
1
recognition light
pressure relief valve
floating sheath knife
__________.
assembly
In the illustration shown, the CO2 tripping lanyard
1
12
15
17
18
is item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the weak link is item
1
7
17
19
23
__________.
oil soaked rags are
Hazardous conditions exist which may result in
powdered aluminum is
dry metal turnings
1
stowed in the machine
all of the above
spontaneous combustion when __________.
stowed dry
accumulate
shop
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in
overloaded electrical
dirty swabs and cleaning
8
rags soaked in linseed oil
partially loaded fuel tanks
__________.
circuits
gear
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in
overloaded electrical
wet swabs and cleaning
10
oil soaked rags
partially loaded fuel tanks
__________.
circuits
gear
The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat,
Any one component can Any two components must Any three components
All four components must
oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the
2
be eliminated to
be eliminated to properly must be eliminated to
be eliminated to
following statements best describes what must be
extinguish a fire.
extinguish a fire.
properly extinguish a fire. extinguish any fire.
eliminated to extinguish a fire?
Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the
3
Chain reaction
Thermal action
Chemical occlusion
Pyrotechnical reaction
following is necessary for a fire to exist?
Except in rare cases, the most difficult condition to
interrupting the chain
2 modify when fighting an oil fire in the engine room removing the fuel
removing the heat
removing the oxygen
reaction
bilge would be __________.
The heat generated by a compartment that is on
fire can be transferred through a metal bulkhead or
6
conduction
radiation
convection
absorption
deck. This process describes heat transfer by
____________.
125
Illus
Ans
B
B
SF-0042
SF-0042
SF-0042
SF-0042
SF-0042
SF-0042
B
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
290100
VER Question
2
290100
290101
290107
290108
290202
290202
290202
290206
290219
The heat generated by a fire can be transferred

through a bulkhead or deck, as a direct result of
__________.
To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you
should __________.
Fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through
the process of __________.
In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry
chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed
extinguishing systems are automatically activated
through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring
and a __________.
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower
must be closed to prevent the spread of fire
by____________.
A tank which has been sealed for a long period of
time can be dangerous because __________.
If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended
period, it will be unsafe to enter the steam and
water drum immediately after it has been opened,
as there may be __________.
Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should
ensure that __________.
Hydrogen sulfide gas has an odor of "rotten eggs"
and can be extremely toxic and dangerous when
above threshold limit values because ________.
If hydrogen sulfide exposure is anticipated, fixed
monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a
low level concentration alarm to alert personnel
when concentrations of this gas first reach a
maximum of __________.
If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free
space, which of the following actions would be the
most hazardous to perform?

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
conduction
radiation
convection
advection
convection
conduction
radiation
direct contact
fusible link
stack switch
thermostat
pyrostat
A
convection
conduction
steel surfaces consume

oxygen by rusting
moisture condenses in the most tank coatings give

sealed tanks usually form
tank, displacing the
off poisonous vapors in
a vacuum
oxygen
the presence of moisture
insufficient oxygen to
support life
a heavy concentration of
sewer gas
excessive carbon dioxide toxic gases from organic

in the drum
decomposition
the forced ventilating

system is operating
it will paralyze the
respiratory system and
cause suffocation
the cargo pumps are

secured
a suitable gas mask is

available
it is lighter than air
it is an extremely inert gas all of the above
10 ppm
20 ppm
30 ppm
Opening switches in the

space to de- energize
circuits.
Watertight doors which
are in the drill area shall
be operated.
Closing switches adjacent

Leaving electrical circuits
to the space to operate
energized in the space.
vent fans.
All fire pumps shall be
All lifeboat equipment
started and all exterior
shall be examined.
outlets opened.
The fixed CO2 system
The boiler fires should be
should be initiated into
secured.
action.
radiation
ventilation
the oily water separator is

de- energized
A
A
A
40 ppm
Which of the following events shall be conducted

during a fire and boat drill?
290307
Which of the following actions should be taken by

the engine room watch when the general alarm is
sounded continuously?
The fire pump should be

started.
290307
Which of the following statements represents the

10 correct action to take when three crew members
discover a fire?
One man report the fire,

and the other two men
fight the fire.
A
A
290306
Ans
shut off all electric power
290400
Illus
cool the bulkheads around remove combustibles from close all openings to the
the fire
direct exposure
area
290303
Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited

__________.
at all times
Securing all power to the

space from a remote
location.
All of the above.
The engine room
ventilation should be
secured.

one man fight the fire, and
one man evacuate and
secure the area.

All three men fight the fire
one man fight the fire, and
and report it immediately
one man act as a safety
after it is extinguished.
observer.
during evening hours
unless another person is

present
126
during drilling operations
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
290401
VER Question
2
290401
290404
290405
290406
290407
290503
290503
290504
290550
290600
290600
290606
290606
290611
290618
During a fire drill on a MODU, which of the

following actions is required to be carried out?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Each fire pump is to be

started.
The lifeboat is to be
launched and operated.
An inventory of rescue
An inspection and
and fire equipment is to be inventory of fire hoses is
taken.
to be made.
Illus
On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once

week
month
crew change
other week
every __________.
What is the minimum required number of fire axes
that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling
2
3
4
5
unit?
Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked
an arrow pointing to the
the letter "E"
a no smoking symbol
the word 'DANGER'
with __________.
nearest exit
In the case of an injury, causing a person to be
the nearest Marine Safety
incapacitated for more than 72 hours, the master
the American Bureau of
or Marine Inspection
the nearest hospital
the Department of Energy
or person- in- charge of a mobile offshore drilling
the Shipping
Office
unit must submit a report to __________.
The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a
on the Certificate of
on the Muster List
in the official logbook
in the Operations Manual
MODU must be recorded __________.
Inspection
("Station Bill")
A corrosion resistant fine mesh wire screen is
passage of flames into the entry of rodents into the
debris stopping up the
water from entering the
commonly fitted to the end of tank vent piping to
tank
tank
vent pipe
tank
prevent ________.
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion
flames entering through
escape of flammable
corrosion in the tank vent damage to the ball check
resistant screens to prevent __________.
the tank vent
vapors
According to CFRs, open tank hatches from tanks
which are not gas free, and unattended, must be flame screens
warning signs
P.V. valves
stop-check valves
protected by __________.
The component shown in the illustration would be
Combined fixed
installed in which of the following types of fire
Fixed temperature
Rate-of-rise
temperature and rate- of- Line type pneumatic
SF-0004
detection systems?
rise
the presence of harmful
the amount of oxygen in a
concentrations of
An oxygen indicator will detect __________.
amounts of carbon
all of the above
space
explosive gas
monoxide
amount of combustible
the amount of oxygen in
concentration of CO2 as a
The oxygen indicator is an instrument that
gas as a percentage of
the atmosphere of a
percentage of oxygen in a None of the above
measures the __________.
the lower explosive limit in
confined space
confined space
a confined space
The explosive range of a mixture of flammable
vapors and air lies between the lower and upper
flammable vapor by
the lower limit of
oxygen present to support the temperature of the
explosive limits. These limits are specified as a
volume in air
explosibilty of the mixture combustion
flash point
percentage of __________.
The explosive range of a mixture of flammable
flammable vapor by
oxygen present to support the temperature of the
the lower limit of
vapors is specified as a percentage of
volume in air
combustion
flash point
explosibility of the mixture
__________.
The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume
is 1.0% to 6.0% in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled
with an explosimeter, and the reading obtained is 0.3% by volume
0.6% by volume
1.3% by volume
6.3% by volume
30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the sample
point is __________.
Combustible gas indicators detect flammable
measuring the vapor
gases, or vapors present in the atmosphere by an burning the vapors
metering the vapors
weighing the vapor
volume
intricate system which includes __________.
127
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
290650
290701
290800
VER Question
290801
290804
291000
291000
2
4
291052
291052
291055
291055
291062
291064

Choice B
Choice C
Choice D

rise?
Coast Guard Regulations apply to which of the

following requirements of the equipment required
to be in a fireman's outfit?
The flashlight shall be

Type II or Type III.

The combustible gas
shall have a breaking
strength of 2,500 pounds. 100 feet in length.

must be electrically
nonconducting.
A-60
B-60
D-60

Part 92), a bulkhead capable of preventing the
passage of smoke and flame for one hour would
be classified as a/an __________.
The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and
enclosed mud handling spaces to have
__________.
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), a
fire door that is held open by magnets may be
found in the __________.
Water fog is an effective fire extinguishing agent
because it __________.
Which of the following fire extinguishing agents
has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
The most effective method of extinguishing a class
"A" fire is by __________.
Which of the listed classes of fires can best be
extinguished with a water fog?
A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a
burning oil fire on deck when it is used
__________.
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would
be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil
fire?
You are in charge of the hose team assigned to
cool the upper boundaries of the fire shown in
figure 1 of the illustration. Which hose would you
use to safely accomplish this task?
I. Hose I II. Hose II
Choice A

Illus
SF-0034
C-60
A
remote ventilation
shutdowns
remote pump shutdowns
alternative control stations
smoke and/or fire

detection system
stairway enclosure
wheelhouse
engine room
All of the above

has a great cooling ability
toxic fumes from the air

combustible vapors from
the air
does not leave a harmful

residue on electrical
machinery
Water fog
Dry chemical
Chemical foam
Carbon dioxide
quenching and cooling
using a sodium based dry

using nonconducting
blanketing and smothering
chemical
extinguishers
Class A and B
Class A and C
Class B and C
Class A, B, and C
to wash burning oil over

the side
to provide cooling for the

fire fighters
in conjunction with
chemical foam
to cool the main deck
A solid stream of water
Low velocity water fog
High velocity water fog
Mechanical firefighting
foam
II
Both I and II
Neither I or II
A
A
A
A
A
A
SF-0013
set up a hose team to cool

close all openings and
the door, then open the
increase the ventilation to
room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you ventilation dampers to the into the room without any
door and extinguish the
SF-0013
the involved space
should __________.
involved space
additional action
fire using a type B-II
extinguisher
Ans
128

ABS
291068
291101
291102
VER Question
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D

hot deck immediately
above the fire
stay low by kneeling or

crouching on the deck
All of the above
rotate personnel due to

heat stress
The device shown in the illustration and indicated

by the letter "E" holds the __________.
mechanical foam pickup

low velocity fog applicator mechanical foam nozzle in
tube in the all- purpose
in the all- purpose nozzle the all- purpose nozzle
nozzle
291102
291151
291151
291151
In order to produce a high velocity water fog using pull the nozzle handle
an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________.
halfway back
push the nozzle handle

completely forward
The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle

forward: off, center: fog,
are __________.
back: solid stream
When the handle is in position "C", the device
no water flow
shown in the illustration will produce __________.
forward: solid stream,

center: fog, back: off
a solid stream
low velocity fog
Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into

position "B", secure the
position "C", operate catch
the device shown in the illustration, you must place
water pressure, and turn
"E", and remove piece "D"
the handle in __________.
piece "D" to your right
To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use,

__________.
When approaching a fire from windward, you

should shield firefighters from the fire by using an
applicator and __________.
Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire

station in the hose rack __________.
291200
Normally, fire hose should be stowed with the

__________.
291201
high velocity fog
position "A", depress

position "C", secure the
piece "D", and open catch water pressure, and turn
"E"
piece "D" to your left
SF-0011
Hose spanner wrenches should be used to

connect __________.
If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling
are in good condition, the minimum mechanical
advantage necessary for making a watertight
connection to another hose coupling can be
developed with __________.
Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must
always be __________.
insert the applicator in the

replace the high velocity
solid stream outlet of the
tip with the fog applicator
all- purpose nozzle and
and pull the handle to the
pull the handle back half
middle position
way
insert the applicator in the

replace the high velocity
solid stream outlet of the
tip with the applicator and
all- purpose nozzle and
pull the handle back all
pull the handle back to the
the way back
solid stream position
low-velocity fog
a straight stream of water foam spray
high-velocity fog
Ans
so the hose can be

after the hose has been
with the nozzle in the solid
so the nozzle is protected
connected quickly if a fire
completely drained
stream position
by the hose
occurs
female end and nozzle
female end connected to male end attached to the female end connected to
arranged to be quickly run
the fire hydrant
fire hydrant
the nozzle
out to the fire
hose spreaders for
fire hoses to fire hydrants
two female hose couplings two male hose couplings
attaching new fittings
your hands
a hose wrench
a monkey wrench
a coupling wrench
connected to the fire

hydrant
capped on the ends for

protection
supplied with a smooth

bore nozzle
open to the air to prevent

rot
A
A
SF-0011
SF-0011
The correct name for the devices shown in the

low velocity fog applicator in-line foam applicator
high velocity fog applicator smooth bore water nozzle SF-0026
illustration is a/an __________.
The low velocity fog applicator used in conjunction
stored in the rack when
attached to the nozzle by coated with heavy grease left in place in the allwith the all-purpose firefighting nozzle, should
not in actual use
the chain
to prevent corrosion
purpose nozzle
always be __________.
291201
Illus
A
chemical foam applicator
in the all- purpose nozzle
change to a small nozzle

insert an in-line fog
tip after changing the
applicator
position of the nozzle
handle
forward: fog, center: solid forward: off, center: solid
stream, back: off
stream, back: fog
291200
291202
Choice A

291160
291102
291151
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
129

ABS
291207
291207
291207
291208
291208
291209
291252
VER Question
3
5
1
1
2
291253
291254
291257
291300
291301
A fire station located in the engine room, is

required by regulations to have __________.
According to 46 CFR part 95, each shipboard fire
hydrant is required to have at least one spanner
wrench, one length of fire hose and one
__________.
Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one
spanner wrench and at least one __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
a 6 foot or 10 foot low

velocity fog applicator
all of the above
hand-portable
extinguisher
foam applicator
pick ax
hammer
foam applicator
pick ax
In heavy weather, the

hose may be removed
temporarily from the
hydrant.
All of the above.
a spanner wrench suitable lined or unlined hose,

for the size of hose at that depending upon its
station
location
hose stowage rack
hose rack or reel
National Standard fire

hose coupling threads
shall be used having 9
It must be marked in red
concerning fire hose stations used in the engine
threads per inch for 2 1/2
letters two inches high
room of a tank or cargo vessel?
inch hose and 7 1/2
inch hose.
National Standard fire
hose coupling threads
shall be used having 9
It must be marked with the
concerning fire hose used in the engine room of a
name of the vessel.
offshore supply vessel?
inch hose and 7 1/2
inch hose.
When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily
or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of
a soft-bristled brush
a wire brush
mild soapy freshwater and __________.
Which of the following correctly identifies the
device shown in the illustration?
A fire main international

shore connection
The fire main system should be flushed with fresh

water whenever possible to __________.
No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the
horizontal, in order to __________.
Fire main shore connections on a 1,000 gross ton
cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard
Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with
__________.
Which of the listed devices is required to be
located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire
main system?
on a freight vessel, each fire pump must be
capable of supplying the two highest outlets
simultaneously, at a Pitot tube pressure of
__________.
help destroy marine

growth
avoid kinking the hose

Illus
Ans
A
A
A
In heavy weather, the
hose may be removed
temporarily from the
hydrant.
All of the above.
A
paint thinner
cornstarch
A U.S.C.G. approved
An international discharge A U.S.C.G. approved fuel
sewage disposal
SF-0028
connection
connection
connection
prevent corrosion of valve eliminate cracking of fire
identify loose pipe joints
stems
hose linings
avoid personal injury
prevent spray on electrical
make connecting easier
during connection
equipment
at least two shore

exterior "Y" connections
suitable adapters to mate
connections for 2 inch fire
connections on each side
for 1 1/2 inch fire hose
shore fire line couplings
hose only
of the vessel
only
Pressure gage
Strainer
Reduction valve
International shore
connection
50 psi
75 psi
125 psi
the pump relief valve

setting
A
A
A
A
A
A
130

ABS
291304
291304
VER Question
291350
291351
291354
291400
291401
Choice C
Choice D
The total area of the pipes

leading from a fire pump
The vessel must be
Fifty foot length hoses of 1
must be more than the
equipped with a minimum 1/2 inch diameter may be
discharge area of the
All of the above.
of two independently
used in exterior locations
pump to avoid an
driven fire pumps.
on the vessel.
excessive back pressure
buildup (discharge head).
The fire pumps may be

used for other purposes
provided at least one of
concerning fire pumps used aboard cargo vessels
the pumps is kept
of 1,500 gross tons and over, contracted for on, or
available for use on the
after May 26, 1965?
fire main system at all
times.
All fire hoses on a mobile offshore drilling units
must be tested to a pressure of at least
100 psi
__________.
Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the
meet the applicable
minimum requirements on a MODU must
standards
__________.
Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure
at the pump discharge
gage located __________.
Foam is a very effective smothering agent, in
addition __________.
Choice B
it provides cooling as a
secondary effect
mechanically mixing and

Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced
agitating foam chemical,
by __________.
water, and air
When compared to low-expansion foam, a highbe less dense
expansion foam will __________.
Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire
oil
involving __________.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly
oil fires in the engine room
known as 'light water', is especially suitable for
bilges
fighting __________.
Fire pumps shall have a

minimum capacity of at
least one-third of that
required for an
independent bilge pump.
Each pump shall be

capable of delivering
water simultaneously from
the two highest outlets at
a Pitot tube pressure of
approximately 25 psi.
The total area of the pipes

leading from a pump shall
be less than the discharge
area of the pump.
110 psi
120 psi
130 psi
be marked as additional
equipment
be stowed in a separate
area
all of the above
at each fire station

at the manifold connection
discharge
works well on
can be used to combat
extinguishing electrical
combustible metal fires
fires
gas bubbles liberated
a chemical reaction of
when the foam chemical
foam components and air
contacts fire
at the pump station

all of the above
chemical reaction of foam
components and water
burning insulation
hot bulkheads
electrical machinery
class C fires in paint

lockers
any class D fire
all of the above
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 95),

require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo
and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the
following requirements?
The supply of foam

producing materials must
be sufficient to operate the
equipment for at least 3
minutes for spaces other
than tanks.
The deck foam system

must be completely
independent of the fixed
foam system.
The foam producing

chemicals must be
discharged and recharged
every year at annual
inspection.
The foam producing

chemicals must be
every 2 years at the
annual inspection.
The supply of foam

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed producing materials must
foam extinguishing system on cargo and
be sufficient to operate the
miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the
equipment for at least 3
following requirements?
minutes for spaces other
than tanks.
The deck foam system

must be completely
independent of the fixed
foam system.
The foam producing

chemicals must be
every year at annual
inspection.
The foam producing

chemicals must be
every 2 years at the
annual inspection.
291407
131
Ans
291406
Illus
be heavier
291430
Choice A

surfaces
291403
291430

concerning fire main system details used aboard
2500 gross ton cargo vessels on international
voyages?
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
291431
291431
291454
VER Question
1
2
2
291550
291552
291631
291634
According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system

aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be
designed to supply foam for a minimum of
__________.
CFR Part 34), if a fixed foam system is activated
aboard a tank vessel, the foam supply must be
sufficient to last for a minimum of __________.
The fire fighting device shown in the illustration
would be called a _________.
When an oil fire has been extinguished, the
surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam
to prevent __________.
The use of which type of fire extinguishing agent
involves covering the burning surface by deflecting
the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue
agitation?
Where foam extinguishing systems are provided
on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected
space must have a/an __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
3 minutes
7 minutes
12 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
7 minutes
chemical foam nozzle
dual hose connector
bending fire hose adaptor SF-0020
Foam
Carbon dioxide
Dry chemical
coaming
alarm
291851
291900
drain
fire sensor
equipped with a battery

painted with red and black
powered source of
diagonal stripes
emergency lighting
The agent cannot be used
on electrical fires because
it leaves a residue.
Due to the hazards involved with Halon type fire

outside of an occupied
extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher
space
may only be used __________.
on class C fires
on class B fires
A disadvantage of using CO2 for firefighting is that the CO2 does not
__________.
significantly cool the fire
the cylinders are regulated they are not effective on

pressure vessels
class "B" fires
they are not effective on

class "C" fires
There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used

as a total flooding firefighting agent. One of these
is the limited quantity available and the other is
__________.
it cannot be used in a
it breaks down under
dead ship situation without
extreme heat to form
electrical power available
poisonous gases
to the CO2 pump
there is no effect on a
class "A" fire even in an
enclosed space
cargo compartments
living quarters
storerooms
sound the ships general

alarm
secure the ventilation fan

All of the above.
damper controls
Activate an additional
CO2 bottle to increase
pressure on the pressure
switch plunger.
Send someone down to

manually secure the fuel
oil pumps and ventilation
fans.
the lack of cooling effect

on heated materials
According to 46 CFR Part 95, automatic

10 mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for
machinery spaces
CO2 systems protecting the vessels __________.
When discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into
6 a major engine room fire, CO2 pressure is used to discharge each bottle
__________.
When the engine room fixed CO2 system is
activated, which of the following actions should be Manually operate the
taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and ventilation remote shutdown controls.
shutoffs have failed to operate?
Halon 1301
Halon primarily
The agent is less effective
extinguishes the fire by
than carbon dioxide.
cooling.

concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing
equipment?
291951
15 minutes
spontaneous combustion toxic fumes from escaping

below the oil surface
to the surface
291951
12 minutes
air from contacting the oil

vapors permitting
boiling of the heated oil
reignition
The agent is considered

nontoxic at room
temperature in low
concentrations.
291951
Ans
posted with instructions on ventilated and equipped

the operation of the
with explosion-proof
system
switches
291900
Illus
On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the

controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system
must be __________.
291650
132
in any inside emergency
Discharge extra carbon

dioxide into the engine
room.
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
291957
291958
291960
291960
291963
292000
292004
VER Question
4
1
292011
292050
292050
292150
292150
292152

Choice A
Choice B
Liquid CO2 would

overflow from the tank
through the drain line as
the temperature
increased.
The discharge of CO2 will
When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire
A timer mechanism
continue until the
extinguishing system is activated from a remote
controls the discharge
temperature of the space
location, what determines the quantity of CO2 that valve and is preset for the
returns to ambient
will be released into the selected compartment?
space being activated.
conditions.
According to 46 CFR Part 95, the carbon dioxide
cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may
be located inside the protected space if the
300 pounds
400 pounds
quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is
not more than __________.
300 pounds
400 pounds
Normally manned machinery spaces protected by
a fixed carbon dioxide system are required to be
fitted with audible alarms so arranged that the
20 seconds
40 seconds
alarm will be sounded prior to the discharge of
CO2 by at least _________.
If the empty weight of a B-II, portable, CO2, fire
extinguisher bottle is 34 pounds (15.4 kg), the
47 lbs (21.3 kg)
48 lbs (21.8 kg)
cylinder must be recharged if the gross weight
decreases to __________.
Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman
hand-portable units
semi-portable units
numerals I and II are __________.
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry
Locate and acquire the
Attempt to determine what
room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which
nearest emergency
is burning.
of the following would you do FIRST?
breathing apparatus.
Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space,
the alarm for a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system 20 seconds
30 seconds
must sound for at least __________.
What would be a major consequence of allowing

the refrigeration system of a low pressure fixed
CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain
inoperable?
If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system

sounds in the engine room, you should
__________.
The entire charge may

eventually be lost due to
CO2 boil- off venting
through the relief valve.
leave the space

immediately
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the

CO2
safest to use when combating a class C fire?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers is
recommended for use on an electrical switchboard CO2
fire?
In which of the circumstances listed would a
carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent be most
Within a closed space
effective?

Choice C
Choice D
Excessive condensation
inside the tank would
freeze causing a
restriction in the discharge
piping.
The warmed charge of

CO2 would not be
effective in extinguishing a
fire.
The CO2 tank is divided

into separate sections
designated for each
protected space.
The number of discharge

nozzles in the space will
determine the quantity
released.
500 pounds
600 pounds
Ans
A
500 pounds
600 pounds
A
60 seconds
120 seconds
A
49 lbs (22.2 kg)
50 lbs (22.4 kg)
A
fixed systems
compact systems
Break out a fire hose.
Wait for the fire team to

arrive and assist them as
instructed.
40 seconds
60 seconds
start the fire pump
immediately assist the

make certain that the CO2
fixed system by
starts flowing into the
discharging all portable
space
units as well
Foam
Water fog
Soda acid
ABC dry chemical
CO2 propelled foam
All of the above
On a magnesium fire
At a range of 15 feet
As a cooling agent
133
Illus
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
VER Question
292153
292153
292156
292200
292203
292205
Choice C
Choice D
fire being reignited by

residual heat
machinery suffering
thermal shock damage
dry ice crystals clogging

the machinery
atmosphere containing a
dangerous charge of static
electricity
Reflashing of the fire.
Sudden stoppage of the

main engine.
Complete lack of oxygen

in the engine room.
Chemical reaction of the

CO2 and oil forming
carbonic acid.
if applied in connection
with foam
to prevent rekindling
if attempts to extinguish
the fire with low velocity
fog have failed
140F (60.0C)
150F (66.6C)
160F (71.1C)
The ship's general

distribution panel.
The emergency lighting

and power system via
storage batteries or
emergency generator.
The general alarm power

supply storage battery
with a nominal potential of
not less than 6 volts.
Six
Eight
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state

that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders,
130F (54.5C)
shall be properly ventilated to prevent a
temperature higher than __________.

CFR), which of the following power sources would
be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning
alarm?
292300
292351
292351
292356
Choice B
A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective

on burning oil only __________.
292401
292453
if applied promptly
One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry

chemical fire extinguisher, over that of a stored
pressure dry chemical extinguisher is the former
__________.
The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry
chemical fire extinguisher can be readily
determined by __________.
When is it required for a dry chemical fire
extinguisher to be recharged?
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be
directed __________.
If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry
chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you
must __________.
For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge
from a dry chemical type fire extinguisher should
be directed at the __________.
Illus
A
A
Four
A
1
permanent extinguishment
its good stability and nonregardless of the reignition its excellent cooling ability all of the above
toxicity
sources
can be easily recharged
aboard ship
Ans
The alarm shall depend

on no source of power
other than the carbon
dioxide.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how

many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to
Two
be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000
horsepower steam propelled vessel?
A vessel has eight B-II CO2 fire extinguishers. How
many spare units must the vessel carry?
The advantage of using a dry chemical fire
extinguishing agent is __________.
Choice A
292207
292351
When any fire has been extinguished with carbon

dioxide, there is always the danger of the
__________.
You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor
plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2
extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should
you now be preparing to handle?
has a longer operating

time
can be discharged further

is lighter in weight
from the fire
visual inspection of the

pressure gage
weighing the cylinder
removing the lid and

checking the level of dry
chemical
After each use
When the air temperature

Every six months
exceeds 90F
at the seat of the fire,

starting near the edge
over the top of the fire
weighing the CO2

cartridge
Every 12 months
at the main body of the

fire
to bank off a bulkhead

onto the fire
replace the pressure

cartridge and weigh the
chemical charge
replace the entire charge

of chemical agent
have the unit

weigh the pressure

cartridge to determine if it
must be replaced
base of a fire
top and sides of a fire
above the flames of the

fire
highest flames in a fire
134
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
292453
VER Question
1
292500
292550
292550
292551
292552
292553
292554
292555
292555
292556
292604
292607
292613
292613
292650
292652
292657
292751
292751

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
Illus
Ans
direct the stream of

attack the fire from the
chemical toward the base
leeward side
of the fire
bounce the chemical onto

spray the chemical across
the fire from adjacent
the tops of the flames
structural members

fire extinguisher
1 3/4 gallon (6.6 liter)

foam

fire extinguisher
12 gallon (45 liter) foam
Class "A"
Class "B"
Class "C"
Class "D"
A fire
B fire
C fire
D fire
class A
class B
class C
class D
class A
class B
class C
class D
"A"
"B"
"C"
"D"
class A
class B
class C
class D
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket

class A
material would be classified as a __________.
class B
class C
class D
Combustible solids,
liquids, and gases
less chance there is of
reignition
Flammable solids, liquids,

and gases
easier it is to control
When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical

extinguisher you should always __________.
10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent
to a __________.
A burning mattress is considered as which of the
following classes of fire?
A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class
__________.
A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a
__________.
A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a
__________.
If the items shown in the illustration are burning,
this fire would be a Class __________ fire.
A fire involving trash and paper waste would be
classified as a __________.
Burning rubber is considered to be which of the
listed classes of fire?
Burning wood is considered to be which of the
listed classes of fire?
Fires are grouped into which of the listed

categories?
The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the
__________.
On a tank vessel, which of the following
substances would be burning in a class "B" fire?
The material or substance involved in a class "B"
fire can be burning __________.
SF-0001
Class A, B, C, and D
Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
harder it is to extinguish
easier it is to extinguish
Oil
W ood
Rags
Electrical wiring
diesel oil
magnesium
dunnage
preventing saltwater
damage to electrical
equipment
eliminating the toxic fumes

from burning insulation
insulate the melted ends
remove the electrical load

on the cable
easily removable
wet
reducing the possibility of

When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the
preventing a total loss of
electrical shock to
main consideration is __________.
electrical power
personnel
If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the
cut the cable with a cable
inner layers of insulation have burned, you should secure power to the cable
cutter
FIRST _______.
The most important characteristic of a fire
extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is non-conducting
flame resistant
for the agent to be __________.
secure all sources of fresh begin transferring the fuel top off the tank to force
air to the tank
to other tanks
out all vapors
The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a

cargo or fuel oil tank is to __________.
discharge an initial charge direct a fire hose into the spray the tank boundaries
secure all openings to the
of CO2 with a hand
tank and energize the fire with a fire hose to promote
tank
portable extinguisher
main
cooling
135
A
A
A
In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action

you should attempt is to __________.
station someone at the

fixed CO2 release controls

ABS
VER Question

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
heat damage to helicopter
structure
292752
burning jet fuel running

The primary danger in helicopter fires occurring on
into the quarters or other
a MODU is __________.
areas
loss of the mooring

system
rotating and flying debris
292755
opening dead spaces to

Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel
check for fire or lingering
must include __________.
sources of heat
evacuation of the vessel
immediately sounding the operation of the

'all clear' signal
emergency generator
293000
293002
293021
293022
293022
293023
293023
293024
293024
293025
293026
293027
In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may

be lost if __________.
the sounding tube cap

from a damaged tank is
missing
The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors

clean and uncoated
should be __________.
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel,
decreases
reserve buoyancy __________.
A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is
center of gravity
acting downward from the __________.
When a vessel is inclined due to an external force,
such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts,
center of buoyancy
the tendency of the vessel to return to its original
position is caused by the shift in __________.
The quality of initial stability is indicated by
GM
__________.
Which of the listed initials is used to represent the
GM
indicator of initial stability?
The stability term for the distance between the
center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when
metacentric height
small angle stability applies is known as the
__________.
you operate the

dewatering system from a
flooded compartment
you have recently

replaced a gasket in a
watertight door
lightly coated with tallow
painted to prevent
coated with petroleum jelly
weathering
remains the same
increases
shifts to the low side
center of buoyancy
center of flotation
metacenter
center of gravity
center of flotation
metacentric radius
KM
Deck load
Maximum allowed KG
KG
KM
GZ
metacentric radius
righting arm
Its determination is the
objective of the inclining
experiment.
there is no "G" at large
angles
With regards to the metacentric height, which of

the following statements is true?
It is used to indicate the

quality of initial stability.
It is located below the

center of buoyancy.
'GM' cannot be used as an indicator of stability at

all angles of inclination because __________.
The horizontal distance between the vertical lines
of the gravitational and buoyant forces is called the
__________.
The upward force of displaced water is known as
__________.
"M" is not fixed at large

angles
there is no "M" at large

angles
It is measured vertically
above the center of
buoyancy.
"G" is not fixed at large
angles
righting arm
metacentric height
metacentric radius

buoyancy
buoyancy
deadweight
draft
freeboard
at the intersection of the

vertically above the center vertically above the center upright vertical centerline geometric center of the
of buoyancy
of gravity
and the line of action of
underwater volume
the buoyant force
293030
Initial stability refers to the vessel's stability

__________.
at small angles of
inclination
293034
The important initial stability parameter 'GM' is the

metacentric height
__________.
Ans
the dogs on a manhole

cover are secure
At all angles of inclination the metacenter is

located __________.
293029
Illus
when loaded with

minimum deck load
when at transit draft
when GZ is zero

above the keel

buoyancy above the keel

gravity above the keel
136
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
293034
293037
VER Question
3
2
293038
293038
293046
293053
293054
293055
293055
293104
293133
293140
293151
293152
293154
2
1
293157
293160
293169
293200
293200
When the height of metacenter is greater than the

type of stability?
If weight is added at the keel, the ship's center of
gravity will __________.
A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks
are ballasted because the vessel's __________.
The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest
when all double-bottom fuel and water tanks are
full because the __________.
Longitudinal stability indicates the tendency of a
ship to resist a _______.
Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel
is known as __________.
In ship construction, the vessel's bilge keels are
designed primarily to __________.
Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about
what axis?
Rolling is the transverse oscillating rotation of the
vessel about what axis?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Positive.
Neutral.
Unstable.
Negative.
'Air gap' is the vertical distance between the

bottom of the hull and the __________.
pass through the center of

flotation
freeboard is increased
You may improve a vessel's stability by

__________.
move down
move up
center of gravity is
lowered
center of buoyancy is
lowered
center of gravity is
lowered
center of buoyancy is
lowered
reserve buoyancy is
unchanged
hull freeboard is increased
change in trim
change in list
change in mean draft
change in the period of roll
yaw
surge
hog
roll
assist in reducing vessel

rolling
improve vessel steering

response
reinforce the vessels

garboard strake
reinforce the vessels

shear strake
Longitudinal
Transverse
Vertical
Centerline
Longitudinal
Transverse
Vertical
Centerline
The vessel will list in

The stability of the vessel
proportion to the volume
is significantly decreased.
of the cargo shifted.
zero trim
a low mean draft
a greater draft aft than

forward
list
squat
trim
flotation
waterline
freeboard deck
Plimsoll mark
amidships section
true mean draft
mean of the calculated

drafts
wave crest
wave crest plus the

charted water depth and
tidal corrections
draft at the center of

flotation
wave crest plus the
charted water depth, plus
tidal correction and storm
surge
mean draft
still water level
A
A
A
4 SF-0022
1 SF-0022
Muster List ("Station Bill") Tonnage mark
keeping the fuel tanks

topped off
increasing the free surface keeping the fuel tanks at

effect
least half full
keeping double- bottom

fuel tanks topped off
increasing the free surface

keeping fuel tanks at least keeping at least one fuel
effect of liquid storage
half full
tank empty for slops
tanks
137
keeping at least one fuel

tank empty for slops
a greater draft forward

than aft
The symbol shown in the illustration used to

represent displacement is __________.
The symbol shown in the illustration and is used as
the reference from which transverse
measurements are made is __________.
The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally
Load Line mark
be submerged is indicated by the __________.
You may improve a vessel's stability by
__________.
Ans
merge with the

metacenter
reserve buoyancy is
increased
What is the usual effect of moving weight from the The stability of the vessel The trim of the vessel is
main deck to a position lower in the vessel?
is increased.
changed substantially.
A vessel trimmed down by the bow has
__________.
The difference between the starboard and port
drafts caused by a transverse shift in weight is
called _______.
For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance
between the keel and the __________.
The average of the observed drafts is known as
__________.
Illus
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
293204
VER Question
1
293207
293207
293207
293207
293253
293254
293257
293258
293260
293265
293265
293266
293270
293300
1
2
293303
293304
293400
293401

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
natural roll period
metacentric height
waterplane area
uncorrected height of the

center of gravity
free surface effect
serious loss of reserve

buoyancy
severe sagging
severe hogging
free surface effect
increase in buoyancy
decrease in draft
reduction in trim

bow

stern
Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel,

reduces the __________.
A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to
__________.
Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are
partially filled because of the __________.
Vessel stability can be adversely affected by
__________.
Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or
fuel tanks are partially filled as a result of the
__________.
When the wave period and the apparent rolling
period of the MODU are the same, __________.
synchronous rolling
occurs
The purpose of the inclining experiment on a

MODU is to determine __________.
lightweight and lightweight the position of the center

center of gravity location of buoyancy
If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU

will __________.
A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the
absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is
__________.
Forces within a mobile offshore drilling unit have
caused a difference between the starboard and
port drafts. This difference is __________.
A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway
is an indication of __________.
A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is
an indication of __________.
For a MODU with trim, a decrease in 'GMT' will
cause the angle of inclination to __________.
The free surface effects of a partially filled tank in a
floating MODU, increase with the __________.
What must be accurately determined to assess the
potential for progressive flooding after a MODU
has been damaged?
increasing the free surface decreasing the free

effect
surface effect
free surface effect
Illus
Ans
free communication effect increase of buoyancy
decrease in draft
the roll period decreases
the roll period increases
the roll amplitude is

dampened
the position of the

metacenter
the maximum load line
be tender
have a quick and rapid

motion
be stiff
yaw
positive
negative
zero
vertical
list
heel
trim
flotation
large 'GM'
high center of gravity
excessive free surfaces
small 'GZ'
small 'GM'
low center of gravity
a stiff vessel
large 'GZ'
increase
decrease
remain constant
stabilize at an angle
draft of the MODU
height of the tank above

the keel
surface area of the fluid in displacement volume of

the tank
the MODU
The integrity of the
determine the cause

If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from
before taking
an unknown cause, you should first __________.
countermeasures
You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to
your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of
increase
tanks being filled, the flow rate to the other open
tanks on the same line will __________.
In a compartment that has been completely
along the bottom of any
flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted
bulkhead
__________.
Following a grounding, you can best determine
that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by
sounding the tank
__________.
A
A
A
A
The operation of the

The capacity of the water
machinery space bilge
sprinkler system.
level alarms.
All of the above.
assume the shift is due to counter flood on the side

off center loading
opposite the list or trim
assume the cause is

environmental forces
decrease
stabilize
stop
A
A
A
at the center of all
bulkheads
along the top of any

bulkhead
on the overhead of the

compartment
waiting for the vessel to

list
examining tank
boundaries
checking fuel oil strainers
138
A
A

ABS
293500
293503
293505
293601
293603
293603
293606
293754
293761
293763
293764
293767
293769
294005
294005
VER Question
In damage control, a flat block placed at the end of
a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is
referred to as a __________.
Which of the methods shown in the illustration is
2 the correct way to fit wooden shoring for damage
control?
The wooden shoring, shown in the illustration, is
bearing against a hatch coaming. The load is
2
applied in the direction indicated by the arrows.
Which of the following statements is true?
It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a
1 crack occurring in the hull because wedges
__________.
A crack, located in the shell plating or deck plating
3 of a ship, may be temporarily prevented from
increasing in length by __________.
Stress concentrations may be reduced at the ends
4 of a crack which has formed in the steel plating of
a ship by __________.
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a
1 damaged tank may prevent the tank from
__________.
Repair of vital machinery and services related to
2 an emergency on a MODU should be
accomplished (in sequence) __________.
When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU,
1 any effort should be taken to spread the pressure
over the __________.
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is
2 required to submit a casualty report of an
intentional grounding when __________.
What must be accurately determined to assess the
2 potential for progressive flooding after your vessel
has been damaged?
If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from
1 an unknown cause, the first action is to
__________.
In a compartment that has been completely
1 flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be
exerted __________.
The zipper of an immersion suit should be
1
lubricated with __________.
The zipper of an immersion suit should be
10
lubricated with __________.
2
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
strong back
butt piece
stiffener
cradle
will work loose
will splinter
V-grooving and welding

drilling a hole at each end installing welded brackets
from both sides of the
of the crack
across both ends
crack
V-grooving and welding
drilling a round hole at
installing welded brackets
from both sides of the
parallel to the crack
crack
SF-0016
will pull through the plating

cutting a square notch at
cutting a square notch at
filling completely
developing free surfaces
developing free surface

moments
collapsing
after control of fire,

flooding, and structural
repairs
immediately before
emergency is under
control
after control of fire, but

before control of flooding
after stability is restored
maximum possible area
minimum possible area
nearest watertight door
nearest longitudinal girder
it creates a hazard to the

vessel
it will last longer than 24

hours
it will last longer than 48

hours
it occurs in international
waters
The integrity of the

The operation of the

The capacity of the water
machinery space bilge
sprinkler system.
level alarms.
All of the above.
determine the cause

before taking
countermeasures
assume the shift is due to counter flood on the side

off center loading
opposite the list or trim
assume the cause is

environmental forces
along the bottom of any

bulkhead
at the vertical center of the along the top of the

bulkhead
bulkhead
the manufacturers
the manufacturers
epoxy resin consisting of

at least two coatings
epoxy resin consisting of
at least two coatings
139
low temperature watersoluble oil

low temperature watersoluble oil
Ans
Shore "A" illustrates the

Shore "B" will support the
Shore "A" will support the Shore "B" will slip under
recommended method of
greatest load.
greatest load.
applied load.
shoring.
tend to open the crack
Illus
at a point that is one- third

from the bottom of the
bulkhead
sealing compound used in
liferafts
sealing compound used in
liferafts
SF-0018
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
294005
294008
294008
VER Question
294100
294100
294105
294108

With no alternative but to jump from a vessel, the

correct posture should include __________.
Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be

__________.
Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be
__________.
Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits
must wear the exposure suit in a boat drill, or
participate in a drill which includes donning the suit
and being instructed in its use at least once every
__________.
How often is the line throwing appliance required
to be tested on an OSV ?
Which of the listed precautions should be taken

when testing a line throwing gun?
294108
Which of the listed precautions should be taken

when testing a line throwing gun?
294110
294110
Choice A
Choice B

All models will
provides protection
up in the water.
weeks.
When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, jump off feet first from the dive head first from the
windward side
bridge
294108
294109
With no alternative but to jump from a MODU, the

To help keep injured survivors warm in the water,

after abandoning ship, they should __________.
To keep injured survivors warm in the water after
abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

Choice C
Choice D


not severely restricted in
body movement and
permits the wearer to
perform any form of
strenuous work.
dive head first from the

main deck
follow directly behind

another person on the
leeward side
holding down the lifejacket

against the chest with one
knees bent and held close body straight and arms
arm crossing the other,
to the body with both arms tightly at the sides for feet
covering the mouth and
around the legs
first entry into the water
nose with a hand, legs
straight and feet together
A
A
equipped with a water

light
equipped with a water
light
month
two months
three months
six months
Once a month
Once a year
Once a week
Once every four months
Coast Guard approved
Ans
both hands holding the

lifejacket below the chin
with knees bent and legs
crossed
marked with the name of

the unit
marked with the name of
the unit
Coast Guard approved
Illus
all of the above
all of the above
A
Fire it at an angle of
Never remove the line
approximately 90 degrees Wear asbestos gloves.
from the rocket.
to the horizon.
Fire it at an angle of
Never test the rocket with
approximately 90 degrees Wear asbestos gloves.
the service line attached.
to the horizon.
around legs
nose with a hand, and feet
together
be placed in the middle of
a small circle formed by
the other survivors in the
water
water
float on their backs with

their arms extended for
maximum exposure to the
air
air
140
All of the above.

All of the above
A
A
A
both hand holding the

crossed
remove their lifejackets

and hold on to the
uninjured survivors
swim through the water at

fifteen minute intervals

and hold on to the
uninjured survivors
sip seawater at intervals

of fifteen minutes

ABS
294110
VER Question
9
294111
294111
294112
294112
To keep injured survivors warm in the water after

abandoning an OSV, they should __________.
When should the emergency position- indicating
radio beacon be activated after abandoning a
MODU?
When should the emergency position- indicating
radio beacon (EPIRB) be activated after
abandoning an OSV?
Onboard an OSV, the key to the most rapid and
effective response to a man overboard situation is
__________.
Onboard mobile offshore drilling units, the key to
the most rapid and effective response to a man
overboard situation is __________.
The order to abandon a MODU should only be
given by the __________.
should enter the water on the leeward side, except
when __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C

water

and hold on to the
uninjured survivors
air
Choice D
sip seawater at intervals
of fifteen minutes
Immediately
After on hour
Only when another vessel

Only after sunset
is in sight
Immediately
After one hour
Only when another vessel

Only after sunset
is in sight
well-conducted drills
a dedicated crew
good equipment
good communication
well-conducted drills
a dedicated crew
good equipment
good communication
Offshore Installation
Manager
Barge Engineer
Ballast Control Operator
Rig Safety Supervisor
water temperature is
below 40F

the area
294113
294114
294200
should be righted by
standing on the carbon
A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
12
dioxide cylinder, holding
__________.
the righting straps and
leaning backwards
standing on the lifeline,
will right itself when the
holding the righting straps canopy tube inflate
and leaning backwards
must be cleared of the

buoyant equipment before
it will right itself
standing on the carbon
A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
dioxide cylinder, holding
__________.
the righting straps and
leaning backwards
standing on the lifeline,
will right itself when the
holding the righting straps canopy tube inflates
and leaning backwards
must be cleared of the

buoyant equipment before
it will right itself
294200
294200
294200
11
294201
294201
294202
294202
294202
Handholds or straps on the underside of an

inflatable liferaft are provided __________.
Handholds or straps on the underside of an
What is placed on the under side of an inflatable
liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the
wind or overturned?
What is placed on the underside of an inflatable
liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the
wind or overturned?
Generally, which of the following gases is used to
inflate liferafts?
Generally, which of the following gases is used to
inflate liferafts?
The canopy of your liferaft should __________.
there is burning oil on the there is a rescue craft in

water
the area
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
to right the raft if it

capsizes
capsizes
to carry the raft around on

for crewmen to hang on to to hang the raft for drying
deck
for crewmen to hang on to to hang the raft for drying
deck
Ballast bags
A keel
Strikes
Sea anchor
Ballast bags
A keel
Strikes
Sea anchor
CO2
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Compressed air
CO2
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Compressed air
be put up only in severe

weather
be used as a sail if the

wind is blowing
go into place as the raft is be put up after everyone

inflated
is aboard
141
A
A
A
A

ABS
294202
294202
294204
294204
294204
294204
294204
294204
VER Question
9
The canopy of your liferaft should __________.
You have just abandoned ship and boarded a

liferaft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear
4
a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You
should __________.
After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord
8
__________.
After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord
42
__________.
After having thrown the liferaft and stowage
43 container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by
__________.
__________.
__________.
To release the davit cable of a davit launched
4
liferaft, you must __________.
294204
19
What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic

release?
294204
34
What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic

release?
294205
294205
294205
294206
294206
294206
294208
294208
An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a

sinking vessel. Which of the following actions
occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2
bottles to inflate the raft?
An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a
sinking vessel. Which of the following actions
occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2
bottles to inflate the raft?
Using a sea anchor when in a liferaft will
__________.
If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft,
your main course of action should be to
__________.
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do
is __________.
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts
should be posted aboard liferafts to look for
__________.
Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back
aboard ship, you would use the __________.
Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back
aboard ship, you would use the __________.

Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
go into place as the raft is be put up after everyone

inflated
is aboard
be put up only in severe

weather
be used as a sail if the

wind is blowing
not become alarmed

unless it continues for a
long period of time
unscrew the deflation

plugs
remove the safety valve

and replace it with a soft
patch
is used to rig the boarding

ladder
is used to rig the boarding
ladder
is cut immediately as it is
of no further use
is cut immediately as it is
of no further use
plug the safety valve
Illus
Ans
serves as a sea painter
detaches automatically
serves as a sea painter
detaches automatically
pull in on the painter line
forcing open the container hitting the hydrostatic

which operates the CO2 release
using the hand pump

provided
pulling on the painter line

using the hand pump

provided
pulling on the painter line

using the hand pump

provided
pull the release lanyard
pull the hydraulic release
push the release button
pull on the ratchet handle
To inflate the raft

automatically
To test rafts hydrostatically None of the above
To inflate the raft

automatically
To test rafts hydrostatically None of the above
The sea anchor is

deployed.
The floor inflates.
If upside down, the craft

will right itself.
The painter detaches from

the raft.
The sea anchor is

deployed.
The floor inflates.
If upside down, the craft

will right itself.
The painter detaches from

the raft.
reduce the drift rate of the keep the liferaft from

liferaft
turning over
aid in recovering the

liferaft
increase your visibility
remain in the vicinity of

the sinking vessel
head for the closest land
head for the closest sealanes
get a majority opinion
drag the raft ashore and

lash it down for a shelter
find some wood for a fire
get the provisions out of

the raft
set the raft back out to sea

so someone may spot it
survivors in the water
food and water
land
bad weather
towing bridle
main weather cover
external lifelines
righting strap
towing bridle
main weather cover
external lifelines
righting strap
To release raft from the

cradle automatically if the
ship sinks
To release raft from the
cradle automatically as
the ship sinks
142
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
294209
VER Question
4
294212
294212
294212
294213
294214
294214
294217
294300
294301
294302
294303
294304
294306
294306
294306
294306
3
7

Choice A
The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on automatically as the

__________.
liferaft inflates
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
with a switch near the

boarding handle
at night because the light

by screwing the bulb in
has a photosensitive
after the raft is inflated
switch
Illus
When inspecting a stored inflatable liferaft on deck,

fastened to the float- free
secured to the hydrostatic fastened to the raft
you should make sure that the operating cord is
not fastened to anything
link
release
container
_________.
fastened to some
When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should
substantial part of the
make sure that the operating cord is __________.
release
container
vessel
fastened to some
When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should
substantial part of the
make sure that the operating cord is __________.
release
container
vessel
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes, or bottom of an
sail twine and vulcanizing
inflatable liferaft should first be stopped by using
sealing clamps
repair tape
a tube patch
kit
__________.
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an deflate the floor of the raft inflate the floor of the raft
take in the sea anchor to
remove their lifejackets to
inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should to reduce the danger of
to provide for additional
prevent fouling of the
prepare for the transfer
__________.
capsizing
stability
rescue sling
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an deflate the floor of the raft inflate the floor of the raft
take in the sea anchor to
remove their lifejackets to
inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should to reduce the danger of
to provide for additional
prevent fouling of the
prepare for the transfer
__________.
capsizing
stability
rescue sling
In the illustration shown, the weak link is identified
8
6
4
1 SF-0043
as item number _____.
Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
unbalanced rudders
balanced rudders
contraguide rudders
straight rudders
vote on what to do, so all
If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you remain in the immediate
head for the closest seahead for the nearest land
hands will have a part in
should __________.
vicinity
lanes
the decision
On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat fuel tanks
must be emptied and the fuel changed at least
12 months
24 months
36 months
48 months
once every __________.
reduce the swinging of the
secure the lifeboat in the
Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to
lifeboat as it is being
allow the bow and stern to be used as a safety line in
davits when in the stowed
__________.
lowered from the
be lowered evenly
an emergency
position
embarkation level
The No. 2 lifeboat on a US flag vessel would
aft of No. 1 lifeboat port
aft of No. 1 lifeboat
on the port side forward
normally be found __________.
forward
side
starboard side
Only when there is a
They should be set off at
When should distress flares and rockets be used? chance of them being
half-hour intervals.
sighted by rescue vessels.

19 When should distress flares and rockets be used? chance of them being
seen by rescue vessels.
10 survival craft, you should activate the signal
__________.
When using a handheld smoke signal in a lifeboat,
4
you should hold and __________.

half-hour intervals.

one-hour intervals.
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel.

one hour intervals.
Immediately upon

the craft

inside the craft
craft
activate the signal on the

downwind side

upwind side
activate the signal under

water
143
activate the signal inside

the boat
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
294306
294306
294306
294306
294306
294306
294306
294309
294309
294309
294309
294309
294310
294310
294310
294312
294312
294312
VER Question
When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft,
When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft,
16
Which of the following conditions represents the
15 appropriate time for setting off distress flares and
rockets?
11
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D

downwind side
downwind side
chance of them being
seen by rescue vessels

upwind side
upwind side

the boat
the boat
activate the signal at the

stern
activate the signal at the
stern
At half-hour intervals
At one hour intervals
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel
At one hour intervals.
Immediately upon
Illus
Ans
A
A
A

appropriate time for setting off distress flares and
rockets?

At half-hour intervals.

18 appropriate time for setting off distress flares and
rockets?

At half-hour intervals.
A red parachute flare
A red handheld flare
A flashlight
A lantern
A red parachute flare
A red handheld flare
A flashlight
A lantern
maintenance schedule
navigational systems
fuel consumption rates
maintenance schedules
food and water
land
bad weather
Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed

5 would be the most suitable for night signaling to a
ship on the horizon?
Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed
14 would be the most suitable for night signaling to a
ship on the horizon?
All MODU personnel should be familiar with the
3
survival craft __________.
All OSV personnel should be familiar with the
6
All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar
4
with the rescue boat __________.
All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats
1
__________.
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts
8 should be posted aboard liferafts to look for
__________.
What should you do with your emergency position
6 indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft
during storm conditions?
What should you do with your emergency position
10 indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft
during storm conditions?
Where would you find the FCC authorization for
4
transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?
6
9
1
boarding and operating

procedures
procedures
procedures
procedures
survivors in the water
Bring it inside the liferaft
and leave it on.
and leave it on.
On the Ship Station

License.
stop the winch just before
Limit switches are located on the survival craft
the craft reaches final
winch systems for MODUs to __________.
stowage position
stop the winch just before
Limit switches are located on the survival craft
the craft reaches its
winch systems for OSVs to __________.
uppermost position
To prevent the davits from
Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the
pulling up against the
lifeboat?
stops.

and turn it off until the
storm passes.
and turn it off until the
storm passes.
On the side of the EPIRB
transmitter.
limit the amount of cable
on the drum
limit the amount of cable
on the drum
At one hour intervals.
Leave it outside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft

and leave it on.
but turn it off.
Leave it outside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft
and leave it on.
but turn it off.
In the radio log.
On the Certificate of
Inspection.
limit the ascent rate
stop the winch in case the

craft weighs too much
limit the ascent rate
stop the winch in case the

craft's weight exceeds
load lift limit
To keep the tricing lines

To assist in cranking in the
from releasing or getting
lifeboat.
tangled.
144
Immediately upon
To stop the lifeboat from

being lowered.
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
294315
VER Question
6
294315
294315
294315
294316
294317
294318
294319
294320
294320
294322
294325
294325
294326
294326
294326
294327
294328
294328
294329
294332
294336
During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout

should be on station to __________.
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the
Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could
cause it to __________.
The purpose for the bag or box on top of some
survival craft is to __________.
The AMVER system for vessel in the Gulf of
Mexico is administered by the __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
release the towline in an

emergency
help the helmsman steer
look for food and water
check water level in the

bilge
into the seas
broadside to the seas
in the same direction as

the seas
in a series of figure- eights
capsize
run smoother
run faster
sink
increase area for radar

detection
Minerals Management
Service
act as a sail in case of a

power loss
steady the craft in heavy

seas
Department of Energy
Corps of Engineers
are seated with seatbelts

on and doors open
are to shift to one side to

right it
escape from the craft
right it in case of capsize

U.S. Coast Guard
A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright are seated with seatbelts
position provided that all personnel __________. on and doors shut
When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of
compressed air, they are used for __________.
The 'off-load' release system on a survival craft is
designed to be activated __________.
Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to
__________.
If the engine of a survival craft does not start,
check to see __________.
The air regeneration canister on a survival craft
should last approximately __________.
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine
should be stopped __________.
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine
should be stopped __________.
Using a sea anchor will __________.
Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will
__________.
Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will
__________.
Why are lifeboats usually double- ended?
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led
__________.
The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led
__________.
The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the
footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the
following colors?
The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to
__________.
priming the sprinkler

system
only when the doors are
closed
personnel air supply
additional flotation
when there is no load on

the cable
start the engine in cold
weather
when there is a load on

when the engine is started
the cable
aid in helping personnel
prime the sprinkler system prime the air supply
breathe
if the air supply system is if the water sprinkler
if the limit switch is on
open
system is open
if the fuel valve is open

one hour
two hours
three hours
when the craft clears the

water
when the craft clears the
water
reduce the drift rate of the
liferaft
when the cable has been

attached
when the cable has been
attached
turning over
keep the survival craft
from turning over
keep the survival craft
from turning over
on approach to the
platform
on approach to the
platform
liferaft
survival craft
survival craft
reduce your drift rate

reduce your drift rate
A
A
A
A
A
A
at the embarkation
at the embarkation
They require less space

for stowing aboard ship.
Appearance and
traditional styling.
forward and outside of all

obstructions
forward and outside of all
obstructions
forward and inside of all

obstructions
forward and inside of all
obstructions
up and down from the

main deck
up and down from the
main deck
to the foremost point on

the ship
to the foremost point on
the vessel
International orange
Yellow
White
Red
cool the craft in a fire
cool the engine
spray oil on the sea to

calm it
spray personnel during a

fire
145
Ans
four hours
They are more seaworthy

They can go forward and
and less likely to be
backward more easily.
swamped or broach to.
will pass through the body

After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within
will quench thirst for only
with very little being
will help to prevent fatigue
the first 24 hours __________.
two hours
absorbed by the system
filling the self-righting

bags
Illus
A
A
A
A
helps to prevent
seasickness

ABS
294336
294338
294338
294339
294339
294349
VER Question
7
Choice B
Choice C
will pass through the body

After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within
will quench thirst for only
with very little being
will help to prevent fatigue
the first 24 hours __________.
two hours
absorbed by the system
Choice D
helps to prevent
seasickness
Which statement concerning the collection of fresh Fresh water may be

water is FALSE?
obtained from fish.
Lifeboat covers or
canopies should be
washed with rain before
drinking water is collected.
Fresh water may be

collected from
condensation inside the
liferaft.
Freshwater can be
evaporated from standing
seawater.
Which statement concerning the collection of fresh Fresh water may be

water is FALSE?
obtained from fish.
Lifeboat covers or
canopies should be
washed with rain before
drinking water is collected.
Fresh water may be

collected from
condensation inside the
liferaft.
Freshwater can be
collected from rainwater.
chlorine tablets should be

used to make it drinkable
When collecting condensation for drinking water,

__________.
a sponge used to mop up only condensation on the it should be strained

and store condensation
bottom of the canopy
through a finely woven
must be kept salt free
should be collected
cloth
chlorine tablets should be

used to make it drinkable
A standard procedure for the emergency

disinfection of water in a potable water tank is to
add a small amount of standard laundry liquid
one pint
chlorine bleach to the water tank. Approximately
how much bleach would be considered appropriate
to add to a tank containing 1000 gallons of water?
294406
one quart
one gallon
Because carbon dioxide is

a colorless and odorless
gas that becomes highly
toxic in the presence of
high temperatures and will
quickly incapacitate a
person exposed to this
gas.
This action is unnecessary

as carbon dioxide is not
poisonous nor toxic but is
a relatively harmless gas.
The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing

apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.
the regulator in an
emergency
A
Move the tank selector
lever to the full tank
position and reset the
alarm so you can
evacuate the area when it
sounds again.
Less than 1 minute supply
of air.
Because carbon dioxide

dilutes the oxygen
concentration in the
atmosphere and may
cause asphyxiation.
Ans
two gallons
Move the reserve lever to

Open the bypass valve on the 'reserve' position on
What should you do when the alarm bell on a self- Immediately evacuate the the regulator and
the regulator and reset the
contained breathing apparatus sounds?
contaminated area.
immediately evacuate the alarm so you can
contaminated area.
evacuate the area when it
sounds again.
When the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing
A 4-5 minute supply of air. A 2-3 minute supply of air. A 1 minute supply of air.
apparatus sounds, how much air supply remains?
Why should you wear a self-contained breathing

apparatus before entering the engine room after
the fixed CO2 system has been discharged to
combat a major fire?
Illus
When collecting condensation for drinking water

from the inside of a liferaft, __________.
294412
Choice A
a sponge used to mop up only condensation on the it should be strained

and store condensation
bottom of the canopy
through a finely woven
must be kept salt free
should be collected
cloth
294406
294408
Because carbon dioxide

breaks down in a fire into
carbon monoxide which
may cause blood
poisoning in the person
breathing this gas.
a breathing bag containing

the regenerator in an
oxygen to the atmosphere
excessive pressure
emergency
146

ABS
294417
294420
294420
294421
294425
295000
295000
295000
295001
VER Question
Which of the following conditions represents a
particular advantage of using a positive pressure
1 type self- contained breathing apparatus in an
atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life
or health?
According to 46 CFR Part 96, the recommended
6 equipment for fireman's outfit includes a lifeline.
The lifeline should be __________.
Which of the following procedures is always
recommended in the rescue of an unconscious
4
person from a compartment containing an unsafe
atmosphere?
Prior to entering a compartment containing an
atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or health,
1
you should don an approved breathing apparatus.
Which of the listed devices would be suitable?
Part 35), a pressure-demand, open circuit, self
1
contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) shall have
a minimum of how many minutes air supply.
The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew
13 lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment,
basic instructions, and __________.
The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew
1 lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment,
basic instructions, and __________.
Your assigned emergency stations aboard your
9
vessel can be found on the ship's __________.
11
295002
295003

Choice A
Choice B
The positive pressure in

the face piece prevents
contaminated air from
entering the face piece.
The equipment used is

The average operating
lightweight and easy to
time for most air cylinders
wear by reducing physical
is over an hour.
strain on the wearer.
The equipment is compact

and the wearer can work
in confined spaces without
difficulty.
made of steel or bronze

wire rope
a minimum of 1 inch
diameter
a minimum of 25 feet in
length
Have the rescuers wear

an approved selfcontained breathing
apparatus.
Have the rescuers carry in Have the rescuer carry an

Have the rescuers carry a
a stokes basket for the
emergency first aid kit for
combustible gas analyzer.
victim.
the victim.
An SCBA
An emergency escape
hood
30
Choice C
Illus
Ans
A
A
A canister-type gas mask. All of the above.
A
60
90
A
all emergency signals
instructions for lowering

the survival capsule
the time each weekly drill

work schedule
will be held
all emergency signals
instructions for lowering

the survival capsule
the time each weekly drill

work schedule
will be held
muster list
clearance papers
A continuous blast of the

Which of the following is used to signal crew
ships whistle for a period
followed by one long blast
members to report at boat stations or for boat drill?
of not less than 10
of the ships whistle.
seconds.
The signal for lowering the ship's lifeboats is
one short blast
two long blasts
sounded on the ship's whistle as __________.
A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not
less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the
continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for
fire
collision
not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a
__________.
The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be
Coast Guard marine
person-in-charge
signed by the __________.
inspection officer
295100
Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety

practice to __________.
check for items which may

When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas,
move quickly about the
become adrift and secure
it is a good safety practice to __________.
ship
loose gear
Choice D
new nylon rope
45
295008
295100
make a visual inspection

of all engine spaces and
secure loose gear
move quickly about the

ship
147
permit to proceed
One long blast followed by

three short blasts of the
ships whistle.
ships whistle.
three short blasts
one long blast
man overboard
flooded compartment
A
A
A
A
A
A
company safety director
entire crew
increase all engine space shutdown auxiliary

lighting
equipment
make available extra
survival gear
maintain a negative trim

on the vessel
A
A

ABS
VER Question
295106
295109
295204
295206
295212
Choice A
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require gears,

protected with adequate
couplings, flywheels, and all rotating machinery
covers or guards
capable of injuring personnel to be __________.
Which of the following must be eliminated to
Unsafe actions
prevent accidents?
Safety is dependent on orderliness and
cleanliness. Order may be maintained by
__________.
storing items in their

assigned place
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
identified by yellow and

black warning signs
conspicuously identified
as to their particular
hazard
located where they may

not be easily contacted
Orderliness
Frequent inspections
Good work habit/practices
storing all items in a

common storage
container except those
ready-for-sea
tagging all items

according to their age and disposing of used items
then storing them together
According to 46 CFR Part 32, a cargo pump driven

one remote manual
by an internal combustion engine on the weather
shutdown station
deck must have __________.
four remote manual

three remote manual
two remote manual
shutdown stations located
fore, aft, port side
fore, aft, and at the
fore and aft
midpoint, and starboard
midpoint
side midpoint
According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly

involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are
incident
required to submit to alcohol testing within ______.

incident

incident

incident
Saliva
Skin
Hair
Cuticle
cut the line to the sea

anchor
paddle away from the fire
splash water over the

liferaft to cool it
get out of the raft and

swim to safety
295214
295500
295501
According to 46 CFR's, besides analyzing a

mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen
would be acceptable for alcohol level testing
following a "Serious Marine Incident"?
If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water,
you should first __________.
With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the


nose with a hand, and feet around legs
together and ankles
crossed
both hands holding the

crossed
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do

is __________.
drag the raft ashore and

lash it down for shelter
find some wood for a fire
get the provisions out of

the raft
set the raft back out to sea

so someone may spot it
295515
If you are forced to abandon ship in a survival

craft, you should __________.

the vessel
head for the nearest land
have an all hands vote on

what to do
295515
If you have to abandon ship and enter a liferaft,

your main course of action should be __________. the vessel
head for the closest land
get a majority opinion
295517
more than six short blasts a continuous blast of the one long blast followed by
Which of the following signals is used to report for
three short blasts of the
followed by one long blast whistle for a period of not three short blasts of the
boat station drills __________.
whistle
of the whistle
less than 10 seconds
whistle
296000
A
A
12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute as fast as possible
12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute as fast as possible
148
296000
Ans
295514
When administering artificial respiration to an

adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated
about __________.
When administering artificial resuscitation to an
adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated
about __________.
Illus
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
VER Question
296001
296002
296004
296004
To determine whether or not an adult victim has a

pulse, the rescuer should check for the pulse at the
__________.
To determine whether or not an adult victim has a
pulse, the rescuer should check for the pulse at the
__________.
When administering chest compression during
CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the
When administering chest compression during
CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the
296005

296005

296006
296006
Before CPR is started on the victim, you should

__________.
Before CPR is started on the victim, you should
__________.
296013
Which of the following is a correct statement with

respect to inserting an airway tube?
296013
Which of the following is a correct statement with

respect to inserting an airway tube?
296105
296105
296105
296107
296110
296202
296302
296307
296307
Bleeding from a vein may ordinarily be controlled

by __________.
In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a
wound should be controlled by __________.
The preferred method of controlling external
bleeding is by __________.
Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as
__________.

Choice A
Choice B
carotid artery in the neck
femoral artery in the groin brachial artery in the arm
radial artery in the wrist
Choice C
Choice D
Lower half of the sternum Right chest over the heart Top half of the sternum
Left chest over the heart
Lower half of the sternum Tip of the sternum
Left chest over the heart
by not stopping the

without losing the rhythm only with the help of two
respiration for more than 5
of respiration
other people
minutes
by not stopping the
without losing the rhythm only with the help of two
respiration for more than 5
of respiration
other people
minutes
insure the victim is
establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds
conscious
insure the victim is
establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds
conscious
Only a trained person
A size #2 airway tube is
The airway tube will not
should attempt to insert an the correct size for an
damage the victim's
airway tube.
adult.
throat.
Only a trained person
A size #2 airway tube is
The airway tube will not
should attempt to insert an the correct size for an
damage the victim's
airway tube.
adult.
throat.
applying direct pressure to heavy application of a
pouring ice water directly
the wound
disinfectant
onto the wound
submerging the wound in
applying direct pressure
cooling the wound with ice
lukewarm water
applying direct pressure elevating the wounded
applying pressure on a
on the wound
area
pressure point
dark red and slow
stop the bleeding, clean,

First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds
medicate, and cover the
is to __________.
wound
Which of the listed types of bone fractures would
be considered as the most serious?
Which of the following conditions is NOT a
symptom of traumatic shock?
A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and
various symptoms indicate a concussion. Proper
treatment should include __________.
Which of the following should not be used as a
treatment for a person who has received a head
injury and is groggy or unconscious?
bright red and slow
bright red and spurting

make the victim
comfortable
make the victim
comfortable
Inserting the airway tube
will prevent vomiting.
Inserting the airway tube
will prevent vomiting.
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
pinching the wound closed
above the wound
dark red and spurting
lay the patient down and apply an ice pack to the

cover the wound when the wound and cover it when
bleeding stops
the bleeding stops
apply a hot towel to purge

the wound, then medicate
and cover it
Compound
Hairline
Closed
Crack
Slow deep breathing
Pale and cold skin
Weak and rapid pulse
Restlessness and anxiety
turning the victim's head

to the side to keep his
airway open
positioning the victim so

giving the victim water but placing a pillow only under
the head is lower than the
no food
the victim's head
body
Give a stimulant
Elevate his head
149
Stop severe bleeding
Treat for shock
A
A

ABS
296308
296401
296401
VER Question
In reviving a person who has been overcome by

gas fumes, which of the following treatments would Giving stimulants
you AVOID using?
A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a

small area of the lower arm. Which of the following
statements represents the proper treatment for this
injury?
Immerse the arm in cool

water for 1 to 2 hours,
apply burn ointment, and
bandage.
For small first degree burns the quickest method to

relieve pain is to __________.
A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by
__________.
Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in
contact with __________.
immerse the burn in cool

water
2
1
296405
296405
296501
296503
296600
296600
296602
296602
296602
296602
296605
Choice A
296403
296405
First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns,

especially in the eyes, includes __________.
When treating a chemical burn, you should flood
the burned area for at least __________.
You have found a person laying prone and not
breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim.
Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you
should do?
Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of

__________.
Choice C
Prompt removal of the

patient from the
suffocating atmosphere
Determine the need for,

and administer CPR if
appropriate
Apply burn ointment,
Open any blisters with a remove any foreign
sterile needle, apply burn material, and insure that
ointment, and bandage.
nothing is in contact with
the burn.
Choice D
Keeping him warm and
comfortable
Immerse the arm in cold
water for 1 to 2 hours,
open any blister, and
apply burn ointment.
warming the eye with

gently flooding with water
moist warm packs
laying the person flat on

his back
apply a bandage to
exclude air
mineral oil drops directly
on the eye
acids or alkalis
diesel oil
acids, but not alkalis
alkalies, but not acids
flushing with large

amounts of fresh water
and seeking medical
attention ashore or by
radio
wiping the affected area

drying the acid or alkali
with a clean dry cloth and
with a rag followed by
resting quietly for several
applying a light cream
hours
all of the above may be

acceptable treatments
depending on the severity
of the burn
five minutes
ten minutes
twenty minutes
administer aspirin
apply petroleum jelly
fifteen minutes
Shut off the power and

Leave the accident scene
Immediately begin artificial Immediately begin cardiac
then remove the wire from
and summon medical
respiration.
massage.
the person.
assistance.
look for a second burn,

If a person was an unconscious victim of a severe
which may have been
2 electrical burn, you would check for breathing,
caused by the current
pulse, and __________.
leaving the body
Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of
moving to a shaded area
1
__________.
and laying down
Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of
moving to a shaded area
12
__________.
and lying down
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of immerse the feet in warm
6
both feet. You should __________.
water
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of
3 his right foot. Which of the following is NOT an
Rub the toes briskly.
acceptable first aid measure?
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of
4 his right foot. Which of the following is NOT an
Rub the toes briskly.
acceptable first aid measure?
A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to immerse the feet in warm
1
the toes of both feet. You should __________.
water
1
Choice B
cooling, removing to
shaded area and having
the victim lay down
locate the nearest water

remove any charred skin
source and flood the burn
from the burned area
with water for five minutes
bathing with rubbing
alcohol
alcohol
warm the feet with a heat
lamp
placing patient in a tub of

cold water
placing patient in a tube of
cold water
warm the feet at room
temperature
apply alcohol to the burn

area as a disinfectant
150
drinking ice water
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
All the above
All of the above
rub the feet to restore

circulation
Give aspirin or other
Warm the frost bitten toes
Elevate the foot slightly.
medication for pain if
rapidly.
necessary.
Give aspirin or other
Warm the frost bitten toes
Elevate the foot slightly.
medication for pain if
rapidly.
necessary.
warm the feet with a heat warm the feet at room
rub the feet to restore
lamp
temperature
circulation

alcohol
Illus
A
A
A
A
All of the above

ABS
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
296605

__________.
shaded area and having
the victim lay down

alcohol
drinking ice water
All of the above
296700
Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.
increased appetite and

thirst
decreased appetite and

thirst
gain in weight
elevated temperature
giving the patient a

laxative
giving the patient

morphine sulfate
giving the patient aspirin

with a glass of water
Eye injuries
Burns
Major multiple fractures
296706
296713
296717
296801
296900
296902
297000
297003
297004
297103
297104
297104
297106
297111
Illus
Ans
A
A
When a patient is suspected of having

keeping a ice bag over the
appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by
location of the appendix
__________.
Where there are multiple accident victims, which
type of injury should be the first to receive
Severe shock
emergency treatment?
Which of the following methods is a convenient
Compare the
and effective system of examining the body of an corresponding parts of the
injury victim?
body.
Persons who have swallowed a non- petroleum
based poison are given large quantities of warm, induce vomiting
soapy water or warm salt water to __________.
While you are fighting a fire in a smoke- filled
compartment one of your shipmates falls
remove him from the
sustaining a severe laceration and ceases
compartment
breathing. Your FIRST response should be to
__________.
You are in the mess room when a shipmate
Administer abdominal
suddenly begins to choke, is unable to speak and thrust (Heimlich
starts to turn blue. Which of the following actions maneuver) in an effort to
should you take?
clear the airway.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) classify a liquid
having a flash point of 175F (79.4C) as a
Grade "E"
combustible liquid, __________.
A grade "A" petroleum product is __________.
a flammable liquid
A grade "E" combustible liquid is one having a
flash point of 150F or above. An example of a
Engine lubricating oil
grade "E" product is __________.
When petroleum products are handled, static
splashing or agitation of
electricity can be generated by __________.
the fluids
excessive pressure on the low temperature fluids

fluids
only
low viscosity fluids only
An example of a combustible liquid is __________. lube oil
gasoline
butane
benzene
alcohol
gasoline
all of the above
calculated in British
Thermal Units
measured by weight
also called absolute

viscosity
combustible liquid
nonflammable liquid
noncombustible liquid
Which of the following fuels would be classified as

a combustible liquid rather than a flammable
diesel oil
liquid?
approximately 1% for
The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is
each 25F (13.9C)
__________.
temperature rise
Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or
below 80F, as determined by flash point from an flammable liquid
open cup tester, describes a __________.
Watch the patient's eyes

as you probe parts of the
body.
Look for discoloration of

the patient's skin.
absorb the poison from

the blood
neutralize the poison in

the blood
begin artificial respiration
control the bleeding
Look for uncontrolled

vibration or twitching of
parts of the body.
increase the digestive
process and eliminate the
poison
A
A
A
A
treat for shock
A
Make the victim lie down
with the feet elevated to
get blood to the brain.
Immediately administer
CPR.
Do nothing until the victim

becomes unconscious.
Grade "D"
Grade "C"
Grade "B"
a combustible liquid
jet fuel
lubricating oil
Gasoline
Alcohol
Diesel oil
151
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
297111
297115
297115
297115
297115
VER Question
Choice A
Choice B

Choice C
Choice D
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) divide

always have a Reid vapor will self-ignite at
give off flammable vapors
have a flash point of
petroleum products into combustible liquids and
pressure of 14 pounds
temperatures below 150F
at or below 80F (26.7C)
150F (65.6C) or more
flammable liquids. Flammable liquids __________.
(6.35 kg) or more
(65.6C)
Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility

of accidental spark discharge when __________.
transferring flammable
transferring dry mud to or transferring fuel oil from
liquids to or from a vessel from a vessel
storage to day tanks
How can the build up of static electricity be

prevented so that a static spark does not ignite
flammable vapors?
Each machine and hose

involved in the operation
should be grounded.
open switch, connect

connect ground cable,
close switch, connect
The correct method for connecting a grounding or ground cable, close
open switch, and connect cargo hose, open switch,
bonding cable is to __________.
switch, and connect cargo
cargo hose
and connect ground cable
hose
297119
297200
297201
297251
297302
297318
All electrical circuits near

and around the fueling
operations should be
opened.
securing drill pipe on deck
A dehumidifier used in
spaces containing
Static neutralizers can be
flammable liquids will
used to reduce ionization
significantly reduce the
in the air.
possibility of static
charges being generated.
connect ground cable,
connect cargo hose, open
switch, and then close
switch
have crew members use

To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused
have its electrical
have crew members use
be electrically grounded to
flame safety lamps during
by the discharge of static electricity, the vessel
equipment insulated from flashlights rather than AC
shore piping
entry to areas that may
should __________.
its structure
lamps in vapor filled areas
contain explosive fumes
If a mixture containing air and a concentration of
flammable vapor, is capable of ignition when
in the flammable range
exposed to a spark or other source of ignition, it is
said to be __________.
Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include
frost burns to flesh
__________.
To prevent over-pressurization when loading liquid
petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with pressure-vacuum valve
a/an __________.
Valve bodies, discs,

spindles, and seats must
which of the following conditions is true concerning
all be made of bronze or a
the construction and/or operation of pressurecorrosion resistant
vacuum relief valves?
material.
When bunkering operations are completed, the

drained into drip pans or
hoses should be __________.
tanks
No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose
larger than three inches in diameter unless it
Metallic reinforcement
meets certain requirements. Which of the following
is NOT a requirement?
at the rich point limit
at the auto ignition point
above the upper explosive

limit
high toxicity in small

quantities
highly noxious odors
all of the above
ullage opening
over pressurization valve
equalizing line
Pressure-vacuum valves
for cargo tanks shall not
be less than 2 inches
nominal pipe size.
Where springs are

employed to actuate the
valve discs, the springs
are to be either plated or
fabricated of a corrosion
resistant material.
The design and

construction of the valves
is such that they must be
removed for overhauling,
insuring there will be no
vent blockage which could
occur during a repair
period.
blown down with nitrogen steam cleaned and

or inert gas
flushed with hot water
stowed with their ends

open for venting
A bursting pressure
greater than 600 psi
Identification markings
152
A working pressure
greater than 150 psi
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
297319
VER Question
297320
297323
297329
297329
297330
297330
297334
297336
297341
297341
297403
297406
297409
297409
297500
The "oil transfer procedures", required by the

Coast Guard Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations
(33 CFR), must include __________.

Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
any special procedures

inherent to that particular
vessel for topping off
tanks
the location, size, and

barrel capacity of each
tank that is capable of
carrying oil
the emergency cleanup

and containment
All of the above
procedures to be followed
in the event of an oil spill
the vents are sealed
vapor baffles are installed all of the above
quick-disconnect nozzle
splash guard
vapor recovery system
vent the pump casing

continuously to expel
vapors
gag relief valves to

prevent recirculating and
heating of the liquid
throttle the suction valve

to control capacity
gag relief valves to

prevent recirculating and
heating of the liquid
If you are loading a petroleum cargo which is

there is room for
below average ambient temperatures, you must
expansion
insure that __________.
Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter
static grounding device
refueling must have a __________.
If flammable liquids are being pumped with a
stop the pump

throttle the discharge
immediately if it becomes valve to assure positive
vapor bound
pumping
If flammable liquids are being pumped with a

stop the pump

throttle the discharge
immediately if it becomes valve to assure positive
vapor bound
pumping

when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock,
which of the following signals must be displayed?
Which of the signals listed is required to be
displayed during the day while loading fuel?
A red flag (day), red light

(night)
A yellow flag (day), red

light (night)
A green flag (day), green

light (night)
A red flag
A yellow flag
A red and yellow flag
A red light
filters should be installed

in bilge strainers to absorb
oil before discharge
overboard
the dock supervisor need

not be notified before
discharging oily mixtures
overboard
non-return valves
automatic closing valves
spade blanks
face blanks
better identify the correct

reading
better indicate the correct
reading
show the depth of any

water in an oil tank
show the depth of any
water in an oil tank
The most critical time for preventing an accidental

fuel begins to come
tanks are being topped off
oil spill during bunkering, is when the __________.
aboard
To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling
hoses while you are topping off tanks, the
__________.
When fuel tanks are being topped off, the personin-charge of bunkering is directly responsible for
the __________.
When fuel tanks are being topped off, the personin-charge of bunkering should carefully monitor the
__________.
The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas
system is to prevent __________.
Choice D
A signal is not required for

discharging oil, only
gasoline
the inert gas system must water should be allowed

When a cargo oil tank is being cleaned by crude oil
be properly operating in
to settle on top before
washing while in port, __________.
that tank
discharging
Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be
isolated from the crude oil washing system by
__________.
When taking tank soundings on a MODU, coating
the tape with chalk helps to __________.
When taking tank soundings, coating the tape with
chalk helps to __________.
make the tape roll easier

make the tape roll easier
reduce possibility of
sparks
reduce possibility of
sparks
hoses are being blown

down
hoses are being

disconnected
loading rate should be

decreased
oiler should sound all

tanks continuously
hoses should be looped
tank vent valves should be

clear
loading rate
vessel draft readings
temperature of fuel
received
loading rate
vessel draft readings
temperature of fuel
received
inert gas escaping to

atmosphere
air entering inert gas

system
flow reversal of tank

flue gas escaping to
vapors into the machinery
atmosphere
space
153
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
297501
VER Question
2
297503
297505
297526
297659
297662
297662
297701
297707
297710
298001
Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a

gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

Choice A
Choice B
Cools the inert gas.
Maintains the oxygen

Drains off static electricity Maintains the water seal
content at 5% by volume. in the inert gas.
on the gas main.
According to 46 CFR Part 153, each inert gas

system must be capable of maintaining a minimum 0.5 psig
gas pressure of __________.
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply
the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases,
5% or less
that has an oxygen content by volume of
__________.
For typical crude oils, approximate values for the
lower flammable limit and upper flammable limit,
1% and 11%
would be in the range of _________.
The gas free status only
Which one of the following statements is true
applies to the conditions
concerning the gas free status of a compartment? of the compartment at the
time of the inspection.
To prevent an explosion when the pump room has
not been certified gas free and repairs are to be
carried out, the only type of portable electric
equipment allowed in the pump room would be an
approved __________.
Where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are
involved, power-driven or manually-operated spark
producing devices shall not be used in the cargo
pump room unless __________.
A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS), that can cause cancer in exposed
individuals is called a __________.
Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS) referring to more than one chemical is
called a __________.
Data Sheet (MSDS) that reacts with water or moist
air, and produces a health or physical hazard, is
called __________.
U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), state that
ocean going ships of 400 gross tons and above
must be fitted with a standard discharge shore
connection for the discharge of oily waste from
machinery space bilges to reception facilities. The
flange of this discharge connection must be
__________.

Choice C
Choice D
1.0 psig
3.0 psig
14.7 psig
10% or less
15% or less
20% or less
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
12% and 23%
24% and 38%
39% and 50%

applies for the duration of
the work to be completed
inside the compartment.

applies for a 24 hour
period following the
inspection.
The gas free status

applies as long as the air
temperature inside the
compartment remains at
or below standard room
temperature.
explosion proof selfcontained battery powered 1/2 HP electric hand drill

lamp
marine drop lamp and

extension cords
the compartment itself is

gas free
the vessel is gas free
all cargo tanks are empty
carcinogen
cryogenic
irritant
mutagen
mixture
combination
multi-material
toxin
water-reactive
toxic
flammable
combustible
portable hand grinder
A
all cargo tanks have been
inerted
A
A
A
suitable for a service

pressure of 6 kg/cm2
designed to accept pipes

up to a maximum internal 10 mm in thickness
diameter of 100 mm
slotted to receive eight

bolts and 20 mm in
diameter
154

ABS
298005
298008
298009
298010
VER Question
298015
298019
298020
298027
298028
298039
298042
298043

Choice A
Choice B

Regulations (33 CFR), a 299 gross ton
uninspected motor towing vessel, not equipped
One
Two (port and starboard)
with an oily water separator, is required to have
how many outlets accessible from the weather
deck to discharge oily bilge slops?
When completing the ballasting operation of a
Back flow of contaminated
contaminated tank, which of the following problems
Loss of pump suction
water
must be guarded against?
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) as
ballast water introduced into a/an __________.
that when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each
sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil
transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be
__________.
Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from
contaminating any waters by __________.
The oil transfer procedures required onboard
vessels with a capacity of 250 or more barrels
(39.7 cubic meters or more) of oil must contain
__________.
(33 CFR), no person may use a connection for oil
transfer operations unless it is a bolted or full
threaded connection, or __________.
Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery
may NOT be __________.
If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a
vessel is in port, which of the following procedures
should be followed?

Choice C
Choice D
Three (port, starboard,

and aft)
Two (fore and aft)
Insufficient pump pressure Motor overload due to

when topping off
high discharge head
oily water separator for
segregation
isolated tank for analysis

because of its noxious
properties
sealed or lashed closed
fitted with an anti- siphon

device
lined up for immediate use
regularly emptying all drip thoroughly draining all

pans
bunkering hoses
a line diagram of the

procedures for fighting oil procedures for cleaning
vessel's oil transfer piping fires
up oil spills
a quick connection
an automatic back
a clamped or compression coupling approved by the a connection not over six
pressure shut off nozzle is
fitted connection
American Petroleum
inches in diameter
used to fuel the vessel
Institute
drained into the vessel's
reclaimed for other uses held in a slop tank
purified and then reused
bilges
Pump only if the discharge
Pump only during the
Pump only on the
Pump only as much as is
is led to a shore tank or
hours of darkness.
outgoing tide.
necessary.
barge.
The plan will include the
responsibilities of all
personnel required to
assist in the collection of
garbage onboard the
vessel.
If the vessel is over forty

feet in length, the plan
shall be submitted in
writing to the Officer In
Charge of Marine
Inspection.
The discharge of plastic

According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part The discharge of plastic
and plastic mixed with
151), pertaining to the discharge of plastic or
garbage into waters
garbage mixed with plastic, what statement is
garbage into any waters is beyond three nautical
true?
prohibited.
land is permitted.

garbage into waters
beyond 25 nautical miles
from the nearest land is
permitted.
According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, a

vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall
__________.
be certified for inland use

only

garbage into waters
beyond 12 nautical miles
from the nearest land is
permitted.
have its forward most
be required to re- distill all
not discharge any
frame members
water used for cooling or
garbage into these waters
sufficiently stiffened to
condensate systems
prevent ice damage
155
All of the above
A
plugging all scuppers and placing floating booms
drains
around the ship
A description of the
According to Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR),
vessel's procedure for
which of the following describes items pertinent to collecting, processing,
waste management plans?
storing and discharging
garbage shall be provided.
Ans
tank that is completely

fuel settling tank for
separated from the cargo segregation from lighter
oil and fuel oil systems
fluids
fitted with a blank flange
Illus
No official plan in writing is

required; however, all
established routines shall
continue to be adhered to
and followed.
A
A
A

ABS
298103
298104
298105
298106
298107
298108
298113
298200
VER Question

Choice A
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations The containment may be

(33 CFR), which of the following statements is
fixed or portable
correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the depending upon the age
oil filling connection section?
of the vessel.

They may be fixed or
Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), which of the
portable, depending upon
following statements is correct regarding the fuel
the age of the vessel.
oil containment around loading manifolds?
According the Pollution Prevention Regulations, a

tank vessel with a total capacity of over 250,000
barrels of cargo oil, having two loading arms with a
nominal pipe size diameter of 10 inches, must
126 gallons
have under each loading manifold a fixed container
or an enclosed deck area having a minimum
capacity of __________.
Choice B
When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill

occurs on deck, you should __________.
Choice D
Containment drains are

prohibited from leading to
a common tank.
The containment drains

must have quick-closing
All containment drains
valves to be closed in the
must lead to a common
event of leakage or failure
fixed drain tank.
of any part of the transfer
connection.
Containment drains are

prohibited from leading to
a common tank.
168 gallons
491 gallons
252 gallons
Illus
Ans
fixed container or
portable container of at
enclosed deck area of one least 5 U.S. gallon
barrel capacity
capacity
fixed fuel oil discharge

containment
Choice C
The containment drains

must have quick-closing
All containment drains
valves to be closed in the
must lead to a common,
event of leakage or failure
fixed drain tank.
of any part of the transfer
connection.
all necessary components

all unnecessary parts of
of the transfer system are
requires that no person may transfer oil to or from
the transfer system are
lined up before the
a vessel unless __________.
open and drained
transfer begins
U.S. Coast Guard Regulations require that no
person may transfer oil or fuel to a vessel of 3000
gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974, unless
each fuel tank vent overflow and fill pipe is
equipped with a/an __________.
155) state that no person may transfer oil or fuel to
a vessel of 300 gross tons or more, constructed
after June 30,1974, unless each fuel tank vent,
overflow, and fill pipe is equipped with a/an
__________.
An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, constructed
in January 1976, and not equipped with an oily
water separator, may retain all bilge slops
__________.
the transfer system is

connected to a flexible
overflow fuel hose
the transfer system is

connected to an automatic
back pressure shutoff
nozzle
automatic back pressure

shutoff nozzle
quick-closing anti- spill

valve
portable fuel oil discharge automatic back pressure

containment
shutoff nozzle
quick-closing anti- spill

valve
A
onboard in the ship's
bilges
in the forward peak tank
in the oil purifier reservoir in a cofferdam
remove the plugs from the

use absorbent material,
remove scuppers and
scuppers to allow the spill
such as sawdust, to clean
wash the fuel overboard
to run overboard and wipe
up the spill
with a solvent
the area dry with rags
156

ABS
298300
298305
VER Question
298306
298306
298400
298453
298500

Choice A
Choice B

requires an emergency means of stopping the flow usual operating station of
bridge
of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency the person- in-charge
means must be operable from the __________.
Which of the following represents an emergency
procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank
vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel
while taking on fuel, you should FIRST
__________.
While taking on fuel, you notice oil on the water
around the vessel. Which of the following actions
should be taken FIRST?
stop loading
notify the senior deck

officer
notify the terminal

superintendent
determine whether your

vessel is the source
Stop fueling
Notify the dispatcher
Notify the terminal

superintendent
Determine if your vessel is

the source
33 CFR 153
33 CFR 156
33 CFR 159
will assume the

responsibility for any
damage or loss to the
shipper
has financial reserves to

meet reasonable expected
crew costs of an intended
voyage
The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution

Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) means:
__________.
298601
298601
298603
emergency operating
station of the person- incharge
Manually-operated quickclosing valve
298560
engine room
Pressure-sensitive oil
pressure controller
has the minimum required

has financial backing to
A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that
amount of protection and
meet any liability resulting
the vessel __________.
indemnity insurance (P &
from the discharge of oil
I)
Choice D
Self-closing emergency
disconnect fitting
298553
Choice C
Quick-acting power
actuated valve
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,

any discharge of oil, or oily mixture into the sea
from any oil tanker, or from any ship of 400 gross
33 CFR 151
tons and above, other than an oil tanker, is
prohibited while in a "special" area. These "special
areas" are designated in __________.
No person may discharge garbage from a vessel

located near a fixed or floating platform engaged in
oil exploration at a distance of less than
__________.
According to MARPOL, the definition of oil does
NOT include __________.
no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside
a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade
cargo without having the permission of the
__________.
that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel
unless __________.
CFR), no person may connect or disconnect an oil
transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil
transfer operation on a tank vessel unless
__________.
petroleum in any form
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
noxious liquid substances

animal or vegetable based
designated under Annex II All of the above
oil
of MARPOL 73/78
1650 feet
1850 feet
2000 feet
2500 feet
cooking oil
crude oil
sludge
oil refuse
officer-in-charge of the
vessel which is loading
USCG captain of the port terminal manager
A
A
tank ship owner
A
hoses are supported to
adequate deck lighting is each part of the transfer
a sample has been taken
prevent kinking and strain
turned on one hour before system is blown through
from the oil being received
on its coupling
sunset
with air
the designated person-in- that person holds a
charge supervises that
tankerman assistant
procedure
endorsement
157
that person holds a

license as master, mate,
or engineer
that person holds a valid

port security card

ABS
298604
298606
298611
298615
298618
VER Question
1
298619
298622
establishing the transfer

rate
vessel draft
The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker

transferring oil are NOT required to contain
__________.
the name of the person

a line diagram of the
special procedures for
designated as the person
vessel's oil transfer piping topping off tanks
in charge of transfer
a description of the deck

discharge containment
system
The designated person in

The tankerman
charge
The senior able seaman
The oiler
oil and hazmat transfer

operations
cargo vessel design
large oil transfer shore

side facilities
pumping equipment
design
be a certified tankerman
(PIC)
be licensed only
be 30 years old
have a letter from the

company stating his
qualification
During oil transfer operations, who would be

responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer
procedures are being followed?
Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention
Regulations concerns __________.
To serve as the person in charge of oil cargo
transfer operations onboard a self- propelled tank
vessel, an individual
must __________.
U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book
from the __________.
298711
Which of the following machinery space operations

is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?
298712
A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book to

log entries in the book regarding the __________.
298907
Choice D
Whenever the facility is
unmanned.
The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard

the vessel for __________.
298902
Choice C
Whenever the vessel is
short of manpower.
Choice B
When licensed as a
certified refueling officer.
298709
298719
Choice A
When authorized by the
Captain of the Port.

CFR), when may a person serve as the person-incharge of both a vessel and a facility during oil
transfer operations?
responsible for __________.
(33 CFR), the person-incharge of transfer
operations, both ashore and on the vessel, must
agree on __________.
298708
298715
the identity of the product the size of the slop tank

to be transferred
required under 155.330
Environmental Protection
Local MSO/COTPs/MIO's
Agency
6 months and then
not less than 3 years and
submitted to the nearest
be readily available for
Marine Safety Office for
inspection
review
Shifting suction of main
Ballasting or cleaning of
fuel pump to reserve fuel
fuel oil tanks.
oil tank.
discharge of ballast or
sounding levels of all fuel
cleaning water from fuel
tanks on a daily basis
tanks
is not equipped to
The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does
discharge overboard any
not apply to a MODU that __________.
oil or oily mixture
The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.

Which of the following is a mandatory section of
the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil
pollution emergency plan to be reviewed
__________.
whether or not the

the status of the oily water transferring ship is a
separator
"Public Vessel of the
United States"
local courthouse
U.S. Customs Agency
an annual inspection
the duration of the ship's

active employment
Changing out sprayer

Daily inspection of engine
plates to adjust for steam
room bilges.
demand.
grade and specific gravity fuel consumption rates on
of all fuel oil carried
a weekly basis
is on an international
has an International Oil
voyage to a country that is Pollution Prevention
party to MARPOL
Certificate
has an oily water

separator of sufficient
capacity for the oil wastes
generated
should not be used to

record the accidental
discharge of oily or oily
mixtures
is required to have entries

recorded within 48 hours
of completion of the
particular operation
is to be kept in the
is the property of the U.S.
personal possession of
government
the Master
reporting requirements
removal equipment list
plan exercises
list of individuals required

to respond
annually only
biennially only
quad-annually only
only one every five years
158
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
VER Question
299004
299007
299107
299110
299143
299147
299149
299151
299151
299152
299155
299202
299205
299206
299303
299306
299350
299351

Choice A
The amount of garbage disposed must be entered

into the records maintained by each ship and
cubic meters
stated in __________.
Comminuted or ground garbage which will be
discharged into the sea must be able to pass
25 millimeters
through a screen with a mesh size no larger than
__________.
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets
which are severely damaged?
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
barrels, measured in 55
gallon drums
weight in either kilogram

or pounds
cubic yards convertible to

long tons
50 millimeters
75 millimeters
100 millimeters
Illus
They must be tested for

They should be replaced. buoyancy before being
continued in use.
They can be repaired by a They can be used for

reliable seamstress.
children.

All models will
The immersion suit seals The suit will still be
not restricted in body
in body heat and provides serviceable after a brief (2- movement and the suit
unconscious person face- protection against
6 minutes) exposure to
may be donned well in
up in the water.
hypothermia for weeks.
flame and burning.
advance of abandoning
ship.
To release the davit cable of a davit launched
pull the release lanyard
pull the hydraulic release push the release button
pull on the ratchet handle
liferaft, you must __________.
To release the raft from
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on
To inflate the raft
To test the rafts
the cradle automatically
None of the above.
an inflatable liferaft?
automatically.
hydrostatically.
as the ship sinks.
Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
non-toxic inert gas
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Carbon monoxide
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an
sail twine and vulcanizing
inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using sealing clamps
repair tape
a tube patch
kit
__________.
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes, or bottom of an
sail twin and vulcanizing
inflatable liferaft should first be stopped by using
sealing clamps
repair tape
a tube patch
kit
__________.
When in a liferaft, the use of a sea anchor will
reduce your drift
SF-0042
__________.
turning
liferaft
Hand holds or straps on the underside of an
for crewman to hang on to to hang the raft for drying
capsizes
deck
The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry
fishing kit
searchlight
sea anchor
radar reflector
a _____________ .
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall
compass
one 50 foot line
one can opener
all of the above
include one __________.
You are picking up a person who has fallen
overboard. A rescue boat should be maneuvered
wind on your starboard
victim to leeward
victim to windward
wind on your port side
to normally approach the victim with the
side
__________.
All of the following are recognized distress signals
the repeated raising and
under the Rules of the Road EXCEPT
a green star signal
orange-colored smoke
red flares
lowering of outstretched
__________.
arms
When a vessel signals her distress by means of a
gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be 1 minute
3 minute
10 minutes
1 hour
at intervals of approximately __________.
How many degrees are there on a compass card? 360
380
390
420
remains aligned with
turns counterclockwise to
then counterclockwise to
compass north
port
compass___________.
port
Ans
159
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

ABS
VER Question
299354
299355
299355
11
299355
299376
299450
299453
299455
When a magnetic compass is not used for a

prolonged period of time it should __________.
A vessel heading ESE is on a course of
__________.
A vessel heading NNE is on a course of
__________.
A vessel heading SSW is on a course of
__________.
Which statement is TRUE concerning distress
signals in survival craft?
A crew member is unconscious and the face is

flushed. You should __________.
A rescuer can most easily determine whether or
not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the
pulse at the __________.
Which should NOT be a treatment for a person
who has received a head injury and is groggy or
unconscious?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
be shielded from direct

sunlight
be locked into a constant

heading
have any air bubbles

replaced with nitrogen
have the compensating

magnets removed
112.5
135.0
157.5
180.0
022.5
045.0
067.5
090.0
202.5
225.0
247.5
270.5
Hand held flares and

orange smoke.
If hand held rocketpropelled parachute flares

Two hand-held smoke
A very pistol with twelve
are provided, they are the
signals shall be provided. flares is required.
only distress signals
required.
lay the crew member

down with the head and
shoulders slightly raised
administer a liquid
stimulant
lay the crew member

attempt to stand the crew
down with the head lower member upright to restore
than the feet
consciousness
Give a stimulant.
Elevate his head.
Stop severe bleeding.
Treat for shock.
Applying artificial
respiration and massage
Keeping the patient warm

and comfortable
299456
In reviving a person who has been overcome by

gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?
Giving stimulants
Prompt removal of the

patient from suffocating
atmosphere
299460
A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and

starts to turn blue. You should __________.
perform the Heimlich

maneuver
make the victim lye down

immediately administer
with the feet elevated to
CPR
get blood to the brain
do nothing until the victim

becomes unconscious

alcohol
drinking ice water
All of the above
decreased appetite and

thirst
gain in weight
elevated temperature
299466
299470
1
1
shaded area, and lying
__________.
down
increased appetite and
Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.
thirst
160
Illus
Ans
A
A
A
A
A
A
A

Safety 10 13 Publish

Încărcat de

Informații document

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Safety 10 13 Publish

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

USCG

On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid

Crawford Nautical School

Environmental and Safety

Formatted by Bruce Sherman

in the midships house

at the main deck manifold at the vent header

in the midships house

at the main deck manifold at the vent header

oil soaked rags or rubbish

the pressure tanks

the fuel oil tanks

the oily rag bin

All of the above

Explosion proof lights

All of the above

An open running electric

any of the above

Any of the above.

The temperature of the

The mixture of vapors with

heat convection through

cool the metal below its

form a dense coating of

heat radiated from the

cooling surfaces adjacent removing combustibles

all of the above

transmitting the heat of a

heated gases flowing

the transfer of heat across

All of the above

Fuel oil residue

All of the above

Rusting or the drying of

All of the above conditions

USCG Engineering Test

A good approach to personnel safety is to assume

Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard

Environmental and Safety

Formatted by Bruce Sherman

you have irritation of the

you smell an unusual odor

All of the above

All of the above

approved by the Coast

high carbon steel

fixed with a ferrous cover nonferrous

approved by the Coast

high carbon steel

requiring the fire watch to

all of the above

all firefighting equipment

the fixed systems are

the fire is contained and

A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by

starting the fire pumps

A fire is considered 'under control' when

all hands are at their fire

In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is

The company man

The master or person in charge of a MODU must

in the Operations Manual in the official log

Flame screens must be maintained in good

Crawford Nautical School