Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
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ID#
1933
1934
1935
1936
1937
QUESTION
An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an
after cooler to __________.
Choice A
inject water vapor into
the compressed air
Choice B
prevent overheating of
first stage valves
Choice C
increase compressor
efficiency and
economy
horizontally mounted
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
volumetric efficiency
will be decreased
increasing the
volumetric efficiency
1938
1939
1940
1941
after coolers
oil
super cooled
1942
1943
Choice D
reduce the compressed
air charge density
General Subjects 2
allow isothermal
compression of the air
charge
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The device shown in the illustration is used to __________.
Choice A
Choice B
unload the cylinders of reduce the pressure in
the ship's service air
an air compressor
system
desiccated suction
strainers
use the same wetting oil install a smaller size
on the element as is
filter to allow for
used in the compressor expansion of the
lubrication system
element
multi-orifice suction
valves
install only a filter
consisting of a treated
paper element
Lubricator
Nonreturn valve
1944
1945
1946
1947
1948
1949
1950
1951
1952
1953
1954
1955
Moisture separator
Vacuum breaker
Choice C
grind sewage prior to
entering the sewage
treatment plant
Choice D
maintain correct tension
on the drive belts while
the compressor is in
operation
When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, bypassing the discharge fitting depressors
applying reduced
the cylinders can be unloaded during starting by
valves
which hold the suction voltage to the motor
__________.
valve plates open
increase compressor
discharge pressure on
demand
Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to vary their speed
__________.
according to
temperature and load
General Subjects 2
increase compressor
operating speed as
necessary
start and come up to
speed before air
compression begins
GS2111612
ID#
1956
1957
QUESTION
The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage
medium pressure, air compressor is to __________.
Choice A
remove all but the
friction load on the
compressor motor
when starting
removing all but the
frictional load during
starting
bypass the high
pressure stage to the
low pressure stage on
100% of the air
compressors in service
Choice B
Choice C
prevent water
reduce motor starting
accumulation in air lines voltage
relieving intercoolers of
high temperature
buildups
prevent excessive
interstage pressure
buildup
prevent excessive
interstage pressure
buildup
control compressor
discharge pressure
If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air
receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will
__________.
temporarily discharging
to the air receiver
temporarily
discharging back to
the compressor intake
using an enlarged,
relieving the
intercooler pressure to permanently opened
clearance expansion
the atmosphere
space
a precharged
accumulator
1958
1959
1960
1961
1962
1963
1964
General Subjects 2
Choice D
vary compressor speed
remove the
compression load as
the compressor comes
up to speed during
starting
Still function normally,
but the safety interlock
will stop the drive motor
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The unloading of an air compressor may be provided by
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
provide variable
discharge air flow to the
compressed air system
depending on the load
on the system
1970
minimize the system's receive exhaust air from remove all traces of oil
pneumatic accessories from the air
line pulsations
Condenses moisture.
1971
Provides overpressure
protection.
1965
1966
1967
1968
1969
1972
1973
1974
1975
General Subjects 2
first-stage unloader
Acts as an
accumulator.
thermometer and
manhole
fitted with a moisture
trap at the inlet
drain connection
yearly
quarterly
monthly
daily
Constant cleaning to
remove oil and dirt.
Frequent draining of
water.
GS2111612
ID#
1976
1977
1978
1979
1980
QUESTION
Condensate must be drained periodically from the air
compressor receivers to prevent __________.
Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction
and discharge valves on modern low pressure air
compressors?
The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type
valves for reciprocating air compressors is to __________.
Choice A
second stage cylinder
lockup
Poppet
Rotary
Choice C
faulty operation of
pneumatic valves
Reed
Choice D
corrosion of air receiver
baffles
Sliding
provide positive
closing of the valves
reduce compressor
discharge pulsations
They improve
compression efficiency.
A relatively large
cylinder clearance space
is required for valve
operation
operation.
Mechanical operating
valve gear is required to
open and close the
valves
valves.
Differential
Trunk
Barrel
a means of distributing
side pressures over a
wider area of each
cylinder
a means of unloading
during start-up
1981
1982
1983
1984
General Subjects 2
Choice B
oil sump contamination
Valve-in-head
GS2111612
ID#
1985
1986
1987
QUESTION
During the operation of the device shown in the illustration,
the required compressed air output has stabilized within a
pressure range of 100-110 psi. Which of the following
statements of operating conditions is correct?
Choice A
Component "B" is closed
and will open when
output pressure had
dropped below 50 psi.
Choice B
Component "D" is open
and will close when
output pressure rises
above 110 psi.
Choice C
Choice D
Component "F" will force Component "E" is
"E" to be driven to the
modulated
full open position.
proportionally in
response to the
required output.
G
H
compress air
pump refrigerant
generate electricity
compress air
1991
1992
1993
1988
1989
1990
1994
1995
1996
temporarily discharging
the compressed air to
the atmosphere
General Subjects 2
R
act as a cyclonic oil
separator
provide for expansion of
refrigeration gases
gravity feed provided by
component "A"
act as a cyclonic
pneumatic dehydrator
the use of an intercooler
relief device
GS2111612
ID#
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
QUESTION
Choice A
As demand on the device shown in the illustration fluctuates complete shut down until
in the pressure range of 100 to 110 psi, the output of the unit the lower pressure limit
is controlled by __________.
is reached causing it to
restart
Choice B
the modulation of the
opening of a butterfly
valve located in the air
intake
below the line discharge constant throughout the above the line
pressure
discharge period
discharge pressure
splash method
2004
General Subjects 2
Choice D
proportional modulation
of the compressor speed
Choice C
change in control
pressure to modulate
the discharge of
compressed air to the
atmosphere
D
compressor capacity
volumetric efficiency
total pressure
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is
defined as the space created between the __________.
Choice A
top of the piston and
bottom side of head,
with the piston at BDC
Choice B
piston and head,
including the space
around the piston to
the top of the upper
ring and under the
valves, with the piston
at TDC
Choice C
bottom of the piston and
bottom side of the head
at TDC, regardless of
upper ring location and
valve placement
Choice D
top of the piston and
bottom side of the head
at TDC as compared to
that which exists
between the top of the
piston and bottom side
of head at BDC
Intercooler, L.P.
cylinder, H.P. cylinder,
and air cleaner
spraying oil on the belts
2005
2006
2007
2008
2009
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
2015
2016
General Subjects 2
prevent longitudinal
thrust in the crankshaft
reduce torsional
vibration in the
crankshaft
diesel oil
gasoline
naphtha
GS2111612
ID#
2017
2018
2019
QUESTION
Choice A
A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and
prevent the valve from
seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will
wire drawing
__________.
A squealing sound occurring from within an operating
compressor overload
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of __________.
A squealing sound generated by a reciprocating air
badly leaking valves
compressor upon starting may indicate __________.
Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter carbon deposits on
will cause __________.
valves and pistons
Choice B
Choice C
retard the opening and have no effect on
compressor operation
closing of the valve
Choice D
provide quieter valve
operation
motor overload
tight compressor
bearings
defective unloader
compressor interstage
leakage
a clogged air intake
immediate piston
damage
leaking unloader
leaking discharge valve
2025
excessive wear on
valves and cylinder
liners
immediate clogging of
possible explosion in
the intake
the compressor
tripped circuit breaker control line leak
leakage in the
intercooler
using oil having an
excessive viscosity
2026
decreased compression
ratio
reduce the discharge
temperatures with
intercoolers
unloader malfunction
excessively tight
mounting bolts
a loose valve plate
insufficient cylinder
lubrication
excessive overload
no compression
insufficient cylinder
lubrication
2020
2021
2022
2023
2024
2027
2028
2029
2030
2031
2032
a defective or broken
high pressure unloader
General Subjects 2
broken discharge
unloader
worn or broken piston defects in the high
pressure unloader
rings
intercooler or after
carrying the oil level
cooler leaks
higher than normal
an excessive
consumption of
crankcase oil
water in the lubricating
oil
increase the oil volatility
a loose piston
GS2111612
ID#
2033
2034
2035
2036
2037
QUESTION
If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually
drops off, the cause could be __________.
A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air
compressor is unable to completely retract. This will result in
__________.
If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the
__________.
Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor
driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to
repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?
Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor
driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to
repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?
Choice A
leaking compressor
valves
overheating of the
discharge valve
Choice B
a clogged air filter
Choice C
worn cylinder liners
Choice D
all of the above
an abnormally low
intercooler pressure
compressor would
air receiver pressure
dangerously over speed would be excessively
low
Defective pressure
Leaking suction
switch
unloader
Compressor starting
against full load
Compressor starting
without any load
Defective pressure
switch
2038
Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a leaky discharge valves leaky discharge valves
reciprocating air compressor is caused by __________.
on the HP cylinder
on the LP cylinder
insufficient intercooler
cooling
2039
Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out Excessive compression A broken intake valve
through the inlet air filter of a running compressor?
in the cylinder
2040
2041
2042
2043
2044
2045
General Subjects 2
excessive compressor
discharge pressure
operating the
uneven piston stroke in
compressor at excessive the compressor
speed
excessive discharge
abrasion, dust, and dirt excessive compressor
pressure
speed
second stage discharge first stage discharge
pressure in the after
pressure
cooler
pressure
a defective pressure
switch or pilot valve
10
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the following problems would be the probable
cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air
compressor suction valve?
Choice A
Carbon build up in the
piston ring belt.
Choice B
Faulty operation of a
cylinder unloader.
Choice C
Choice D
Compressor operation in Lifting of intercooler
an area of high relative relief valve.
humidity.
compressor is
overloaded
broken compressor
valves
motor is overloaded
2048
2049
2053
2054
flywheel misalignment
with the driving motor
mechanical failure in
the unloader
2055
2046
2047
2050
2051
2052
2056
2057
2058
General Subjects 2
11
premature damage to
the bearings of the
compressor
a defective pressure
switch
a failed unloader
excessive moisture
buildup in the receiver
constant enlargement of
the clearance expansion
volume
trip the breaker when
result in a constant
being restarted for the
enlargement of the
first time after replacing clearance expansion
the belts
volume
cause the compressor to result in a constant
use more oil
enlargement of the
clearance expansion
volume
an increase in the axial a decrease in the axial
thrust on the
thrust on the
compressor crankshaft compressor crankshaft
GS2111612
ID#
2059
2060
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Operating the compressor and motor as shown in figure 5 of severely damaging the V- a decrease in the axial
the illustration, will result in ________.
grooves of the pulley
load on the crankshaft
A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and
grease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in
__________.
Choice C
a decrease in the axial
load on the motor shaft
I only
II only
Both I and II
Choice D
a decrease in the
normal life of the drive
belts
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
2062
2063
2064
hydrostatically tested at
a pressure equal to the
design pressure of the
tank
hydrostatically tested
at a pressure equal to
1 1/2 times the
maximum allowable
working pressure of
the tank
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require safety and relief 50% of that at which the 75% of that at which
110% of that at which
valves for air service to be provided with a substantial lifting valve is set to blow
the valve is set to blow the valve is set to blow
device, capable of lifting the disk from its seat when the
pressure in the vessel is __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) prohibit air compressors a space within three
from being located in __________.
meters of a cargo valve
an enclosed space
containing cargo piping
2065
2066
gain
2067
General Subjects 2
12
error
GS2111612
ID#
2068
2069
2070
2071
2072
2073
2074
2075
2076
QUESTION
The range of values around a set point of a measured
variable where "no action" occurs in an automatic flow
controller is called:
In an automatic flow controller, the factor by which the
magnitude of the flow error signal has been increased to
drive the final valve controller is referred to as _________.
Choice A
deviation
error
Choice C
deadband
bias
bias
gain
feedback
offset
offset
gain
deadband
feedback
provide downstream
turbulence
compensate for
upstream pressure
surges
increase sensitivity
With regards to process control, the operation of the device proportional control only
shown in the illustration can be characterized by the term
__________.
The illustrated control valve would be more suitable for
steam flow control to the
__________.
air ejectors
The valve shown in the illustration is typically used for
temperature control of a liquid being heated. Which of the
following changes to this unit would be useful in converting
the valve for use in controlling the temperature of a cooling
system?
With regards to the device shown in the illustration, the
parts labeled "D" and "I" function together to __________.
2077
2078
2079
Choice D
act as an accumulator
for the steam if a sudden
increase in steam supply
is required
3.9 psi/F
10.0 psi/F
12.25 psi/F
maximum pressure in
element "M"
position of diaphragm
"A"
the maximum
temperature of "M"
General Subjects 2
Choice B
13
GS2111612
ID#
2080
2081
2082
2083
2084
QUESTION
In order for the reducing valve, shown in the illustration, to
properly function, a control port is utilized between
__________.
With regards to the diaphragm controlled, internally piloted,
steam pressure reducing valve illustrated, as the
__________.
2087
2088
2089
Choice B
the inlet side and the
outlet side
Choice C
the underside of
diaphragm "E" and the
inlet
outlet pressure drops,
diaphragm ruptures, the
the valve stem will move valve will close
up
Choice D
the top of piston "H" and
the outlet
adjusting spring is
compressed further,
outlet pressure will
decrease
increase steam pressure decrease spring tension
to the reducing valve
in the main valve
Reducing valves
should be warmed-up
and drained before
y are adjusted.
j
they
2085
2086
Choice A
the underside of
diaphragm "E" and the
outlet
outlet pressure drops,
the valve stem will
move down
reduced pressure
acting on the
underside of the
diaphragm
Reducing valves are
absolutely reliable and
require no routine
maintenance.
all of the above
General Subjects 2
14
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The valve shown in the illustration uses port "J" to
__________.
Choice A
open the auxiliary valve
Choice B
open the main valve
Choice C
bleed off downstream
pressure beneath the
operating piston
Choice D
allow downstream
pressure to be sensed
by diaphragm "E"
equalizing pressures
exerted on auxiliary
valve "D" by high
pressure steam and
reduced pressure steam
flow
diaphragm "E"
mechanical linkage
a spring
2092
Raising adjusting
screw "G".
2093
refrigeration system
packless valve
main bus
pressure reducing
valve
standby generator
2090
2091
2094
2095
2096
2097
2098
2099
General Subjects 2
15
proportional action
steam pressure
transmitter
GS2111612
ID#
2100
QUESTION
Main engine room control console alarms are usually
designed to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an
open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will __________.
Choice A
cause an alarm
condition
Choice B
secure power to the
indicator
Choice C
cause a backup power
supply to energize
Choice D
automatically reclose
within 10 seconds
An alarm condition
causes a light and siren
to come on which
remain on until the
machinery is secured.
An alarm condition
causes a flashing light
to illuminate indicating
the malfunction,
followed by an audible
alarm. When the alarm
acknowledge button is
depressed, the audible
alarm is silenced and
light stops flashing but
remains illuminated.
An alarm condition
causes a flashing light to
come on, followed by an
audible alarm. When
the alarm acknowledge
button is depressed, the
warning light is
extinguished.
0 psi
10 psi
25 psi
50 psi
0 psi
25 psi
40 psi
50 psi
constant load
conditions
intermittent load
conditions
wide temperature
fluctuations
2101
2102
2103
2104
2105
2106
2107
2108
2109
variable output
pressure line to a
regulating valve
diaphragm
Referring to the device shown in the illustration, if a reversed the offsetting of the
the sensing or feedback
output were desired from a comparable unit as the system
power head, or motor, connection made from
pressure increased, the necessary physical changes to the and the use of a
below the power head or
unit would be __________.
motor
reversing lever
General Subjects 2
16
a feedback signal
pressure
ID#
2110
2111
2112
2113
2114
2115
2116
2117
2118
2119
QUESTION
Choice A
The device shown in the illustration is typically designed to relatively constant
operate in conjunction with a pneumatically controlled valve liquid tank levels
in order to maintain __________.
Choice B
steam flow rates
Choice C
flow rates as a square
root extractor
Choice D
constant pump-head
pressures
to maintain a level in a
tank vented to the
atmosphere,
pressurized, or
operating under a
vacuum
as a square root
extractor when variable
ratios are present in the
processing system
to maintain a constant
flow differential across a
turbine- driven,
centrifugal pump
provide a feedback
signal for accurate
final element
positioning
Power piston "H" moves
up.
Spring "F" is
compressed.
a higher outlet
pressure, with a higher
controlled fluid outlet
temperature
General Subjects 2
17
GS2111612
ID#
2120
2121
QUESTION
In order to decrease the set point of the control valve as
illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature of a
refrigeration condenser, the part labeled __________.
Choice A
"K" must be rotated
clockwise
Choice B
"A" must be rotated
counterclockwise
Choice C
"A" must be rotated
clockwise
Choice D
"K" must be rotated
counterclockwise
pilot valve stem to move operating air pressure operating air pressure at
upward
"F" to decrease
at "F" to increase
2122
2123
2124
2125
2126
2127
2128
2129
2130
Increasing the
compression on spring
No. 6
Screwing up on sleeve
No. 12
The power necessary to close the diaphragm control valve, valve positioning plunger controlled fluid pressure operating or loading
valve diaphragm tension
as used in a pneumatic control system, is supplied by the
pressure
__________.
In a spring opposed, diaphragm-type, pneumatic power unit area of the internal plate number of spring coils
area of the diaphragm tension rating of the
shown in the illustration, the force exerted on the spring is
spring
equal to the air pressure multiplied by the __________.
Which illustrated device would be best suited for measuring Figure A
Figure D
the flow rate of wet gases using a primary, differential
pressure, flow element?
When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what
Maximum and minimum Reduced pressure or
information is required for the selection?
inlet pressures
pressure range
Automatic pressure control valves for steam service require are subjected to high
periodic maintenance inspections because they
compressive stress
__________.
General Subjects 2
18
Figure E
ID#
2131
QUESTION
Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic
control system will __________.
2132
2133
2134
2137
2138
If the high pressure port became plugged in the springloaded, internal pilot, self-operated, steam pressure
reducing valve illustrated, which of the following problems
would probably occur?
Which of the problems listed will occur if diaphragm "E", in
the illustration shown, develops a significantly large hole?
Automatic thermostatic control valves are used in steamheated heavy fuel oil service systems for what purpose?
2139
General Subjects 2
Choice A
delay transmission of
the air signal
Choice B
Choice C
increase the transmitted reduce the transmitted
air signal intensity
air signal value
19
maintenance of fuel
delivery temperature to
boiler or diesel engine
supply header as
appropriate
maintenance of fuel
delivery pressure to
boiler or diesel engine
fuel oil supply header as
appropriate
Choice D
accelerate transmission
of the air signal
maintenance of steam
temperature supplying
steam tracing lines for
heavy fuel oil
GS2111612
ID#
2140
2141
2142
2143
2144
QUESTION
Choice A
As a watch stander you should know that some auxiliaries
An orifice
are not designed to handle steam at boiler pressure. Which
of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to
deliver steam at the correct pressure?
Choice B
A steam pressure
reducing valve
Choice C
A nozzle valve
Over tightening of the valve stem packing to a pneumatically valve stem breakage
controlled final control element, shown in the illustration, will
cause __________.
The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically the range spring has
controlled steam pressure reducing valve is __________.
become weakened
erratic operation
an incorrect loading
a defective air pilot
pressure supplied to the valve
power unit
With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of
practically no limit to the no transmission losses low energy input
pneumatic control systems over electrical control systems is power available for a
__________.
given system
2147
2148
2149
Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining evaluate only the latest
logged data as this is
the long term probability of machinery failure if you
__________.
the best indication of
plant status
evaluate a series of
readings to obtain
operating trends
Integral control
Derivative control
On-off control
proportional action
rate action
proportion control
reset control
rate control
set point
control point
offset
2145
2146
Choice D
A constant quantity
regulating valve
General Subjects 2
The manipulated
variables are adjusted
only from the input
demand signals without
monitoring the outlet
conditions or variables.
neutral zone
20
GS2111612
ID#
2150
2151
2152
2153
QUESTION
The range of values through which the input can be varied
without initiating an output response is known as
__________.
When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a
change in this adjustment results in a change of the
__________.
Which of the following control actions, when combined with
proportional-position action, will eliminate manual
repositioning of the set point for each load change to
produce an automatic reset action?
Reset control is considered to be the same as
__________.
I. proportional speed floating control
II. integral control
The reset process control mode is also considered to be the
same as __________.
Choice A
deviation
offset
Choice B
Choice C
sensitivity
Choice D
dead band
desired prepositioned
value of the controlled
medium
Rate action
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
Integral control
Derivative control
On-off control
derivative control
integral control
2154
2155
2156
2157
2158
2159
2160
integral action
proportional action
rate action
derivative action
Proportional-plus-reset
control
narrows the proportional
band
Derivative control
Which of the following statements expresses the function of The action measures the The action gives
proportional-plus-reset action?
rate of time of the final
control without offset
control element.
under all load
conditions.
General Subjects 2
21
GS2111612
ID#
2161
QUESTION
In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,
the proportional action __________.
I only
II only
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship two position control
service refrigeration system, is an example of __________.
proportional control
reset control
The mode of control employed by a typical bilge alarm circuit two position control
is a __________.
The control mode in which the final control element is moved dead band action
from one of two fixed positions to the other is known as
__________.
The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air Two position
compressors is an example of which mode of control?
proportional speed
floating control
range
reset control
Derivative
Integral
2164
2165
2166
2167
2168
Choice B
Choice A
on-off action
General Subjects 2
22
GS2111612
ID#
2169
2170
2171
2172
2173
QUESTION
A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the overcorrection of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed
droop is called __________.
The steady state difference between the control point and
the value of the controlled variable, corresponding with the
set point, is known as __________.
Which of the following definitions can be used to define the
term 'offset' as a characteristic of controller action?
stability
Choice A
hunting
Choice B
Choice C
compensation
Choice D
sensitivity
dead band
control point
deviation
offset
Proportional
Reset
The constant
difference between the
set point and the
control point.
Rate
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
controlled variable
manipulated variable
set point
control point
reset action
integral action
derivative action
proportional action
Proportional action
Integral action
Derivative action
reset control
integral control
derivative control
reset control
integral control
2174
2175
2176
2177
2178
2179
2180
2181
I. proportional control
II. reset control
The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled
is known as the __________.
A control action which produces a corrective signal relative
to the speed at which the controlled variable is changing is
known as __________.
Which of the following control modes is generally not used
by itself?
The control mode that is generally not used by itself is
__________.
A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control
element is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the
controlled variable, is called __________.
General Subjects 2
23
proportional band
adjustment of the
controller
GS2111612
ID#
2182
QUESTION
A pure transducer utilizes __________.
A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that
__________.
2183
2184
2185
2190
2191
2192
Choice C
Choice D
derivative action
proportional action
the form of the input and the action must be either
output energies must be integral or derivative
different
2%
100%
500%
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
proportional speed
floating control
Reset control is also referred to as __________.
derivative control
The effect of 'reset', when added to a proportional controller make the controller
is to __________.
correction proportional
to the rate at which the
input change takes
place
derivative control
rate control
proportional control
integral control
accelerate the corrective
action so as to minimize
the possibility of hunting
rate control
make the corrective
action of the controller
proportional to the
deviation of the
controlled variable from
the set point
proportional control
repeat the proportional
action until the
controlled variable
returns to the set point
proportioning
biasing
controlling
loading pressure
supply pressure
2187
2189
Choice B
rate action
the ratio of the output to
the input must always be
greater than the
numerical value of 'one'
2186
2188
Choice A
integral action
the form of the input
and output energies
must be the same
General Subjects 2
control pressure
24
GS2111612
ID#
2193
2194
2195
QUESTION
The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed
set of conditions the automatic controller operates to
maintain, is known as __________.
When a controller with proportional position action is used to
control a process, a load change will cause the controlled
variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point
value. The new point at which the controlled variable
stabilizes is called __________.
The ratio of output response to a specified change in the
input is known as __________.
Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity
as a characteristic of controller action?
Choice A
set point
Choice B
control point
Choice C
deviation
offset
offset
deviation
control point
load point
primary feedback
deviation
sensitivity
dead band
system differential
The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a
positioner type automation system. The variable input is
provided through the steering wheel, and the rudder position
is fed back to the operating mechanism. The difference
between the input signal and the follow-up signal, until
matched and cancelled, is the __________.
proportional band
error
command input
When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation bridge is proportional band
turned, the difference existing between the position of the
wheel and that of the rudder is known as __________.
feedback
command input
output
feedback
bimetallic type
diaphragm type
volatile liquid-type
diaphragm actuatedtype
diaphragm type
Bourdon tube-type
2196
2197
2198
2199
2200
2201
2202
2203
2204
2205
General Subjects 2
Choice D
resistance-temperature
type
resistance-temperaturetype
resistance-temperature
type
chemical feed tank of an
evaporator
density
temperature and
pressure
bimetallic type
25
humidity and
temperature
GS2111612
ID#
2206
2207
2208
2209
2210
2211
2212
2213
2214
2215
2216
2217
2218
2219
QUESTION
A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of
measuring __________.
At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure
gage most likely be located?
Which of the gage types listed is shown in the illustration?
The device shown in the illustration is an example of a
simple __________.
A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects
of the steam entering the pressure element by a/an
__________.
Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type
gages from the direct exposure to steam by __________.
A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a
siphon loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of
__________.
A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a
siphon loop to prevent damage from __________.
When pressure is applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure
gage, it will begin to unbend. The reason for this action is
that the __________.
The Bourdon tube-type
tube type pressure gage will begin to
straighten out when pressure is applied due to the
__________.
The working components of a Bourdon tube pressure gage
are shown in the illustration. When pressure is applied, the
tube element will __________.
In order to accurately measure very low positive pressures,
which of the instruments listed should be used?
Choice A
temperature and
pressure
Fuel oil service pump
discharge flange
Duplex Bourdon tube
type
Bourdon tube gauge
Choice B
wet bulb and dry bulb
temperatures
Fuel oil strainer
exposed, uninsulated
coil in the line leading
to the gage
changing the direction of
the steam flow
pressure shock
uneven expansion
entering steam
entering condensate
Choice D
pressure and vacuum
Fuel oil flow meter
Duplex compound type
hydrometer
pressure shock
extreme thermal stress the admission of
condensate
pressure is the greatest pressure is the greatest force is the greatest on
on the arc AB
on the arc DC
the arc AB
differential expansion
rates
force is the greatest on
the arc DC
applied pressure being applied pressure being total force being the
the greatest on the outer the greatest on the inner greatest on the inner
circumference
circumference
circumference
Compound gage
Bourdon tube
Manometer
Deadweight gage
A bourdon tube
A reset button
A calibrated scale
compression
homiostatious
deformation
gas eddys
General Subjects 2
Choice C
humidity and
temperature
Fuel oil heater
26
GS2111612
ID#
2220
2221
2222
2223
2224
2225
2226
2227
2228
QUESTION
Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to
continuous expansion and contraction are affected by
hysteresis. This is a natural process that __________.
Choice A
allows a material to
return to its exact
original shape
Choice B
Choice C
allows a resilient
permits a resilient
material to return to its material to resist
almost original shape permanent deformation
Choice D
is directly related to a
material's elastic limit
-2 inches of water
+2 inches of water
-4 inches of water
+4 inches of water
Bourdon tube
compound diaphragm
compensating spring
B = 1.3 psig D = 36
inches of H2O
B = 16 psig D = 63
inches of H2O
B = 17.4 psig D = 42
inches of H2O
D = 407.6 inches of
water
The differential height of the left hand side of the tube from 4.32 psia
the zero mark to the open end for device "C" is 4.4". If the
barometric pressure is 14.7 psia, and the "U" tube contains
mercury, what minimum pressure applied to "A" would just
force the liquid out of the tube?
General Subjects 2
4.32 psig
27
29.92 psia
B = 14.7 psig D = 32
inches of H2O
D = 27.73 inches of
water
2.16 psig
GS2111612
ID#
2229
2230
2231
2232
2233
2234
QUESTION
A pressure gage, similar to device "D" shown in the
illustration, is installed on the vessel's ventilation system.
The gage is indicating 30 inches of water (7.465 kPa), but
the accuracy of the gage is in doubt.Using a piece of clear
hose, you construct a simple U tube mercury manometer,
similar to device "C" illustrated. Once installed, the distance
between the levels is 12.7 centimeters. How inaccurate is
the existing draft gage?
Choice A
The gage reads slightly
lower, but the
inaccuracy is too
insignificant to be
concerned.
Choice B
The draft gage is correct
when acknowledging the
effects of absolute
pressure on the system.
Choice C
The existing draft gage
indicates a pressure
equal to atmospheric
pressure.
rotating vane
transmitting nutating
motion to a counter
mechanism
pilot tube
Anemometer
Psychrometer
Aerometer
What common practice is used to reduce the response time Fill the well with
for a bearing thermometer using a protective well?
nitrogen.
2235
2236
2237
2238
General Subjects 2
28
Choice D
The mechanical draft
gage is indicating an
error incorrect by 55
percent of the true
measured value.
GS2111612
ID#
2239
2240
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuity with the driving voltage of the pyrometer total
a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometer because the meter batteries can resistance can damage
__________.
the ohmmeter
damage the circuit
meter
Choice C
the reactance of the
pyrometer will give a
false meter reading
at one end
to the impeller
assist in synchronizing
generators
pressure
level
temperature
flow
relative humidity
air pressure
air pressure in the diesel phosphates in boiler
engine starting circuit
water
fluid pneumercations
micro ohms in
condensate
fluid meter
viscosimeter
pneumercator
2241
2242
2243
2244
2245
2246
2247
2248
2249
2250
Choice D
meter current running
through the pyrometer
will permanently
magnetize the
pyrometer's pointer
to the impulse
transmitter
General Subjects 2
calorimeter
29
provide a remote
reading of the liquid
stored in the tank
all of the above
equal to the pressure of
the square root of the
height of liquid H, times
.833
proportional to the
pressure of the cube
root of the height of
liquid H, times .491
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank by
sensing __________.
Choice A
I only
II only
Choice B
Choice C
both I and II
Choice D
neither I nor II
2252
2253
I. head pressure
II. liquid density
To ensure an accurate tank level pneumercator reading, you purge the balance
should __________.
chamber to remove
any liquid
The zero set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure
gage is accomplished by __________.
2254
2255
2256
2257
2258
General Subjects 2
30
GS2111612
ID#
2259
2260
QUESTION
A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tube
pressure gage is accomplished by __________.
I only
Choice A
II only
Choice B
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
2261
2262
pneumercator is
recharged with the air
supply open
2263
2264
2265
In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings excessive charging air
have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last,
was supplied
this indicates that __________.
General Subjects 2
31
free surface effect in the an improperly calibrated excess air in the balance
tank
gage
chamber
insufficient charging
air has been supplied
GS2111612
ID#
2266
QUESTION
When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a
pneumercator, the initial reading obtained can be quickly
verified by __________.
Choice A
repeating the process
and getting the same
reading again
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
sounding the tank with a a gauge reading of zero a gauge reading equal
tape coated with a fuel when the control handle to supply air pressure
indicating paste
is in the purge position when the control handle
is in the purge position
accumulator
piping
actuator
ram
reservoir
pure oxygen
dry nitrogen
dry hydrogen
Pressure compensator
valve
Accumulator
Sump actuator
absorb shocks
occurring in the
system
provide an area to
separate solid
contaminants from the
oil
provide an area to
separate solid
contaminants from the
oil
Trap foreign matter
2267
2268
2269
2270
2271
2272
2273
2274
2275
2276
2277
General Subjects 2
absorb sudden
changes in hydraulic
fluid flow occurring in
the system
Separate air from the oil All of the above
32
eliminate pressure
surges in the system
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow
system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should
__________.
Choice B
be arranged to develop
a maximum vacuum of
approximately 10" of
mercury
Choice C
be arranged to develop
the theoretically
maximum attainable
vacuum
Choice D
be provided with three to
five 1/2 inch holes in the
vertical, suction line to
prevent pump starvation
should the strainer
become fouled
prevent moisture
accumulation
prevent vacuum
formation
accommodate thermal
expansion
II only
Both I and II
Neither I and II
II only
Both I and II
Neither I and II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I and II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I and II
2278
2279
Choice A
be taken directly off the
reservoir bottom without
regard to filters or
strainers
2280
2281
2282
2283
2284
General Subjects 2
33
GS2111612
ID#
2285
QUESTION
In order for the hydraulic system to operate with fewer
contaminants from the system's operating fluid, the
illustrated device may __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
be increased in height
be increased in length
have additional baffles have the horizontal
with all other dimensions installed
submerged section of
and have the width
remaining the same
the suction line lengthen narrowed
condensation on inside
walls
two to three times the
normal flow rate
through the system
removing "G" and
measuring the level in
the sump
frequency of fluid
changeover
ten times the flow rate
through the system
accumulator
filter
2286
2287
2288
2289
2290
2291
2292
2293
2294
2295
2296
General Subjects 2
34
separator
strainer
automatically securing
automatically
bypassing the fluid via the system
an internal valve
arrangement
GS2111612
ID#
2297
QUESTION
Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to
__________.
2298
2299
2300
2301
2302
2303
2304
2305
2306
2307
2308
2309
Choice A
protect the pump from
fine soluble
contaminants
Nutating disk
Three-position valve
Spring-centered valve
Spring-centered valve
Unloading valve
Three-position valve
Two-position valve
Two-position valve
Three-position valve
relief valve
reservoir valve
relief valve
reservoir valve
three-position valve
sequencing valve
directional control
valve
directional control
valve
unloading valve
counterbalance valve
Counterbalance valve
Sequencing valve
Unloading valve
Detented position
valve
casing drain
Sequencing valve
Unloading valve
General Subjects 2
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
prevent solid particles prevent air from entering protect the directional
the pump
control valves
from entering the
pump
Elongated ball or cone Restricted orifice poppet
Sliding spool
35
power valve
regenative valve
GS2111612
ID#
2310
2311
2312
2313
2314
2315
2316
2317
2318
2319
QUESTION
Choice A
Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over
allow an alternate main
valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to pump to start in the fully
________.
loaded condition thus
developing immediate
full torque.
Choice B
prevent the idle main
pump from being
hydraulically motored
by cross pressure
flow.
sequence valve
unloading valve
unloading valve
sequence valve
drift to an extreme
position and the output
speed will increase to
maximum
metered-in circuit
2320
General Subjects 2
36
drift to an extreme
position and the output
speed will drop to zero
metered-out circuit
The load on the
actuator may cause a
difference in pressure
to exist between the
rod and cap end, and
oil discharging to the
sump across the relief
valve with the pump
operating.
Choice C
prevent main pumps
from operating
simultaneously which
could result in the over
pressurization of the
system.
Choice D
all of the above.
refrigerant pressure
all of the above
spring centered
directional control
valve
return to its centered
position and the output
will increase to
maximum
bleed-in circuit
throttle valve
A pressure differential
will exist between the
two ends of the actuator,
with pump discharge
lower than normal due to
flow across the
unloading valve.
GS2111612
ID#
2321
2322
2323
2324
2325
2326
QUESTION
Choice A
A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear
metered-in circuit
actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at
above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.
Choice B
metered-out circuit
Choice C
bleed-in circuit
Choice D
bleed-off circuit
metered-out circuit
bleed-off circuit
bleed-in circuit
metered-in circuit
metered-out circuit
bleed-in circuit
bleed-off circuit
metered-in circuit
metered-out circuit
bleed-off circuit
bleed-in circuit
metered-in circuit
metered-out circuit
bleed-in circuit
bleed-off circuit
2329
offset, directional
control valve
2330
2331
2332
three-position,
variable-position,
infinite-position,
two-position,
directional control valve directional control valve directional control valve directional control
valve
have an infinite number usually be shifted into be able to be varied
have an offset,
of valve positions
through out the travel of directional control only
three specific
the valve spool
positions
four-position,
springrotary, directional control offset solenoid,
three-position,
centered, directional
valve
directional control valve
detented, directional
control valve
control valve
2327
2328
General Subjects 2
37
infinite-position,
directional control valve
GS2111612
ID#
2333
2334
2335
2336
2337
QUESTION
Choice A
Regarding the device shown in the illustration, if the operator valve will remain in
releases the handle while the system output is in motion,
position with the
the __________.
output remaining
unchanged
Choice B
valve will remain in
position with the system
output steadily
decreasing
Choice C
valve will drift to the
center position stopping
any further output of the
system
Choice D
valve will drift to the
opposite position
changing the direction of
output motion of the
system
Counterbalance valve
Pressure-relief valve
Sequence valve
Pressure-reducing valve
Unloading valve
Sequence valve
Unloading valve
Sequence valve
Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to Pressure-reducing valve Unloading valve
establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic
system?
Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to Replenishing valve
Unloading valve
permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system
before a second action would be permitted?
Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in a
hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of a
vertical load until required?
Which component in a hydraulic system is commonly used
to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until
required?
If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the __________.
pump should reverse the cylinder should extend pump should discharge
direction of flow
directly to the reservoir
2340
2341
quad seal
soft-packing seal
spring seal
mechanical seal
V-ring
Cup seal
U-ring
Quad ring
II
III
IV
2338
2339
2342
2343
2344
2345
2346
General Subjects 2
38
GS2111612
ID#
2347
2348
2349
2350
QUESTION
The components used to 'lock' the hydraulic tubing in place
when assembling the illustrated compression fitting "C" are
items __________.
Dry seal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe
connectors, and threaded piping in hydraulic systems are
__________.
I and III
Choice A
I and II
Choice C
II and III
expansion and
tube fitting leaks from
contraction of the tubing vibration and pressure
surges
a color code on the
the numerical
designation found on armor
the 'skin' of the hose
3/4 inch
7/8 inch
For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a the wall thickness
hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it
is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.
2351
excessive pump
cavitation
2352
2353
2354
2355
2356
2357
Choice D
III and IV
1 inch
inner tube
outer cover
outer armor
external cover
braided layer
Teflon sleeve
establish minimum
operating pressures
within the system
If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control will move to the right,
the output of an axial piston pump, when part "A" is moved and "C" will move to the
to the right, then part "B" __________.
left, but lagging behind
"B"
General Subjects 2
Choice B
39
provide a constant
output discharge
pressure from the
hydraulic pump
GS2111612
ID#
2358
2359
2360
2361
2362
2363
QUESTION
If the device shown in the illustration is used to control the
output of a variable displacement pump, and part "A" is
displaced 50% from 'zero' stroke, which of the following
statements will be correct?
Choice A
Pump discharge will be
100% until the effects of
lost motion in the
associated linkages is
eliminated.
Choice C
The pump would
develop a 50%
discharge rate and
remain at that
condition until the
control handle position
is changed.
Regardless of the
control handle position,
the pump will gradually
move to full stroke.
Choice D
The system unloading
valve will open to
guarantee a pump
discharge of no more
than 50%.
Which of the following statements will be true if the position Although oil will leak
of the manual control lever, shown in the illustration, remains past part 'B,' the
unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke?
amount of pump
stroke will be
maintained until the
control handle position
is changed.
General Subjects 2
Choice B
Once the pump
achieved a
corresponding output of
50%, the pump would
automatically return to
neutral stroke.
Regardless of the
control handle position,
the pump will gradually
return to neutral stroke.
40
GS2111612
ID#
2364
2365
2366
2367
2368
2369
2370
2371
2372
2373
2374
QUESTION
Choice A
One function of a replenishing pump installed in many
the reservoir
pressure-closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to
__________.
Choice B
Choice C
a servo control circuit position a manually
controlled valve
two-stage hydraulic
pump unit
series-flow pump unit
Heat exchanger
parallel, pump unit
is pilot controlled
Variable displacement
pump
two-stage, pump unit
Filter
is pressure
compensated
can be adjusted or
varied
expansion joint
spring
flexible mount
unidirectional rotating
motor
piloted choke
2376
General Subjects 2
41
check valve
bi-directional
directional rotating
constant flow pump of constant flow screw type bi
constant flow pump
indefinite construction pump
2375
Choice D
the main system
accumulators under all
operating conditions
If neither solenoid is
energized, the pump
drains oil back to the
sump through "G".
If neither solenoid is
energized, the pump
drains oil back to the
sump through the
directional spool valve.
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic
circuit as __________.
Choice A
one of two motor driven
remotely operated
pumps to open and
close the water tight
door
Choice B
the manually operated
pump located in a
common passage way
to close the water tight
door in an emergency
Choice C
motor driven pump used
to close the water tight
door from the navigation
bridge in an emergency
Choice D
the manually operated
pump used to open or
close the water tight
door from the engine
room side
2377
2378
2379
2380
2381
2382
2383
2384
2385
2386
General Subjects 2
length of stroke is
greater
RPM is doubled
variable or constant
speed motor
minimum speed until the neutral stroke until all of
normal operating
the air has been vented
pressure is reached
increased by adding a
fixed by the pump
longer cylinder block
housing angle
The pistons reciprocate. The "B" end cylinder
barrel rotates.
decreased by adding a
longer cylinder block
There is no fluid flow.
increased by adding a
shorter cylinder block
Power is transmitted
hydraulically.
inch-pounds at a given
RPM
directing the motor
output flow through a
bypass line
foot-pounds at a given
viscosity
controlling the input
flow rate
42
GS2111612
ID#
2387
2388
2389
2390
2391
2392
2393
2394
2395
QUESTION
With regards to axial piston hydraulic pump/motor power
units, motor speed is a function of fluid flow rate generated
by the pump. Which of the following statements describes
why the motor is NOT manipulated as is the pump?
2396
2397
2398
Choice A
The designers of the
equipment have never
considered the use of
the tilting box with a
hydraulic motor.
General Subjects 2
Choice B
A comparable pump
tilting box if used in a
hydraulic motor, would
eliminate the hydraulic
lock to the system
when the motor is
placed in neutral
stroke.
5 or 7
Choice C
Reduction gears would
be required if a hydraulic
motor were designed
with a tilting box.
Choice D
A tilting box hydraulic
motor could never
produce more than one
horsepower.
7 or 9
9 or 11
tilting box
slide block
slide block
tilting box
pintle
reaction ring
sliding block
pintle
reaction ring
variable displacement
hydraulic pump
fixed displacement
pump
variable output
alternator
constant speed
hydraulic motor
variable stroke pump
Maximum speed in
either direction of
rotation would be
achieved just beyond
of neutral stroke,
making reversal of
direction difficult.
lobe type
screw type
volute type
Lobe
Screw
Radial piston
Volute
mooring winch
43
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ID#
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Roller vanes would have The diameter of the rotor Nothing could be done
to be exchanged for
would have to be
to convert this device to
sliding vanes.
increased.
a hydraulic motor.
result in extreme
damage to the pump
2400
QUESTION
Choice A
The device illustrated is considered to be a pump. Which of Pressurized fluid
the following statements is true if it is to be used as a
would have to be
hydraulic motor?
supplied to the
existing indicted
casing outlet.
An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a vessel's
cause loss of hydraulic
hydraulic steering gear. Under pressure, the oil leak off from oil from the system
between the valve plate and cylinder barrel will ______.
2401
available horsepower at
the "B" end would
increase in proportion as
the tilting box would
approach zero stroke
available horsepower
at the "B" end would
increase in proportion
to the increasing angle
of the "B" end tilt box
angle
available horsepower at
the "B" end would
increase in proportion as
the tilting box angle
would approach zero
stroke
available horsepower at
the "B" end would
increase in proportion to
decreasing the angle of
the "B" end tilting box
towards zero
available horsepower at
the "B" end would
increase in proportion as
the tilting box would
approach zero stroke
2 and 3
2 to position 3
3 to position 4
4 to position 1
2 and 3
2399
2402
2403
2404
2405
2406
2407
General Subjects 2
44
GS2111612
ID#
2408
2409
2410
2411
2412
2413
2414
2415
2416
2417
2418
2419
QUESTION
In the illustration, control over the direction and quantity of
fluid flow is attained by __________.
Choice A
changing the
eccentricity between
the reaction ring and
the cylinder block
varying the direction of
rotation and size of the
pintle valve
Choice B
Choice C
moving the cylinder
varying the direction of
block off center from the rotation and speed of
reaction (floating) ring
the prime mover
Choice D
varying the prime mover
direction of rotation and
throttling pump output
radial plunger
floating ring
cylinder body
by resistance to the
fluid flow through the
system
resistance of the internal
components
In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are central valve
accomplished by moving the __________.
Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed
only by the pump as its
__________.
primary function
The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated
by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming
__________.
In the system illustrated, which of the following readings
should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is
8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5
sq. cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on
the gauge if the load (x) is 8000 lbs and the piston area is 10
sq. in?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on
the gauge if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston
area is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on
the gage if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston
area (y) is 8 sq. in (51.6 sq. cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on
the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lbs (4540 kg) and the
piston area (y) is 8 sq. in (51.6 sq. cm)?
internal resistance to
flow
80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2)
800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2) 80,000 psi (5631
kg/cm2)
800 psi
8,000 psi
80,000 psi
80 psi
800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2) 80,000 psi (5631.0
kg/cm2)
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on 785 psi (55.19 kg/cm2)
the gage if the load (x) is 702.68 lbs (319.02 kg) and the
piston area (y) is 1.117 sq. in (7.21 sq. cm)?
General Subjects 2
45
GS2111612
ID#
2420
2421
2422
2423
2424
2425
2426
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on 10,000 psi (703 kg/cm2) 100,000 psi (7,030
100 psi (7.03 kg/cm2)
the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lb (4,450 kg) and the piston
kg/cm2)
area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq cm.)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on 291 psi (20.46 kg/cm2) 832 psi (58.49 kg/cm2) 628 psi (44.15 kg/cm2)
the gage if the load (x) is 9984 lbs (4532.7 kg) and the
piston area is 12 sq. in (77.4 sq. cm)?
66.66 psi (4.69 kg/cm2) 8000 psi (562.4 kg/cm2) 55.55 psi (3.91 kg/cm2) 96000 psi (6,748.8
kg/cm2)
2427
2429
2428
Choice D
1,000 psi (70.30
kg/cm2)
position of the
directional port in the
cushion cavity
adjustment of the
cushion cavity check
valve
setting of the
cushioning adjustment
needle valve
To regulate actuator
To slow the action of
speed through the entire the piston preventing
stroke length.
shock and damage
due to hammering
effects.
pump discharge
speed of the actuator
pressure will be reduced will be reduced
by a proportional
amount
inversely proportional to
When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted without zero
an applied load, the pressure on the oil leaving the 'cap end'
the speed of retraction
will be __________.
General Subjects 2
46
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the following statements concerning the operation
of a single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?
Choice A
Hydraulic force is
applied simultaneously
in two directions against
the ram by directional
ports.
Choice B
The single-acting ram is
both extended and
retracted by means of
hydraulic force.
2430
2431
2432
2433
2434
2435
2439
2440
2436
2437
2438
2441
2442
General Subjects 2
Constant tension
mooring winch system
Choice C
The single-acting ram
is not retracted by
means of hydraulic
force.
Choice D
Hydraulic force applied
to a single-acting ram
results in a pulling
motion.
Internal combustion
engine hydraulic starter
system
internal combustion
engine hydraulic starter
system
All of the above.
47
90 bend as required of
the installation
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave
sufficient room for expansion, which of the following
problems will develop?
Choice A
Choice B
The components
The hose may pull
loose from its fittings. connected by the hose
will be damaged.
Choice C
The hydraulic unit will
fail to acquire any
power.
2445
2446
2443
2444
2447
2448
2449
2450
2451
Choice D
The hydraulic fluid will
overheat and
breakdown.
General Subjects 2
48
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ID#
QUESTION
To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator
__________.
Choice B
remove all hydraulic
system pressure and
bring the pneumatic
pressure to the system's
design pressure
Choice C
increase the pneumatic
pressure until the
hydraulic system
reaches its design
pressure
Choice D
allow the accumulator to
completely fill with gas
charge at atmospheric
pressure, shut off the air
chamber, and add
hydraulic fluid until
proper pressure is
reached
paint
reduce in volume by 1%
for every 100 psi
increment
Place drip pans under
leaky fittings.
increase in volume by
1% for every 1,000 psi
increment
Seal any cracks in lines
with Permatex.
reduce in volume by
1/2% for every 1,000
psi increment
Coat all threads with
graphite oil.
2452
2453
2454
2455
2456
2457
2458
2459
2460
2461
General Subjects 2
Choice A
remove all hydraulic
system pressure and
bring the pneumatic
pressure to the
accumulator preload
pressure
Deterioration of paints,
seals, metals, and
electrical insulation
may occur.
viscosity will decrease
contracts
49
increases
floc point will increase
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what
special attention should be given to the hydraulic system?
Choice A
The relief valves in the
system should be
readjusted.
Choice B
The filters and
strainers should be
checked frequently.
Choice C
All system pressure
should be readjusted.
Increased power
consumption.
insufficient load
relief-valve
relief
valve pressure
setting too high
Seal deterioration.
Increased wear of
moving parts.
20
40
60
80
Pour point
Cloud point
Vacuum
Pressure
excessively worn
actuator-piston packing
broken directional
control valve centering
springs
incorrect fluid
viscosity
2462
2464
2465
2466
2467
2468
2469
2470
2471
2472
2473
General Subjects 2
Choice D
The system should be
drained and renewed
with a fluid of different
operating
characteristics.
The relief valves in the The filters and
System return pressure The system should be
system should be
should be readjusted.
drained and renewed
strainers should be
readjusted.
with a fluid of different
checked frequently.
operating
characteristics.
adding small amounts of the system has been
the system has been
the system has been
oil to the system
overheated
drained and then filled idle for a long period of
time
with new oil
cleaned using a water- descaled by using a
hydrostatically tested to all of the above
based detergent
100% of maximum
pickling solution
working pressure
alcohol
a water-based detergent carbon tetrachloride
a special petroleum
solvent
50
continued slow
recirculation of the oil
GS2111612
ID#
2474
2475
2476
QUESTION
Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump
operation and can be caused by a/an __________.
Choice A
high fluid level in the
reservoir
Choice B
hydraulic fluid low floc
point
Choice C
Choice D
excessive discharge
clogged suction
pressure from the pump strainer in the
reservoir
low fluid viscosity
high oil level in the sump
existing only around the
shaft seal
the relief valve to hum
a decrease in pump
RPM
caused by pitting of the a result of a clogged
pump internals due to
discharge filter
operation with acidic oil
galvanic action
slippage
2477
2478
2479
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be the steering pumps over a jammed open relief
indicated by __________.
speeding
valve
2480
General Subjects 2
51
GS2111612
ID#
2483
2484
2485
2486
2487
2488
2489
2490
2491
2492
2493
2494
QUESTION
Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused
by __________.
Choice A
continuous leakage
through the pressure
relief valve
Choice B
Choice C
an increase in the
insufficient external
number of the hydraulic pump slippage
fluid film layers
excessive internal
slippage in the pump
fluid friction
fluid turbulence
hydraulic fluid
contamination
component
misalignment
turbulent fluid flow
removed by cellulose
type filters
microscopic steel
shavings
gums, acids, and
varnishes
abrasive waste
removed by cellulose
type filters
neutralized by oil
additives
General Subjects 2
Choice D
fluctuating pump
discharge pressure in
response to normal load
variations
operation of the pump at
100% efficiency
pressure surges
fluid pressure surges
not removed by
absorbent filters
Apply an adhesive
between parts "D" and
"E".
Apply an adhesive to
part "G".
Apply an adhesive
between part "F" and the
shaft.
compression set or
wear
permanent loss of pump
suction
slower actuator
retraction speed
52
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the following problems will occur if the internal
drain at either end of a hydraulic, two-way, spool-type
directional control valve cylinder were to become plugged?
Choice A
The reservoir would
become vapor bound.
Choice B
The valve would be
placed in hydraulic
lock.
Choice C
Choice D
The spring loaded relief The buffering chambers
ports would open.
would be unable to
function.
2497
2498
2499
2495
2496
2500
2501
2502
overheating of the
system
General Subjects 2
53
GS2111612
ID#
2503
2504
2505
2506
2507
2508
2509
2510
2511
2512
2513
2514
QUESTION
Which of the conditions listed will cause the hydraulic pump
relief valve to remain open during the operation of the
system?
If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling
noise while in operation, this is a probable indication of
__________.
A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an
operating hydraulic pump can be caused by __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Bleeding the gas charge Reducing the relief
from the accumulator.
valve spring
compression.
internal system fluid
air passing through
leakage
the pump
Choice C
Removing the restrictor
valve check-valve
spring.
strained hydraulic fluid
Choice D
Opening the restrictor
valve variable orifice by
one third of a turn.
excess internal slippage
contaminated fluid
obstructed suctions
passage
pump discharge flow to
drop to zero
counterbalance valve
suction strainer
condition
controller contactor
operating coil
controller circuit
breaker
three-position, spring
loaded, and closed
centered
three-position, spring
loaded, and open
centered
General Subjects 2
54
GS2111612
ID#
2515
2516
2517
2518
2519
2520
2521
2522
2523
2524
QUESTION
Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined
filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled,
the __________.
A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir
frequently indicates signs of excessive pitting after two
months of service. Which of the following would most likely
contribute to this condition?
A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir
indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of
service. Which of the following would most likely contribute
to this condition?
Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately
absorbed by the __________.
In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment
consideration is given to minimize turbulence in the
hydraulic fluid, as this will cause __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations, flexible hoses used
as supply and return lines to hydraulic system components,
must have __________.
Choice A
reservoir will become
pressurized
Choice B
reservoir will be
subjected to a partial
vacuum
Abnormal pressurization A partial restriction in the
return line has
is occurring in the
developed.
reservoir.
Choice C
flow through the return
lines will be stopped
Choice D
actuator response time
will be halved
Operating oil
temperature is
determined to be below
normal.
A partial restriction in the Abnormal pressurization Operating oil
return line has
is occurring in the
temperature is
developed.
reservoir.
determined to be below
normal.
hydraulic piping flexibility atmosphere as heat
fluid as friction
Excessive dust
conditions have
clogged the reservoir
breather cap.
reservoir expansion
chamber
molecular fluid vibration energy losses
an inner tube
constructed of seamless
reinforced polyester
braid
a designed bursting
pressure of at least
four times the
maximum working
pressure of the system
A hydraulic
accumulator
What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil used in a 200F (93C)
hydraulic valve actuating system that operates at 145 psi
(1000kPa)? (46 CFR Part 58)
What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil used in a 200F
hydraulic valve actuating system that operates at 145 psi?
(46 CFR)
212F (100C)
300F (149C)
315F (157C)
212F
300F
315F
General Subjects 2
A vacuum condition
has developed in the
reservoir.
55
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) an
accumulator is a/an __________.
Choice A
device in which bilge
water may be stored
prior to being pumped
ashore
continuous operation of
the system
2525
2526
2527
2528
2530
Choice B
unfired pressure
vessel in which energy
is stored under high
pressure in the form of
a gas or a gas and a
hydraulic fluid.
Choice C
industry accepted term
for the equipment which
is used to collect oily
bilge liquids
Choice D
test procedure in which
the relieving capacity of
the safety valves are
verified
a safety interlock
the guaranteed safe and a slow and controlled
producing a regulated
efficient operation of the release of the loading
shutdown of the system system at all times
so as not to endanger
personnel
such that the operation none of the above are
that proper functioning to maintain a back
of any unit shall not be pressure throughout the of any unit in the system correct
power cylinders
will provide for sufficient
affected by the back
operating
range
back pressure
pressure in the system
2531
2532
General Subjects 2
56
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The steering gear shown in the illustration, when compared
to the more conventional linear actuator ram units is/are
__________.
Choice A
less likely to sustain oil
leaks
Choice B
considered by inspection
societies to be more
dependable than the
more conventional units
due to the use of the
vane motor
Choice C
Choice D
all of the above are
designed to be of
lesser weight and size correct
when compared with
conventional units
producing the same
torque
through flexible
hydraulic hoses via the
connection ports
located in the top
surface of "O"
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________. rudder angle indicator follow-up gear
telemotor position
buffer springs
relief valves
a differential gear
return springs
relieve excessive
protect the piping
telemotor pressure
assembly from
external rudder shock
Electric transmitter
2533
2534
2535
2536
2537
2538
2539
2540
2541
General Subjects 2
57
Follow-up gear
GS2111612
ID#
2542
2543
2544
2545
2546
2547
2548
2549
QUESTION
Which of the devices listed, when used on an electrohydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder
closely in step with the steering wheel?
Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement
of the steering wheel by the __________.
The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear
__________.
Choice A
The follow-up gear
Choice B
The rudder angle
indicator
Choice C
The synchronous
electric transmitter
Choice D
A rudder angle limit
switch
return springs
six-way valve
follow-up gear
differential gear
six-way valve
Rapson slide
The follow-up
mechanism will send a
hydraulic signal back to
the helm as the rudder
angle is achieved
The follow-up
mechanism will be
compensating with an
increasing signal to the
hydraulic pump tilt box
controls
controls.
The follow-up
mechanism will be
inactive as long as
rudder angle error
exists.
The purpose of the six-way valve used in an electrohydraulic steering system is to __________.
parallel rudder motion to take the pump off stroke redirect hydraulic fluid ensure positive contact
the steering wheel
when desired rudder
between the Rapson
flow when changing
angle is attained
slide and the rudder post
over pumps
"A"
"B"
"F"
"H"
2550
2551
General Subjects 2
58
The follow-up
mechanism will be
compensating with an
decreasing signal to
the hydraulic pump tilt
box controls
controls.
be in motion providing be in motion providing
an input to place the
an input to place the
variable stroke pump variable stroke pump on
null stroke
on maximum stroke
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The necessity of the six-way valve, as used on many older
steering gears, has been replaced by __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
a simpler two-way valve check valves installed in spare telemotor system
the discharge/return
lines of the steering gear
pumps
Choice D
an automatic hydraulic
method when
changing over steering
gear pumps
trick wheel
accumulator
standby pump
telemotor
trick wheel
rapson slide
follow-up gear
receiver unit
"B"
"C"
"E"
"A"
The steering gear unit shown in the illustration, which of the Cylinder end "H" is
conditions listed will occur as 'left rudder' is being obtained under pressure.
and only the 'No. 1' steering gear pump is running?
836,920 lbs.
2552
2553
2554
2555
2556
2557
2558
2559
2560
2561
2562
209,230 lbs.
General Subjects 2
59
GS2111612
ID#
2563
2564
2565
2566
2567
2568
2569
2570
QUESTION
In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in relative
position between the synchronous receiver and the followup gear will result in __________.
Choice A
the pump going to full
stroke
2571
General Subjects 2
Choice D
a corresponding
slowing or increasing
of the pumped flow
rate
The six-way valve aligns Both port and starboard The synchronous
itself with the running
cables are energized.
receiver turns,
pump.
duplicating the helm
motion.
Close valves 'C2', 'C4', Close valves 'C1', 'C3', Close valves 'C1', 'C2',
and open valves 'B3',
and open valves 'B2', and open valves 'B1',
'B2',
'B3'
'B4'
'B4'
varying the eccentricity
of a floating ring or
angle of a tilting box
The starboard
distributor valve "A"
would allow
recirculation of the
starboard main pump
shaft "L" will cause shaft
"K" to rotate via the
planetary differential
gear
'F2' and 'F3' are
energized
The output from shaft "K", shown in the illustration, becomes 'F4' is rotating
an actual control factor when component(s) __________.
When the port power unit is started, as shown in the
illustration, the unloading valve "C" __________.
Choice C
driving the rams up
against the stops
Choice B
closing of the six-way
valve
'F4' is hydraulically
locked
remains centered to
shifts to direct port
allow the servo pump
replenishing flow to the
discharge to build pilot service tank
pressure to shift the port
unit distributor valve
60
GS2111612
ID#
2572
2573
2574
2575
2576
2577
2578
2579
2580
2581
2582
QUESTION
When responding to a 'left rudder' command from the
amidships position, which parts of the steering gear system
illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure?
Choice A
"C" and "F"
Choice B
"E" and "B"
Choice C
"F" and "E"
When there is no movement of the rams on an electrohydraulic steering gear, the tilting box of the running pump is
__________.
When there is no movement of the rams of an electrohydraulic steering gear system, the tilting box of the axial
piston hydraulic pump is __________.
The figures shown in the illustration shows two different
positions of the same steering gear hydraulic pump. Which
of the following statements is correct?
General Subjects 2
Choice D
"B" and "C"
Position I is changed to
position II by the followup gear as the desired
rudder angle is
approached.
six-way
way control
align the trick wheel to set the six
valve in the trick wheel
the rudder angle
position
position before
engaging
with both pumps on line with one pump on
at the same time
standby
11,052,500 inch pounds 22,105,000 inch
pounds
Changing from
position I to position II
will always reverse the
direction of fluid flow.
the manual trick wheel is the variable stroke pump a rudder order is given an electric power system
engaged for steering
is off stroke
by the control system failure occurs at the
steering gear
When the helm is at any When the six-way valve When the ram relief
When the rudder angle
angle other than
is opened.
valves lift.
is different from the
amidships.
position of the helm.
61
GS2111612
ID#
2583
2584
2585
2586
2587
2588
2589
2590
2591
2592
2593
QUESTION
In order to change over the main pumps shown in the
illustrated steering gear, which of the components listed
must be manually actuated?
The follow-up mechanism for the steering gear shown
functions to assure the correct rudder position for each
corresponding position of the helm. When operating
properly, the follow-up mechanism should __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Six-way valve
Choice D
Motor controller on-off
switches
"A"
"C"
maintain a constant
gradually increase main gradually decrease
pump stroke for all
pump stroke as rudder pump stroke as rudder
rudder command angles attains command angle is achieving command
angle
The distributor valves, labeled "A" in the illustration, provide a means for recirculating aligning the servo
several of the following functions, with the EXCEPTION of
oil flow from the main
pump "I" discharge for
__________.
variable stroke pump
replenishing oil lost
from the main system
While at normal sea speed the rudder movement stops, but only the solenoid coil
is restored after changing over power units. At the earliest
'F2' has burned out
opportunity the faulty power unit is restarted with the
following results: the rudder can be remotely swung in only
one direction, however using the trick wheel equal
movement of the variable stroke control device from neutral
is available. The probable cause is __________.
If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering
gear, which of the listed conditions could result?
62
either solenoid coil 'F1' shaft "K" has developed that pump "G" can not
or 'F3' has burned out a fault in the mechanical develop adequate
linkage
discharge
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should the pump over speeding an improper rudder
be indicated by __________.
response
General Subjects 2
GS2111612
ID#
2594
2595
2596
2597
2598
2599
2600
2601
2602
QUESTION
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would
be indicated by __________.
Choice A
an improper rudder
response
Choice C
popping or sputtering
noises
Choice B
hammering noises in the
equipment or
transmission lines
hydraulic rams will over
rudder will respond
speed
sluggishly
automatically swing 35 remain locked in its
right or left
last position
Choice D
all the above
a suitable arrangement
of block and tackle
powered by winches
buffer arrangements to
relieve the gear from
shocks to the rudder
7 knots
9 knots
12 knots
10 knots
15 knots
20 knots
10 knots
15 knots
20 knots
0900 hours
1200 hours
1500 hours
Shaft generator
General Subjects 2
63
GS2111612
ID#
2603
2604
QUESTION
Before setting out on a three day voyage, Coast Guard
Regulations require that the steering gear, whistle, and
communications system between the bridge and engine
room must be tested within how many hours prior to
departure?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that any tank
ship making a voyage 'of over a 48 hour duration' must have
certain tests conducted not more than 12 hours prior to
leaving port. Meeting this requirement includes the testing
of the __________.
Coast Guard Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT
must have a steering system that is capable of moving the
rudder __________.
1 hour
4 hours
8 hours
Choice D
12 hours
means of
communication
between the bridge
and engine room
emergency lighting
system
by a required auxiliary
by design at one-half
steering system under
astern speed without
emergency conditions
damage.
when duplicated main
steering power systems
are provided
from 35 degrees on
one side to 30 degrees
on the other side in no
more than 28 seconds
Emergency astern
Run emergency
operations, regardless of generator, driven by an
vessel location
internal combustion
engine, under load for
at least 2 hours.
Steering gear
Emergency generator
means of
communication
between the bridge
and engine room
emergency lighting
system
protected by a circuit
breaker and a thermal
overload device
served by a single two
conductor cable
2605
2606
2607
2608
2609
2610
General Subjects 2
Choice A
Choice B
64
Choice C
GS2111612
ID#
2611
2612
QUESTION
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), make certain
requirements regarding over current protection. Steering
gear feeder circuits shall be protected only by __________.
Choice A
a circuit breaker with
instantaneous trip
Choice B
motor running over
current protection
Choice C
a nonrenewable link
cartridge fuse
Choice D
a renewable link
cartridge fuse
Hydraulic structural
rudder stops are
mandatory.
On hydraulic type
steering gears, a
suitable arrangement of
check valves in the main
piping system may be
considered as a means
of steadying the rudder.
30 seconds for ordered 16 seconds for ordered 10 seconds for ordered all of the above
rudder position changes rudder position changes
rudder position
of 2.5 degrees
changes of 70 degrees of 5 degrees
2613
2614
2615
2616
2617
2618
General Subjects 2
5 seconds
10 seconds
65
15 seconds
20 seconds
GS2111612
ID#
2619
QUESTION
In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out,
specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped
with wire. The first shot of chain is painted __________.
2620
The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is tie off the warping head
to __________.
lines
warping head
fairlead
wildcat
2621
2622
2623
2624
Choice A
white on the detachable
link and red on each link
to either side of the
detachable link
Choice B
white on the detachable
link and white on each
link to either side of the
detachable link
Choice C
red on the detachable
link and red on each link
to either side of the
detachable link
Choice D
red on the detachable
link and white on each
link to either side of
the detachable link
yellow
white
red
orange
yellow
white
red
orange
2630
All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain
are painted __________.
All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted
__________.
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure
relief of the main pressure piping is provided by
__________.
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated,
pressurized fluid flow to provide rotation of the wildcat is
produced by __________.
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated,
pressurized fluid flow is provided to the main system for
automatic replenishment and to _______.
2631
2625
2626
2627
2628
2629
General Subjects 2
release the spring brake provide actuating fluid shift valve "L" to line up
flow to the horsepower the fluid motor relief
valve
torque limiter
66
GS2111612
ID#
2632
QUESTION
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated,
replenishment pump fluid flow is provided to the main
system for automatic replenishment and to __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
release the spring brake provide actuating fluid shift valve "L" to line up
flow to the main pump the fluid motor relief
valve
tilt box control
Choice D
provide actuating fluid
flow to the winch motor
tilt box control
When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed engaged by spring
in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid action and only
motor drive shaft is __________.
released by hydraulic
pressure
released by spring
engaged by spring
action and hydraulically action plus hydraulic
locks the winch when
pressure
the drum ceases rotating
opened hydraulically
and held open by spring
action whenever the
electrical supply is
secured
2635
Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being warm-up allows the
operated because __________.
hydraulic system to
become charged with
oil
The direction and rate of rotation for the cab in the hydraulic variable stroke pump
crane circuit shown, is controlled by the __________.
(item #3)
components labeled 4
and 5
2636
#1 and #3
#2 and #3
#4 and #5
More flexible.
Lighter.
Less maintenance.
18
performing a check
run on the unit at
regular intervals
prevent chemical
breakdown of hydraulic
fluid
repack all valve stems
2633
2634
2637
2638
2639
2640
2641
2642
2643
General Subjects 2
67
remove condensation
from the fluid reservoir
cleaning strainers at
regular intervals
GS2111612
ID#
Choice A
add fluid that is the
same color as the fluid
in the reservoir
overheating of the lube
oil
"D" is not kept clean
Choice B
add turbine oil because
it is always a good
substitute
over speeding of the
motor
"A" is allowed to remain
open
Choice C
add any oil that has the
same viscosity as the
hydraulic fluid
wear on the braking
system
"B" is over tightened
2646
QUESTION
If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring
winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you
should __________.
Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to
prevent __________.
The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit
shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if
__________.
2647
2648
remove unnecessary
weight from the boat
excessive pump
discharge pressure
excessive pump
discharge pressure
Inspect the disc brake
on the electric motor for
proper operation.
2644
2645
2649
2650
2651
2652
2653
2654
General Subjects 2
68
Choice D
check the winch
manufacturer's
instruction book
damage to the teeth
"H" were to be removed
and the system operated
for thirty minutes without
it being replaced
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the
power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not
turn, and pressure can not be developed on either side of
the system, the probable cause is the __________.
Choice A
replenishing pump
coupling is broken
Choice B
relief valve is not
closing
Choice C
Choice D
manual transfer valve is spring set point for "I" is
in the wrong position for too low
the main pump being
operated
replenishing pump
coupling is broken
activate directional
valve 9 and shift spool
valve to area 1
relief valve control
shuttle has shifted to the
wrong position during
windlass operation
2658
2659
Provide additional
control when swiveling
the platform.
web
stringers
girders
breasthooks
ICE strength
designed size of the
beams, stiffeners, and classification of the hull
shell plating
frames
joiners
longitudinals
knees
stringers
web frames
pillars
brackets
deck frames
stringer frames
longitudinal frames
transverse frames
stiffeners
panels
stanchions
brackets
2655
2656
2657
2660
2661
2662
2663
2664
2665
2666
Provide additional
control when lowering
the boom.
transverse
General Subjects 2
69
GS2111612
ID#
2668
QUESTION
Choice A
Ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and bulging stanchions
with the addition of ________.
The purpose of swash bulkheads is to __________.
minimize the effect of a
listing condition
2669
The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel indicate when the tank is provide a secondary
vent air from the tank
double bottom tank is used to __________.
pressed up
means of tank sounding when bunkering
2667
2670
2671
2672
2673
2674
Choice B
girders
Choice C
stiffeners
In the bow of the ship at On the bottom of a fuel Under the counter above On the cofferdam
the waterline.
the propeller blade tips. manhole.
or ballast tank under
the sounding tube.
vent line
depth gage
manhole cover
sounding tube
pillars
floors
ceilings
stanchions
empty space
separating
compartments to
prevent the contents of
one compartment from
entering another in
case of leakage
2676
2678
reduce liquid
movement and surging
within a tank
empty the tank when in
dry-dock
2675
2677
Choice D
rabbits
The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ship rider plate
is called the __________.
General Subjects 2
70
compartment between
the tank top and skin of
the ship
compartments
between the inner and
outer bottoms
stealer plate
GS2111612
ID#
2679
2680
2681
2682
2683
2684
2685
2686
2687
2688
2689
2690
2691
2692
2693
QUESTION
In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes
and assigned letter designations. If the strakes were
lettered "A" through "K", the "K" strake will be __________.
Choice A
at the turn of the bilge
Choice B
the keel strake
Choice C
the drop strake
Choice D
the sheer strake
scarf
lap
butt
garboard strake
bilge strake
sheer strake
reduce pitching
reduce yawing
sheer strake
just under the sheer line at each side of the keel at the turn of the bilge
Pillars
Girders
Bulkheads
pillars
stanchions
columns
stringers
gussets
stanchions
bracket
scarph
butt
seam
girders
stanchions
frames
beams
trusses
deck longitudinals
deck beams
web frames
bulkheads
deckhouse structures
decks
vertical frames
General Subjects 2
71
GS2111612
ID#
2694
2695
2696
2697
2698
2699
2700
2701
2702
2703
2704
2705
2706
2707
2708
2709
2710
2711
2712
2713
QUESTION
Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal
intervals and run __________.
Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from
being carried by the __________.
In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates
joining the deck beam to a __________.
Between the side frames of a MODU, support for the deck
beams is provided by __________.
The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck
beams to the __________.
Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by
transverse __________.
A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse
strength members is __________.
Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are
called __________.
When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are
continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.
Choice A
longitudinally
Choice B
vertically
Choice C
transversely
Choice D
intermittently
bulkheads
stringers
deck longitudinals
bulkhead
frame
deck longitudinal
stanchions
brackets
web frames
deck stringers
frames
hull
stringers
plates
beams
girders
frames
bulkheads
longitudinally framed
transversely framed
cellular framed
web framed
side longitudinals
intercostals
stiffeners
brackets
transversely framed
longitudinally framed
intermittently framed
web framed
stringers
side frames
side stiffeners
intercostals
compartmentation
decks
watertight integrity
bulkheads
structural support
joiner work
tank boundaries
walls
structural
watertight
non-structural
continuous
hydrostatic pressure
over pressurization
reduced
compartmentation
exterior bulkhead
centerline bulkhead
joiner bulkhead
continuous
watertight
transverse
nonwatertight
Transverse
Diagonal
Longitudinal
Vertical
stronger
thinner
General Subjects 2
increased capacity to
set flooding
boundaries
structural bulkhead
72
GS2111612
ID#
2714
2715
2716
2717
2718
2719
2720
2721
2722
2723
2724
2725
2726
2727
2728
QUESTION
The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is
called the deck __________.
On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboard most deck
__________.
Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal
intervals and run __________.
When renewing only a portion of an entire hull plate with an
insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be
followed?
Choice A
stiffener
beam
Choice B
Choice C
stringer
doubler
Choice D
plating
beam
stiffener
stanchion
longitudinally
vertically
transversely
intermittently
The insert plate should The lines of new welding The corners of the insert The insert plate should
cover at least one full should, where possible, plate should be square. be at least 9/16 thick.
lie in existing lines of
frame space.
welding.
When renewing a portion of damaged hull plating with a new The insert plate should
insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be
cover at least one full
followed?
frame space and have
rounded corners.
The lines of new welding The corners of the insert The insert plate should
should, where possible, plate should be square. be at least 9/16 thick.
lie in existing lines of
welding.
Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of squaring the corners
welded plating inserts by __________.
Which of the following clearance readings should be taken The clearances between
and recorded in dry-dock?
the propeller blade tips
and the hull.
Cross section
rudder post
rudder stock
stern post
minimize shrinkage
stresses and harmful
distortion
Profile
balanced rudder
unbalanced rudder
semi-balanced rudder
contra-guided rudder
spade rudder
unbalanced rudder
semi-balanced rudder
rudder stock
stern post
clevis post
no iron
a large percentage of
copper
a large percentage of
iron
a large percentage of
aluminum
General Subjects 2
73
GS2111612
ID#
2729
2730
2731
2732
2733
2734
2735
2736
2737
2738
2739
2740
2741
2742
2743
QUESTION
The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today
are fabricated from __________.
With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most
significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its
__________.
In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS) may be
permitted in __________.
The construction portfolio may be included as part of the
MODU __________.
The requirements for special welding procedures to be used
on a MODU must be contained in the __________.
Choice A
wrought iron
Choice B
high alloy steel
Choice C
mild steel
capability of causing
brittle fractures
general plans
operating manual
builders documentation
vessel plans
construction portfolio
Certificate of Inspection
detailed construction
plans
hazardous areas
approved welding
procedures and
welding test
procedures
location of emergency
repair equipment
welding plan
ASTM specifications
general plans
main deck
engine room
drill floor
Class B
Class C
Class D
General Subjects 2
Choice D
corrosion resisting steel
manufacturer or origin of
chemical and physical name of the alternative the ASTM or ABS
standard or specification specification the material the material
properties of the
approximates
material
74
construction portfolio
GS2111612
ID#
2744
2745
2746
2747
2748
2749
2750
2751
2752
QUESTION
According to 46 CFR Part 58, when installing a new
independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting generator,
which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to
in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations?
Choice A
The tank must be
located on an open
deck or in an
adequately ventilated
metal compartment in
which the ambient
temperature never
exceeds 150F.
manually operated ball
check valve
Choice B
Iron or steel tanks shall
be galvanized on the
interior to prevent the
formation of rust if any
condensation should
occur.
globe valve
stop-check valve
check valve
gate valve
quick-closing valve
screwed cap
globe valve
globe valve
stop-check valve
gate valve
Washrooms
Laundries
crew lounge
Washrooms
Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on
MODUs are permitted by Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR) to be located in which of the listed spaces?
Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on
Washrooms
cargo vessels are permitted by Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR) to be located in which of the listed spaces?
Laundries
crew lounge
Laundries
crew lounge
Absorbs machinery
Provides landing
vibration.
surface for the
sounding bob of a tank
sounding tape.
2753
General Subjects 2
75
Choice C
Choice D
The fuel tank shall be
All of the above.
insulated from the
vessel's common ground
to insure against static
electricity hazards.
GS2111612
ID#
2754
2755
QUESTION
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) lamp, paint
and oil lockers, and similar compartments shall
__________.
Choice A
suitably insulated from
any woodwork or other
combustible matter
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
be constructed of steel not be located at the end be so arranged to
or shall be wholly lined of a corridor in excess of prevent excessive
forty feet in length
movement of its
with metal
contents during periods
of foul weather
water tight
gas tight
provide convenient
grouping of all piping
leading fore and aft
from the machinery
space for easy access
and control
The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a vessel is insulate piping from
to __________.
ambient temperatures
2756
2757
2758
Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery Space, as internal combustion
one or more oil fired
defined by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) means any
machinery used for main boilers or oil fuel units
space including trunks and ducts to that space containing
propulsion
__________.
internal combustion
all of the above
machinery used for
purposes other than
main propulsion where
the total collective power
is at least 500 brake
horsepower
2760
2761
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require watertight doors electrically controlled
in cargo vessels to be __________.
from a remote location
hydraulically powered
only for closing
General Subjects 2
76
tested at each
inspection for
certification
within 12 hours prior to at all fire and boat drills
any international voyage
of 48 hours or more
GS2111612
ID#
2762
2763
2764
2765
QUESTION
Choice A
According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), an "A" class with approved
division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed __________. incombustible materials
and made intact from
deck to deck and to shell
or other boundaries
Choice B
of approved
incombustible materials,
but need meet no
requirements relative to
the passage of flame
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), a "B" class of steel or equivalent
bulkhead shall be constructed __________.
metal construction,
suitably stiffened and
made intact from deck to
deck and to shell or
other boundaries
of approved
incombustible materials,
but need meet no
requirements relative to
the passage of flame
that if subjected to a
standard fire test, they
would be capable of
preventing the
passage of flame for
one half hour
According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), a "C" class with approved
that if subjected to the
of approved
division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed __________. incombustible materials incombustible
standard fire test, they
and made intact from
would be capable of
materials, but need
deck to deck and to shell meet no requirements preventing the passage
or other boundaries
relative to the passage of flame for one half
hour
of flame
2768
bronze
10 percent
15 percent
20 percent
77
which develops a
series of time
temperature
relationships in a test
furnace
brass
General Subjects 2
Choice D
that if subjected to the
standard fire test, they
would be capable of
preventing the
passage of flame and
smoke for one hour
2766
2767
Choice C
that if subjected to the
standard fire test, they
would be capable of
preventing the passage
of flame for one half
hour
stainless steel
GS2111612
ID#
2769
2770
2771
2772
2773
2774
2775
2776
2777
2778
2779
2780
QUESTION
Choice A
Which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns Forced draft fan
is required to be tested during each regular inspection for
certification?
Which of the following intervals do Coast Guard Regulations Prior to each sailing
(46 CFR) require the remote cutout for the fuel oil service
pumps to be tested?
According to 46 CFR Part 61, which of the following
Forced draft fan
machinery remote control shutdowns is/are required to be
tested during each regular inspection for certification?
Which of the following precautions should always be carried Liquids should never be
out in dry-dock?
transferred between
tanks without consulting
the dock master.
Choice B
Induced draft fan
Choice C
Fuel oil transfer pump
Choice D
All of the above
General Subjects 2
3 years
5 years
Authorized
Representative of the
American Bureau of
Shipping
Commandant (G-MOC)
Official Representative
of the Naval Pollution
Control Office
U.S. Maritime
Administration
the bow
the stern
built up propeller
solid propeller
controllable pitch
propeller
produces the same
torque at lower engine
power
Protect against
electrolytic corrosion
eliminate cavitation
operates at a lower
more efficiently uses
available engine power efficiency at a fixed
speed
Help with lubrication
Reduce turbulence
78
minimize water
turbulence
GS2111612
ID#
2781
QUESTION
The conical steel or composition cone installed on a
propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the
following benefits?
Which of the following statements best describes an oil
lubricated stern tube bearing installation?
Choice A
Reduces turbidness
2782
2783
Choice C
Protects the nut
Choice D
All of the above
2784
Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber saltwater
composition materials are lubricated with __________.
2785
2786
2787
2788
Choice B
Helps with lubrication
graphite
General Subjects 2
79
GS2111612
ID#
2789
2790
2791
2792
2793
2794
2795
2796
2797
QUESTION
Choice A
Shown in the illustration is a mechanical shaft seal providing drive alignment bolts
constant surface contact, regardless of hull deflections,
draft, or sea conditions while underway. This is ensured by
the __________.
The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from packing nut
entering the ship through the opening where the propeller
shaft passes through the hull, is called a __________.
Choice B
adapter plate
Choice C
bellows
Choice D
inflatable seal
hawsepipe
stuffing box
seal cage
propeller hub
lignum vitae
shaft packing
labyrinth seal
Spring bearings
Oiler rings
The tail shaft of an ocean going vessel is usually supported spring bearings
by the __________.
Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below, Line shaft and thrust
that are located furthest from the main engine, are
shaft
connected by the inboard stern tube shaft coupling?
tail bearings
propeller bearings
Mechanical
Pneumatic
Electrical
The propeller is
stroked beyond its full
astern limits.
prevent seawater from
entering the hydraulic
system when it is
secured
The direction in which the control oil servo valve opens and
directs control oil to the oil distribution (OD) box piston in a
CPP system is determined by the command _________.
feedback timing.
feedback polarity
2798
2799
2800
General Subjects 2
80
GS2111612
ID#
2801
2802
2803
2804
2805
2806
2807
2808
2809
2810
QUESTION
When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating
frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that
speed is known as the __________.
Choice A
breakaway speed
Choice B
critical speed
Choice C
synchronous speed
Choice D
sympathetic speed
synchronous speed
sympathetic speed
critical speed
breakaway speed
pitch
true slip
pitch
propulsive efficiency
20.46%
22.10%
26.20%
flush all dirt and grit from flush all dirt and grit from keep the gland
the gland
the bearing staves
packing cool
Cooling
Lubrication
provide a positive flow flush out brackish water serve as the only source
resulting from extended of supply of water for the
of water through the
in port operation
stern tube bearing
stern tube for
lubricating, cooling,
and flushing when
required
2811
General Subjects 2
81
GS2111612
ID#
2812
2813
2814
2815
2816
2817
2818
2819
2820
2821
2822
QUESTION
The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is
protected against seawater corrosion by __________.
Choice A
a heavy lubricant
Choice B
a covering of plastic,
rubber, or shrunk-on
composition sleeve
Choice C
a corrosion-resistant
paint
Dye penetrant
Magnetic particle
Ultrasonic
grease
oil
water
tallow
cavitation
unusual noises
propeller unbalance
accelerated stern
bearing wear
clutch slippage
2823
General Subjects 2
Choice D
a layer of oxidation
formed when the metal
of the shaft is exposed
to seawater
All of the above
Pitch indicator
A pitch indicator is to be
fitted on the navigation
bridge for vessels 400
gross tons and above.
Independent remote
control of pitch is to be
provided at or near the
oil distribution box.
Tests of its operation are
to be performed in the
presence of the
Surveyor.
The arrangement of
piping is to be such
that a single failure in
one part of the piping
or pump unit will not
impair the integrity of
the remaining parts of
the system.
82
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the following statements is correct concerning
requirements for propellers?
Choice A
A propeller may not be
changed with one of a
different pitch unless
stress evaluations are
supplied and permission
is granted by a Marine
Surveyor.
2824
2825
2826
2827
2828
2829
2830
Choice C
The exposed steel of
the shaft is to be
protected from the
action of the water by
filling all spaces
between the cap, hub
and shaft with a
suitable material.
Choice D
Ultrasonic examinations
of the propeller may be
performed in lieu of
required dry-docking
periods, provided
certified copies are
distributed to the proper
regulatory bodies.
Keyway is to be cut so
as to give a sharp rise
from the bottom of the
keyway to the shaft
surface.
at every annual
inspection
at every annual
inspection
General Subjects 2
Choice B
When steel propellers
are used, zinc anodes
are to be fitted on the
aftermost strut bearing
housing and on the
forward most section of
the rudder assembly.
83
3 years
5 years
8 years
.3125
.3740
.4375
GS2111612
ID#
2831
2832
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
The vessel has its propulsion machinery located amidships, Pull tail shaft and
Pull tail shaft and
Pull tail shaft and
Nothing, as the
using a water lubricated stern tube bearing, to carry a tail
replace the bronze liner. replace the lignum vitae. buildup the bronze liner. reading is within the
shaft of a 15 inch (38.1 cm) diameter. During the inspection
allowable limits.
the wear between the stern tube and the bearing surface
was measured as 1/4 inch (.635 cm). Which of the following
actions should be carried out as a result of this
measurement?
According to 46 CFR Part 61, what is the maximum
1/4 inch
allowable permitted wear on a stern tube bushing for a
vessel that has its propelling machinery located amidships,
with a water lubricated stern tube bearing carrying a 12 inch
diameter shaft ?
Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, which nonI only
destructive test could be used to locate cracks?
5/16 inch
3/8 inch
1/2 inch
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
4 years
5 years
Master
U. S. Coast Guard
Chief Engineer
Chief Mate
2833
2834
2835
2836
2837
2838
Who is responsible for completing the Muster List ("Station Chief Engineer
Bill") or muster list and posting it in a visible area aboard the
vessel?
Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to Coast Guard
close the watertight doors in an emergency?
General Subjects 2
84
GS2111612
ID#
2839
2840
2841
2842
2843
2844
2845
QUESTION
Choice A
The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to Muster List ("Station
operate your vessel can be determined by checking the
Bill")
__________.
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a
one voyage only
steam propelled cargo vessel over 25 gross tons may have
a Certificate of Inspection issued for __________.
where possible, be
made between the
tenth and fourteenth
month of the period for
which the certificate is
valid
The annual reinspection of a tank vessel, holding a two year where possible, be
Certificate of Inspection endorsed, 'Inspected and Approved made between the
for the Carriage of Flammable or Combustible Liquids of
tenth and fourteenth
Grade A', must __________.
month of the period for
which the certificate is
valid
Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling
Operations Manual is
units are effective until the __________.
approved
According to 46 CFR Part 91, a temporary Certificate of
when the immediate
Inspection, Form CG-854, may be issued to a self propelled issuance of a
cargo vessel __________.
Certificate of
Inspection is not
possible at the
completion of an
inspection
General Subjects 2
85
Choice B
A. B. S. Certificate
Choice C
Master's crew list
Choice D
Certificate of
Inspection
all of the above,
depending upon the
pertinent
circumstances
all of the above,
depending upon the
pertinent
circumstances
all of the above
be preceded by written
application by the
master, owner, or agent
of the vessel
be undertaken only
when all cargo tanks are
empty, gas free, and
made accessible for
internal examination
be preceded by written
application by the
master, owner, or agent
of the vessel
be undertaken only
all of the above
when all cargo tanks are
empty, gas free, and
made accessible for
internal examination
Minerals Management
Service approval is
issued
until all minor
deficiencies (CG-835's)
found by the CG
inspector during a
biannual inspection are
corrected, at which time
a regular certificate may
be issued
classification society
approval is issued
permanent Certificate
of Inspection is issued
to cover an expired
under all of the above
permanent Certificate of situations
Inspection provided that
the certificate did not
expire within 15 days
after the vessel left the
last port of the U. S.
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Choice A
According to 46 CFR Part 91, which of the following
Application may be
statements concerning a vessel's Coast Guard Certificate of made for inspection and
Inspection and associated inspections is correct?
issuance of a new
Certificate of Inspection
at any time during the
period of validity of the
current Certificate.
Choice B
To prevent any delay, a
temporary Certificate of
Inspection may be
issued pending delivery
of the regular Certificate
of Inspection upon
completion of the
inspection.
Choice C
A reinspection of a
vessel holding a valid
two year Certificate of
Inspection is normally
conducted between the
tenth and fourteenth
months of inspection
date.
Choice D
All of the above.
U.S.C.G. Firefighting
Manual for Tank Vessels
vessel's Certificate of
Inspection
hull certificate
Official logbook
Certificate of
Inspection
In the captain's desk
2852
2853
2846
2847
2848
2849
2850
2851
the name of the person the weight of the charge recommendations for
the next test
conducting the test
Six months
2854
General Subjects 2
One year
86
Three years
GS2111612
ID#
2855
2856
2857
2858
2859
2860
2861
2862
2863
2864
QUESTION
Choice A
After conducting a boat drill, the master or person in charge the names of crew
of MODU shall log __________.
members who
participated in the drill
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
the time it took to lower
the length of time that the length of time the
each motor propelled lifeboat was in the water the boat
lifeboat was operated
in the drill
Certificate of
Inspection
operations manual
operations manual
Stability letter
Certificate of
Inspection
24 months
36 months
48 months
60 months
conviction of any
misdemeanor ashore
entitles you to be master
of uninspected motor
vessels under 100 tons
the commission of an
act of misconduct
2865
2866
General Subjects 2
87
GS2111612
ID#
2867
2868
2869
2870
2871
QUESTION
How often must a U.S. Coast Guard engineering license be
renewed?
The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the
department include __________.
Choice C
Every 5 years
Choice D
Every 10 years
taking a complete
determining if any vital
personal inventory of all engine room
engine room spare parts equipment is
inoperative
Vented to the
Burned in the boilers.
atmosphere.
obtaining a valid
Certification of
Inspection from the
Coast Guard
Mixed with nitrogen and
recirculated through the
primary barrier.
A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each Compressed,
voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled?
condensed, and return
to the cargo tanks.
Vented to the
atmosphere.
No freight or passengers
are allowed to be carried
when the vessel is
issued the permit.
Vessel to undergo an
unscheduled drydocking solely for the
purpose of painting the
underwater portion of
the hull.
The renewal of a
superheater safety valve
with one of the same
kind that was certified by
a Coast Guard inspector
at the place of
manufacture.
engine manufacturer
2873
2875
Choice B
Every 3 years
2872
2874
Choice A
Annually
General Subjects 2
88
insurance underwriter
ID#
2876
2877
2878
2879
2880
2881
2882
QUESTION
If hot oil comes in contact with a diesel engine turbocharger,
catches fire, and causes in excess of $(USA)25,000 damage
to your ship, by law this must be reported to the
__________.
A saltwater leak shorts out your switchboard causing a fire
which does $(USA)27,500 damage to the electrical
equipment. This must be reported to the __________.
An air tank rusts out, explodes and causes $(USA) 24,000
damage to the engine room. By law, this accident is
required to be reported to __________.
According to 46 CFRs, the master of a commercial vessel is
required to submit a marine casualty report form CG 2692 to
the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office if ______.
Choice A
engine manufacturer
Choice B
American Bureau of
Shipping
Choice C
U.S.C.G. Officer in
Charge, Marine
Inspection at the next
port
harbormaster
insurance underwriter
port engineer
the insurance
underwriter
no one
a crewmember was
placed on light duty for
two days due to a
sprained wrist and was
required to wear a sling
insurance underwriter
name of the oil producer flash point (closed cup all of the above
method) of the fuel oil
certified by the producer
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the voyage is completed that particular supply
the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample
of oil is exhausted
of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This
sample must be preserved until __________.
2883
General Subjects 2
89
Obtaining a sample of
all fuel oil received on
board to be used as
fuel along with
ascertaining all
particulars such as
vendor, producer,
flash point, etc.
it can be sent ashore to
the proper oil company
personnel for testing and
the results entered in the
Oil Record Book, CG480
Choice D
vessel underwriters
GS2111612
ID#
2887
QUESTION
A 'Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death', Coast Guard
form 2692, must be filed with the Officer in Charge, Marine
Inspection when a shipboard casualty results in
__________.
According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of collision
damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of
the following should NOT be included in the repair cost
estimate?
According to 46 CFRs, when estimating the cost of collision
damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of
the following should NOT be included in the repair cost
estimate?
Coast Guard regulations for small passenger vessels of less
than 100 gross tons require dry-docking or hauling out at
intervals not to exceed 18 months if operated in
__________.
2888
Small passenger vessel of less than 100 gross tons shall be more than 9 months in less than 9 months in
dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 36
the last 18 month period each of the last 12
months if it is operated in saltwater a total of___________.
months
2884
2885
2886
2889
2890
2891
2892
Choice A
the incapacitation of an
injured crewman
Choice B
the death of a yard or
harbor worker in the
engine room
Choice C
the incapacitation of a
yard worker due to a
boiler flareback
Choice D
All of the above.
saltwater a total of
more than 9 months in
the 18 month period
since it was last drydocked or hauled out
in saltwater a total of 9
months in the 18 months
since last dry-dock
period
Major repairs or alterations affecting the safety of small
be permissible without
be made at anytime
not be made without
passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons shall
the knowledge and
convenient to the vessel
the knowledge and
__________.
approval of the OCMI approval of the Officer in operator without prior
Charge of Marine
approval
Inspection
During the inspection for certification of small passenger
tubular heat exchangers hydraulic accumulators refrigeration service heat
vessel of less than 100 gross tons, a hydrostatic test of 1-1/4
exchangers
times the maximum allowable working pressure shall be
made to __________.
On small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons,
not required to be
required to be marked, require to be marked
watertight doors and watertight hatches are __________.
marked
but on only one side
on both sides in
clearly legible letters at
least 25 millimeters ( 1
inch) high
General Subjects 2
90
exclusively in fresh
water
in saltwater 6 months or
less within each 12
months period since drydocking
be made only when
Coast Guard
Administrative Form
2892 is submitted
oil fired boilers
GS2111612
ID#
2893
2894
2895
2896
2897
2898
2899
2900
QUESTION
All watertight doors and watertight hatches on small
passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons are required
to be marked in letters __________.
Choice A
of at least 1-inch,
'watertight door-close
in an emergency' or
'watertight hatch-close
in emergency'
Choice B
Choice C
not to exceed 1-inch
of at least 1-inch,
'watertight door-close in 'emergency exit, keep
emergency' or
clear'
'watertight hatch-close in
emergency'
only be placed in
transverse watertight
bulkheads that extend to
the bulwark deck
General Subjects 2
91
Choice D
not to exceed 1-inch,
'emergency exit, keep
clear'
42 inches high
a minimum of four
watertight bulkheads
two non-remotely
operated metallic valves
are installed on either
side of the deck or
bulkhead regardless of
accessibility
separated from
accommodations spaces
by non-continuous
bulkheads
GS2111612
ID#
2901
2902
2903
QUESTION
Choice A
A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be
before they have
assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you received training
should assess their skill __________.
Choice B
immediately after they
have received training
2904
2905
2906
subjectively prevent
trainee's from being
licensed or certified
evaluate according to
their discretion, simply
by their ability to "tell"
when a candidate is
performing well
ability to perform the
specific task not only at
the time of
demonstration, but also
for the future
only when the trainee
first arrives on board,
and preferably within the
first few days
the pre-brief with the
trainee has been
completed
repeatability in
observing the
assessment of the task
to be demonstrated
2907
2908
overall competency
Choice C
Choice D
after they have observed after they have
the skill demonstrated
received training and
once
personally practiced
the skill
any licensed officer at All of the above
the management level
General Subjects 2
92
GS2111612
ID#
2909
2910
2911
2912
2913
2914
2915
2916
2917
2918
2919
QUESTION
When a training program provides a company and/or its
vessels the model checklists by which a trainee will be
deemed proficient, the ship's officers should __________.
Choice B
modify the checklist to
reflect the specifics of
the equipment,
systems, and
operating parameters
for the vessel upon
which the
demonstration is being
conducted
test
test
test
In terms of the running of a refrigeration compressor, what is frequently grounding out frequently starting and
meant by the term "short-cycling"?
stopping
If a compressor starts and stops very frequently, what term long-timing
short-timing
is used to describe this behavior?
When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration
superheating
flooding back
system through the suction line, what is this condition
called?
The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is latent heat of
sensible heat
known as what?
vaporization
What is the function of a heat interchanger used in a
lower the temperature of reduce the possibility of
refrigeration system?
liquid refrigerant before liquid refrigerant from
entering the expansion flooding back to the
valve
compressor
Refrigerant is normally sub cooled in a refrigeration or air
maintain adequate coil prevent flashing in the
conditioning system condenser for what purpose?
back pressure
liquid line
What is the principal purpose of sub cooling liquid
allow the refrigerant to
increase the
refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve?
refrigerating effect by enter the throttling
decreasing the amount device in a saturated
condition
of flash gas
Choice C
Choice D
totally disregard the
all of the above
model checklist and
develop their own based
on their own vessel
standards
freezing point
condensing
temperature
increasing the distance using a larger expansion sub cooling the liquid
between the evaporator valve
and condenser
reduce the possibility of reduce the temperature reduce the possibility of all of the above
sweating of the suction of liquid refrigerant prior liquid refrigerant flooding
line
to entering the
back to the compressor
expansion valve
2920
General Subjects 2
Choice A
use each specific
checklist as it was
presented and without
deviation
93
floc point
test
running too fast
test
running too slow
long-cycling
short-cycling
overflowing
recycling
specific heat of
vaporization
minimize sweating of the All of the above.
suction line
refrigerating effect
reduce refrigerant
volume in the system
increase the
refrigerating effect by
increasing the amount
of flash gas
reduce compressor
discharge line loading
minimize the
temperature drop of the
liquid as it passes
through the solenoid
valve to the outlet side
compression
temperature
installing the evaporator
at a higher level than the
condenser
GS2111612
ID#
2921
2922
2923
2924
2925
2926
2927
2928
2929
2930
2931
QUESTION
A liquid line to suction line heat interchanger in a
refrigeration system using a reciprocating compressor
serves what function?
Choice A
reduce the possibility
of liquid refrigerant
slugging the
compressor
A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system
the solenoid valve to
may cause what condition?
seize
A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause solenoid valve to seize
what to occur?
In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the
the hot gas bypass
flash gas at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained by connection at the threewhat means?
way valve
'Respiratory heat' is a term applied primarily to which of the Fresh vegetables
following cargoes?
In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to
evaporator
see the greatest temperature drop across what system
component?
In a small refrigeration appliance using HFC-134a you would evaporator
expect to see the greatest temperature drop across which
system component?
Which of the listed statements describes specific heat?
The amount of heat
required to change the
temperature of one
pound of a material,
material
one degree Fahrenheit.
Choice B
Choice C
raise the temperature of cool the suction vapor
liquid refrigerant
returning to the
compressor
Choice D
raise the refrigerant
saturation temperature
in the evaporator
receiver
compressor
condenser
thermal expansion
valve
compressor
receiver
22.1 psig
30.7 psig
45.5 psig
6.5 psig
15.0 psig
27.8 psig
35.1 psig
45.5 psig
75.0 psig
General Subjects 2
94
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy diagram
shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning
the pressure/temperature relationship?
Choice A
for every pressure, there
is a corresponding
temperature as long as
the refrigerant is sub
cooled
Choice B
for every pressure,
there is a
corresponding
temperature as long as
the refrigerant is
saturated
Choice C
for every pressure, there
is a corresponding
temperature as long as
the refrigerant is
superheated
Choice D
for every pressure, there
is a corresponding
temperature regardless
of the condition of the
refrigerant
2933
2934
A to B
it is the line
corresponding to the
100% quality line,
representing 0% vapor
and 100% liquid
it is the line
corresponding to the
100% quality line,
representing 0% vapor
and 100% liquid
B to E
it is the line
corresponding to the 0%
quality line, representing
0% liquid and 100%
vapor
it is the line
corresponding to the 0%
quality line, representing
0% liquid and 100%
vapor
E to F
it is the line
corresponding to the
100% quality line,
representing 0% liquid
and 100% vapor
it is the line
corresponding to the
0% quality line,
representing 0% vapor
and 100% liquid
it is the line
corresponding to the 0%
quality line, representing
0% vapor and 100%
liquid
A to B
B to D
E to F
H to I
A to B
B to E
E to F
F to A
A to B
B to E
E to F
G to J
cooling only
2932
2935
2936
2937
2938
2939
General Subjects 2
95
it is the line
corresponding to the
100% quality line,
representing 0% liquid
and 100% vapor
F to A
adiabatic cooling
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when
compared with the amount of moisture the air could hold if
totally saturated at the existing temperature of the sample, is
called what?
The process of removing moisture from air is known as
what?
In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the
maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific
temperature, what term best describes the air?
When air at a given temperature contains the maximum
amount of moisture for that temperature, what term
describes what the air is considered to be?
The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb
temperature is what compared to the dry bulb temperature?
Choice A
absolute humidity
Choice B
specific humidity
Choice C
effective humidity
Choice D
relative humidity
humidification
dehumidification
vaporization
evaporation
superheated
saturated
condensed
convected
superheated
saturated
condensing
evaporating
2946
2947
When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either it has a low absolute
the temperature or pressure, what is true about the air?
humidity
it will gain no
additional moisture
moisturizing
dehumidification
dampening
humidification
relative humidity
dew point
partial saturation
temperature
hair
copper
plastic
steel
hydrometer
sling psychrometer
aneroid barometer
compound barometer
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
2940
2941
2942
2943
2944
2945
2948
2949
2950
2951
psychometric
temperature
100F less than the dry
bulb temperature
2952
I. relative humidity
II. air velocity
General Subjects 2
96
GS2111612
ID#
2953
QUESTION
If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,
there is a significant possibility that which of the following
conditions could occur?
I only
Choice A
II only
Choice B
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also
have another unchanging property. Which of the following
properties will remain unchanged?
The latent heat content of water vapor in air is dependent
upon which of the listed temperatures or points?
specific humidity
specific volume
dew point
dry point
saturation temperature
absolute humidity
relative humidity
specific humidity
total humidity
it is at a maximum of
21F
In air has 100% relative humidity, how would the wet bulb
temperature relate to the dry bulb temperature?
2954
2955
2956
2957
2958
2959
2960
2962
2963
In terms of humidity, when air is at its dew point, which of the the air is at its lowest
following is true?
absolute humidity
2961
General Subjects 2
97
GS2111612
ID#
2964
2965
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
A cargo hold has been determined to have a relative
decrease
increase
humidity of 80% and a dry bulb temperature of 85F. When
the hold is closed up by closing the cargo hold hatch and the
dry bulb temperature decreases, what will happen to the
relative humidity in the space?
If the air temperature increases while the atmospheric
have a greater capacity absorb less free
pressure remains constant, what will happen to the air?
atmospheric moisture
to absorb moisture
the air is capable of
absorbing more free
atmospheric moisture
than it can at a lower
temperature
The pressure difference between the system cut-in and cutout pressures of a refrigeration unit low pressure cutout
device is known as what?
When taking readings at the suction service valve of an
operating refrigeration compressor to determine pressure
and temperature, what statement is true?
opposing operational
drag
pressure distribution
differential
The pressure is
directly read on the
compound gauge
pressure scale and the
temperature is directly
read on a separate
thermometer
temperature scale as
the refrigerant is
superheated at this
point.
AM3
AMn3
NM3
NH3
2970
2971
2967
2969
Choice D
remain unchanged
2968
Choice C
decrease to zero
General Subjects 2
98
GS2111612
ID#
2973
QUESTION
Choice A
Considering systems with equal capacities for heat removal, Ammonia
which refrigeration system can employ the smallest
compressor?
Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to
iron and steel only
what metal or metals?
When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture
will act as a corrosive mixture to what metal or metals?
steel only
iron only
2974
Steel
Monel
Bronze
Copper
the concentration
would be lower near
the deck of an
enclosed space
the process of
sublimation will begin
R-134
Ammonia
R-22
suction service
connection
discharge service
connection
Master valve
Suction service
Discharge service
King valve
contact physicians
health care
loosen all clothing
apply an antibacterial
ointment
provide the victim with
smelling salts
pink
white
yellow
blue
Litmus paper
Sulphur candle
Halide torch
orange
red
purple
R-401A
R-717 (ammonia)
R-134a
R-22
2972
2975
2976
2977
2978
2979
2980
2981
2982
2983
2984
2985
2986
General Subjects 2
99
Choice B
Carbon Dioxide
Choice C
Choice D
Dichlorodifluoromethane Monochlorodifluorometh
ane
steel only
GS2111612
ID#
2987
2988
QUESTION
In a refrigeration system, at what component does the
refrigerant absorb the latent heat of vaporization?
The component of a refrigerating system in which the
refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as what?
Choice A
compressor
Choice B
condenser
Choice C
receiver
Choice D
evaporator
condenser
vapor generator
accumulator
evaporator
A thermostatic
expansion valve is used
to control refrigerated
space temperature.
Dehydrators must be
used continuously in a
refrigeration system.
liquid
Refrigerant
temperature in an
evaporator is directly
related to refrigerant
pressure.
wet saturated gas
increased capacity of
the compressor
2989
2990
2991
2992
2993
2994
2995
2996
2997
2998
2999
3000
superheated vapor
Evaporator
Drier
Receiver
producing higher
compression pressures
minimizing free
contact between
refrigerant and oil in
the crankcase
oil saturated liquid
superheated vapor
Reciprocating
Rotary
Screw
Centrifugal
superheated
saturated
dense
flooded
Expansion valve
Condenser
Evaporator
Compressor
compressor
condenser
expansion valve
evaporator
condenser to the
expansion valve
General Subjects 2
the degree of opening of the degree of opening of the degree of opening of the degree of opening
the king solenoid valve the water regulating
the box solenoid valve
of the expansion valve
valve
100
GS2111612
ID#
Choice A
37 and F
Choice B
23 and A
Choice C
37 and B
Choice D
37 and A
"3"
"4"
"7"
"8"
"3"
"4"
"7"
"8"
thermostatic
expansion valve
evaporator coil
condenser coil
receiver tank
3006
QUESTION
The low pressure side of the illustrated multi-evaporator
refrigeration system associated with the common and freeze
box circuit, shown in the illustration, is located between what
two components?
The low pressure side of the refrigeration system, as shown
in the illustration, in the order of flow, is located between
what two components?
The high pressure side of the refrigeration system, as shown
in the illustration, in the order of flow, is located between
what two components?
Which of the following components is the refrigeration
system evaporator?
Which of the following components is the refrigeration
system condenser?
Through which of the components shown in the illustration is
flash gas formation a normal occurrence?
3007
3008
3001
3002
3003
3004
3005
3009
3010
3011
expansion valve
condenser
General Subjects 2
101
GS2111612
ID#
3012
3013
3014
3015
3016
3017
3018
3019
3020
3021
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
As compared to the temperature maintenance period when remain the same, with a increase, while
the box temperatures are within normal operating range, the decrease in suction
maintaining the normal
beginning of a temperature pull-down period after loading
pressure
suction pressure
stores of a multibox refrigeration system, the operating
conditions of the system would require the flow rate of
refrigerant circulating in the system and the suction pressure
to do what?
Choice C
Choice D
remain the same with an increase, with an
increase in suction
increase in suction
pressure
pressure
B and 29
B and 23
A and 29
B and 37
B and 29
B and 23
A and 29
B and 37
evaporator coils
R-22 only
R-115 only
General Subjects 2
102
R-502 only
it must be destroyed, as
it can no longer be reused
lower boiling
temperature for a given
pressure than does a
pure refrigerant
at the compressor
suction
in the receiver
GS2111612
ID#
3022
3023
QUESTION
As shown in the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration
system, through what labeled valve would the refrigerant
temperature be the highest?
As shown in the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration
system, through what labeled valve would the refrigerant
temperature be the lowest?
If the valve labeled "23" in the illustration is set for a higher
pressure, what will be the direct result?
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
"9"
"16"
"18"
"20"
16
18
20
32
10.65 to 1
9.43 to 1
123.6 to 1
single component
organic refrigerants
Heat of compression
zeotropic blend of
refrigerants
Superheat
single component
inorganic refrigerants
All of the above
heat of compression
Superheat
3030
3031
The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation passing it through the
from a refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by
expansion valve
performing what process?
3024
3025
3026
3027
3028
3029
3032
azeotropic mixture of
refrigerants
Latent heat of
vaporization
3033
General Subjects 2
103
maintaining a high
pressure on the
system's receiver
GS2111612
ID#
3034
3035
3036
3037
3038
QUESTION
The EPA allows a large low pressure system to be brought
to atmospheric pressure during non-major repairs by what
means?
The high pressure cut-out switch used on refrigeration units
for low pressure systems is set to shut off the compressor at
which of the following pressures?
The high pressure cut-out switch used on centrifugal low
pressure refrigeration units using R-123 would be set to shut
off the compressor at approximately what pressure?
Choice A
adding excess
refrigerant
Choice B
adding nitrogen
Choice C
adding heat with
controlled hot water
Choice D
adding CFC-22
1 psig
5 psig
10 psig
15 psig
1 psig
10 psig
50 psig
100 psig
economizer
condenser
compressor
evaporator
1 psig
5 psig
10 psig
15 psig
O2
O3
Oz
ionosphere
stratosphere
troposphere
chlorine
fully halogenated
partially hydrogenated
partially halogenated
fully hydrogenated
3039
3040
3041
3042
3043
3044
3045
General Subjects 2
104
carbon
GS2111612
ID#
3046
3047
3048
3049
3050
3051
QUESTION
Which refrigerant listed is considered to have the highest
ozone depletion potential?
CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperature or direct
flame, will decompose and may produce what chemical
substance?
HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians,
which may include which of the following?
If a stateroom has a 6" by 12" opening through which air
travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the volume of air
being supplied to the stateroom?
If a stateroom has a 5 inch by 12 inch opening through
which the air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the
volume of air being supplied to the stateroom?
A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed
operating characteristics?
3053
3054
3055
3056
3057
3058
3059
General Subjects 2
R-12
Choice A
Choice B
R-134A
R-123
Choice C
R-22
methyl chloride
ammonia
hydrofluoric acid
ozone
flammability as a liquid
toxic threat
36 cu ft/min
freezing in the
compressor
50 cu ft/min
72 cu ft/min
Choice D
180 BTU/hr
in 24 hours.
2,000 BTU/hr
12,000 BTU/hr
2,880,000 BTU/day
60,000 BTU/hr
80,000 BTU/hr
100,000 BTU/hr
120,000 BTU/hr
2.5
1 ton
2 tons
3 tons
4 tons
3 ton
4 ton
4.5 ton
5 ton
2 tons
4 tons
6 tons
8 tons
1.5 tons
2.0 tons
2.5 tons
3.0 tons
105
GS2111612
ID#
3060
3061
3062
3063
3064
QUESTION
What is the theoretical time necessary to reduce the
temperature of 40,000 pounds of onions (placed in a
refrigerated container) from 75F to a set point temperature
of 46F? [The specific heat of onions is 0.90 BTU/LB/F.
The trailer heat gain is 6,500 BTU/hr, with a properly
operating refrigeration cooling capacity of 45,500 BTU/hr.]
Choice A
6 hours 5 minutes
Choice B
13 hours 16 minutes
Choice C
26 hours 48 minutes
Choice D
52 hours 12 minutes
Your vessel has received a refrigeration container of 16 long Saturday at 0012 hours. Saturday at 0724 hours. Saturday at 1242 hours. Saturday at 2242
tons of cabbage, loaded at 1700 hours on Friday, with a
hours.
beginning temperature of 80F. At what time on Saturday
will the box theoretically reach its set point temperature of
50F, assuming the system is operating correctly? [The
specific heat of cabbage is 0.94 BTU/LB/F. The container
has a heat gain of 6,000 BTU/hr, and the refrigeration
system's capacity is 40,000 BTU/hr.]
A refrigerated container filled with 10,000 lbs. of strawberries Do nothing as the
has been loaded on your ship. The set point of the box is
system is operating
35F and the interior box temperature is 90F, and after 7
correctly.
hrs. 37 minutes the box is lowered to 60F. Based on the
following information, which of the listed steps should be
taken? Specific heat of cargo is 0
0.94
94 BTU/LB/F
BTU/LB/ F, heat gain
by container equals 4,000 BTU/hr., and refrigeration system
capacity equals 3.42 tons.
The vessel has received a refrigerated container loaded with 6 hours 48 minutes
9 long tons of ice cream. The current box temperature is
31F but has a normal set point of minus 10F. Under ideal
conditions how long will it take to pull the box temperature
down to set point, if the equipment is operating properly?
[Specific heat of the cargo equals 0.39 BTU/LB/F, with a
container heat gain of 6,000 BTU/hr, and a refrigeration
system capacity of 3.5 tons]
7 hours 58 minutes
8 hours 57 minutes
9 hours 38 minutes
General Subjects 2
106
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the listed statements is correct concerning
refrigeration systems?
Choice B
One refrigeration ton is
equivalent to the
removal of 288,000 btu
per day
Choice C
A thermostatic
expansion valve is used
to control refrigerated
space temperature.
Choice D
The liquid receiver
functions to collect and
remove noncondensable gases.
70.39 BTU/lb
90.77 BTU/lb
105.75 BTU/lb
73.44 BTU/lb
88.29 BTU/lb
99.41 BTU/lb
chilled water
temperature
exhaust chamber
plenum chamber
intake chamber
restores the
conditioned air
temperature to a
comfortable level
dry bulb room
temperature
vapor chamber
Seawater or Fresh
water.
R-22
R-123
R-134a
R-227
R-22
R-123
R-134a
R-227
R-500
R-134a
R-12
R-123
R-12
R-22
R-502
R-123
3065
3066
3067
3068
3069
3070
3071
3072
3073
3074
3075
3076
General Subjects 2
Choice A
Dehydrators must be
used continuously in a
refrigeration system.
107
GS2111612
ID#
3077
3078
QUESTION
A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning
systems aboard ship is what substance?
In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller
refrigerant flow circuit, by what means is the heat removal
capacity of the system regulated?
Choice C
nitrogen
Choice D
hydrogen
controlling the
compressor gas flow
via the inlet guide
vanes
I only
II only
Both I and I
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and I
Neither I nor II
methyl chloride
treated water
carbon dioxide
trichloroethylene
Choice A
Choice B
R-123
water
controlling the
condenser water flow
through the condenser
3080
I. functions as a cooling medium for the hermetically sealed
compressor drive motor
II. functions as a cooling medium for the lubricating oil
3081
3082
3083
General Subjects 2
108
GS2111612
ID#
3084
3085
3086
3087
QUESTION
Choice A
As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller
suction gas thermistor
refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of the listed
thermistors is used as a sensor for the electronic control
circuit for the electronic expansion valve?
Choice B
discharge gas
thermistor
Choice C
chilled water inlet
thermistor
Choice D
chilled water outlet
thermistor
I only
II only
Both I and II
more temperature
differential
distilled water
increased moisture
reduced slime and
content
mold
the same refrigerant as bees wax
the system
evaporator
chiller
economizer
expansion valve
pressure at expansion
valve inlet to increase
expansion valve
capacity to increase
pressure difference
across the expansion
valve to increase
operate the purge
recovery unit
continuously
Neither I nor II
3088
3089
3090
3091
3092
General Subjects 2
109
GS2111612
ID#
I only
II only
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
3096
higher relative
humidity
3097
A regulating valve
changes the inlet
temperature of the water
in the cooling coils.
A regulating valve
controls the quantity of
chilled water flowing in
the cooling coils.
Compressor discharge
temperature.
Compressor suction
pressure.
3093
QUESTION
In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an air
conditioning system, you should perform which of the
following?
Choice A
Choice B
3095
3098
3099
3100
3101
General Subjects 2
110
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Choice A
The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system 20 grains
is 90F with a relative humidity of 60%. The air has been
conditioned to 70F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using
the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine
the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the
conditioned air.
Choice B
30 grains
Choice C
40 grains
Choice D
50 grains
40 grains
50 grains
60 grains
3103
60 grains
90 grains
120 grains
3104
64 degrees F
67 degrees F
70 degrees F
73 degrees F
62 degrees F
63 degrees F
77 degrees F
80 degrees F
room thermostat
duct thermostat
3102
3105
3106
3107
3108
General Subjects 2
111
diverting relay
GS2111612
ID#
3109
3110
QUESTION
Which of the following is true concerning the class "D"
terminal reheat air conditioning system shown in the
illustration as used to condition the air of individual
staterooms?
3116
Choice D
The dry bulb room
temperature is
controlled by a hot
water heated reheater
and its associated
pneumatic control
valve
The dry bulb room
temperature is controlled
by a steam heated
reheater and its
associated pneumatic
control valve.
3112
3115
Choice C
The supply air duct
temperature is controlled
by a hot water heated
reheater and its
associated pneumatic
control valve
3114
Choice B
In the summer mode,
the duct temperature is
maintained at a higher
temperature than any of
the room temperatures.
Which of the following is true concerning the class "G" dual The dry bulb room
duct air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used temperature is
to condition the air of individual staterooms?
controlled by a dual
duct air mixing unit.
3111
3113
Choice A
The preheater steam
flow is controlled by the
room thermostat
changing compressor
lubricant
renewing container
vacuum
General Subjects 2
112
GS2111612
ID#
3117
3118
3119
3120
3121
3122
3123
3124
3125
QUESTION
To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, what is the
easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant that the unit
is charged with?
When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant from the
centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as a vapor using
the recovery unit's compressor, in addition to opening valves
"1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge
isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct
valve lineup?
Choice A
use your service gage
set and refrigeration
card
valves "2", "5", "7", "8",
and "10" open; valves
"3", "4", and "6" closed
Choice B
look at the unit name
plate
Choice C
ask the Chief Engineer
valves "3", "4", and "6" valves "3", "5", and "6"
open; valves "2", "5", open; valves "2", "4",
"7", "8", and "10" closed
"7", "8", and "10"
closed
valves "3", "4", and "8" valves "3", "5", and "6"
open; valves "2", "5",
open; valves "2", "4",
"6", "7", and "10" closed "7", "8", and "10" closed
In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure leaky suction valves
associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result
of what condition?
If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being
preheater has failed to
too cool, what is most likely to be the trouble?
cutout
The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air A liquid line solenoid
conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the
valve has failed closed.
compressor is not operating. A service check determines
the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cutin point, with a normal head pressure, and high evaporator
superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this
problem?
The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning
loosely fitted
system is short cycling. A service check determines that the compressor drive belt
suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point
during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds
up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to
the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?
Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning
compressor as a result of what condition?
General Subjects 2
113
Choice D
look on the top of the
TXV
GS2111612
ID#
3126
3127
3128
3129
3130
3131
3132
3133
3134
QUESTION
Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a
reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of what
condition?
Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a
reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of what
condition?
In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what
component is the chill box thermal expansion valve?
Choice A
refrigerant bubbles in
the lube oil
refrigerant flow
box temperature
evaporator superheat
evaporator pressure
solenoid valve
king valve
thermal expansion
valve
temperature in the
refrigerated space
3135
3136
Choice D
reducing the floc or
cloud point of the oil
Choice C
carbonization of the
lube oil from
overheating
contamination by dust, refrigerant bubbles in
the lube oil
scale, or moisture
"23"
"27"
"28"
"29"
3137
General Subjects 2
114
Choice B
refrigerant reducing the
lube oil viscosity
freeze box
thermostatic
expansion valve
internal equalizers to
internal needle valve
accommodate different
orifices of various
sizes to accommodate heat removal capacities
different heat removal
capacities
degree of superheat of
the gas leaving the
evaporator
ensure that liquid
maintain constant
maintain a constant
refrigerant returning to
degree of superheat at evaporator coil pressure
the compressor has the the evaporator coil
independent of suction
proper superheat
pressure variations
outlet
GS2111612
ID#
3138
3139
3140
3141
QUESTION
Choice A
What will remain constant during operation when a properly condenser sub cooling
adjusted thermostatic expansion valve exhibits stable
operation without any appreciable hunting of the valve?
Choice B
liquid line sub cooling
maintain a constant
degree of superheat in
the gas leaving the
evaporator coil
Which of the following statements best describes the
Turning the adjustment
operation of the refrigeration valve shown in the illustration? screw "I"
counterclockwise, as
viewed facing the
adjusting screw, results
in an increase in the
evaporator superheat
setting.
regulate refrigerant
control the quantity of
control the operation of
condensation rate in the liquid refrigerant leaving the box solenoid valve
condenser coil
the evaporator coil
The sensor bulb "C"
detects changes in box
temperature.
Refrigerant pressure
acting through the
external equalizer
connection "K" is
always acting to close
the valve.
temperature of the
space being cooled
temperature of the
evaporator coil outlet
liquid refrigerant
pressure at the solenoid
valve
The net force of the
combined forces of the
evaporator pressure
and the superheat
adjusting spring as
opposed by the bulb
pressure
B
3142
3143
3144
3145
3146
3147
General Subjects 2
115
Choice C
evaporator outlet
superheat
Choice D
compressor discharge
gas superheat
GS2111612
ID#
3148
3149
3150
3151
QUESTION
Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves
would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8
psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat
and a replaceable power element are both desired?
3154
3155
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Direct expansion
through a TXV with
constant superheat
act as a pilot controlling
the box solenoid valve
it will continue to
function as a result of
the net balance of
forces acting on the
p
g
diaphragm
immediately completely
close
close to a preset
minimum opening
temperature of the
evaporator coil outlet
compressor suction
pressure
respond according to
operating forces acting
on the valve
heat transferred from the
saturated liquid in the
evaporator
after the back pressure
regulating valve
3152
3153
Choice A
A
3156
In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion in the middle of the
valve is always located where?
evaporator coils
compressor suction
pressure
3157
General Subjects 2
refrigerated space
temperature
116
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a
thermal expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator
tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?
Choice A
the bulb should be
attached so that the
pinched off tubing
should be oriented
down and the capillary
tube running to the
valve diaghragm
should be oriented up
Choice B
the bulb should be
attached so that the
pinched off tubing
should be oriented up
and the capillary tube
running to the valve
diaphragm should be
oriented down
near the evaporator coil on the liquid line strainer at the solenoid valve
inlet
outlet
It regulates the
temperature of the
refrigerated space.
blended charged
straight charged
mixed charged
cross charged
At the designed
operating temperature,
the liquid refrigerant
charge has changed to a
vapor.
To direct evaporator
outlet pressure to the
lower part of the
solenoid bellows.
Crankcase pressure
regulator
Solenoid valve
3158
3159
3160
3161
3162
3163
3164
General Subjects 2
117
Choice C
the bulb should be
attached so that the
pinched off tubing
should be oriented to
one side and the
capillary tube running to
the valve diaghragm
should be oriented to the
opposite side
Choice D
the bulb should be
attached with no regard
to the orientation of the
pinched off tubing or the
capillary tube running to
the valve diaphragm
GS2111612
ID#
3165
3166
3167
QUESTION
Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is
greatest under what conditions?
Choice A
when the evaporator
has just begun feeding
at relatively high box
temperature
evaporator
Choice B
just before the
evaporator stops feeding
at relatively low box
temperature
condenser receiver
Choice C
when the low side and
high side pressures are
equal
Choice D
when the low side
pressure and the bulb
pressure are equal
compressor
expansion valve
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
an increase in the
evaporator pressure
a decrease in sensing
bulb temperature
a rise in the
temperature at the
evaporator outlet
the king valve
a drop in the
temperature at the
evaporator outlet
the individual back
pressure regulating
valves
the compressor outlet
evaporator coil
receiver
compressor
3168
3169
3170
3171
3172
3173
3174
General Subjects 2
118
GS2111612
ID#
3175
QUESTION
Which lettered component, shown in the illustration,
indicates the location of the receiver?
The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what
function?
3176
3177
3178
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
stores liquid
refrigerant and acts as
a surge tank to
compensate for
changes in system
load
cool the refrigerant gas
serves as a collection
point and release vent
point for air and
noncondensable gases
prevents compressor
surging by preventing an
excessive pressure
difference across the
compressor
a hermetically sealed
water cooler with a 2
lb. refrigerant charge
prevents liquid
refrigerant from flooding
back to the compressor
3181
3182
What is the purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure protect the compressor
cutout switch?
from liquid flood back
3179
3180
3183
3184
General Subjects 2
119
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Choice A
If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open in a multiple- chill box thermostatic
box refrigeration plant, the refrigeration compressor will
temperature switch
eventually be stopped shortly after it closes once the
minimum desired chill box temperature is reached. What
device actually directly stops the compressor?
Choice B
low water cutout switch
Choice C
low pressure cutout
switch
Choice D
high pressure cutout
switch
3186
The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch for a
at the inlet side of the
refrigeration system is typically connected at what location? receiver
3187
changes in condenser
water supply pressure
3185
3188
3189
3190
3191
3192
changes in condenser
shell pressure
General Subjects 2
120
compressor discharge
pressure acting on a
bellows
compressor discharge
compressor suction
temperature acting on a temperature acting on a
bimetallic element
bimetallic element
the differential
adjustment must be
adjusted to lower the
cut-out
the differential
adjustment must be
adjusted to raise the cutout
0 psig
2.5 psig
12.5 psig
GS2111612
ID#
3193
3194
3195
3196
3197
3198
3199
3200
3201
3202
3203
3204
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
The low pressure cutout switch will cause the compressor in expansion valve thermal differential pressure
a refrigeration system to short cycle under what condition? bulb loses its charge
between the cut-in
pressure and cutout
pressure is too small
In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system,
thermostatic expansion high pressure cutout
the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the action of valve
what device?
A relief valve is designed to protect the physical integrity of a low pressure cutout
back pressure cutout
refrigeration system as a result of over-pressurization. What switch
switch
device is designed to stop a running compressor before the
relief valve lifts?
If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration
the relief valve should lift the relief valve should lift
compressor is steadily building and becomes excessive, for open before the high
open and allow the
protection purposes, what should occur?
pressure cutout stops
excess refrigerant to
the compressor
flow to the receiver
Choice C
Choice D
expansion valve freezes refrigerant has too much
in the closed position
oil in circulation
oil-failure switch
"6"
"11"
"13"
"19"
discharge pressure in
the relief valve return
line
copper is inherently
stronger and can
withstand higher
pressures than steel
General Subjects 2
121
copper is compatible
with anhydrous
ammonia, whereas steel
is not
GS2111612
ID#
3205
QUESTION
Choice A
Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger
Hard drawn copper
refrigeration systems. What statement concerning its use is tubing is easily flared, so
true?
flare fittings are
commonly used.
Choice B
Hard drawn copper
tubing is easily bent, so
elbow fittings are rarely
used in changing
direction.
Choice C
Hard drawn copper
tubing is easily swaged,
so reducing fittings are
rarely used in changing
line size.
flaring
brazing
3206
It is corrosive.
corrosive liquid
It is not compatible
with mineral based
lubricants.
sub cooled gas
3207
odorless gas
reciprocating
compressors
rotary compressors
R-12
R-11
Ammonia
Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Ammonia
R-22
Sulfur dioxide
pressure
volume
weight
temperature
100F
125F
150F
175F
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
3208
3209
3210
3211
3212
3213
3214
Choice D
Hard drawn copper
tubing is not easily
flared, bent, or
swaged, so brazed
fittings are commonly
used.
threading
superheated liquid
3215
I. proper sizing of the condenser
II. use of a liquid liquid line to suction line heat interchanger
General Subjects 2
122
GS2111612
ID#
3216
QUESTION
Choice A
The presence of flash gas in the high pressure liquid lines of I only
a refrigeration system is undesirable due to which of the
following reasons?
II only
Choice B
Choice C
Both I and II
Choice D
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
3218
3219
3220
3221
Methyl alcohol
Brine
Carbon dioxide
Cuprous chloride
3223
Which of the following statements is true concerning the use Dehydrators must be
of dehydrators in refrigeration systems?
used continuously.
3224
3225
to remove
noncondensable gases
and vapors
humidifier
to separate refrigerant
from the oil
to remove moisture
from the system
aerator
dehydrator
trap
3222
3226
General Subjects 2
123
GS2111612
ID#
air
Choice C
Choice D
dichlorodifluoromethane desiccant
McLeod gage
Particulate test
acids
noncondensable gases
refrigerant oil
3230
Sodium bromide
Silica gel
Methyl glycol
3231
sodium chloride
activated alumina
calcium chloride
3227
3228
3229
3232
3233
3234
3235
3236
3237
3238
QUESTION
Choice A
In addition to removing water from a refrigerant and
solid impurities
neutralizing acids, most dehydrators also effectively remove
what other substance?
Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a
Dryer sensing bulb
refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of
removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?
General Subjects 2
slaked lime
Choice B
capillary tube
prevent compressor
overload
maintain at least a
minimum evaporator
pressure
124
GS2111612
ID#
3239
3240
3241
3242
3243
3244
3245
3246
3247
3248
3249
3250
QUESTION
The two-temperature evaporator pressure regulating valves
used in a multi-temperature, multi-box refrigeration system
served by one compressor perform what function?
Choice A
it limits the minimum
pressure in the colder
evaporators to a preset
value
What is the primary function of the evaporator pressure
limit the minimum
regulator valves installed in a multi-box refrigeration system? evaporator coil
pressure on those so
fitted to prevent
excessively low
evaporator
temperatures
The valve shown in the illustration is commonly identified as thermal expansion valve
what type?
Concerning the evaporator pressure regulator drawing
"P" refers to an
shown in the bottom of the illustration, what statement is
internal pilot passage
true?
sensing evaporator
pressure
Choice B
it limits the minimum
pressure in the warmer
evaporators to a preset
value
limit the maximum
evaporator coil pressure
on those so fitted to
prevent excessively high
evaporator temperatures
Choice C
it limits the maximum
pressure in the warmer
evaporators to a preset
value
maintain equal
evaporator pressures
among all system
evaporators despite
differences in box
temperatures
Choice D
it limits the maximum
pressure in the colder
evaporators to a preset
value
maintain a constant
compressor suction
pressure regardless of
changes in system
demand
evaporator pressure
regulating valve
"P" refers to an internal
pilot passage sensing
suction line pressure
king valve
"3"
"10"
"17"
"18"
"2"
"10"
"17"
"18"
"8"
"13"
"16"
"20"
"3"
"9"
"17"
"18"
"2"
"3"
"9"
"17"
"2"
"3"
"9"
"10"
General Subjects 2
125
it maintains a higher
pressure in the
evaporator coil of the
warmer box
it maintains a lower
pressure in the
evaporator coil of the
warmer box
it maintains equal
pressures in the
evaporator coils of both
boxes
GS2111612
ID#
3251
3252
3253
3254
3255
QUESTION
Choice A
In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are
thermostatic expansion
operating at different temperatures, and serviced by a single valve superheat setting
compressor and condenser, the control of individual
evaporator coil temperature minimums should be carried out
by adjustment of which individual valve?
Choice B
evaporator pressure
regulating valve
pressure setting
Choice C
thermostatic expansion
valve maximum
pressure setting
Choice D
box thermostat
temperature setting
it is controlled by
adjusting the thermal
expansion valve
controlling the feed with throttling the compressor bypassing the box
the hand expansion
suction isolation valve
solenoid valve
valve
rupture
open
chatter
activated charcoal
immediately before
each expansion valve
the receiver
3256
3257
3258
3259
General Subjects 2
126
close
activated alumina or
silica gel dessicant
beads
upright, controlled by a upright, controlled by a
thermostat sensing the thermostat sensing the
temperature of the box,
temperature of the
box, and upstream of and downstream of the
the thermal expansion thermal expansion valve
valve
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is
required to be installed on the outlet of the freeze box
evaporator and the outlet of the chill box evaporator of a two
evaporator refrigeration system?
Choice A
Choice B
the outlet of both
the outlet of both
evaporators would have evaporators would have
evaporator pressure
check valves installed
regulators installed
Choice C
the outlet of the freeze
box evaporator would
have an evaporator
pressure regulator
installed and the outlet
of the chill box
evaporator would have a
check valve installed
fully opening or
closing
compressor discharge
temperature
3260
3261
3262
3263
3264
3265
3266
3267
3268
changing compressor
speed
compressor discharge
temperature
operation of that
compartment's back
pressure regulating
valve
operation of that
compartment's
thermostatically
controlled box
solenoid
The thermostat controlling a refrigerated walk-in box
evaporator coil inlet
the refrigerated space evaporator coil outlet
solenoid valve typically senses what parameter?
temperature
temperature
temperature
When a refrigerated space reaches the minimum desired
The box solenoid valve The expansion valve will The low pressure cutout
temperature in a multi-box refrigeration system, which of the will close.
open.
switch will stop the
listed actions will occur FIRST after opening of the box
compressor.
thermostat?
General Subjects 2
Choice D
the outlet of the freeze
box evaporator would
have a check valve
installed and the outlet
of the chill box
evaporator would have
an evaporator
pressure regulator
installed
127
operation of that
compartment's low
pressure cutout switch
degree of evaporator
superheat
The high pressure
cutout switch will stop
the compressor.
GS2111612
ID#
3269
3270
3271
QUESTION
Choice A
In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pump down prior suction line solenoid
to the automatic shut down of the compressor, the
temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the
action of a thermostat wired to what device?
The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigeration
system are directly controlled by what means?
3274
3275
3276
3277
thermostatic expansion
valves
thermostatically
controlled solenoid
valves
What is the primary purpose of a thermostatically controlled control the refrigerated bypass refrigerant flow
box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system? compartment
to the evaporator
temperature
Choice C
liquid line box
solenoid
Choice D
low pressure cutout
switch
back-pressure valves
"14"
"17"
"28"
"36"
"8"
8
"11"
11
"13"
13
"16"
16
thermal expansion
valves
suction pressure
actuated pressure
switch
the box solenoid valve
operating coil
box temperature
actuated thermostat
3272
3273
Choice B
thermostatic expansion
valve
General Subjects 2
evaporator outlet
temperature actuated
thermostat
the compressor
the TEV sensing bulb
unloader mechanism
mounted on the
evaporator tail coil
A modulating valve is
A conventional solenoid
A conventional
valve is either open or
solenoid valve is either either open or closed,
whereas a conventional closed, whereas a
open or closed,
modulating valve has
whereas a modulating solenoid valve can
three positions: open,
valve can achieve any achieve any degree of
opening.
closed, or half-open.
degree of opening.
128
discharge pressure
actuated pressure
switch
the receiver level
controller
A modulating valve is
either open or closed,
whereas a conventional
solenoid valve has three
positions: open, closed,
or half-open.
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a
modulating valve?
Choice A
Choice B
A solenoid valve can
A liquid line solenoid
only be installed in liquid valve is either
lines.
completely opened or
closed, whereas a
modulation valve is
infinitely positioned
according to the
strength of the applied
electrical signal.
Choice C
Solenoid valves are only
used in low voltage
refrigeration control
systems, while
modulation valves are
used in high voltage
applications.
Choice D
Both valves operate in
exactly the same
manner, only the
manufacturer's
terminology is the
differentiating factor.
seawater cooled
condenser heads
evaporator coils
3279
3280
3281
3282
3283
3284
3285
3286
3287
3288
compressor
cylinder unloader
General Subjects 2
condense the
refrigerant
g
gas
g
129
filter drier
equalize system
pressure for easier
compressor startup
condenser
determine actual
compressor oil level
relief valve
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically
sealed centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true
concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide
vanes?
Choice A
closed until the motor is
connected across the
line at full voltage and
current drawn is up to
full load current
Choice B
opened until the motor is
connected across the
line at full voltage and
current drawn is below
full load current
Choice C
closed until the motor
is connected across
the line at full voltage
and current drawn is
below full load current
Choice D
opened until the motor is
connected across the
line at full voltage and
current drawn is up to
full load current
king valve
suction valve
expansion valve
spring
snap ring
woodruff key
thrust washer
3292
3293
3289
3290
3291
3294
3295
3296
3297
3298
3299
3300
General Subjects 2
130
GS2111612
ID#
3301
QUESTION
The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration
compressor that is shut down is heated. For what purpose is
this done?
Oil separators installed in large refrigeration systems serve
what function?
Choice A
reduce absorption of
refrigerant by the oil
Choice B
prevent refrigerant
vaporization
sudden evaporation of
wax crystals in the
lubricant
3302
3303
3304
3305
3306
3307
3308
3309
3310
3311
3312
3313
General Subjects 2
Choice C
Choice D
remove entrained water remove wax and gum
discharge pressure
gauges of both
compressors
operation of two
compressors will
overload the expansion
valves
suction line
closed position
open position
condenser shell
refrigerant pressure
to maintain a constant
to maintain a constant
condenser cooling water head pressure
pressure
compressor speed
compressor discharge
temperature
131
to maintain a constant
suction pressure
to maintain a constant
discharge gas
temperature
compressor discharge condenser discharge
temperature
pressure
GS2111612
ID#
3314
3315
3316
3317
3318
3319
3320
3321
3322
3323
QUESTION
The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system
featuring a water-cooled condenser is designed to control
what parameter?
In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water
regulating valve is directly controlled by changes in what
parameter or condition?
If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of
the refrigeration system using the device shown in the
illustration, what should be done?
Choice A
compressor discharge
temperature
Choice B
Choice C
compressor discharge compressor suction
temperature
pressure
Choice D
compressor suction
pressure
temperature of the
refrigerant after
expansion
"4" should be rotated to
relax the enclosed
bellows
thermostatic expansion
valve
"1"
1
evaporator pressure
regulating valve
"2"
2
head pressure
regulating valve
"3"
3
suction pressure
regulating valve
"4"
4
compressor crankcase
gas connection
condenser refrigerant
inlet gas stream
condenser refrigerant
outlet liquid stream
3324
General Subjects 2
132
GS2111612
ID#
3325
3326
3327
3328
3329
3330
3331
QUESTION
The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the
underside of the unloader power element piston of the
refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism
illustrated is obtained from where?
Choice C
discharge of the
compressor lube oil
pump
Choice D
discharge of a
secondary hydraulic
pump specifically
installed for this
operation
The fluid used to act against the range adjusting spring and high side liquid receiver gas discharge from the
to directly control the position of the capacity control valve of
compressor
the refrigeration compressor capacity control system
illustrated, is obtained from where?
crankcase pressure
The fluid used to act against hydraulic relay piston to control control oil pressure
how many cylinders are unloaded in the refrigeration
compressor capacity control system illustrated, is obtained
from where?
During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system the lowest
using a capacity controlled compressor, when all of the
evaporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with
liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the
hydraulic relay piston will be at what value?
crankcase pressure
at its mid-range
the highest
of no consequence as
the lube oil is not used in
the operation of the
unloader
at its mid-range
the highest
of no consequence as
the lube oil is not used in
the operation of the
unloader
at its mid-range
the highest
of no consequence as
the lube oil is not used in
the operation of the
unloader
66.7%
50%
33.3%
General Subjects 2
Choice A
Choice B
high side liquid receiver gas discharge from the
compressor
133
GS2111612
ID#
3332
3333
3334
QUESTION
Choice A
A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system has 4 83.3%
of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable loads. Assuming that
the controlled cylinders are unloaded singly in incremental
steps, if three of five boxes are currently feeding, what will
be compressor capacity at step 2 of incremental unloading?
3337
3338
Choice C
Choice D
50%
33.3%
66.7%
50%
33.3%
66.7%
50%
33.3%
3335
3336
Choice B
66.7%
General Subjects 2
valve "18" closed; valve valve "18" closed; valve valve "18" open; valve
"21" open; valve "22"
"21" closed; valve "22" "21" open; valve "22"
open; valve "27" closed open; valve "27" closed open; valve "27" closed
analog to digital
converters
134
piercing valves
quick-coupler hose
adapters
GS2111612
ID#
3339
3340
3341
3342
3343
3344
3345
3346
3347
QUESTION
Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation
evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of
produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize
this dehydration?
Choice A
the air is circulated
rapidly over a small
evaporator with a
maximum temperature
differential
Choice B
the air is circulated
rapidly over a small
evaporator with a
minimum temperature
differential
Choice C
the air is circulated
slowly over a large
evaporator with a
minimum temperature
differential
Choice D
the air is circulated
slowly over a large
evaporator with a
maximum temperature
differential
In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what the coils are covered on
is true concerning the evaporator coils?
the outside with
insulation
When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor
liquid strainer
discharge line, it discharges high pressure refrigerant vapor
to what location?
According to 46 CFR Part 58, for protection purposes, what high pressure cut-out
is required of all refrigeration systems?
The rupture disc on a low pressure centrifugal refrigeration at the top of the upper
unit is used as an over pressure protection device and is set chamber of the
to relieve at 15 psig and is most likely to lift when the
economizer
compressor is idle? Where is the rupture disc located?
refrigerant receiver
on top of chiller
evaporator shell
liquid extractor
drain lines
to increase the
circulation of liquid
refrigerant
Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to produce what relieve excessive
effect?
compressor head
pressure
What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator
the frost can be quickly
coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?
removed by simply
shutting down the
compressor
General Subjects 2
135
re-evaporator
GS2111612
ID#
3348
3349
3350
3351
3352
3353
3354
3355
3356
3357
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Concerning frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of the frost will increase the the frost will assist in
a multi-box, direct expansion type refrigeration system, what value of superheat to the increasing the
is true?
fluid leaving the coils
refrigeration effect
When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the
refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?
Choice C
the frost can be
removed by passing
hot vapors through the
coils
renew the plates at each replace the zincs if
inspection
deteriorated by 50%
Choice D
the frost can be quickly
removed by simply
shutting off fluid flow to
the coils
file the plates to change
the negative value
0 to 1 psig
25 mm of Hg absolute
10 to 12 psig
15 inches Hg
14.7 psig
1 to 2 psig
4 inches Hg vacuum
1 to 2 psig
4 to 7 psig
11 to 12 psig
0 psig
discharge pressure of
hydrostatic pressure of discharge pressure from
the recovery compressor the expanding liquid
the recovery cylinder
reclamation of the
refrigerant
recycling of the
refrigerant
General Subjects 2
136
destruction of the
refrigerant
GS2111612
ID#
3358
3359
3360
QUESTION
Choice A
Which recovery procedure should be used to minimize the vapor recovery
loss of oil from the system during the recovery of refrigerant
from small appliances such as a water cooler?
In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of
the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable
condition?
Minor repairs may be performed on low pressure refrigerant
systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the
pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may
this be accomplished?
In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the
term 'high efficiency purge unit?'
3363
3364
3365
3366
3367
3368
Choice C
initial recovery
Choice D
vapor-liquid recovery
leaking condenser or
chiller tubes
improper charging of
refrigerant
through water-side
system leaks
expansion valve
equalizer connection
free tubes of
accumulated scale
3361
3362
Choice B
liquid recovery
remove
noncondensable
gases
eliminate moisture from separate refrigerant from remove
the refrigeration system oil
noncondensable
gases from the
refrigeration system
In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration, which of "5"
"11"
"6"
the valves indicated should be used to purge the system of
air and non-condensable gases?
General Subjects 2
137
GS2111612
ID#
3369
3370
3371
QUESTION
Choice A
Loss of refrigerant during the process of purging of air and purging through a
non-condensable gases can be kept to a minimum by what dehydrator
action?
Choice B
purging through the
discharge service valve
rather than the top of the
condenser
Choice C
cracking the purge
valve briefly and
allowing the
refrigerant to re-settle
between purges
Choice D
purging through the top
of the receiver rather
than the top of the
condenser
a respirator
3372
3373
3374
3375
3376
3377
When adding oil to a refrigeration system, what precautions the compressor suction
must be taken?
pressure should not be
too high
General Subjects 2
138
GS2111612
ID#
3378
3379
3380
3381
3382
3383
3384
3385
3386
3387
3388
QUESTION
Choice A
The process of removing refrigerant from a system and
reclaiming
storing it without testing or processing it in any way is known
as what under the EPA Clean Air Act rule definitions?
Choice B
recouping
Choice C
recycling
Choice D
recovering
Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging Dehydrator inlet valve
the refrigeration system through the high side?
Thermal expansion
valve
$10,000
$25,000
$50,000
R-32
R-134a
R-143a
General Subjects 2
139
GS2111612
ID#
3389
3390
3391
3392
3393
3394
3395
3396
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, intentionally venting
working on a
1992, what action became illegal?
class I or II refrigerants refrigeration system
without permission of
to the atmosphere
the Officer in Charge
Marine Inspection
If you mistakenly change from a lower pour point lubricant to compressor lubrication oil will not leave the
a higher pour point lubricant in a refrigeration system, what will be improved
crankcase
will be the result?
The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a
oil has had time to mix oil in migration has
typical refrigeration system is when shortly after the
properly with the
had sufficient time to
compressor has stopped after a long period of running. Why refrigerant and migrate return back to the
is this so?
throughout the system
crankcase via the
suction line
With a service gauge manifold set connected to a refrigerant
compressor as shown in the illustration, which arrangement
of the gauge manifold set valves and compressor service
valves would allow for simultaneous reading of the
compressor suction and discharge pressures?
Choice C
mixing R-12 and R-22
Choice D
producing a class I
refrigerant
General Subjects 2
140
saturation temperature
scales for different
refrigerants
absolute pressure
GS2111612
ID#
3397
3398
3399
3400
3401
3402
3403
3404
QUESTION
In a water-cooled ship's stores refrigeration plant using a
high pressure refrigerant as defined under the EPA Clean
Air Act rules, which of the following applications would be
appropriate for a permanently installed compound pressure
gauge?
Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration
system should be in which of the following conditions?
In a refrigeration system, once the gage manifold hoses are
attached to the compressor service valve connections and
properly purged, what should be the status of the manifold
valves and the service valves when the purpose for
attachment is to read system pressures?
Choice A
compressor suction
pressure
Choice B
compressor discharge
pressure
Choice C
Choice D
lube oil pump discharge condenser cooling water
pressure
supply pressure
during replacement of a
compressor
cardiac arrhythmias
loss of concentration
The recovered
refrigerant may be
blended with new
refrigerant for eventual
re-use.
3405
General Subjects 2
The recovered
refrigerant should be
sent to a designated
reclamation facility for
processing.
141
The recovered
refrigerant must be
destroyed by the
refrigeration technician.
The recovered
refrigerant may be used
to clean out systems
that have suffered from
a burn-out.
GS2111612
ID#
3406
QUESTION
When recovering R-12 from a small appliance with a
75%
working compressor, using a recovery device manufactured
after November 15, 1993, what percentage of the remaining
charge must be removed from the system?
Choice A
Choice B
80%
Choice C
99%
the Underwriters
Laboratories
the Environmental
Protection Agency
level indicator
pressure regulator
the Environmental
Protection Agency
the system's
manufacturer
Type II technician
Type I or Universal
technician
3411
How should small appliances with less than three pounds of liquid charged
refrigerant be charged with refrigerant?
vapor charged
3412
volume
weight
3407
3408
3409
3410
3413
3414
3415
3416
General Subjects 2
Choice D
90%
142
HCFC-22
HFC-134a
recovery using a
vacuum pump based
vapor recovery machine
only
GS2111612
ID#
3417
3418
3419
3420
3421
QUESTION
Choice A
In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of
mixed refrigerants
contamination will the reclamation process be unable to
separate?
What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration 60% full
cylinders should be filled?
In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be
both liquid and vapor
used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?
3424
3425
Choice B
Choice C
moisture
air
Choice D
70% full
80% full
90% full
liquid only
vapor only
self-contained recovery
devices can only be
used on large CFC and
HCFC units
self-contained
recovery devices
usually contain a
compressor, systemp
recovery
y
dependent
devices do not
3422
3423
acid
General Subjects 2
143
do not attempt to
recover any refrigerant
GS2111612
ID#
3426
3427
3428
3429
3430
3431
QUESTION
Choice A
If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a only recover the vapor
Class I or Class II refrigerant to be opened for the
refrigerant
accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
only recover the liquid
recover liquid and vapor do not attempt to
refrigerant in the system refrigerant and have it
recover the refrigerant
reclaimed
and repair the leak
before pulling a
vacuum on the system
3432
3433
3434
General Subjects 2
144
GS2111612
ID#
3435
3436
3437
QUESTION
When a change in superheat setting adjustment to a
thermostatic expansion valve is performed, which of the
following is true?
Choice A
refrigerant must be bled
off the sensing line
before adjustments are
made
evaporator superheat
only
apply a light film of oil to with steel wool or an
apply a heavy coating of
increase heat transfer
abrasive cloth remove grease to function as a
oxidation on the bulb heat sink
and suction line
Cleaning of in-line
in line
strainers as necessary.
An accurate
thermometer and
suction pressure gage
are essential to this
process.
3438
3439
3440
3441
3442
General Subjects 2
145
Choice B
all refrigerant must be
pumped into the receiver
before adjustments are
made
Choice C
time must be allowed
for conditions to
stabilize in the
evaporator before
further adjustments
are made
the expansion valve will
further close
Choice D
all refrigerant must be
routed through the
dehydrator while
changing the superheat
setting
the expansion valve
diaphragm will rupture
GS2111612
ID#
3443
3444
3445
3446
3447
3448
3449
3450
3451
QUESTION
Choice A
Which of the listed statements describes the method used to Note the low side
determine the amount of superheat present in the suction
pressure, determine
gas leaving the evaporator coil?
the corresponding
saturation
temperature, and
subtract it from the
temperature measured
with a thermometer at
the thermostatic
expansion valve
sensing bulb.
Choice B
Note the low side
pressure, determine the
corresponding saturation
temperature, and
subtract it from the
temperature measured
with a thermometer at
the compressor suction
inlet.
Choice C
Note the low side
pressure, determine the
corresponding saturation
temperature, and add it
to the temperature
measured with a
thermometer at the
thermostatic expansion
valve sensing bulb.
Thermal expansion
valve frozen open.
insufficient cooling
water flow to the
condenser
discharge valves are
leaking excessively
General Subjects 2
Choice D
Subtract the
temperature measured
at the thermostatic
expansion valve sensing
bulb from the saturation
temperature
corresponding to the low
side pressure.
excessive evaporator
superheat
system is low on
refrigerant
completely purge the
high pressure side of the
system
Excessive condenser
cooling water flow.
Insufficient condenser
cooling water flow.
a clogged liquid-line
strainer
Insufficient flow of
condenser cooling
water.
146
GS2111612
ID#
3452
3453
3454
3455
3456
3457
3458
3459
3460
3461
QUESTION
When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high
head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what
should be done to compensate for or to correct this
situation?
A low compressor discharge pressure for a refrigerator can
be caused by which of the following?
Choice A
increase the amount of
cooling water to the
condenser
Choice B
Choice C
decrease the amount of raise the high pressure
cooling water to the
cut-out opening
condenser
pressure
insufficient condenser
cooling water flow
run continuously
excessive condenser
cooling water flow
not start
overfeeding of the
expansion valve
run continuously
damage to the
condenser
not start
constant running of
the compressor
short cycle on the low
pressure cut-out switch
excessive refrigerant in
the system
short cycle on the high
pressure switch
If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than air or noncondensable leaking discharge valves leaking suction valves
normal discharge pressure
pressure, this could be a result of which of gases in the system
the following?
air and
noncondensable
gases in the
condenser
frosting of the liquid line higher than normal
head pressure
higher than normal liquid
unusually high head
level in the receiver
pressure when
compared to the
existing temperature
of the liquid refrigerant
3462
3463
Choice D
remove some
refrigerant from the
system
General Subjects 2
restriction in refrigerant
piping associated with
the liquid line
147
GS2111612
ID#
3464
3465
3466
3467
3468
3469
3470
3471
3472
3473
3474
QUESTION
If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high
suction pressure accompanied with an abnormally low
suction temperature, the problem could be a result of which
of the following?
'Flooding back' is a condition where the liquid refrigerant
does what in a refrigeration system?
Choice A
Choice B
a minor accumulation of a leaking king valve
air or noncondensable
gases in the system
Choice C
a clogged sub cooler
Choice D
liquid refrigerant
flooding back from the
cooling coil
vaporizes in the
condenser
reaches the
compressor through
the suction line
In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, overcharge of refrigerant fouled shell-and-tube
both low discharge and high suction pressures are being
in the system
condenser
simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this
condition is which of the following?
condenses in the
receiver
improper superheat
adjustment on the low
side
a fouled compressor
suction strainer
insufficient condensing
medium flow
refrigerant overcharge
overfeeding by the
expansion valve
a restricted liquid-line
strainer
a dirty condenser
Prolonged compressor
running periods
Short-cycling of the
compressor on the
high pressure cutout
higher than normal
discharge pressure
General Subjects 2
148
GS2111612
ID#
3475
QUESTION
Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an
excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the
system?
Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil
foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?
Choice A
Choice B
Colder than normal
Sweating of the
compressor crankcase solenoid valve
Choice C
Frosting of the
evaporator
Choice D
Weeping of the purge
valve
This phenomenon is
inherent only in
hermetically sealed units
and is always
provisional.
an incorrectly adjusted
high pressure cutout
A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for rising and falling with
leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor,
each stroke
turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then
turning the compressor over by hand
hand. If the discharge valves
are leaking, the compound gage will show pressures which
react in which way?
decreasing to a vacuum
Shortage of refrigerant
oil.
Slight shortage of
refrigerant.
Excessive condenser
cooling water flow.
a shortage of
compressor oil
excessive condenser
cooling water
a shortage of
refrigerant
the system is
overcharged with
refrigerant
high suction pressure
3476
3477
3478
3479
3480
3481
3482
3483
General Subjects 2
149
GS2111612
ID#
3484
3485
3486
3487
3488
3489
3490
3491
3492
3493
3494
QUESTION
During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is
running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated
space temperature is slightly above normal without ever
reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and
discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box
temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?
Choice A
leaking door gaskets
Choice B
high cooling water
temperature
Choice C
air in the system
Choice D
a shortage of refrigerant
orange
blue
stored at temperatures
below 60 degrees
Fahrenheit
exposed to an open
flame or hot surface
petroleum crystals
phosgene gas
water vapor
carbon monoxide
CO2
Methyl chloride
R-22
Sulphur dioxide
phosgene gas
flammable
explosive
will dissolve in
perspiration and cause
caustic burns
General Subjects 2
150
GS2111612
ID#
3495
3496
3497
3498
3499
3500
3501
3502
3503
3504
3505
3506
3507
QUESTION
Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate
for use in detecting leaks on a system currently in a
vacuum?
Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate
for use in detecting leaks on a system currently pressurized
with nitrogen?
Which of the following leak detectors requires the
introduction of a fluorescent additive to the system?
Which of the following leak detectors has a sensitivity
adjustment to compensate for the presence of background
refrigerant in the vicinity?
Which of the following leak detectors is fitted with a copper
reaction plate?
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the
testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an
enclosed compartment with a halide torch?
Choice A
General Subjects 2
Choice C
Choice D
Choice B
perform a hydrostatic
test with water
test the condenser tubes
hydrostatically
it will stay blue
orange
blue
white
green
compressor damage
from a lack of proper
lubrication
release of dissolved
lubricant from the
refrigerant in the
crankcase
formation of sludge in
the crankcase
increased viscosity in
the lubricant
release of miscible
refrigerant from the
lubricant in the
crankcase
sudden evaporation of
entrapped air from the
refrigerant liquid
151
GS2111612
ID#
3508
3509
3510
3511
3512
3513
3514
3515
3516
3517
3518
QUESTION
What must be done to use standard leak detection methods
on a low pressure refrigeration system charged with
refrigerant?
Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant
in a refrigeration system will cause what operating
symptom?
An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air cooled
refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure
of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a
thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low pressure
cutout controlled compressor, as well as a high pressure
cutout, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most
likely operating symptom?
Choice A
lower the pressure in the
system below
atmospheric
carbon deposits on the
compressor suction
valves
run continuously
Choice B
raise the pressure in
the system above
atmospheric
poor evaporator heat
transfer
Choice C
cool the refrigerant
an evaporator coil in
need of defrosting
Choice D
add nitrogen to the
system
collect in the
condenser
it will be blue
General Subjects 2
152
an oversized expansion
valve
GS2111612
ID#
3519
3520
3521
3522
3523
3524
3525
QUESTION
In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is
indicated by which of the following?
Choice A
Choice B
the compressor short
high suction pressure
cycling on high pressure
cut out switch
Choice C
high head pressure
Choice D
bubbles in the sight
glass
promote refrigerant
dehydration
add refrigerant to the
system
be absorbed in the
receiver
check the evaporator
superheat
excessive circulation
of lube oil through the
system
Expansion valve is
stuck open.
a faulty refrigerant
control valve
a lack of refrigerant
an excessive lack of
refrigerant in the
system
the crankcase was low
on oil
3530
3531
3526
3527
3528
3529
General Subjects 2
153
GS2111612
ID#
3532
3533
QUESTION
Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture
indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the
liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the system, how
will a typical moisture indicator respond?
A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating
under what conditions?
Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty
encountered with thermal expansion valve operation?
Choice A
automatically cut in the
driers
Choice B
change color
Choice C
secure the compressor
Choice D
add a predetermined
amount of liquid drying
agent
lack of refrigerant
during starting
conditions
Frost on the liquid line.
3534
3535
3536
3537
3538
3539
Lube oil passing through Moisture in the system Variable spring tension
the system.
caused by the changing
or foreign matter
collecting at the valve temperature.
inlet valve screen..
be removed by the liquid cause sweating and
line strainers
frost on the evaporator
coils
emulsify the oil in the
freeze in the king valve
freeze within the
condenser
expansion valve
acid formation leading to sludge formation in the ice formation internal to
corrosion
crankcase
the expansion valve
insufficient lubrication
insufficient refrigerant excess refrigerant
freeze in the
expansion valve
clog the oil separator
all of the above
excessive opening of the
expansion valve
The valve will fail open
and the cooling capacity
will be increased.
3540
3541
General Subjects 2
154
GS2111612
ID#
3542
3543
3544
QUESTION
Choice A
If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is the suction line will be
set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the
abnormally cold and
system has a single evaporator?
liquid may flood back
to the compressor
Choice B
the suction line will be
abnormally warm due to
a reduced amount of
refrigerant returning
back to the compressor
3547
3548
3549
Choice D
the receiver level will be
abnormally high due to a
reduced amount of
refrigerant returning
back to the compressor
If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is the heat removal
the evaporator will be
adjusted too high, what would be the result?
capacity of the
overfed with liquid
evaporator will increase refrigerant
A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet Lower than normal
will result in which of the following conditions?
suction pressure.
frosting at the
evaporator inlet
a decrease in the
amount of frosting
across the drier
The proportional action
may be varied.
the insulation prevents
oil entrained in the
suction gas from
influencing the bulb
temperature
3545
3546
Choice C
the box temperature will
be pulled way down
below the normal
temperature range
General Subjects 2
155
GS2111612
ID#
3550
3551
3552
3553
3554
3555
3556
3557
3558
QUESTION
If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the
valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the
original valve cage assembly rated at 5 tons, what would be
the result if the replacement valve cage was undersized at
1/2 tons?
Choice A
The evaporator would
be starved producing
consistently excessive
superheat.
Choice B
The expansion valve
would function normally,
with the presentation of
no problems.
Choice C
The expansion valve
would hunt excessively,
alternately starving and
overfeeding the
evaporator coil.
Choice D
The evaporator would be
overfed producing
consistently insufficient
superheat.
II only
Neither I nor II
Which of the following statements represents the last step to Shorten the capillary
be followed when replacing the power element of the device tubing.
shown in the illustration?
It is necessary to replace the defective thermal expansion
I only
valve in a refrigeration system. If the valve is improperly
sized, what could be the result?
I. starvation of the evaporator coil if the valve is undersized
II. constant hunting of the TXV and pressure surging if the
valve is oversized
If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the worn piston rings
low side for repairs, but otherwise the compressor sounds
normal, this is a possible indication of what condition?
faulty bearings
General Subjects 2
foaming of the
crankcase oil
C
D
C
D
C
D
156
GS2111612
ID#
3559
QUESTION
Choice A
If the liquid line filter/drier pictured in figure "C" of the
the moisture indicating
illustration becomes saturated with moisture, what would be liquid line sight glass
the indication?
downstream would show
bubbles
Choice B
Choice C
the moisture indicating the item would be warm
liquid line sight glass on the inlet, but cold on
the outlet
downstream would
change to the "wet"
color
Choice D
the moisture indicating
liquid line sight glass
downstream would
change to the "dry" color
3560
determine if the
evaporator coil is in
need of defrosting
3561
3562
3563
3564
3565
3566
3567
3568
an accumulation of
liquid refrigerant in the
crankcase.
a shortage of refrigerant the compressor running liquid refrigerant
continuously
returning to the
compressor
Proper refrigerant
Faulty expansion valve Insufficient refrigerant
charge
General Subjects 2
add refrigerant
excessive evaporator
superheat
157
GS2111612
ID#
3569
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is thermal bulb coming
the needle valve is stuck the power element has
heavily frosting up and the trouble is attributed to the thermal loose from the suction closed
lost its charge
expansion valve, what would most likely be the cause?
line
Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration
compressor is most likely to occur under what compressor
operating condition?
Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a
refrigeration compressor can result in what condition?
3573
3574
3570
3571
3572
3575
3576
3577
3578
3579
General Subjects 2
overheated
compressor bearings
condition of the
expansion valve
high pressure liquid
line
Choice D
internal ice formation
within the expansion
valve
excessively high lube oil carbon deposits on the wax crystals forming in
viscosity
compressor piston rings the thermal expansion
valve
the water regulating
the crankcase drains to
the compressor to
valve to fail
plug
knock
lube oil viscosity being compressor suction
refrigerant vapor
condensing in the
increased by refrigerant pressure suddenly
crankcase
dilution
increasing
corrosion of system
hermetic motor burnout all of the above
piping
condenser temperature
moisture in the system condition of the
compressor suction
valves
low pressure liquid line high pressure vapor line low pressure vapor line
Overcharging the
system with refrigerant
Faulty compressor
suction valve operation
TXV overheating
TXV hunting
158
GS2111612
ID#
3580
3581
3582
QUESTION
What is the purpose of the discharge pressure regulating
valve as shown in the illustration?
Choice B
it prevents the head
pressure from
becoming too low
during low ambient
temperature
conditions
What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in it senses compressor
it senses compressor
the illustration?
discharge pressure and discharge pressure and
controls the suction
controls the quench
modulation valves
valve
3585
3586
Choice C
it prevents the head
pressure from becoming
too low during high
ambient temperature
conditions
Choice D
it prevents the head
pressure from becoming
too high during low
ambient temperature
conditions
it senses compressor
suction pressure and
controls the suction
modulation valves
it senses compressor
suction pressure and
controls the quench
valve
it injects suction gas into it injects liquid into the it injects suction gas into it injects liquid into the
the liquid line during low suction line during low the liquid line during
suction line during high
load conditions
high load conditions
load conditions
load conditions
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
economizer solenoid
valve: open
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: open
economizer solenoid
valve: closed
unloading solenoid
valve: closed
3583
3584
Choice A
it prevents the head
pressure from becoming
too high during high
ambient temperature
conditions
General Subjects 2
159
GS2111612
ID#
3587
3588
3589
3590
3591
3592
3593
3594
3595
QUESTION
The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various
operating conditions of the compressor/refrigeration system
in which it is used. Black oil can be an indication of what
condition?
The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating
refrigeration compressor appears to be brownish in color.
What is this an indication of?
The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the sight
glass of an operating refrigeration compressor experiencing
bearing wear or piston scoring would be which of the
following?
When repairing a refrigeration system, a swaging tool set
would be used to carry out which of the following
operations?
Choice A
copper plating caused
by moisture in the
system
3596
General Subjects 2
Choice C
Choice D
carbonization resulting gasket breakdown
from air in the system
Choice B
bearing wear or piston
scoring
160
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Which of the following statements is true concerning the
gauge labeled "B" of the illustrated gauge manifold set?
Choice A
The gauge labeled "B" is
a compound gauge and
is usually color-coded
red.
Choice B
The gauge labeled "B" is
a compound gauge and
is usually color-coded
blue.
Choice C
The gauge labeled "B" is
a standard pressure
gauge and is usually
color-coded blue.
Choice D
The gauge labeled "B"
is a standard pressure
gauge and is usually
color-coded red.
3597
3598
3599
3600
3601
The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor shut down the
has blown the shaft seal, with the noticeable presence of oil compressor at once
leaking. In this situation, what should be done?
and then close the
suction and discharge
valves
General Subjects 2
161
GS2111612
ID#
3602
3603
3604
3605
QUESTION
Choice A
Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a premature wear of the
refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition? pulley end motor shaft
bearing, but normal
wear of the pulley end
compressor crankshaft
main bearing
Choice B
normal wear of the
pulley end motor shaft
bearing, but premature
wear of the pulley end
compressor crankshaft
main bearing
noisy compressor
operation upon
starting
The relief valve from the The relief valve settings A rupture disk may be
receiver must relieve to shall be 1 1/4 times the fitted in series with the
the condenser first.
maximum allowable
relief valve.
working pressure.
Choice D
premature wear of
both the pulley end
motor shaft bearing
and the pulley end
compressor crankshaft
main bearing due to
overloading
refrigerant slugs in the
receiver
The rupture disk shall
burst at a pressure not
higher than 10% above
the relief valve setting.
the galley
the wheelhouse
a manned location
a self-contained
breathing apparatus
must be provided for
use as protection
against gas leaking
from the refrigeration
unit if the refrigerated
spaces exceed a
volume of 20 cubic feet
a self-contained
breathing apparatus
must be provided for use
as protection against
gas leaking from the
refrigeration unit if the
refrigerated spaces
exceed a volume of
1000 cubic feet
30 psig
45 psig
60 psig
75 psig
subject to annual
hydrostatic tests to be
performed in the
presence of a marine
inspector
protected by a relief
valve set to relieve at a
pressure not exceeding
110 percent of the
maximum allowable
working pressure of the
vessel
stored in an upright
position in addition to
being secured so as to
prevent accidental
release of the refrigerant
within a confined space
protected by a relief
valve set to relieve at a
pressure not
exceeding the
maximum allowable
working pressure of
the vessel
3606
3607
Choice C
premature wear of both
motor shaft bearings
and both compressor
crankshaft main
bearings due to belt
slippage
3608
General Subjects 2
162
GS2111612
ID#
3609
3610
3611
3612
QUESTION
Choice A
The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective radon
shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful
effects ultraviolet radiation is called what?
What is the chemical in CFC refrigerant that destroys
stratospheric ozone?
Stratospheric ozone gas found in the atmosphere is a
oxygen molecule of what composition?
What is the physical state and pressure condition of
refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a typical
refrigeration system.
What is the physical state and pressure condition of
refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration
system ?
oxygen
Choice B
ozone
Choice C
Choice D
nitrogen
fluorine
carbon
hydrogen
chlorine
3613
3619
3620
R-22
R-12
R-11
R-123
R-12
R-123
R-22
R-134A
green
grey
purple
light blue
R-134a
R-12
R-22
R-11
an explosive
atmosphere would be
created
a self-contained
breathing apparatus
(SCBA) would be
required before
entering the space
being highly toxic
decreasing in viscosity
at low temperatures
General Subjects 2
163
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
What is the pressure and physical state of the refrigerant
leaving the condenser of a R-22 refrigeration system?
Choice A
low pressure liquid
Choice B
low pressure vapor
Choice C
high pressure vapor
Choice D
high pressure liquid
3623
superheated low
pressure vapor
Refrigerants contain an
acidic substance.
Either A or B
Neither A nor B
3624
superheated high
pressure vapor
Refrigerants are
heavier than air and
displace oxygen.
They draw in air through
gaskets and seals.
the suction of the
compressor
R-123
to keep pressure at a
minimum
A dirty condenser
receiver
evaporator
refrigerators, freezers,
room air conditioners
and central air
conditioners
3621
3622
3625
3626
3627
3628
3629
3630
3631
3632
3633
R-22
General Subjects 2
164
GS2111612
ID#
3634
3635
3636
3637
3638
3639
3640
3641
3642
3643
QUESTION
Which of the following will speed up the recovery process
when performing maintenance on a refrigeration system?
Choice A
chilling the recovery
vessel
Choice B
heating the appliance
1/2 inch
2 inches
5 inches
10 inches
5"
6"
12"
24"
converter
central station
outside air
converter
180F to 212F
220F to 240F
260F to 280F
320F to 360F
start-up
increased thermal
efficiency
The average
temperature of the hot
water heater would be
above normal.
increase capacity
during times of peak
demand
The water faucets would
operate at a lower
pressure.
Steam heating
3644
3645
General Subjects 2
165
Choice C
both A and B
Choice D
neither A and B
GS2111612
ID#
3646
3647
3648
3649
3650
3651
3652
3653
3654
QUESTION
A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate
return piping from a heating system is/are __________.
Choice A
the requirement for a
gravity return
Choice B
Choice C
the requirement for short the requirement to
laterals run
minimize conflict with
headroom and other
services
Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect
Provide orifice-type
Provide all units with a
Provide a dirt pocket
good design practices for shipboard steam heating
bypasses for all traps
and strainer ahead of dirt trap and gate valve
systems?
and automatic valves.
in the supply and a
the steam trap on a
check valve on the
unit heater return.
return.
Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect
Provide constant steam Provide either a
Run all piping so it may
good design practices of shipboard steam heating systems? service for equipment
common or individual
be drained by gravity.
operating throughout the reducing station for
year.
each group of units
requiring the same
operating pressure.
Choice D
all of the above
suction line
vent
fill line
differential valve
fill connection
pneumercator
high level
alarm/shutdown
General Subjects 2
166
3655
Wherever possible
install vertical runs for
condensate piping.
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Choice A
The purpose of the component labeled "E" in the illustration determine the level of
is to __________.
pulverized material
3656
3657
a pressurized vessel
designed to carry dry
pulverized materials
is designed to transfer
viscous liquids
is designed to transfer
thick viscous liquids
is designed to pump
chunks of cement
a pressure vessel
designed to transport
liquid drill mud
a pneumatically
operated tank used
transfer liquid drill mud
15-40 psi
50-100 psi
100-150 psi
50 psi
100 psi
150 psi
3659
3661
3662
3663
3664
3665
Choice D
equalize pressure on
either side of the slope
sheet when filling tank
3658
3660
Choice B
Choice C
relieve pressure if the
equalize the pressure
compressed air flow rate between the top of the
exceeds 600 CFM
tank and the aeration
device when discharging
material
when discharging the
after the tank is full to
pulverized material after check the level of bulk
it has been fluidized
material
and aerated.
by a pressure relief
at all times, except when
valve when the pressure the tank is pressurized
exceeds the preset
for discharging or
level, usually 42 psig
aerating the bulk
(2.98 kg/cm2)
material
Operating pressure range for an oilfield supply boat 'P-tank' 5-15 psi
generally varies from __________.
Supply air pressure to an oilfield supply boat 'P-tank' system 15 psi
should generally not be above __________.
General Subjects 2
167
is capable of pumping
chunks of cement that
find their way into the
system
must be kept free of
foreign objects
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The operation of a P-tank depends upon __________.
Choice A
moving the dry barite
with a liquid mud pump
3668
3669
3666
3667
3670
3676
providing a central
All of the above
suction point to the liquid
mud pump
3675
Choice D
All of the above
3673
3674
Choice C
aerating the barite
3671
3672
Choice B
using nozzles to
recirculate the dry bulk
material
directing the bulk
material to a central
discharge point within
the pressure vessel
General Subjects 2
168
GS2111612
ID#
3677
QUESTION
A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration
system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be
controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer
boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total
number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start
up?
Choice A
100%
3679
3680
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
50%
25%
0%
specific fuel
consumption under
steady steaming
conditions
viscosity of the oil being
purified
steam generating
capacity of a vessel's
boilers
mechanical efficiency of
the main unit
Contamination of the
The lube oil will not be
lube oil by emulsification subjected to the proper
will result.
centrifugal force.
kerosene cargo
200 gallons
420 gallons
667 gallons
In a common vent
header during tank
ballasting.
3681
In order to maximize the performance of an operating
centrifuge, you can adjust the fuel oil __________.
centrifuge
3682
3683
3684
3685
3686
3687
3688
I. Viscosity
II. through put
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a
tanker would be __________.
On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to
occur would be __________.
The chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers
is __________.
According to CFRs, how many emergency outfits are
required to be carried onboard all tank ships over 1,000
gross tons?
A tank ship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard.
Approximately how much foam solution can be produced
from this supply?
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a
tanker?
General Subjects 2
169
986 gallons
GS2111612
ID#
3689
3690
3691
3692
3693
3694
3695
3696
3697
3698
3699
QUESTION
To prevent over pressurization when loading liquid
petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with a/an
__________.
Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted
with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower
explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds, this
means __________.
Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to
__________.
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks
should be kept in good working order to prevent
__________.
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), you
are required to test cargo discharge piping every
__________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), pump
room ventilation on a U.S. flag tanker may be accomplished
by __________.
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil
terminal facility, when there is a change of __________.
To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of
Inspection are met for oil transfer operations prior to
bunkering from a shore side facility, __________.
Choice A
pressure-vacuum
valve
Choice B
ullage opening
Choice C
Choice D
over pressurization valve equalizing line
a flammable vapor
concentration exists at
the sample point, but it
is too lean to burn
12 months
18 months
24 months
power blowers
natural ventilators
If you are loading a petroleum cargo which is below average there is room for
ambient temperatures, you must insure that __________.
expansion
General Subjects 2
170
GS2111612
ID#
3700
3701
3702
3703
3704
QUESTION
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when
loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the
following signals must be displayed?
Choice A
A red flag (day), red
light (night)
Choice B
A yellow flag (day), red
light (night)
Choice C
A green flag (day),
green light (night)
Choice D
A signal is not required
for discharging oil, only
gasoline
gas free
inerted
full of cargo
face blanks
nonreturn valves
to within 1% to 3% of
its capacity
10% or less
removing all
blanketing cargo tanks
hydrocarbon gases from with inert foam
the cargo tanks
De-energizes the
"charged mist" effect.
Maintains a positive
pressure on the vent
header to cool the
flammable vapors.
3705
3706
3707
3708
3709
3710
3711
General Subjects 2
171
dilute tank
atmospheres to keep
gas concentrations
below the lower
explosive limit
GS2111612
ID#
3712
QUESTION
Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas
from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?
Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________.
Choice A
Exhaust gas pressure
Choice B
High capacity fan
highly recommended
undesirable and it may likely to over pressurize likely to over heat the
the cargo tanks
deck water seal
lead to high oxygen
content of the inert gas
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced additional time for tank
with additional problems for their safe operation. One such cleaning.
problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" and results in
________.
a second scrubber,
known as an alkaline
scrubber, to be added in
series to the "normal"
scrubber
scrubber.
be terminated
automatically
3713
3714
3715
3716
3717
3718
3719
3720
Choice C
Inert gas compressor
be shut down
immediately
Continue loading, as
this is a normal
procedure.
Choice D
Natural aspiration
General Subjects 2
172
GS2111612
ID#
3721
3722
3723
3724
3725
3726
3727
3728
3729
QUESTION
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum number of bolts
required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI
coupling?
To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting
through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST
__________.
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) as ballast water introduced
into a/an __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
2 bolts
4 bolts
6 bolts
sealed or lashed
closed
fitted with a blank flange fitted with an anti-siphon lined up for immediate
device
use
due to collisions
loading and
discharging
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the at least 600 psi (4.14
maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each
MPa)
hose assembly used for transferring oil must be
__________.
65 psi
75 psi
98 psi
98 psi
General Subjects 2
173
8 bolts
GS2111612
ID#
3730
3731
3732
3733
3734
3735
3736
3737
3738
QUESTION
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR
Part 156), which of the following conditions would disqualify
a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring
oil?
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
which of the following conditions would disqualify a
nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring
oil?
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk?
Choice A
Choice B
A small cut in the hose An slight oil seepage
cover which just pierces between the hose and
the reinforcement.
flange connection.
Choice C
Evidence of internal or
external deterioration.
Choice D
All of the above.
The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that Port Authority
apply to ships are enforced by the __________.
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the foreign vessels not in
"Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on all
U.S. navigable waters
__________.
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the
barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out
FIRST?
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from
mandatory requirements on ballast water management for
control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United
States?
Notify terminal
superintendent
Stop loading
A vessel engaged in
the foreign export of
Alaskan North Slop
Crude Oil.
A passenger vessel
equipped with a USCG
approved system
designed to kill aquatic
organisms in ballast
water.
3 barrel capacity
one-half barrel
capacity
General Subjects 2
174
Corps of Engineers
Sufficient for
maximum vessel
movement without
straining the hoses.
State Pollution Board
GS2111612
ID#
3739
3740
3741
3742
3743
3744
3745
3746
3747
QUESTION
Choice A
According the Pollution Prevention Regulations, a tank
126 gallons
vessel with a total capacity of over 250,000 barrels of cargo
oil, having two loading arms with a nominal pipe size
diameter of 10 inches, must have under each loading
manifold a fixed container or an enclosed deck area having
a minimum capacity of __________.
Choice B
168 gallons
Choice C
252 gallons
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) requires that all necessary
no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless
components of the
__________.
transfer system are
lined up before the
transfer begins
A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is
cargo oil service
required by regulations to have a fixed container, or
pressure
enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading
manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The
capacity of these containment areas is based upon
__________.
Choice D
491 gallons
engine room
emergency operating
station of the person-incharge
General Subjects 2
Corps of Engineers
condensate pumps
175
air compressors
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Choice A
Which of the following represents an emergency procedure Quick-acting power
used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or actuated valve
greater, as required by Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
CFR)?
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while
stop loading
taking on fuel, you should FIRST __________.
Choice B
Self-closing emergency
disconnect fitting
Choice C
Pressure-sensitive oil
pressure controller
Choice D
Manually-operated quickclosing valve
electrically
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the
vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated personin-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring
immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank
overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish
this task as required by 33 CFR?
pneumatically or
mechanically
via an electronic
All of the above.
communications device
in continuous operation,
and monitored
While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open. You unplug the deck
should FIRST __________.
scuppers
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations, any ship 33 CFR 150
operating under the authority of the United States which
engages in coastwise or international voyages is prohibited
from discharging any oil or oily mixture overboard while in a
"special area". The descriptions of the "special areas" are
designated in __________.
33 CFR 153
33 CFR 156
33 CFR 159
3756
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are 100 gross registered
required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above __________. tons
3757
soundings shall be
valves used during
entered in the oil record transfer shall be
book
closed
3748
3749
3750
3751
3752
3753
3754
3755
General Subjects 2
33 CFR 151
176
GS2111612
ID#
3758
QUESTION
Choice A
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no each hose is supported
person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless
in a manner that
__________.
prevents strain on its
coupling
Choice B
each part of the transfer
system necessary to
allow the flow of oil is
lined up for transfer
Choice C
each oil transfer hose
has no loose covers,
kinks, bulges, or soft
spots, and no gouges,
cuts or slashes that
penetrate the hose
reinforcement
Choice D
All of the above.
terminal manager
3763
3764
3759
3760
3761
3762
3765
3766
When licensed as a
Whenever the vessel is
When authorized by
the Captain of the Port. certified refueling officer. short of manpower.
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that a machinery log
person may not transfer oil or hazardous materials to or from
a vessel unless each person-in-charge has signed the
__________.
General Subjects 2
177
Declaration of
Inspection
GS2111612
ID#
3767
3768
3769
3770
QUESTION
Choice A
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), oil record book
no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each
person in charge has signed the __________.
Choice B
certificate of inspection
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), paper issued by the
the declaration of inspection is the __________.
Coast Guard marine
inspector which allows
you to conduct a transfer
operation
document signed by
vessel and shore
facility persons-incharge declaring that
all transfer
requirements have
been met
Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of Inspection
is the same as the
describes the procedure must be signed by
required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 CFR) __________. Certificate of Inspection for draining the sumps of both the person-inoil lubricated machinery charge of the pumping
into the bilges of U.S.
and the person-invessels
charge of receiving
3771
3772
3773
3774
3775
Choice C
valve inspection record
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the identity of the
the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and product to be
on the vessel, must agree on __________.
transferred
During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to
guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being
followed?
Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention
Regulations concerns __________.
To serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer
operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel, an
individual must __________.
General Subjects 2
terminal supervisor,
person-in-charge of
Master of the vessel and the oil transfer
the Coast Guard
operations on the
vessel and the personin-charge of the oil
transfer operations at
the facility
178
Choice D
declaration of
inspection
pumping equipment
design
have a letter from the
company stating his
qualification
GS2111612
ID#
3776
QUESTION
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be
recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis
according to Coast Guard Regulations?
3777
Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharge an more than 12 nautical
oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or
miles from the nearest
cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is ________.
land
3778
Choice A
Any internal transfer of
oil cargo during a
voyage.
According to 33 CFR Part 151, all tank ships of 150 GT and synthetic plastic
above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, are required discharge plan
to prepare and maintain a USCG approved __________.
Choice B
The discharge
overboard in port or at
sea of any bilge water
accumulated in
machinery spaces.
Choice C
Choice D
The loading or unloading All of the above.
of any or all oil cargo.
at anchor or stopped
discharging at an
instantaneous rate of
oil content not
exceeding 30 liters per
nautical mile
oil discharge plan
shipboard oil pollution
emergency plan
grades A or B
grades D or E
grade E
LFG
An enclosed space
containing cargo piping
3781
3782
3779
3780
3783
3784
General Subjects 2
179
2 minutes
3 minutes
galleys
pump rooms
GS2111612
ID#
3789
QUESTION
Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations,
sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least
__________.
Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to
withstand a pressure of at least __________.
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an
isoprene fire?
According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be
carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents
and flame screens?
Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and
flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?
3790
Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E gooseneck vents and
liquids on tank barges be vented with __________.
flame screens
3785
3786
3787
3788
3791
3792
3793
3794
3795
3796
3797
3798
3799
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
100C
212F
500F
1200F
75 psi
100 psi
120 psi
150 psi
Dry chemicals
CO2
Foam
B only
B or C
C or D
D or E
A and below
B and below
C and below
D and E only
pressure-vacuum relief
valves
cofferdams
gastight bulkheads
passageways or living
quarters
65F
87F
155F
160F
80F or less
12 - 14 months
One
Two
Three
None
General Subjects 2
180
GS2111612
ID#
3800
3801
3802
3803
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on One B-II
Two B-II
an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the
barge has no cargo pumps aboard?
What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 Gooseneck vents fitted Pressure-vacuum
fuel oil?
with flame screens
If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in
saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last drydocked, when is it required to be hauled out again?
3806
3807
3809
suspension of
breathing
unconsciousness
Pump rooms
General Subjects 2
Vent header
C or D
181
D or E
Cofferdams
Navigation spaces
3810
3811
B or C
3808
Choice D
Two A-II
12 months since last dry- 18 months since last dry- 24 months since last dry- 36 months since last
docking
docking
docking
dry-docking
3804
3805
Choice C
One B-V
GS2111612
ID#
3812
QUESTION
What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank
barge carrying grade A liquids?
Choice A
Each cargo tank must
have a vent.
Choice B
A vent header must be
fitted with a pressurevacuum valve.
3813
3814
3815
3816
3817
3818
3819
3820
3821
3822
3823
3824
3825
3826
According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature Electrical cut off switch
is required in quick-closing shut off valves?
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are
1
required in how many location(s)?
According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG
in the ends of each tank
tanks are located __________.
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is
required for a cargo of butadiene?
Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be
constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above
the weather deck to a minimum of __________.
Choice C
The diameter of the
vent must be greater
than 4 inches in
diameter.
only from areas
equipped with power
ventilation systems
Choice D
The vent must extend to
a reasonable height
above the weather deck.
isolated from any part of
the vessel which
normally contains
sources of vapor ignition
A fusible link
Open
Restricted
Closed
there are no
requirements in the
regulation
None
6 feet
8 feet
10 feet
12 feet
Officer in Charge,
Marine Inspection
the same
lighter
heavier
30
40
50
toxicity
temperature
flammability
flammability
toxicity
pressure
concentrated nitric
acid
the way it reacts with
sea water
saltwater
organic acids
General Subjects 2
182
GS2111612
ID#
3827
3828
3829
3830
3831
QUESTION
Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire
caused by escaping gas is to __________.
Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by
__________.
Choice A
Choice B
sweep flames away with shut off the leak
water spray
utilizing carbon dioxide utilizing soda and acid
or dry chemical fire
fire extinguishers
extinguishers
Choice C
Choice D
use a chemical foam fire call the local fire
extinguisher
department
blowing the flames out letting it burn itself out
Gooseneck vents
Flame screens
cofferdams
One
Two
Three
None
convection index
ignition temperature
power ventilation
3832
3833
3834
3835
3836
3837
3838
3839
General Subjects 2
183
flammable range
GS2111612
ID#
3840
QUESTION
Choice A
Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to the base of the
__________.
expansion trunk
Choice B
the base of the ullage
port
Choice C
a line scribed within the
ullage port
barrel
Determining the
amount of water (if
any) in each cargo
tank
Determining the
amount of water (if
any) in each cargo
tank
drum
3841
3842
3843
3844
3845
3846
3847
3848
3849
3850
3854
gallon
liter
48 gallons at 70F
50 gallons at 50F
60 gallons at 100F
42 gallons at
60Fahrenheit
fire point
48 gallons at
70Fahrenheit
flash point
flash point
fire point
auto ignition
temperature
flash point
ignition temperature
fire point
no spark or flame is
required to ignite gas
or vapor
Tube fitted to an ullage
hole
The distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank
top in a cargo tank is called __________.
What refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?
thievage
innage
ullage
tankage
Innage
Outage
Thievage
Ullage
Outage
Ullage
Thievage
Innage
3853
3851
3852
Choice D
an above-deck datum,
usually the top of the
ullage hole
Reducing the gross
cargo calculations to net
amounts
General Subjects 2
184
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
Flame screens are used to __________.
Choice A
contain flammable
fumes
Choice B
protect firefighters from
flames
Rate of discharging
3858
3859
international shore
connection
They should be
inspected and tested
periodically to ensure
that the insulation is
clean and in good
condition.
smoking on deck
insulating flange or
single length of nonconducting hose
Switching off a cathodic
protection system may
be substituted for using
an insulating flange
The measured
resistance value after
installation should be
less than 1,000 ohms.
loading asphalt
tank over-pressurization
innage
thievage
accumulations of
electrostatic charges
ullage
3855
3856
3857
3860
3861
3862
3863
Oil product samples should be taken from the __________. dock riser
Choice C
prevent flames from
entering tanks
Choice D
keep flames and sparks
from getting out of an
engine's exhaust system
Rate of loading
3865
Emergency shutdown
procedures
3866
3864
General Subjects 2
185
Estimated time of
finishing cargo
Order the dock man to Call the owner, operator, Run out the vessel's or
or terminal supervisor.
terminal's fire hose.
shut down.
GS2111612
ID#
3867
QUESTION
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action you
should take if a cargo valve jammed open?
3868
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level a subsequent
when loading on a cold day because __________.
temperature rise will
cause the cargo to
overflow
expands
contracts
remains constant
3869
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find
that she has too much trim by the stern. To adjust the trim
you may __________.
Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is
down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you may
__________.
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find
that she has too much trim by the stern. To adjust the trim,
you may __________.
Which factor must be considered when determining the
order of loading of dissimilar products through the same
piping system aboard a tanker?
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?
remains constant if
pressure remains
constant
All of the above
Contamination of the
cargo
Flash points
Specific gravities
3870
3871
3872
3873
3874
When loading a tanker, you should __________.
3875
3876
3877
Choice A
Choice B
Call the owner, operator, Unplug the deck
or terminal supervisor.
scuppers.
Choice C
Choice D
Order the dock man to Run out the vessel's or
terminal's fire hose.
shut down.
General Subjects 2
186
In level trim
GS2111612
ID#
3878
3879
3880
3881
3882
3883
3884
QUESTION
Choice A
Choice B
In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while start to load at maximum start to load slowly
loading petroleum products, you should __________.
pressure
Choice C
Choice D
increase the air flow into use the overall method
the tank
of loading only
loss of suction
increase of suction
3885
You are on a tank ship discharging oil. When all of the oil
that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a
tank, the remainder is __________.
3886
General Subjects 2
187
GS2111612
ID#
3887
3888
QUESTION
Choice A
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of Strip all tanks and
a crude oil washing system?
remove the bottom
residue.
Code of Federal
Regulations
Chemicals should be
added to emulsify the
oil.
degrees of quality of
petroleum products
A or B
C or D
3891
3892
3890
3893
3894
3895
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D
Use an inert gas system Use portable washing Decant one meter from
while washing tanks.
the source tank for the
machines to reach
tank cleaning machines.
areas obscured by
structural members in
the tanks.
General Subjects 2
188
GS2111612
ID#
3896
3897
3898
3899
3900
3901
QUESTION
Choice A
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo
1510, 5 November
oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find
that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that
you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at
the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.
Choice B
1104, 6 November
Choice C
1242, 6 November
Choice D
0735, 7 November
0140, 6 November
1104, 6 November
0735, 7 November
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 1322, 13 April
April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At
1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you
continue at the same rate, you will finish at __________.
1920, 13 April
1120, 14 April
1305, 14 April
flash point
Determining the
amount of water (if
any) in each cargo
tank.
When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior one meter from the tank one half the ullage of
to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it
bottom and one meter
the tank and one meter
__________.
below the tank top
below the tank top
377.6
390.2
fire point
3902
3903
3904
3905
General Subjects 2
189
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed
machines. What should you do before using portable
machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the
fixed machine by structural members?
Choice A
Ventilate the tank to
eliminate any
electrostatically
charged mist.
Choice B
Attach the water supply
hose to the portable
machine after the
cleaning head is
positioned inside the
tank.
Choice C
Choice D
Insure that the tanks are Ground the fixed
not stripped until the
machines to eliminate
final wash is started.
any electrostatic buildup
on the cleaning head.
Pyridine and
diisopropylamine may
be carried in tanks
having a common
header vent.
a face mask or
goggles
boots
chemical resistant
gloves
3912
3913
butterfly valve
gate valve
butterfly valve
3906
3907
3908
3909
3910
3911
3914
3915
3916
3917
3918
General Subjects 2
check valve
globe valve
globe valve
check valve
190
GS2111612
ID#
3919
3920
3921
3922
3923
3924
3925
3926
3927
QUESTION
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in
operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being
discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What
action should you take?
In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such
as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control
system, there must be __________.
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the
main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual
alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the
percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the
alarm must sound?
A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best
extinguished by __________.
According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring
liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of
__________.
Choice A
Cut in another IG fan to
increase gas flow.
Choice B
Open the pressure
control valve until the
pressure increases.
Choice C
Open the tank isolation
valve to the fully open
position.
Choice D
Reduce the pumping
rate.
fuel
oxygen
ignition
70%
80%
90%
95%
"Dangerous Cargo
Being Transferred"
decreases as
temperature increases
is not affected by
temperature
may increase or
decrease as the
temperature rises
3928
3929
General Subjects 2
191
GS2111612
ID#
3930
QUESTION
The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere
condenses to a liquid is known as __________.
Choice A
the bubble point
3931
Choice B
equilibrium
Choice C
the flash point
Choice D
the dew point
3932
An LNG vessel's containment system must be cooled down the port engineer
prior to loading cargo. The cool-down parameters and rates
are obtained from __________.
the knowledgeable
shore side loading
terminal personnel
Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the A shore side gas
shipyard?
chemist.
3933
A dedicated company
representative.
corrosive
caustic
A representative from
the vessel's class
society.
carcogenic
3934
3935
3937
3938
a capacitance level
measurement system
-160 degrees K
sensible heat
-160 degrees C
crucial heat
3940
3941
Oxygen meter
CO2 meter
1 percent
3 percent
5 percent
10 percent
color
pressure
density
odor
3936
3939
3942
3943
3944
General Subjects 2
192
-160 degrees R
super heat
aggressive gas
compressor operation
GS2111612
ID#
3945
QUESTION
LNG containment insulation performs all of the following
functions, except __________.
Span gas is used for what process?
3946
3947
3948
3951
3952
3953
3954
3955
3956
3957
Choice B
absorbs loads imposed
by the cargo
Choice C
Choice D
protects the hull against increases the dew
low temperature
point of the hold space
atmosphere
To insure an inert
To find the zero point on The name of a gaseous To calibrate a gas
atmosphere during the a gas analyzer.
state when the
analyzer to ensure it
span of time when a
temperature of the vapor indicates correct gas
system is being brought
is the same as that of
concentrations.
to a dry air condition
the liquid.
from a flammable
atmosphere.
What device will be activated while loading a LNG tank and Remote shutdown valve Emergency shutdown. Overflow shutdown.
No shutdown required.
the HI-HI liquid level set point is reached?
control.
The LNG cargo pumps capacity depends upon __________. back pressure
density of cargo
speed (LPG/LNG pumps All of the above
are constant speed)
While underway with full LNG cargo tanks, an alarm
indicates liquid in hold space #3. The first action taken
should be to __________.
sleep deprivation
30% by volume.
20% by volume.
30% by lower
flammable limit
an inadequate supply
of oxygen
Stop cargo transfer until
the cause of the leak is
corrected.
20% of the lower
flammable limit.
condensation
latent heat
evaporation
vaporization
3949
3950
Choice A
limits the heat leak to
the cargo
General Subjects 2
boil-off
vapor
GNG
All of the above
Ask the terminal to send Slow the discharge rate. Stop the discharge rate. All of the above.
more vapor to the ship.
Cargo pump rooms.
Air locks.
18%
19%
193
Cargo compressor
rooms.
20%
GS2111612
ID#
3958
3959
QUESTION
An enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable
gas and which will prevent the transmission of any flame
able to ignite a flammable gas which may be present in the
surrounding atmosphere is called __________.
Choice A
a flame proof screen
Choice B
explosion proof
Choice C
gas-safe enclosure
Choice D
primary gas barrier
At a pressure in excess
of 15.4 PSIA.
Apply "Purple K" dry
chemical.
At its critical
temperature.
Shut off the source of
the gas feeding the
fire.
vapor pockets forming at
the bottom of a half-filled
tank
an electrical circuit in
which a spark is
incapable of causing
the ignition of a given
explosive mixture
cool down cargo tanks
and pipes prior to
loading
3960
3961
3962
3964
3965
3966
General Subjects 2
194
an electrical circuit
normally limited to
instrumentation in
hazardous areas
keep cargo at a
All of the above
temperature and
pressure within the
design limit of the cargo
system during transport
Aluminum.
Stainless steel.
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
On a LNG ship at anchor with cargo onboard, how is the
vapor pressure in the cargo tanks controlled?
Choice A
Excess vapor is vented
to the atmosphere.
Choice B
The vapor is
compressed by the high
duty gas compressor
and returned to the
tanks.
Choice C
All boil-off vapor is
normally burned in the
boilers, and any
excess steam
generated is controlled
by the "steam dump
system".
Choice D
Excess vapor is
controlled by the
"Thermo-regenerative
saturation plant".
a measurement of the
amount of flammable
vapors given off by a
liquid at a certain
temperature
spilling
leaking
pumping
Garbage.
blind flange
pivot coupling
spectacle flange
red/yellow/red
yellow/red/yellow
international orange
hi-visibility yellow
4%
5%
8%
10%
completely empty
completely full
slack
soluble state
solid state
liquefied state
inert state
3967
3968
3969
3970
3971
3972
3973
3974
3975
3976
3977
3978
General Subjects 2
195
GS2111612
ID#
3979
QUESTION
Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access
point of a barge during cargo transfer?
What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves?
Choice B
To prohibit smoking.
Choice C
To prohibit open lights.
Choice D
All of the above.
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading The US Coast Guard.
a tank vessel?
3%
5%
10%
as it warms up it
becomes heavier than
air
loading to within 1% of
outage
40F (4C)
80F (27C)
110F (43C)
150F (66C)
-108F (-78C)
5 years
-20F (-29C)
3 years
32F (0C)
2 years
97F (36C)
1 year
set up as tight as
possible by hand
atmosphere through
pump vent
3980
3981
3982
3983
Choice A
To keep visitors away
from the barge.
They are designed to
provide for the flow of
small volumes of tank
atmospheres caused by
thermal variations in a
cargo tank.
3984
3985
3986
3987
3988
3989
3990
3991
General Subjects 2
196
GS2111612
ID#
QUESTION
The fresh air intake of the inert gas system __________.
Choice A
prevents the flue gas
from falling below an
oxygen content of 3%
Cools the inert gas.
Choice B
allows the inert gas
piping to be used for
gas freeing the tanks
Removes particulate
matter like soot.
Choice C
opens when there is
excessive vacuum on
the deck water seal
Maintains gas
pressure in the tanks.
Choice D
enables outside air to
mix with and to cool the
hot flue gases
Removes chemical
impurities from the gas.
hydrocarbon content
of the atmosphere is
less than the Upper
Explosive Limit
have a design burst
pressure of at least 25
psig
atmosphere is deficient
in oxygen
compartment to be
tested is free of CO2
be capable of
withstanding at least 2.0
psi vacuum without
collapsing or constricting
be electrically
continuous with a
maximum resistance of
10,000 ohms
6" reducer
GM
Red light.
pressure gauge
hose saddle
permanently attached to
the flange
The stress on the hull The vertical center of
gravity
ICC yellow light.
Two orange lights.
inert gas
inert gas
a combustion stabilizer
a vortex eliminator
-20C
0C
jettisoned overboard
below the waterline
can be opened by pilot
valves
protecting mild steel hull
plating from cracking
due to LNG leaks
dumped to a
condenser
are not to be "popped" in
port
both "A" and "B"
3992
3993
3994
3996
3997
3998
3999
4000
4001
4002
4003
4004
4005
General Subjects 2
vented to the
atmosphere
are not held closed by
tank pressure
protecting surrounding
areas from the radiant
heat of a fire
197
GS2111612
ID#
4006
4007
4008
QUESTION
Submerged LNG pump bearings are lubricated by
__________.
Methane gas is __________.
An advantage of the spherical type containment system is
__________.
Choice A
LNG
odorless
good visibility over the
bow for ship handling
4011
4012
4013
4014
4015
4018
4019
active
volatile
both "A" and "B"
the design does not
require a full liquid
tight secondary barrier
Choice D
Low Temp-a special
cryogenic lubricant
corrosive
neither "A" or "B"
a portable davit
LNG
NGL
LEG
Normal ambient
temperature.
A liquid that requires to A gas that is mixed with A liquid that needs to be
be heated above normal another substance that stored at absolute zero
ambient temperature to causes it to liquefy.
to prevent it becoming
make it form a gas.
gaseous.
hydrocarbons
chemical gases
butane
ammonia
substance whose
molecules contain only
carbon and hydrogen
substance whose
substance whose
molecules not exceed 4
molecules contain
other atoms as well as carbon molecules
carbon and hydrogen
smelling
saturating
stenching
bubble point
boiling point
critical point
boil off
cascading
rollover
4016
4017
Choice C
graphite
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the Report any leakage of
loading of LFG?
cargo.
4009
4010
Choice B
silicon grease
General Subjects 2
198
GS2111612
ID#
4020
4021
4022
4023
4024
4025
4026
QUESTION
Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the
deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur
with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition
that will NOT cause asphyxia.
A burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash,
blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning are all
symptoms of __________.
Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable oxygen
compounds which could __________.
Most liquefied gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried
at or close to their boiling point. If released into the
atmosphere they will __________.
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
When large quantities of When 21% of oxygen is Where large quantities
cargo vapor is present
of inert gas is present.
present.
Choice D
Where rusting of internal
tank surfaces has taken
place.
asphyxia
dermatitis
athlete's foot
chemical burn
explode
form water
cause polymerization
form CO2
End of Document
General Subjects 2
199
GS2111612