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Part I

I-J
Biochem istry-Physiology Exam
15/49
.

December 1996
101. Which of the following vitamins is the LEAST
likely to be invoived in tooth development and
calcification?

A
B.
C.
D.

A
B1
C
0

106. Which of the following represents the chemical

substance that is the immediate source of
energy for muscle contraction?
A
Glycogen
B. Acetyl CoA
C. ..Lactic acid
D. Creatine phosphate
E. Adenosine triphosphate

102. The major function of serum LDL is to transport

which of the following? .
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bile salts from the. intestine

Triglycerides from the intestine
Free fatty acids from adipose tissue
Cholesterol and phospholipids from
peripheral tissues
Cholesterol, cholesterol esters, and
phospholipids from the liver

107. Intracellular and interstitial body fluids have

similar

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

total osmotic pressures.

colloid osmotic pressures.
sodium ion concentrations.
chloride ion concentrations.
potassium ion concentrations.

103. The fluid-mosaic model for membrane structure

proposes that
A

B.
C.
D.

104.

the outer and inner faces of the

membrane are identical.
peripheral proteins are situated only on
the outer face of the plasma membrane.
integral proteins are associated with the
hydrophobic phase of the bilayer.
both polar and nonpolar ends of
membrane phospholipids are within the
hydrophobic phase of the bilayer.

A protein in solution is at its isoelectric point

when the

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

pH is the same as that of the blood.

logarithm of the concentration is zero.
pH allows for maximum solubility.
pH is such that no migration occurs during
electrophoresis.
pH is produced by a 1:1 mixture of the
protein solution with isotonic saline.

105. The absolute refractory period of a nerve action

potential is determined by the duration of which
of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.

Sodium activation gate opening

Sodium inactivation gate closure
Potassium activation gate opening
Potassium inactivation gate closure

108. Breathing a gas mixture with 5 percent CO2

ultimately leads to which of the foHowing?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hypoventilation
A decrease in heart rate
A stimulation of central chemoreceptors
An inhibition of peripheral chemoreceptors
A decrease in cerebrospinal fluid
hydrogen-ion concentration

109. Ovulation is triggered by a marked increase in

which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Estrogen
.Estradiol
Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone

110. Which of the following must be digested before

being in a form that can be absorbed by
enterocytes?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Monoglycerides
Fatty acids
Fructose
Glycine
Maltose

I-J
16/49

"

,
116. Where in the autonomic nervous system is
norepinephrine stored?

111. Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic

acid are essential for which of the following
processes?

A
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Incorporation of proline
Hydroxylation of proline
Gamma-Carboxylation of proline
Oxidative deamination of lysine
Activation of procollagen peptidase

B.
C.

D.

Preganglionic sympathetic nerve

endings
Postganglionic sympathetic nerve
endings.
- - -Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve
endings
Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve
endings

112. Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)particles get

into cells by
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

117. Which of the followingwill inactivate human

immune deficiency virus (HIV)reverse
transcriptase?

simple diffusion.
cell-cell fusion;
active transport.
facilitated diffusion.
receptor-mediated endocytosis.

A ATP
B. p.zr
C. dATP
D. Fluorouracil
E. Methotrexate

113. Which of the following represents the major

pathway for metabolism of excessive
intraneuronal free norepinephrine?
A
8.
C.
D.

E.

118. Which of the following hormones conserves

body protein, carbohydrate, and fat stores?

Hydrolysis by cholinesterase
Deamination by monoamine oxidase
Hydroxylation by - monoamine oxidase
Hydroxylation by dopamine beta
hydroxylase
Methylation by catechol-a-methyl
transferase

A
8.
C.
D.

114. Assumingthat P50 =26 torrs, underconditions

119. Each of the followingis involved in gene

cloning EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?

where p02 =30 torrs, the average number of

2 molecules bound per hemoglobin
molecule is closest to
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

0.5.
less than 1.
almost 2.
greater than 2.
greater than 3.

DNA ligase
RNA polymerase
DNApolymerase I
Restriction nucleases
Reverse transcriptase

120. Which of the followinghas a high affinityfor

binding calcium and collagen in the calcifying
matrix?

115. In the DNA molecule, guanine on 1 strand is

joined to cytosine on the complementary
strand by which of the followingbonds?

A Amide
8. 1 hydrogen
C. 2 hydrogen
D. 3 hydrogen
E. Phosphodiester

Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Somatotropin

A
8.
C.
D.
E.
16

Calcitonin
Osteogenin
Osteonectin
Amelogenin
Fibronectin

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...
...
121.

In the glycolytic sequence, the enzyme ~hat

brings about the transition from 6-carbon
metabolites to 3-carbon metabolites is

A
B.
C.
O.
E.

122.

phosphoglucoisomerase.
phosphofructokinase.
phosphorylase.
hexokinase.
aldolase.

126.

During oxidative phosphorylation, the

energetically unfavorable proton gradient is
created using energy from which of the
following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

ATP hydrolysis
ATP synthesis
ADP transport
Electron transfers
The reduction of NAD+

Which of the following represents a striated

muscle that contains transverse tubules, a
slow rate of calcium sequestration, and is
inhibited by acetylcholine?

127. Which of the following explains why enamel is

A
B.
C.
D.

harder than bone?

Cardiac
Skeletal
Multi-unit smooth
Single unit smooth

B.
C.

123. Tay-Sachs disease is associ~ted with an

inborn error of metabolism involving a specific
enzyme which normally degrades a particular
molecule in the gray matter. This enzyme acts
on which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

D.
E.

matrix.

""

Enamel contains more magnesium and

carbonate.
Enamel crystals have more surface
area.
Enamel contains more collagen.

"

Polysaccharides
Acylglycerols
Gangliosides
Fatty acids
Proteins

128. Which of the following represent(s) the matrix

proteins of enamel?
A

124. Vascular smooth muscle relaxes in response

to

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Enamel crystals are larger and more

firmly packed.
Enamel contains amelogenins in its
organic

hyperoxia.
adenosine.

B.
C.
D.
E.

Carboxylglutamic acid containing

proteins
Type I collagen
Amelogenins
Proteoglycans
Elastin

vasopressin.
angiotensin.
norepinephrine.

125. Which of the following is MOST often

associated with free fatty acid transport in
human blood?

A Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Cholesterol
D. Sphingqlipid
E. Mucopolysaccharide

129. ADH receptors in the nephron are located on

the tubular membrane of which of the
following?
A
B.
C.
D.

"-

Distal tubule
Proximal tubule
Ascending loop of Henle
Descending loop of Henle

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18/49

130. Which of the following changes promotes the

formation of extracellular edema?
A
8.
C.
D.

E.

131.

135. What single substance is effective in

reversing ketosis in a non-diabetic patient?

Increase in tissue fluid hydrostatic

pressure
Increase in plasma protein
concentration
Decrease in capillary hydrostatic
pressure
Capillary.filtration exceeds capillary
absorption
Capillary absorption exceeds capillary
filtration

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

136.

In addition to phosphoric acid, which of the

following are the products of hydrolysis of
lecithin?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

D.

133.

134.

A Allosteric
8. Competitive
C. Irreversible
O. Uncompetitive
E. Noncompetitive

Has an amphiphilic surface

Contains 12 ions per unit cell
As found in bone and enamel contains
no ion substitutions
Has a higher solubility product constant
than fluoroapatite

138.

Polyuridylic acid in a cell-free system capable

of protein synthesis results in production of
polyphenylalanine. In this system, polyuridylic
acid functions as

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following BEST explains why

proteins are able to buffer .physiologic
solutions over a wide range of pH?
A
B.

DNA.
transfer RNA.
messenger RNA.
ribosomal RNA.
mitochondrial RNA.

C.
D.

A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for

which of the following?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Frequency
Amplitude
Wavelength
Secondary waves
Sympathetic vibrations

137. ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase even

though ATP also is a substrate for the
enzyme. Which of the following types of
inhibitiol1s BEST explains. this phenomenon?

132. Which of the following BEST characterizes

hydroxyapatite?

A
8.
C.

Intensity of sound is dependent mainly on

which of the following physical characteristics
of sound waves?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Glycerol, fatty acids, serine

Glycerol, fatty acids, choline
Sphingosine, acetic acid, inositol
Glyceraldehyde, fatty acids, choline
Glyceraldehyde, fatty acids,
ethanolamine

Urea
Glucose
Insulin
Leucine
Palmitic acid

They are macromolecules of high

molecular weight.
They contain many functional groups
with differing pKs.
They have unique tertiary structures that
sequester hydrogen ions.
They have peptide bonds that are
resistant to hydrolysis.

139. The intrinsic factor for vitamin 812absorption

is produced in the

Production of menadiol
Esterification of retinol
Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
Cross-linking of fibrinogen
Carboxylation of glutamate side chains

A
B.
C.
D.
E.
18

liver.
stomach.
pancreas.
duodenum.
lacteals.

I-J
19/49
....

140. Which of the following bonds link the

monomeric units of nucleic acids?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

141.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

occlusion.
summation.
adaptation.
facilitation.
sensory deprivation.

bone.
skin.
heart muscle.
nervous tissue.
connective tissue.

147. The largest amount.of body water can be

found in which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Emotional feelings are MOST closely related

to which area of the brain?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

143.

Ionic
Peptide
Thioester
Glycosidic
Phosphodiester

Decreased response of sense organs when

exposed' to a constant stimulus is called

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

142.

146. Glutamate decarboxylase, an enzyme that

catalyzes the formation of gamma-amino
butyric acid (GABA), is unique to

Thalamus
Brain stem
Cerebellum

148. MOST fluid reabsorption by the kidney occurs

in which of the following?

Hypothalamus
Limbic system

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Each of the following is a glycosaminoglycan

EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A

B.
C.
D.
E.

Urine
Blood plasma
Intracellular fluid
Interstitial fluid
Stomach and intestines

Chondroitin sulfate
Dermatan sulfate
Hyaluronic acid
Heparan sulfate
Keratin

Distal tubule
Proximal tubule
Collecting duct
Ascending loop of Henle.
Descending loop of Henle

149. Which of the following portions of the

cardiovascular system contains the greatest
volume of blood?

144. Which of the following minerals are

considered to be cariostatic?
A
Fluoride Phos hfA(.O~
B. Fluoride,
iu~

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

~\)

C. Co~~r,
phate
D. ~rt6~m,
Copper
E.' \:ruoride, Lead

145.

Each of the following describes hyaluronate

EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Polyanion
Highly polar
Glycosaminoglycan
Compact, folded structure
Extracellular matrix component

150.

Arterioles
Capillaries
Systemic veins
Chambers of the heart
Pulmonary vasculature

Each of the following enzymes functions in

association with a membrane EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Na+/K+ATPase
C. Adenylate cyclase
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Coenzyme Q reductase

I-J
20/49

.,

151. Which of the following generates a slowly

156.

developing long-term response in target

tissues by binding to an intracellular receptor?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase

yields

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Glucagon
Estrogen
Prolactin
Growth hormone
Parathyroid hormone

glucose
glucose
glucose
glucose
fructose

only.
and maltose.
and fructose.
and galactose.
and maltose.

152. Which of the following functions as part of the

extracellular matrix?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

157.

Mucin
Heparin
Collaginase
Chondroitin sulfate
Dolichol phosphate

Calcium ions initiate contraction in skeletal

muscle when they

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

bind to T tubules.
bind to troponin.
interact with actin.
interact with myosin.
bind to sarcoplasmic reticulum.

153. Which of the following represents the pH of a

solution that has a 10-5M concentration of OHion?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

154.

5
7
9
Determinable only if the pkais known.
Determinable only if the base
composition is known.

158.

A
8.
C.
D.

Compared to slow-twitch (Type I) muscle

fibers, each of the following is more
characteristic of fast-twitch (Type II) muscle
fibers EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPT/Ow? .
A
8.

C.
D.
E.

159.

They contain more mitochondria.

They have higher myosin ATPase
activity.
They have fewer capillaries surrounding
them.
They have a more extensive
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
They contain higher concentrations of
glycolytic enzymes.

155. Which of the following is MOST likely to cause

respiratory acidosis?
Moving from high altitude to sea level
Untreated diabetes mellitis
Hypoventilation
Kidney failure
Vomiting

Cytoplasm
Membrane
Cell wall
Nucleus
Mitochondria

Each of the following characterizes a peptide

hormone EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPT/Ow?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.
20

Enterokinase
Peptidase
Secretin
Pepsin

Enzymes that catalyze the anaerobic

processes of carbohydrate metabolism are
found predominantly in which part of a cell?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

160.

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following enzymes converts

trypsinogen to trypsin?

Stored in secretory granules

Synthesized in a precursor form
8inds to intracellular receptors
Acts by generating a second
messenger
Usually transported unbound in plasma

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:
161. Which of the following substances represents
an unsaturated fatty acid?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

162.

Cholesterol
Palmitate
Stearate
Choline
Oleate

Which of the following acids represents both a

product of bacterial glycolysis and is
cariogenic?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

166.

Lactic
Acetic
Succinic
Propionic
Phosphoric

Each of the following represents an amino

acid found in proteins and used directly in the
reactions of protein synthesis EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

167.

Proline
Arginine
Tryptophan
Asparagine
Hydroxylysine

For a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme with a

Km= 1 mM, which of the following represents
the effect on the velocity if [S] is changed from
10 mM to 20 mM? (Assume that the enzyme
obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics.)

A
B.
C.
.D.
E.

Small decrease
Small increase
Twofold decrease
Twofold increase
Twentyfold increase

163. What linkages occur in glycogen at branch

points between glucose units?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Alpha-1,4
Alpha-1,6
Beta-1,3
Beta-1,4
Beta-1,6

168. Each of the following is an effect of parathyroid

hormone EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A
B.

164. Protein kinase regulate the activities of key

enzymes through which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

165.

Oxidation
Hydrolysis
Acetylation
Phosphorylation
Dephosphorylation

Regulation of each of the following

mechanisms is associated with the
hypothalamus EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Sleep
Water balance
Body temperature
Pupillary diameter
Carbohydrate metabolism.

C.
D.

E.

Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in
kidney
Stimulation of osteoclastic activity in
bo'ne
Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by
kidney
Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by
kidney
Inhibition of intestinal absorption of
calcium

169. Which of the following liver enzymes, absent

from other tissues, gives the liver an
advantage over other cells in taking up
glucose after a meal?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Glucokinase
Aldolase
Hexokinase
Enolase
Glucose-6-phosphatase

,-

I-J
22/49

.,

170.

175. Which of the following enzymes or processes

In which of the following conditions might the

systolic blood pressure be abnormally high?
.A
B.
C.
D.
E.

ensures that the correct amino acid is

incorporated for a particular codon during
protein synthesis?

Cardiac shock
Heart failure
Anaphylactic shock
Decreased arterial compliance
Ventricular fibrillation

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

171. Which of the following occurs primarily in

adults and is characterized by increased
airway resistance, decreased diffusing
capacity of the lung, and chronicJperman~

A
B. Asthma
Em
C. Pn hYSe

D. C~
E.

176. Ifproteinis catabolized for energy,then MOST

of the energy is derived from which of the
following?

~~\J.

hypoxia?

Amino Acyl-t-RNA synthetase"

Ribosomal protein synthesis
Post-transcription splicing
RNA synthetase
Helicase

~ 0~ S(;O

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

a lung.

Hyalin membrane disease

Urea production
Oxidative deamination
Transamination reactions
Cleavage of peptide bonds
Oxidation of ex-ketoacids derived from
amino acids

172. The concentration of which of the following

amino acids can be used as an estimation of
the amount of collagen present in a tissue?
A
B.
C.
D.

173.

177. Each of the following lipid classes is

Hydroxyproline
Aspartic acid
Proline
Serine'

incorporated into membranes EXCEPT one.

Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

If the air temperature is 105F and the relative

humidity is 10 percent, then which of the
following represents the primary cause for
loss of body heat?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

178. The amplitude of an action potential can be

increased MOST easily by increasingwhich of
the following concentrations?

Evaporation
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Hyperventilation

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

174. Which of the following hormones is released

by the zona fasciculata and exerts permissive
actions to allow insulin, glucagon and
epinephrine to work more effectively at their
target tissues?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

179.

Androstenedione
Somatomedin
Aldosterone
Thyroxine
Cortisol

Intracellular sodium
Extracellular sodium
Intracellular chloride
Intracellular potassium
Extracellular potassium

Decreased arterial pressure upon standing is

compensated by
A
B.
C.
D.

22

~-

Cholesterol
Ganglioside
Triglyceride
Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylcholine

decreased heart rate.

dilation of mesenteric vessels.
constriction of systemic arterioles.
dilation of venules.

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23/49
:
184. Each of the following combinations lists the
name of the hormone, its chemical type, and
its major tissue of origin EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?

180. Synaptic vesicle contents are released at the

neuromuscular junction when which of the
following occurs?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hyperpolarization of motor end-plate

Shortening of skeletal muscle
Release of ATP from nerve terminal
Entry of calcium at nerve terminal
Release of acetylcholine from motor
end-plate

Hormone

181. Which of the followingcharacterizes exergonic

reactions?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Decreased entropy
Increased enthalpy
Decreased enthalpy
Negativefree energychange
Positive free energy change

Chemical
Type

Tissue
Adrenal
cortex
Posterior
pituitary
Adrenal
medulla
Anterior
pituitary
Hypothalamus

ACTH

Steroid

B.

Vasopressin

Peptide

C.

Epinephrine Catecholamine

D.

Thyrotropin

E.

Somatostatin Peptide

Glycoprotein

185. Which of the following causes activation of the

pyloricpump,relaxationof the pylorus,and
contractionof the loweresophageal sphincter?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

182. In an aqueous solution at pH 7, a peptide,

containing 1 amino group side chain and 2
carboxyl group side chains would have which
of the followingnet charges?
A
. B.
C.
D.
E.

2+
1+
0
12-

186. An animal is in negative nitrogen balance if its

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

183. A subject consumes 250 ml of oxygen per

minute with a tidal volume of 400 ml and a
respiratory rate of 18 per minute. Which of the
following represents this subject's respiratory
minute volume in liters?

'"
~i

.,

~i
~i

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Gastrin
Secretin
Pepsinogen
Acetylcholine
Cholecystokinin

urine is nitrogen-free.
nitrogen intake equals output.
nitrogen intake exceeds output.
nitrogen output exceeds intake.
new tissue is being synthesized.

187. Each of the following can cause glucosuria

EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPT/Ow?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

1.8
4.5
5.4
7.2
10.0
23

Low insulin level

High blood sugar level
Impaired tubular reabsorption
High glomerular filtration rate
High renal threshold for glucose

.-

--

I-J
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"

,
188. The clearance rate for a substance that is

192. Which of the following represents the major

force that causes glomerular filtration?

completely removed from the blood during

one pass through the kidney is equal to which
of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

A
B.
C.

Renal plasma flow

Filtration fraction
Urinary excretion rate
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular transport maximum

D.

Tubular hydrostatic pressure

Tubular colloid osmotic pressure
Glomerular capillary hydrostatic
pressure
Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic
pressure

193. If the plasma clearance of a substance which

is freely filtered is less than that of inulin, then
189. A marked fall from normal in the oxygen
tension in arterial blood would stimulate the
receptors in the
A
B.
C'.
D.
E.

A
B.

central nervous system

chemoreceptors.
aortic arch and the carotid sinus.
aortic and carotid bodies.
walls of the great veins.
respiratory center.

c.
D.
E.

190. Oxygen tension is GREATEST inwhich of the

following blood vessels?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

194. Hypoactivity of the posterior pituitary gland

leads to

Aorta
Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary artery
Coronary artery
Coronary vein

A
B.
C.
D.

dwarfism.
cretinism.'
acromegaly.
diabetes insipidus.

195. The metabolite, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, is

derived MOST immediately from

191. Which of the followinggroups includes only

amino acids essential for humans?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

the substance becomes bound to

protein in the tubules.
there is net secretion of the substance
in the tubules.
there is a net reabsorption of the
substance in the tubules.
the substance is neither secreted nor
reabsorbed in the tubules.
the substance is secreted in the
proximal tubule to a greater degree than
it is in the distal tubule.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Valine, serine, leucine

Leucine, lysine, glycine
Tyrosine, threonine, tryptophan
Phenylalanine, methionine, proline
Tryptophan, methionine, isoleucine
24

ergosterol.
cholesterol.
7-dehydro-sitosterol.
7-dehydro-cholesterol.
22-dihydro-ergosterol.

I-J
25/49
"
196.

In a complete heart block, the

electrocardiograph shows which of the
following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

197.

Cardiac output is expressed as a product of

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

198.

An increased PO intelVal
An increase in height of the P wave
One ORS complex for every three P
waves
An increase in amplitude of the ORS
complex
Dissociation of the P wave and the ORS
complex

stroke volume and heart rate.

venous pressure and heart rate.
stroke volume and respiratory rate.
stroke volume and diastolic filling.
venous pressure and coronary blood
flow.

MOST of the CO2in blood is combined as

A
B.
C."
D.
E.

H2CO3.
HCO3-.
GH3-COOH.
carbonic acid.
carbaminohemoglobin.

199. A deficiency of choline in the diet can cause

abnormalities in the metabolism of
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

200.

lipids.
proteins.
minerals.

'

carbohydrates.
nucleoproteins.

Which of the following is a function of the

enterogastric reflex?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Decreases the opening of the

gastroesophageal
Increases motility
Decreases motility
Increases motility
Increases

sphincter
of the esophagus
of the stomach
of the ileum

gallbladder

emptying

-=

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'..
RELEASED

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST:

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY

FORM: 12

DATE: D96

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

101
102
103
104
105

B
E
C
D
B

126
127
128
129
130

D
A
C
A
D

106
107
108
109
-110

E
A
C
D

131
132
133
134
135

.E

Key.

Item

,Key

151
152
153
154
155

B
D
C
A
C

176
177
178
179
180

E
C
B
C
D

B
D
C
E
B

156
157
158
159
160

C
B
A
A
C

181
182
183
184
18.5

D
D
D
A
A

E
A
B
D

186
187
188
189
190

D
E
A
C
B

111"
112
113
114
115

B
E
B
D
D

136
137
138
139
140

B
A
B
B
E

161
162
163
164
165

116
117
118
119
120

B
B
C
B
C

141
142
143
144
145

C
E
E
D

166
167
168
169
170

E
B
E
A
D

191
192
193
194
195

E
C
C
D
D

121
122
123
124
125

E
A
C
B
A

146
147
148
149
150

D
C
B
C
D

171
172
173
174
175

A
A
E
A

196
197
198
199
200

E
A
B
A
C

.D

- indicates item not scored

26

.."
-~
,;~

I-J

Part I

Microbiology-Pathology

Exam 27/49

Decef11ber J 996

1.

6.

Which of the following is CORRECT for obligate

anaerobic microorgansims in the oral cavity?

A They do not exist in this area.

B. Only gram-positive organisms are found.
C. They are normal flora and opportunistic.
D. They are seldom isolated in the laboratory.
E. They can be completely controlled by

A
B. -.
C.
D.
E.

using antibiotics.

2.

'Iroooo

-.

Malignant epithelial cells have an increased

number and wider distribution of which of the
following receptors?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

3.

\000&

7.

4~

Each of the following is a risk factor in

.
atherosclerosis EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?

8.

influenza virus is difficultto transmit.

RSVcan be prevented with effective
vaccines.
secretory IgAis not effective in preventing
disease.

Which of the followingrepresent(s) the MOST

commonsource of pulmonary embolism?

._-

Which of the following is the single MOST

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

5.

RSV can be treated with amantadine.

RSVcauses disease primarily in infants.

A Esophageal varices
B. Endarteritis'
C. lymphangitis
.
D. Buerger's disease
E. Thrombophlebitis

numerous group of microorganisms in the oral

cavity?

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection differs

A
B.
C.
D.

----

0
25
33
50
75

frominfluenzainfectionsin that

Il-1
laminin
Histamine
Complement
Immunoglobulin

A Heredity
B. Alcoholism
c. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Hyperlipoproteinemia

An autosomal dominant trait showing 50

percent penetrance will be phenotypically
expressed in what percent of the offspring?

9.

Enterococci
Staphylococci
Anaerobic streptococci
Facultative streptococci
Beta-hemolytic streptococci

Aflatoxin is produced by

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mucor.
Candida.
Tricophyton.
Penicillium.
Aspergillus.

!
\I
I
I
l

Each of the following characterizes a chlamydiaI

infection EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?

10. Which of the following conditions predisposes

to lung cancer by causing squamous
metaplasia of bronchial epithelium?

A large numbers of asymptomatic carriers

B. Frequent co-infection with gonorrhea
C. The ability of the organism to survive in the
D.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

host extracellularly
The greater likelihood that younger
women will acquire salpingitis

Bronchiectasis
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchial carcinoid
Pulmonary emphysema

g;

2
~,

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..
..
11. . The likelihood that oral bacteria play an

16.

important role in gingival inflammation is

evidenced by which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.

12.

In addition to Neisseriameningitidis which of

the following is a significant cause of
meningitis?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

13.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

involved in bacillary dysentery?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Streptococcus faecalis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis'

18.

Lipids
Haptens
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates

Which of the following characterizes victims of

fatal, acute carbon monoxide poisoning?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Vibrio
Shigella
Entamoeba
Salmonella
Escherichieae

Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of

which pathway?
A

Complement cascade

B..

:..Cycl.ooxyg!:!nase

C.
D.

Lipoxygenase
Fibrinolytic

19. The MOST important viral cause of

gastroenteritis in children less than 2 years
old is

Cherry red blood

Acute renal failure
Massive liver necrosis
A hypercoagulability state
Anemia and generalized white cell
depletion

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

20.

15. Which of the following represents the chief

Microsporum canis.
Mycoplasma hominis.
Leptospira pomona.
Actinomyces israelii.
Histoplasma capsulatum.

17. Which of the following genera is MOST likely

Which of the following are MOST antigenic?

A
B..
C.
D.
E.

14.

An increase in salivary hyaluronidase

An increased number of bacteria in
saliva
An increase of neutralizing antibodies in
saliva
A reduction of inflammation with
reduction of plaque

A fungus that causes systemic disease, most

commonly of the lungs, and is characterized
by its production of tuberculate
chlamydospores in culture is

rotavirus.
echovi(1Js.
rhinovirus.
coxsackievirus.
cytomegalovirus.

MOST bacterial endotoxins are composed of

which of the following?

complication of mumps in the adult male?

A
B.
C.
D..

Orchitis
Prostatitis
Glomerulonephritis
Chronic nonspecific sialadenitis

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Pure proteins
Pure carbohydrates
Heteropolysaccharides
Mucoprotein complexes
Lipo prote in-polysaccharid e complexes

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..

"

21.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

22.

24.

27.

A Subdural hematoma
B. Cerebral concussion
C. Cerebral infarction
D. Acute encephalitis
E. Alzheimer's disease

28.

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Bacteroides forsythus
Fusobacterium nucJeatum
Porphyromonas gingivaJis
Prevotella intermedia

Which chemical substance is usually

secreted by pheochromocytomas?
,A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following represents the MOST

reliable postmortem indicator of left venticular
cardiac failure?

29.

Ascites
Venous congestion
Enlargement of the spleen
Peripheral edema of the ankles
Chronic passive congestion of the lungs

30.

I
I

II
I

are potentially teratogenic.

primarilyaffect the elderly.
are prevented by vaccinations.
have non-human animal reservoirs.
can not be treated with antibiotics.

Which of the followingprevent(s) the

synthesis of peptidoglycans?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Sarcoma
Fibroadenoma
Adenocarcinoma
Fibrocystic disease
Intraductal papilloma

Catecholamine
Aldosterone
Cortisone
Insulin
Renin

Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that

both
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following represents the MOST

frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast
mass in an adult woman?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Enhance secretion of IgA

Enhance antibody response
Stimulate complement synthesis
Desensitize to a given antigen
Activate mast cell degranulation

A patient lapses into a state of fluctuating

levels of consciousness or coma several
hours after sustaining blunt trauma to the
head. This finding is consistent with which of
the following conditions?

- ,,'-

A 17-year -old patient has periodontitis

involvingthe anterior teeth with sparse
plaque. Which of the followingis the probable
primary pathogen?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

25.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

The MOST common source of massive

hematemesis in alcoholics is (are)

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the followingdescribes the function

of adjuvants?

Lymphatic obstruction
Obstruction of venous outflow
Reduced intravascular osmotic
pressure
Protein leakage into tissue spaces
Increased capillary permeability

A peptic ulcer.
B. acute gastritis.
C. esophageal varices.
.Q:,,:;.Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
E. acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

23.

26.

Which of the following is the principal factor

underlying localized edema in inflammation?

Lysozymes
Penicillin
Tetracyclines
Erythromycin
Teichoic acids
~
j

"

I-J
30/49
:
31.

36.

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause

a sudden arrest of heart function?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mitral stenosis
Angina pectoris
Constrictive pericarditis
Cardiac tamponade
Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Which of the following do striated muscle,

smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle have in
common?

Hyperplasia of these elements is

common.

B.

They have a limited capacity to

regenerate.
Hypertrophy is a common response to

C.

inJury. .

D.

32.

If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin

and erythromycin, then it would not be
appropriate to treat the patients with both
antibiotics at the same time because

37.
A
B.
C.

D.
E.

penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin.

erythromycin exerts its effect
extracellularly.
erythromycin enhances beta-Iactamase
activity.
erythromycin is primarily an anti-fungal
agent.
penicillin is only effective against
growing cells.

38.

GO~~

r\ c:

A deficiency in which of the following cells can

predispose to candidiasis?

A Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells
E. T lymphocytes

39.
Which of the following BEST describes the
similarity between Streptococcus pneumoniae
and Cryptococcus neoformans?

T lymphocytes are MOST directly involved in

which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Commonly found in soil samples

Readily prevented by a vaccine
Readily treated by tetracycline
Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules

40.
The presence of which of the following in a
patient's serum affords protection agaiAst
hepatitis B?
A
B.
C.
D.

B cells
Macrophages

C. Killer(K)cells ~O
D. Cytotox~"i-!tlhh\C\ttes
E. NaturC1\~P<"iK)cells

A 'Polymyxin
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Cycloserine
E. Ciprofloxacin

35.

Which of the following cells are thought to be

A
B.

gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of

activity?

A
B.
C.
D.

They need a constant high 2

concentration to function.

MOST important in the control of metastase~

33. Which of the following represents a DNA

34.

.-

Cerebral embolism occurring as a

complication of myocardial infarction is MOST
indicative of which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Anti-HBcAg
Anti-HB sAg

Anti-HAV
Anti-HBeAg
5

Immediate hypersensitivity
Immune complex injury
Complement synthesis
Contact dermatitis
Antibody formation

Mural thrombosis
Phlebothrombosis
Decreased stroke volume
Lack of collateral circulation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

I-J
31/49

'..

j]

41.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

42.

The major cariogenic property of

Streptococcus mutans is associated with its
ability to produce which of the following
enzymes?

44.

47.

Their
Their
Their
Their

48.

physical appearance
intraoral locations
density and number
gradual confluence

49.

Platelets
Mast cells
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Activated macrophages

Sarcomere
Myofascia
Myocyte nucleus
Sarcolemmal membrane
Acetylcholine'receptor

Each of the following represents a common

opportunistic infection associated with HIV
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor in

inflammation are produced by which of the
following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are

directed against which of the following
structures?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hyaluronidase
Chondroitinase
Aminopeptidase
Glucosyltransferase
Fructosyltransferase

The oral lesions of herpangina can often be

distinguished from hand-foot-and-mouth
disease by which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.

In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the

size of the nucleus and a condensation of
nuclear material is known as

A pyknosis.
B. karyolysis.
C. karyorrhexis.
D. metachromasia.
E. hyperchromatism.

IL-2
Kinin
Tryposin
Complement
Histamine

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

43.

46.

Natural killer cells capable of destroying

malignant cells MUST be first activated with
which of the following?

Candidiasis
Hairy leukoplakia
Adenovirus conjunctivitis
Cryptosporidium enterocolitis
Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia

Acute biliary obstruction produces a rise in

A urobilinogen in urine.
B. urobilinogen in stool.
C. conjugated bilirubin in urine.
D. conjugated bilirubin in serum.
E. unconjugated bilirubin in serum.

j
';~1

45.

A viremia is characterized by which of the

following?
A
B.

c.
D.

50.

Infected cells are transformed.

Infected cells are no longer releasing
virus.
The virus is most easily spread via
gastrointestinal secretions.
The virus is most susceptible to
circulating antibodies.

Which of the following is the usual cause of

chronic pyelonephritis?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.
6

Systemic hypertension
Type IV hypersensitivity
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Bacteremic seeding of the kidneys
Infection resulting from urinary reflux

.~

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32/49
,.
,.

51.

55.

If serial dilutions of human saliva are

inoculated on blood agar plates, then
incubated in air for 24 hours at 37C, which of
the following groups of microorganisms will'
grow in the greatest number?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

cell to appear in large numbers at the site of

injured tissue?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Actinomycetes
Streptococcus
Lactobacillus
Staphylococcus
Fusobacterium

56.
52.

High levels of Porphyromonas

gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in
MOST of the serum samples from patients
with adult periodontitis. These antibodies are
which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

53.

54.
'i

IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD

57.

58.

Phenylketonuria
Wilson's disease
Diabetes mellitus
T ay-Sachs

MOST antibiotic resistance in bacteria is

caused by which of the following?
A
B.

C.
D.
E.

59.

Genes that are carried on plasmids

Depression of a previously existing
gene pool
An ever increasing mutation rate in
bacteria
Unequal distribution of antibiotics into
body spa~es
Induction of specific mutations by
specific antibiotics

Phenols
Chlorhexidine
Ethylene oxide
70 percent isopryl alcohol
Alkaline glutaraldehyde

Oral yeast
Hepatitis B virus
Bacterial endospore
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Human immunodeficiency virus

motile.
sensitive to H2O2.
able to ferment lactate.
resistant to penicillin.
producers of 2 and H2Ofrom H2O2'

A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on

the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A
bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He
appears to have a cold and his eyes are red
and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash
behind his ears and on his face. This child
has which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
7

Neutrophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte

Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are

generally

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

disease

Which of the following is MOST resistant to

sterilizing conditions?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Galactosemia

Plasma cell

Eczema
Measles
Chickenpox
Scarlet fever

.-

Macrophage

Which of the following is an antimicrobial

agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells,'

degenerative changes in the brain, and a
greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the
cornea characterize which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following is the first inflammatory

""".

-"

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33/49
.,

60.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

61.

65.

In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone

marrow suppression, the peripheral blood
smear shows erythrocytes to be

A
B.
C.
D.

hypochromic - microcytic.
hypochromic - normocytic.
normochromic - normocytic.
normochromic-microcytic.
hyperchromic - macrocytic.

E.

66.

A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in

which of the following conditions?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

The spores of Bacillus anthracis are

destroyed by

Scurvy
Acute leukemia
Renal insufficiency
Hepatic insufficiency
Secondary thrombocytopenia

refrigerating (-7C for 48 hours).

autoclaving (121C for 20 minutes).
pasteurizing (61.7C for 30 minutes).
immersing in boiling water (100C for
10 minutes).
placing in a hot air oven (121C for 20
minutes).

Congestion in the early stages of

inflammation is caused by which of the
following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ischemia
Venous dilation
Active hyperemia
Venous constriction
Lymphatic obstruction

,
t

J
I
i
I

62.

67~

In which of the following is the largest amount

of genetic information transferred from one
cell to another?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

F-dudion
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
Recombination

68.

63.

In a dry-heat oven, which of the following

temperatures is sufficient for achieving
sterilization in 1-2 hours?
A
B.
C.
D."

81C
100C
121C

-I

I;

Candida albicans
Histoplasma capsulatum
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Cryptococcus neoformans
Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Deletions
Inversions
Frameshifts
Transitions
Transversions

160C

Which of the following is the site of oxidative

phosphorylation in bacteria?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following kinds of mutations is

caused by base analogues?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

69.
64.

The finding of yeast cells and

chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggests
which of the following?

Which of the following acids is the chief

product of carbohydrate metabolism of
Streptococcus mutans?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Nucleus
Ribosome
Cytoplasm
Cell membrane
Mitochondrion
8

Acetic
Formic
Lactic
Butyric
Propionic

I-J
34/49
.
70.

A
B.
C.
D.

71.

Bacillus subtilis
Lactobacillus casei
Streptococcus mutans
Staphylococcus aureus

,i

E.

Renin
Histamine
C3and Cs
Bradykinin
Prostaglandins

76.

C~
D.
E.

.\

'.

Gout results from a metabolic defect in which

of the following?
A
B.

72.

The histamine that is released by mast cells

is.responsible for the principal symptoms of
which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

73.

Delayed hypersensitivity
Tuberculin reaction
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis

77.

Fat
Purine
Pigment
Glucose
Calcium

Which of the followingviral-associated

enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
A
B.
C.
D.

Neuramidase
Capping enzyme
Reverse transcriptase
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Which of the following neoplasms appears

the MOST often in children?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

74.

Iron deficiency
Chronic external loss of blood
Frequent episodes of hemolysis
Inhibition of hematopoiesis by
sulfonamides
Inabilityof the stomach to form intrinsic
factor
'

Laboratory studies reveal megaloblasts in

bone marrow, and a hyperchromic, macrocytic
anemia in peripheral blood. Oral examination
reveals atrophic glossitis. Which of the
followingis the MOST likely cause of this
condition?
A
B.
C.
D.

Inflammatoryvasodilation can be evoked by

each of the followingEXCEPT one. Which one
is this EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

75.

Which of the followingorganisms represents

a significant secondary invader of carious
lesions?

78.

Neuroblastoma
Chondrosarcoma
Adenocarcinoma
Multiple myeloma
Basal cell carcinoma

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

When horse serum is injected intravenously

into a rabbit and again into the skin two or
three weeks later, what is the necrotizing
reaction that occurs at the site of the second
injection?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following bowel diseases is

characterized by noncaseating
granulomatous inflammation in the gut wall?

79.

Each of the followingcells is an

antigen-specific cell EXCEPT one. Which one
is this EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Prausnitz-Kustner reaction
9

Diverticulitis
Peptic ulcer
Ulcerative colitis
Celiac disease
Crohn's disease

B cells
Macrophages
T helper cells
Langerhans cells
Dendritic cells

,-

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35/49
"

,
80.

86. A 53-year-old patient has an indurated.

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is

subdividedinto specificantigenictypes
principally on the basis of immunologic
differences in its

chronic ulcer near the inner canthus. The

MOST likely diagnosis is

'

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mprotein.
streptolysin O.
streptolysin S.
C polysaccharide.
hyaluronic acid capsule.

verruca vulgaris.
malignant melanoma.
basal cell carcinoma.
squamous cell carcinoma.
adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct.

81. Which of the followingbacterial exotoxins

87.

converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

M-protein
Coagulase
Plasmalysin
Hyaluronidase
Streptokinase

Which of the following bacteria causes

epidemics of meningitis among adults? i-Q
A Staphylococcus aureus c...f;;O~
B. Klebsiella pneumoniif' -;;I
C. Haemophilus iQ~)e
D. Neisseri~ ~~~s
E.

82. Which of the followingis the LEAST likely

Stre\~~~r

pneumoniae

complication of nodular prostatic hyperplasia?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Dysuria
Hydronephrosis
Pyelonephritis
Development of carcinoma
Urinary tract obstruction

88.

A Bacterial infections
B. Viral infections
C. Fungal infections
D. Parasitic infestations

83. A positive tuberculin test always indicates

which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.

Active tuberculosis
Chronic tuberculosis
No exposure to tuberculosis
Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins

89.

84. An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton

hyperadrenalism.
hyperthyroidism.
hyperpituitarism.
hyperparathyroidism.
hyperfunction of the thymus.

90.

85. Which of the followingtumors is of connective

tissue origin?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell

infiltrationof marrow and synthesis of
abnormal immunoglobulins describe
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

and kidney, that promotes metastatic

calcification, is
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Eosinophils are characteristically seen in

which of the following conditions?

Which of the followingcharacterizes edema

associated with the nephrotic syndrome?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Myxoma
Adenoma
Melanoma
Carcinoma
Papilloma
10

systemic lupus erythematosus.

selective IgAdeficiency.
polyclonal gammopathy.
Paget's disease of bone.
multiple myeloma.

Polyuria
Hematuria
Hyperlipidemia
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypoprothrobinemia

c,

I-J
36/49
....
91.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

92.

96.

Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each

of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Emphysema
Tuberculosis
Lobar pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Bronchogenic carcinoma

risk of developing osteosarcoma?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
Staphylococcus aureus.
a variety of viruses.
herpes simplex virus.
hemophilus influenzae.

98.

Which of th~ following components of

hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Necrosis
Exudation
Epithelioid cells
Langhans' giant cells
Spreading of the initial focus

99.
Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what
type of immunity?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following represents the MOST

potent carcinogen?

A
B.
C.
D.

11

Aplasia
Anaplasia
Pleomorphism
Hyperchromatism
Abnormal mitosis

Immunological resistance to MOST

intracellular pathogens is manifested as
which of the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Estrogen
Benzpyrene
Folic acid
Cholic acid

Protein A
Coagulase
Beta toxin
Teichoic acid
Polysaccharide capsule

Each of the following is a histologic feature of

malignant growth EXCEPT one. Which one is'
this EXCEPTION?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Innate
Natural active
Natural passive
Artificial active
Artificial passive

100.

95.

Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Osteoblastoma
Osteitis deformans
Osteogenesis imperfecta

Staphylococcusis antiphagocytic,, elicits

Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is
manifested by which of the following?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

94.

nonencapsulation.
rapid growth rate.
ability to metastasize.
lack of differentiation.
excessive mitotic activity.

97. Which of the following conditions increase the

The majority of cases of pharyngitis are
caused by

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

93.

The MOST important characteristic of

malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes
them from benign neoplasms, is their

Lymphoid .atrophy
Humoral immunity
Cellular immunity
Wheal and flare reactions
Non-specific serum protection

.
-

,; .

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..

RELEASED

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST: lVIICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY
FORM: 13
DATE: D96

Item
1
2
3
4
5

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key.

C
B
B
D
C

26
27
28
29
30

B
A
A
A
B

51
52
53
54
55

B
B
C
A
C

76
77
78
79
80

B
C
E
C
A

D
E
E
D
B

56
57
58
59
60

C
C
B
B
C

81
82
83
84
85

E
D
D
D
A

C
B
D
D
B

86
87
88
89
-90

C
D
E
D

6
7
8
9
10

B
B
E
E
C

31
32
33
34
35

11
12
13
14
15

D
C
C
A
A

36
37

38
39
40

E
D
A

61
62
63
64
65

16
17
18
19
20

E
B
B
A
E

41
42
43
44
45

A
D
B
E
D

66
67
68
69
70

C
A
D
C
B

91
92
93
94
95

A
C
A
D
B

21
22
23
24
25

E
C
A
E
D

46
47
48
49
50

A
E
C
D
E

71
72
73
74
75

A
E
A
D
E

96
97
98
99
100

C
D
A
A
C

.-

- indicates item not scored

12

I-J
Dental Anatomy and Occlusion
38/49
.

Part I
December 1996

105. 'tl11ichof the following incisors

All test items refer to permanent teeth unless

"primary" is specified.

has its mesial

and distal contact areas at the same
incisocervical level?

All test items relating to occlusion refer to a Class I

canine and molar relationship unless otherwise
specified. Terms such as "norma'" or "ideal" are
synonymous with the above definition.

A
B.
C.
D.

101. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp

of the maxillary second premolar contacts the
A
B.
I
C.
I
I

D.

106. 't'hich of the following is correct regarding the

contact relationship of maxillary central incisors
and maxillary lateral incisors?

distal fossa of the mandibular second

premolar.
mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular
first molar.
distal marginal ridge of the mandibular
second molar.
distal marginal ridge of the mandibular
first premolar.

A
6.
C.

Contacts are centered faciolingually.

Contacts are centered incisocervically.
Facial embrasures are wider than lingual
embrasures."'~

D.

Incisal embrasures are larger than

gingival embrasures.

107. Tne distal contact area -ofa maxillary lateral

incisor with ideal alignment is located

102. Which of the followingincisal angles of maxiJIary

teeth exhibits the.greatest convexity?
A
B.
C.
D.

Maxillarycentral
Mandibular central
Maxillarylateral
Mandibular lateral

A
8.
C.
D.

Mesioincisal of the central

Distoincisal of the central
Mesioincisal of the lateral
Distoincisalof the lateral

E.

near the incisal edge.

in the middle third.
in the incisal third.
at the junction of the incisal and middle
thirds.
at the junction of the middle and cervical
thirds.

103. Which of the followingrepresents the geometric

form of anterior teeth when viewed from the
mesial or distal aspect?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

108. Which of the followingteeth have long axes

positioned with their root apices facial and their
crowns lingual?

Rhomboidal
Trapezoidal
Elliptical
Triangular
Square

A B.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillaryincisors
Mandibular incisors
Maxillary premolars
Maxillarymolars
Mandibular molars

.,

104. Each of the followingcusps of the maxillary

molars is part of the maxillarymolar primary
cusp triangleEXCEPTone. Whichone is this
EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C.
D.

109. In (at) which of the following is the mesial

contact area of a maxillary canine located?

Mesiofacial
Mesiolingual
Distofacial
Distolingual

A
B.
C.
D.
13

.-

The incisal third

The junction of incisal and middle thirds
The middle third
The junction of middle and cervicalthirds

I-J
39/49

.,

110. Which of the following represents the tissue

formed in response to stimuli produced by
carious penetration of a tooth?
A
B.
C.
D.

115. Maxillarytooth crowns exhibit concavities on

which of the followingsurfaces?
A

Predentin
Primary dentin
Secondary dentin
Interglobular dentin

B.
C.

D.
111. Calcification of the mandibular third molars
generally begins at
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

E.

The mesial of central incisor and first

premolar
The mesial of canine and first molar
The distal of first premolar and the
mesial surface of second molar
The mesial of first premolar and the
distal of first molar
The distal of the first molar and the
mesial of the second molar

3-4 years.
5-7 years.
8-1 0 years.

116. The cross-sectional view at midroot illustrated

belowis MOSTprobablythat of a

11-13 years.
14-16 years.

112. Each of the following morphologic structures

can be seen on any incisor EXCEPT one.
Which.one is this EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C.
D.

Cingulum
Mesial marginal ridge
Lingual fossa
Transverse ridge

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

113. In contrast to maxillary canine crowns,

mandibular canine crowns have which of the
following anatomically?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Greater measurements, mesiodistally

Greater measurements, faciolingually
More accentuated marginal ridges
Well-defined lingual pits
Less-pronounced cingula

117.

Postural
Intercuspal
Retruded contact
Protruded contact

~
118.

A
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following jaw positions is

determined almost exclusively by the behavior
of the musculature?

A
B.
C.
D.

114. Illustrated below is a frontal border tracing of a

patient with a canine-guided occlusion. Which
letter on the diagram defines the only point
where posterior tooth contact occurs?

mandibular canine.
maxillary first premolar.
mandibular first premolar.
lingual root of a maxillary molar.
distal root of a mandibular first molar.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the

mesiolingual cusp of-the maxillary first molar
contacts the mandibular first molar in (on) the

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

A
B
C
0
14

central fossa.
distal fossa.
mesial fossa.
mesial marginal ridge.
distal marginal ridge.

."'.
.~

I-J
40/49

119.

124.The

In an ideal intercuspal relation in a normal

dentition, each of the following teeth contacts

each other EXCEPTone. Whichone is this

periodontal

ligament

fibers are primarily

EXCEPTION?
A

8.
C.
D.

120.

C.
D.
E.
121.

8.
C.
D.
E.

"

125. On the non-working side in an ideal

occlusion, interfering contacts on posterior
teeth will be located on which inclines of
which cusps?

Distal
Mesiofacial
Mesiolingual
Distofacial
Distolingual

A
8.
C.
D.

Cusps

Outer
Inner
Cuter
Inner

Guiding
Guiding
Supporting
Supporting

126. Which premolar has a facial cusp with a

triangular ridge so uniquely prominent as to
frequently separate its mesial pit from its
distal pit?

A
8.
C.
D.

Facial groove of the mandibular second

molar
Distofacial developmental groove of the
first molar
Embrasure between the mandibular
first and second molars
Embrasure between the mandibular
second and third molars
Central fossa

Maxillaryfirst
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
Mandibular second

127. Which of the following ligaments has an outer

oblique portion which limits the extent of jaw
opening and initiates translation of the
condyle down the articular eminence?

Which of the following primary teeth would

exhibit a prominent cervical ridge on both the
facial and lingual surfaces?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Inclines

triangular.
roughly conical.
flattened in a mesiodistal direction.
broader mesiodistally on the lingual
than on the facial.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the tip of the

mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary second
molar opposes which of the following?
A

123.

Maxillary first premolar and mandibular

second premolar
Maxillary first molar and mandibular
second premolar
Maxillary second premolar and
mandibular first molar
Maxillary second molar and mandibular
third molar

In cervical cross-section, the root of a

mandibular canine is described as

A
8.
C.
-D.

122.

A
Hyaline
8.
Elastic
C..90Ilagenous
D. Fibrocartilagenous

Which of the following represents the largest

cusp of the mandibular first molar?
A
8.

--

composed of which of the fol/owing

connective tissues?

A
F
J
L
T

A
8.
C.
D.
15

Capsular
Collateral
Stylomandibular
Temporomandibular

I-J
41/49

.,

iiI
.~

128. The arrows on the illustration below represent the

path taken by the opposing contacting cusps. The
mandibular movement indicated is

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

133. The drawing below illustrates the occlusal

view of which premolar?

protrusive.
right lateral; working side.
left lateral; working side.
right lateral; non-working side.
left lateral; non-working side.

A
8.
C.
D.

129. Which of the followingrepresents the norl1!al

eruption age (years) of the maxillarylateral
incisors?
.
.,~~

A
8.
C.
D.

134. Which of the following illustrates the occlusal

view of a primary maxillary right first molar?

_.,.,.,~:'-

-. ..-.

4-5 years
6-7 years
8-9 year~
10-11 years

&tJ
~~:
2
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

First premolar
Second premolar
First molar
Second molar

:
~.:.:t<)
4

W..J

to'.,--',
:

1
2
3
4
5

135. The drawing below illustrates a cross section

at the cementoenamel junction. This section
is typical of which of the following teeth?

131. The largest incisal/occlusal embrasure is located

between which of the followingteeth?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

~~

:"';~;;:j;
L. -'::~...:' "'qL..~/

130. Which of the followingmaxillaryteeth has the

largest cervico-occlusal crown height?
A
B.
C.
D.

Maxillaryfirst
Mandibular first
Maxillarysecond
Mandibular second

Maxillarycentral and lateral incisors

Mandibular central and lateral incisors
Maxillarylateral incisor and canine
Maridibularlateral incisor and canine
Maxillarycanine and first premolar

A
B.
C.
D.

132. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the arrow on the

illustration below represents the path taken by
which cusp of which molar?

(~

Maxillaryfirst premolar
Mandibular second premolar
Maxillarymolar
Mandibular molar

136. When a protrusive mandibular movement

(anterior teeth edge-to- edge) is achieved, the
mandibular first molar has the potential to
contact which of the following maxillaryteeth?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Cusp

Molar

Mesiofacial
Mesiolingual
Distofacial
Distolingual
Mesiolingual

Second
Second
Second
Second
Third

A
B.
C.
D.
E.
16

First and second premolars

Second premolar only
Second premolar and first molar
First and second molars
Second molar only

.~'

I-J
42/49
-137. Which of the following is characteristic of
primary maxillary canines?
A
B.
C.

D.

Crown height < mesiodistal width.

Cusp is low and rounded.
The mesioincisal cusp ridge is shorter
than the distoincisal cusp ridge.
The mesioincisal cusp ridge is longer
than the distoincisal cusp ridge.

138. Which of the following can adversely affect the

self-cleaning quality of a dentition in no,rmal
alignment?

A
B.
C.
D.

139.

Central
lateral
Central
Canine

incisor
incisor
and lateral incisors
and lateral incisors

140. Which incisor is MOST frequently markedly

concave on the lingual surface?
A
B.
C.
D.

A
B.
C.
D.

central incisor.
canine.
first premolar.
first molar.

143. The outline below of a pulp cavity indicates

that this tooth probably

Contact of adjacent teeth

Efficient use of a toothbrush
Friction of food material during
mastication
Too great a contour of the cervical
enamel ridge

In ~n acquired Class III crossb1terelationship,

as the mandible retrudes, the maxillary lateral
incisor contacts which of the following teeth?
A
B.
C.
D.

--

142. The root tip MOST likely to be forced into the

maxillary sinus during surgical removal is that
of a maxillary

A
B.
C.
D.

144.

=--

has 3 distinct cusps.

has experienced trauma.
is that of an old person.
is that of a young person.

On permanent

teeth, the greatest

incisal

curvature of a cervical line is on which surface

of which incisor?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Surface

Incisor

Mesial
Distal
Mesial
Distal
Mesial

Mandibular central
Mandibular central
Mandibular lateral
Maxillary lateral
Maxillary central

Maxillary central
Mandibular central
Maxillary lateral
Mandibular lateral
145. Which of the following illustrations represents
the mesial view of a mandibular right lateral
incisor?

141.

On which of the following teeth does the

occlusal anatomy often require the placement
of separate MO and DO restorations?

u ij
2

1
2
C. 3
D. 4

A
B.

\j

fJ
2

A
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

..'

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43/49
'S

..

'~"f

146.

151. The midroot cross-sectional diagram below

In a Class II occlusal relationship, the tip of

the facial cusp of a mandibular first premolar
lies directly below the contacting area
between which maxillary teeth?
A
B.
C.
D.

illustratesthe root of which maxillarymolar?

Viewed from the occlusal

Canine and lateral incisor

Canine and first premolar
First and second premolars
Second premolar and first molar

()G

(0
A
B.
C.
D.

147. Which extrinsic muscle of the tongue

functtons to retract the tongue?

A
B.
C.
D.

Hyoglossus
Styloglossus
Genioglossus
Palatoglossus

152.

148/ When compared with maxillary first

premolars, the central developmental groove
of maxillary seco.nd premolars is

A
B.
C.

'--

D.

149.

D.

E.

Right first
Left first
Right third
Left third

In norma', occlusion, and in a left working

movement, the mesiofacial cusp of the
maxillary left second molar passes through
which of the following mandibular structures?

The embrasure between the left first

-and second premolars'
.
B. The embrasure between the left first
and second molars
C. The facial groove of the left first molar
D. The facial groove of the left second
molar
E. The distofacial groove of the left first
molar

longer with less supplementary

grooves.
shorter with less supplementary
grooves.
longer with multiple supplementary
grooves.
shorter with multiple supplementary
grooves.

153.

Which of the following teeth in the permanent

dentition normally have bifurcations?
A
B.
C.

Mandibular canines
Mandibular second premolars
Maxillary molars and maxillary first
premolars
Mandibular molars and maxillary first
premolars
Maxillary first and second molars

A
B.
C.
D.

Maxillary central incisors

Maxillary lateral incisors
Mandibular lateral incisors
Mandibular canines

cusp of a maxillary first molar opposes which

feature on a mandibular first molar?

At 9 years of age how many primary teeth

remain in the mouth?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

0
4
8
12
18

A
B.
C.
D.

18

.,

Which of the 'following represents the third

pair of permanent teeth to erupt in normal
sequence?

154. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial

150.

;}

The
The
The
The

distal cusp
distofacial cusp
distofacial developmental groove
mesiofacial developmental groove

}:

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44/49

~
155.

160.Which premolar

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the

mesiofacial cusps of the mandibular second
molars contact the maxillary molars in (on) the

A
B.
C.

D.

MOST likely possesses a

crescent-shaped central developmental
groove?

distal fossae of the second.

central fossae of the second.
lingual embrasures between the first
and second.
facial embrasures between the first and
second.
mesial marginal ridges of the second.

A
B.
C.
D.

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
Mandibular second

E.

156.

161. A mandibular canine differs from a maxillary

canine in which of the following?

From the facial view, the maxillary first molar

.

has its lingualroot apex in line withwhichof

A
B.
C.

the following?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

157.

Facial groove
Oistofacial line angle
Distofacial cusp tip.
Mesiofacial cusp tip
Mesiodistal diameter midpoint

D.

Because of the presence of a fissured groove,

cavity preparations MOST frequently need to
be extended from the occlusal surface to the

A
B.
C.
D.

162. Which of the following molars MOST

frequently have only 3 cusps?

A
B.
C.
D.

facial surface of maxillary molars.

lingual surface of maxillary molars.
lingual surface of mandibular molars.
lingual surface of mandibular first
premolars.

163.
158.

On a maxillary molar, which of the following

ridges is formed by the union of the distal
cusp ridge of the mesiolingual cusp and the
triangular ridge of the distofacial cusp?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

It is longer.
It has a less pronounced cingulum.
The crown is approximately the same
length.
It has a cusp tip more nearly centered
mesiodistally when viewed from the
facial.

Mesiolingual grooves can be found on which

of the following permanent teeth?

A
B.
C.
D.

Cuspal
Central
Marginal
Oblique
Transverse

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
MaxilJarythird
Mandibular third

Maxillary canines
Mandibular first premolars
Maxillary first molars
Mandibular second molars

164. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the oblique

ridge of the maxilJary first molar opposes
which structure of the mandibular molar?

159.

The interproximal area between first and

second
B. The developmental groove between the
mesiofacial and distofacial cusps of the
first
C. The developmental groove between the
mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of
the first
D. The developmental groove between the
distofacial and distal cusps of the first.

What condylar movement is performed as the

mandible moves from a pure protrusive
movement from maximum intercuspal
position to a maximum protruded position?
A
B.
C.
D.

Translation
Rotation
Hinge
Medial and forward

19

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..
.

169.

165. As compared with permanent teeth, the

crowns of the primary teeth are
A
B.
C.

D.

'--

larger.
more bulbous and constricted.
about the same size, but more bellshaped cervically.
narrower mesiodistally in comparison
with their crown length in the anterior
teeth.

Protrusive movement is produced primarily

because of contracture of which of the
following muscles?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Masseter

Mylohyoid
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

,~

170. Which root surface depression on a maxillary

first molar possesses a concavity that travels
from the cervical third of the crown onto the

166. The smudge mark labeled a, b, C represents

which of the following contacts?

root surface?
~

C!b.
c b

A Lingual
B. Facial

C.

D. Distofac:~~~

'--

E.

A
B.
C.
D.

"'--

Working side
Non-working side
Protrusive
Lateral protrusive

171.

~
"""'---

--

B.

-----

c.
D.

posteriorly to the pterygomandibular

raphe.
inferiorly to the mylohyoid muscle
insertion.
inferiorly to the masseter muscle
insertion.
inferiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle
insertion.

Distolin~~ ~

Primary maxillary first molar

Primary mandibular first molar
Primary mandibular second molar
Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular first molar

.~
.~
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172. The concept of using a lateral checkbite

record to set a respective condylar inclination
implies which of the following?
A

Mandibular lateral translation (Bennett

movement) occurs during the

B.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

'1:]
71
~1

--------

168.

~~

~O

In which of the following teeth is the mesial

portion MOST distinctly separated from the
remainder of the occlusal table by a
transverse ridge?

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

167. The apices of a mandibular second molar are

located

--

Mesial

~~<:)

c (,O

earliest stage of lateral movement.

latter stage of protrusive movement.
middle stage of retrusive movement.
hinge axis movement of the mandible.
ending stage of exhibiting a border
movement.

c.
D.

That the non-working side condyle has

traveled against the posterior wall of the
fossa
That the working side condyle has
traveled down the slope of the articular
eminence
That the non-working side condyle has
moved anteriorly and medially
That the working side condyle has
moved toward the medial wall ofthe
glenoid fossa

'-------

20

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t:

,;;:

173. Which of the following represents the MOST

178. On the occlusal surface of a maxillary first

common anatomic feature that complicates

periodontal maintenance in a maxillary first
premolar?

'<1

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J

molar, the total number of pits is normally the

same as found on the occlusal surface of
which premolar?

<

A
8.
C.
D.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Deep concavity on the mesial surface of

the tooth
Intermediate furcational ridge
Mesiolingual developmental groove
Excessive convexity of the facial root

174. The lingual cusp(s) on which of the following

179. From the incisal aspect, the crown of a

mandibular posterior teeth is (are)

approximately 2/3 the height of the respective
facial cusp(s)?
A
B.
C.
D.
E.

maxillary canine normally exhibits which of the

following?
A
B.

First premolar
Second premolar
First molar
Second molar
Third molar

c.

D.
E.

~,

175.

In the comparison of the rhomboidal and

heart-shaped crown outlines of maxillary
molars, the crown portion that differs MOST in
contour and size is the

A
8.
C.
D.

"

r
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.'"

mesiofacial.
distofacial.

180.

f'

mesiolingual.
distolingual.

B.

D.
"

c.

Tetracycline medication in early life

Excessive fluorides in the drinking water
A metabolic disturbance during the
prenatal period
A metabolic disturbance during infancy
and the early childhood periods

A trapezoidal outline
Symmetry between its mesial and distal
portions
A mesial portion that is thinner
faciolingually than the distal portion
A d~stalportion that displays some
concavity in its facial outline
Less faciolingual thickness than the,
crown of a mandibular canine

From a proximal view, which of the following

describes the crown outline on a mandibular
posterior tooth?

176. A hypoplasia of primary teeth which is limited

to ,the incisal thirds of incisors, to the incisal
tips of canines, and to the occlusal portions of
molars, suggests which of the following?
A
B.
C.

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
U-type mandibular second
Y-type mandibular second

D.

It is designed to protect against root

fracture by having the crown structure
serve as root support.
It is designed to allow for a minimum
amount of chewing efficiency on the
coronal surface of the tooth.
It is usually rhomboidal and has a
design flaw that' encourages cusp
fracture.
It is usually trapezoidal and has a
design flaw that encourages cusp
fracture.

181. Which of the following normally describes the

general crown form of canines when viewed
from the facial or lingual aspect?

177. Which of the following is the first

succedaneous tooth?
A
8.
C.
D.

A
B.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillary central incisor

Mandibular central incisor
Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular first molar

21

3-sided
4-sided
5-sided
6-sided
7-sided

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..
.

182. Which of the followingteeth is MOST likelyto

have a distal coronal concavity that can pose
special problems in matrix placement?

187.

~
~
'.co

As the mouth is opened widely, the-articular

disk moves in what direction in relation to the
articular eminence?

';

,~

'-

.;.

A
8.
C.
D.

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillaryfirst premolar
Mandibular first premolar
Maxillaryfirst molar
Mandibular first molar

188. The dentist instructs the patient, who has a

severed left lateral pterygoid muscle, to open
wide. The patient's mandible will move in
which direction?

183. The spacing between anterior teeth in a

5-year-old child is MOST frequently caused by
A

"'---

8.
C.
D.
E.

the presence of an excessive maxillary

anterior frenum.
the pressure from succedaneous teeth.
thumb-sucking.
tongue thrusting.
the growth of the dental arches.

A
8.
C.
D.

184. In a cervical cross section, which premolar(s)

sometimes exhibit a root outline and a pulp
chamber floor outline that are both kidneyshaped?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

A
8.

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
Mandibular second
All premolars

C.
D.

----185. On the crowns of maxillary canines, which'

lobe includes the cusp tip?
-----

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Mesiolingual
Distofacial
Mesiofacial
Lingual
Middlefacial

8.

186. In protrusive movement, the mandibular

canines in a Class II occlusal relationship
articulate with which of the followingmaxillary
teeth?
A
8.
C.
D.

The facial embrasure between the

canine and the first premolar
The distal cusp ridge of the first
premolar and the mesial cusp ridge of
the second premolar
The distal cusp ridge of the second
premolar and the mesial cusp ridge of
the first molar
The mesiofacial groove of the first
molar.

190. Which of the following BEST describes the

Curve of Spee?

- ~

To the left
To the right
In a straight protrusive direction
In a retrusive direction

189. During a working movement of the mandible,

the facial cusp ridges of the maxillary first
premolar on the working side oppose 'wnich
of the following mandibular structures?

,-~

----

Laterally
Anteriorly
Posteriorly
Medially
Superiorly

C.

D.

Canines only
Lateral incisors only
Canines and lateral incisors
Canines and first premolars

E.

--

22

The spherical configuration of the

composite arrangement of the occlusal
surfaces and incisal edges of the teeth
of both dental arches
The facial-lingual curvature resulting
from the facial cusps being the longest
in the mandibular arch, and the lingual
cusps being the longest in the maxillary
arch
The anterior-posterior curvature of the
occlusal surfaces of the teeth, as seen
in a facial view
The inclination of the teeth in relation to
the verticallongaxis ofthe body
The composite arrangement, of the
facia! crown surface heights of contour
of all the teeth in any quadrant

~
:;
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191.

j
;

.\
,~

Which of the followingnormallydescribesthe

pulp cavity in a mesiodistal section of a
maxillary canine?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

196. From the facial aspect, the crown of a primary

canine normally has an incisal outline that
exhibits
A
8.
C.

It exhibits 2 pulp horns.

It is widest at its incisal limit.
It is pointed at its incisal limit.
It is widest at the mid root level.

D.

It is generally wider than in a

faciolingual section.

E.
192. Which fiber group of the periodontal ligament
reduces the probability of forceful impaction
into the alveolus because of a blow to the
crown?
A.
8.-'C.
D.
E.

197. A primary molar lacks an identifiable

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Horizontal
Apical
Oblique
Transseptal
Gingival

194.

The
The
The
The

'.

permanent second molar

permanent first molar
second premolar
primary first molar

On the crowns of maxillary premolars, the

height of contour is normally located in the
cervical third on which of the following
surfaces?
A
8.
C.
D.

D.

E.

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Mandibular incisor
Mandibular canine
Maxillary first premolar
Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular molar

199. The greatest difficulty in removing calculus

from the root trunk area of molars is seen on
which of the following surfaces?
A
8.
C.
D.
E.

Facial
Lingual
Mesial
Distal

195. Which of the following represents the apex of

the triangular-shaped boundary of the
interproximal space?

A
8.
C.

root trunk.
cervical line.
cervical ridge.
apical foramen.
dentinoenamel junction.

198. The masticatory function of a mandibular first

premolar is MOST similar to that of which of
the following teeth?

193. The occlusal surface of the primary

mandibular second molar closely resembles
the occlusal surface of which of the following
mandibular teeth?

A
8.
C.
D.

2 mamelons.
no slopes, because it is straight.
mesioincisal and distoincisal slopes of
equal length.
notching due to labial developmental
depressions.
a mesioincisal slope that is longer than
the distoincisal slope.

200.

Alveolar bone
Gingival tissue
The marginal ridges of the adjacent
teeth
The proximal surfaces of the adjacent
teeth
The contact area of the adjacent teeth

In viewing the crown of a canine from the

incisal aspect, one normally sees each of the
following structures EXCEPT one. Which one
is this EXCEPTION?

A
8.
C.
D.
E.

23

Mesial of mandibular second

Distal of mandibular second
Lingual of maxillary second
Distal of maxillary first
Mesial of mandibular first

Cingulum
Lingual fossa
Cervical line
Distal cusp ridge
Mesiofacial developmental depression

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.,

RELEASED

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
.

TEST:

...
1f-Ii:'
*11
~.
'r

DENTAL ANATOMY-OCCLUSION

FORM: 14
DATE: D96

"--"

..

Item

Key:.

101
102
103
104
105

A
D
D
D
B

126
127
128
129
130

106
107
108
109
110

A
B
E
B
C

,131
132
133
134
135

Item

Key:'

B
D
E
C
A

151
152
153
154
155

A
D
C
C
E

176
177
178
179
180

C
B
E
D
C

C,

156
157
158
159
160

A
B
D
A
D

181
182
183
184
185

C
C
E
A
E

Item..... Key

,Item

Key.

----

'"'---

'"'--

.~

D
A
C
C

,..

186
187
188"
189
190

C
B
A
B
C

191
192
193
194
195

C
C
B
A
E

B
C
A
A
D

196
197
198
199
200

E
A
B
D
C

111
112
113
114
115

C
D
E
A
D

136
137
138
139
140

C
D
D
D
C

161

116
117
118
119
120

B
A
A
B
B

141
142
143
144
145

A
D
D
E
B

166
167
168
169
170

A
B
A
E

121
122
123
124
125

C
A
B
C
D

146
147
148
149
150

C
B
D
D
D

171
172
173
174
175

162

163
164
165

'B

C
B
D
B

,$
l'.I
,

i[;
..~
'"

.,
-

- indicates item not scored

L---

24

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