AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

HUMAN ANATOMY
1.

Answer: A. Gap junctions

Muscles which is not a muscles of mastication

Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 46-47

A. Buccinator
B.

Masseter

C.

Temporalis

Explanation:

D. Pterygoid

The lateral membranes of epithelial cells

exhibit

Answer: A. Buccinator

Explanation:

intercellular

Seals to prevent the flow of materials

Sites of adhesion (adhesive or anchoring
junctions)

There

specialized

between the cells (occluding junctions)

Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 538

several

junctions.

are

four

principal

muscles

of

Channels

for

communication

between

adjacent cells (gap junctions)

mastication, medial and lateral pterygoid,

temporalis and masseter.
Muscle

Origin

Masseter

Zygomatic arch

Temporalis

Temporal

3.

The development of first connective tissue which

forms non synovial joint is called as

Nerve supply
Action
A. Syndesmosis
Ramus
of
the Massetric branch of Elevates the mandible
B. Synchondroses
mandible
and anterior divisoin of
C. Symphysis
coronoid process
mandibular nerve
D. Suture
Medial surface, apex, Deep
temporal Elevates the mandible
Insertion

fossa

and

temporalis fascia

anterior and posterior

borders

of

branches

of

the

Answer:
D. Suture
the anterior
trunk of the

Posterior fibres retract

the mandible

coronoid process and mandibular nerve

Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 97-98
to the anterior border
of

the mandibular
Explanation:
ramus almost up to
Medial

Superficial head: maxillary

the third molar tooth.

Refer to Explanation of Q. No. 3, May 2005
Medial surface of the Trunk
of
the Assist in elevating the

Pterygoid

tuberosity

ramus and angle of

and

the

pyramidal process of the

the mandible

palatine bone
Deep head: medial surface
of the lateral pterygoid
plate

Alternating activity in
The cells which are provided with extra reserve of
the left and right side
cell layers belongs to ------------------- epithelium
pterygoid
muscles
A. Transitional
produces side-to-side
B. Stratified squamous
movements,
C. Stratified cuboidal
Nerve to lateral Depression of mandible
D. Stratified columnar
the pterygoid
from Alternating activity in

Upper head: infratemporal

Pterygoid fovea

Pterygoid

surface and infratemporal

Capsule

crest of the greater wing

temporomandibular

of the sphenoid bone.

joint

The

cell

anterior division of

the left and right side

of the lateral pterygoid

mandibular
nerve
pterygoid
muscles
Answer:
B. Stratified
squamous
Anterior and medial
produces side-to-side
Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E,
p. 29
borders of its articular
movements

plate

disc

Lower head: lateral surface

2.

mandible

4.

Lateral

of

mandibular nerve

junctions

allowing

exchange

Explanation:
of

Stratified squamous epithelia are multilayered

cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are

tissues in which the formation, maturation and

called as

loss of cells is continuous. New cells are

A. Gap junctions

formed in the most basal layers by the mitotic

B.

Tight junctions

division of stem cells and transit amplifying

C.

Anchoring junctions

cells.

D. Focal junctions

The

superficially,

daughter
changing

cells

move

gradually

more

from

cuboidal shape to a more flattened form and

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

are eventually shed from the surface as a
highly flattened squame.
Answer: A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
Summary of Epithelial Tissue
Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 416, 613
Number of cell

Cell shape

Distribution

Squamous

Lining

layers
Single layer

Explanation:

of

Refer the Explanation of Q. No. 11, May 2003

vessels
(endothelium
Cuboidal

). Serous

Columnar

Lining

PHYSIOLOGY

of
6.

cavities;

The other name for factor XI is

pericardium,

A. Stuart power factor

pleura,

B.

Calcium

Peritoneum

C.

Plasma Thromboplastin antecedent

(mesothelium

D. Plasma Thromboplastin component

).
Covering

Answer: C. Plasma Thromboplastin antecedent

of

ovary,

Reference: Ganong, 23/E, p. 531

thyroid
follicles
Intestinal

7.

lining,

gall

The non-invasive method to measure the blood

flow is

bladder
Pseudostratifie

Columnar (ciliated)

A. Electric pulp test

Lining

of

B.

Percussion

C.

Radiograph

D. Laser Doppler Flowmetry

nasal cavity,
trachea,
bronchi

Multilayered/
stratified

Ans: D. Laser Doppler Flowmetry

Squamous

Keratinized

Skin

Non

Oral

keratinized

esophagus,

cavity,

Cuboidal

vagina,

anal

Columnar

canal

Transitional

Sweat glands,

Ref:

Khandpurs

Handbook

of

Biomedical

Instrumentation, 2/E, p. 341

Explanation:

There are many widely used techniques for

ovarian

measuring the blood flow and velocity. They

follicles

are categorized into invasive (surgical) and non-

Conjunctiva

invasive (through the skin).

Ureter,
urinary
bladder
BIOCHEMISTRY
5.

------------ is correct reason of VII cranial nerve

injury during forceps delivery in labor
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B.

The parotid gland is in developing stage

C.

The beak of the forceps engages the main

trunk of facial nerve

D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery

causes neuropraxia

8.

The protein which functions in the packaging of

DNA in chromosomes is
A. Histone
B.

Collagen

C.

Hyaluronic acid binding protein

D. Fibrinogen
Answer: A. Histone

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

Reference: Harper, 28/E, p. 312

Fatty acids with an odd number of carbon

atoms are oxidized by the pathway of -

Explanation:

Chromatin consists of very long stranded DNA

molecules and a nearly equal mass of rather

oxidation, producing acetyl-CoA, until threecarbon (Propionyl-CoA) residue remains.

a constituent of the citric acid cycle.

small basic proteins termed histones.

The purpose of histone is to condense the

DNA.

9.

----------------- technique of separation depends on

the molecular size of the protein
A. Chromatography on a carboxymethyl (CM)
cellulose column
B.

Iso-electric focusing

C.

Gel filtration chromatography

D. Chromatography on a diethylamino0 ethyl

This compound is converted to Succinyl-CoA,

12. All are a post transcriptional modification of RNA

except
A. Splicing
B.

5 capping

C.

3 polyadenylation

D. Glycosylation
Answer: D. Glycosylation
Reference: Harper, 28/E, p. 367

(DEAE) cellulose column

Explanation:
Answer: C. Gel filtration chromatography

Reference: Teitzs Clinical Chemistry, 4/E, p. 144

Covalent

modification

phosphorylation,
ubiquitinylation,

Explanation:

by

acetylation,
methylation,

and

glycosylation

is

common post translational modification.

Gel filtration chromatography separates solutes

on the basis of their molecular sizes.

Molecular shape and hydration are also factors

in the process.

GENERAL PATHOLOGY
13. An albino girl gets married to a normal boy, what
are the chances of their having an affected child

10. Primary role of chaperones is to help in

and what are the chances of their children being

A. Protein synthesis

carriers

B.

Protein degradation

A. Non affected, all carriers

C.

Protein denaturation

B.

All normal

C.

50% carriers

D. Protein folding

D. 50% affected, 50% carriers

Answer: D. Protein folding (Repeat of Q. No. 18, May
2003)
Answer: C. 50% carriers
11. Product of beta-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids
is

Reference: Pathologic Basis of Disease: Robbins, 8E,

A. Succinyl Co A
B.

Propionyl Co A

C.

Acetyl Co A

D. Malonyl Co A

pp. 141-142
Explanation:

Autosomal recessive condition manifests only

in homozygous state, i.e. when both alleles at a

Answer: B. Propionyl Co A

given gene locus are mutant.

Reference: Harper, 28/E, p. 185

Explanation:

Following are the possibilities,

One parent is carrier and other is normal:

50% of child will be carrier

Both parents are carrier: 25% children

Oxidation of a Fatty Acid with an Odd

affected, 25% normal and 50% will be

Number of Carbon Atoms Yields Acetyl-CoA

carriers

plus a Molecule of Propionyl-CoA

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

One parent is affected and other carrier:

The main route of transmission is by inhalation

50% of the children affected and 50% will

of

be carriers

bacteria. The principal source is from wet

aerosol

droplets

containing

Legionella

Both parents affected: 100% children will

cooling towers or evaporative condensers used

be affected

in air conditioning or other cooling systems.

MICROBIOLOGY
14. Heat labile instruments used in surgery can be
best sterilized by

PHARMACOLOGY
17. Antidote to heparin is

A. Absolute alcohol

A. Vitamin K

B.

Ultraviolet rays

C.

Chlorine releasing compounds

D. Ethylene oxide gas

B.

Whole blood

C.

Protamine sulphate

D. Ascorbic acid

Ans: D. Ethylene oxide gas

Answer: C. Protamine sulphate (Repeat of Q. No. 21, May

Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8/E, p. 31

15. -------------technique

procedures
for

2004)

are

used

karyotyping

routine

using

light

18. False regarding bioavailability of a drug is

A. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged
drug that reaches the systemic circulation

microscopy
B.

A. C-banding
B.

G-banding

C.

Q-banding

Bioavailability can be determined from plasma

concentration or urinary excretion data

C.

Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily

means poor absorption

D. Brd V-staining

D. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug

can be calculated by comparing the area under
curve after oral and intravenous administration
Ans: B. G-banding (Giemsa banding)
Ref:

Keagle

et

al

The

Principles

of

Clinical

Cytogenetics, 2/E, p. 70

Answer: C. Low oral bioavailability always and

necessarily means poor absorption
Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 17, 18

16. A 60-year-old man after returning from a leisure

conference is diagnosed to be suffering from
legionnaires. He could have acquired it through
A. From a person suffering from the infection
GENERAL MEDICINE

white travelling in the aero plane

19. Osteomalacia is associated with

B.

From a chronic carrier in the convention center

C.

From inhalation of the aerosols in air

A. Decrease in osteoid volume

conditioned room at convention center

B.

Decrease in osteoid surface

C.

Increase in osteoid maturation time

D. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow

delegate at the convention

D. Increase in mineral apposition rate

Answer: C. Increase in osteoid maturation time

Ans: C. From inhalation of the aerosols in air

conditioned room at convention center
Ref: Irvings Medical Microbiology, 1/E, p. 151
Explanation:

Reference: Harrison, 16/E, p. 2247

20. Most appropriate therapy for patient suffering

from infectious mononucleosis is
A. Analgesic

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

B.

Antibiotic

C.

Anticonvulsant
GENERAL SURGERY

D. No specific therapy

24. In a post operative intensive care unit, five

Ans: D. No specific therapy

patients

developed

post-operative

wound

infection on the same wound. The best method to

Ref: Harrisons Infectious Diseases, 1/E, p. 750

prevent cross infection occurring in other patients

in the same

21. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured

from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty
children developed abdominal cramps followed
by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after
the party. The most likely etiology for the

A. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the

ward
B.

Fumigate the ward

C.

Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite

D. Practice proper hand washing

outbreak is
A. Rotavirus infection
B.

Entero toxigenic E. coli infection

C.

Staphylococcal toxin

D. Clostridium perfringens infection

Ans: D. Clostridium perfringens infection

Ref: Harrisons Infectious Diseases, 1/E, p. 439

Ans: D. Practice proper hand washing

25. Bedsore is an example of
A.

Tropical ulcer

B.

Trophic ulcer

C.

Venous ulcer

D. Post thrombotic ulcer

Ans: B. Trophic ulcer
Ref: SRBs Manual of Surgery, 3/E, p. 19

22. Syncope occurs intraoperatively due to

A. Cerebral edema
B.

Cerebral hyperemia

C.

Cerebral ischemia

26. The most common histologic type of thyroid

cancer is

D. Cerebral degeneration

A. Medullary type

Ans: C. Cerebral ischemia

Ref: Harrisons Neurology in Clinical Medicine, 1/E, p.

B.

Papillary type

C.

Follicular type

D. Anaplastic type
Ans: B. Papillary type

87
Ref: Shenoy, 3/E, p. 305
23. The most common cause of Sub Acute Bacterial
Endocarditis (SABE) after oral surgical procedure
is

27. Colour code of oxygen cylinder is

A. Streptococcus viridans

A. Black cylinder with white shoulder

B.

Streptococcus mutans

B.

Black cylinder with grey shoulder

C.

Staphylococcus aureus

C.

White cylinders with black shoulders

D. Staphylococcus albus

D. Grey cylinder with white shoulders

Ans: Streptococcus viridans

Answer: A. Black cylinder with white shoulder

Ref: Hutchisons Clinical Methods, 23/E, p. 124

Reference: Ajay Yadavs Short text on Anesthesia, 1/E,

p. 69

Explanation:

Explanation:
Streptococcus viridans is a source of infection
of the upper respiratory tract. Staphylococcus

Medical oxygen is stored in cylinders with

aureus although is primary organism for

black body and white shoulders at a pressure

causing infective endocarditis, the primary

of 2,000psi.

source is from skin.

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

Ans: A. Liquid + beta = alpha
Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 134
31. The angle between adhesive and adherent is zero

DENTAL MATERIALS
28. The diameter of sprue and subsurface porosity
will have

degree. It indicates
A. Complete wetting of the surfaces
B.

A. Direct relationship
Inverse relationship

C.

Inverse square relationship

C.

and

Irregularities present between the adherent

tangent to each other

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 320

Ans: A. Complete wetting of the surfaces

Explanation:
If the sprue former diameter is too small, this
area will solidify before the casting itself and
porosity

("suck-back"

porosity) may develop.

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 21

32. The half life of mercury in human body is
A. 55 days
B.

55 hours

Effects of Technical factors on the Porosity Resulting from

C.

55 weeks

Metal Solidification

D. 55 months

Type of Porosity

adhesive

D. The adherent and adhesive molecules are

Ans: A. Direct relationship

shrinkage

between

surfaces

D. No relationship at all

localized

surfaces

adherent

B.

Rough

Increase in sprue

Increase in sprue

thickness

length

Localized shrinkage

Reduced

Increased

Subsurface porosity

Increased

Reduced

Micro porosity

No effect

No effect

Increase in melt
Ans: A. 55 days
temperature

Increase in mold

temperature
Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E,
p. 166
Reduced
Reduced
Increased
Increased
33. False about dental stone
Reduced
Reduced
A. High strength low expansion dental stone
contains some additive to reduce expansion

29. False about casting gypsum bonded investment

B.

temperature of 110-120C in an open autoclave

material
C.

A. It is used for cast metal alloys

B.

50-65%

of

gypsum

changes

to

form

Dental stone is much harder and stronger than

beta-hemihydrate

hemihydrates
C.

Dental stone is manufactured by heating at

D. Microscopically it is seen as cleavage fragments

and crystals in the form of rods and prisms

The investment material is not heated above

7000C temperature

D. Heating above 7000C of investment causes

Ans: B. Dental stone is manufactured by heating at

formation of sulphur dioxide from copper

temperature of 110-120C in an open autoclave

sulphate

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 257

Ans: B. 50-65% of gypsum changes to form a

hemihydrate
Ref: Phillips, 11/E, pp. 296-297
30. Like the eutectic transformation, the peritectic
reaction is an invariant reaction (i.e., it occurs at a

34. --------------- is not a true wax

A. Paraffin
B.

Ozokerite

C.

Cocoa butter

D. Candela

particular composition and temperature). The

Ans: A. Paraffin

reaction can be written as

Ref: Mannapallil, 3/E, p. 230

A. Liquid + beta = alpha

B.

Liquid + beta = Liquid + alpha

C.

Liquid = alpha solid solution + beta solid

solution

D. Alfa + beta = liquid

35. The force applied during condensation of

amalgam having condenser measuring 2 mm in
diameter is

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

A. 3-4 lb

D. Interglobular dentin

B.

8-17 lb

C.

10-15 lb
Answer: D. Interglobular dentin

D. 7-12 lb

Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 93

Ans: A. 3-4 lb
Res: Phillips, 11/E, p. 529

Explanation:

Interglobular dentin is formed due to failure of

coalescence of globular masses. It is the defect
in mineralization but not in matrix formation.

DADH
36. Taste Bud are absent in -------------

39. The straw colour proteinaceous fluid present in

A. Circumvallate papillae
B.

Filiform papillae

OKC contains

C.

Fungiform papillae

A. Less than 3.5 gm/dl

D. Folate papillae

B.

More than 3.5 gm/dl

C.

Less than3.5 mg/dl

D. More than3.5 mg/dl

Answer: B. Filiform papillae
Answer: A. Less than 3.5 gm/dl
Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 237
Reference: Shears Cysts of Oral Region, 4/E, p. 32

Explanation:

Dorsal surface of the tongue consists of

numerous papillae like filiform, fungiform,
foliate and circumvallate papillae. Amongst

Explanation:

Fluids from keratinizing cysts had soluble

protein levels below 3.5g per 100mL (mean 2.2g

these filiform papillae do not contain taste

per 100mL), whereas the values for non-

where as fungiform contains 1-3, and circum

keratinizing cysts were in the range 5.011.0g

vallate papillae contains numerous taste buds.

per 100mL with a mean of 7.1g per 100mL.

40. An oral cancer represented as T3 N2 M0. This

ORAL PATHOLOGY & ORAL MEDICINE

37. The characteristic Multiple punch out lesion

tumor is classified as
A. Stage I

is seen in

B.

Stage II

A. Multiple myeloma

C.

Stage III

B.

Hyperparathyroidism

D. Stage IV

C.

Fibrous dysplasia

Answer: D. Stage IV

D. Osteosarcoma

Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 108

Answer: A. Multiple myeloma

Explanation:

Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 184

Explanation:

Radiographic evaluation of multiple myeloma

shows sharply punched out areas in a variety

5 year

Stage

TNM Classification

Stage I

T1 N0 M0

85%

Stage II

T2 N0 M0

66%

survival rate

of bones. The size may vary from mm to cm or

more without any peripheral bone reaction.
38. The

disturbances

occurred

Calcification of tooth manifests as

A. Peg laterals
B.

Microdontia

C.

Supernumerary tooth

Stage III

during

T3 N0 M0
T1,T2, T3 with N1 M0

41%

Any T4 lesion
Stage IV

Any N2 or N3 lesion
Any M1 lesion

9%

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

41. --------------- do not cause endogenous staining of
teeth during development

Reference: Proffits Contemporary Orthodontics, 4/E,

pp. 410, 620

A. Tetracycline
45. The

B.

Rh incompatibility

C.

Neonatal lever disease

percentage

of

enlargement

in

cephalogram is
A. 1-2%

D. Vitamin C deficiency
Answer: C. Vitamin C deficiency

B.

6-7%

C.

7-12%

D. 14-16

Reference: Neville, 3/E, p. 826

Explanation:

normal

Answer: C. 7-12%

Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy. The oral

manifestations include generalized gingival

Reference: Grabers Orthodontics, Current Principles &

swelling

Techniques, 3/E, p.370

with

ulceration,

tooth

spontaneous
mobility

hemorrhage,
and

severe

periodontitis.

46. The buccal coil spring is used to regain the space

present between first premolar and first molar.
What is most common complication after

42. The most common site of oral cancer among

treatment

Indian population is

A. Intrusion of molar

A. Tongue

B.

Rotation of first premolar

B.

Floor of mouth

C.

Rotation of first molar

C.

Alveo buccal complex

D. Crowding of anterior teeth

D. Lip
Ans: B. Rotation of first premolar (Repeat of Q. No. 64,
Ans: A. Tongue

May 2005)

Ref: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 102

47. Speech problems associated with removable

orthodontic appliances is
A. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for
a few days

ORAL RADIOLOGY
43. The distance used between mid sagittal plane

B.

Difficulty with lingual vowel for few days

C.

Difficulty with both linguoalveolar consonants

and lingual vowel for several weeks

and the target during cephalometric radiography

D. No difficulty found at all

is
A. Four feet
B.

Five feet

Answer: A. Difficulty with linguo-vowel consonants for

C.

Six feet

few days (Repeat of Q. No. 55, May 2005)

D. Seven feet
48. The arch space for eruption of permanent second
Answer: B. Five feet (Repeat of Q. No. 49, November 2005)

and third molar is made by

A. Apposition of alveolar process

ORTHODONTICS

B.

Resorption of posterior border of ramus

C.

Resorption of anterior border of ramus

D. Apposition of lower body of mandible

44. In edgewise appliance, rectangular wire used is

primarily meant for
A. Correction of crown root position

Answer: C. Resorption of anterior border of ramus

B.

Increasing the strength of wire

(Repeat of Q. No. 53, May 2005)

C.

Correction of Arch-length deficiency

D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

49. Super imposition in cephalometric studies is done
Answer: A. Correction of crown root position

from

registration

demonstrates

point,

which

best

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

A. Growth of structure farthest from point
B.

Growth of structure nearest to point

C.

Growth at that point

Explanation:

Vomiting and loose stools can cause severe

water

D. All of the above

loss

and

hypovolemia.

Effects

of

hypovolemia can be exaggerated in children.

IV fluids are the fastest means to restore
A. Growth of structure farthest from point (Repeat of Q.

volume.

No. 56, November 2005)

53. The pulp of first primary molar contains
A. Four pulp horn and three root canals
50. The ANB angle of a patient is 2 degree, It

B.

Three pulp horn and three root canals

indicates

C.

Two pulp horn and two root canals

A. It is normal angle and represents relationship

D. Two pulp horn and three root canals

of alveolar process of maxilla to alveolar

process of mandible
B.
C.

Answer: A. Four pulp horn and three root canals

Normal angle which represents relationship of

mandible to cranium

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 414

Normal angle which represents relationship of

Explanation:

maxilla to cranium

D. Represents the length of cranial base

Maxillary First Molar: 3 canals corresponding to

the exterior root form. It may range from 2-4
canals.

Answer:

A.

It is normal angle and

represents

Mandibular First Molars: 3 canals corresponding

relationship of alveolar process of maxilla to alveolar

to the external root anatomy but may have 2-4

process of mandible (Repeat of Q. No. 57, May 2005)

canals.75% of the cases will have 2 canals in the

mesial roots.

51. In cephalometric analysis, growth changes are

54. A dentist did restorative procedure in an 11-year-

evaluated by superimposing on which plane

old child and found the primary molar are in

A. Sella- Nasion plane

various stages of exfoliation and there is slight

B.

Mandibular plane

anterior crowding present between the anterior

C.

F-H plane

teeth.

D. Occlusal plane

The

dentist

should

give

his

next

appointment
A. After three months for observation
B.

After six months for recall check up

Answer: A. Sella-Nasion plane (Repeat of Q. No. 59,

C.

After one year

November 2005)

D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt

Answer: A. After three months for observation
PEDODONTICS

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, pp. 473, 474

52. A 5-year-old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24

hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is
irritable but drinking fluids. The optional

Explanation:

Frequent observation is required during the

therapy for this child is

transitional period to check for arch length

A. Intravenous fluids

space discrepancy.

B.

Oral rehydration therapy

C.

Intravenous

fluid

initially

for

the exchange of primary molars with the use of

hours

followed by oral fluids

D. Plain water and lime

Mild anterior crowding can get resolved with

leeway space of Nance.

The other modes of treatment of lower anterior

crowding

Answer: A. Intravenous fluids

Reference: Tony Waterston's Pediatrics A Core Text on
Child Health, 2/E, p. 54

include

disking

extracting teeth and referral.

primary

teeth,

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

55. While fabricating bilateral distal show appliance

58. The

denominator

for

calculating

for maintaining space lost by primary molar, the

predictive value of screening test is

first factor considered is

A. True positives + False negatives

A. Tooth anatomy

B.

False positives + True negatives

B.

Load of distribution

C.

True positives + False positives

C.

Flexibility of wire

positive

D. True positives + True negatives

D. Space present posterior to permanent first

Answer: C. True positives + False positives

molar
Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 129
Answer: B. Load of distribution
Explanation:
Reference: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 632

Positive predictive value = True positive/True

positive+ False negative. It indicates the

56. The stainless steel crown is invented by

probability that a patient with a positive test

A. Humphrey

result has in fact the disease in question. It is

B.

Willet

expressed in terms of percentage

C.

Cvek

D. Addlesson

As the prevalence of the disease increases in a

population, the more accurate will be the
positive predictive value and the accuracy

Answer: A. Humphrey

decreases

decreasing

prevalence

of

disease.

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 359

Explanation:

with

59. Correct

order

in

water

fluoridation

of

Stainless steel crown is a semi-permanent

community is

restoration

young

A. Decayed tooth, central water supply agency,

permanent teeth. It was introduced as chrome-

fluoride concentration in water and community

used

in

primary

and

applicant

steel crown by Humphrey in 1950.

B.

Decayed tooth, fluoride concentration in water,

central water supply agency and community

57. The Buckleys solution is composed of

A. Cresol, formaldehyde, water and glycerin
B.

Formaldehyde, resorcinol, water

C.

Iodoform, Glutaraldehyde, ZOE

D. Chloraldehyde, parachloral, methanol water

applicant
C.

Community applicant, decayed tooth, central

water

supply

agency

and

fluoride

concentration in water
D. Central water supply agency, decayed tooth,
community

applicant

and

fluoride

concentration in water

Answer: A. Cresol, formaldehyde, water and glycerin

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 405

Answer: B. Decayed tooth, fluoride concentration in

Explanation:

water, central water supply agency and community

applicant
Formocresol is a solution of 19% formaldehyde,
35% cresol in a vehicle of 15% glycerin and

Reference: Mason's Concepts in Dental Public Health,

water. To prepare a 1:5 concentration of this

1/E, p. 126

formula thoroughly mix 3 parts of glycerin

with 1 part of distilled water , then add 4 parts
of this preparation to 1

part Buckleys

formocresol and mix again.

Explanation:

Prior to Water fluoridation it is essential to

know the caries burden in the community and
to assess the fluoride concentration in the water
in that locality. Following this, if there is a
central

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

water

supply

agency,

fluoridation is carried out.

60. Most cariogenic sugar in the human diet is

water

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

A. Sucrose

A. Adequate supply

of safe water and basic

B.

Fructose

C.

Lactose

B.

sanitation
Providing essential drugs

D. Glucose

C.

Sound referral system

D. Health education
Answer: A. Sucrose
Answer: C. Sound referral system
Reference: Soben Peter, 4/E, p. 97
Explanation:

Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 129

The classical Turku Sugar study has concluded

the following:

Sucrose is the most cariogenic sugar

Explanation:

The concept of primary health care was put

followed by fructose

forward in 1978 at Alma Ata in former USSR.

Xylitol is non-cariogenic or even anti-

The 8 elements of primary health care includes

cariogenic.

health education, promotion of food supply

and nutrition, adequate supply of safe water,
maternal and child health care, immunization

61. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of

against infectious diseases, prevention and

A. Casual relationship between exposure and

effect

control of endemic diseases, treatment of

B.

Associated between two variables

common diseases and lastly provision of

C.

Correlation between two variables

essential drugs.

D. Agreement between two observations

64. Sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing
Answer: B. Associated between two variables

A. Criterion validity
B.

Construct validity

Reference: NSN Raos Applied Statistics, 1/E, p. 132

C.

Discriminate validity

Explanation:

D. Content validity

Chi square test was introduced by Karl

Answer: C. Discriminative validity

Pearson. It is used to study the association

between two variables that is measured in

Ref: Rothman's Modern Epidemiology,3/E, p. 357

terms of attributes or qualities.

Explanation:
62. The non-cariogenic substitute is

A. Lactose
B.

Glucose

C.

Cooked starch

method. Validity refers to the ability of a test to

measure what it is supposed to measure.

D. Sorbitol

Norman

Content validity: the extent to which the tool

incorporates the domain of interest

Answer: D. Sorbitol
Reference:

The answer can be obtained by elimination

Construct

validity:

measurement
Harris

Primary

Preventive

Dentistry, 6/E, p. 409

extent

corresponds

to

which

to

the

theoretical

concept related to domain of study

Criteria validity: extent to which the tool

correlates with another external criterion of

Explanation:

phenomenon under study.

Polyols such as mannitol, sorbitol and xylitol

are not sugars in strict sense but are actually

65. Best

distribution

of

dental

caries

in

the

sugar alcohols. Sorbitol is used in sugar free

community is given by

gum and is claimed to be non-cariogenic. The

A. Descriptive and analytical study

pH rarely falls below 5.7 after chewing sorbitol.

B.

Descriptive and experimental study

However, S. mutans can metabolize sorbitol.

C.

Descriptive, analytical and experimental study

D. Analytical and experimental study

63. Not an element of primary health care
Answer: A. Descriptive and analytical study

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 59

68. Primordial prevention is used to

Explanation:

A. Prevent development of risk factor in the

community

The distribution
described

of any disease is best

descriptive

epidemiology.

Analytical epidemiology helps to elicit those

B.

Prevent the transmission of diseases

C.

Prevent the development of diseases

D. To establish the diagnosis and treatment of

factors that are associated with the disease

disease

while experimental epidemiology helps to

prove a hypothesis.

Answer: A. Prevent development of risk factor in the

Based on method of elimination, the best

community

option is A.
Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 39
66. A measure of location which divides the
distribution in the ration of 3:1

Explanation:

A. Median
B.

First quartile

C.

Third quartile

Primordial prevention Prevention in its

purest sense; it is prevention of emergence of

D. Mode

risk factors in countries or population in which

they have not occurred. It is done through

Answer: C. Third quartile

individual

and

mass

education.

E.g.:

Reference: Mahajans Methods in Biostatistics, 7/E, p.

Discouraging children from adopting harmful

59

lifestyle.

Explanation:

PROSTHODONTICS
Quartiles divide the distribution in four equal

69. During smile a pleasure curve is formed. How

parts. The first quartile divides in the ratio of

much percentage of mesial surfaces of teeth is

1:3; the second quartile coincides with the

visible during smiling or Golden Esthetic Rule

median and it divides the distribution into 2:2

is

ratio. The third quartile divides the distribution

A. 50%

in the ratio of 3:1

B.

60%

C.

70%

67. The age of the child used in the determination of

D. 80%

child mortality rate is

A. 0-5 years
B.

1-4 years

C.

5-8 years

D. 0-1 years
Answer: B. 1-4 years
Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 25

Answer: B. 60%
Reference: Rosenstiel, 3/E, p. 729

70. In FPD, its better for posterior pontic to avoid

contacts in
A. Working side contacts

Explanation:

Child mortality rate: number of death at age 1

B.

Balancing side contacts

C.

Side to side contacts

D. Centric occlusion

to 4 years per 1000 children in that age group at

the mid-point of the year

Infant mortality rate: ratio of deaths under one

Answer: B. Balancing side contacts

year of age in a given year to the total number

of live births in the same year.

Under 5 mortality rate: proportion of total

deaths occurring in the under 5 age group

Reference: Rosenstiel, 3/E, p. 123

Explanation:

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

Balancing side contacts are detrimental to the

The modified ridge lap combines the best

natural dentition.

features of the hygienic and saddle pontic

designs,

71. The relationship of the denture base that resist

combining

esthetics

with

easy

cleaning.

dislodgement of denture in horizontal direction

is

74. The most suitable margin design for all ceramic

A. Stability

restoration is

B.

Pressure

A. Shoulder

C.

Support

B.

Chamfer

C.

Shoulder with bevel

D. Retention

D. Depends upon operators choice

Answer: A. Stability
Answer: A. Shoulder
Reference: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 64
Reference: Rosenstiel, 3/E, p. 326
72. Relining of complete denture is contraindicated
when
A. Denture contains broken teeth
B.

There is excessive resorption of the ridge

C.

Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and

PERIODONTICS

had to be changed
D. Centric relation does not coincide with centric
occlusion

75. The local drug delivery system ELYZOL

contains
A. Metronidazole

Answer: B. There is excessive resorption of the ridge

B.

Penicillin

C.

Sanguinarine

D. Tetracycline
Reference: Winklers, 2/E, p. 342

Answer: A. Metronidazole (Repeat of Q. No. 76,

May 2005)

Explanation:

Though the options are very close, we would

go with the second option because that is the
primary containdication listed. And, vertical
dimension can be reduced because of attrition
of teeth and we can use the existing denture as
the record base for setting new teeth. Centric
occlusion and centric relation might not

76. The first instrument used on the facial surfaces of

gingival while gingivectomy is
A. Orbans knife
B.

Kirklands knife

C.

BP blade with No. 11 blade

D. BP blade with No. 12 blade

coincide as a sequelae of excessive resorption

and unstable base.
73. The pontic design of choice in the aesthetic zone

Answer: B. Kirklands knife

Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 750

of maxillary and mandibular bridge is

A. Hygienic
B.

Modified Ridge Lap

C.

Saddle

D. Conical

Explanation:

The Kirkland knife is representative of knives

commonly

used

for

gingivectomy.

These

knives can be obtained as either double-ended

or

single-ended

instruments.

The

entire

periphery of these kidney-shaped knives is the

Answer: B. Modified Ridge lap

cutting edge.

Reference: Rosenstiel, 3/E, pp. 627-628

Explanation:

77. Ig present in higher concentration in GCF is

A. IgA

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

B.

IgG

C.

Platelet disorder

C.

IgE

D. Deficiency of clotting factor

D. IgM
Answer: C. Platelet disorder
Answer: B. IgG

Reference: Carranza 9/E, p. 545

Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 260

Explanation:

Explanation:

Since

IgG

subclasses

immunoglobulins

are

common

associated

with

planing) should be performed and thorough

the

oral hygiene instructions given if the patient's

periodontium and have different biological

characteristics, these subclasses were measured

Periodontal debridement (scaling and root

condition allows.

Twice-daily rinsing with 0.12% chlorhexidine

in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF). GCF IgG4

gluconate is recommended after oral hygiene

concentrations may be useful as an indicator of

procedures.

the immunopathological changes which occur

bleeding

in active periodontitis.

pressure and topical haemostatic agents as

Recognize

due

to

the

potential

thrombocytopenia.

for
Use

indicated.
78. -------------------- is used as a biodegradable
membrane in GTR

81. Trauma from occlusion causes

A. Polylactic acid

A. Periodontitis

B.

Poly tetrafluoroethylene

B.

Gingivitis

C.

Millipore

C.

Periodontal pocket

D. Core membrane

D. Widening of periodontal ligament

Answer: A. Polylactic acid

Answer: D. Widening of periodontal

Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 809

ligament
Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 374

Explanation:

Clinical studies with a mixture of copolymers

derived

from

tributylcitrate

polylactic
resorbable

acid

and

membranes

acetyl

Explanation:

This result in a thickened and widened

have

periodontal ligament, which is funnel shaped

shown significant gains in clinical attachment

at the crest, and angular defects in the bone,

and bone fill.

with no pocket formation. The involved teeth

become loose." Increased vascularization has

79. Oral prophylaxis is contraindicated in

also been reported

A. Prepubertal gingivitis
B.

Pregnancy gingivitis

C.

Ulcerative refractory gingivitis

D. Leukemic gingivitis

CONS & ENDO

82. Difference between physical characteristic of

Answer: D. leukemic gingivitis

reamers and files is

Reference: Carranza, 10/E, p. 294

A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files

Explanation:

Altered periodontal treatment for patients with

re triangular in cross-section
B.

leukemia is based on such patients' enhanced

The number of flutes on the blade are more in

files than in reamers

susceptibility to infections, bleeding tendency,

C.

and the effects of chemotherapy.

D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce

The reamers have more flutes in the blade

flutes in a double helix design

80. Gingival bleeding in leukemic patient occurs

during oral prophylaxis due to
A. Increased leukocytes count
B.

Increased ca++ level i blood

Ans: B. The number of flutes on the blade are more in

files than in reamers
Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 816

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2006 (May)

Explanation:

Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 1422

Comparison between Reamers and Files

ORAL SURGERY
1.

M a d e o f sta inless
steel.

2.

1.

U sed
with
p u sh
m o tio n a nd ro ta tio n

M a d e o f sta inless
steel.

2.

U sed w ith p ull o r

H a s less n um b er o f
flu tes.

3.

H a s m o re
o f flu tes.

4.

Flutes a re lo o sely
twisted .

4.

Flutes a re tig htly

twisted .

5.

M a nu fa ctu red fro m

tria ng u la r b la nks.

5.

M a nu fa ctu red fro m

sq u a re b la nks.

Oximetry

is

used

n um b er

Oxygen saturation
Blood volume

in

the

D. Blood coefficient
Ans: B. Oxygen saturation
Ref:

Khandpurs

Handbook

of

Biomedical

Instrumentation, 2/E, p. 318

84. The pin used in restoration of a root canal treated

tooth is
A. Self thread pin
B.

Cemented pin

C.

Frictional pin

D. Any of the above

Ans: B. Cemented pin
Ref: Sikhri, 2/E, p. 325

85. The KRI paste is composed of

A. Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and
menthol
B.

Iodoform and ZOE

C.

Parachlorophenol; camphor and menthol

D. Calcium hydroxide and Iodoform

Ans: A. Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and

menthol

correct

level

B.

Verrills sign

C.

Bells sign

D. Cormans sign

Ref: Moores Principles of Oral Surgery, 3/E, p. 44

A. Rate of flow
C.

the

Ans: B. Verrills sign

determination of
B.

indicating

A. Tinels sign

ra sp in g m o tio n.

3.

Pulse

vision,

Diazepam sedation is indicated by

q u a rter to h a lf tu rn.

83. The

86. Slurring of speech, 30% eyelid ptosis, blurring of

after