Solutions for Assignment 2

prepared by Jordi
Exercise 1 (1.3.1). Show that the the tangent lines to the regular parametrised
curve
~ (t) = (3t, 3t2 , 2t3 ) make a constant angle with the line y = 0, z = x.
A quick differentiation and normalisation yields that the unit tangent vector
to
~ is given by
(1, 2t, 2t2 )
T~1 (t) =
,
1 + 2t2
and that a corresponding tangent vector for the line ~l(t) = (t, 0, t) is
(1, 0, 1)
.
T~2 (t) =
2
It suffices to show that the dot product of these two vectors is constant, since
for unit vectors ~u, ~v we have ~u ~v = cos , where is the angle between them.
Thus,
1
T~1 T~2 = ,
2
and the angle is constantly equal to /4.
Exercise 2 (1.3.6). Let
~ (t) = (aebt cos t, aebt sin t), t R, a and b constants
with a > 0, b < 0 be a parametrised curve. Show that as t ,
~ (t) approaches
the origin, spiralling around it, and that
Z
|~
0 (t)|dt
t0

is finite.
The first part of this question is phrased very loosely, so just about any explanation here suffices to show that the curve asymptotically goes to the origin
spiralling around it. Merely note that as t , the distance from the origin
(the radius) of
~ diminishes exponentially, and that it spins counterclockwise
like a circle in virtue of the two trigonometric functions involved.
The second part of this question is slightly more interesting. It is not difficult
to compute the actual value of the above improper Riemann integral, which will
be finite. Begin by calculating
p
|~
0 (t)| = aebt 1 + b2 ,

and proceed to integrate:

Z
Z
|~
0 (t)|dt =

p
1 + b2 du
t0
Z
p
=a 1 + b2
ebu du
t0

ap


=
1 + b2 ebu 
b
t0
ap
bt
=
1 + b2 e 0
b

t0

aebu

since b < 0.

Note also that this value is positive, since b is negative.

Exercise 3 (1.3.10). Let
~ : I R3 be a parametrised curve. Let [a, b] I,
and set
~ (a) = p,
~ (b) = q. Show that for any constant unit vector v
Z
(q p) v =

~ 0 (t) v dt

|~
0 (t)| dt,

(1)

so that upon setting

v=

qp
,
|q p|

it will follow that

Z
|~
(b)
~ (a)|

|~
0 (t)| dt.

To prove the first equality in (1), note that by differentiation of the dot product
d

~ v =
~ 0 (t) v,
dt
and the result follows by the fundamental theorem of calculus.
As for the inequality in (1), simply use the Cauchy-Schwarz-Buniakowski
inequality a b |a| |b| and the monotonicity of the Riemann integral: f g
Rb
Rb
implies that a f (x)dx a g(x)dx.
The last statement holds because (q p) (q p) = |q p|2 and because
p=
~ (a), q =
~ (b).
Exercise 4 (1.4.13). Let ~u, ~v : [a, b] R3 be differentiable maps whose derivatives satisfy
~u0 =a~u + b~v
~v 0 =c~u a~v
for real constants a, b, c. Show that u v is constant.

The easiest way to do this is to use the bilinear properties of the wedge
product to show that (~u ~v )0 is zero.
(~u ~v )0 =~u0 ~v + ~u ~v 0
=(a~u + b~v ) ~v + ~u (c~u a~v )
=a(~u ~v ) a(~u ~v )y
=0

(bilinearity and ~a ~a = 0)