Internets initial development was supported by

1. ARPANET
2. Bill Rogers
3. Bill Gates
4. Microsoft
World Wide Web was proposed by
1. Bill Gates
2. ARPANET
3. Tim Berners-Lee
4. Bill Rogers
What are the uses of the Internet?
1. Communication
2. Information Retrieval
3. Presentation of Information
4. All of the above
.net domain is used for
1. educational institution
2. Internet infrastructure and service providers
3. International organizations
4. None Of the above
What is the full form of URL?
1. Uniform Resource Library
2. Uniform Resource Locators
3. United Resource Library
4. United Resource Locators
Benefits of Email are?
1. Speed
2. Cost

3. Record keeping
4. All of the above
WWW provides standardized access to
1. GOPHER
2. TELNET
3. FTP
4. All of the above
Which of these are not a internet browser?
1. Netscape Navigator
2. Chrome
3. Drupal
4. Opera
What should be minimum requirement of random access memory (RAM) for
internet access?
1. 8 MB
2. 16 MB
3. 32 MB
4. 64 MB
A modem is not needed when accessing the Internet through
1. LAN
2. Wi Fi
3. Cable
4. None Of the above
In order to use cable for browsing web you will need :
1. A cable modem
2. Network Interface Card (NIC)
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None Of the above
ADSL gives
1. faster downloading speeds (receiving) than uploading speeds (sending).
2. slower downloading speeds (receiving) than uploading speeds (sending).

3. same downloading speeds (receiving) as uploading speeds (sending).

4. None Of the above
What is the minimum bandwidth required for broadband connection?
1. 128 kbps
2. 256 kbps
3. 512 kbps
4. 2048 kbps
The limit for ADSL service is
1. 8,000 feet
2. 10,000 feet
3. 18,000 feet
4. 20,000 feet
Which of these is a variation of ADSL, but the modem can adjust the speed of the
connection depending on the length and quality of the line.
1. VDSL
2. SDSL
3. RADSL
4. All of the above
In cable modem internet access, cable modem termination system (CMTS) is at
1. cable providers end
2. customer end
3. Not required
4. Both 1 & 2
Voice over IP (Voice over Internet Protocol or "VoIP") technology converts voice
calls from
1. analog to digital
2. digital to analog
3. It depends
4. None of the above
What is the domain used for non-profitable organizations
1. .gov
2. .org

3. .net
4. .in
Today all modems are made in which technology
1. X2
2. KFlex
3. V.90
4. None of the above
What is the full form of http?
1. HyperText Transmission Protocol
2. HyperText Transfer Protocol
3. HyperTerminal Transport Protocol
4. HyperTerminal Transfer Protocol
IRC stands for
1. Internet Related Chat
2. Internet Relay Chat
3. Internet Related Content
4. None of the above
Which of these are Types of Internet connections
1. SLIP
2. DIAS
3. PPP
4. All of the above
Which of these are disadvantage of DSL connection?
1. The speed is much higher than a regular modem
2. You can leave your Internet connection open and still use the phone line
for voice calls.
3. A DSL connection works better when you are closer to the providers
central office.
4. 3. DSL doesnt necessarily require new wiring; it can use the phone line
you already have.
A new solution USB allows a user to install up to how many devices on the
computer

1. 64
2. 127
3. 128
4. 256
In general, any connection to the customer of how much bandwidth is considered
broadband Internet.
1. 56 kbps
2. 64 kbps
3. 128 kbps
4. 256 kbps
What is teh full form of ADSL
1. asymmetric digital subscriber line
2. asymmetric data subscriber line
3. asymmetric digital subscriber loop
4. asymmetric data subscriber loop
System of embedding links in a text to link to other text?
1. Embedded Linking
2. HTM
3. HTTP
4. None of the above
Cable modem is capable of delivering up to
1. 56 kbps
2. 256 kbps
3. 2 mbps
4. 30-40mbps
DSLAM stands for
1. DSL access multiplexer
2. DSL asymmetric multiplexer
3. DSL asynchronous multiplexer
4. None of the above
What is needed to have an access to broadband?
1. Modem

2. Keyboard
3. Mouse
4. None of the above
The DSLAMs are connected to the
1. Tier 1 Switches
2. Tier 2 Switches
3. Tier 3 Switches
4. None of the above
Tier1 Switch is connected to
1. DSLAM
2. BRAS
3. NIB
4. NOC
"Broadband Remote Access Server": (BBRAS
Maximum frequency range of a copper pair is in
1. Kilo Hertz
2. Mega Hertz
3. Giga Hertz
4. Terra Hertz
DSLAM refers to
1. DSL Authentication Multiplexer
2. DSL Application Multiplexer
3. DSL Access Multiplexer
4. None of the above
What is common between X.25 Packet switching and Fast Packet Switching
1. In both of them bandwidth is used only when there is something to
transmit
2. Both supports high speed data (T1 speed and up)
3. Both supports sharing of the same channel to carry voice , data and video
4. In both of them transmit delays are low enough to handle voice traffic
ATM is
1. a frame relay implementation

2. a cell relay implementation

3. a circuit switch implementation
4. a packet switch implementation
Which one is true about ATM and Packet Switching
1. Both ATM and Packet Switching have relatively small size cells
2. Packet Switching has no windowing while ATM has
3. Both have fixed length cells
4. ATM has no error detection on data while Packet Switching has
The difference between X.25 and frame relay is
1. only frame relay is connection-oriented
2. only frame relay has error control
3. only X.25 is reliable
4. only X.25 is virtual circuit
The difference between ATM and frame relay is
1. only ATM is virtual circuit
2. only frame relay has error control
3. only frame relay is connection-oriented
4. only ATM is unreliable
The difference between ATM and X.25 is
1. only ATM is connection-oriented
2. only X.25 has error control
3. only X.25 is virtual circuit
4. only ATM is reliable
Two networks can
1. have hosts with the same host id
2. have the same net id
3. have the same prefix in their IP address
4. not have the same suffix in their hosts IP addresses
In ARP
1. Both request and response are broadcast
2. The response is broadcast
3. The request is point to point

4. The request is broadcast

ATM is well suited for
1. voice, interactive data and video transfer
2. interactive data transfer but not for voice transfer
3. voice and video transfer only
4. voice and interactive data transfer only
Routing is the responsibility of
1. The data link layer
2. The network layer
3. The physical layer
4. The transport layer
Bridges can not be the solution to
1. Limited distance
2. Limited traffic
3. Limited number of stations
4. Packet redundancy
The event that will not cause recalculation of the distance vector is
1. discovery of a long path to a new destination
2. discovery that a link to a neighbour has gone down
3. receive a shorter path to an existing destination
4. discovery of a longer path to an existing destination
BOOTP is a possible solution to the problem
1. Host IP address must be changed if he moves from one network to
another
2. The limited address space
3. All hosts addresses must be changed if class B networks grows too large
4. All hosts addresses must be changed at least once a year
Which one of the media types is Multi - Drop
1. Unshielded Twisted Pairs
2. Thick Coaxial cable
3. Fiber Optic cable
4. Shielded Twisted Pairs

While routing
1. destination physical address changes every hop
2. destination physical and IP addresses changes every hop
3. source IP address changes every hop
4. destination IP address changes every hop
ICMP
1. messages are encapsulated in an IP header
2. reports only on errors and problems
3. is integral part of TCP
4. is integral part of UDP
Domain Name System
1. tries to resolve names with root name servers first
2. can be used in local environments
3. provides mapping from Human-readable names to MAC addresses
4. each root name server who can?t resolve the name sends the request to
the hierarchically upper server
which of the following is not provided by DHCP
1. IP address
2. ARP tables
3. subnet mask
4. DNS server address
RIP was popular because
1. intended for use on large, long-haul networks
2. has unbounded number of hops
3. it was distributed with Berkeley UNIX
4. RFC finally appeared in 1998
RIP
1. requires more memory than OSPF
2. provides load balancing
3. is implemented less than OSPF
4. has an advantage in a small network
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

1. does not have type of service

2. does not have authentication
3. does not provide load balancing
4. is not better than RIP in small networks
Question was not answered
RIP has advantage over OSPF in the following issue
1. bandwidth
2. type of service
3. memory
4. speed of convergence
Question was not answered
OSPF has advantage over RIP in the following issue
1. computation
2. load splitting
3. memory
4. bandwidth
Question was not answered
SNMP is not used to
1. report extraordinary events
2. retrieve specific management information
3. transfer mail through the network
4. manipulated management information
Question was not answered
IP provides
1. connection establishment and termination
2. network management
3. flow control
4. network access
.
What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an
operating system or computer hardware failure?
A. Application failure
B. Instance Failure

C. Media Failure
D. Rollback failure
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum

2.

Which statement about sequences is not true?

A sequence is an object that generates a sequential series of unique
A.
numbers.
Sequences are most often used to provide values for surrogate
B.
keys.
C. NextVal and CurrVal are both sequence methods.
D. Sequences guarantee valid surrogate key values.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum

3.

Which prefixes are available to Oracle triggers?

A. :new only
B. :old only
C. Both :new and :old
D. Neither :new nor :old
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.

View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum

4.

In creating a procedure, you may get a message if you have

compile errors. Which of the following is true?
The line numbers reported match the line numbers you see in your
A.
text editor.
B. SQL*Plus will automatically show the errors to you.
C. To see the errors, enter SHOW ERRORS in SQL*Plus.
If there are no syntax errors, you will receive the message "NO
D.
ERRORS."
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum

5.

Which of the following is not true about indexes?

A. Indexes are created to enforce uniqueness on columns.
B. Indexes are created to enable fast retrieval by column values.
Columns that are frequently used with equal conditions in WHERE
C.
clauses are good candidates for indexes.
D. Indexes are created with the ALTER TABLE command.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
. SNAPSHOT is used for [DBA]
a. Synonym, b. Table space, c System server, d Dynamic data replication
Ans : D

2. We can create SNAPSHOTLOG for[DBA]

a. Simple snapshots, b. Complex snapshots, c. Both A & B, d Neither A nor
B
Ans : A
3. Transactions per rollback segment is derived from[DBA]
a. Db_Block_Buffers, b. Processes, c. Shared_Pool_Size, d. None of the
above
Ans : B
4. ENQUEUE resources parameter information is derived from[DBA]
a. Processes or DDL_LOCKS and DML_LOCKS, b. LOG_BUFFER,
c. DB__BLOCK_SIZE..
Ans : A
5. LGWR process writes information into
a Database files, b Control files, c Redolog files, d All the above.
Ans : C
6. SET TRANSACTION USE ROLLBACK SEGMENT is used to create
user
objects in a particular Tablespace
a True, b False
Ans : False
7. Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called
a Redolog file, b Data file, c Control file, d All of the above.
Ans : C
8. These following parameters are optional in init.ora parameter file
DB_BLOCK_SIZE, PROCESSES

a True, b False
Ans : False
9. Constraints cannot be exported through EXPORT command
a True, b False
Ans : False
10. It is very difficult to grant and manage common privileges needed by
different groups of database users
using the roles
a True, b False
Ans : False
11. What is difference between a DIALOG WINDOW and a DOCUMENT
WINDOW regarding
moving the window with respect to the application window
a Both windows behave the same way as far as moving the window is
concerned.
b A document window can be moved outside the application window while
a dialog window
cannot be moved
c A dialog window can be moved outside the application window while a
document window
cannot be moved
Ans : C
12 . What is the difference between a MESSAGEBOX and an ALERT
a A messagebox can be used only by the system and cannot be used in user
application while an
alert can be used in user application also.
b A alert can be used only by the system and cannot be use din user
application while an messagebox
can be used in user application also.
c An alert requires an response from the userwhile a messagebox just

flashes a message
and only requires an acknowledment from the user
d An message box requires an response from the userwhile a alert just
flashes a message an only
requires an acknowledment from the user
Ans : C
13. Which of the following is not an reason for the fact that most of the
processing is done at the server ?
a To reduce network traffic. b For application sharing, c To implement
business rules centrally,
d None of the above
Ans : D
14. Can a DIALOG WINDOW have scroll bar attached to it ?
a Yes, b No
Ans : B
15. Which of the following is not an advantage of GUI systems ?
a. Intuitive and easy to use., b. GUI?s can display multiple applications in
multiple windows
c. GUI?s provide more user interface objects for a developer d. None of the
above
Ans
16. What is the difference between a LIST BOX and a COMBO BOX ?
a In the list box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a
combo box the user can

type in value which is not in the list

b A list box is a data entry area while a combo box can be used only for
control purposes
c In a combo box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in
a list box the
user can type in a value which is not in the list
d None of the above
Ans : A
17. In a CLIENT/SERVER environment , which of the following would not
be done at the client ?
a User interface part, b Data validation at entry line,
c Responding to user events,
d None of the above
Ans : D
18. Why is it better to use an INTEGRITY CONSTRAINT to validate data
in a table than to use a STORED
PROCEDURE ?
a Because an integrity constraint is automatically checked while data is
inserted into or updated in a table
while a stored procedure has to be specifically invoked
b Because the stored procedure occupies more space in the database than a
integrity constraint definition
c Because a stored procedure creates more network traffic than a integrity
constraint definition
Ans : A
19. Which of the following is not an advantage of a client/server model ?

a. A client/server model allows centralised control of data and centralised

implementation of business rules.
b A client/server model increases developer;s productivity
c A client/server model is suitable for all applications
d None of the above.
Ans : C
20. What does DLL stands for ?
a Dynamic Language Library
b Dynamic Link Library
c Dynamic Load Library
d None of the above
Ans : B
21. POST-BLOCK trigger is a
a Navigational trigger
b Key trigger
c Transactional trigger
d None of the above
Ans : A
22. The system variable that records the select statement that SQL *
FORMS most recently used
to populate a block is
a SYSTEM.LAST_RECORD
b SYSTEM.CURSOR_RECORD
c SYSTEM.CURSOR_FIELD
d SYSTEM.LAST_QUERY
Ans : D

23. Which of the following is TRUE for the ENFORCE KEY field
a ENFORCE KEY field characterstic indicates the source of the value that
SQL*FORMS uses
to populate the field
b A field with the ENFORCE KEY characterstic should have the INPUT
ALLOWED
charaterstic turned off
a Only 1 is TRUE
b Only 2 is TRUE
c Both 1 and 2 are TRUE
d Both 1 and 2 are FALSE
Ans : A
24. What is the maximum size of the page ?
a Characters wide & 265 characters length
b Characters wide & 265 characters length
c Characters wide & 80 characters length
d None of the above
Ans : B
25. A FORM is madeup of which of the following objects
a block, fields only,
b blocks, fields, pages only,
c blocks, fields, pages, triggers and form level procedures,
d Only blocks.
Ans : C
26. For the following statements which is true
1 Page is an object owned by a form
2 Pages are a collection of display information such as constant text and
graphics.

a Only 1 is TRUE
b Only 2 is TRUE
c Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
d Both are FALSE
Ans : B
27. The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the
Database is
a Post
b Post form
c Commit form
d None of the above
Ans : C
28. Which of the following is TRUE for the SYSTEM VARIABLE $$date$
$
a Can be assigned to a global variable
b Can be assigned to any field only during design time
c Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time
d None of the above
Ans : B
9. Which of the following packaged procedure is UNRESTRICTED ?
a CALL_INPUT, b CLEAR_BLOCK, c EXECUTE_QUERY, d
USER_EXIT
Ans : D
30. Identify the RESTRICTED packaged procedure from the following
a USER_EXIT, b MESSAGE, c BREAK, d EXIT_FORM

Ans : D
31. What is SQL*FORMS
a SQL*FORMS is a 4GL tool for developing & executing Oracle based
interactive applications.
b SQL*FORMS is a 3GL tool for connecting to the Database.
c SQL*FORMS is a reporting tool
d None of the above.
Ans : A
32. Name the two files that are created when you generate a form using
Forms 3.0
a FMB & FMX, b FMR & FDX, c INP & FRM, d None of the above
Ans : C
33. What is a trigger
a A piece of logic written in PL/SQL
b Executed at the arrival of a SQL*FORMS event
c Both A & B
d None of the above
Ans : C
34. Which of the folowing is TRUE for a ERASE packaged procedure
1 ERASE removes an indicated Global variable & releases the memory
associated with it
2 ERASE is used to remove a field from a page
1 Only 1 is TRUE
2 Only 2 is TRUE
3 Both 1 & 2 are TRUE
4 Both 1 & 2 are FALSE
Ans : 1

35. All datafiles related to a Tablespace are removed when the Tablespace is
dropped
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
36. Size of Tablespace can be increased by
a Increasing the size of one of the Datafiles
b Adding one or more Datafiles
c Cannot be increased
d None of the above
Ans : B
37 . Multiple Tablespaces can share a single datafile
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
38 . A set of Dictionary tables are created
a Once for the Entire Database
b Every time a user is created
c Every time a Tablespace is created
d None of the above
Ans : A
39. Datadictionary can span across multiple Tablespaces
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B

40. What is a DATABLOCK

a Set of Extents
b Set of Segments
c Smallest Database storage unit
d None of the above
Ans : C
41. Can an Integrity Constraint be enforced on a table if some existing table
data does not satisfy the constraint
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
42. A column defined as PRIMARY KEY can have NULL?s
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
43. A Transaction ends
a Only when it is Committed
b Only when it is Rolledback
c When it is Committed or Rolledback
d None of the above
Ans : C
44. A Database Procedure is stored in the Database
a In compiled form
b As source code
c Both A & B
d Not stored

Ans : C
45. A database trigger doesnot apply to data loaded before the definition of
the trigger
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : A
46. Dedicated server configuration is
a One server process - Many user processes
b Many server processes - One user process
c One server process - One user process
d Many server processes - Many user processes
Ans : C
47. Which of the following does not affect the size of the SGA
a Database buffer
b Redolog buffer
c Stored procedure
d Shared pool
Ans : C
48. What does a COMMIT statement do to a CURSOR
a Open the Cursor
b Fetch the Cursor
c Close the Cursor
d None of the above
Ans : D
49. Which of the following is TRUE

1 Host variables are declared anywhere in the program

2 Host variables are declared in the DECLARE section
a Only 1 is TRUE
b Only 2 is TRUE
c Both 1 & 2are TRUE
d Both are FALSE
Ans : B
50. Which of the following is NOT VALID is PL/SQL
a Bool boolean;
b NUM1, NUM2 number;
c deptname dept.dname%type;
d date1 date := sysdate
Ans : B
51. Declare
fvar number := null; svar number := 5
Begin
goto >
if fvar is null then
>
svar := svar + 5
end if;
End;
What will be the value of svar after the execution ?
a Error
b 10
c5
d None of the above
Ans : A

52. Which of the following is not correct about an Exception ?

a Raised automatically / Explicitly in response to an ORACLE_ERROR
b An exception will be raised when an error occurs in that block
c Process terminates after completion of error sequence.
d A Procedure or Sequence of statements may be processed.
Ans : C
53. Which of the following is not correct about User_Defined Exceptions ?
a Must be declared
b Must be raised explicitly
c Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error
d None of the above
Ans : C
54. A Stored Procedure is a
a Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL statements to perform specific function
b Stored in compiled form in the database
c Can be called from all client environmets
d All of the above
Ans : D
55. Which of the following statement is false
a Any procedure can raise an error and return an user message and error
number
b Error number ranging from 20000 to 20999 are reserved for user defined
messages
c Oracle checks Uniqueness of User defined errors
d Raise_Application_error is used for raising an user defined error.

Ans : C
56. Is it possible to open a cursor which is in a Package in another
procedure ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
57. Is it possible to use Transactional control statements in Database
Triggers?
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
58. Is it possible to Enable or Disable a Database trigger ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
59. PL/SQL supports datatype(s)
a Scalar datatype
b Composite datatype
c All of the above
d None of the above
Ans C
60. Find the ODD datatype out
a VARCHAR2
b RECORD

c BOOLEAN
d RAW
Ans : B
61. Which of the following is not correct about the |TABLE| datatype ?
a Can contain any no of columns
b Simulates a One-dimensional array of unlimited size
c Column datatype of any Scalar type
d None of the above
Ans : A
62. Find the ODD one out of the following
a OPEN
b CLOSE
c INSERT
d FETCH
Ans C
63. Which of the following is not correct about Cursor ?
a Cursor is a named Private SQL area
b Cursor holds temporary results
c Cursor is used for retrieving multiple rows
d SQL uses implicit Cursors to retrieve rows
Ans : B
64. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL ?
a Select ? into
b Update
c Create

d Delete
Ans : C
65. What is the Result of the following ?VIK?||NULL||?RAM? ?
a Error
b VIK RAM
c VIKRAM
d NULL
Ans : C
66. Declare
a number := 5; b number := null; c number := 10;
Begin
if a > b AND a ( Select count(*) from Emp E2 where E1.SAL > E2.SAL )
will retrieve
a 3500,5000,2500
b 5000,2850
c 2850,5750
d 5000,5750
Ans : A
72. Is it possible to modify a Datatype of a column when column contains
data ?
a Yes
b No
Ans B
73. Which of the following is not correct about a View ?
a To protect some of the columns of a table from other users

b Ocuupies data storage space

c To hide complexity of a query
d To hide complexity of a calculations
Ans : B
74. Which is not part of the Data Definiton Language ?
a CREATE
b ALTER
c ALTER SESSION
Ans : C
75. The Data Manipulation Language statements are
a INSERT
b UPDATE
c SELECT
d All of the above
Ans : D
76. EMPNO ENAME SAL
A822 RAMASWAMY 3500
A812 NARAYAN 5000
A973 UMESH
A500 BALAJI 5750
Using the above data
Select count(sal) from Emp will retrieve
a1
b0
c3
d None of the above
Ans : C

77. If an UNIQUE KEY constraint on DATE column is created, will it

accept the rows that are inserted with
SYSDATE ?
a Will
b Won?t
Ans : B
78. What are the different events in Triggers ?
a Define, Create
b Drop, Comment
c Insert, Update, Delete
d All of the above
Ans : C
79. What built-in subprogram is used to manipulate images in image items ?
a Zoom_out
b Zoom_in?
c Image_zoom
d Zoom_image
Ans : C
80. Can we pass RECORD GROUP between FORMS ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A

81. SHOW_ALERT function returns

a Boolean
b Number
c Character
d None of the above
Ans : B
82. What SYSTEM VARIABLE is used to refer DATABASE TIME ?
a $$dbtime$$
b $$time$$
c $$datetime$$
d None of the above
Ans : A
83. :SYSTEM.EFFECTIVE.DATE varaible is
a Read only
b Read & Write
c Write only
d None of the above
Ans : C
84. How can you CALL Reports from Forms4.0 ?
a Run_Report built_in
b Call_Report built_in
c Run_Product built_in
d Call_Product built_in
Ans : C

85. When do you get a .PLL extension ?

a Save Library file
b Generate Library file
c Run Library file
d None of the above
Ans : A
86. What is built_in Subprogram ?
a Stored procedure & Function
b Collection of Subprogram
c Collection of Packages
d None of the above
Ans : D
87. GET_BLOCK property is a
a Restricted procedure
b Unrestricted procedure
c Library function
d None of the above
Ans : D
88. A CONTROL BLOCK can sometimes refer to a BASETABLE ?
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
89. What do you mean by CHECK BOX ?

a Two state control

b One state control
c Three state control
d none of the above
Ans : C - Please check the Correcness of this Answer ( The correct answeris
2)
90. List of Values (LOV) supports
a Single column
b Multi column
c Single or Multi column
d None of the above
Ans : C
91. What is Library in Forms 4.0 ?
a Collection of External field
b Collection of built_in packages
c Collection of PL/SQl functions, procedures and packages
d Collection of PL/SQL procedures & triggers
Ans : C
92. Can we use a RESTRICTED packaged procedure in
WHEN_TEXT_ITEM trigger ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
93. Can we use GO_BLOCK package in a PRE_TEXT_ITEM trigger ?

a Yes
b No
Ans : B
94. What type of file is used for porting Forms 4.5 applications to various
platforms ?
a . FMB file
b . FMX file
c . FMT file
d . EXE file
Ans : C
95. What built_in procedure is used to get IMAGES in Forms 4.5 ?
a READ_IMAGE_FILE
b GET_IMAGE_FILE
c READ_FILE
d GET_FILE
Ans A
96. When a form is invoked with CALL_FORM does Oracle forms issues
SAVEPOINT ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
97. Can we attach the same LOV to different fields in Design time ?
a Yes
b No

Ans : A
98. How do you pass values from one form to another form ?
a LOV
b Parameters
c Local variables
d None of the above
Ans : B
99. Can you copy the PROGRAM UNIT into an Object group ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
100. Can MULTIPLE DOCUMENT INTERFACE (MDI) be used in Forms
4.5 ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
101. When is a .FMB file extension is created in Forms 4.5 ?
a Generating form
b Executing form
c Save form
d Run form
Ans : C

102. What is a Built_in subprogram ?

a Library
b Stored procedure & Function
c Collection of Subprograms
d None of the above
Ans : D
103. What is a RADIO GROUP ?
a Mutually exclusive
b Select more than one column
c Above all TRUE
d Above all FALSE
Ans : A
104. Identify the Odd one of the following statements ?
a Poplist
b Tlist
c List of values
d Combo box
Ans : C
105. What is an ALERT ?
a Modeless window
b Modal window
c Both are TRUE
d None of the above

Ans : B
106. Can an Alert message be changed at runtime ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
107. Can we create an LOV without an RECORD GROUP ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
108. How many no of columns can a RECORD GROUP have ?
a 10
b 20
c 50
d None of the above
Ans D
109. Oracle precompiler translates the EMBEDDED SQL statemens into
a Oracle FORMS
b Oracle REPORTS
c Oracle LIBRARY
d None of the above
Ans : D
110. Kind of COMMENT statements placed within SQL statements ?
a Asterisk(*) in column ?

b ANSI SQL style statements(?)

c C-Style comments (/*??*/)
d All the above
Ans : D
111. What is the appropriate destination type to send the output to a
printer ?
a Screen
b Previewer
c Either of the above
d None of the above
Ans : D
112. What is TERM ?
a TERM is the terminal definition file that describes the terminal from
which you are using R20RUN
( Reports run time )
b TERM is the terminal definition file that describes the terminal from
which you are using R20DES
( Reports designer )
c There is no Parameter called TERM in Reports 2.0
d None of the above
Ans : A
113. If the maximum records retrieved property of a query is set to 10, then
a summary value will
be calculated
a Only for 10 records
b For all the records retrieved

c For all therecords in the referenced table

d None of the above
Ans : A
114. With which function of a summary item in the COMPUTE AT optio
required ?
a Sum
b Standard deviation
c Variance
d % of Total function
Ans : D
115. For a field in a repeating frame, can the source come from a column
which does not exist in
the datagroup which forms the base of the frame ?
a Yes
b No
Ans : A
116. What are the different file extensions that are created by Oracle
Reports ?
a . RDF file & .RPX file
b . RDX file & .RDF file
c . REP file & .RDF file
d None of the above
Ans : C
117. Is it possible to Disable the Parameter form while running the report?

a Yes
b No
Ans : A
118.What are the SQL clauses supported in the link property sheet ?
a WHERE & START WITH
b WHERE & HAVING
c START WITH & HAVING
d WHERE, START WITH & HAVING
Ans : D
119. What are the types of Calculated columns available ?
a Summary, Place holder & Procedure column
b Summary, Procedure & Formula columns
c Procedure, Formula & Place holder columns
d Summary, Formula & Place holder columns
Ans.: D
120. If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the
hierarchy between them?
a There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups
b The group that is right ranks higher than the group that is to theleft
c The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to
right or below it
d None of the above
Ans : C
121. Sequence of events takes place while starting a Database is

a Database opened, File mounted, Instance started

b Instance started, Database mounted & Database opened
c Database opened, Instance started & file mounted
d Files mounted, Instance started & Database opened
Ans : B
122. SYSTEM TABLESPACE can be made off-line
a Yes
b No
Ans : B
123. ENQUEUE_RESOURCES parameter information is derived from
a PROCESS or DDL_LOCKS & DML_LOCKS
b LOG BUFFER
c DB_BLOCK_SIZE
d DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS
Ans : A
124. SMON process is used to write into LOG files
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
125. EXP command is used
a To take Backup of the Oracle Database
b To import data from the exported dump file
c To create Rollback segments
d None of the above
Ans : A

126. SNAPSHOTS cannot be refreshed automatically

a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
127. The User can set Archive file name formats
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : A
128. The following parameters are optional in init.ora parameter file
DB_BLOCK_SIZE, PROCESS
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
129. NOARCHIEVELOG parameter is used to enable the database in
Archieve mode
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
130. Constraints cannot be exported through Export command?
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
131. It is very difficult to grant and manage common priveleges needed by

different groups of database users using roles

a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : B
132. The status of the Rollback segment can be viewed through
a DBA_SEGMENTS
b DBA_ROLES
c DBA_FREE_SPACES
d DBA_ROLLBACK_SEG
Ans : D
133. Explicitly we can assign transaction to a rollback segment
a TRUE
b FALSE
Ans : A
134. What file is read by ODBC to load drivers ?
a ODBC.INI
b ODBC.DLL
c ODBCDRV.INI
d None of the above
Ans : A
1. Ethernet frame consists of
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?
a) 10101010
b) 10101011
c) 00000000
d) 11111111
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
3. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. What is autonegotiation?
a) a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission
parameters
b) a security algorithm
c) a routing algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as
a) pure ethernet

b) ethernet over SDH

c) ethernet over MPLS
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for
a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
b) encapsulating ehternet frames inside PPP frames
c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. High speed ethernet works on
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation:None.
9. What is interframe gap?
a) idle time between frames
b) idle time between frame bits
c) idle time between packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64
octets is called
a) short frame
b) run frame
c) mini frame
d) man frame
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on network layer.
1. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.

2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
b) host address
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer
design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is
called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.

9. The network layer protocol of internet is

a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
a) entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. Network layer firewall works as a
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as
a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. WPA2 is used for security in
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is
called
a) denial-of-service attack

b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used
in
a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called
a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that
has no authority giving that information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
1. OSI stands for
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. The OSI model has ___ layers.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer

b) presentation layer
c) application layer
d) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers
and session, presentation and application layers are user support layers.
5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
8. Which address identifies a process on a host?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. Transmission data rate is decided by
a) network layer
b) physical layer

c) data link layer

d) transport layer
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
1. The physical layer concerns with
a) bit-by-bit delivery
p) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control
sublayer is called
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. physical layer provides
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides
a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. The physical layer is responsible for
a) line coding

b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______
into hardware specific operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) trasnport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by
a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. Wireless transmission can be done via
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation:None.
1. The data link layer takes the packets from _____ and encapsulates them into
frames for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend
upon the type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.

4. Header of a frame generally contains

a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission,
the error is called
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. CRC stands for
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check

d) cyclic repeat check

View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) HDLC
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
9. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access
control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing outgoing acknowledgements
so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletchers checksum
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream
before passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in internet?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. Transmission control protocol is
a) connection oriented protocol

b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection

c) recievs data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer
network is called
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. Socket-style API for windows is called
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
10. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
1. The ____ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection
to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) telnet
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. Application layer protocol defines
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding

b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing
devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple newtwork management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. Which protocol is a signalling communication protocol used for controlling
multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices
during a communication session
b) application layer protocols implemented on the source and destination host
must match
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
1. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.

2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
b) host address
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer
design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is
called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.

9. The network layer protocol of internet is

a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.