January 2014

Examiners Report
NEBOSH National
Diploma in
Occupational Health
and Safety - Unit B

Examiners Report
NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY
Unit B: Hazardous agents in the workplace
JANUARY 2014

CONTENTS

Introduction

General comments

Comments on individual questions

2014 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000

email: info@nebosh.org.uk

website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444

Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a
comprehensive range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the
health, safety, environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and
public sectors.
Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 35,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 500 course providers, with exams taken in over 100 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety
Management (IIRSM).
NEBOSH is an awarding body to be recognised and regulated by the Scottish Qualifications Authority
(SQA).
Where appropriate, NEBOSH follows the latest version of the GCSE, GCE, Principal Learning and
Project Code of Practice published by the regulatory authorities in relation to examination setting and
marking. While not obliged to adhere to this code, NEBOSH regards it as best practice to do so.
Candidates scripts are marked by a team of Examiners appointed by NEBOSH on the basis of their
qualifications and experience. The standard of the qualification is determined by NEBOSH, which is
overseen by the NEBOSH Council comprising nominees from, amongst others, the Health and Safety
Executive (HSE), the Confederation of British Industry (CBI), the Trades Union Congress (TUC) and
the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH). Representatives of course providers, from
both the public and private sectors, are elected to the NEBOSH Council.
This report on the examination provides information on the performance of candidates which it is
hoped will be useful to candidates and tutors in preparation for future examinations. It is intended to
be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of the syllabus content and the
application of assessment criteria.
NEBOSH 2014

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel:
0116 263 4700
fax:
0116 282 4000
email: info@nebosh.org.uk

General comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.
There are always some candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment
and who show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how
key concepts should be applied to workplace situations.
In order to meet the pass standard for this assessment, acquisition of knowledge and understanding
across the syllabus are prerequisites. However, candidates need to demonstrate their knowledge and
understanding in answering the questions set. Referral of candidates in this unit is invariably because
they are unable to write a full, well-informed answer to one or more of the questions asked.
Some candidates find it difficult to relate their learning to the questions and as a result offer responses
reliant on recalled knowledge and conjecture and fail to demonstrate a sufficient degree of
understanding. Candidates should prepare themselves for this vocational examination by ensuring
their understanding, not rote-learning pre-prepared answers.
Candidates should therefore note that Examiners Reports are not written to provide sample answers
but to give examples of what Examiners were expecting and more specifically to highlight areas of
under performance.
Common pitfalls
It is recognised that many candidates are well prepared for their assessments. However, recurrent
issues, as outlined below, continue to prevent some candidates reaching their full potential in the
assessment.

Many candidates fail to apply the basic principles of examination technique and for some
candidates this means the difference between a pass and a referral.

In some instances, candidates do not attempt all the required questions or are failing to
provide complete answers. Candidates are advised to always attempt an answer to a
compulsory question, even when the mind goes blank. Applying basic health and safety
management principles can generate credit worthy points.

Some candidates fail to answer the question set and instead provide information that may be
relevant to the topic but is irrelevant to the question and cannot therefore be awarded marks.

Many candidates fail to apply the command words (also known as action verbs, eg describe,
outline, etc). Command words are the instructions that guide the candidate on the depth of
answer required. If, for instance, a question asks the candidate to describe something, then
few marks will be awarded to an answer that is an outline. Similarly the command word
identify requires more information than a list.

Some candidates fail to separate their answers into the different sub-sections of the questions.
These candidates could gain marks for the different sections if they clearly indicated which
part of the question they were answering (by using the numbering from the question in their
answer, for example). Structuring their answers to address the different parts of the question
can also help in logically drawing out the points to be made in response.

Candidates need to plan their time effectively. Some candidates fail to make good use of their
time and give excessive detail in some answers leaving insufficient time to address all of the
questions.

Candidates should also be aware that Examiners cannot award marks if handwriting is
illegible.

Candidates should note that it is not necessary to start a new page in their answer booklet for
each section of a question.
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UNIT B Hazardous agents in the workplace

Section A all questions compulsory

Question 1

A machine operator is required to work at a number of different machines

during a normal 8-hour working day.
(a)

(b)

Explain how a series of static measurements can be taken in the

workplace and then used to estimate the operators daily
personal noise exposure LEP,d.

(5)

The result of personal dosimetry on a similar working day

provides an LEP,d that is 4dB(A) greater than the estimate made in
(a).
Outline factors that may account for the difference.

(5)

This question related to Element 6 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 6.3: Explain the measurement and assessment of
noise exposure.
Many candidates struggled to provide a coherent explanation of how to go about
making a series of static noise measurements; which suggested that they had little
knowledge or understanding of the processes involved or the equipment which should
be used. Performance in part (a) of this question was generally very poor with many
candidates gaining no marks. Part (b) was generally answered better and it is here
that most candidates gained their marks.
Answers to part (b) were at a better standard with candidates more comfortable when
outlining factors that could result in the difference in measurements noted. They often
referred to factors such as actual operator position and differences in relation to the
machines, materials, machine speeds etc. Most candidates referred to factors
associated with accuracy of measurement, errors in calibration and even the
possibility that reflected sound from the body.
Parts (a) and (b) varied in the command words used, (a) required an explanation and
(b) required an outline. Course providers should remind candidates about the
differences between these two command words. It is recommended that course
providers try where possible to demonstrate the use of this type of equipment to their
students, as this would help in their recall of such techniques when answering
examination questions.

Question 2

The Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 require

suitable and sufficient washing facilities to be provided at readily
accessible places.
(a)

(b)

Outline features of the washing facilities that determine if they

are suitable.

(7)

Outline other welfare requirements of The Workplace (Health,

Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992.

(3)

This question related to Element 10 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 10.3: Explain the need for welfare facilities and
arrangements in fixed and temporary workplaces.
This question assessed knowledge about the welfare requirements in the Workplace
(Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992. Part (a) focussed on the suitability of
washing facilities as described in Regulation 21. It did not require knowledge of the
sufficiency. So marks were not available for recalling the number of washbasins etc.
that are quoted in the Approved Code of Practice that accompanies these
Regulations. Candidates should refer to paragraphs (a-h) in Regulation 21(2). In
addition the consideration as to whether showers would be needed in addition to
wash-basins. Few candidates referred to these. However marks were available for
including the need for showers when the nature of the work is strenuous or dirty. The
importance of having thermostatic mixing valves on showers to prevent scalding was
also mark worthy.
In part (b) candidates were expected to outline the other welfare requirements that
appear in the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations in Regulations 20
and 22-25. These are specifically welfare requirements. A number of candidates wrote
about other requirements and so did not gain marks.
Answers were mixed with candidates providing a very basic level of response that is
not appropriate at diploma level. In particular part (a) carried 7 marks so candidates
should have been guided by this when planning their answer. Those that provided a
higher degree of detail usually gained over half marks.

Question 3

Construction workers often spend much of their time working outdoors

where they are exposed to naturally occurring ultra-violet (UV) radiation.
(a)

(b)

(i) Identify the acute adverse effects that could result from exposure
to UV radiation.

(2)

(ii) Identify the chronic effects that could result from exposure to
UV radiation.

(2)

Explain measures that the workers can take to reduce the risks
associated with their exposure to UV radiation.

(6)

This question related to Element 7 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 7.2: Explain the effects of exposure to non-ionising
radiation, its measurement and control.
In this question, ultra-violet radiation (UV) was chosen as an example of non-ionising.
Candidates were initially expected to understand the acute and chronic effect of
5

exposure to such radiation and in part (b); measures to reduce the effect on outdoor
workers.
Some candidates did not pay attention to the introduction to the question which
specifically cites the risk as being exposure to UV radiation. Instead they spent time
discussing issues of thermal comfort and the possible risks of dehydration. This was
not required.
Part (a) required only an identification of the effects of UV radiation, but part (b)
required an explanation of the controls measures that workers could take. The word
workers was in italics in order to emphasise it. This implied that control measures put
in place by the employer or managers were not required. Such an example would be
information, instruction and training on the risks and precautions required when
exposed to UV radiation. Some candidates overlooked the emphasis on the workers
and decided to include these in their answer, but were not given credit.
In part (b) an explanation was key, so brief answers that simply mentioned wearing
sunscreen or keeping out of the sun did not gain good marks. Instead an explanation
that sunscreen should be worn and it should have an SPF of at least 15 gained better
marks. It is this attention to detail that is necessary at diploma level. Many candidates
overlooked the importance of the workers checking their own skin for changes such as
moles, new spots or skin discolouration. Few candidates recognised that the workers
themselves should manage their UV exposure when they were not at work.
Some candidates recognised that construction workers would likely be wearing hard
hats for protection against other risks and some candidates went on to mention the
importance of adding to these some covering to the back of the neck area. It was
these candidates that had fully applied their answer to the scenario given and gained
better marks.
Question 4

(a)

(b)

(c)

Outline the purpose of medical surveillance AND identify who

should carry it out.

(3)

Identify circumstances when it is appropriate to carry out medical

surveillance.

(3)

Identify functions (other than medical surveillance) that may be

carried out by an occupational health service in a large
manufacturing organisation.

(4)

This question related to Element 11 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 11.3: Outline the management of occupational health
(including the practical and legal aspects).
This question concentrated in parts (a) and (b) on medical surveillance before
expanding out in part (c) to include other functions an occupational.
The syllabus at 11.3 specifically includes: The legal requirements for medical
surveillance with reference to Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
Regulations, Control of Lead at Work Regulations, Control of Asbestos Regulations
and Ionising Radiation Regulations. It was this knowledge that was being assessed in
parts (a) and (b) and medical surveillance terms and roles were often confused.
It was clear that many candidates were confused by this specific term medical
surveillance. It is recommended that course providers and candidates refer to the
Heath Surveillance Cycle and the diagram Health Surveillance: decision making map,
both of which are available on the HSE website. These provide a useful resource
when studying this part of the syllabus. In addition particular attention should be paid
6

to Regulation 11 of COSHH and the relevant parts of the regulations listed above for
lead, asbestos and ionising radiations.
In answer to part (a); medical surveillance alerts employees to early signs of health
problems caused by their work and can provide advice on whether further exposure is
appropriate. Few candidates were aware of the need for it to be carried out by an HSE
appointed doctor, relevant doctor or perhaps an EMAS doctor.
In answer to part (b) a candidate could gain marks by stating that medical surveillance
should be carried out when it was required by statute. Marks were also available for
naming some particular statues, which are those listed in the syllabus. Very few
candidates mentioned the relevance on schedule 6 of COSHH in this context.
In answer to part (c) there is a wide range of other possible functions that an
occupational health service can provide and most candidates were easily able to gain
the 4 marks available.
Question 5

A manufacturing process produces high levels of heat and steam.

(a)

(b)

Identify FOUR parameters that could be measured when making

an assessment of the thermal environment AND, in EACH case,
give the name of an instrument that can be used to measure this
parameter.

(4)

Outline ways of reducing thermal stress amongst employees

during the manufacturing process.

(6)

This question related to Element 10 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in,
the provision and maintenance of thermal comfort in the work environment.
The syllabus clearly states that candidates should have knowledge and
understanding of environmental parameters affecting thermal comfort (air
temperature, radiant temperature, relative humidity, air velocity) and how to
measure them (thermometers; dry bulb, wet bulb, globe, kata, anemometers,
psychrometers, integrated electronic instruments including heat stress monitors).
The content of responses required for part (a) are indicated in this syllabus extract,
but generally answers were limited with many inaccuracies and confusions about
the parameters to measure and the instrumentation to be used.
In order to gain each mark in part (a) it was necessary to identify both the
parameter and the name of the instrument used to measure it. The need to include
both of these in the answer is indicated by the wording in the question which is
emboldened AND, in EACH case.
Part (b) produced better responses with most candidates able to provide a
reasonable range of ways to reduce thermal stress. However common omissions
were; allowing acclimatisation of individuals to the work environment, controlling
heat output at source and using health surveillance to look for early signs of health
problems relating to the hot and humid environment.

Question 6

A telecommunications organisation operates a computerised call centre

to handle all enquiries regarding its service. The call centre operates
between the hours of 8 am and 8 pm seven days a week.
Outline measures that the organisation should put in place in order to
reduce the risks of ill-health associated with the use of display screen
equipment at the call centre.

(10)

This question related to Element 9 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from
repetitive activities, manual handling and poor posture.
This question focussed on the control measures the organisation (a call centre) should
put in place; it was not a question requiring a detailed assessment of the elements of
a DSE workstation. Many candidates decided to address only these issues and
overlooked the wider range of measures that should be put in place in a call centre
environment.
Clearly it is important that the DSE workstations are designed and set up correctly but
those that are familiar with the requirements of the Display Screen Equipment
Regulations and associated guidance (L26) will know that this is only one part of the
Regulations (Regulation 3) and there are regulations addressing other matters such
as the daily routine of users, eye and eyesight tests and the provision of information
and training, (regulations 4 - 7). Therefore those that considered these wider ranging
issues and related them to the scenario gained better marks. Marks were available for
reference to the need for hands-free telephone head-sets and the importance of
managing breaks so they are taken regularly and away from the workstation.
Training call handlers in the safe and healthy working practices at DSE workstations
was particularly relevant as the nature of the work means they are working at a
workstation for prolonged periods of time. Therefore training them to manage their
posture and take steps to avoid eye strain are important aspects of the call handlers
training.
At diploma level, it is expected that candidates will have studied in more detailed
documents such as HSE guidance that accompanies the Display Screen Equipment
Regulations (L26). Tutors should encourage this as part of the private study that
candidates are required to undertake. It is also expected that candidates can apply
their knowledge to particular workplace scenarios and this was necessary in order to
gained better marks in this question. Those that did address the scenario referred to
other measures such as setting realistic call handling targets and having user friendly
software.

Section B three from five questions to be attempted

Question 7

Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) and dilution ventilation are two control
measures that may be considered when reduction of personal exposure
to hazardous substances is required in a workplace.
(a)

(b)

(c)

Explain how dilution ventilation can reduce personal exposure to

hazardous substances.

(3)

Identify circumstances when the use of dilution ventilation may

not be an appropriate control measure.

(3)

LEV may be used instead of dilution ventilation and LEV systems

can contain an air cleaning device. Fabric filters and electrostatic
precipitators are two types of air cleaning device that may be
found in LEV systems.

For EACH type of air cleaning device:

(d)

(e)

(i) explain how they operate to remove or reduce the

contaminant;

(6)

(ii) identify a type of contaminant that the device is designed to

remove.

(2)

Explain how the effectiveness of an air cleaning device can be

determined.

(2)

Identify FOUR other components of an LEV system.

(4)

This question related to Element 3 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 3.1: Explain local exhaust ventilation and procedures
to ensure effective ventilation.
This question assessed several parts of the syllabus content listed in 3.1 including:
Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) components and factors that determine effectiveness;
dilution ventilation; measurements for assessing performance of local exhaust
ventilation: methods and equipment for measuring, static pressures and the purpose
of air cleaning devices. It seems that many candidates were unfamiliar with some of
these points of detail. Tutors are reminded of the importance of the HSE document
HSG 258 (Controlling airborne contaminants at work, a guide to local exhaust
ventilation (LEV), maintenance, examination and testing), when addressing this part of
the syllabus. All detail necessary to answer this question is contained within that tutor
reference document.
The various parts of this question require different amounts of detail and this is
indicated by the choice of command words used in each part of the question.
Candidates should note these command words and use them to inform the level of
detail they provide in their answers. Explaining questions all require a step-wise
approach giving detail.
An explanation of the workings of the two types of air cleaning device mentioned in
this question can be found in HSG 258 along with details of other types of air cleaning
device which are also covered by the syllabus.
9

It was clear that many candidates were confused about measuring the effectiveness
of air cleaning devices and wrote about how to measure capture velocity or duct
(transport) velocity. These have featured in other diploma examination questions but
were not relevant here. Few candidates took the correct approach which is to
measure a pressure drop or difference across an air cleaning device using a
manometer. A large pressure drop may indicate a blockage or loss of effectiveness.
Most candidates gained good marks in part (e).
Question 8

An organisation operates a chemical manufacturing process that uses

two different grades of the same powder.
The table below shows data for the two different grades of powder.
Employees handle both powders during the manufacturing process and
are therefore likely to inhale the powders.
Product

Description

Particle Size Distribution

(microns)

Powder grade 1

White powder

7-20

Powder grade 2

White powder

1-5

(a)

For EACH powder:

(i)

describe the likely distribution of the powder in the respiratory

tract of the employees;

(4)

describe the mechanisms that the body may use to defend itself
from inhalation of the powder.

(6)

Outline how an occupational hygienist would determine the

employees long-term personal exposure to the dust in powder
grade 2.

(10)

(ii)

(b)

This question related to Elements 1 and 4 of the syllabus and assessed candidates
knowledge of learning outcomes 1.3 and 4.2 which are: Describe the main effects and
routes of attack of chemicals on the human body, and outline the strategies, methods,
and equipment for the sampling and measurement of airborne contaminants,
respectively.
Part (a) of the question gave candidates a clear suggestion on how to structure an
answer. The question clearly says For EACH powder before going on to ask parts
(a) (i) and (a) (ii). Therefore those candidates that arranged their responses in either
of the two following ways made it clear that they understood the differences between
the two grades of powder. Some candidates did not confirm which powder they were
describing the distribution of or the defence mechanism for.
Possible layouts for a candidate response:
Powder grade 1
(a) (i) Likely distribution
(a) (ii) Defence mechanism
Powder grade 2
(a) (i) Likely distribution
10

(a) (ii) Defence mechanism

Or an alternative layout could be:
(a) (i) Likely distribution
Powder grade 1
Powder grade 2
(a) (ii) Defence mechanism
Powder grade 1........
Powder grade 2.......
Part (a) was designed to assess a candidates knowledge of the Distinction between
inhalable and respirable dust, which is included at 1.3 of the diploma syllabus. The
particle size distribution of powder grade one indicates it is largely an inhalable dust
and powder grade 2 is largely a respirable dust. Having recognised this difference,
candidates should have been able to describe the different likely distributions of each
powder in the respiratory tract and the differing defence mechanisms the body may
use to defend itself from each powder.
For powder grade 2 which is likely to enter the lower areas of the respiratory tract
(bronchioles and alveoli) then many candidates omitted to describe the defence
mechanisms of phagocytosis or the possible inflammatory response that could result
in scarring or fibrosis.
Part (b) asked only about powder grade 2 which is largely a respirable dust. Therefore
it was essential that candidates recognised this and outlined the use of a cyclone
sampling head. The methodology that should be used by an occupational hygienist is
that set out in MDHS 14/3. This is a gravimetric method. Again tutors should be aware
that candidates remain confused about these practical occupational hygiene
techniques and tutors should where ever possible use practical demonstrations to
deliver this part of the syllabus. This would enhance candidates understanding of
these practical techniques.
The term occupational hygienist seemed to confuse some candidates. Some thought
that the question was referring to occupational health practitioners who may typically
undertake health surveillance activities and so wrote about lung function tests. The
detail in 4.3 of the diploma syllabus includes the following: the importance of use of
standard methods (MDHS series), general methods for sampling and gravimetric
analysis of respirable and inhalable dust, sampling equipment for solid particulates
(dusts, fibres): sampling head (protected, cyclone, cowl) and pump; and it was this
knowledge that was being assessed in part (b) of this question.

Question 9

A farm operates a large poultry production and processing facility and is

concerned about employees being exposed to the zoonose that causes
the disease psittacosis (also known as ornithosis).
(a)

(b)

Give the meaning of the term zoonose AND identify the

organism that causes psittacosis.

(3)

Outline how those working with the poultry are likely to be

exposed to the organism that causes psittacosis.

(4)

11

(c)

(d)

Identify possible ill-health effects that could result from exposure

to the organism that causes psittacosis.

(3)

Outline a range of control measures that should be put in place

by the farm management in order to reduce the risk of employees
contracting psittacosis.

(10)

This question related to Element 5 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 5.2: Explain the assessment and control of risk from
exposure to biological agents at work.
Psittacosis is one of the biological agents specifically listed in the syllabus in element
5, therefore it is expected that candidates will have some familiarity with the particular
risks and controls that are needed. Even if candidates struggled to recall some of the
detail, those that recognised that the main risks are associated with the inhalation of
the dusts containing a bacterium, should have been able to deduce the key route of
entry and therefore infer a sensible range of control measures to reduce the risk of
exposure to the organism. Part (a) required some specific knowledge that it is the
bacterium chlamydia psittaci which causes psittacosis. Understanding that dust or
aerosols from urine or dried faeces present a risk if inhaled was the key point relevant
to answering part (b). Few if any candidates mentioned the other possible routes of
exposure which include bites from infected birds and even human to human
transmission.
Many candidates were able to mention flu-like symptoms as an ill-health effect when
answering part (c). However few mentioned the other more specific symptoms
associated with psittacosis. Tutors and candidates should refer to general information
about zoonoses that can be found on the HSE website, in particular the document
AIS2 provides a good overview of many zoonoses, a number for which are listed in
the diploma syllabus.
Having recognised that the main route of exposure was through inhalation, this should
have informed the range control measures to be put in place. Some candidates that
had recognised this route of exposure in part (b) did not apply this idea when
answering part (d). The range of control measures should have included ventilation
and the use of RPE as well as the more common hygiene related controls such as
provision of hand washing facilities, disinfection of waste and the use of PPE such as
overalls and gloves.
Those with more specific knowledge and understanding were able to identify the
particular standards of RPE required and that regular health checks on the flock and
minimising the stress of the flock would also prevent or reduce the risks of the birds
shedding the organism.
Cleaning regimes are also important and these should avoid dry brushing and instead
involve dampening down or vacuum cleaning techniques. Most candidates mentioned
the importance of information, instruction and training of employees in the risks
associated with psittacosis, the symptoms and the steps employees should take to
reduce the risks.

12

Question 10

(a)

(b)

(c)

Outline the meaning of the following terms:

(i) work-related stress;

(2)

(ii) post-traumatic stress disorder.

(2)

Identify a range of information sources that an employer could

use to determine the extent of employee work-related stress
within an organisation.

(7)

The Health and Safety Executive identifies a range of stress

management standards, one of which is change. An organisation
is about to change working practices.
Outline practical steps that the organisation could take in order
to reduce the risk of employees suffering from work-related stress
as a result of this change to working practices.

(d)

(6)

The case of Intel Corporation (UK) Limited v Daw (2007)

concerned an employee who suffered a breakdown due to an
excessive workload. This employee claimed negligence against
the employer due to stress and depression resulting from the
excessive workload.
(i) Identify the defence put forward by the employer in this case.

(1)

(ii) Explain the decision of the Court of Appeal in this case.

(2)

This question related to Element 8 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcomes 8.1 and 8.2: Explain the scope, effects and causes of
work-related stress and explain the identification and control of workplace stress with
reference to legal duties and other standards.
Part (a) assessed some basic knowledge about the meaning of the two terms that
appear in the syllabus, work-related stress and post-traumatic stress disorder. The
meanings given were generally limited and imprecise. At various points in the diploma
syllabus it states the meaning of and for these terms candidates are expected to a
clear and precise response available. Course providers should use reliable sources in
order to provide candidates with these meanings. Variations around a general theme
are permissible, but many candidates were not able to convey that they had an
understanding of these terms.
Part (b) was answered well with many candidates able to provide a range of
information sources the employer could use.
Change is one of six HSE stress management standards (the other five being
demands, role, relationships, control and support). When answering part (c),
candidates were often thinking at too simple a level by selecting one type of change
and building their response around that. For example change to PPE, or a new piece
of work equipment. This question was about the general managerial process of
change and how to go about that in a way that would reduce the risk of stress. The
process would obviously need to start with consultation about the proposed changes.
Few suggested the need to pilot the changes and get feedback from employees after
the pilot. This would allow adaptation to the changes proposed to be made before they
were fully implemented.
Another common omission was to make sure managers had an open approach to
discussing concerns about the change with employees. Other ideas that can be used
to help manage change are outlined in the HSE document about managing the causes
13

of work-related stress (HSG218). This is a key document when studying this area of
the syllabus.
There are very few examples of case law in the Unit B diploma syllabus and all appear
in element 8. Candidates are expected to be familiar with the details of those cases
and understand the relevant points of law illustrated. The syllabus lists the case of
Intel Corporation (UK) Limited v Daw [2007] which was covered in part (d) of this
question. Most candidates did not have any awareness of this case or confused it with
other cases listed in the syllabus, most commonly the Walker case.
The Intel case deals with the issue of the provision of counselling services by an
employer to employees, sometimes referred to as an employee assistance
programme (EAP). The defence put forward by the employer (Intel) was that such an
EAP was available to Daw but they did not use it. When the case went to the Court of
Appeal the appeal was rejected for a number of reasons. Reasons included the EAP
on offer would not have reduced the risk of the breakdown suffered by Daw as it did
nothing to address the underlying cause of the stress, which was excessive workload.
The court said that an EAP is not a panacea by which employers can discharge their
duty of care in all cases.
The source references for the case law in this element are given in the syllabus (E.g.
EWCA Civ 70). Tutors and candidates should refer to these and other reliable case
summaries when studying this area of the syllabus.

Question 11

A facilities manager of a multi-occupancy office block built in the 1970s is

concerned about the risks associated with asbestos in the building.
(a)

(b)

Outline steps that the facilities manager should take in order to

minimise risks associated with any asbestos that may be present
in the building.

(12)

An occupant of one of the offices engages a contractor to fit a

hand dryer in a toilet. This involves drilling through some
asbestos insulating board.
Outline the procedure that the contractor should follow to carry
out this work safely.

(8)

This question related to Element 2 of the syllabus and assessed candidates

knowledge of learning outcome 2.3: Explain the additional requirements for asbestos
and lead.
This was a popular question perhaps because it has appeared on previous diploma
question papers. However in part (a) many candidates were inaccurate in their use of
terminology and did not outline clearly the need for an asbestos survey, the creation of
an asbestos register (if one did not already exist) and the then the development of an
asbestos management plan. Most only referred to the survey by name.
At diploma level it is important to include the correct technical detail especially in this
instance where there are very specific types of control measure associated with work
involving asbestos. This technical detail was relevant in parts (a) and (b), but was
often missing. Examples of this lack of detail were as follows. What defines the
competence of someone undertaking an asbestos survey; what options the asbestos
management plan might offer to manage any asbestos found in the building; who is
the duty holder in this instance; why the work undertaken in the scenario was non-

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licensed and non- notifiable; the standard the RPE must meet (FFP3), the waste must
be double bagged with the necessary red lining with UN markings etc.
The asbestos essentials tool is specifically listed in the syllabus at element 2 so it is
important that candidates and tutors are familiar with this resource.

15

The National Examination

Board in Occupational
Safety and Health
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email info@nebosh.org.uk
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