Subject: Signals & Systems.

1) Graphical representation of a signal in time domain is called

[ ]
a) Frequency spectrum
b) Frequency
c) Wave form
d) None
2) Analog signals can be converted into discrete time signals by
[ ]
a) Sampling
b) Coding
c) Quantizing
d) None
3) U(t-a) = 0 if
[ ]
a) t-a =0
b) t-a < 0
c) t-a >0
d) None
4) A signal is a power signal if
[ ]
a) E=0, P=0
b) P=finite, E= Infinite
c) P=finite, E=finite
d) P=infinite, E=infinite
5) The sum of two periodic signals is periodic only if the ratio of their respective periods T1/T2
is
[ ]
a) A Rational number
b) An irrational Number
c) A complex number
d) A Real number
6) A system whose output depends on future inputs is a
[ ]
a) Static System
b) Dynamic System
c) Non Causal System
d) b & c
7) y(t)= x2(t) is
[ ]
a) LTI system
b) Non linear Time invariant system
c) Linear and time varying system
d) None
8) y(n)=x(n)u(n) is a
[ ]
a) Static, Linear
b) Causal, Time invariant
c) Both a & b
d) None
9) If we approximate a function by its orthogonal function, the error will be [ ]
a) Zero

b) Small
c) Large
d) None
10) In a set of signals, if no signal can be represented as a linear combination of the remaining
signals then such signals are
[ ]
a) Linearly Independent
b) Linearly Dependent
c) Orthogonal
d) Ortho normal
11) Fourier series applies to
[ ]
a) Only periodic signals
b) Only aperiodic signals
c) Both periodic and aperiodic
d) None
12) For the existence of Fourier series Dirchilets conditions are
a) Necessary
b) Sufficient
c) Necessary and Sufficient
d) None
13) The net areas of sinusoids over complete periods are
a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) zero
d) None
14) In the Trigonometric Fourier series representation, the value A0 is
a) RMS value
b) Mean square value
c) Peak value
d) Average value
15) The TFS representation of a function with half wave symmetry consists of
a) Cosine terms only
b) Sine terms only
c) Odd harmonics
d) Even harmonics
16) The Exponential Fourier series coefficient Cn in terms of TFS is
[ ]
a) Cn=1/2 ( an+jbn)
b) Cn=1/2(an-jbn)
c) Cn= (an-jbn)
d) Cn= (an+jbn)
17) Hilbert transform is a
[ ]
a) Low pass filter
b) -900 filter
c) High pass filter.
d) 1800 filter.

[ ]

[ ]

[ ]

[ ]

18) The Fourier transform of x(-t) is

[ ]
a) X(w)
b) X(-w)
c) X(1/w)
d) X(w)
19) The characteristics of an LTI system are completely characterized by its
[ ]
a) Impulse response
b) Step Response
c) Transfer function
d) None
20) The commutative property of convolution states that
[ ]
a) x(t)*h(t) = h(t)*x(t)
b) x(t)*[h1(t)+h2(t)]=x(t)*h1(t) + x(t)*h2(t)
c) x(t)*[h1(t)*h2(t)]=[x(t)*h1(t)]*h2(t)
d) None.
21) For distortion less transmission, the phase response is
[ ]
a) Constant
b) Linear
c) Zero
d) Non linear.
22) For distortion less transmission, the bandwidth of the system is
[ ]
a)Finite
b) Infinite
c) Zero
d) Very small.
23) The time convolution theorem states that F[x1(t)*x2(t)]=
[ ]
a) X1(w)X2(w)
b)X1(w)*X2(w)
c) 1/2 (X1(w)X2(w)
d) 1/2 [X1(w)*X2(w)]
24) The condition for orthogonality of two functions x1(t) and x2(t) in terms of correlation is [ ]
a) R12( ) =Infinite
b) R12( ) =zero
c) R12( ) =1
d) None
25) The cross correlation of x1(t) and x2(t) is the same as the convolution of
[ ]
a) x1(t) and x2(-t)
b) x1(t) and x2(t)
c)x1(-t) and x2(t)
d) x1(-t) and x2(-t)
26) The FT of auto correlation is
[ ]
a) PSD
b) ESD
c) any of (a) or (b)
d) None

27) The auto correlation is maximum at

a) =0
b) =infinite
d) None.
28) The process of converting a CT signal into DT signal is called
a) ADC
b)DAC
c) Sampling.
d) None.
29) The nyquist rate of a signal is
a) fm/2
b) 2 fm
c) fm
d) fm* fm
30) Aliasing occurs when the signal is
a) Over sampled
b) Under sampled
c) Critically sampled.
d) None.

Answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.

C
A
B
B
A
D
B
A
C
A
A
B
C
D
C
B
B
B
A
A
B
B
A
B ,25. A ,26. C ,27.A ,28.C ,29.B ,30.B

[ ]

[ ]

[ ]

[ ]

Blanks
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

Discrete time signals are ________ ___in time and _______________ in amplitude.
In case of _______________ signals, not all the sinusoidal are periodic.
Double integration of a unit step results in a unit _______________ function.
Double differentiation of Unit ramp results in a ____________________ function.
For an Odd signal x(-t) = _____________ for all t.
All the static systems are ______________ systems.
Two functions are orthogonal over an interval (t1,t2) if __________
The spectrum of Fourier series is __________________ in nature.
Absolute convergence condition is a _____________ condition for the existence of Fourier
transform.
10) Impulses in the Fourier transform of periodic signal are located at the _______________
frequencies of the signals.
11) Hilbert transform does not change the ________________ of a signal.
12) The Fourier transform of a Unit impulse function is ___________.
13) The FT of e-atu(t) is _______________.
14) The FT of a signum function is ____________.
15) The FT of (t*x(t)) is ______________.
16) The FT of x1(t)*x2(t) is _______________________.
17) The area under the Fourier Transform is ___________________.
18) Inverse FT x(t) of X(w) is given by ____________________________.
19) The FT of rect(t/T) is ________________________________.
20) The Fourier Transform of a DC signal x(t)=A is _____________________________.
21) If h(t)=0 for t<0, the system is a ______________________ system.
22) If h(t) is the impulse response of the system and h1(t) is the impulse response of its inverse
system, then h(t)*h1(t)= ____________________.
23) For distortion less transmission, the magnitude |H(w)| must be ________________.
24) The bandwidth B and rise time tr are related as _______________________.
25) A signal x(t) is said to be transmitted without distortion, if the output y(t) = ________.
26) The cross correlation of ________________ signals is zero.
27) The auto correlation function and ESD form a ______________ pair.
28) Parsevals energy theorem states that ___________________________.
29) The distribution of average power of the signal in frequency domain is called ____________.
30) The total area under the PSD is equal to __________________ of the signal.
31) According to sampling theorem, the signal should be sampled at__________________.
32) Laplace transform is used to solve the _________________________ equations.
33) The graphical representation of pole and zero locations is called ___________________.
34) The ROC cannot contain any _____________.
35) If x(t) is a left sided signal, the ROC extends to the left of ___________ pole and no pole is
located in ___________.
36)
37) For a finite duration anti causal sequence the ROC is entire Z-plane except at ____________.
38) For a finite duration two sided sequence the ROC is entire Z-plane except at ____________.
39) The Z-transform converts ____________ equations into ________________ equations.
40) The range of values of Z for which the Z-transform converges is ___________.

SS Fill in the blanks answers:

1) Discrete & Continuous
2) DT
3) Parabolic
4) Impulse
5) x(t)
6) Causal
1( ) 2( )

7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)

=0

Discrete
Sufficient
Harmonic
Domain
Unity
1/(a+jw)
2/jw

15) J

X(w)

16) X1(w)X2(w)
17) x(0)
( )

18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)

28) E=
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)

dw

sin(w /2)
A2 (w)
Causal
(t)
Constant
tr*B=constant
X(t-td)
Orthogonal
FT
| ( )|^2 dw

PSD
Average Power
Ws>2Wm
Differential
Pole-Zero plot
Poles
Leftmost, ROC
Exterior
Z=infinite.
Z=0 and z= infinite
Difference, Algebraic
ROC.

ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS BITS

1.The Bandgap of silicon at 300 0 is
(A)1.36eV
(B) 1.10eV
(C) 0.80eV
(D) 0.67eV

7 .In the circuit shown below, 1 Q has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode drops
negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is 5V,X and Y are digital signals with 0 V as logic 0
and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

2. Drift current in the semiconductors depends upon

(A) only the electric field
(B) only the carrier concentration gradient
(C) both the electric field and the carrier concentration
(D) both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient
3.A Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in
(A) reverse bias region below the breakdown voltage
(B) reverse breakdown region
(C) forward bias region
(D) forward bias constant current mode
4.In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation
(using steam or water vapor) produces
(A) superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
(B) inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
(C) inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
(D) superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate

(A) XY (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) X Y

8. A voltage 1000sin t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured across
WX in Volts, is

5. In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length modulation effect causes
(A) an increase in the gate-source capacitance
(B) a decrease in the Transconductance
(C) a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency
(D) a decrease in the output resistance
6. In the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10mA. To maintain 5V across L
R , the minimum value of L R in and the minimum power rating of the Zener diode in mW, respectively,
are
(A) sin t
(B) sin t

sin t

/2

(C) sin t sin t

(D) 0 for all t

/2

9.In the circuit shown below, the silicon npn transistor Q has a very high value of
R2 in k to produce IC 1mA is

(A) 125 and 125

(B) 125 and 250
(C) 250 and 125
(D) 250 and 250:

. The required value of

12. In the circuit what is y

(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50

10. A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature.
When the temperature is increased by 10C, the forward bias
voltage across the PN junction
(A) increases by 60mV
(B) decreases by 60mV
(C) increases by 25mV
(D) decreases by 25mV

13.

11. In the circuit shown below, assume that the voltage drop across a forward biased
diode is 0.7 V. The thermal voltage Vt kT / q 25mV. The small signal inputVi=Vp V cos
t where V 100mV .

In the circuit shown Assuming VCE(sat)=0.2V and =50 the minimum base current required
to operate the transistor in saturation region

The bias current IDC through the diodes is

(A) 1 mA (B) 1.28 mA (C) 1.5 mA (D) 2 mA

(A)56A
(B)140A
(c)60mA
(d)3Ma

Calculate minority current ICO if IC = 20.002 mA and IC majority = 20 mA.

A.20 A
B. 0.002 A
C. 2 nA
14.

D.2
15.

Use this table of collector characteristics to calculate

A.100
C. 50
16.

17.

19. What is the logic function of this circuit?

A
ac

at VCE = 15 V and IB = 30

B. 106
D.400

Determine the value of when = 100.

A.1.01
B.101
C.0.99
Cannot be solved with the information provided
D.
Determine the peak value of the output waveform.

A.25 V
B. 15 V
C. 25 V
D.15 V
18. What is the peak inverse voltage across each diode in a voltage doubler?
A.Vm
B. 2Vm
C. 0.5Vm
D.0.25Vm

A.

A.Positive logic AND gate

B.Positive logic OR gate
C.Negative logic AND gate
D.Negative logic OR gate
20. A diode conducts when it is forward-biased, and the anode is connected to the ________
through a limiting resistor.
A.positive supply
B. negative supply
C. Cathode
Anode
D.

21.Reverse breakdown is a condition in which a diode

A.is subjected to a large reverse voltage.
B. is reverse-biased and there is a small leakage current.
C. has no current flowing at all.
D.is heated up by large amounts of current in the forward direction.

22. The forward voltage across a conducting silicon diode is about

A.0.3 V.
B. 1.7 V.
C. 0.7 V.
D.0.7 V.

23. An amplifier has an Rin = 1.2 k . The coupling capacitor is 1

approximate lower cutoff frequency.
A.133 Hz
B. 1.33 kHz
C. 13.3 kHz
D.133 kHz

F. Determine the

An amplifier has an input signal voltage of 0.054 mV. The output voltage is 12.5 V. The
voltage gain in dB is
A.53.6 dB.
B.107.3 dB.
C.231 dB.
D.116 dB.
25. In a multistage amplifier, the overall frequency response is determined by the
frequency response of each stage depending on the relationships of the critical
A.
frequencies.
B.frequency response of the first amplifier.
C.frequency response of the last amplifier.
lower critical frequency of the first amplifier and the upper critical frequency of the final
D.
amplifier
24.

26. Which transistor bias circuit provides good Q-point stability with a single-polarity supply
voltage?
A.base bias
B. collector-feedback bias
C. voltage-divider bias
D.emitter bias
27.Ideally, for linear operation, a transistor should be biased so that the Q-point is
A.near saturation.
B. near cutoff.
C. where IC is maximum.
D.halfway between cutoff and saturation
28.What unit is used to represent the level of a diode forward current IF?
A.pA
B. nA
C. A
D.mA
29.What is the resistor value of an ideal diode in the region of conduction?
A.0
B. 5 k
C. Undefined
D.Infinity

30.Calculate static resistance RD of a diode having ID = 30 mA and VD = 0.75 V.

A.25
B. 40

C. 0.04
D.0.025

31. Which of the following elements is most frequently used for doping pure Ge or Si?
A.Boron
B. Gallium
C. Indium
D.All of the above
32. Which capacitance dominates in the forward-bias region?
A.Diffusion
B. Transition
C. Depletion
D.None of the above
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32

B
C
B
D
D
B
B
D
C
D
A
A
A
D
A
c
B
B
A
A
A
D
A
B
A
C
D
D
A
A
D
A

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS BITS

(c) Increases distortion (d) None of the above

1.

With transformer connection to load the maximum efficiency of the class A

amplifier will go up to maximum of [ ]
a. 78.5% b.25% c.50% d.66%

12. For generating a sinusoidal wave of 1KHz frequency, the most suitable
oscillator is ____ [ ]
(a) Hartley (b) Colpitts (c) Wien bridge (d) None of the above

2. An oscillator of LC type having a split capacitor in the tank circuit is [ ]

a. Hartley b. Colpitts c. Tuned d. Wein Bridge

13. The frequency stability of LC oscillator is _______ than RC oscillators. [ ]

(a) less (b) more (c) either a or b (d) None of the above

3. The purpose of resonant circuits in tuned circuits is [ ]

a. TO provide properly matching load impedance b. To reset unwanted harmonics
c. To couple power to load d. All of the above

14. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is ______. [ ]

-

4. Which of the following combination can be used as a buffer_____ [ ]

a. CE b. CB c. CC d. All

15. An important limitation of a crystal oscillator is ________. [ ]

(a) its low output (b) its high Q
(c) less availability of quartz crystal (d) its high output

5. In voltage shunt feedback, the input impedance [ ]

a. increases b. decreases
c. depends on dc voltage applied d. depends on frequency of operation

16. In tuned amplifiers, harmonic distortion is ____________. [ ]

(a) infinite (b) more (c) less (d) None

6. The units of derating factor in power amplifier is [ ]

17. Double tuned amplifier provides ____ bandwidth than single tuned amplifiers.
[]
(a)larger (b) smaller (c) negligible (d)constant

a. Volts/ C b. Watts/ C c. Watts/ Cm d. None

7. To reduce further harmonic distortion in large signal tuned amplifiers_______is used [ ]
a. feedback configuration
b. transformer coupling
c. Push Pull configuration d. all of the can be used
8. In a Crystal oscillator the frequency is very stable due to ___________ of the
crystal [ ]
a. Rigidity b. high Q c. vibration d. none

18. Tuned amplifiers can be used in _____. [ ]

(a)Radar (b)IF amplifiers (c) both a and b (d)None
0

19. In ____ power amplifier, the output signal varies for a full 360 of the cycle. [ ]
(a)Class A (b) Class B (c) Class AB (d) None of the above
20. Maximum theoretical efficiency of Class B push pull amplifier is ___. [ ]
(a)25.5% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 78.5%

9. Source follower is a negative feedback amplifier using ________ feedback [ ]

a. Voltage shunt b. current shunt c. voltage series d. current series

21.The disadvantage of negative feedback is [ ] (a)gain decreases (b)gain is always

zero (c)gain is undefined (d)gain increases

10. The linearity of a Class A Amplifier is __ [ ]

a. poor b. fair c. good d. very good

22. With series feedback, (voltage or current), input resistance of an amplifier [ ]

(a)decreases (b)increases (c)zero (d)infinity

11. Negative feedback in amplifier [ ]

(a) improves SNR at the input (b) improves SNR at the output

23. Characteristics of an ideal voltage amplifier are: [ ]

(a)AV=infinity (b)Ri=infinity (c)Ro=0 (d)All the above

24. Oscillator circuits employ _______ type of feed back [ ]
(a)positive (b)no feed back (c)negative (d)none
25. The coupling employed in amplifier circuits are [ ]
(a)RC coupling (b)Transformer coupling (c)LC tuned coupling (d)All the above
26. In class B amplifiers relation between maximum power dissipation Pc and
maximum output power dissipation Po is Pc= ____ Po [ ]
(a)0.1 (b)0.2 (c)0.3 (d)0.4
27. Due to input signal swing, if the operating point shifts into cutoff and
saturation regions, that amplifier is classified as _________ amplifier. [ ]
(a)small signal (b)large signal (c)both a and b (d)not an amplifier
28. The application of Tuned amplifier is [ ]
(a)radio signals (b)RF amplifier (c)Communication receivers (d)All the above
29. The purpose of resonant circuits in tuned circuits is [ ]
(a)provide properly matching load impedance (b)reset unwanted harmonics
(c)couple power to load (d)all the above
30. Double tuned amplifier provides _______ band width than single tuned
amplifier. [ ]
(a) smaller (b)larger (c)equal (d)zero

KEY FOR THE ABOVE BITS

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. b
12. c
13. a
14. a
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. c
19. a
20. d
21. a
22. b
23. d
24. c
25. d
26. d
27. b
28. d
29. d
30. b

j0.079 m 1 ,76.548 35.780

(D) 0.0823
1.

xa x

Given that r

ya y

za z is position vector of point (x, y, z) and r

.r n r is

integer, then the value of

(A)

2.

n 2 r

r . If n is an

(B)

7.

n 3 r

(C)

n 4 r

(D) n 5 r

A circle loop of 10 cm radius is located in XY plane in a B-field given

by B

Evaluate the divergence of the given vector at the point r=1/2 on x-axis, where

0.5 cos 377t

3a y

4a z T . Determine voltage induced in the loop.

(A) 33.69 sin377t V

(B) 23.69cos 377t V

(C) 33.69cos 377t V

(D) 23.69 sin377t V

D = 1/ r 2 a r (cylindrical).
(A) -8

(B) 8

(C) 7

(D) -7

8.

If

the

is Es
3.

The magnetic flux through each turn of 100 turns coil is t

2t mWb , where t is in

seconds. The induced e.m.f at t = 2 sec is

(A) 1 V

(B) 1 V

(C) 0-4 V

electric

20e

j5z

ax

(A) 66.4e

j5z

ax

(B) 66.4e

j5z

ax

(C) 66.4e ax
The skin depth at 10 MHz for a conductor is 1cm. The phase velocity of an electromagnetic
wave, if the conductor is at 1000 MHz is

(D) 66.4e
9.

(A) 6 106 m / sec

(B) 6 107 m / sec

(C) 3 108 m / sec

(D) 6 108 m / sec

(A) 1.667ax

5a y

5az

(B) 5a x 1.667a y

5a z

(C) 5a x

5a x

5a y

5a z V / m , find E3 .

uniform

plane

wave

If

10 S/ m

11.

12.

5az
0

53.1e

a y mA / m

53.1e

j5z

ay mA / m

j5z

53.1e

ax

j5z

a y mA / m

53.1e j5z a y mA / m

In a non magnetic medium, E 5cos 109 t 20x a y

4sin 109 t 20x az a x V/m. The

A short circuited line has Zin

(B)

jZ0
3

. The length of the line is

(C)

(D)

12

The input impedance of the transmission line shown below is

(A) 2R0

and f

10 Hz , compute the propagation constant and

(B)

(A)

R0 2 j 3
1 j2 3

intrinsic impedance.
1

0.0533 j0.074 m ,86.548 35.78

(B) 0.0623

j0.079 m 1 ,76.548 35.780

(C) 0.0728

j0.053 m 1 ,86.548 35.780

air

a y v / m , then HS is

j5z

6.

in

A 5C point charge is located at origin in vacuum.

(A)

5a y 1.667a z

(D) 1.667axl 5a y

of

dielectric constant of the medium is _______.

Region-1 (x<0), Region-2 (0<x<0.1) and Region-3 (x>0.1) have dielectric constants of 1, 2
and 3 respectively. If E1

intensity

D at (0.3, 0.5,-0.4) is _______ ( C/ m2 ).

10.

5.

25e

j5z

(D) -0.4 V
j5z

4.

field

(C)

Zin

R0
2

(D) R 0

1 j
1 j

Z0

R0

2R o

41

13.

Which one of the following short circuited lines has the smallest input impedance?
(A)

2 line

(B)

4 line

(C)

8 line

(D)

20.

A step-index fiber has a core diameter of 80 m , a core refractive index of 1.62, and a
numerical aperture of 0.21.The refractive index of fibre at which the fiber can propagate at a

6 line

wavelength of 0.8 m is ________.

14.

A 50

distortion less transmission line has a capacitance of 10

10

F / m . What is the
21.

inductance per meter?

(A) 0.25 H

(B) 500 H

(C) 5000 H

(D) 50 H

For a plane wave propagating in free space or two conductor transmission lines, what must be
relationship among the phase velocity v p , the group velocity v g and speed of light (c)?
(A) v p

15.

A transmission line of input impedance 900

terminated by a load of 25
(A) 40

16.

(C) 400

22.

(D) 420

The cut-off frequency of the dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide having aspect ratio

(A) 3 cm

(B) 2 cm

(C) v p

vg

(D) v p

vg

(C) 1.5 cm

(B) 12.12

(C) 13.13

(D) 14.14

23.

Light pulses propagate through a fiber cable with an attenuation of 0.25dB / km . Determine
the distance through which the power of pulses is reduced by 40%.
(A) 2.746 km
(B) 5.173 km
(C) 8.874 km
(D) 4.847 km

24.

Which one of the following statements is not correct for a plane wave with

(D) 2.5 cm

H 0.5 e

(B) The propagation constant is imaginary

(C) Only the TEM waves propagate
(D) The signal has a constant frequency

Match List-I (Dominant mode of propagation) with List-II (Type of Transmission structure)

25.
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List I
P.

Co-axial line

1.

TE

Q.

Rectangular waveguide

2.

Quasi TEM

R.

Micro strip line

3.

Hybrid

S.

Coplanar waveguide

4.

TEM

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

A 10 km fiber with an attenuation constant of 0.2 dB/km serves as an optical link between
two cities. The power received is ______ %.

0.1x

cos 10 6 t 2x a z A / m ?

(A) The wave frequency is 10 6 rad/sec

(B) The wave length is 3.14 m

(C) The wave travels in +x direction

(D) Wave is polarized in z direction

In an impedance smith chart, a clockwise movement along a constant resistance circle gives
rise to
(A) A decrease in the value of reactance
(B) An increase in the value of reactance

List II

(C) No change in the reactance value

(D) No change in the impedance value
26.

A transmission line of 100 characteristic impedance is terminated with 150

The maximum impedance measured on the line is equal to
(A) 150

27.
19.

c vg

In a waveguide, the evanescent modes are said to occur if

(A) The propagation constant is real

18.

(B) v p

A step-index fiber has a core diameter of 100 m , a core refractive index of 2.62, and a
numerical aperture of 0.21. Calculate the acceptance angle.
(A) 11.11

more than 2 is 10 GHz. The inner broad wall dimensions is given by

17.

vg

through a quarter wavelength line is

. The quarter wave line characteristic impedance must be

(B) 150

(B) 250

(C) 300

resistance.

(D) 350

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) If the wave is not following equiphase characteristics, then

equivalence holds.
p

(2) In high loss medium,

and f are linearly related and can be termed as dispersion less

34.

media.
(A) Only (1)
28.

(B) Only (2)

Point charges of 4 10 9 C and 2 10 9 C are created in vacuum at points x = 2, x = 6 on Xaxis respectively. Find E at (4, -1, 2) as unit vector.
(A) 4ax

(C) Both (1) & (2)

(D) None of these
Match List-I (parameters) with List-II (values) for a transmission line with a series impedance
Z= R j L
and a shunt admittance Y= G j C J
.
m
m
List-I
List-II
(P) Characteristic impedance Zo

1.

ZY

(Q) Propagation constant

2.

(R) The sendingend input impedance, Zs

3.

0.667ay 1.332az V/ m

(C) 1.332ax
35.

0.667a y

(B) 0.937ax

4az V/ m

Assertion (A)

Reason (R)

0.1562ay

(D) 0.312a x

0.312az V/ m

0.937a y

0.1562az V/ m

Magnetic field is continuous and always rotational.

H 0 and

.H

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true and R is false

(D) A is false and R is true

when the line is terminated in its

36.

characteristic impedance Zo
Codes:
P Q R
(A)
3 1 1
29.

30.

Match the following:

List-I

(B)

P Q R
2 3 3

(C)

P Q R
2 1 2

(D)

P Q R
1 2 2

A step index fiber has a core diameter of 80 m , a core refractive index of 1.62, and a
numerical aperture of 0.21. The number of modes that the fiber can propagate at a wavelength
of 0.8 m is _________.
A point charge of 5 nC is located at the origin. If V=2V at (0, 6, -8), then the potential at
A (-3, 2, 6) is ______ (V).

(P)

(Q)

(R)

f
z2
. Given the medium is non homogenous, f will take the form

A wave is propagating in Z-direction. The wave equation followed is

where f

E x , E y ,H x , H y

(A) f

rz

f1e

(B) f

f2 e

rz

(C) f

f1e

rz

f2 e

rz

37.

33.

5.4ax

7.2a y V/ m

(B)

7.2ax

5.4ay V/ m

(C)

5.4ay

7.2az V/ m

(D)

7.2ax

5.4az V/ m

(B)

(C)

D.ds

dv

2.

Amperes law

3.

Gauss law

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2

Inconsistency in amperes law is made consistent by adding J D term and is given by

Jc

J D where JC and J D are conduction and displacement current densities. Then

(A) 900

(B) 450

(C) 180 0

(D)

An electric wave propagating through a lossless medium

E 10 cos 6
(A) 9 rad / m

39.

For a lossy media, intrinsic impedance is complex in nature and takes the form R s
where R s and XS are given by
,

( B / t).ds

Faradays law

(D) 0

(D) All of these

(A)

1.

J D leads J C by

Find the magnitude and direction of E at (6, 8,-3) in free space if a uniform line charge of
5 10 9 C/ m lies along z-axis.

(A)

E.dl

H
r 2f

38.
32.

List-II
J.ds

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1

31.

H.dl

jX S ,

108 t

x a y V/ m , the phase constant

(B) 12 rad / m

(C) 18 rad / m

For a wave to be defined, it must have

1.

An equiphase characteristic

2.

Second order differential equation should be satisfied

3.

Energy spectrum density should be constant

Which of the following is true?

, 81

is given by

is given by
(D) 24 rad / m

(A) 1

40.

(B) 1, 2

(C) 1, 2, 3

(D) 2, 3

Reason (R)

r
For a TEM wave propagating in two directions, the power density is given by P
(A)

Ex 2

Ey 2

a z

(B)

E y2

Ez 2

In perpendicular polarization, reflection coefficient become

zero, when medium permittivities are same i.e., 2 1 and
refraction component becomes zero when the incident wave
grazes the interface. But both are impossible.

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

a x

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)

41.

Ex 2

Ez 2

a y

(D)

Ex2

E y2

(C) A is true and R is false

a z

(D) A is false and R is true

Assertion (A)

Polarization is always defined in terms of electric field

orientation.

Reason (R)

Magnetic field is due to induced effect of electric field so we

cannot measure it directly.

47.

Assertion (A)

For the case of parallel polarization, a circular polarization

wave incident at Brewsters angle becomes linearly polarized.

Reason (R)

A wave composed of both parallel and perpendicular

components incident at Brewster angle produces a reflected
wave with electric field components polarized parallel to the
interface.

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true and R is false

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false and R is true

42.

(C) A is true and R is false

Consider a wave which is having a phase velocity of 3 108 m / s . Find the group velocity
and the medium in which it is travelling.
8

(D) A is false and R is true

(A) 3 10 m / s , Free space

(B) 2 10 m / s , Guided media

(C) 4 108 m / s , Guided media

(D) 2 108 m / s , Free space

48.

For the case of parallel polarization for oblique incidence, a circular polarized wave is
elliptically polarized in medium 1 1 9 0 and linearly polarized in medium 2 2 4 0
for the angles of incidence equal to

43.

Phase velocity of a wave in a perfect dielectric with

value in the free space. The permeability

and

0 r

is 0.4 times of its

of the medium is _____________.

44.

Phase difference between E and H in a high loss medium is ______________ (Degrees).

45.

A plane wave E E 0 cos( t

A
the surface is 5 2 z 0
m
conductor surface is

z)a x is incident on a good conductor whose current density at

and skin depth is 4 m. The current density at 2 m from the

49.

(A) cos

(C) sin

9
,cos
25
2
,sin
3

2
3

(B) sin

9
25

(D) tan

9
,sin
25

9
, tan
25

(B) 5e

Assertion (A)

1 j /2

A / m2

(C) 5e

1/2

A / m2

target through the clutter whose

61.7 MS

. The amount of electric field which is

(D) 0
Assumption: The thickness of the clutter is negligible and f = 200 MHz

46.

For an oblique incidence on a dielectric interface in case of

perpendicular polarization, reflection and refraction
components always exist.

2
3

The emitted waves from an antenna of a radar with a E field strength of 10,000 V/m hit a

incident on the target is ________________ ( J / m ).

(A) 20A / m 2

2
3

V
. If
m
permittivity of water is 1.75 0 , then average power while crossing a circular creature with
radius 2.5 m is _____________ (W).

50.

A shark in the water emits electromagnetic waves with E z, t

51.

Assertion (A)

Smith chart is designed for

Reason (R)

For every

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

500cos

z ax

Smith chart is a polar plot in which the following parameter is not expressed in terms of
normalized impedance.
(A) Transmission coefficients
(B) Reflection coefficient
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

58.

Is the S - matrix of a transmission line given by

length only.

length, the load impedance appears to be same as

2
Zin.
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true and R is false
A is false and R is true

(A) True

52.

Stub matching is used to match the load to characteristic impedance. Stub should be placed
such that the admittance value at that point is
(A) 0
(B) jB
(C) 1 j0
(D) 1 jB

53.

A lossless transmission line is terminated with load impedance 50 j30

and the
characteristic impedance of the line is 50 . The magnitude of reflection coefficient is
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.28

54.

57.

The characteristic impedance of a lossless transmission line at f

____________ (ohms).

60.

The input impedance of an

61.

Match the following:

List-I
(1)

(Q) Impedance inverter

(2)

(R) Short circuit impedance

(3)

(S) Open circuit impedance

(B) n 2 , n n 1

Transmission line

jz0 tan l
jz 0 cot l

(4)

(C) n, n n 1

(D) n, n

64.

(D) None of these

1GHz, L 1

,C 1nF is

open circuited transmission line is _______ (ohms).

such that Zo

50

for constructing a smith chart is

(B) x 2

y2

2x 2y 0

(D) No such locus exists

2x 2y 4 0

A distortion less transmission line has Z0 50 ,

10 mNP / m,
0.167 c (where
c 3 108 m / s ), then R and L of transmission line are
(A) 0.5 / m,100nH / m
(B) 5 / m,1000nH / m
(C) 50 / m,100nH / m

transmission line
4
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
56.
In S-parameter matrix of order nn, number of reflection coefficients and transmission
coefficients respectively are
(A) n 2 , n 2

y2

(D) 500 / m,1000nH / m

Which of the following are true for a lossless transmission line?

1.

Zin

2.

Zin

3.

Zin

4.

Zin

List-II

(P) Reflector

The locus of the resistance 50

(A) x 2
(C) x

63.
55.

(C) Cant say

59.

62.

The characteristic impedance of any line is defined as

(A) Geometric mean of its open and short circuited impedance
(B) Line impedance having no reflection
(C) Impedance looking into an infinite length of line
(D) Both (A) & (C)

(B) False

1 0
possible?
0 0

; for a shorted line with l

jZ0 ; for a open line with l

jZ0 ; for a shorted line with l

4
Z0 ; for a matched line of any length

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
If PSWR is power standing wave ratio, then VSWR and PSWR corresponding to
0.5 450 is
(A) 3, 9
(B) 2, 4
(C) 2+2j, 22j
(D) 2, 2

65.

Given that Z0 600 , VSWR = 1.5, the distance at which first maximum occurs is 20cm
from the load. If the operating frequency of the transmission line is 300 MHz, then the
reflection coefficient is given by
(A) 0.2 450

66.

(B) 0.2

530

1440

(C) 0.2

1) P(S)=
a) 0

(D) 0.2 1640

For the transmission line shown below, the voltage which appears at the load after
is _______________ (V).
100

PTSP OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1 sec

b) 1

b)P(A)+P(B)-P(AUB)

c)P(A)+P(B)

50

a)P(A)+P(B)
200

8V

b) P(A)P(B)

a) Integer value

c)P(A)+P(B)

a) N(1-P)
Common Data Questions: 17 & 18

b) Complex Value

c) Real Value

b) NP

a) (a+b)/2
B

c) NPq

0.796

10

36

11

12

13

15
22

B
B

16
23

C
C

17
24

A
D

18
25

D
B

19
26

63.1
A

20
27

1.606
D

14
21

A
C

28

29

2176

30

3.929

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

6.25

44

45

45

46

47

48

49

0.268

50

8680

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

31.6

60

61

62

63

64

65

66

6.4

b)a+b

c)(a-b)/2

b)4/8

( )

b) -1

c) 6/8

( )

c) -

b) Certain event

( )

d) 0

b) Rayleigh

c) Cannot determine

c) Exponential

( )

d) None

10) Received signal by the RADAR From the target follows ------ Distribution
a) Poisson

d)7/8

9) An event with zero probability is called as

a) Uncertain event

d) Cannot determine

8) Range of probability of event A is

a) 0

d)Nq

7) Probability of getting at least one head when a coin is tossed for 3 times
a) 1/8

d)None

6) Mean of the uniform distribution is

d) P(A)+P(B)-P(AUB)

5) Mean of the binomial distribution is

100m

4) A random variable maps each element of the sample space to a

108 m / s

d)None

3) If A and B are Independent events P(A B)=

Zo

[
d)-1

2) If A and B are mutually exclusive events then P(AUB)=

a)P(A)+P(B)-P(A B)

t=0

c)

d) gaussian

10

ICA
1. What is the level of the output voltage of a ladder-network conversion?
A.The analog output voltage proportional to the digital input voltage
B.The digital output voltage proportional to the linear input voltage
C.A fixed digital value Vref
D.A fixed analog value Vref
2. Which of the following is not a linear/digital IC?
A.Phase-locked loop
B.Voltage-controlled oscillator
C.Passive filter
D.Comparator
3. A 339 IC is an example of a fourteen-pin DIP that can be made to function as a ________
A.comparator
B.555 timer
C.D to A converter
D.ladder network
4. What is the minimum number of conversions per second of a clock rate of 1 MHz operating a
10-stage counter in an ADC?
A.1000
B. 976
C. 769
D.697
5. Which of the following is (are) the results of improvements built into a comparator IC?
A.Faster switching between the two output levels
B. Noise immunity
C. Outputs capable of directly driving a variety of loads
D.All of the above
6. What is the first phase of the dual-slope method of conversion?
A.Connecting the analog voltage to the integrator for a fixed time
B.Setting the counter to zero
C.Connecting the integrator to a reference voltage
D.All of the above
7. On which of the following does the conversion depend in ladder-network conversion?
A.Comparator
B. Control logic
C. Digital counter
D.Clock
8. Which of the following applications include a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?
A.Modems
B. Am decoders
C. Tracking filters
All of the abovE
D.

9. Determine the free-running frequency when R3 is set to 2.5 k .

A.19.7 kHz
B.32.5 kHz
C.116.39 kHz
D.212.9 kHz
10. What is the functionality of the following circuit

A.ADC
B. DAC
C. comparator
555 timer
D.
11. What is the function of a ladder network?
A.Changing an analog signal to a digital signal
B. Changing a linear signal to a digital signal
C. Changing a digital signal to an analog signal
None of the above
D.
12. Which of the slope intervals of the integrator does the counter in the analog-to-digital
converter (ADC) operate?
A.Positive
B. Negative

C. Both positive and negative

D.Neither positive nor negative
13. A 311 IC is an example of an eight-pin DIP that can be made to function as a ___
A.comparator
B. 555 timer
C. D to A converter
D.ladder network

A.comparator
B. 555 timer
C. D to A converter
D.ladder network
17. Which of the following circuits is (are) linear/digital ICs?
A.Comparators
B. Timers
C. Voltage-controlled oscillators
D.All of the above

14. Determine the free-running frequency for this circuit.

18. Which of the following best describes the output of a 566 voltage-controlled oscillator?
A.Square-wave
B. Triangular-wave
C. Both square- and triangular-wave
D.None of the above
19. Which of the following logic families has the highest maximum clock frequency?
A.S-TTL
B.AS-TTL
HCMOS
C. HS-TTL
D.

A.32.5 kHz
B. 53.33 kHz
C. 533.3 kHz
D.5.3 MHz
15. Which of the following best describes limitations for the 566 VCO?
A.
B.
C. fo < 1 MHz
D.All of the above

20. Logic circuits that are designated as buffers, drivers, or buffer/drivers are designed to have:
A.a greater current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit.
B. greater input current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit.
C. a smaller output current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic.
greater input and output current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit.
D.
21. Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation delay?
A.S-TTL
B. AS-TTL
C. HS-TTL
D.HCMOS
22. What causes low-power Schottky TTL to use less power than the 74XX series TTL?
A.The Schottky-clamped transistor
B. Nothing. The 74XX series uses less power.
C. A larger value resistor
D.Using NAND gates
23. What type of circuit is represented in the given figure, and which statement best describes its
operation?

16. This circuit is an example of a ________.

It is a tristate inverter. When the ENABLE input is HIGH, the output is effectively an open
circuitit is neither LOW nor HIGH.
It is a programmable inverter. It can be programmed to function as either an active LOW or an
B.
active HIGH inverter.
C. It is an active LOW buffer, which can be turned on and off by the ENABLE input.
D.None of the above.
A.

24. Which of the following logic families has the highest noise margin?
A.TTL
B.LS TTL
C.CMOS
D.HCMOS

A.It is an NMOS AND gate.

B. It is a CMOS AND gate.
C. It is a CMOS NOR gate.
D.It is a PMOS NAND gate.

25. Refer the given figure. Which of the following describes the operation of the circuit?

27. Refer to the figure given below. What type of device is shown and what input levels are
required to turn the LED off?

A.A LOW input turns Q1 and Q3 on; Q2 and Q4 are off.

B. A LOW input turns Q1 and Q4 off; Q2 and Q3 are on.
C. A HIGH input turns Q1, Q2, and Q3 off, and Q4 is on.
D.A HIGH input turns Q1, Q2, and Q4 on; Q3 is off.
26. What type of logic circuit is shown below and what logic function is being performed?

The device is an open-collector AND gate and requires both inputs to be HIGH in order to turn
the LED off.
B. The device is a Schottky AND gate and requires only one low input to turn the LED off.
The device is an open-collector AND gate and requires only one low input to turn the LED
C.
off.
The device is a Schottky open-collector AND gate and requires a low on both inputs to turn
D.
the LED off.
A.

28. The nominal value of the dc supply voltage for TTL and CMOS is ________.
A.+3 V
B. +5 V

C. +9 V
D.+12 V
29. Which is not an output state for tristate logic?
A.HIGH
B. LOW
C. High-Z
D.Low-Z
30. PMOS and NMOS circuits are used largely in ________.
A.MSI functions
B.LSI functions
C.diode functions
D.TTL functions
31. Calculate the output voltage for this circuit when V1 = 2.5 V and V2 = 2.25 V.

A.0 V
B. 6.6 V
C. 4 V
D.2 V
33. Determine the output voltage when V1 = V2 = 1 V.

A.0 V
B. 2 V
C. 1 V
D.2 V
A.5.25 V
B. 2.5 V
C. 2.25 V
D.5.25 V

34. Determine the output voltage for this circuit with a sinusoidal input of 2.5 mV.

32. Calculate the output voltage if V1 = 0.2 V and V2 = 0 V.

A.0.25 V

B. 0.125 V
C. 0.25 V
D.0.125 V
35. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?

A.2
B. 3
C. 4
D.1
36. Calculate the cutoff frequencies of a bandpass filter with R1 = R2 = 5 k
0.1microfarads
A.fOL = 318.3 Hz, fOH = 318.3 Hz
B. fOL = 636.6 Hz, fOH = 636.6 Hz
C. fOL = 318.3 Hz, fOH = 636.6 Hz
D.fOL = 636.6 Hz, fOH = 318.3 Hz

and C1 = C2 =

A.1.1 V
B. 1.1 V
C. 1 V
D.1 V
39. Calculate the output of the second stage op-amp if V1 = 25 mV.

37. Determine the value of Rf (assuming that all have the same value).

A.500 k
B. 50 k
C. 25 k
D.5 k

38. Calculate the input voltage for this circuit if Vo = 11 V.

A.0.075 V
B. 0.525 V
C. 0.06 V
D.4.2 V

40. Calculate the output voltage Vo if V1 = V2 = 300 mV.

C. ac voltmeter
D.All of the above
44. Why differential amplifiers are preferred for instrumentation and industrial applications?
a) Input resistance is low
b) Produce amplified output
c) Amplify individual input voltage
d) Reject common mode voltage
45 . Which of the following is a combination of inverting and non-inverting amplifier?
a) Differential amplifier with one op-amp
b) Differential amplifier with two op-amps
c) Differential amplifier with three op-amps
d) Differential amplifier with four op-amps

A.0 V
B. 6 V
C. 6 V
D.8 V

46. The gain of differential amplifier with one op-amp is same as that of
a) The inverting amplifier
b) The non-inverting amplifier
c) Both inverting and non-inverting amplifier
d) None of the mentioned

41. Calculate IL for this circuit.

47. Compute the output voltage if the input voltage is reduced to zero in differential amplifier
with one op-amp?
a) Inverted Voltage
b) Same as the input voltage
c) Amplified inverted voltage
d) Cannot be determined
A.3 mA
B. 4 mA
C. 5 mA
D.6 mA
42. Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5 k
F.
A.1.273 kHz
B. 12.73 kHz
C. 127.3 kHz
D.127.30 Hz
43. An example of an instrumentation circuit is a(n) ________
A.dc voltmeter
B. display driver

and C1 = 0.05

48. What is the net output voltage for differential amplifier with one op-amp
a) Vo = -(RF /R1 )*Vx
b) Vo = -(RF /R1)*(Vx -Vy)
c) Vo = (1+RF /R1)*(V x -Vy)
d) None of the mentioned
49. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?

A.2
C. 4

B. 3
D.1

50. Determine the output voltage.

A.10(V2 Vi)
B. 10(V2 V1)
C. 10(V1 V2)
D.None of the above
Keys
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Ans.
a
c
a
b
d
a
a
d
c
a

Q. No.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

Ans.
c
c
a
b
d
a
d
c
b
a

Q. No.
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30

Ans.
b
c
a
d
c
c
a
b
d
b

Q. No.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

Ans.
d
d
b
d
a
b
a
a
c
c

Q. No.
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

Ans.
a
c
d
a
a
d
d
b
d
b