Ib Physiology

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PHYSIOLOGY!MULTIPLE!CHOICE!QUESTIONS!
16.
Two of the chambers of the heart have relatively thin walls, one has thick walls and one has very thick
walls. What is the relative thickness of the walls of each of the chambers?
Thin walls
17.
18.
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Thick walls
Very thick walls
A.
left and right ventricles
left atrium
right atrium
B.
left and right ventricles
right atrium
left atrium
C.
left and right atria
left ventricle
right ventricle
D.
left and right atria
right ventricle
left ventricle
Why is infection with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) associated with many different symptoms?
A.
People infected with HIV have different lifestyles.
B.
HIV attacks many different cells in the body causing many of the bodys systems to stop functioning
properly.
C.
The immune system stops functioning properly so many different disease-causing organisms can
invade the body.
D.
People infected with HIV do not always develop AIDS.
How is the loss of heat from exposed parts of the human body such as fingers, toes and nose reduced in
cold weather?
A.
Less blood flows to these parts of the body.
B.
Capillaries move further away from the skin in exposed parts.
C.
Heat is generated elsewhere in the body by shivering.
D.
The fat layer becomes thinner.
What is placed into the uterus, after the process of in vitro fertilisation (IVF)?
A.
Eggs
B.
Sperm
C.
Embryos
D.
Fetuses
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20.
21.
Which hormones control the contraction of the muscle in the uterus wall?
A.
Oestrogen inhibits it and progesterone stimulates it.
B.
Progesterone inhibits it and oxytocin stimulates it.
C.
Oxytocin inhibits it and FSH stimulates it.
D.
FSH inhibits it and oestrogen stimulates it.
What are characteristics of animal cells during mitosis and cytokinesis but not plant cells?
Mitosis
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Cytokinesis
A.
Centrioles present
Cell plate forms
B.
Centrioles absent
Cell plate forms
C.
Centrioles present
Cell membrane pulled inwards at the equator
D.
Centrioles absent
Cell membrane pulled inwards at the equator
What are the differences between introns and exons?

A.
Introns are translated but exons are not
Introns are excised from mRNA

but exons remain part of it
B.
Exons are translated but introns are not
Exons are excised from mRNA

but introns remain part of it
C.
Introns are translated but exons are not
Exons are excised from mRNA

but introns remain part of it
D.
Exons are translated but introns are not
Introns are excised from mRNA

but exons remain part of it
The amino acid leucine can be coded for by six different codons. How many different kinds of tRNA
could bind to it?
A.
Only one
B.
Not more than six
C.
Twelve
D.
Eighteen
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36.
37.
38.
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What is the function of each of the tendons in the human elbow joint?
A.
Reducing friction between the humerus and the radius and ulna
B.
Sealing the joint to hold in the synovial fluid
C.
Transmitting force from a muscle above the joint to a bone below the joint
D.
Preventing damage to the joint by acting as a shock absorber
What process moves toxic waste products from the blood to the dialysis fluid in a kidney dialysis
machine?
A.
Active transport
B.
Diffusion
C.
Osmosis
D.
Ultrafiltration
What part of the human body has the same function as the spongy mesophyll layer in a leaf?
A.
Alveoli in the lungs
B.
Erythrocytes in the blood
C.
Villi in the small intestine
D.
Sweat glands in the skin
Which conditions will cause the most rapid transpiration in a terrestrial, mesophytic plant?
A.
No wind
20 C
0 % humidity
bright light
B.
Strong wind
20 C
100 % humidity
bright light
C.
Strong wind
10 C
0 % humidity
darkness
D.
No wind
10 C
100 % humidity
darkness
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16.
17.
18.
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What are the products of the reactions catalysed by the enzymes shown in the table?
Lipases
Proteases
A.
lactic acid
polypeptides
B.
fatty acids
amino acids
C.
nucleic acids
hydrochloric acid
D.
triglycerides
polysaccharides
How does heart muscle contraction differ from the contraction of other muscles in the human body?
A.
It can contract without stimulation from nerves or hormones.
B.
It is stimulated to contract by hormones but not nerves.
C.
It is stimulated to contract by nerves but not hormones.
D.
Nerves speed up its rate of contraction but hormones slow it down.
What is the function of phagocytic leucocytes?

A.
To form a barrier against infection.
B.
To move to sites of infection and ingest microbes.
C.
To divide by mitosis to produce more leucocytes.
D.
To secrete platelets.
The kidney carries out the process of excretion by producing urine, which passes out of the body. What is
contained in urine?
A.
Toxic waste products of metabolism.
B.
Indigestible foods and harmful bacteria.
C.
Excess glucose and amino acids.
D.
Water and plasma proteins.
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20.
21.
22.
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What does amniocentesis involve?

A.
Removal of amniotic fluid, culturing of cells and karyotyping.
B.
Bursting of the amniotic sac before childbirth.
C.
Bursting of the amniotic sac, removal of embryos and resealing of the amniotic sac.
D.
Production of amniotic fluid to protect the fetus.
In which cells can mitosis occur?

A.
Haploid only.
B.
Diploid only.
C.
Haploid and diploid only.
D.
Haploid, diploid and polyploid.
What happens in the process of splicing mRNA in cells?

A.
Addition of nucleotides to the 5' end of the mRNA.
B.
Addition of nucleotides to the 3' end of the mRNA.
C.
Removal of exons from the initial mRNA transcript.
D.
Removal of introns from the initial mRNA transcript.
What are the special features of allosteric enzymes that are controlled by feedback inhibition by
end-products?
Position in a
metabolic pathway
Number of
binding sites
A.
At the beginning
B.
At the end
C.
At the beginning
D.
At the end
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32.
33.
34.
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Which characteristic feature is possessed by angiospermophytes but not by coniferophytes?

A.
Leaves
B.
Seeds
C.
Xylem
D.
Flowers
Which structure is used for locomotion in the earthworms but not in arthropods, bony fishes or birds?
A.
Muscles attached to a rigid skeleton
B.
Chaetae
C.
Antagonistic muscles
D.
Jointed legs
Which type of membrane protein is required for transmission of the nerve impulse along the axon?
A.
Channel proteins
B.
Carrier proteins
C.
Receptor proteins
D.
Enzymes
What is the function of the cartilage in the elbow joint?

A.
To reduce friction
B.
To join bones together at the joint
C.
To join the muscles to the bones
D.
To act as a lubricant
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36.
37.
38.
How does the composition of the blood in the renal artery and the renal vein differ?
A.
The renal artery contains less glucose than the renal vein.
B.
The renal artery contains more carbon dioxide than the renal vein.
C.
The renal vein contains less oxygen then the renal artery.
D.
The renal vein contains more urea than the renal artery.
Which process is used in renal dialysis by kidney machines?

A.
Ultrafiltration
B.
Passive diffusion
C.
Active transport
D.
Carrier-assisted diffusion
What structural adaptation is found in hydrophytes but not in xerophytes?

A.
Leaves reduced to spines
B.
Thick waxy cuticles
C.
Reduced root system
D.
Hairy leaves
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15.
16.
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Which products are formed by the action of the enzymes listed?

Protease
Amylase
A.
Amino acids
Maltose
B.
Dipeptides
Disaccharides
C.
Proteins
Starch
D.
Polypeptides
Glucose
What are the states of the valves when the ventricles are relaxed?
Atrio-ventricular valves
Semilunar valves in the arteries
A.
Open
Open
B.
Open
Closed
C.
Closed
Open
D.
Closed
Closed
Where are the chemoreceptors that detect the changes in blood pH and levels of glucose found?
Changes in blood pH
Changes in blood glucose
A.
Brain stem
Small intestine
B.
Carotid vein
Liver
C.
Carotid artery
Pancreas
D.
Venae cavae
Liver
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18.
19.
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Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test. What is the sample?

A.
Tissue from the amnion
B.
Fluid from the amniotic sac
C.
Blood from the umbilical artery
D.
Tissue from the placenta
What changes occur prior and during labour?

(m = increase, o= decrease)
Nerve impulses
from the cervix
Levels of blood
progesterone
Levels of blood
oxytocin
A.
B.
C.
D.
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30.
31.
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What is the sequence of processes leading to fertilisation?

A.
Acrosome reaction, cortical reaction, egg membrane penetration
B.
Egg membrane penetration, acrosome reaction, cortical reaction
C.
Acrosome reaction, egg membrane penetration, cortical reaction
D.
Cortical reaction, acrosome reaction, egg membrane penetration
The diagram below shows the immune system identifying an infected cell in the body.
Infected
cell
MHC molecules
Cytotoxic
T-cell
What is the structure labelled I?

A.
Antigen
B.
Antibody
C.
IgA
D.
IgM
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32.
33.
34.
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What types of agent cause the diseases listed in the table?

Measles
Diphtheria
Tetanus
A.
Virus
Bacterium
Bacterium
B.
Virus
Virus
Virus
C.
Bacterium
Bacterium
Bacterium
D.
Bacterium
Virus
Virus
An organism has cell walls of chitin, no chlorophyll, stores carbohydrate as glycogen and reproduces by
means of spores without flagella. What is its kingdom?
A.
Protoctista
B.
Plantae
C.
Fungi
D.
Prokaryotae
Which list shows four levels of taxa in decreasing order of hierarchy?

A.
Family
Class
Genus
Order
B.
Order
Family
Genus
Class
C.
Order
Class
Family
Genus
D.
Class
Order
Family
Genus
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What is the sequence of events when a nerve impulse reaches the synaptic knob of a neuromuscular
junction?
I.
Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter
II.
Ca 2 ions enter the synaptic knob
III.
Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on the muscular membrane(sarcolemma)
IV. Na + ions enter the muscular membrane
36.
A.
I, II, III, IV
B.
II, I, III, IV
C.
I, IV, II, III
D.
IV, II, I, III
The diagram below shows part of an actin filament of skeletal muscle.

II
III
What are the names of the labelled parts?

I
II
III
A.
Actin
Tropomyosin
Troponin
B.
Tropomyosin
Actin
Troponin
C.
Actin
Troponin
Tropomyosin
D.
Troponin
Actin
Tropomyosin
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37.
Which structure of the kidney responds to ADH by reabsorbing water?

A.
Proximal convoluted tubule
B.
Loop of Henle
C.
Glomerulus
D.
Collecting duct
Which processes in angiospermophytes involve active transport?
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I.
Mineral ion uptake
II.
Translocation
III.
Transpiration
A.
I and II only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
What are the functions of xylem in angiospermophytes?

I.
Physical support
II.
Passive transport of water and minerals
III.
Active transport of carbohydrates
A.
I, II and III
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I and III only
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25.
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In garden peas, the pairs of alleles coding for seed shape and seed colour are unlinked. The allele for
smooth seeds (S) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (s). The allele for yellow seeds (Y) is
dominant over the allele for green seeds (y).
If a plant of genotype Ssyy is crossed with a plant of genotype ssYy, which offspring are recombinants?
26.
27.
28.
A.
SsYy and Ssyy
B.
SsYy and ssYy
C.
SsYy and ssyy
D.
Ssyy and ssYy
What constitutes a linkage group?

A.
Genes carried on the same chromosome
B.
Genes whose loci are on different autosomes
C.
Genes controlling a polygenic characteristic
D.
Alleles for the inheritance of ABO blood groups
Where would a digestive enzyme with an optimum pH of 2 be found?

A.
Large intestine
B.
Small intestine
C.
Stomach
D.
Pancreas
Which process decreases when the human body temperature decreases?

A.
Blood flow to the internal organs
B.
Secretion of sweat
C.
Secretion of insulin
D.
Shivering
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29.
30.
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A synthetic hormone, syntocin, has the same effect on the body as oxytocin. For what purpose would
syntocin be used?
A.
Control of blood glucose levels
B.
Inhibition of the menstrual cycle
C.
Regulation of the heart rate
D.
Stimulation of uterine contraction
Which chamber pumps blood to the lungs?

II
I
III
IV
I
II
III
31.
A.
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
IV
Which process results in inhalation?

A.
An increase in volume of the chest cavity
B.
An increase in pressure in the chest cavity
C.
Relaxation of the external intercostal muscles
D.
Relaxation of the diaphragm
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32.
33.
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Which of the following are barriers against the entry of pathogens into the body?
I.
Skin
II.
Mucous membranes
III.
Phagocytic leucocytes
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
What is the correct sequence of events during blood clotting?

A.
Thrombin formation
clotting factor release
B.
Thrombin formation
fibrin formation
C.
Clotting factor release
fibrin formation
D.
Clotting factor release
thrombin formation
Which cell destroys viral-infected cells?

A.
Macrophage
B.
T-helper
C.
B-lymphocyte
D.
Cytotoxic T-cell
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fibrin formation
clotting factor release

thrombin formation
fibrin formation
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35.
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The diagram below shows the structure of testis tissue as seen using a light microscope.
Which is the primary spermatocyte?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
The diagram below shows a human elbow joint.
IV
III
II
Which response correctly identifies the ulna and the extensor muscle?
Ulna
Extensor muscle
A.
III
B.
IV
C.
II
IV
D.
II
III
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37.
38.
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Which substances are found in the glomerular filtrate but are usually absent in urine?
A.
Amino acids and glucose
B.
Water, pigments and salts
C.
Urea and hormone metabolites
D.
Large plasma proteins and red blood cells
The diagrams below show the distribution of tissues in the root and in the leaf of a dicotyledonous plant.
II
III
IV
upper
lower
Root
Leaf
Which tissues are phloem?
39.
A.
I and III only
B.
I and IV only
C.
II and III only
D.
II and IV only
Which response describes uptake of mineral ions into roots?

Movement of ions
Need for a
membrane protein
ATP requirement
A.
Following a concentration gradient
Yes
Yes
B.
Against a concentration gradient
Yes
Yes
C.
Following a concentration gradient
No
Yes
D.
Against a concentration gradient
No
Yes
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18.
19.
20.
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Which of the following structures help the absorption of food by the small intestine?
I.
Capillary networks
II.
Villi
III.
Microvilli
IV.
Membrane proteins
A.
I and II only
B.
II and III only
C.
II, III and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
Which hormone affects the heart beat?

A.
Glucagon
B.
Insulin
C.
Adrenalin
D.
Oxytocin
Why do antibiotics kill bacteria but not viruses?

A.
Antibiotics stimulate the immune system against bacteria but not viruses
B.
Viruses have a way of blocking antibiotics
C.
Viruses are too small to be affected by antibiotics
D.
Viruses do not have a metabolism
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18.
19.
20.
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Which of the following structures help the absorption of food by the small intestine?
I.
Capillary networks
II.
Villi
III.
Microvilli
IV.
Membrane proteins
A.
I and II only
B.
II and III only
C.
II, III and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
Which hormone affects the heart beat?

A.
Glucagon
B.
Insulin
C.
Adrenalin
D.
Oxytocin
Why do antibiotics kill bacteria but not viruses?

A.
Antibiotics stimulate the immune system against bacteria but not viruses
B.
Viruses have a way of blocking antibiotics
C.
Viruses are too small to be affected by antibiotics
D.
Viruses do not have a metabolism
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21.
22.
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Which of the following is an effect of HIV on the human body?

A.
It reduces the number of erythrocytes in the blood
B.
It reduces the number of platelets in the blood
C.
It increases the amount of plasma in the blood
D.
It reduces the number of lymphocytes in the blood
In thermoregulation, what would happen over a short period of time in each of these areas, if a person was
placed in water at 15 C ?
Peripheral circulation
Sweat glands
Liver
Skeletal muscle
A.
Increased blood flow
Increased secretion
Decreased temperature
Decreased shivering
B.
Decreased blood flow
Decreased secretion
Decreased temperature
Increased shivering
C.
Increased secretion
No change in temperature
Increased shivering
D.
Decreased secretion
No change in temperature
Increased shivering
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23.
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The diagram below shows the uterus of a pregnant woman.
I
II
III
IV
[Source: adapted from M B V Roberts (1986), Biology for Life, Nelson, page 348]
Where are samples taken from in amniocentesis?
24.
A.
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
The diagram below shows a nucleosome.
X
[Source: National Health Museum Graphics Gallery, www.accessexcellence.org/AB/GG/nucleosome.html]
What is structure X?
A.
DNA
B.
RNA
C.
Histone
D.
Deoxyribose
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29.
30.
31.
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When does recombination take place?

A.
Only when linked genes cross over
B.
When non-linked genes cross over and when linked genes show independent assortment
C.
Only when linked genes show independent assortment
D.
When non-linked genes show independent assortment and when linked genes show crossing over
A polygenic character is controlled by two genes each with two alleles. How many different possible
genotypes are there for this character?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
What is the sequence of events in spermatogenesis?

A.
growth
meiosis
mitosis
differentiation
B.
mitosis
growth
meiosis
differentiation
C.
mitosis
meiosis
differentiation
growth
D.
meiosis
mitosis
growth
differentiation
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32.
33.
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Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system contribute to the production of semen?
I.
Epididymis
II.
Seminal vesicle
III.
Bladder
IV.
Prostate
A.
II only
B.
II and IV only
C.
I, II and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
Where is human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) produced?

A.
Ovary
B.
Anterior pituitary
C.
Embryo
D.
Posterior pituitary
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Which curve shows the response of the immune system to a vaccine, followed by an infection?
A.
B.
Level of
antibody
Level of
antibody
Time
Time
Time
Level of
antibody
Level of
antibody
V = Vaccination
Time
I = Infection
What are the sequence of events at synaptic transmission?

I.
Neurotransmitter released
II.
Ca2+ enters synaptic knob
III.
Neurotransmitter binds with receptor
IV.
Action potential opens Ca2+ channels
A.
I, II, III, IV
B.
IV, II, I, III
C.
I, III, IV, II
D.
IV, II, III, I
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D.
C.
35.
17
36.
37.
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What is required to form a blood clot?

I.
Platelets
II.
Clotting factors
III.
Antibodies
IV.
Fibrinogen
A.
I and II only
B.
I, II and III only
C.
I, II and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
Where in the kidney does ultrafiltration take place?

A.
Glomerulus
B.
Loop of Henl
C.
Proximal tubule
D.
Collecting ducts
Which of the following are moved by active transport in the kidneys?

I.
Glucose
II.
Water
III.
Salts
IV.
Proteins
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
I and III only
D.
I, II, III and IV
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Which of the following is correct regarding the enzymes listed in the table?
Enzyme
Amylase
20.
Lipase
Protease
A.
Substrate
polysaccharide
emulsified fat
dipeptide or polypeptide
B.
Substrate
emulsified fat
dipeptide or polypeptide
polysaccharide
C.
Product
amino acids
small polysaccharides or
monosaccharides
fatty acids and glycerol
D.
Product
small polysaccharides or
monosaccharides
amino acids
fatty acids and glycerol
The diagram shows how the body regulates glucose levels in the blood.
Glucose increase
X released
Glucose
normal

Y released
What is Y?
A.
Amylase
B.
Insulin
C.
Glucagon
D.
Glycogen
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Glucose decrease
9
21.
22.
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What is transported by the blood?

I.
Carbon dioxide
II.
Antibodies
III.
Urea
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
Which features of alveoli make them well suited to gas exchange?

I.
Dense arterial network
II.
Moist lining
III.
Walls consisting of a single layer of flattened cells
A.
I and II only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
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What are the structures labelled I, II and III in the diagram below?
III
I
II
II
A.
Oesophagus
Bronchiole
Ribs
B.
Trachea
Oesophagus
Bronchus
C.
Oesophagus
Trachea
Lung
D.
Trachea
Bronchus
Lung
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32.
33.
Where does human fertilization most frequently occur?

A.
Ovary
B.
Oviduct
C.
Uterus
D.
Vagina
Which part of the structure below is most directly involved in the acrosome reaction?
A
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Which type of immunity usually results from vaccination?

A.
active, natural
B.
active, artificial
C.
passive, natural
D.
passive, artificial
Which type of cell is responsible for secondary immune responses to a pathogen?

A.
Cytotoxic T-cells
B.
Phagocytes
C.
Macrophages
D.
Memory cells
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36.
Which structure is responsible for passing messages directly to effector organs?

A
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The movement of which ion initiates an action potential?

A.
Calcium
B.
Magnesium
C.
Sodium
D.
Potassium
Which structure transports blood with the highest concentration of urea?
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18.
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In 1789 Gilbert White, a naturalist, observed eight breeding pairs of swifts (Apus apus) in the English
village of Selborne. Each pair of swifts produces two offspring on average per year. In 200 years this
should have produced 1030 swifts in the village of Selborne. A survey carried out in 1983 revealed only
12 breeding pairs in this village.
Which of the following possibilities could have prevented the numbers rising to 1030 ?
19.
I.
The number of nesting sites remained the same
II.
The food supply of the swifts remained constant
III.
Predatory birds in the area were exterminated
IV.
The climate become colder from 1789 onwards
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
I, II and III only
D.
I, II and IV only
What are the characteristics of the lipase used in digestion?

Source
20.
Optimum pH
Substrate
A.
Pancreas
Lipid
B.
Small intestine
Lipid
C.
Stomach
Sucrose
D.
Liver
Lipid
Which is the correct sequence of blood flow in normal human circulation?

A.
pulmonary vein t right atrium t aorta t vena cava
B.
vena cava t pulmonary vein t aorta t right atrium
C.
vena cava t right atrium t pulmonary vein t aorta
D.
pulmonary vein t vena cava t aorta t right atrium
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21.
22.
23.
How can human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) get transmitted from one human to another?
I.
By touching the skin of an infected person
II.
Through drinking contaminated water
III.
Through the exchange of body fluids
IV.
From mother to child across the placenta
A.
I and III only
B.
III and IV only
C.
I, III and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
Which cells secrete insulin?

A.
!-cells of the pancreas
B.
Cells of the liver
C.
"-cells of the pancreas
D.
Epithelial cells of the intestine
What does oxytocin control?

A.
Brain development of the fetus
B.
Onset of ovulation
C.
Stimulation of uterine contractions
D.
Implantation of the blastocyst
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32.
33.
34.
Which of the following are functions of the placenta?

I.
Gas exchange
II.
Stimulation of uterine contractions
III.
Secretion of progesterone
IV.
Secretion of estrogens
A.
I only
B.
III and IV only
C.
I, III and IV only
D.
I, II, III and IV
A blood clot contains a network of protein. What is the protein?

A.
Fibrin
B.
Fibrinogen
C.
Hemoglobin
D.
Thrombin
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma cells. Hybridoma cells are formed by fusing tumor
cells with another cell type. What is this cell type?
A.
Phagocytes
B.
B-cells
C.
Stem cells
D.
T-cells
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35.
36.
37.
In a nerve impulse, what happens at the site following the highest point of the action potential?
A.
Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na + is pumped in.
B.
Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na + diffuses out.
C.
Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K + is pumped out.
D.
Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K + diffuses out.
The diagram shows part of a muscle fibre. What will have occurred to bring the muscle fibre into this
state?
A.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes polarized.
B.
Calcium ions move out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C.
ADP and inorganic phosphate condense to form ATP.
D.
Troponin/tropomyosin protein complex blocks actin filament.
What is the relative toxicity of the following nitrogenous compounds?

A.
ammonia > uric acid > urea
B.
uric acid > urea > ammonia
C.
urea > uric acid > ammonia
D.
ammonia > urea > uric acid
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38.
39.
Which part of the nephron shown below is impermeable to water molecules?
A.
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
Which of the following is a correct comparison of the bryophytes and the filicinophytes?
Bryophytes
Filicinophytes
A.
Has a waxy cuticle
No waxy cuticle
B.
Has true leaves
Has scales
C.
Has rhizoids
Has roots
D.
Has woody tissue
No woody tissue
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16. Which of the following may correctly identify the role(s) of some bacteria in an ecosystem?

A.
Autotroph only
B.
Autotroph and decomposer
C.
Decomposer and heterotroph
D.
Autotroph, decomposer and heterotroph
17. Which of the following can produce variation in a species?

I.
Mitosis
II.
Meiosis
III. Fertilization
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
18. Which of the following is correct for a pathogen? yes no

Can be a virus
Can cause antibody response
Is antigenic
A.
B.
C.
D.
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19. Which of the following is closely associated with lowering of high body temperature?

A.
Constriction of blood vessels in the skin
B.
Vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin
C.
Increased shivering
D.
Decreased sweat production
20. Which of the following correctly describes blood entering the pulmonary artery from the heart?
A.
Leaves left ventricle
Oxygenated
B.
Leaves right ventricle
Deoxygenated
C.
Leaves left ventricle
Deoxygenated
D.
Leaves right ventricle
Oxygenated
21. Which of the following correctly explains the functions of parts of the digestive system?
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
A.
Digests proteins
Absorbs vitamin K
Absorbs water
B.
Absorbs water
Digests carbohydrates
Digests proteins
C.
Digests lipids
Digests proteins
Absorbs water
D.
Digests proteins
Absorbs glucose
Absorbs water
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22. Which of the following represents the blastocyst?

A.
B.
C.
D.
[Source: Campbell and Reece, Biology, (2002), 6th edition, Benjamin Cummings, pages 10031004]
23. A biochemist isolated and puried molecules needed for DNA replication. When some DNA was
added replication occurred, but the DNA molecules formed were defective. Each consisted of a
normal DNA strand paired with segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. Which of the
following had been left out of the mixture?

A.
DNA ligase
B.
Helicase
C.
Nucleotides
D.
DNA polymerase
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31. Where would meiosis occur in humans?

A.
Bone marrow
B.
Liver cells
C.
Uterus
D.
Ovary
32. What is the primary/main role of human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) in pregnancy?

A.
Maintains corpus luteum
B.
Reduces progesterone levels
C.
Development of the fetus
D.
Increases estrogen levels
33. Which of the following are attacked by cytotoxic T-cells?

I.
Cancer cells
II.
Bacteria
III. Virus infected cells
A.
I only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
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34. The diagram below is of a neuron.

II
III
[Source: adapted from S I Fox, Human Physiology, (1999), 6, McGraw-Hill, page 168]
Which of the following correctly name the structures labelled I, II and III?
I
II
III
A.
Nodes of Ranvier
Myelin sheath
Cell body
B.
Myelin sheath
Nodes of Ranvier
Cell body
C.
Myelin sheath
Cell body
Nodes of Ranvier
D.
Nodes of Ranvier
Cell body
Myelin sheath
35. When a motor neuron is at its resting potential, which of the following is correct for the concentration
of Na+ and K+ ions?
Inside neuron
Outside neuron
A.
K+ high
Na+ low
B.
Na+ low
K+ high
C.
K+ high
Na+ high
D.
Na+ high
K+ low
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36. Which nitrogenous waste products are excreted by the following organisms?
Freshwater sh
Birds
Mammals
A.
Urea
Urea
Uric acid
B.
Ammonia
Uric acid
Ammonia
C.
Ammonia
Uric acid
Urea
D.
Uric acid
Ammonia
Urea
37. In diabetes mellitus, which compound is found in excess in the urine?

A.
Insulin
B.
Glucagon
C.
Protein
D.
Glucose
38. Which of the following help(s) in supporting a terrestrial woody plant?

I.
Xylem tissue
II.
Turgor pressure
III. Phloem tissue
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
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22.
23.
Which is the correct sequence of events in a heart beat?

A.
Atria
contract
Ventricles
contract
B.
Atria
contract
Atrio-ventricular
valves close
C.
Atria
contract
D.
Ventricles
contract
Semi-lunar
valves close
Ventricles
contract
Semi-lunar
valves close
Ventricles
contract
Atrio-ventricular
valves close
Semi-lunar
valves open
Atria
contract
Atrio-ventricular
valves close
Semi-lunar
valves close
What are the characteristics of blood owing in arteries and veins?

Veins
A.
Slow velocity
Fast velocity
B.
High pressure
Low pressure
C.
Deoxygenated
Oxygenated
D.
Greater than 37
Less then 37
What makes the skin a barrier to infectious diseases?

A.
Impermeable cells which are frequently replaced
B.
Patrolling phagocytes
C.
Cells coated in antibody molecules
D.
Cells which secrete lysozyme enzyme
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Atrio-ventricular
valves close
Arteries
24.
M06/4/BIOLO/HPM/ENG/TZ1/XX
11
25.
26.
Which is the correct sequence of events during the phagocytosis of a bacterium by a leucocyte?
I.
Food vacuole forms
II.
Plasma membrane receptors detect antigen on the surface of the bacterium
III.
Lysosomes fuse with the food vacuole
IV.
Engulfs bacterium
A.
II
II
IV
III
B.
II
III
IV
C.
II
IV
III
D.
II
IV
III
Which labelled structures represent the epididymis and the prostate gland?
Epididymis
Prostate gland
A.
III
B.
II
III
C.
IV
D.
IV
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32.
Which of the structures labelled in the diagram below provide nourishment for developing sperm
cells?
[Source: Freeman and Bracegirdle (1976), An atlas of histology, Heinemann, page 91]
33.
34.
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum in the ovary of a woman at implantation?
A.
FSH
B.
LH
C.
HCG
D.
Progesterone
What is the difference between natural and articial immunity?

Natural
Articial
A.
Uses a vaccine
Uses synthetic antibodies
B.
Response to an infection
Response to a vaccination
C.
Memory cells formed
No memory cells formed
D.
Only active immunity
Only passive immunity
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35.
36.
37.
When an impulse arrives at a synapse which way do calcium ions move?

A.
Into the synaptic knob from the synaptic cleft
B.
Into the post synaptic nerve cell from the synaptic cleft
C.
Out from the synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
D.
Out from the post synaptic nerve cell into the synaptic cleft
What are the characteristics of the skeletal systems of the following animals?
Earthworm
Bird
Insect
Bony sh
A.
Solid and internal
Solid and internal
Solid and internal
Fluid and internal
B.
Fluid and internal
Solid and internal
Fluid and internal
Solid and external
C.
Fluid and internal
Solid and internal
Solid and external
Solid and internal
D.
Solid and internal
Solid and external
Solid and internal
Solid and external
What are the main excretory products of birds?

I.
Urea
II.
Uric acid
III.
Ammonia
IV.
Carbon dioxide
A.
I and III only
B.
II and IV only
C.
III and IV only
D.
II, III, and IV only
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38.
The diagram below shows part of the glomerulus from a kidney as seen under the electron microscope.
Which part is the basement membrane?
blood
ltrate
39.
40.
Xerophytes and hydrophytes are adapted to their environments. Which pair of adaptations is
correct?
Xerophytes
Hydrophytes
A.
Air spaces in roots
Water storage in roots
B.
No stomata
No stomata
C.
Stomata in pits
Thin or no cuticle
D.
Thick cuticle
Stomata in pits
Which direction does the phloem transport materials?

A.
Up the plant at night and down the plant during the day
B.
Up and down the plant all the time
C.
Up the plant only
D.
Down the plant only
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21.
22.
23.
Which of the following changes occur with the onset of exercise?

A.
Increase in pH of blood
B.
Increase in rate of cellular respiration
C.
Decrease in rate of contraction of the diaphragm
D.
Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration of the blood
In which part of the digestive system is most water re-absorbed?

A.
The kidneys
B.
The stomach
C.
The small intestine
D.
The large intestine
Which of the following is part of the process of ventilation?

A.
Changes in the volume of the thoracic cavity
B.
Exchange of gases across the surface of the alveoli
C.
Exchange of gases across the surface of capillaries
D.
Cellular respiration
24. Which of the following occur(s) at birth in the mothers body?

I.
Increase in oxytocin
II.
Increase in uterine contractions
III.
Increase in levels of progesterone
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
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10
25.
26.
Which of the following is regulated by positive feedback?

A.
Blood sugar
B.
Temperature
C.
Oxytocin levels
D.
Progesterone levels
Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic in human females?

A.
Increasing relative width of hips
B.
Presence of mammary glands
C.
Presence of a uterus
D.
Presence of a bladder
27.
According to the induced t model of enzyme function, which of the following statements is
correct?
A.
Active sites on enzymes are specic to a single substrate.
B.
The shape of the active site can be changed by the binding of an allosteric inhibitor.
C.
The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the active site slightly.
D.
Competitive inhibitors can change the shape of enzymes.
28.
Which of the following statements about pyruvate is true?

A.
It contains less energy than glucose per molecule.
B.
Every molecule of glucose is converted to one molecule of pyruvate.
C.
Pyruvate is produced in the mitochondria.
D.
Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to lactate.
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29.
30.
31.
32.
At which stage of photosynthesis is light involved most directly?

A.
Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH2
B.
Chemiosmosis
C.
The synthesis of chlorophyll
D.
The photoactivation of chlorophyll
During which process are oxygen molecules directly involved during cellular respiration?
A.
Glycolysis
B.
Krebs cycle
C.
Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
D.
Accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
Which of the following is/are necessary to produce monoclonal antibodies?

I.
Tumour cells
II.
Plasma (B) cells
III.
Macrophages
A.
II only
B.
I and II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
In which of the following structures does meiosis take place?

A.
Epididymis
B.
Prostate gland
C.
Testis
D.
Seminal vesicle
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33.
Membrane proteins are critical components of nerve function.

Which process in nerves does not require a membrane protein?
34.
35.
36.
A.
Diffusion of neurotransmitter
B.
Active transport of sodium
C.
Propagation of an action potential
D.
Binding of neurotransmitter
Which of the following has vascular tissue?

A.
Algae
B.
Chlorophyta
C.
Bryophyta
D.
Angiospermophytes
What treatment is most likely to lead to germination?

A.
Soaking the seeds in a solution of gibberellins
B.
Increasing CO2 concentration
C.
Increasing light intensity
D.
Dehydrating the seeds
Which of the following explains clonal selection?

A.
Memory cells are present at birth.
B.
Antigens activate specic immune responses.
C.
The body selects which antigens it will respond to.
D.
People with similar genes respond to antigens in a similar way.
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17.
18.
19.
Two cellular activities that support human life are absorption and assimilation. What is needed for
assimilation but not for absorption?
A.
Enzymes to synthesize new molecules
B.
Blood capillaries
C.
Dissolved nutrients
D.
Microvilli
Which sequence of events correctly describes the destruction of pathogens in body tissues by
phagocytic leucocytes?
A.
amoeboid motion m endocytosis m chemical recognition m enzymatic digestion
B.
chemical recognition m amoeboid motion m enzymatic digestion m endocytosis
C.
amoeboid motion m chemical recognition m enzymatic digestion m endocytosis
D.
chemical recognition m amoeboid motion m endocytosis m enzymatic digestion
How many times does an oxygen molecule cross a plasma membrane when moving from inside an
alveolus to the hemoglobin of a red blood cell?
A.
Two
B.
Three
C.
Four
D.
Five
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20.
Women should periodically have a Pap smear test performed to detect cervical cancer. Which letter
indicates the cervix in the diagram below?
A
B
C
D
21.
In human embryo development, what is the approximate time span between fertilization and
implantation of the blastocyst?
A.
12 days
B.
7 days
C.
72 hours
D.
36 hours
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31.
What is the origin and role of luteinizing hormone (LH) in spermatogenesis?

Origin
32.
Role
A.
Interstitial cells of testes
triggers rst meiotic division
B.
Pituitary gland
stimulates testosterone production
C.
Pituitary gland
triggers rst meiotic division
D.
Interstitial cells of testes
stimulates testosterone production
Why is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) important in early pregnancy?

A.
It is required for equal cell divisions in the growing embryo.
B.
It stimulates the ovary to continue production of estrogen and progesterone.
C.
It increases the rate of cell division in the embryo.
D.
It promotes growth of the inner cell mass within the embryo.
33.
Which sequence will result in the formation of a blood clot?
A.
damaged cells clotting factors thrombin brin
B.
damaged cells red blood cells clotting factors brinogen
C.
red blood cells clotting factors damaged cells brinogen
D.
red blood cells clotting factors thrombin brinogen
34.
What is the role of ligaments in the elbow joint?
A.
Attach biceps to radius
B.
Reduce friction between humerus, ulna and radius
C.
Hold humerus, ulna and radius in proper alignment
D.
Secrete synovial uid
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35.
36.
Which division describes the central nervous system?

A.
Peripheral and central
B.
Voluntary and involuntary nerves
C.
Brain and spinal cord
D.
Sensory and motor nerves
Which process in the human body produces nitrogenous wastes?

A.
Osmoregulation
B.
Degradation of amino acids
C.
Cellular respiration
D.
Ultraltration
37.
What process do the kidney and kidney dialysis machines have in common?
A.
Endocytosis
B.
Active transport
C.
Diffusion
D.
Exocytosis
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18. The diagram below shows a simplied version of the carbon cycle.
CO2 in atmosphere
I
II
Fuels
Plants
Secondary
Consumer
Primary
Consumer
What processes are involved in the transfer of carbon at stages I and II?
I
19.
II
A.
combustion
photosynthesis
B.
photosynthesis
respiration
C.
combustion
respiration
D.
fossilization
respiration
Which of the following outlines the roles of the two hormones oxytocin and progesterone during
childbirth?
Oxytocin
Progesterone
A.
causes uterine contraction
level rises allowing oxytocin production
B.
level falls allowing progesterone production
C.
stimulates oestrogen production
level falls allowing oxytocin production
D.
level falls causing oxytocin production
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20.
21.
22.
How do endocrine glands function when they are involved in homeostasis?

A.
They release hormones directly into the blood system.
B.
They release hormones through ducts to where they are used.
C.
They release digestive enzymes from the pancreas.
D.
They cause positive feedback in the bodys structures.
What is a pathogen?
A.
An organism that transmits a disease to humans
B.
A factor that causes lethal mutations
C.
A gene that makes a disease lethal
D.
An organism causing a disease
Why are there many different types of lymphocyte in the body?

A.
Each type can recognize one specic antibody and produces a specic antigen against it.
B.
Each type can recognize one specic antigen and produces a specic antibody against it.
C.
Each type can recognize one antigen and engulf it by phagocytosis.
D.
Each type can recognize one antibody and engulf it by phagocytosis.
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23.
24.
25.
What substances are normally removed from the body by the kidney?
I.
Excess salts
II.
Water
III.
Glucose
A.
I and II only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
What happens to the zygote immediately after fertilization?

A.
It remains in the uterus until placenta develops.
B.
It implants in the wall of the uterus.
C.
It divides by meiosis to form an embryo.
D.
It divides by mitosis to form a blastocyst.
What is absorption?
A.
Food entering the mouth and being chewed
B.
Food entering the stomach for digestion
C.
Taking digested food into the blood stream
D.
Making complex organic molecules in cells using digested foods
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26.
What is in vitro fertilization?

A.
Fertilization using donated sperm
B.
Articial fertilization of an egg inside the body
C.
Fertilization of an egg outside the body
D.
Cloning technique to help couples conceive
27. What occurs in the induced t model for enzyme catalysed reactions?

28.
29.
A.
There is an exact t between a specic substrate and a specic enzyme.
B.
The enzyme can change shape to accommodate the substrate.
C.
The substrate can change its shape to t a number of enzymes.
D.
Other substrates can bind away from the active site.
What is a nucleosome?
A.
The protein core of a chromosome
B.
Histone proteins and DNA
C.
A chain of ribosomes
D.
The material within the nuclear membrane
What is an intron?
A.
The 3a m 5a strand of a DNA double helix
B.
The 5a m 3a strand of a DNA double helix
C.
A section of mRNA removed before translation
D.
A tRNA with a start anticodon
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32.
The diagram below shows a cell undergoing meiosis. What is this stage of meiosis?
A.
Anaphase I
B.
Prophase I
C.
Anaphase II
D.
Telophase II
33.
A pure breeding tall plant with smooth seeds was crossed with a pure breeding short plant with
wrinkled seeds. All the F1 plants were tall with smooth seeds. Two of these F1 plants were crossed
and four different phenotypes were obtained in the 320 plants produced.
How many tall plants with wrinkled seeds would you expect to nd?
34.
A.
20
B.
180
C.
60
D.
30
What is the function of the epididymis?

A.
Mucus production
B.
Production of nutrient fructose solution
C.
Storage of sperm during maturation
D.
Secretion of alkaline solution
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35.
36.
During oogenesis how many gametes are produced from one oogonium, the cell that starts to divide
to produce gametes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Some infectious diseases are treated by injecting the patient with antibodies after they have been
exposed to the disease.
What type of immunity is this?
A.
articial and active
B.
articial and passive
C.
natural and passive
D.
natural and active
37.
When a nerve impulse is received by skeletal muscle it initiates a number of processes that result in
contraction. What are the roles of Ca2+, tropomyosin and ATP in contraction?
Ca2+
Tropomyosin
ATP
A.
binds to troponin
exposes binding site
binds to myosin
B.
binds to myosin
binds to troponin
C.
binds to actin
binds to myosin
D.
binds to troponin
binds to myosin
binds to actin
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38.
39.
What part of the kidney is affected by anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?

A.
B.
Loop of Henle
C.
Collecting duct
D.
Glomerulus
The diagram below shows a cross section through part of a dicotyledonous plant. What is the tissue
labelled I?
40.
A.
Cortex
B.
Phloem
C.
Endodermis
D.
Xylem
What route can water from the soil take as it passes through the root?
A.
Active transport
B.
Symplast pathway
C.
Translocation
D.
Endocytosis
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18.
Which vessels correspond with the descriptions of I, II and III below?

I.
Thick outer layer of longitudinal collagen. Thick layers of circular elastic and muscle bres.
Narrow lumen.
II.
Thin outer layer of longitudinal collagen. Thin layers with a few circular elastic and muscle
bres. Wide lumen.
III. Wall consists of single layer of cells. Pores between cells that form the wall. Very narrow
lumen.
I
II
III
A.
artery
vein
capillary
B.
vein
artery
capillary
C.
artery
capillary
vein
D.
vein
capillary
artery
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19.
Which processes are represented by the labels in the diagram below?
I
II
20.
II
A.
A phagocyte ingesting a microbe by

exocytosis.
Digestion of the microbe with the help of

the Golgi apparatus.
B.

endocytosis.

a lysosome.
C.

exocytosis.

a lysosome.
D.

endocytosis.

the Golgi apparatus.
Which type of urine would be produced in a human whose diet contains very small quantities of
protein or uid?
Urea Concentration
Salt Concentration
A.
High
Low
B.
Low
High
C.
High
High
D.
Low
Low
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21.
The diagram below shows the human male reproductive system and associated organs.
Which of the labelled structures indicate the bladder, prostate and urethra?
Bladder
Prostate
Urethra
A.
B.
C.
D.
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22.
23.
What are the effect(s) of changing levels of FSH in the human menstrual cycle?
A.
Peak levels cause ovulation.
B.
Peak levels stimulate follicle development and estrogen secretion of the follicle.
C.
Peak levels stimulate follicle development and progesterone secretion of the follicle.
D.
Peak levels cause repair of the lining of the uterus.
Which are the correct directions of the following processes?

Replication
Transcription
Translation
A.
5 to 3
3 to 5
3 to 5
B.
3 to 5
5 to 3
5 to 3
C.
5 to 3
5 to 3
5 to 3
D.
3 to 5
3 to 5
3 to 5
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30.
31.
What constitutes a linkage group?

A.
Genes whose loci are on different chromosomes
B.
Genes carried on the same chromosome
C.
Genes controlling a polygenic characteristic
D.
Genes for the inheritance of ABO blood groups
What are the possible outcomes of recombination?

I.
II.
III.
A different combination of unlinked genes not seen in the parents

A different combination of linked genes not seen in the parents
The same combination of genes seen in the parents
A.
I and II only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
32.
Which correctly describes the role of the epididymis in semen production?
A.
Produces uid containing fructose to nurture sperm.
B.
Finishes maturation of sperm so that they are capable of swimming.
C.
Produces alkaline uid with minerals to protect sperm.
D.
Produces uid containing fructose and store mature sperm.
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33.
After fertilization what is the correct order of events?
A.
Embryo secretes HCG implantation of embryo in uterine wall stimulates corpus luteum
to grow
B.
Implantation of embryo in uterine wall stimulates corpus luteum to grow embryo secretes
HCG
C.
Implantation of embryo in uterine wall embryo secretes HCG stimulates corpus luteum
to grow
D.
Continued secretion of progesterone and estrogen embryo secretes HCG stimulates corpus
luteum to grow implantation of embryo in uterine wall
34. Colostrum, the rst milk produced by the mother after giving birth, also contains antibodies that can
be absorbed into the babys blood. What type of immunity is the baby acquiring from its mother?
A.
Passive
B.
Antigen
C.
Active
D.
Articial
35.
What is the correct order in the production of monoclonal antibodies?
A.
Isolate B-cells producing specic antibody inject antigens into animal fuse B-cells with
tumour cells harvest monoclonal antibodies.
B.
Inject antigens into animal isolate B-cells producing specic antibody fuse B-cells with
tumour cells harvest monoclonal antibodies.
C.
Isolate B-cells producing specic antibody fuse B-cells with tumour cells inject antigens
into animal harvest monoclonal antibodies.
D.
Inject antigens into animal fuse cultured B-cells with tumour cells isolate B-cells producing
specic antibody harvest monoclonal antibodies.
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36.
37.
After depolorization what happens to restore the resting potential?

A.
Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse out of the neuron
B.
Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse into the neuron
C.
Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron
D.
Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the neuron
The diagram below shows part of a muscle bre. What parts are labelled I and II?
I
II
II
A.
Myosin laments
Actin laments
B.
Troponin laments
Tropomyosin laments
C.
Tropomyosin laments
Troponin laments
D.
Actin laments
Myosin laments
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16.
What is a factor that increases the greenhouse effect and what is a consequence of it?
Factor contributing to increases
in the greenhouse effect
17.
Consequence of the increased

greenhouse effect
A.
Increasing global temperatures
Rising sea levels
B.
Rising sea levels
C.
Burning fossil fuels to run air conditioning
D.
Increases in air travel
Which of the following structures increase the surface area for absorption of digested food in the
small intestine?
I.
Microvilli
II.
Protein pumps
III.
Villi
A.
I only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
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18.
What are the structures labelled I and II on the diagram of the heart?
I
II
19.
A.
I is the pulmonary artery and II is the atrio-ventricular valve.
B.
I is the pulmonary vein and II is the atrio-ventricular valve.
C.
I is the pulmonary artery and II is the semi-lunar valve.
D.
I is the pulmonary vein and II is the semi-lunar valve.
Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses?

A.
Viruses do not have metabolic pathways for the antibiotic to target.
B.
Viruses have developed resistance to antibiotics.
C.
Viruses destroy T-lymphocytes before the antibiotic can work.
D.
Viruses mutate quickly when challenged by an antibiotic.
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20.
What changes would occur if a person moved from a cold swimming pool to a very warm
changing room?
Transfer of heat in
blood to the skin
Temperature of
the skin
Rate of blood ow in
skin arterioles
A.
Decreases
Increases
Increases
B.
Increases
Decreases
Increases
C.
Increases
Increases
Decreases
D.
Increases
Increases
Increases
21. Do the levels of progesterone and FSH increase or remain low during the rst few days of the
menstrual cycle?
A.
Progesterone and FSH both remain low.
B.
Progesterone remains low but FSH increases.
C.
Progesterone increases but FSH remains low.
D.
Progesterone and FSH both increase.
22.
What happens during amniocentesis?
A.
The amniotic sac lls up with uid to prevent damage to the fetus.
B.
Amniotic uid is removed to obtain fetal cells for testing.
C.
The amniotic uid is replaced to avoid rejection problems with rhesus positive fetuses.
D.
Fluid is emptied from the amniotic sac during childbirth.
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28.
Humans are in blood group M, N or MN. The alleles for blood group M (M) and blood group N (N)
are co-dominant. Humans are also in blood group A, B, AB or O. The alleles controlling these
blood groups are IA, IB and i.
If two parents have the genotypes ii MM and IAi MN what is the ratio of possible phenotypes of
their offspring?
29.
30.
A.
9 group A, group M
3 group A, group N
3 group O, group M
1 group O, group N
B.
9 group O, group M
3 group O, group N
3 group A, group M
1 group A, group N
C.
3 group O, group M
3 group O, group MN
1 group A, group M
1 group A, group MN
D.
1 group A, group M
1 group A, group MN
1 group O, group M
1 group O, group MN
A cell replicates its DNA and then starts to divide by meiosis. What is the expected arrangement of
chromosomes if crossing over has taken place between the two genes shown?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the location and function of Sertoli cells?

Location
Function
A.
Seminiferous tubule
Feeding developing sperm
B.
Seminiferous tubule
Feeding interstitial cells
C.
Epididymis
Feeding developing sperm
D.
Epididymis
Feeding interstitial cells
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31.
During fertilization in humans, where do the acrosome and the cortical reactions occur most often?
Acrosome reaction
32.
Cortical reaction
A.
Vagina
Uterus
B.
Uterus
Oviduct (fallopian tube)
C.
Uterus
D.
Which is the correct sequence of events when skin is cut and bleeding occurs?
I.
Thrombin is produced
II
Fibrinogen is converted into brin
III
Platelets release clotting factors
A.
I m II m III
B.
I m III m II
C.
III m II m I
D.
III m I m II
33. What causes articial active immunity?
A.
Deliberately exposing a child to a disease
B.
Secretion of antibodies in milk
C.
Inoculation with a vaccine
D.
Injection of monoclonal antibodies
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34.
Which ion is pumped into the axon of a neuron to help maintain the resting potential?
A.
Calcium (Ca2+ )
B.
Hydrogen (H+ )
C.
Potassium (K+ )
D.
Sodium (Na+ )
35. What structures are used in the locomotion of bony shes and birds, but not in the locomotion of
earthworms and arthropods?
A.
Antagonistic muscles
B.
Bones to which antagonistic muscles are attached
C.
Neurons to stimulate muscle contraction
D.
Fins or wings for swimming or ying
36. In which part of the nephron is the glucose concentration of the ltrate reduced?
A.
Distal convoluted tubule
B.
C.
Ascending limb of the loop of Henl
D.
Descending limb of the loop of Henl
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37.
What structures are labelled I, II and III in the diagram of the kidney below?
I
III
II
38.
II
III
A.
Cortex
Medulla
Urethra
B.
Medulla
Pelvis
Ureter
C.
Cortex
Medulla
Ureter
D.
Medulla
Pelvis
Urethra
Which is an adaptation of hydrophytes?

A.
Water storage tissue
B.
Shallow but widely spreading roots
C.
Reduced thickness of cuticle
D.
Large numbers of stomata in the lower epidermis
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17.
The diagram below represents the human digestive system.
1
4
2
3
Which of the following correctly represents the labels?

Esophagus
Gall bladder
Small intestine
Pancreas
A.
B.
C.
D.
18. What are the characteristics of blood owing through most arteries and veins?
Arteries
Veins
A.
slow velocity
fast velocity
B.
high pressure
low pressure
C.
deoxygenated
oxygenated
D.
greater than 37 C
less than 37 C
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19.
20.
What will be an effect of HIV infection on the immune system?

A.
Antigens no longer bind to antibodies.
B.
Number of active lymphocytes is increased.
C.
Antibody production is limited.
D.
HIV patient will fall ill more frequently.
The graph below shows the blood glucose concentration of a patient after feeding at 07:00.
240
220
200
Blood glucose /
mg 100 ml1
180
160
140
120
100
05:00
07:00
09:00
11:00
Time of day
13:00
What describes the events between 07:00 and 09:00 and between 09:00 and 11:00?
Between 07:00 and 09:00
Between 09:00 and 11:00
A.
islet cells produce and secrete insulin
islet cells produce glucagon
B.
islet cells produce and secrete glucagon
C.
D.
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21.
The diagram below shows the female reproductive system and associated organs.
Which of the labelled structures correctly identify the cervix, urethra and ovary?
22.
Cervix
Urethra
Ovary
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which sequence of events precedes birth?

A.
Progesterone levels increase, oxytocin decreases, uterine contractions increase,

oxytocin decreases further.
B.
Progesterone levels decrease, oxytocin increases, uterine contractions increase,

oxytocin increases further.
C.
Progesterone levels increase, oxytocin increases, uterine contractions decrease,

oxytocin decreases.
D.
Progesterone levels decrease, oxytocin decreases, uterine contractions decrease,

oxytocin decreases further.
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32.
Which of the following correctly describes features of spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

Spermatogenesis
33.
Oogenesis
A.
mitosis
meiosis
B.
completed during fertilization
completed during fertilization
C.
four sperm produced per meiosis
one egg produced per meiosis
D.
sperm production starts during

fetal development
early stages happen during fetal

development
Which materials are passed across the placenta from the fetus back to the mother?
A.
Carbon dioxide, urea, hormones and water
B.
Oxygen, minerals, urea and hormones
C.
Carbon dioxide, proteins, uric acid and water
D.
Oxygen, carbon dioxide, urea and hormones
34. Which of the following represent an example of both articial immunity and passive immunity?
A.
Antibodies passed across in colostrum
B.
Injection of antivenom used to treat snake bites
C.
Exposure to somebody who is ill with Chickenpox
D.
Immunization with a weakened form of a virus
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35.
36.
What is(are) the use(s) of monoclonal antibodies in treatment and diagnosis?
I.
Targeting viral proteins
II.
Purication of interferon
III.
Tissue typing for transplants
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
I and III only
D.
I, II and III
In the diagram of the motor neuron below what is indicated by the labels W, X, Y and Z?
W
X
A.
myelin sheath
dendrite
node of Ranvier
elongated axon
B.
myelin sheath
dendrite
elongated axon
node of Ranvier
C.
dendrite
myelin sheath
elongated axon
node of Ranvier
D.
dendrite
node of Ranvier
myelin sheath
elongated axon
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37. In the human elbow joint, what are the functions of synovial uid, cartilage and ligaments?
Synovial uid
38.
Ligaments
A.
reduces friction
lubricates the joint
links bone to bone
B.
reduces friction
links bone to bone
C.
reduces friction
links bone to bone
D.
links bone to bone
reduces friction
Which excretory product occurs in which group of organisms?

Carbon dioxide
39.
Cartilage
Uric acid
Oxygen
A.
mammals
birds
plants
B.
mammals
plants
birds
C.
plants
mammals
birds
D.
birds
plants
mammals
A plant has roots, leaves and short woody stems. The leaves are usually curled up during growth and
divided into leaets. They produce spores, usually on the underside of the leaves.
What type of plant could this be?
A.
Hydrophyte
B.
Filicinophyte
C.
Bryophyte
D.
Xerophyte
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18. Which of the organisms AD, identied by the key below, represents an Annelid?

1. Shows bilateral symmetry

Does not show bilateral symmetry
go to 2
Cnidaria
2. Has a segmented body

Does not have a segmented body
go to 3
go to 4
3. Has jointed legs

Does not have jointed legs
A
B
4. Has a shell
Does not have a shell
C
D
19. Which of the following parts of the digestive system secrete proteases?
Stomach
Small Intestine
Large Intestine
A.
Yes
Yes
No
B.
Yes
No
Yes
C.
Yes
No
No
D.
No
No
No
20. Why are antibiotics effective against bacteria but not viruses?

A.
Viruses can hide inside host cells.
B.
Bacteria are recognized as pathogens but viruses are not.
C.
The enzymes of bacteria can be inhibited by antibiotics.
D.
Viruses are resistant to antibiotics.
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21. The diagram below represents the homeostatic control of body temperature. What does the part
labelled X represent?
core body
temperature
<37 C
muscles of skin
arteriole walls
skeletal muscles
NEGATIVE FEEDBACK
blood temperature
A.
Heart
B.
Kidney
C.
Pituitary
D.
Hypothalamus
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37 C
11
22. What are the structures labelled I and II on the diagram of the male reproductive system?
II
II
A.
Testis
Seminal vesicle
B.
Vas deferens
Testis
C.
Seminal vesicle
Epididymis
D.
Seminal vesicle
Prostate gland
23. What are the fundamental structural units of eukaryotic chromosomes?

A.
Nucleosomes
B.
Centromeres
C.
Histones
D.
Nucleoids
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35. Which of the following processes result in the production of recombinants?

I.
Crossing over between linked genes
II.
Reassortment of non-linked genes
III. Mutation
A.
I only
B.
I and II only
C.
I and III only
D.
I, II and III
36. What is required to produce monoclonal antibodies?

A.
T-lymphocytes and oocytes
B.
T-lymphocytes and early embryo cells
C.
B-lymphocytes and tumour cells
D.
B-lymphocytes and stem cells
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10. If 15 % of a sample of DNA is thymine, what percentage of the DNA is guanine?

A.
15 %
B.
30 %
C.
35 %
D.
It cannot be determined from the information given.
11. On which molecule is a codon found?

A.
Polypeptide
B.
mRNA
C.
tRNA
D.
rRNA
12. What do all human males inherit from their mother?

I.
An X chromosome
II.
A Y chromosome
III. Mitochondrial DNA
A.
I and II only
B.
II only
C.
I and III only
D.
I, II and III
13. Which structure releases glucagon?

A.
cells of the pancreas
B.
cells of the pancreas
C.
Liver cells
D.
Hypothalamus
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14. Which muscle action is associated with an increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity during
inspiration?

A.
The diaphragm contracts.
B.
The external intercostal muscles relax.
C.
The internal intercostal muscles contract.
D.
The abdominal muscles contract.
15. When a pathogen is ingested by a phagocyte, which event occurs rst?

A.
T-cell activation
B.
Memory cell proliferation
C.
Antigen presentation by the phagocyte
D.
B-cell activation
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16. Which of the following describes arteries?

A.
They have thick muscular walls.
B.
They usually contain valves.
C.
They carry blood towards the heart.
D.
They carry blood from the lungs.
17. What is the main function of the large intestine?

A.
Absorption of water
B.
Digestion of fats and proteins
C.
Absorption of nutrients
D.
Recycling of digestive enzymes
18.
To which group do sponges belong?
A.
Cnidaria
B.
Filicinophyta
C.
Porifera
D.
Mollusca
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24. In the following diagram of the kidney, which structure contains urine?
A
B
C
D
25. Which structure is acted upon by ADH (vasopressin)?

A.
B.
Bowmans capsule
C.
Loop of Henle
D.
Collecting duct
26. What is the distinction between highly repetitive DNA sequences and single-copy genes?

A.
The highly repetitive sequences have greater amounts of guanine.
B.
The highly repetitive sequences have greater amounts of cytosine.
C.
The highly repetitive sequences are not transcribed.
D.
The highly repetitive sequences are not replicated.
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27.
Which of the cells labelled in the diagram below provides nourishment for developing sperm cells?
A
B
[Source: Freeman & Bracegirdle, An Atlas of Histology, (Heinemann: 1976) p. 91, Copyright holder unknown.]
28. What is the advantage of CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) and other adaptations of xerophytes
in plants?

A.
It helps the plant to survive high humidity.
B.
It helps the plant prevent water loss.
C.
It helps the plant survive low light intensities.
D.
It helps the plant survive when there are low nutrients in soil.
29. Which plant hormone is responsible for the closing of the stomata?

A.
Gibberellic acid
B.
Abscisic acid
C.
Phytochromes
D.
Ethylene
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32. What structure within muscle tissue is surround by membrane and has multiple nuclei?

A.
Muscle bundle
B.
Muscle bre
C.
Myobril
D.
Sarcomere
33. Which of the following are features of the dicotyledonous plants?

I.
Parallel leaf veins
II.
Flower parts in groups of three
III. Two seed-leaves (cotyledons)
A.
III only
B.
II and III only
C.
I and II only
D.
I, II and III
34. Which of the following statements is true about enzymes?

A.
They are used up in the reactions they catalyse.
B.
Allosteric inhibitors bind to the active site.
C.
They lower the energy of activation for a reaction.
D.
They supply the energy of activation for a reaction.
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19. Pseudolarix amabilis produces seeds but not owers. Physcomitrella patens has leaves but not roots.
To which groups do they belong?
Pseudolarix amabilis
Physcomitrella patens
A.
coniferophyta
licinophyta
B.
licinophyta
angiospermophyta
C.
coniferophyta
bryophyta
D.
angiospermophyta
coniferophyta
20. The diagram below shows parts of the human digestive system.
Which points are linked by the small intestine?
A.
I and III
B.
II and III
C.
II and IV
D.
III and IV
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21. What route does blood follow to supply oxygen to heart muscle?

A.
pulmonary vein m left atrium m left ventricle m aorta m coronary artery
B.
pulmonary vein m right atrium m right ventricle m aorta m coronary artery
C.
pulmonary artery m left atrium m left ventricle m aorta m coronary artery
D.
pulmonary artery m right atrium m right ventricle m aorta m coronary artery
22. What change occurs to the pressure and volume of the lungs when the external intercostal muscles
contract?

A.
Both pressure and volume increase.
B.
Pressure increases and volume decreases.
C.
Pressure decreases and volume increases.
D.
Both pressure and volume decrease.
23. The graph below shows changes in membrane potential in an axon during the passage of an
action potential. What is causing the decrease in membrane potential at point X?
X
0
Time
Membrane
potential /
mV
70
A.
Sodium ions entering the axon
B.
Potassium ions entering the axon
C.
Sodium ions leaving the axon
D.
Potassium ions leaving the axon
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24. What is the consequence of insufcient secretion of FSH in women?

A.
Embryo implantation fails because the uterus lining is too thin.
B.
Mature eggs (oocytes) are not produced.
C.
Menstruation starts before embryo implantation occurs.
D.
Progesterone secretion is inhibited.
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36. What is a hypothesis in biology?

A.
An experiment that is used to test a theory
B.
An idea that cannot be tested experimentally
C.
A method used to prove a law
D.
A proposed explanation of observations
37. Which cells activate helper T-cells by antigen presentation?

A.
B-cells
B.
Bacteria
C.
Macrophages
D.
Plasma cells
38. What happens during muscle contraction?

A.
The number of light bands is reduced.
B.
The width of the dark bands is reduced.
C.
The lengths of the sarcomeres are reduced.
D.
Actin and myosin laments coil up.
39. The Bowmans capsule is a cup-shaped structure that is part of the nephron. What is the source of
glucose in the uid in the Bowmans capsule?

A.
Blood in the glomerulus
B.
Urine in the renal pelvis
C.
Filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule
D.
Interstitial uid in the medulla
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40. The diagram below shows a human egg.
II
III
What are the structures labelled I, II and III?

I
II
III
A.
acrosomes
zona pellucida
follicle cells
B.
acrosomes
cell wall
sperm
C.
cortical granules
cell wall
sperm
D.
cortical granules
zona pellucida
follicle cells
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19. Which of the following are used as evidence for evolution?

I.
Homologous structures
II.
Selective breeding of domesticated animals
III. Overproduction of offspring
A.
I and II only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
20. Which of the following is correct for lipase?

Substrate
Source
pH optimum
A.
triglycerides
pancreas
pH = 8
B.
fatty acids
small intestine
pH = 7
C.
triglycerides
small intestine
pH = 9
D.
fatty acids
pancreas
pH = 9
21. What prevents antibiotics from being effective against viruses?

A.
Viruses have a high rate of mutation.
B.
Viruses have no RNA.
C.
Viruses have no metabolism.
D.
Viruses have a protein shell that protects them.
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22. The diagram below shows the human heart. What structures are indicated by the labels X, Y and Z?
Y
X
[Source: adapted from http://whyles.org/102spareparts/images/heart2.gif]
A.
left atrium
aorta
semi-lunar valve
B.
left atrium
aorta
atrio-ventricular valve
C.
right atrium
pulmonary artery
atrio-ventricular valve
D.
right atrium
pulmonary artery
semi-lunar valve
23. Which muscles contract to cause air to pass into the lungs through the trachea?

A.
Internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
B.
Internal intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles
C.
External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
D.
External intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles
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24. The diagram below shows the changes in membrane potential during an action potential.

What occurs at the stages labelled 1 and 2?
+ 60
Membrane potential / mV
+ 40
Action potential
2
40
Threshold potential
60
Resting potential
100
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time / msec
1
2
+
A.
Na ions diffuse in;

inside becomes more positive
K ions diffuse out;

inside becomes more negative
B.
K+ ions diffuse out;

Na+ ions diffuse in;

C.
Na+ ions diffuse out;

K+ ions diffuse out;

D.
Na+ ions diffuse in;

K+ ions diffuse in;

25. What are the roles of testosterone in males?

A.
Stimulation of FSH production and growth in puberty
B.
Pre-natal development of genitalia and development of secondary sexual characteristics
C.
Development of genitalia and pre-natal secondary sexual characteristics
D.
Stimulation of FSH production and pre-natal development of secondary sexual characteristics
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34. A test cross resulted in these recombinants:
tB
Tb
tb
tb
Which of the following was the parental test cross?

A.
B.
C.
D.
TB
tb
TB
tB
Tb
tB
TB
tb
tb
tb
tb
Tb
tb
tb
TB
tb
35. What occurs during the blood clotting process?

A.
Prothrombin is converted into thrombin which acts on brinogen.
B.
Prothrombin is converted into thrombin which acts on brin.
C.
Fibrinogen is converted into brin which acts on prothrombin.
D.
Fibrinogen is converted into brin which acts on thrombin.
2210-6007
Turn over
18
36. What is indicated by the letters X, Y and Z?

Z
X
Y
X
A.
sarcomere
myosin laments
actin laments
B.
sarcomere
actin laments
myosin laments
C.
dark band
myosin laments
actin laments
D.
dark band
actin laments
myosin laments
2210-6007
19
37. The diagram below shows some stages in the production of monoclonal antibodies. What are stages
X, Y and Z?
Tumour cells
X
Y
Tissue culture
Z
Monoclonal antibodies
isolated for cultivation
[Used with the permission of Access Excellence @ the National Health Museum]
A.
injection of antibody
isolation of B-cell
fusion between B-cell and tumour cell

resulting in plasma cell
B.
injection of antibody
isolation of T-cell
fusion between T-cell and tumour cell

resulting in plasma cell
C.
injection of antigen
isolation of T-cell
fusion between T-cell and tumour cell

resulting in hybridoma cell
D.
injection of antigen
isolation of B-cell
fusion between B-cell and tumour cell

resulting in hybridoma cell
2210-6007
Turn over
20
38. In the diagram of the nephron below, what structures are indicated by the letters Y and Z?
Z
Y
[Source: adapted from http://ex.susd.org/sjones/SGHL12007 les/image005.jpg]
A.
glomerulus
collecting duct
B.
Bowmans capsule
collecting duct
C.
Bowmans capsule
distal convoluted tubule
D.
glomerulus
distal convoluted tubule
2210-6007
21
39. What are the roles of the following structures in the production of semen?
Epididymis
Seminal vesicle
A.
production of a uid
containing alkaline
minerals
production of fructose
maturation of sperm
B.
maturation of sperm
production of a uid
containing citric acid
C.
maturation of sperm
production of a uid
containing alkaline
minerals
D.
production of a uid
containing alkaline
minerals
maturation of sperm
40. What is the role of HCG in early pregnancy?

A.
It prevents the degeneration of the corpus luteum.
B.
It initiates the development of the uterus lining.
C.
It inhibits the production of estrogen.
D.
It stimulates the degeneration of the corpus luteum.
2210-6007
Prostate gland
11
20. Which feature increases the absorption of glucose in the small intestine?

A.
Villi
B.
Lacteal
C.
Cilia
D.
Goblet cells
21. What is a role of the pacemaker or sinoatrial node (SAN)?

A.
To initiate contraction of the ventricle
B.
To pass the excitation through Purkinje bres
C.
To originate excitation in myogenic muscle
D.
To cause the relaxation of the atria
22. Why are antibiotics effective against bacteria?

A.
They can produce specic antibodies.
B.
They can engulf foreign matter.
C.
They can block specic metabolic pathways.
D.
They can act as a vaccine.
2210-6013
Turn over
12
23. Which of the following features of the alveoli adapt them to gaseous exchange?

I.
Single layer of cells
II.
Film of moisture
III. Dense network of capillaries
A.
I and II only
B.
II only
C.
II and III only
D.
I, II and III
2210-6013
13
24. The diagram below shows water in the human body.

Key:
ow of water
movement of water into
digestive system
Saliva
1500 ml
Food and
drink
2000 ml
Gastric
secretions
1500 ml
absorption of water from

the digestive system
5000 ml
Intestinal
secretions
2000 ml
Liver (bile)
1000 ml
9000 ml
Pancreas
(pancreatic juices)
1000 ml
Small intestine
Ileocecal valve
1200 ml
Colonic mucus
secretions
200 ml
1400 ml
Colon
Feces
150 ml
Where in the digestive system is the largest volume of water absorbed from?
A.
Colon
B.
Pancreas
C.
Small intestine
D.
Liver
2210-6013
Turn over
18
34. What kind of inheritance does skin colour represent?

A.
Sex-linked (X-linked)
B.
Multiple alleles
C.
Systemic
D.
Polygenic
35. Which are the possible recombinants in a dihybrid test cross involving the linked genes

A.
B.
C.
D.
JQ
JJ
and
jq
Qq
Jq
Qq
and
Qq
JJ
Jq
jQ
and
jq
jq
Jq
JQ
and
jq
jQ
36. How can active immunity be acquired?

A.
By having the disease
B.
Injection of antibodies
C.
Through colostrum
D.
Via placenta
2210-6013
JQ
?
jq
19
37. What are fused in the production of monoclonal antibodies?

A.
Tumour cells and T-cells
B.
Tumour cells and B-cells
C.
B-cells and T-cells
D.
Antibodies and antigens
38. The diagram below shows the side view of the arm joint.
Which letter is pointing to the ulna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39. Which of the following best describes what happens in the glomerulus?

A.
Selective reabsorption of water and molecules by active transport
B.
Ultraltration introduces water and other molecules into the capillaries
C.
Regulation of salt balance leading to the production of urine
D.
High blood pressure forces water and other molecules into the nephron
2210-6013
Turn over
20
40. Which pair of statements best describes oogenesis and spermatogenesis?

Oogenesis
Spermatogenesis
A.
Four eggs are produced

per mitosis every 28 days
Millions of sperms are

produced per mitosis
B.
Four eggs are produced

per meiosis every 28 days
One sperm is produced per

meiosis
C.
One egg is produced per

mitosis every 28 days
Millions of sperms are

produced per meiosis
D.
One egg is produced per

meiosis every 28 days
Four sperms are produced

per meiosis
2210-6013
N11/4/BIOLO/HPM/ENG/TZ0/XX
27.
most
28.
29.
8811-6001
Turn over
30.
31.
32.
8811-6001
33.
immediately
34.
35.
36.
8811-6001
Turn over
23.
24.
25.
2212-6007
not
Turn over
19.
Atrio-ventricular valve
Semilunar valve
20.
21.
22.
2212-6007
34.
both
35.
36.
Antigens injected into
a child by vaccination
2212-6007
Antibodies crossing the

placenta to the fetus
Antibodies received
by baby from
breastfeeding
Turn over
37.
38.
ADH
39.
2212-6007
Permeability of the
collecting duct to water
40.
2212-6007
18.
19.
20.
21.
2212-6013
22.
23.
2212-6013
Turn over
24.
25.
2212-6013
33.
34.
35.
36.
2212-6013
37.
Cortex
Medulla
2212-6013
Turn over

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Very thick walls

left and right ventricles

left and right ventricles

left and right atria

left and right atria

People infected with HIV have different lifestyles.

People infected with HIV do not always develop AIDS.

Less blood flows to these parts of the body.

Capillaries move further away from the skin in exposed parts.

Heat is generated elsewhere in the body by shivering.

The fat layer becomes thinner.

Oestrogen inhibits it and progesterone stimulates it.

Progesterone inhibits it and oxytocin stimulates it.

Oxytocin inhibits it and FSH stimulates it.

FSH inhibits it and oestrogen stimulates it.

Cell plate forms

Cell plate forms

Cell membrane pulled inwards at the equator

Cell membrane pulled inwards at the equator

What are the differences between introns and exons?

Introns are translated but exons are not

Introns are excised from mRNA

Exons are translated but introns are not

Exons are excised from mRNA

Introns are translated but exons are not

Exons are excised from mRNA

Exons are translated but introns are not

Introns are excised from mRNA

Not more than six

Sealing the joint to hold in the synovial fluid

Preventing damage to the joint by acting as a shock absorber

Alveoli in the lungs

Erythrocytes in the blood

Villi in the small intestine

Sweat glands in the skin

It can contract without stimulation from nerves or hormones.

It is stimulated to contract by hormones but not nerves.

It is stimulated to contract by nerves but not hormones.

Nerves speed up its rate of contraction but hormones slow it down.

What is the function of phagocytic leucocytes?

To form a barrier against infection.

To move to sites of infection and ingest microbes.

To divide by mitosis to produce more leucocytes.

Toxic waste products of metabolism.

Indigestible foods and harmful bacteria.

Excess glucose and amino acids.

Water and plasma proteins.

What does amniocentesis involve?

Removal of amniotic fluid, culturing of cells and karyotyping.

Bursting of the amniotic sac before childbirth.

Production of amniotic fluid to protect the fetus.

In which cells can mitosis occur?

Haploid and diploid only.

Haploid, diploid and polyploid.

What happens in the process of splicing mRNA in cells?

Addition of nucleotides to the 5' end of the mRNA.

Addition of nucleotides to the 3' end of the mRNA.

Removal of exons from the initial mRNA transcript.

Removal of introns from the initial mRNA transcript.

Which characteristic feature is possessed by angiospermophytes but not by coniferophytes?

Muscles attached to a rigid skeleton

What is the function of the cartilage in the elbow joint?