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WESTWOOD HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK EXAMINATION
GRADE XII
MARCH 2015
BIOLOGY
Paper 01
80 minutes
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. This test contains 45 items. You have 80 minutes to answer ALL questions. Each item is worth
ONE point
2. Each item has four suggested answers lettered (A) (B) (C) (D), CIRCLE the letter which
corresponds to the answer of your choice
3. Work quickly and carefully as you can. If you cannot answer an item, move on to the next item,
and then return to the more difficult item later.
4. If you decide to change your answer, be sure to clearly omit the previous answer before choosing
your new answer.
5. You may do any rough work in this booklet.
6. The use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.

1. Which of the following bonds between


the molecules enables water to exist as a
liquid rather than a gas at room
temperature?
A. Covalent
B. Hydrogen
C. Ionic
D. Hydrophilic
2. Item 2 refers to the structures below two
isomers of glucose.
Which of the following statements is
true for BOTH isomers?

A. Both contribute to the structure


of starch
B. Both contribute to the structure
of cellulose
C. I contributes to the structure of
cellulose, II contributes to the
structure of starch
D. I contributes to the structure of
starch, II contributes to the
structure of cellulose
3. Phospholipids will affect the function of
which of the following cell structures?
I.
Endoplasmic reticulum
II.
Centrioles
III.
Mitochondrion
IV.
Nucleolus
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
I and III
II and IV
III and IV

4. Which of the following is the molecule


represented by the structure?
A. Triglyceride
B. Tripeptide
C. Triphosphate
D. Trisaccharide
5. In rheumatoid arthritis, cartilage of the
joints is thought to be digested by the
hydrolytic enzymes found in the
A. Nucleolus
B. Ribosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Golgi bodies
6. Carbohydrates are mainly transported in
the plants in the form of
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Sucrose
D. Starch
7. Collagen consists of three polypeptide
chains held together by H-bonds, N-H
groups and CO groups. Which of the
following terms describe the structure of
collagen?
A. A triple helix
B. An - helix
C. A double helix
D. A -helix

Item 8 refers to the diagram below which shows


the ring structure of glucose
Item 4 refers to the following chemical structure
of a molecule

8. Which of the following indicates the


form of glucose and the molecules in
which it is present

A.

Forms of
glucose

Where
Present
Cellulose

B.

Cellulose

C.

Starch

starch

D.

9. Triglycerides are excellent source of


energy for the body because of their
I.
Large size
II.
Ability to insulate
III.
Large number of C-C bonds
IV.
Insolubility in water
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and III only


I and IV only
II and III only
II and IV only

Item 10 refers to the tests performed by students


to identify food substances present in a solution.
The tests were carried out and their respective
results are shown in the table below
Test

A. Starch, protein
B. Non-reducing sugar only
C. Reducing sugar and nonreducing sugar
D. Non-reducing sugar, protein
11. In microscopy, the term resolution
describes the
A. Magnification by eyepiece lens
B. Magnification by objective lens
C. The degree to which the
specimen is magnified
D. The ability of the microscope to
clearly distinguish between two
points on the specimen
12. The molecule that is produced during the
formation of a peptide bond is
A. Oxygen
B. Water
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
13. When viewed under an electron
microscope, the cells in a specimen were
found to have closely packed
mitochondria with cristae closely packed
together. It is likely that the MAIN
function is
A. Secretion
B. Photosynthesis
C. Movement
D. Protein synthesis
14. Which of the following bonds hold two
strands of DNA molecule together
A. Peptide
B. Hydrogen
C. Water
D. Glyosidic

Results

Biuret Test

Purple colour was obtained

Benedicts Test

Remained blue on heating

Dilute hydrochloric
Blue colour became brick red
acid was added and
colour on heating
the mixture was
boiled, allowed to
10. Which of the following indicates the food
cool and Benedicts
substances present in the students
test was carried out
solution?

Item 15 refers to the diagram showing a plasma


membrane

15. The figure BEST demonstrates


A. Diffusion
B. Exocytosis
C. Active transport
D. Facillated diffusion
Item 16 refers to a diagram below which shows
the activation energy for an enzyme catalysed
reaction and an uncatalysed reaction

16. The activation energy for an enzymecatalysed reaction is represented by the


region labelled:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
17. Which of thye following diagrams best
illustrates the effect of temperature on the
rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction

Item 18 refers to the diagram below showing a


segment of a strand of DNA

18. The base X is


A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Uracil
D. Adenine
Item 19 refers to a diagram below showing the
general structure of a plant cell

19. Which of the options correctly indicates


the organelles that contain DNA
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,5
C. 2,4,6
D. 3,5,6
20. The organelles involved in the
manufacture, modification and transport
of lipases respectively are
A. Ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi
body, lysosomes
B. Nucleus, cytoplasm, rough ER,
Golgi body
C. Ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi
body, lysosomes
D. Lysosomes, ribosomes, smooth
ER, Golgi body

Item 21 refers to the figure below which shows


the structure of a bacterial cell as seen under an
electron microscope.

21. The structure involved in genetic


engineering is
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
22. When a plant cell is placed with a less
negative water potential than its cell sap,
the cell becomes more
A. Flaccid because solution
diffuses out of cell
B. Flaccid because water diffuses
out of cell
C. Turgid because the solution
diffuses into the cell
D. Turgid because the water
diffuses into the cell
Item 23. The sequences of bases in one strand of
DNA from part of a gene is
ACC CCA TTT CAT CCA
The table below shows some anticodons of some
tRNA molecules and the specific amino acid
each would carry
Amino Acid
Alanine
Glycine
Lysine
Proline
Tryptophan
Valine

tRNA
CGA
CCA
UUU
GGA
ACC
CAU

23. Which of the following amino acid


sequence is coded for this part of the
gene?
A. Valine-glycine-tryptophanglycine-lysine
B. Tryptophan-glycine-lysinevaline-glycine
C. Lysine-valine-lysine-valineglycine

D. Lysine-tryptophan-glycineglycine-alanine
24. Mendel crossed pure-breeding roundyellow peas with wrinkled-green green
peas. The F1 seeds were self-pollinated
and the seeds of the F2 showed the
following characteristics:
315 round and yellow
101 wrinkled and yellow
108 round and green
32 wrinkled and green
The appearance of the new
combinations of characteristics, round
and green, and wrinkled and yellow is
due to
A. Dominant epistasis
B. Independent assortment of
alleles for colour and shape
C. Genes for colour and shape
being on the same chromosome
D. Multiple alleles
25. Which of the following BEST describes
the null hypothesis?
A. A hypothesis which states that
there is no difference between
the observed and the expected
data
B. A hypothesis which states that
there is a significant difference
between items under
investigation
C. A hypothesis which has zero
testability
D. A hypothesis which can only be
tested by observations.
26. The following are events in transcription.
I.
RNA nucleotides are bound
together
II.
Hydrogen bonds between bases
are broken
III.
The mRNA formed leaves the
nucleus
IV.
Activated RNA nucleotides pair
up with exposed bases of DNA
V.
Part of a DNA molecule
unwinds

The correct sequence of events is


A.
B.
C.
D.

V, I, III, II, IV
V, II,III,I, IV
V, II, I, IV, III
V, II, IV, I, III

27. In addition to human insulin gene, which


of the following would be required to
provide a recombinant plasmid
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA ligase
C. ADP
D. RNA polymerase
28. One implication of the use of genetically
modified organisms on humans is
A. Too many humans might be
produced
B. Organisms designed for use in
humans might escape and cause
harmful consequences
C. Too few humans might be
produced
D. Organism designed for use in
humans might be produced in
large numbers

However, Pinus attenuata flowers in


February while Pinus attenuata
flowers in April. What type of
isolating mechanism does this
exemplify?
A. Seasonal
B. Ecological
C. Mechanical
D. Behavioural
31. Some type of genetic mutations can
result in frameshift. Which of the
types of mutations listed below are
MOST likely to result in a frameshift?
A. Substitution
B. Ecological
C. Insertion
D. Duplication
A.
B.
C.
D.

II and III only


III and IV only
I,II, and III only
II, III, IV only

32. Which of the following methods of


asexual reproduction is INCORRECT,
either by definition or its example?

29. The phenotype of an organism is BEST


explained as those visible characteristics
Type of reproduction
that
A. Provide a description of the overall
A. Binary Fission
appearance of an organism
B. Are due to the impact of the
environment in which the organism
B. Fragmentation
lives
C. Reflects the genetic make-up of the
organism
D. Reflects the interaction of the genetic
make-up and the environment on the C. Budding
organism.

30. Both Pinus radiata and Pinus


attenuata occupy the same habitat.

Definition
Splitting in two
daughter cells of
similar size
Splitting into
several pieces,
each of which
regrows
Producing an
outgrowth from
the parent, which
breaks off to

Examples
Amoeba
bacteria
Flatworms
Spirogyra

Hydra
Yeast fungus

D. Spore formation

become separate
individual
Produces small
lightweight
spores, to assist
in air dispersal

Hibiscus
Flamboyant

33. Which of the following structures is


NOT involved in asexual
reproduction?
A. Stamen
B. Bulb
C. Tuber
D. Rhizome
34. In some plants the androecium
matures before the gynoecium. Such
plants are described as
A. Dioecious
B. Monoecious
C. Protandrous
D. Protogynous
35. When the pollen grain alights on the
stigma and starts to grow, the first
action is that
A. Double fertilisation occurs
B. The zygote divides to form a
row of cells
C. A male nucleus fuses with the
endosperm nucleus
D. The generative cell divides
into two male gametes
Item 35 refers to the diagram below
which shows cross section of an
anther

Which of the numbered structure produces


the gametes?
A.
B.
C.
D.

I
II
III
IV

36. The following are advantages of two


types of pollination
A. No need for another parent
plant
B. Increases vigour
C. Widens gene pool
D. Does lose advantageous traits
Which of the following are specific to cross
pollination
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and IV only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, III, and IV

37. Which of the following represents the


possible sequence for tissue culture?
A. Meristemsstimulate
rooting shoot growth
plantlet young plant
B. Young
plantmeristemsshoot
growthstimulate
rootingplantlet

C. Plantletstimulate
rootingyoung
plantmeristems shoot
growth
D. Young plantshoot
growthmeristems
stimulate rooting plantlet
Item 38 and 39 refer to the diagram below
which shows the longitudinal section
through an ovule of an angiosperm

40. Which of the following correctly


identifies the parts labelled P,Q,R,S?

A. Oviduct
B. Ovary

Cervix
Cervix

Myometrium
Endometrium

Endometrium
Myometrium

C. Ovary

Uterus

endometrium

Myometrium

D. Oviduct Uterus
Myometrium
endometrium
Item 41 refers to the diagram below which
shows a simplified version of the structure of a
38. After fertilisation, the region labelled
mammalian testis
X will develop into the

A. Pericarp
B. Seed coat
C. Fleshy part of fruit
D. Flesh part of seed
39. The role of Y is to
A. Fuse with male nucleus to
form endosperm
B. Fuse with male nucleus to
form the cotyledon
C. Fuse with male nucleus to
form the embryo
D. Support the position of the
ovum and disintegrate after
fertilisation.
Item 40 refer to the following diagram
below which illustrates a section of the
human female reproductive system.

41. Spermatozoa are stored in the region


labelled
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Item 42 refers to the diagram below which
shows the stages of spermatogenesis that visible
in the transverse section of a seminiferous
tubule.

C. Promote thinning of the cervical


mucus
D. Completely inhibit follicular
development and ovulation.
Item 45 refers to the graphs below summarising
the hormonal changes during the menstrual
cycle of a woman
42. Follicle stimulating hormone acts directly
on the cells labelled
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
43. Which of the following hormones is
directly responsible for the release of the
ova from the ovary?
A. Oestrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinising hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone
44. The role of high dose progesterone only
pills is to
A. Directly cause lysis of sperm
B. Promote a build-up of the
endometrium

45. When will ovulation occur if there is a


surge of LH and FSH on day 12 of the
cycle?
A. Within 24 hours of the surge
B. 36 hours after the surge
C. 38 hours after the surge
D. Before day 12, LH and FSH
have no impact on ovulation

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