‘State Code Year DistrictCode Centre Code Roll No. | ee ie [oT] fe Terra asia ofear ater wean, 2045: apaftes ate tes deat ar 218712 wi-10% fae ‘see dat ster: mara @ fy — 45 fare, Fearn & fe (an ge aft) - 60 fe Sey Seam Goer (a) a sae: TB fee ~ 45 Fae, Pea & fe (Bae gi ae) - 60 Pz ‘tes ar aber (3) ort Fae = rere & fie - 90 Pre, Prac & fee (Beet ge aa) ~ 120 Pe Teena S fag eer Sell & sav 24S ea Praia Fat at or a oe TK UF SM silo To Io TAS KT Ey - ST SH Ae, Re we, A, Pe we, Bee se ce ants, Se RE MS we A Rarer k, we (ew de? aw fe) Faire 1 ee carr ce Fy AE hae Ram a Te oe wet OG OTT was, Re ate, He, Bear as, Bee ae tem ere 8 ont at er 8 sie oh ga gem ow sreers re af thet A eamafta Req on ed aaa ote Se © Hee waar wT GerEOTS FR TEX ar cw Reel ot od (PY Sex | otter A APR a ot oi cee ws as 2, Re Be 20", we 45, Pron ae 77", der ate 52" ae ai 106" &, Pr ner hac @ wed eto ver eraea ater Bt en at wen ate-ae sar A ea set St ; [Seseee [dese [wor [SE [GPT ronne_] O©OOOOOOO@|= OOCOOOOC®@: OQOOOCOOOO jO©00000000/- jo©o0oe@0000|u] }OO9@OOOOOO/}/p: o©0e@000000/3} O00Ce@0000|% OOVOOOCO@O|” ©09000000|2, ©00e@00000|s ° e Qo Q ® @ Q Q@ @ © 1 e Oo. 1: 1 @ Oo: SB ot re Rr ered is hs, es, af, Fr, Hee BE Mer AAR, oe ewe Ry mei ae ater 2 rat HE 1 et A mw er vies 3 50 ner Fhe AM Aes aeaer than & sree (a) eet aaron #40 ner she (@) ara rea 3 90 wer By SPH a OH a TET OH-US ore s B GP ae oe oPerd &, cate ow 8 & 9d ot aes-aa A ST A RATT APC ee er 8 sree Sire othe Rieter we S ae GAT oer ar sae BF aA ar ca aw SA one, wa ae oT TT eT AAR A a ore Fah er wr Sere A oa &, at ga we age are a aT SIH OM eT OT as on | AR ae 2 TRS, a A Ret Roy gw A Bs Ror a, ore: ae oer and one BI A Ae HE | sais Prva & sia we (Rough) wed & fare re gee Rem a | re ae A TGR SH Serle Ar ae a aT ara tet vi R Gear Biker 8 at RE RETR SHG SAE TRE er S APA Pee Te Reed A aet aey ae ten St wT eT EY ae ir Te a ate eA TE Ba TTT SAE * iz, Be Se, a, Bren he, Bec aie, wis oS sitter mer finer oe wel ge A Ritee 1 ot a er gto sa eo a eH wr vScheme Code State Code fe Pre rl 2 STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015 -|_ Tine Tine Time: aye 10. N.B.:Do not write on Question-Booklet anything except the Scheme Code, State Code, Year, District Code, Centre + Mental Ablty Tet: For General 45 Miautes, For Disabled (isuall Impaired] - 60 Minutes Full Marks : 50 District Code Centre Code Rolt No. MENTAL ABILITY AND SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST For Class X ‘ Scholastic Apt Test (a) Langrage Comprehension :ForGenerl-45 Minues, Fr Disebled (Visual Inpored)-60 Mines Full Marke: 40 ‘Scholastic Aptitude Tet (b) Other Subjects “For General - $0 Minutes, Fo Disabled (Visually Impaired) - 120 Minutes Full Marks : 90 Instructions to Candidates Read the following instructions carefully before you Answer the Questiors. ‘Answers are to be given ona separate OMR Answer-sheet. Please write your Scheme Code, State Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in one Block) as given on your Admission Card. Please sec that no Block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Scheme Code, State Code, Year, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate Black on the booklet andon the Answer-sheet, For example, a student of Class X appearing from *P Centre, Scheme Code ‘2’, State Code '20, Year "15" District Code °77", Centre Code 'S2' with Roll No. "106", «will make entries in the Block as well as darken the related circle by a Blue or Black Ball Point Pen as under:- Sihene | Sate care | Ses. (2] |e) Qo |oo 00 e jeo 00/0e|090 ® |oo 00/00/00 @ |oo 20/00|o0 3 Q oo @9O|@0|Oo9 eo |oe ©0|00|O0 ® |O0 @@|00}00 : oO eo @©90|O0|O0 ®@ |oe ©6|00|00 © |oe ©0|00|0e Forall subsequent purposes your Scheme Code, State Code, ear, District Code, Centre Code and Roll No. shall remain the sameas givenon the Admission Card. i This test is in two Parts. Part-I Mental Ability Test consists of 50 Questions and Part-II Scholastic Aptitude Te comprising (a) Language Comprehension which consis of 40 questions and (b) Other Subjects which consists of 90 Questions. All Questions in Part-1 and P: Since all Questions are compulsory, donot try toread throughthe whole’ Question paper before beginning to Answer it. Begin with the frst Question and keep on tryingone Questionafter another till you finish both the pars, If'youds not know the Answer to any Question, do not spend much time onit and pass on tothenextone. Timepermiting, ‘you cancome back to the Question which you have left inthe first instance and try them again. wl Blank space has been provided forrough work attheendof each subject. Rememberyouhavetodarken thecircleof Answer-sheet by a Blueor Black BallPoint Pen only; Answer to each Question isto be indicated by darkening. the umber of the correct alternative ee ‘amongst the ones given for the corresponding Question in the question-booklet. . ‘Now tum tothe next page andstart Answering the Questions. ll carry t markeach.ms 1-5 In each of the following questions, a group of Ietters is given, which are numbered containing combination of these numbers. lect that combination of numbers which rms a meaningful word, Lneer op yor? }) 1536724 (2) 7123456 esbiril \L XG) WL Hoste? 6742351 a agar sreais mine EUS yi (2) 813456279 Berne wee pry yey CO wt (1) 781635924 (2) 912673548 weet wer irgel 2415376 (2) 4361257 ons 6-10 In each of the following questions, d the figure from the answer-set (i.e. 1.2.3 and 4) which will continue the series given in Part -I aT - 1 MENTAL ABILITY TEST (ams ara gaan) ‘Time : For General - 45 Minutes, For Disabled wm: ary & fae-45 Prac, Pret (Visually Impaired) -60 Minutes (Gam gfe afta) & fry-60 Pre Full Marks: 50 ute: $0 [MAT-I] eT LS Priefer ts oer a erage R872 8 at Frat siet arr ferent & 1 8 fea 9a ar Ree % si=-3P ra aT Ae (combination) Rat war B 1 ST seat @ @ Pat seca maw opt ae & Pratt et ae 1 eon nepole, epee (3) 5642137 (4) 3471625 bob (3) 4235671 (4) 5673124 () 781256934 (4) 125349678 ** peer NAR eye! @Q) 341678392 a 175643982 a eth ye Leo heginh (3) 1234567 (4) 6217354 36 6-10 RA wae ae A ca oh at he FCA (sale 1, 2, 3 ae 4) Fg a oeae @ tem (seit A,B,C. Dam E) A at we @) vie[MAT-2] ea j go > ae [a alain) y * Questions 11-13 Study the pattern of numbers in the following questions and select the missing numbers in the place of question mark (2). Mark the correct alternative on your answer- sheet as directed. 3e 11-13 Profits oat 2 deasit S weit et 2 ote ae et ft acaas fee (?) 2 an wa Wen et 1 fa 72 Rast 3 a ad sae gaat AT Taga 7 Peengae wae 1 il. A c % Ae < 16 aoe ye i 4 \ 19 P y/ 2) o me 4 aoe ES 3 7 9 2 1 6 8 4 aes 7 1 () 406 Q) a (3) 622 ¥ oe 762 es estions 14-19 + 0 e149 ” a6 ar + means x,.- means =, x means - and + ‘ means + then 16 + 96-4x3 46 =» (2) 22 Tf + means x, - means +, x means - and = fans + then 10+ 6-15x5=5 9 ) 6 (2)6 If % means x, x means +, + means veans + then215x5-+ 10% 3 +3 10 (2) 12 - IfY means square, x means +, - means x and + means + then!20 + 25x5-3 =? 28 2y3t 14, +m ork AH, mont = acon Rom + HE + BAI = 96-4x346=7 (3) 43 ws 15, AR + oh a, woh + 8, a od - a FH + A H1046-1515-529 @ 2 (4) -7 16. AR six, ato = a + or a -# eT +momd + MAS x5 + 10%3+327 Bibs 5h BY a a (3) 18 (4) 20 e oh Bere 7 ARR ord oF A, ca orl + @, wet 20-25 Previa ws wer A ow doar aut & ag t, Pret Pate Prot ar omer eat Bs ee oe ah aS ia bi PART a es | ott Ptargare aret sae-gftcar 9 eat 1 Oa Oa @) 81 (4) 69 3) 21 (4) 23 (3) 28 (4) 27 (3) 28 (4) 25 G3) 19 (4) 21 ger 26-30 48 4 ag gam 4 wees Pee (2) 3 ee eR aT a (3) KHM (4) HLN @) cLDO (4) cIpy (3) XDLT (4) UNZF G) FB21 @) Feat (3) Yad (6) UseT -[MAT-4][MAT-5] yns 31-34 Choose the correct water-image of wFT31-34 fea 7 oR-atta weit A oneien a a given words/numbers from amongst the whan Bt i) WU2MEK (2) MM2EV (3) UNM2TV (4) SVBMM2 i EWAECLION (2) BEETECLION (3) BAXECLION (4) MELETCLION ef?) LIBZ RE AB) Lab3A2 (4) IBazve 7 i (1) wLMAT @) alemyr BD wrens ) BlewvA i; zeofXfrom 1, 7 35-36 RA wa Pet 12 sam 4a XT aa afafes a-aT erT ee 2 Ket he a Vv e Aa 3 & Ff G Hd{MAT- Questions 37-41 In the diagram below 9136-41 48 ag ot § ar a, Agr circle represents wheat, triangle represents @, ‘SRR wee a aa a amr Bata b 1 sugercane, rectangle represents rice and square amet & anyds comm at wa aa RA Tepresents millet. Study the diagram carefully ear and match the numbers with the questions given below. 4 J 37- Which area has the cultivation of all the four 37. Ret IM # at sees wae a att ae? commodities mentioned 7 ay 3 Qs a6 43 38. Which area gives millet and rice both ? 38. fea ear A aoa otk qaw aa aa B? ans @9 as (4) 8 39. Which area grows sugareane and millet 39, aq @ eH FT ea aera et dar ? together? a) 14 28 6 (4) 5 40. Which area grows only wheat and rice ? 40. a1} ear H fee AE ger rae Bar? (a) 6 (2)8 4a) 2 (4) 7 41. Which area grows wheat only ? 41. 31 2 aa Ree AE A ae at 7 ay 2 3 G4 4) 5 Questions 42-46 In every question a dice has been BF 42-46 os oT A Ge Te Oe BE sre akw feat a shown in three different faces on which 2 an Saar oot § eater rt 1 sz met ay iF numbers/letters have been written randomly. onde Ram aS STW sma wT S sa Carefully study the faces of the dice and answer fire 1 the questions based on it, 4 42. Which letter is opposite to letter 'L' ? 42. set 'L! 3 Raye Shear rere & | @) QD A @) M @P =vy ~ [MAT-7) | etter is opposite to letter 'O" ? 43, oT 0's an oF | ae y) . eu wv BO GeO e* a) oN @)Q a) M hich letter is opposite to Tate 44, ee 'Q } eats Bear ore B | ot » Re ad PEA CEN oO, es noo. @ NEA NEN wa" or QR @P @u we | hich letter is opposite to number “4° ? 45. 95 4° & Pheer Bea sis Ey BS: Yh ! 2 Ue. a 5 @t 7 (4)2 . |. Which letier is opposite 10 number °3° 2 6. a6 bos Orr eee ® @ Q By- 5 Vig ) e QA @)8 (42 On i total of present age of P, Qand Ris 90 47. P,Q a RA HM ong wan OME RT TE .. Ten years back their age ratio was 1:2:3. wre ong a gaat 1-2-3 er 1 Qe ata Sy t is the present age of Q. Reet #1 36 (2) 30 (3) 18 afro the average age of three ce is 60 years. 4g, dtm aifteit at shea sig 60 aa & 1 wea af f The age of the first person is + of the total age ay re ait ong Be TLE | ed ais % a ag wrt? (2) 56 CO) 36 3 , FP ¢ 2 "Soke Bo[MAT-8] ¥ 49, ‘The average age of three girls is 35 years. The 49, tt eel A cham ong 35 a4 B cer ret srg a | ratio of their age is 3:5:7. Find the age of the aT 3:5:7% 1 wae BS ast A ony IE youngest one mM 2 @)17 orn 23 50. ‘A’ is 16 years elder than "B’. But Bis Lage 50, Ba 1644 a8 1 Weg BA ore is equal to 4 age of ‘A’, then what is the ‘A oe fteg org 3 aaa t, aA’ sik “B’ adr 7 present age of ‘A’ and "B'. ag 7 q) A=32 QP A = 48 @) A=40 (4) A= 46 B= 16 B= 32 B= 42 B=30 For Rough Work Only (a amt ard & fae) Se e” Ge at yt o- ee wot po ot. 4S 1a cS 7 (Gat > = —_ ane ae “GD it 1 avb* b ° oy Ob \are Stes aterar afer 0 (#) war Haare a fire - 45 re, Preset & fore (Seer gfe: afta) -.60 Fee pits =40 sue 8) 8 gd RE ar fae ward 3 ara ge aie | mee oe 1 (wR) ois aT B eet set} ar aoe ta afta By a eT aT Tae hte we | oat fae me Sh. OH. Se. TACT (OMR-Answer Sheet) 1 Gt Bt Bi wig wet & ure tok gar Re ae &, Bra Ben ee sor aA BY sre aftr & soa 3 fe oy aftr Pewee Ged AS we fees qe sre oe Pad Ree aS drat sce anit Pit eB E PART-IL SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST II (a) LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION ne : For General - 45 minutes, For Disabled (Visually Impaired) - 60 Minutes Full Marks = 40 INSTRUCTIONS Allthe questions ofthis part ave related to Language Comprehension “Ths par contains 40 crestons in Hindi Language and 40 questions in English Language. The candidate has te choose and _attampt this test only in one Langus either in Hindi or in English. Hindi English Before answering the questions, read these instructions very carefully Each question caries 1 (one) mark Answer allihe quastionsis exnental ‘This questions a'e to be answered on ONR Answer. sheet supplied in the Examination Hall Every question has four alternativesiof which only one is conect _Arswer to each quesiion isto be Indicated by darkening the number of the correct alternative In the Answer-shset fom _ amongst the ones civen for the corresponding question inthe Test (Queston) Bookie. a Ge see che reat spel SIT HT | (Please Turn Over the Page and Start Your Work) apHindi ( fet) Be 1-5 a Re me vain A wat wae we Rat er SPR 1 sare aver 2 aft a riven me eA Se aT 1 aE we aren He aft & a S ed ote ata te at Ae SRST TT FT Te aie Sar TET FaS TTT a aT GHB 150 Peat GARE AA cen B 1 sia: wel Shrot ataa TE 1 Seni Set S omer ax aS sare) dom wae Bg Bea me a aae A ITM eg cee B 1 ae ome Se an aE ECT aT oe dis sear apis 8 1 gee aapise 4 Fras he gaker ara 8&1 gee Pree ot a ae A oT Bett & 1 oft Fate 8 ter oe @ eas ON GA ae TT RY Reg 888 1 gs aera ar oa 8 ee Gace ar ap ouch 1 gy eee at hr teat 3 a ag aT % amr w Arosa 3 af wt Sal Baa a eH Bay Pret ex Ae eae aera Pett we FEE . af a gee a are b - (1) eae wae Stet BAT 2) Fae ot BT 3) sae art site rea FT @) wae & ai eT AT Oe tert einer EE ae - (1) wate 2) erie G) ar dart (4) ag sia . Prat he at Pea wari rat er & - a) sf GB) ari @ Pet @) wt aT aera a a wet at Seis a - 2) Feit @) @. ao Q) sag Q) 3a 5. at S comet at em Br Bing b 2 a) we Q) ar GQ) we «am wet 6-10 Frafeter Tale sree Te wae ae ser wT eet & ore Preven B - {HIN-1] art BA | ah fia, Reaver fier A atte sorax tah sg 58 wea 8 ae ag Gr tat ae erat sree FH a GTTe ETT RG NS war, Cer one Bs THAR HT eT Aaahia gem 1 ‘ween we rer eT A Bg | sect cea B, a Rea, Frege, sitar, wer 3 wx 4, SR A aed we Be PE ot eS a othe corre 8 Rat oD ae at? (1) Reve Bea 8 gee (2) eawer Pea @ wate 4) feener fare & sree at ‘aft arr Fa reat & ? () Feat Be ar F ET Q) dot adh & aren @) eta gaa as Am eT (4) age gener Fo aeaT af 3 ea an damn va wet? (1) et ae Soar ghar TT FF aT Q) wee Fae HT aT GB) We S ae ote A 4) Rete fem ae SPH A A a “ere at dB QQ) ae G) Q waite 4) we QF eT (2) Fe ET ) want 4) Heeatt az Gi wet (2) ted 3) tet (4) wd ‘fete’ wax 3 aunt & a) a Q) aft @ 8 (4) ree! 3 a a ea 8 7 1) Q) ame aE (4) ae aan sea a a Peet GT a Q) ae a 4) oe 3a of a cobra t - Ra 2) we a (4) sire eal a Seg a ae cela ae ate 2) oar wet (4) se oot a srr Sat ore we eed 7 warris (2) Praia fesmis 4) organs om facts B - AGE (2) Pree aan (4) sre oer 7B ae fee a ae a at aT 2) sagRria oan (4) seta: aria’ are & fore wet arte Be @ faa & Bre Pear 7 Pear ot ah ft Rera 3 am ) stas a Ream sere a. (HIN-2] ‘am Gt % Sear at at amy A Ste at wa Reet a1 Q) iw @ wet a) ay G) tat ETT Sara yee S Ree we on Ray 7 a gh Q) wg oT 2) sree ea Ber G) seta Pret ert (4) sieiet ater Pre Ras a Ren oa Gat er gra rer aR snfts Ratt de 7H, @.... () Reet gud at oc Q) arr fa a ser G) eet a ae te dart 4) 3&8 rT SA El SAT TT GS EL, MPT meat A Bet 1’ ze at aa 4 ere... Q) sit 3 rr oT (2) SI Fat a oT Fat G) sepa Tt BRT IT G4) Fe ae aie Ber Ret aed A seiegere gS wate oe ar 8, 2 eat F C1) sient Q) wea (3) Rreré sre 4) wae at ae Ra an eR ermB () ar 2) ae G) wait (@) Fahet «3uw. 28. 29. 30. 3 32. 33. Reg hye 18 weer et eS Prooee ST BT wo @ @ Be @) Pre (4) Bret “ae Fe CN ore area A aT Prat Pee 7 ag (1) Baafre Pear (2) Reeds Brat Q) Hag Bar (4) areas Gar ‘em wa rea Ba wh aey oftdrr fee ae Reet ta gs Q) ara Rees Q) ams ane Ret ae G) err fre rE @) ars Rete Pre crt & ott sia ee qe at: gery Coa GB... A ET MSH a) ae Q GB) ara (4) FR ‘Ren er Be aR eM Te eH ar Ari alee ama § Repent cada a wel Pres are () aareede | @) ae eda ) rar cede (4) fata cea, caret § order feu oA ae et a - CQ) veda wey F 2) weit wet B G) waeAk (4) aaa set ‘dee oT om, eae Gea ae’ fea Fat ay? () Raa @) we aT GO) wa | @) Ra 35. 3. . 9 ar ar aaa BF aire {HIN-3] je + oe | faq ag Raed 3 8 ae Ree Sait a wel Ret | afr - () THR Q) RR G) arses (4) afta fret aft ede 8B am aie or adi Pret gH - Q) w+ = te Q) K+ m= tH GB) aft + sit = sei @) Pet sift = Frit aire wre 9 a ae fame ge (1) tard sift Q) tad site G) Ya sift @) Yar Ree site Arteta Reel AA ge ae aA () Ter s rete 2) Maes ore aw GB) ATH aa ae @) Apa re aa A aad Ba sae F - Q) @ x G) or @ afr Q) wea Q) waa @) Rea (4) aR ‘afore’ dan at a Raat aaa Ft a ora B Q) see 2) sinters @) ater 4) steetlestions 1 to 5 Read the passage given below and the questions that follow, _ Every eye was fixed at the Little Master, as . Charl Langeveldt walked over to his bowling ‘mark to bow! him. The Little Master was at the score of 199. Will history be created today ? _ Will they be the witness to the history in making ? They held their breath as the little Benius tapped the ball and stole a single. History was made. The first double century in the limited over cricket was scored. And the Little Master who did it was none other than Sachin Tendulkar. He scored exactly 200 not ‘ut against South Africa in Gwalior breaking the previous highest scoreof 194 held jointly by ‘Zimbabwean Charles Coventry and Pakistan's ‘Saced Anwar. ‘Little Master here refers to: Charl Langevelat Sachin Tendulkar Charles Coventry Saeed Anwar Tendulkar scored a century Wt was the highest score It was the first double century in a one day match Langeveldt was bowling description is about a baseball match aT-20 match a Test match 2 One day match hin Tendulkar completed his 200 runs by 7, oring asix aboundary fone run two runs English ( 3fttt ) [ENG-1) 5. Where did Tendulkar score 200 runs ? (1) South Africa 2) Gwalior (G3) Pakistan (4) Zimbabwe Questions 6-10 Read the passage given below and ‘answer the questions that follow. ‘was born ina middle class Tamil family in the island town of Rameswaram in the erstwhile Madras state. My father, Jainulabdeen, had neither much formal education nor much wealth, in ‘spite Of these disadvantages. he Possessed great innate wisdom and a firm generosity of spirit. He had an ideal help in my mother, Ashiamma. I do not recall the exact number of people she fed everyday, but | am quite certain that more outsiders ate with us than all the members of our own family put together. I was one of many children a short boy with rather undistinguished looks, born to fall and handsome parents. We lived in our ancestral house, which was built in the middle of the nineteenth century. My austere father used to avoid all luxuries. However, all necessities. were provided for, in terms of food, medicine or clothes. In fact, I would say mine was a ve secure childhood, both materially and ‘emotionally. The narrator was born in a/an (1) Upper class Oriya family QF Middle class Tamil family (3) Middle class Gujarati family (4) Lower class Bengali family Jainulabdeen was (1) very miserly eT extremely orthodox. (3) highly educated (4) always ready to give things freely (5)10. An ancestral house is (1) The house made by the owner Q) The house inherited from forefathers (3) The house of father-in-law (4) fairly large pueca house ‘The narrator's childhood was secure because (1) He had all comforts at his disposal (2) His father was very influential 42) He had all support that he needed (4) He enjoyed all support and had no anxiety. Ashiamma (1) did not like her husband's: attitude (2) loved tobe idle , (3) wasnot very helpful (4) supported her husband in his generosity Questions 11-12 The following five sentences come Ll. from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the paragraph. S, It is easy to tell the world that film production in India is quantitatively second only to Hollywood. Sg Or, are we just plain ashamed of our films ? P Butcan the same be said of its quality ? Q Is it solely because India offers a potential market for her own products ? R Why are our films not shown abroad ? Choose from the options given below YF PRO 2) QPR (3) POR (4) RQP [ENG-2] Unity and universality must belong to any: culture that is true and vital 5 Not one of them is separately culture, but collectively they constitute the expression of life which we describe as culture. P. It is always a complex of many sirands of varying importance and vitality Q There is no single character or mark which can be regarded as the essence or distinctive feature of culture R_ Now culture is @ concept which cannot be simply or unitarily defined Choose from the options given below (1) PQR (2) QRP @) RPO (4) RQP Questions 13-22 Choose the word which best fills -| the blank in the sentences from the four options: given. inl 13. .....-Will not let you rise in life. C) _Ialeness QQ) Taste (3) Readiness (4) Happiness: 44, Did you........the sweet dish ? (1) test taste (3) threaten (4) liked 15. Having failed in the examination, he was Becesece mood. 5 pensive 2) happy @) ghd (4) delighted 16. Ididn’t geta.........--sleep last night. (1) tight (2) heavy tftrait) [PHY-1] 1. Peter 3 Ream od aa aw tar fea Rar oe Set oer gn aa ten fe} Pe The figure given below shows tne di slotted against time for a part region is the force acting on the particle zero? ar? E AB (2) BC Q) cD (4) DE A person standing on the floor of a lift drops =. we gurat fame & aiex eam & am ow Pen ae coin. The coin reaches the floor of ihe lift ina Proct $1 om eae fae Bch Raat A PA Ff, time ty if the lift is stationary and in time ty if its Qo mm twa Meo aha moving uniformly. ‘Then tote way ar Es ty ey a ee Herb? Q) gay Q) qt — @) ysy @ 4tp depending on whether @ USOT >b W PAC Hee EB Ree TT the liftis going up or down. Sakon wt na tr Aboy is rotating in acircular motion, astone of 3. AEST OH Gere, rae maT 500 am E ee 50 500 gm by using a string of length 50cm BA. ott cet 8 iene qa wa ae pe with a speed 10 cm/s. What will be the work weet ae 10 828A. ba aed arr we fe, done by the force applied by the boy aa sae at at ae ar? (1) 0.01 Q) x3 Q) 0.01 x5 2 xt 3) 10nd. {45 Zero @) 10%) (4) Zero lanet of volume V and mass m has 4. (WG, Rae are V Gd AT mB, & AE Witational acceleration g on iis surface. If it geet er ar gb) ser gw OTT 8 TT to 8 times its original volume, what Borg ah sedi wor oe esta er ea? ill be the acceleration due to gravity D4 (2) 2 4s (2) 25 () 48 2) 28 OF el (4) git @) g4 (4) 98 — Aconvex lens forms a real image of a point «Ss Gew Ga Pet aq a arate thee aa \bject placed on its principal axis. If the upper oon @a a orn Rea are fen om a - favor Tens is cut LB Tre image will be shifteddowaward DG) Teeimage will beshittedupward 2) Sirs oa Fes TT 1 (3) The intensity of the image will decrease ©) siaears Bt ater ar one | (4) None of the above @) FH a ae tat (1) a Ae Rees ore 1 ay6. 9. A screen is placed at a distance 40 cm away from an illuminated object. A converging lens if placed between the source and screen and attempt is made to form an image on screen. If no position could be found. The focal length of the lens ah must be less than 10cm (2) must be greater than 20 em (H must not be greater than 20em (4) must not be less than 10 cm In a nuclear reaction given below the total energy released is 355 kev and the binding energy of electron is 35 kev. The energy E of the neutrino will be BI 0 €s + 55 4 i / (1) E<355kev <@) B=355 kev (3) E> 355kev _>{4) Noneof the above In the circuit given below what will be the ratio of current flowing in the upper arm ‘R’ and lower arm'R° & —> X + (PHY- 6 HIST 40 FF. gO oe oT ag aE on we agent da we Ae war a tk Te ag a ors a at We dt ae a air. () f< 10cm 2) £>20em @) £< 20cm (4) £> 10cm 7. 8 RA afer ANT A ET GA ort kev ® car scat & durant 35 kev & 1 Sabla a4 aigt H Gat EF Fae 131 V (neutrino) 54 () E<35Skev (2) B=355 kev (3) E> 35kev ater Ra aE ae 8. Rl fla FRA 7a oer 7 ond RA ufera 'R' & cer Prat feet 3 ‘RA eter sr. ‘sea TT? ae Loin! *) (a) 2/3 Q) 5/3 What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given circuit. (1) GR 3/2 (@) US 9. Ra aa ofitd 3 dae FAG A BS dq RRS afta ar Br? (8/3) R @) BR‘A rectangular coil of copper wite is rotated ina “Magnetic field. The direction of the induced ___crtent changes once in each (1) revolution (2) two revolutions Gy half revolution (4) one fourth ofa revolution plecting the rotation of the earth, if suddenly the attractive power of the earth drops 10 Zero, _ Aman standing on the earth will jove out tangentially _-@) stand unaffected 2. A high energy electron enters into a strong "Magnetic field which is perpendicular to its ‘locity plane. In which path is it expected to ve? ey (PHY-3} 10. samare a aT coil Fatty Bs A gH OH TT 8 3 one 3 Bea ors a fen weet (1) Be Bea A Q) Ra wee (3) ont wear (4) ww thang wae LL. vt $A ao a aoe aa Ro ares ae yt A at at wae oe a? ret BR Fa ait ? (1) 9a & ste 2) Wwe fewer 8) wet or 8 og ar (4) Ref ve RE rare wl 2. esa wt a AER a aa ot ean} aR MT Te Fwd mH oe Freetfac 4 8 fa ave ar arr ? ~ e@ @ For Rough Work Only (@at opt a & fae)13. 14, 15. 16. 7. Chemistry (tara) If Z is a compressibility factor, van der waals equation at low pressure can be written as: =1+Pe () Z=t+pE Q) Z=1 & 8) 7=1+8E (4) Z=1- WRT ‘The metal that can be obtained by electrolysis of ‘an aqueous solution of its salts is : Q) Zn (2) Cr otea Which of the following oxide of nitrogen is ionic? G) Mg @) NO N20 (3) N05 (4) NO2 The equivalent conductance of Nacl a concentration C and at infinite dilution are 1. and 1,. respectively. The correet relationship between hand 2x is given by (Where the constant B is positive) Q) eae BIE R A PRS 4, ZPRS = 120° PR w fig Q fa ya frat var Pi PO = OS eH OR = RST LOPS cin ‘ a) 15° Q 3 @) 45° @ am want 8 1 ay goes wd oe anes 4 Gavel FIM correct a wRAG) aM saw iT om, oH 34. Set Boe 3a Ht gh da 8 OH aad cts Mahomet drag Bie Rm @ 1m. @ @) 15m. (4) 18m.(1) 34% Q) 46% GB) 34% 66% ‘The mean of n numbers x,, Xp, If x, is replaced by ‘a’, the new means M-x, +a =i (4) None of these aM-x, +a a) ® Which of the following is correct for the given data 55. 38, 69. 24, 89? (1) median=mode (2) mean=mode (3) mean=median (4) None of these $3. The mean of n numbers is M. If 1 is added to the er, 2 is added to the second number, : _ nis added to then! number then the new mean is 4 nel a ay M+4s @ M+4 GB) Mtn (4) None of these |. A bag contains 5 red and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is three times the probability of drawing a red ball then the ‘number of blue balls in the bag i . a) 10 Q) 12 (3) 15 (4) 8 tanx Sinx__ Secx- 1 T+Cosx (1) 2tanx (2) 2Sinx (3) 6 Cosx (4) 2Cotx i [MTH-3] 80. 7 Bat. At Seng et 3 Sat. sae Boar aa ca sg @, 0A. x5 Bat. x28. Penal ae aad 3 ema gas 8, wear Preven var 1 ade Gf oath aa afat B..... (a) 34% Q) 46% 3) 34% @) 6% SL. n BOM x}, Xp, 1 Xq TMB ae x, a re a! BY aT Se a aT TE ST nM -x, +a M-x, +a qe a @ BEATN & gaa ata 52. faq staat 55, 38, 69, 24, 89 3 firm, Pra 4 dt aa te (1) Aifqer=agre (2) Fe aE 3) Argan (4) Sa aE at 53. neue aT ATT MB | Bie eh He A 1 ast oT, BR som Fog OMG, nl ao A nT ‘are at ar Te... BT cy M4 tt @) M44 8) M+a @) Fa aa wt 34. wo 88 75 co Ge cet aR oe nh Ae a Peat at often, ce at te at frarat at sriteer A att at 8, at ta A teh Ft at ter ee () 10 Q 2 @) 15 @ 8 5S. Sens” THOR (1) 2tanx @) 2Sinx (3) 6 Cox @) 2Cow Gt)(t) aenRra eat Ut Ara Fert TS (C) SOCIAL STUDIES AND HUMANITIES -Hargovind Khurana, the great scientist was bornon : (1) LJamuary 1922 A 9Samvary 1922 (3) 3 January 1922 (4) 7 January 1922 7. M. S. Swaminathan, the great scientist was awarded PADMA SRI by the Govt. of India in: () 1965 (2) 1966 (3) 1967 (4) 1968 ‘The Jalianwala Bagh is located at <1) Lahore (3) Amritsar Q) Multan (4) Jalandhar yunded in > (4) 1925 ~@) 1926 (3) 1927 (4) 1928 Q) 30 October 1876 (3) 30 October 1877 \ (4) 30 October 1878 original name of Vinoba Bhave was : (1) Vijay Narain Bhave Q ori (4) Vinayak Narhari Bhave ay Narhari Bhave inoba Narhari Bhave Socialist Party was founded in; (1) 1933 A 1935 (2) 1934 (4) 1936 History ( xfer ) (HIS-1} 56. Her Sante wei qT a aT EST aT : (2) 1 oad 1922 2) 9 sree 1922 (3) 3 raf 1922 (4) 7 reat 1922 57. mer Sate orga. eines A ora weet ad matt ot out df ag : (1) 1965 @) 1965 (3) 1967 (4) 1968 $8. oniRetiae a1 at rafter 8 7 a) anit 2) G) srETET @) sae 59. Te eee ae (se.ca.ce.) A eat ge (ly 1925 @) 1926 (3) 1927 (4) 1928 60. cee Hy eat aT ARATE, ITI A a ES aT: (1) 31 aagae 1875 2) 30 magaT 1876 G) 30 sar 1877 (4) 30 ormgae 1878 61. Reta wa aT anaes A aT: (1) RRR ART A (2) Fao areeft are 8) RRR reat a 4) Pres Tee ae 2. TAMER ee a EAN EE : (1) 1933 @) 1935 Q) 1934 @) 1936 (33) =F63. Jeevak, the first surgeon, was of : $ (1) Varanasi be ‘Takshila (3) Rajgir (4) Pataliputra 64, Agra City was founded by : (1), Allaudin Khilji Sikandar Lodi (3) Akbar (4) Shahjahan 65. Whatis Tigris? @) King 2} Place 3) Mountain (4) River 63. sites, Ter See Pate aT: () aRPR a 2 aren ar @) WHR & @) wee a 64. ar eree eee Peat A: () sears feet art Q) Rear a aa @) oe aT 4) meee et 6. dria ert? Oa @ =F @) aa @ a For Rough Work Only (Fae ay at % fee)Assertion (A) : Indian rivers on the western coast do not form delta though they bring along lot of sediments. Reason (R) : Tidal waves wash away sediments from the western coast, Select the correct option from the given alternatives- (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (Ry does not explains (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true Assertion (A) : Jute is considered a golden fibre in India. Reason (R) : Jute in its appearance is golden in colour Select the correct option from the given alternatives - (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does ‘not explains (A) _ G) (A) istrne and (R) is false (4) (A) is fatse and (R) is crue ssertion (A): Tank irrigation is most common Prevalent means of irrigation in peninsular - India. 1 2 The terrain of the perinsular Plateau is very uneven with many natural “depressions. “Select the correct option from the given (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and AR) are true bur (Ry does notexplains (A) y G) (A)is true and (R) is false Geography (>it) ([GEO-1] 66. Fear (A) : area & afte ae ae aa Ber a wrt Fa ome ae ani wer 3 amor a a wet ey FER): Ref ae we arta aT VE a ae aT ame) ©) wa (R) FH eA oer (R), (A) B RAT Fe By SPI IE He B 3) A) B&B on (R) TTR, ) (A) FRE eT (Ra RY 6. POO Fe a Gre tr A 8 a ' SR): FE HTH AST GA ty aT EL Pam freed 3 a Pet oo a ga at - M @ me Mme eT Rae | aren a | @) (A) me (R) Ht wa F Py OR), (A) | Bare et wea t @ WR Hera E,W a | | ©) (A) HGF 7H (R) TATE @) (A) aR 8 Tem (R) aE, 68. Prey (A) : saddle sre aera Ried oe ae rete ares & FS (R) : meme at 8 vem sia Bee Fei ag orate ae? & Ret ne Ret 38 Peet om a7 ye at - () (A) Fer (R) SH v8 Foe A) a FCT Seat 2) (A) Wa (R) art we E Rg (RH, (a) @ are ae ae By G) (A) wa E TR TATE, @) (A) ere wer (R) wD (35)69. Assertion (A): Delhi has a high annual range of temperature. Reason (R) : Delhi is located in the subtropical region. Select the correct option from the given alternatives - (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A) (3) (A) istrue and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true 70. The river Mahanadi passes from which state (A) Karnataka (B) AndhraPradesh (C) Odisha (D) Tamil Nadi 71. India is deficient in which of the following minerals (1) Mica (2) Bauxite 3) Iron (4) Lead 72. The source of best quality Pashmina wool is- A) Angora sheep from Himachal Pradesh (2) Chamba goats from Himachal Pradesh (3) Gure} sheep from J & K (4) Bikaner sheep from Rajasthan 73. The main problem of Green Revolution is- (1) Regional imbalance Q) Q) « 74. Royal Bengal Tiger is found in which of the following forest region - (2) Gir forest \@f Sundarban (3) Vrindavan (4) Dandkaranya 75. The coastal plain south of river Tapti till Southern Goa is known as - (2) Plain of Gujrat (Q), Malabar coastal plain inequality in the production of crop pollution of the environment all of the above Konkan coastal plain (4) Coromandal coastal plain [GEO-2] 69. Fra (A) : Rect a ate arnice gr Sat & aE (R): Rech oer aitam A Rea & fed ore Raat 1 8 Pet Ga gas BE - (1) (A) War R) Bt aT E eT (R), (A) aT wa Et (2) (A) Fer (R) A a F Pg R), (A) aren wa wa B 1 (3) (A) ae 8 wear (R) eT EI 4) (A) FART 2 HR) WEE 10, Herta 7a ei B HRT TRB? (A) ates (B) ST weer (©) aise @) afer ag Th. RG 4 fea Per at arora B - (1) 35 Q) aE @) ater @) a 72. sa weir sr oe at air B - (1) fara sa stir 8 (2) fear ser a cat afta Q) seit Bt Hr (4) aaa a darth AS 73. afte ait & dates oye eT F - () seis sige QQ) earthed 2 STAT @) viewer a ga @) ait wt 4. TR Fe ce Prefer 4 8 Pee a wer A ar are & ~ Q) at 2) aa OG) eA 4) sare 75. wat 4 8 eB aay ae a ee tet eT see ¥ i i () PRE erie “ @) mera a wee fae (3) em ar aaa 4) deiser ar adta Feet"of the Indian Constitution ? (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar (3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Raja Gopalachari Who has the power of Judicial review in the Indian Constitution 7 r 0) only Supreme Court (2) only High Court (3) ,President a Both Supreme Court and High Court “Who made the Indian Constitution 7 ~ A) Constituent Assembly 2) British Parliament (3) Indian Parliament (4) Governor General emocracy in India ? (1) Gram Sabha (2) Gram Panchayat © (3) Nagar Panchayat (4) District Panchayat ich constitutional amendment bill has nded the tenure of Lok Sabhs from 6 years ins years (1) 42'nd Q) 44th (3) 45'th (4) None of these (The decision regarding eligibility criteria ‘Controversy of the members of the parliament is ‘taken by - AF Election Commission Q) Related Chamber B) Lok Satha Speaker _ (@) The President after taking advice from Electoral Commission Civies ( afeearer ) 76. Who is the chairman of the Drafting Committee {CIV-1] 76. wd aears aa3 ait area wR & oy as ar (1) Bo We rare Q) Bo thre ante (3) Wa are Fes (4) Wor amereré 77. wardia erat orerie -ahis Goiaer ker Fema ore & 7 () 324 gern are a 2) 3am 3a aT a 3) Usaht (4) SeRry oer seq sara a at 78. acta ator a feat ear en? () eur er +2) afer tax 3) aria da @) TR eR 1. Sia 9 Prater 2 2 ate at sear seam seria a ‘waren & ? () aR Org @) FR dre (4) Pret tare 80. fon dar eigter Rtas 3 dean S aaa @ 6 OE 8S at eet Feat - () a2 Q) 4a (3) 454 GO) weer are 81. ate Baten wed Reel ar Pte oe B Q) Prater orate Q) FRR a @) arora ora 4) Prefer sien a wae ax eUht (37)82. 83. 84, 85. The Prime Minister of India is (1) Elected by the Lok Sabha (2) Elected by the Parliament ~.07 Elected by the majority party in the Lok Sabha (4) Elected by the people ‘The President of India is a - Nominal Head (2) Real Head (3) Political Head (4) Nominal and Constitutional Head *Sons of the Soil’ doctrine related to (1) Regionalism (2) Casteism \. GY Communatism (4) None of the above Democracy is a system of government in which the final power rests with (1) The mod The people (3) The politicians (4) The civil servants Ie ar EFA ~ (1) Sese are Prefer Ber & (2) Bee are Prater een & 3) Sear F aera ca 3 arr ga oe & 4) orem} are Eat oT res a rae - (1) Fe FT ert (2) area a G) Wort Ta (4) arene a oe ee OPT ‘aftya a Reraia’ eater (1) Sara & 2) antares & (3) Biafra a For Rough Work Only (ra ay ad & fare)FAL National Development Council (NDC) was set _— upinthe year: () 1952 (2) 2001 A 1991 The currency of Englanc is : we Dollar 3) Rubal G) 1956 (2) Pound (4) Dinar Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme was started by : | (1) Aovernment of Bihar oa of India (3) Government ot Maharashtra (4) Government of Kerala Globalisation policy was initiated by the _ Governmentof India in the year : (1) 1947 (2) 1977 1991 (4) 2001 Protection Act in the year (1) 1951 fo Gh 1986 (2) 1981 (4) 1991 Economics ( aeixtrex ) <= 4 [ECO-1) eg a Le sey Rae es @) 1952 @) 2001 @ 1956 @) 1991 87. Sats TR: Q) Siac @ we @ we @ fee 88. Fer wh wee mi ter na doer et Gea eR A at () Ror ara Q) WT TET @ ETE Fee @ te aa 89. HI Te 7 Starr fe S qa wat aa: | | qq) 1947 @ 1977 < @) i991 @) 2001 8 90. aT eR A swe Fe a ee a Fae Feat ar: () 1951 1986 Q) 1981 @) 1991 (39)