Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
ransom
In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________.
the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast
Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific
campaign.
True
What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces?
Radar
August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?
Guadalcanal
What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack?
Submarines and aircraft carriers
Littoral Operations:
One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that would
___________________.
basic
sustainment
Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
Commander, Fleet Forces Command
The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of
specific national priorities such as _______________.
homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or
prosecution of
the Global War on Terrorism
Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and
______________________.
personal inventory
TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.
initiate AMD change requests
Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
commands, Sailors
OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of
station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________.
national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.
quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions?
Enlisted
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Naval Customs:
In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?
All the answers are correct
The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen
All the answers are correct
The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the
United States
Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?
All answers are correct
Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades
Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage. These days are
____________________.
Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?
All the answers are correct
Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?
To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906.
__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.
Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II
battle?
All the answers are correct
What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.
10
11
Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.
False
Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.
The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.
Prisoners of war
Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and viceversa.
False
The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________.
clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistment
accomplished by
Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.
False
The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________.
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.
Political leaders
Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.
True
Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key
role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True
The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.
reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the
most senior military commanders.
False
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.
discrimination and proportionality
Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.
False
The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel.
12
Block 3
Military Justice System:
Which of the following is true?
A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five
members.
officer
more
Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as _____________.
Captains Mast
A member of a general court-martial _________________.
is the military equivalent of a civilian juror
Which of the following is NOT true?
Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is
legislative branch of the federal government
part of the
the
13
Privacy Act:
Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government
and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records.
True
Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy Act,
has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her.
False
What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct
A record is ___________________________________________.
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency
The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to
_____________________________________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________.
Exempt.
The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of concern, include situations where
____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information.
False.
from a
A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________.
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the
LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey
the given order. Which of the following is true?
The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him
the
order was a Marine major.
A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the
supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding
officer (who is also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios in preparation for an
inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The
sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his
commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer
ordered them to accomplish.
Which of the following statements is true?
An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order
be a lawful order.
may
14
A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
under
What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?
Refuse the order and report to higher authority.
An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT
protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR.
The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?
Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT.
_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039
Surface
Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?
15
Navy as a
The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of
______________.
the Central Command
The Joint Staff ____________.
is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The European Command ___________.
has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander
The Unified Command Plan ________________.
establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders
The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.
is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint
Chiefs of Staff
An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of ______________.
the Central Command and the Pacific Command
The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.
is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
16
and
has
use of
17
When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the National Defense Strategy contemplates the
use of all of the following except _____________.
combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations
Military
To support the Joint Forces Functions of deploying and sustaining military capabilities?
The national military strategy requires the armed forces to increase its expeditionary logistics capabilities
In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force, the National Military Strategy ______Deterring aggression and coercion ______________.
Must be anticipatory in nature
Joint Guidance and Resources:
The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest
position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
Experimentation
________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
A joint concept is __________________.
18
a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve
desired effects and objectives
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle
space of tomorrow
In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires
________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community
Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.
Capstone
A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the
development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan
Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the
development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle
space of tomorrow
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________.
10-20 years in the future
A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________
The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________.
19
ForceNet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward presence globally.
Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the increased risk to the United States in the
future?
None of the answers are correct.
Sea Strike ______________.
is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea
Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.
The Chief of Naval Operations
The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________.
Sea Basing
The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.
Sea Enterprise
Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.
the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development
Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.
control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence
Which of the following is true?
The Maritime Strategy was
Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.
Block 4
The American Way of War:
Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led
to the American View that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.
False
Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies
using conventional tactics.
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.
Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing army
was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.
False
During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation
Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a
victory by militia (volunteer) forces and proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was
____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
The Second Seminole War _______________.
20
became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory
Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19 th
century because ____________________.
it did not see any threat to the existence of the nation
Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order
to _______________.
Select True or False: Todays Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established by
the early European colonists.
TRUE
Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________.
The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States ____________________.
During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through ____________________.
General Winfield Scotts capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________.
During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in ________________.
a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and
discourage
European intervention in the Western Hemisphere
The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________.
the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact
Cooperative maritime strategy
______________ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domains emerging threats.
All the answers are correct
One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________.
disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S.
One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is ______________.
increased competition for scarce resources
Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________.
All the answers are correct.
______________ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces.
Select True or False: Speed is a characteristic of maritime forces.
TRUE
Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizens
FALSE
The maritime domain supports what percentage of the worlds trade?
90%
The Naval Way of War:
By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________.
have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication
Select True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.
True
All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is
water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________.
Fire
During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating
environment?
The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job
21
Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.
False
In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?
GPS
The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, its
important to know ___________________.
The U.S. Navys organizational culture
Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver
U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they
____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the
U.S. ________________________.
Navy
What is the best example of Independence of Action?
All of the answers are correct
Why does the Navy still fear technological advances?
It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the
Navy.
According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.
Theory of War:
An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action
The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on
battlefield to achieve those objectives
the
22
each
operations and
or strategic objectives
23
Select True or False: Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.
true
24
component
25
The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept ______________________.
must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN)
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate:
All of the answers are correct.
Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation:
assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.
The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to:
Manage information overload
Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call signs that _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Decentralization and command by negation are:
Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information overload.
Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?
To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is:
Tactical Control (TACON):
roles in
The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?
JTF commanders
Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:
Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.
Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the CWC
What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
The CWC will have _____________________ .
TACON
Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?
Interagency Working Group Coordinator
TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .
held by only one commander and any given time
Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?
Secure Telecommunications Group Commander
Which of the following is not a Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)?
26
Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?
Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by:
Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC
The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ .
Tatical Control over any single asset can be ___________________
held by only one commander and any given time
JFMCC/CWC Challenges:
What are the challenges to the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite
communications
Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.
False
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
all of the answers are correct
According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that
the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists
Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of
___________________.
20NM
What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive?
What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?
Origins and Development:
Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a
joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the
Joint Air Component Commander.
False
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi
infrastructure.
False
Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of
close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False
Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the
introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.
False
Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a
result nearly no dumb bombs were utilized.
27
False
Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission
because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.
False
Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such
operations for an extended period.
False
How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly
influences those events.
Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft
such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False
During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________.
caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack which contributed to its
forces being enveloped by coalition forces
Select True or False: Submarines have no role in strike warfare.
False
The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990s Gulf War were tested
_______________.
in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990s
Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore.
ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles
Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare?
Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a
joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component
Commander
FALSE
CSG:
Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has
greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.
False
The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three
of an emergency order
months
Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier
when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.
False
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier
Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.
always a CV/CVN
28
Select True or False: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their
inability to conduct in-flight refueling
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
All of the answers are correct.
Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused
by an anti-ship guided missile.
False
Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and
supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them
FALSE
Select True or False: The Navys Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrierbased aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades.
FALSE
Carrier Strike Groups _______________.
Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided
by ____________.
months
Select True or False: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the
primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.
FALSE
Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused
by an anti-ship guided missile.
FALSE
CV/CVN:
What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct
___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
Successful strike warfare depends upon ?
All of the answers are correct
Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air operations in:
Sandstorms
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier
The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:
Flight deck control
29
Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?
In-flight refueling
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk
in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.
True
Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers:
Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units
Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support
Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by:
Aircraft Carrier Wing
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar antennas,
etc.?
Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?
The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for:
Due to the complexity and dangers of flight operations, what is the lowest position authorized to suspend flight deck
operations?
DECK CREW MEMBER
CVW:
Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages
except:
ASW capability
What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?
Recent mission changes
Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority
Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:
All of the answers are correct
Match the aircraft with their primary mission.
A
D
C
B
A. F-14 Tomcat
B. E-2C Hawkeye
C. EA-6B Prowler
D. S-3B Viking
Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of
destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?
Combat air patrol
What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?
30
TLAM
transport
31
The __________ is the central liaison point of contract for all aspects of TLAM employment at the Joint Force Air Coordination
Center and works for the Naval Component Commander.
Tomahawk Liaison Officer (TLO)
Terrain masking ___________________.
involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target
Which of the following is true?
The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the
Executive Agent.
Tomahawk
32
Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?
The Surface Warfare Commander is
Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to support the
surface
warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land Attack
Missile command
Air Defense:
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne platforms
and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth
Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
Non-organic air defense support refers to:
All of the answers are correct
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and
departing and landing aircraft.
security for
and launch
Select True or False: Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval
operations.
False
The Air Defense Commander must be:
None of the answers are correct.
Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats:
Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings
Select True or False: Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases
True
The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from:
An AEGIS cruiser
Select the platforms with long range capabilities
Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers
Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group?
E-2C Hawkeye
Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility
The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.
Naval Special Warfare:
Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All of the answers are correct
Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to
influence their actions.
Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________.
are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions
33
The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.
Counterterrorism
A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.
delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines
The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.
is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders
A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.
a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons
MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.
Special Boat Teams
The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.
low to medium threat environments
A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.
is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements
The MK-V Special Operations Craft ____________________.
Select the statement that is NOT true
Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of weapons of
mass destruction are part of the ____________________ mission
Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare:
The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The amphibious planning process ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navys concept of Forward from the Sea. It
accomplishes this by ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
An amphibious force might include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. The
concept that supports this aspect is known as ______________.
Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM)
34
35
Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at the ___________________.
strategic level
The Dry Cargo Office ____________________.
handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled
liner service
ocean
Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area?
Health Services
Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups?
NOT SIRIUS CLASS
Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.
are under Military Sealift Command control when activated
Undersea Warfare:
Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems
typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their batteries.
Which of the following is true?
Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic
still must
mine.
by the
The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare Commander concept is
___________________.
AX
Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused by the submarine
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine
operations.
When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle
___________________.
is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel.
The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following is NOT true?
U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable
Which of the following is NOT true?
At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be
analysis.
downloaded for
36
Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission?
MH-53E helicopter
Coordinated ASW operations ___________________.
are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units
The AN/SLQ-37 ___________________.
is used to counter magnetic and passive acoustic mines
The current submarine threat ___________________.
is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine
Area ASW operations ___________________. NOT :are characterized by a designated ocean area being searched by several
coordinated
Which of the following is NOT true?
In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be
detected
submarines
more
Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a
means to measure, report, and correct performance?
37
Control
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea
Select True or False: The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces
necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command.
True
Which of the following document(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders?
National Security Strategy and National Military Strategy
Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?
Budget and procure service-specific equipment.
foreign
The Combatant Commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________.
the Office of the Secretary of Defense
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated
networked computer systems operated by an adversary.
Which of the following statements is true?
The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and
warfare support.
through
electronic
The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and
the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are
properties associated with which dimension of the information environment?
Cognitive
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security
actions.
Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Department of Defense policy describes information superiority as:
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow
information while exploiting or denying an adversarys ability to do the same.
of
38
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated
systems or networks.
information
Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or
networks are a part of ___________________.
computer network exploitation
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)
The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.
the physical, the informational, and the cognitive
Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations ability to
affect and defend decision making?
Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by
things
such as language, culture and religion.
Which of the following statements is true?
Not: Psychological Operations are those actions intended to generate insurrection among an adversarys
Psychological Operations include the dissemination of false information in order to deceive an adversarys
population.
civilian population
civilian
39
True
Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary
mission area.
U.S. Army
40
Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of the
most constant and important trends found throughout military history.
Concentration
Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S.
Air Force function:
Counterspace
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.
True
The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which command and control entities?
Service Component Commander, Functional Component Commander
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack
Which of the following are the largest warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force?
The Numbered Air Forces
Interdiction and close air support are components of what U.S. Air Force function?
Counterland
___________________ are actions taken to influence, affect, or defend systems and decision-making.
Information operations
The ___________________s primary mission is to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance to
support attack operations and targeting that contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of enemy
forces.
NOT 135
What characteristic of U.S. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the territory of
potential adversaries?
Altitude
___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously, while
___________________ is the ability to employ air and space power effectively at all levels of warfare.
NOT Coordination, Agility
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
Introduction to the United States Marine Corp:
Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law?
False
Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF:
FSSG
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU
41
42
The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:
Select all
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
MH-68 Shark
Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard operations?
The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility than the other military
services.
Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to the
respective Navy Fleet Commander.
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and under the high seas
and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the following mission(s):
All of the answers are correct.
This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS).
Hamilton class
Which of the following is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State Department for peacetime
engagement?
The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities.
All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors:
None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull color is dependent upon each ships mission
Which agency is the lead federal agency for marine pollution and incident response?
USCG
Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution detection?
B
Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which may impact the ability of U.S. and
allied forces to conduct military operations?
Pollution strike teams
Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at OUTCONUS seaports of debarkation?
PSUs
Which small boats in the U.S. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in the Joint Strategic Capability Plan?
NOT Marine Protector class patrol boats
Today, the USCG falls under what department during peacetime operations?
Department of Homeland Security
Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable allowing for more rapid and safe deployment
of boarding crews?
NOT SWIFT
43
personnel that
The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in organizing and training its
military and paramilitary forces to combat internal subversion is ____________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT
____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic combatant
waging the global war on terrorism.
commanders in
Affairs missions
The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include ____________________.
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and Special Boat Teams
Homeland Security/Homeland Defense:
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to
secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.
True
Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
All of the answers are correct
Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
44
45
Block 5
Political Structure:
Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because
experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.
True
Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the
peacefulness of a democracys foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to
maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn
into office.
False
Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar
international system.
True
In a multi-polar international system _____________.
the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system
there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international
system
Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that its
member states believe there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a
change in domestic structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.
bi-polar
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.
46
multi-polar
During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part defined by
______________.
aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with
Select True or False: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will
solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points
out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict.
TRUE
According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior:
Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture
focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward
democracy or authoritarianism.
False
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader.
True
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations
Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types.
True
Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved
personality over one with a gregarious personality.
True
Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can
illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful.
True
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeons position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political
action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.
True
Select True or False: By understanding a collectivitys political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person
belonging to that collectivity.
False
Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the
way they do in international affairs.
True
Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.
None of the answers are correct
According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political
culture that could have a significant impact on political action.
whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state
Political culture __________________.
NOT ALL
If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that
___________.
NOTthe focus should first be on the possibility that structural variables between the two can explain the different
behaviors
NOTthe second test focuses on whether any institutional variables can explain an observed difference between
collectivities
47
Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political behavior _______________.
NOT ALL
Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because:
ALL
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward
democracy or authoritarianism.
FALSE
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
NOT is shaped only by influences dating back to when that states current type of government came into
existence
48
National elites
As in ______________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could promote international conflict
Argentina
According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.
Civic Nationalism
the
Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the twenty first century may be the century
of collectivism.
False
Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure
future
49
50
During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was to___________________________________.
contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United States in Latin America was support for
democracy.
False
In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of the
_________________________________.
United States, Canada and Mexico
The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?
Franklin Roosevelt
Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.
Welcomed
Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and moral duty to exercise international
police power in the Americas?
Roosevelt corollary
How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?
Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine
The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America from 1845 to 1853?
Mexico
After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on _____________________________.
supporting democracy
During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the Caribbean primarily to
____________________.
contain Communism
51
Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.
False
In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ____________.
Chile
Geopolitics is __________________________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are _________________.
Chile and Bolivia
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and _____________________.
Chile
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ___________________.
The EU
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.
True
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.
False
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin
American countries, except _____________________.
Venezuela and Peru
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between _____________________.
Argentina and Brazil
The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.
NOT Democracies wage wars only against oppressive regimes
Since its independence, Argentina has been a major rival of ______________.
NOT COLUMBIA
In 1984, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation?
Beagle Channel islands
What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies?
Democratic Peace
Latin American Militaries:
Which of the following statements is true?
The military is widely respected in Chile.
According to most observers, South America has been ________________________________ since at least the mid-1990s.
a Zone of Peace
What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
South America
Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?
Brazil
The United States: _______________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the only
country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ________________________.
Columbia
52
budget.
permanent
In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States and
Europe.
high technology jet fighters
The United States is especially involved in ______________, assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents.
COLUMBIA
GREATER MIDDLE EAST
Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god?
NOT CHRISTIANS
Which of the following statements is true?
The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the United States.
The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.
NOT MACENDONIA
The Iran-Iraq war ended ______________.
NOT after U.S. military intervention
Which of the following statements is true?
Turkey is considered the most Westernized state in its region
Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT France played no part in the Middle East in the years after World War I.
Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in
parliament (legislature) chooses the nations leader.
the
Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia ?
NOT Strait of Hormuz
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The United States has had a long standing policy of only supporting nations with democratic governments
Southwest Asia.
in
When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement?
The 1880s
Indias collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States.
FALSE
Which of the following statements is true?
53
A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from the
British
Historical Framework:
What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide the Middle East and take territory away
from the Ottoman Empire?
The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I
The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the battle at Vienna in 1683
_______________________.
all of the answers are correct
Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?
All of the answers are correct
The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.
its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine
The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?
The Ottoman Empire
How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire?
The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating the occupying allied
armies
Arab-Israeli Conflict:
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights
and Suez Canal.
False
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ___________________.
Oslo, in 1992
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.
rejected the partition plan
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the __________________________.
Six Day War in 1967
Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime
Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ________________.
the United States
54
with
In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States, _________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.
the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel
In 1933, Standard Oil of California received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia, as ______________.
NOT ALL OR the United States actively supported the Saudi King in the struggle against his main rival, the Sherif
of Mecca
Hussein
The main objective for U.S. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________.
NOT ALL
55
During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of call in the world outside the continental
United States.
Dubai
In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________.
NOT U.S. President Eisenhower refused to support that decision and proposed economic sanctions against
Egypt
What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945?
President Roosevelt met with the Saudi King to politically affirm the emerging U.S.-Saudi partnership
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
ISLAM AND THE GREATER MIDDLE EAST
The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a
lifetime.
ONCE
Members of the Islamic faith ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday.
FIVE
Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to humanity through the Prophet
Muhammad in the year ______________.
NOT 510 A.D.
Select True or False: All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian.
FALSE
Islam is the predominant religion in ______________.
NOT GREATER MIDDLE EAST
Islam is a ______________ faith.
monotheistic (one god)
Select True or False: In Islam, women are the spiritual equals of men.
TRUE
A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the ______________
branches of Islam.
NOT Sunni and Sharia
Select True or False: The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely.
FALSE
The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.
354
Select True or False: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses.
TRUE
Islamic law is called ______________ law.
Sharia
EURASIA
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied
Powers
During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi
occupation of Kuwait.
FALSE
One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from
______________.
NORTH AFRICA
56
to sue for
Yugoslavia ______________.
NOT became a member of the European Union in 2003
The European Union ______________.
is the largest economy in the world
The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________.
Byzantine Empire
During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?
Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The majority of the population of each of the countries formed from the breakup of Yugoslavia belong to the
same
century.
Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with
the West.
TRUE
Which of the following statements is true?
The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The Soviet Union joined an alliance with Great Britain and France against Germany within weeks of the
invasion of Poland in 1939.
German
EUROPEAN UNION
______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.
NOT INTERPOL
Todays European Union (EU) is a supranational organization consisting of ______________ countries
27
The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________.
Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France)
High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________.
an economic agreement among six nations
The Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to ______________.
NOT expand the European Union (EU) judiciary OR ALL ANSWERS
The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
57
The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of ______________ in 1997.
Amsterdam
In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________.
economic strength and geopolitical ambitions
The Treaty of ______________ laid the foundation for further forms of cooperation in foreign and defense policy among
European nations, including a common currency.
NOT Vienna
The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations, including:
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.
EUROCORPS
AFRICA
The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focused on:
NIGERIAN OIL
Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fault lines include the following, EXCEPT:
Desert vs. tropical economies
Which is NOT a true statement regarding Zimbabwe (in the South African Region)?
NOT The elected government of Robert Mugabe has devolved into dictatorship which oppresses political
opponents.
58
______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable with empirical methods.
RELIGION
Select True or False: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of governance within an African
country.
FALSE
Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
AFRICA
Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one god rules over
them all.
TRUE
Islam arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries
7TH AND 8TH
Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict.
FALSE
The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam
Sunni
During the Second Congo War (1998-2003), it is estimated that over _____ million people were killed.
FIVE
In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of social mobilization.
religion
______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago.
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute greatly to instability on the continent.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Africas economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline
POPULATION GROWTH
AFRICAN SECURITY
______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability operations.
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ waste disposal is a challenge facing Africas environment.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Risks to Africas internal security could be reduced through ______________.
the availability of regular and adequate employment
______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.
Multiparty democracy
Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.
1960S
ASIA PACIFIC OVERVIEW
Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the worlds population.
60
In many Asian countries, the majority of the population ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones
16
Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?
BERMA
59
60
61
Before 1947, the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states: Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Afghanistan
and all of the below, except ________________________.
Burma
The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________.
Portuguese
Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history?
Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority.
Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious hardliners have traditionally supported
organizations such as the Taliban and an Al-Qaeda.
False
Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia, their leaders ____________________.
Called for partition after British leave
rights.
Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to
____________________.
Observe
In order to stop the violence among Muslims, Hindus, and Sikhs in British India ______________.
NOT The UK government dispatched troops into the region
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.
Shia and Sunni Muslims
62
resolve
63
Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in the disputed area since December
1971.
False
Which of the following statements is true?
Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due to the regions
demographics.
European Civilization:
Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the territories of the former Roman Empire
was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.
False
Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed, as a result of the First World War.
German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and linguistic influences continue to thrive in
Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire.
North-Western
The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the EURO, was introduced to all of EU member countries.
False
Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an alliance between the Communist
dictatorship and the Western democracies.
True
In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European nations.
All of the answers are correct
By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for several European nations except for
the_______________.
Serbs
The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction with the ____________________.
Catholic Church
In the history of Western Europe, The Hundred Year War (1337-1453) was a long struggle between ____________________.
England and France
During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going through a time commonly known as
______________.
Dark Ages
The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted and remains even today part of the
cultures of the______________________ peoples.
Balkan and Russian
Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the Americas major competitors.
Europe
The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from ____________________.
Byzantine
64
Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a protective barrier between Western Europe
and Byzantine Empire.
False
The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is ____________________.
Europe
Introduction to Planning:
When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis, the Chairman of the
Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ____________________ to implement the approved military course of action
Execute Order
Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. In
order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air
strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to
be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an
operation
another.
convert it into
Defense
operations
Who is responsible for the development and production of joint operation plans?
The Combatant Commanders
At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with ______________.
creating and maintaining military capabilities
Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________.
NOT assisting foreign counties in providing for their own national security
The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.
NOT joint operations planning, joint support planning and joint intelligence planning
The Role of Intelligence:
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
65
What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military
Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area and the
dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area
nonphysical
Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace
knowledge?
Determine adversary potential COAs.
Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the internet
is a part of which intelligence discipline?
Open-source Intelligence
Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same
across the spectrum of conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits.
True
Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.
False
The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.
support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the
adversary
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to
support the commanders planning effort.
TRUE
Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war?
Strategic level
In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process are overlays depicting the geography of the area
of responsibility produced?
NOT Define the Battlespace Environment.OR Determine Adversary Courses of Action.
What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information environments as well as
other dimensions of the battlespace, and to determine an adversarys capabilities to operate in each?
NOT INTELLIGENCE CYCLE
Who, on the Commanders staff, has the primary responsibility for planning, coordinating and conducting the overall
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort?
The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence)
Select True or False: The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are both contained within the
Commanders designated operating area.
FALSE
66
innocent
67
false
Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the
conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.
TRUE
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation
____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory
nation
The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.
a generally accepted body of international law
U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
Select True or False: The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it
may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.
False
Select True or False: If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with non-signatory
nations, and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention, the signatory nation is
no longer bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
FALSE
Select True or False: Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent
with at least the minimum standards of international law.
TRUE
Which statement is true?
The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military
operations
Select True or False: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a
United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.
FALSE
Principles:
In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct
advantage to be gained from the attack
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical
POWs
military
services to
Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.
Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during an armed engagement,
____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be continually verified
to
ensure it does not return to civilian object status
Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to
ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False
Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a
combatant.
False
Select True or False: Only members of a nations regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC.
FALSE
68
Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
NOT FALSE
Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Select True or False: A nation has a duty under LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military
objectives.
TRUE
Which statement is NOT true?
Department of Defense policy requires the reporting of actions against U.S. forces that violate LOAC
General Principles:
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
assist
U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nations political goals.
False
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces
will continue combat engagement as only the nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than
approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.
False
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect
U.S. nationals and their property.
True
Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough
leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.
True
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
assist
69
permission to
Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.
False
Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment
consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the
Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack
U.S.
In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the
United States.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate
quick reference during crisis or deliberate planning.
by authorization level
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
NOT are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense; 2) a
classified
portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion
discussing the use of force within
the territorial jurisdiction of the United States
Self Defense:
Select True or False: A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all
appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commanders own unit.
False
A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense.
If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
70
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile
can be prevented or terminated
intent
When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ____________________.
should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening
actions if
time and circumstances permit
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized.
False
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.
True
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense.
True
Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can be considered ____________________.
hostile act
Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________.
NOT UNDER ALL CONDITIONS
The practice of extending U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations is known as ______________.
NOT ALLIED SELF DEFENCE
Force used in self-defense must be ____________________.
NOT JUSTIFIED AND REASONABLE
Select True or False: Impeding U.S. forces from the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be
considered a hostile act.
TRUE
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile
can be prevented or terminated
intent
Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in ones vicinity from a hostile act or
demonstrated hostile intent.
True, but an individuals right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the appropriate
commander.
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an
approaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent.
guidance on various indicators that might be considered
Mission Accomplishment:
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations
in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of
Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
False
Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.
augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be
reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission
constantly
71
The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the
following except ___________.
requests for supplemental measures
Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to
____________________.
constantly review them and modify as necessary
Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define
certain permissible targets.
True
Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.
but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics
Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.
is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination
Select True or False: The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement
(SROE) are available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically withheld.
FALSE
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of
Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
FALSE
As part of the military command and control structure, the United States has divided its global responsibilities into geographic
regions each commanded by a ________________.
NOT Theater Commander
Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in
the developed mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________.
is the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
RUF:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital
government assets.
True
Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief
response.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency
(for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under
Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation.
False
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules for
the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned.
True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters
True
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict.
72
FALSE
Military Space Mission Areas:
Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of
space assets.
True
Space capabilities__________________________:
All the answers are correct
Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support structures
that
Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to
transmit
DOD data
Serve DOD information needs
Select True or False: Currently, space force application assets are operating in space
False
Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain,
replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network configuration for space operations.
True
Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by
military weapons systems operating in or through space.
True
Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces while, when directed,
denying it to an adversary, and include the broad aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of
enemy adversary space systems.
True
The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear
detonation is: _________________________.
NOT Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment
The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control is __________________.
Space support
The four military space mission areas are _______________________.
Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement
The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space
environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.
Environmental monitoring
The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area:
__________________________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
True
Select True or False: Support operations consist of spacelift, satellite operations, and deorbiting and recovering space vehicles, if required
TRUE
Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military space mission area of
______________.
Space Control
The importance of space operations is ______________.
increasing due to enabling capabilities they provide to deployed military forces
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
73
Intelligence,
Surveillance,
and
Reconnaissance
sensor
is
Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric disturbances which affect the ability of
imaging systems to detect adversary activity, missile launches, and battle damage.
True
Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or
medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.
True
ISR support:
All the answers are correct
In Operation Iraqi Freedom, space-based ISR:
Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success.
Select True or False: Geosynchronous or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from space.
FALSE
ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is
event driven or occurs on a one-time basis is called ______________.
NOT Interdicting
Force enhancement - ISR mission
ALL ARE CORRECT
The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the world
geosynchronous
Types of data and information collected from space include ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Select True or False: ISR systems enhance planning capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and
adversary force dispositions.
TRUE
Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment:
Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide
continuous tracks of tactical missiles.
True
Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm.
True
Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information is
immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.
True
The SBIRS ground architecture______________________.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the post-communist era.
False
Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a
quintessential Cold War system which was originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against the
United States and its allies.
True
Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________.
All the answers are correct
74
Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully replacing the old DSP
ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi Freedom than
they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War.
True
Theater missile warning data is:
Gathered by ground stations, then processed and disseminated over communications networks, including
assets.
space
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined
as _______________________.
the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as
_______________________.
a specific threat event that is occurring
Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners.
True
Satellite- and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversarys use of ballistic missiles or nuclear
detonations (NUDET) to ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with allies and coalition partners is the objective of ______________.
Shared Early Warning
In addition to sensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links carrying ______________ to warn the affected air, land, sea,
space, and special operations forces
NOT RAW
A deployable ground communication station that rapidly disseminates missile warning within theater is the ______________ system
Joint Tactical Ground Station
A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS)
ground control element was ______________.
detecting the launch plumes of long-range ballistic missiles
Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Missile launch information is provided on a near real time basis. This information can take the form of
Both data and voice warning
Environmental Monitoring:
Weather affects ________________________.
All the answers are correct
____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning.
Meteorological and Oceanographic
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by the commander to
_________________.
avoid submarine or maritime mine threats
concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating
Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in _____ spectral bands.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.
True
75
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as _______ are critical for undersea warfare
operations.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. This
enables U.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both adversary and friendly space and
weapons systems.
True
Select True or False: Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational support cannot currently be
accurately determined from satellites, including heights of cloud bases and visibility restrictions.
True
Select True or False: Space systems are the military commanders primary and sometimes sole source of environmental data.
True
Select True or False: Weather data never affects the choice of weapons for a target or the platform that delivers them.
False
Observation of the space environment ______________.
is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to battle space awareness
Thermal and visible images together provide the coverage and extent of ______________.
clouds at various levels, other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow
A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________.
reduction in image quality due to distance
Select True or False: Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from space.
TRUE
______________ are used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed), ground moisture, rainfall rates, ice
characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water vapor profiles
NOT INFRARED
Select True or False: Imagery capabilities can provide joint force planners with current information on surface conditions, such
as vegetation and land use
TRUE
A unique form of weather,______________ weather, commonly disrupts or degrades communications
SPACE
Communications:
Heavy solar activity ___________________________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme
cases
Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected by rain (the higher
the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.
True
Wideband satellite communications support ________________.
All the answers are correct
Significant advantages of satellite
_________________________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
communication
systems
over
terrestrial
communication
systems
are
76
Select True or False: It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military strategic and tactical
relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network.
False
Satellite Communications:
Collectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (DOD) communications
worldwide.
Permit information transfer from the highest levels of government to the theater tactical level for all matters
to include operations, logistics, intelligence, personnel, and diplomacy.
The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________.
UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial
Select True or False: Satellite are often the only means of providing critical beyond line of sight communications.
True
Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and
convey their intent to the operational commander.
Near-global / strategic situational awareness
Select True or False: All radio receivers, including satellite systems, are susceptible to jamming and interference.
True
Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and
convey their intent to the operational commander
global / tactical knowledge
Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the world which receives least coverage is the
______________ region.
POLAR
Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming.
FALSE
Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ______________ the available bandwidth and the higher
the data rate capacity
lower / wider
MILSTAR stands for:
military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network
77
Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS receivers in areas of ______may have
diminished GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain
Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation occurs more often
______________.
in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (North or South))
Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a ______________, where
all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid
Significant advantages offered by global positioning system (GPS) to operational forces are ______________.
accuracy, accessibility, and coverage
Global positioning system (GPS) ______________.
plays a key role in almost all military missions
Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure
______________ cause significant degradation of the system.
the number and orbit location / will not
Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system (GPS) receiver.
All answers
Space-based position, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and tactical missions by providing
highly accurate:
All of the answers are correct.
Benefits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include:
All answers
The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites during combat operations
during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able to improve the navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters
on a planned basis.
2.2
Select True or False: The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984
(WGS-84).
True
The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in view from any position
on Earth. Based upon this requirement, many satellites have been placed in orbit. Currently, there are approximately
______________ GPS satellites in orbit.
28
Satellite Communications:
Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are ______________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with
ALL
Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming
FALSE
______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess features not found on other systems
NOT CLASSIFIED
Space-based position, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and tactical missions by providing
highly accurate
ALL
Global positioning system (GPS) is extremely useful in air operations. Accurate position, velocity, and time enhances
______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Data and Information:
78
Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental image
of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.
False
Information systems consist of _____________________.
entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display,
disseminate, and act on information
The higher you are in the chain of command, the more you rely on _________________.
Information systems
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following reason.
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer
Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. This image-building
information will contain _____________ .
status and disposition of our own forces
_____________ is the lifeblood of any C system.
Information
New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.
validate the image or revise it
Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural intuitive evaluation of reliability.
False
Decisions should be based on ___________.
Information
Select True or False: Naval, joint, and national information sources should "push" relevant, time-sensitive information to naval
forces, based on planned information requirements and dissemination criteria.
True
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following reason
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
Information is also used as a means for coordinating actions in the execution of the plan after the decision has been made.
Select all types of execution information that apply
Navy IT
______________ is operationally focused while ______________ drives the strategic direction of Navy information networks.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) - Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
The classified (high) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________.
SIPRnet
The global battlespace consists of ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
______________ provides information system planning, engineering, acquisition, fielding, and support for Department of
Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
______________ provides information system planning, engineering, acquisition, fielding, and support for Department of
Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid.
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
79
The central operating authority for all Navy information networks is ______________.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
Select True or False: The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy networks.
True
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the Navys support of the ______________
program during the 1960s.
Space
______________ is the U.S. Fleet Forces Commands N6 and Strategic Commands component commander for network
operations, information operations, and space systems.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
______________ is the functional program manager that is responsible for all Navy networks, information assurance
programs, and enterprise services.
PMW-160
______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of information technology.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
______________ provides the program and policy support that underpin the Navys information networks
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called
______________.
NOT Advanced Weapons Architecture Development OR The Battle Force Systems Concept
______________ is the Navy component of the Global Information Grid (GIG
FORCEnet
The White House Communications Agency is operated by the ______________.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
______________ currently provides total information systems management for the Department of Defense (DOD).
Defense Communications Agency (DCA)
Navy/Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navys
NOT NONE
DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the Navys support of the ______________
program during the 1960s.
Arctic research
The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called
______________.
COMMAND AND CONTROL:
_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.
Information
In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for:
health & welfare
discipline
morale
Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Monitor events
Adapt to changing circumstances
Adjust the allocation of resources
The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ____________________.
a command and control system
Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over
subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
80
True
Select True or False: C refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be done
and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.
True
Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper
action in combat. This is control before the action but nonetheless is still control.
True
While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain
(______________________) that monitors and regulates most actions.
subordinate commanders and forces
The focus of naval C, as well as the driver of C is ______________.
The commander
C is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the
accomplishment of a mission.
authority and direction
Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C is
______________.
the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors)
In the accomplishment of the mission (process) through C, a commander will employ the resource groups in:
Directing, Coordinating, Planning
C provides which of the following?
ALL ARE CORRECT
Time, in the C environment, is a precious commodity for three reasons
Decision Making:
Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander, all phases of the
cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and gauges the
results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action
phase observations.
False
Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we _______, _________ , and _________ .
observe / decide / act
Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.
situational awareness
_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over
subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission.
C2
After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ___________ on a course of
action and develop a plan.
Decide
A key tenet of naval warfare is that commanders at every level must understand their seniors intent, so they can
______________ in harmony with the broader, more general efforts at higher levels.
exploit rapid decision and execution cycles
81
Select True or False: In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the decision-making threshold, the
swifter our decision and execution cycle will become.
True
______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle.
Orientation
Our ______________, ______________, ______________, and the unfolding circumstances of war all influence our ability to
orient ourselves
experience / expectations / culture
Processing raw signals so they may be understood by the people who must use the resulting information, may require
______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C
decision-maker
Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge and
understanding.
cognitive
Forcenet:
Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval
professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations.
True
By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of
operations by:
Enhancing deterrence
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made
possible by:
Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access
challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea shield
____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.
Sea Basing
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic
communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.
True
82
FORCEnet is not an acquisition program; rather it is a/an ______________ and integration initiative to serve as a change
agent and an engine for innovation, potentially touching every naval program.
enterprise alignment
Naval forces will complement ______________ collection programs with widely dispersed sensing systems that contribute vital
data to the planning and execution of trans-global operations.
national
FORCEnet is a necessity because todays engagements are measured in ______________ and cover ______________.
seconds, hundreds of miles
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic
communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.
True
FORCEnets goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________.
Knowledge
______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks
Sea Strike
FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________.
sea, air and land operations
83
Seapower 21:
Sea Power 21 divides the Navys roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:
Sea Basing Projecting joint operational independence
Sea Strike Projecting precise and persistent offensive power
Sea Shield Projecting global defensive assurance
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint
operations, though important, will come secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure.
Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and cyberspace will be incorporated if, and when, the
need arises.
False
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navys part in future joint warfighting in an unpredictable
strategic environment typified by regional and transnational threats.
True
Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the evolution of U.S. naval power from the
blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of From the Sea and Forward from the Sea, strategy.
True
Identify the elements of FORCEnet.
Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise
The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by ___________ .
FORCEnet, information technology
84
SENSOR FUNDAMENTALS
Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signals power per unit area caused by ______________.
focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions
85
measured.
through
86
87
88
SONAR
Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy
mechanical
The two major types of sonar are ______________.
ACTIVE AND PASSIVE
The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density
SURFACE
Underwater sounds are classified as ______________.
natural or manmade
hydrophone is a(n) ______________.
UNDERWATER MICROPHONE
bathythermograph measures ______________.
seawater temperature
The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical
DEEP ZONE
Computer for the Warfighter:
Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications.
True
The compiler converts ____________________.
high level code into assembly language code
Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate the user from high level programming
language and hardware.
False
Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited purpose microprocessors.
False
Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for volatile memory.
True
The assembler converts ____________________.
assembly language code into binary data
Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up process.
False
The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest access are ____________________.
register, cache, RAM, mass storage
What are the four subsystems that make up a computer systems hardware?
Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices
The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the microprocessors registers is called the
____________________.
arithmetic logic unit
What controls the switching of states in the control unit?
Clock
____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in mass storage.
Virtual memory
____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management functions.
Processor management
Stealth Technology:
89
90
Electro-Optic:
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.
proportional to the frequency
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the
attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.
False
Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the target is
centered on the detector.
True
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
False
____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.
Thermal imaging
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.
5m
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.
AM radio waves
The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.
IR, visible and UV
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.
True
The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the _________
NOT TRANSMITTER or emitter
Laser light has unique applications due to ______________.
low beam divergence
The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________.
narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions
Select True or False: Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions
TRUE
Laser light is available in both ______________.
continuous and pulsed form
A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from several in its field of view based upon a
predetermined pulsing code, is ______________.
PIM coding
91
Radar:
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have down Doppler.
False
Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.
pulse Doppler
How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?
0.6 milliseconds
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or
circular arrays.
True
Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted
energy.
False
What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?
30 km
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.
synthetic aperture
Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous wave radar to determine
______________.
NOT VELOCITY or target size
The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ______________.
power and range
Evolution of the submarine
What was the benefit of the separate main ballast and trim tanks that were first introduced aboard the USSHolland?
Improved control of the submarine
The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines.
USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeon
Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases in the far east?
Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty
Identify the key technological advancements of the 19 th century that were instrumental to the further development of
submarines in the United States.
Advances in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo
What were some of the limitations of the first submarines? Select all that apply.
Speed, size, range
What class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile submarines (SSGNs)?
Ohio
92
The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launched in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States.
nuclear powered submarine
Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days and
21 hours?
USS Triton
What was the name of the first submarine used by the military?
Turtle
During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific?
8
Regulus, the first strategic long-range nuclear-armed guided missile deployed by the Navy, had several major disadvantages
that led to it being replaced. What were those disadvantages? Select all that apply.
All answers
The ______________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United States submarine force.
Tang
What missions were the Virginia-class submarines designed for?
NOT Surveillance and reconnaissance
The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________.
attacking submerged submarines
Which submarine successfully sank the USS Housatonic?
Hunley
Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for submarines?
Coast defense and fleet operations
93
94
The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________.
financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy.
The first operational jet-powered military aircraft was fielded by ______________.
the German Luftwaffe
Which of the following statements is true?
Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II.
Which of the following statements is true?
The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft.
The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ______________.
the Saratoga- and Lexington-classes
The Navys first experience with operating in the air domain occurred ______________.
during World War I
Todays aircraft carriers are equipped with ______________.
STEAM
The first catapults used by the Navy ______________.
used compressed air for power
95