In a 14 year old child, there is a swelling in the body of mandible.

Laboratory
diagnosis shows raised ESR and the radiograph shows the sun ray appearance:
a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Odontogenic cyst

c)

Pagets disease

d)

Any of the above as details are incomplete

2) Which of the following is not associated with CREST syndrome?

a)

Calcinocis cutis

b)

Raynauds phenomenon

c)

Ehlers Danlos syndrome

d)

Sclerodactyly

3) Which type of dentin is formed in arrested (Slow chronic) caries?

a)

Interglobular dentin

b)

Sclerotic dentin

c)

Mantle dentin

d)

Reparative dentin

4) Cell free zone of Weil is supplied by:

a)

Myelinated nerve fiber

b)

Un- myelinated nerve fiber

c)

A delta fiber

d)

1 and 3

5) Which of the following is the characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris?

a)

Acantholysis

b)

Carpet track extension

c)

Cerebriform tongue

d)

Nikolskys sign

6) Acrodynia is caused due to repeated exposure of:

a)

Arsenic

b)

Mercury

c)

Silver

d)

Lead

7) Which of the following type of hypoplasia involves the permanent maxillary

and mandibular incisors and first molar?
a)

Enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries

b)

Enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis

c)

Enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or trauma

d)

Enamel hypoplasia due to nutritional deficiency.

8) Gene of basal cell Nevoid syndrome is seen in which of the following

chromosome:
a)

9S

b)

19P

c)

19H

d)

9q

9) Dens in Dente is a:
a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Intrauterine acquired condition.

c)

Autosomal dominant

d)

Autoimmune condition.

10) Major antigen presenting cell is:

a)

Macrophages

b)

Neutrophils

c)

B- Lymphocytes

d)

T Lymphocytes

11) Intranuclear inclusion bodies is seen in:

a)

Herpes simplex virus

b)

Molluscum contagiosum

c)

Adeno virus

d)

Cytomegalovirus

12) Yellow fever is associated with which type of incubation bodies:

a)

Prowzak bodies

b)

Gournier bodies

c)

Reily bodies

d)

Torres bodies

13) External appearance of an individual is termed as:

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Karyotype

14) Mode of inheritance of dentinogenesis imperfecta is:

a)

Autosomal recessive condition affecting permanent teeth

b)

Autosomal recessive condition affecting deciduous and permanent teeth

c)

Autosomal dominant condition affecting deciduous and permanent teeth

d)

Autosomal dominant condition affecting permanent teeth

15) Which category of drugs cannot be taken orally?

a)

Aminoglycoside

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Sulfonamides

16) Study of number and appearance of chromosome is known as:

a)

Allele

b)

Karyotype

c)

Newborn screening

d)

Predictive testing

17) An enzyme in saliva cleaves the B-1-4 linkage between Nacetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid is:
a)

Amylase and ptyalin

b)

Salivary peroxidise

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Catalase and oxidase

18) Which of the following type of cells are most radiosensitive in nature?
a)

Erythorcytes

b)

Basal cells of oral mucous membrane

c)

Parenchymal cells of liver

d)

Leucocytes

19) Most radiosensitive organ is:

a)

Fine vasculature

b)

Optic lens

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Lymphoid organs

20) Film speed is controlled largely by:

a)

The size of the silver halide grains

b)

Long exposure time

c)

Freshly processing solutions

d)

Processing time and temperature

21) Which of the following x-ray holder is a position indicting device with a
rectangular collimator?
a)

Acrylic blade with slot

b)

Snap A ray

c)

Rinn XCP

d)

Styrofoam block

22) Acute osteomylitis is caused by:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Staphylococcus pyogenes

23) Photostimulable phosphor plate is coated with which element:

a)

Phosphor doped barium fluorohalide

b)

Europium doped barium fluorohalide

c)

Silver halide along with gold

d)

Silver bromide along with iodide

24) Which of the following is a non absorbable suture?

a)

Vicryl

b)

PGA/PGL

c)

Surgical silk

d)

Surgical gut

25) Which of the following is the most important virulent factor for P. gingivalis?
a)

Proteases

b)

Capsule

c)

Fimbrae

d)

Polysaccharide

26) Which of the following microbial complex is associated with A.A. comitans?
a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

27) LAP is caused by:

a)

P. Gingivalis and T.denticola

b)

P. Gingivalis and A.A.comitans

c)

P. Gingivalis and T. Forsythia

d)

P. Gingivalis and P. Intermedia

28) The pH of regular non stimulated saliva is:

a)

5 to 6

b)

6 to 7

c)

7 to 8

d)

7.7

29) What are calco spherites?

a)

Calcium which is found in supra gingival plaque

b)

Calcium which is found in sub gingival plaque

c)

Calcium found in mineralization pattern of dentin

d)

Calcium bound phosphate in matrix vesicles

30) Which of the following is the long acting anaesthesia?

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Articaine

c)

Mapevacaine

d)

Prilocaine

31) 3 walled defects are most commonly seen on?

a)

Mesial side

b)

Distal side

c)

Furcations

d)

Lingual side

32) The salivary gland acini are lined by:

a)

Cuboidal cells

b)

Columnar cells

c)

Myoepithelial cells

d)

Columnar ciliated

33) A father presented his son who is 5 years of age are swelling in parotid
region. a child is having fever and mailase since 3 days. He has difficulty on
swallowing and biopsy of parotid gland revealed chronic inflammatory cells
infiltration and pus discharge:
a)

Acute bacterial parotitis

b)

Mumps

c)

Parotid gland tumor

d)

Sialolithiasis

34) The posterior border of palatine tonsils is formed by which of the following
muscles:
a)

Palatoglossus

b)

Palatopharyngeus

c)

Buccinator

d)

Glossopharyngeal

35) Function of a fixer in a development of radiographic film:

a)

Remove extra silver halide which are unfixed

b)

Strengthens and fixes silver halide on film

c)

It take away extra developer

d)

It binds developer to film

36) Most preferable treatment time for younger children is:

a)

Early morning appointment

b)

Afternoon appointment

c)

Evening appointment

d)

Should be given according to child schedule

37) Which type of restoration is required for group B preventive resin

restoration?
a)

Unfilled resin

b)

Resinsome filler

c)

Composite over which a layer of unfilled resin

d)

Filled resin

38) Addleslon (1959) introduced the concept of:

a)

Modeling

b)

Voice control

c)

HOME

d)

Tell show do

39) Presence of older sibling has most noticeable effect among which of the
following child group:

a)

3 year old patient

b)

5 year old patient

c)

6 year old patient

d)

4 year old patient

40) Most preferable Bite wing film used in smaller child for diagnosing
interproximal caries and evaluating the height of alveolar bone is:
a)

Size 0

b)

Size 1

c)

Size 2

d)

Size 3

41) First evidence of calcification sequence of primary teeth is:

a)

ABCDE

b)

ADBEC

c)

ADBCE

d)

ABDEC

42) Which primary molar does not resemble any permanent teeth?
a)

Deciduous maxillary 1st molar

b)

Deciduous maxillary 2nd molar

c)

Deciduous mandibular 1st molar

d)

Deciduous mandibular 2nd molar

43) During which time, 1st evidence of tooth development is seen in human:
a)

4th week of intrauterine life

b)

4th week of extrauterine life

c)

6th week postnatally

d)

6th week prenatally

44) Cause of yellow stains on a radiograph is due to:

a)

Top of film not immersed in developing solution

b)

Excessive fixation

c)

Underdevelopment or underexposure

d)

Depleted developer

45) Free gingival groove is between:

a)

Marginal gingiva and gingival sulcus

b)

Attached gingiva and gingival sulcus

c)

Attached gingiva and interdental gingiva

d)

Attached gingiva and marginal gingiva

46) Glucose concentration in GCF as compared to serum:

a)

3 to 4 times greater than serum

b)

3 to 4 times lesser than serum

c)

Twice the serum

d)

Half of the serum

47) Shape of smooth muscle is:

a)

Cylindrical

b)

Flattened

c)

Spindle

d)

Branched Fusiform

48) A known case of diabetes mellitus entered medical emergency in

subconscious state: First step in management:
a)

Dextrose 50%.

b)

Blood test

c)

Insulin

d)

HBS IV

49) In pediatric patient which type of digital x- ray system is ideal:

a)

Charged couple devices

b)

Phosphor based

c)

Complementary metal oxide semiconductors

d)

Radiovisiography

50) Anterior mandibular occlusal technique, pediatric patient head is positioned

in occlusal plane at ______ and the cone is aligned at ______ vertical angle:

a)

-450, -150.

b)

-300, -150

c)

-150, -150

d)

-400, -200

51) Which is the most often and most stable used plane for the
superimpositions of lateral cephalogram in studying the growth of a child?
a)

Frankfort plane

b)

SN plane

c)

Mandibular plane

d)

Occlusal plane

52) Which of the following is absent in PDL fiber?

a)

Dermaten sulphate

b)

Mature elastin fiber

c)

Chondroiten sulphate

d)

Intermediate plexus

53) Which of the following is not a conditional gingival enlargement?

a)

Puberty

b)

Drug induced

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Leukemia

54) A child of 5 year of age comes to the department of periodontology with

necrotic bleeding gingiva. Which name one assign the condition?
a)

ANUG

b)

Necrotizing gingival enlargement

c)

NUP

d)

Desquamative gingivitis

55) Which of the following is not a component of posterior triangle of neck?

a)

Subclavian vessels

b)

External jugular vein

c)

Occipital artery

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

56) The gingival enlargement is the most common finding in:

a)

Acute leukemia

b)

Subacute leukemia

c)

Chronic leukemia

d)

Subchronic leukemia

57) Two canals in the mandibular premolar is more common in:

a)

Indians

b)

Indo Africans

c)

Indo Americans

d)

Afro Americans

58) According to Sotokows classification class IV type of instrument damage is:

a)

Straightening of twisted flutes

b)

Cracking of instrument along its long axis

c)

Reverse twisting of files

d)

Bent instrument

59) Halo around the enamel margin is seen due to the following except:
a)

Traumatic contouring

b)

Inadequate etching and bonding

c)

High intensity light curing

d)

Improper shade selection

60) According to the classification of isthmus; which type is true connection

throughout the section of root?
a)

Type III

b)

Type IV

c)

Type V

d)

Type VI

61) Dehydration may be caused by restorative material such as cavit because:

a)

It has low pH

b)

It has high pH

c)

It is hydrophilic

d)

It is hydrophobic

62) Protaper retreatment files are used at a speed of:

a)

150 to 600 RPM

b)

500 to 700 RPM

c)

300 to 600 RPM

d)

400 to 800 RPM

63) Maximum craze lines are seen with:

a)

Normal natural tooth

b)

Tooth with restoration

c)

Endodontically treated tooth by hand files

d)

Endodontically treated tooth by rotary protaper

64) Most commonly responsible factor for file separation or breakage:

a)

Cyclic fatigue

b)

Torsional fatigue

c)

Combination of cystic and torsional fatigue

d)

Unwinding and permanent deformation

65) A 63 year old patient has pink tooth shows asymmetrical enlargement of
distal canal in comparison to mesial canal the reason could be:
a)

Hyperactive pulpalgia

b)

Pulp polyp

c)

External resorption

d)

Internal resorption

66) Patient having sensitivity after class II amalgam restoration probable reason
could be:
a)

Poor condensation in proximal box

b)

Under trituration

c)

Excessive mercury content

d)

Secondary expansion

67) According to Spauldings classification of instrument sterilization, saliva

ejector is:
a)

Critical item

b)

Semi critical item

c)

Non critical item

d)

Saliva ejector is not classified

68) All Ca(OH)2 based sealers except:

a)

Apexit

b)

Tubliseal

c)

Seal apex

d)

Vitapex

69) Vitality test with least sensitivity is:

a)

Cold

b)

Heat

c)

EPT

d)

Test cavity

70) While resecting the root, the minimum amount of resection will be:
a)

3 mm

b)

4 mm

c)

5 mm

d)

6 mm

71) A 3rd generation apex locator shows apex at distance 3 to 4 mm from the
apex the probable reason could be:
a)

Wetness of canal

b)

Lateral canal

c)

Improper isolation

d)

Cervical leakage

72) Finger spreader is different from hand spreader in:

a)

To facilitate the placement of accessory GP

b)

Does not have standardized size and shape

c)

Produce great stress while compaction

d)

All of the above

73) Which solvent has been shown to be most efficient fastest in softening GP?
a)

Chloroform

b)

Xylol

c)

Eucalyptus oil

d)

Orange oil

74) In pulp, nerve impulses fastest carried by:

a)

A alpha fiber.

b)

A delta fiber.

c)

C fiber.

d)

C delta fiber.

75) In a patient with separated instrument beyond the confines of root canal,
treatment protocol would be:
a)

Obturate the canal.

b)

Relieve the patient as it is.

c)

Periapical surgery with apicoectomy.

d)

Extraction of that tooth.

76) What type of collagen is most common in dental pulp?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type IV

d)

Type I and IV

77) According to American Heart Association (AMA), endodontic patient who has
endocarditis should be medicated by:
a)

Ampicillin 500 mg

b)

Aspirin

c)

Clindamycin 2 gm

d)

Amoxicillin 2 gm

78) Patient with pain in a tooth for past 2 days. No radiographic feature is
observed but TOP is positive. Diagnosis is:
a)

Acute periodontitis

b)

Chronic periodontitis

c)

Acute pulpitis

d)

Chronic pulpitis

79) Which of the following film is not used for intra oral radiography?
a)

b)

c)

d)

80) Which of the following nerve is responsible for supplying sensation to

cornea, upper eyelid and the forehead?
a)

Cranial nerve II

b)

Cranial nerve III

c)

Cranial nerve V

d)

Cranial nerve VI.

81) During ridge augmentation procedure, interpositional or sandwich bone

graft does not include:
a)

Hydroxyapatite block

b)

Cartilage grafts

c)

Alloplastic grafts

d)

Bone grafts

82) Factors that promote bone resorption is:

a)

TNF- Alpha

b)

TNF- Beta

c)

TNF- Delta

d)

TNF- Gama

83) 3rd generation apex locator are based on:

a)

Frequency

b)

Resistance

c)

Capacitance

d)

Independence

84) Which of the following is not an anticalculus matrix disruption agent?

a)

30% urea

b)

Sodium ricinoleate

c)

Sodium percarbonate

d)

Ascorbic acid

85) A patient with HIV having most consistent finding in oral mucosa is:
a)

Linear marginal gingivitis

b)

ANUG

c)

NUP

d)

Necrotizing stomatitis

86) When a bone is crushed and mixed with blood and used as a graft. It will
termed as:
a)

Bone blend

b)

Osseous coagulum

c)

Bone marrow chips

d)

Bone swaging

87) The particle size of a perioglass (bio active glass) is:

a)

50 to 90 m

b)

190 to 250 m

c)

300 to 355m

d)

90 to 170 m

88) Incorrect about tooth associated subgingival plaque is:

a)

Does not extend to junctional epithelium

b)

Predominantly gram positive bacteria

c)

May penetrate cementum

d)

Associated with gingivitis and periodontitis

89) Which of the following is not correct about the microbial shift from health to
disease associated with periodontal microbiology?
a)

Cocci to rods

b)

Obligate anaerobes to facultative anaerobes

c)

Non motile to motile

d)

From fermenting to proteolytic species

90) Because of increase in occlusal forces, defect in cervical area is:

a)

Trauma from occlusion

b)

Abfraction

c)

Abrasion

d)

Erosion

91) Which of the following immunosuppresants drug implicated in gingival

overgrowth?
a)

Sodium valproate

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Cyclosporin A

d)

Cannabis

92) Which of the following occurs by ANUG/ NUP?

a)

Crater formation

b)

Loss of attachment

c)

Foetid smell

d)

All of the above

93) Bone loss in furcation is complete but slight marginal gingival recession is
placed under which grade of furcation involvement:
a)

Grade I

b)

Grade II

c)

Grade III

d)

Grade IV

94) Intranuclear inclusion may be present in:

a)

Papilloma

b)

Hairy leukoplakia

c)

Condyloma

d)

None of the above

95) Koebner phenomenon is associated with:

a)

Lichen planus

b)

Erythema multiforme

c)

Leukoplakia

d)

Dyskeratosis congenital

96) RS cells are associated with:

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Hodgkins lymphoma

c)

Kaposi Sarcoma

d)

Oral submucous fibrosis

97) DEJ is formed during:

a)

Bud stage

b)

Early cup stage

c)

Late Cup stage

d)

Bell stage

98) Most abundantly found collagen in cementum:

a)

Type I

b)

Type IV

c)

Type XII

d)

Type III

99) In the developing solution, hydroquinone acts as:

a)

Restrainer

b)

Preservative

c)

Developer

d)

Activator

100) In the fixing solution aluminium sulphate acts as:

a)

Hardener

b)

Preservative

c)

Clearing agent

d)

Both 1 and 2

101) Syndrome associated with follicular cyst is:

a)

Papillon Lefeure syndrome

b)

Maroteaux Lamy syndrome

c)

Chedial Higashi

d)

Ellis Van Creveld Syndrome

102) Incorrect about OKC:

a)

Mostly possess orthokeratinized epithelium

b)

6 to 10 cells thick epithelium is present

c)

It shows picket fence appearance

d)

All are correct

103) Which of the following is an example of deterministic effects of radiation?

a)

Radiation induced cancer

b)

Radiation induced cataract formation

c)

Heritable effects

d)

All of the above

104) Muscle of mastication acts to elevator mandible to close the mouth to bite:
a)

Masseter

b)

Temporalis

c)

Lateral pterygoid

d)

Medial pterygoid

105) Psychosexual theory is given by:

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Skinner

c)

Jean Piaget

d)

Sigmund Freud

106) Which of the following possess single canal?

a)

Mandibular 1st premolar

b)

Maxillary 1st premolar

c)

Maxillary 1st molar

d)

Mandibular 1st molar

107) Antibiotic which inhibits cell wall synthesis is:

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Streptomycin

108) Which of the following is not a primarily bacteriostatic antibiotic?

a)

Sulphonamide

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Ethambutol

d)

Rifampin

109) Concentration of inhalational anesthetics having 2 to 3 MAC is:

a)

Generally used

b)

Rarely used

c)

Sub lethal

d)

Lethal

110) Dental lamina originates from:

a)

Mesenchyme

b)

Ectomesenchyme

c)

Primary epithelial band

d)

None of the above

111) Treatment modality for cracked tooth syndrome involving enamel and
dentin:
a)

Occlusal reduction

b)

A full crown restoration

c)

Root canal treatment

d)

Extraction

112) A 9 year old suffered from irreversible pulpitis in mandibular molar. An

emergency procedure should be done when time is a factor is:
a)

Pulpectomy

b)

Pulpotomy

c)

RCT with post and core

d)

Extraction

113) At what curvature a dentist facing high difficulty to negotiate a canal:

a)

< 250

b)

< 35 0

c)

< 450

d)

< 550

114) Compaction method of Gutta percha obturation technique is given by:

a)

Schilder

b)

Mc Spadden

c)

Gutmann and Raskin

d)

Grossman

115) The preferred temperature for heat test is:

a)

1000F

b)

1250F

c)

1500F

d)

1750F

116) Treatment of multirooted teeth of VRF is:

a)

RCT

b)

Bonded Restoration

c)

Hemisection

d)

Extraction

117) Commonly used laser in operative dentistry is:

a)

Argon

b)

Er- YAG

c)

Nd- YAG

d)

Neon

118) Thickness of medium rubber dam sheet:

a)

0.15 mm

b)

0.20 mm

c)

0.25 mm

d)

0,30 mm

119) In mesial root of mandibular 1st molar. How much percentage of cases
shows two canals that coalesce to exit in one foramen?
a)

0.41

b)

0.28

c)

0.13

d)

0.12

120) Rubber dam clamps # 207 is used for:

a)

For upper and lower bicuspid with festooned beaks

b)

For upper and lower bicuspid with flat beaks.

c)

For upper and lower bicuspid broad beaks

d)

For lower bicuspids with flat beaks

121) TNM staging denotes:

a)

T tumor, N lymph nodes, M metastasis

b)

T tumor, N lymph nodes, M mitosis

c)

T tumor, N necrosis, M metastasis

d)

T tumor, N node, Meiosis

122) Cell affecting its own body action during embryogenesis is called:
a)

Autocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Homocrine

d)

Heterocrine

123) Inclined plane in Catlans appliances:

a)

450 to lower incisor

b)

450 to upper incisor

c)

300 to upper incisor

d)

300 to lower incisor

124) Atypical odontalgia means:

a)

Toothache of unknown cause

b)

Toothache known cause

c)

Pulp extirpation.

d)

Presence of periapical infection

125) The insertion of a tooth in its socket after its complete avulsion is:
a)

Transplantation

b)

Implantation

c)

Replantation

d)

Recapitulation

126) An instrument vibrating ultrasonically in a irrigant flooded space produces

severe turbulence of the irrigant. This effect is called:
a)

Ultrasonic streamlining

b)

Acoustic streaming

c)

Piezo electric effect

d)

None of the above

127) Endodontic treatment is not the preferred treatment for:

a)

Teeth to be used for overdenture.

b)

Teeth with horizontal crown fracture at the gingival margin

c)

Teeth with reversible pulpal disease

d)

Teeth with coronal caries and a small apica; abscess

128) Endodontically treated teeth are:

a)

Not susceptible to development of caries

b)

Areas susceptible as healthy teeth to development of caries

c)

More susceptible to development of caries

d)

Only root caries can develop

129) Maximum familial tendency is seen in:

a)

Class I

b)

Class II div 1

c)

Class II div 2

d)

Functional class III

130) Same set of chromosome is:

a)

Homologous

b)

Heterologous

c)

Diploid genome

d)

Haploid Genome

131) Neonatal line is:

a)

Incremental line of Retzius

b)

Hunter- Schreger bands

c)

Incremental line of Von Ebner

d)

None of the above

132) ____ is defined as the reduction in pain threshold:

a)

Odontalgia

b)

Anodyne

c)

Allodynia

d)

Antiseptic

133) Irrigating agent dissolving entire pulp in short period of time is:
a)

EDTA

b)

Chlorhexidine digluconate

c)

MTAD

d)

Sodium hypochlorite

134) White Knuckle syndrome is associated with:

a)

Fear and anxiety

b)

Decreased salivation

c)

Developmental anomaly of tooth

d)

Redness of hand and excessive urination

135) EDTA + cetrimide is a:

a)

EDTAT

b)

R- EDTA

c)

CT- EDTA

d)

EDTA-C

136) MTA is contraindicated in:

a)

Sealing the cervical perforation

b)

Incomplete development of root apex with death of the pulp

c)

Direct pulp capping and pulpotomy

d)

All of the above

137) Contraindication of GTR:

a)

Narrow 2 3 wall intrabony defects

b)

Class II furcation defects

c)

Recession defects

d)

Furcation with short root trunks

138) Dentin formation starts at:

a)

Cuspal tips

b)

Cervical area

c)

DEJ

d)

Root of the tooth

139) By the time the tooth reaches its functional position, how much root dentin
will have been formed:
a)

1/3

b)

2/3

c)

d)

Root dentin formation is complete at that time

140) Difference in Wright and Frankel behavior modification is:

a)

Frankel based on behavior shown at time of appointment

b)

Wright based on behavior shown at time of appointment

c)

Frankel based on Verall childs behavior

d)

Wright based on child parent relationship

141) N2O in environment is best recorded by:

a)

Laminar flow

b)

Infra red spectrophotometer

c)

Both

d)

None

142) In endodontics, the highest level of evidence (LOE) is gained from:

a)

Case series

b)

Uncontrolled trials

c)

Randomized controlled trial

d)

Controlled clinical trial

143) Pulp capping performed by dental professional is kept under:

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Tertiary prevention with rehabilitation

144) Connexon protein are found in:

a)

Gap junction

b)

Impermeable junction

c)

Adhering junction

d)

Desmosome

145) The largest component of gutta percha points is:

a)

Gutta percha

b)

Zinc oxide

c)

Resin and Waxes

d)

Colonising agents

146) Resilon is not used for which obturation technique:

a)

Lateral compaction

b)

Warm vertical compaction

c)

Mc Spadden thermomechanical compaction

d)

Thermoplasticized gutta percha injection

147) Which of the following sealer should be used when lateral canals are
anticipated?
a)

Rickerts formula

b)

AH-26

c)

Machs paste

d)

Tubliseal

148) Seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp

with instant inflammation is:
a)

Pulp polyp

b)

Ulcerative pulpitis

c)

Anachoretic pulpitis

d)

Bacterial endocarditis

149) Which of the following instrument has highest cutting efficiency?

a)

Reamer

b)

K- file

c)

H- file

d)

S- file

150) Lawaty technique is used in:

a)

MTA obturation

b)

Ca(OH)2 apexification

c)

C- shaped canal obturation

d)

Perforation repair

151) Mark the wrong statement:

a)

Active eruption is a physiological process

b)

Passive eruption is a physiological process

c)

Passive eruption is divided into 4 stages

d)

Both 2 and 3

152) Cytoplasmic granules of mast cells contains:

a)

Histamine

b)

Heparin

c)

Slow releasing substance of anaphylaxis

d)

All of the above

153) In cementum, cementocytes are contained in the individual spaces known

as:
a)

Lamella

b)

Canaliculi

c)

Lacunae

d)

None of the above

154) Ankylosed tooth is often associated with:

a)

Suprabony pockets

b)

Deep infrabony pockets

c)

Both of the above.

d)

A true pocket never forms in ankylosed tooth

155) The predominant target cells of HIV is:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Helper T cell

d)

Langerhans cell.

156) The activity of collagen degrading enzyme in the saliva is inhibited by:
a)

Cathepsin

b)

TIMP

c)

Antileukoprotease

d)

All of the above

157) The important coagulation factors present in saliva includes:

a)

Factor VIII, IX and X

b)

Hagmen factor

c)

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

d)

All of the above

158) Oro granulocytic migratory rate refers to:

a)

The rate of migration of monocytes into oral cavity

b)

The rate of migration of PMNs into oral cavity

c)

The rate of migration of lymphocytes into oral cavity

d)

The rate of migration of leucocytes into oral cavity

159) Chromogenic bacteria responsible for black stain is:

a)

Flavobacterium

b)

Actinomyces

c)

Aspergillus

d)

All of the above

160) HAART does not includes:

a)

Lamirodine

b)

Veramine

c)

Indinovir

d)

Veramapil

161) The absence of a notable gingival inflammatory reaction to the local

irritation is a striking feature of:
a)

Chediak Higashi syndrome

b)

Arteriosclerosis

c)

Agranulocytosis

d)

Thrombocytopenia purpura

162) The highest absorption wavelength in hemoglobin and is used for its good
hemostatic capabilities:
a)

488 nm

b)

514 nm

c)

524 nm

d)

456 nm

163) The stage I gingivitis is termed as:

a)

The early lesion

b)

The initial lesion

c)

The established lesion

d)

The advanced lesion

164) Angiogranuloma is a:
a)

Gingival enlargement in pregnancy

b)

Gingival enlargement in puberty

c)

Gingival enlargement in Vitamin C deficiency

d)

Gingival enlargement in leukemia

165) The periodontal cyst occurs most often in:

a)

Maxillary canine premolar area.

b)

Mandibular canine premolar area

c)

Maxillary incisor canine area

d)

Maxillary molar

166) The bone destructive pattern is angular in:

a)

Infrabony pocket

b)

Suprabony pocket

c)

Both of the above

d)

Gingival pocket

167) Plateau like bone margins caused by resorption of thickened bony plates
are called as:
a)

Exostoses

b)

Osseous craters

c)

Ledges

d)

Reversed architecture

168) Which of the following is best method for TMJ ankylosis?

a)

Condylotomy

b)

Condylectomy

c)

Intermaxillary fixation

d)

TMJ arthrocentesis

169) Which of the following drug is not used during premedication?

a)

Pentobarbitone

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Sodium warfarin

d)

Pethidine

170) Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of:

a)

15%.

b)

0.4

c)

0.5

d)

0.25

171) Which of the following blood group is known as universal donor?

a)

AB, Rh ve

b)

AB, Rh +ve

c)

O, Rh + ve.

d)

O, Rh -ve

172) A patient complains of diplopia following fracture zygoma, this is because

of:
a)

Fracture of orbital floor

b)

Entrapmental of medial rectus

c)

Entrapmental superior oblique

d)

All of the above

173) Which number BP blade is used to elevate a flap during surgical extraction
of an impacted third molar?
a)

11

b)

15

c)

12

d)

10

174) When a patient is under-nourished and hypoproteinemic which of the

suture should be used?
a)

Absorbable

b)

Non Absorbable

c)

Any of the above

d)

Suture cant be given in such type of patients

175) The colour of N2O cylinder is:

a)

Black

b)

Blue

c)

White

d)

Yellow

176) Guerin type fracture is same as fracture:

a)

Lefort I

b)

Lefort II

c)

Lefort III

d)

Suprazygomatic

177) The typical cracked cup sound on percussion of upper teeth is indicative
of fracture:
a)

Lefort I

b)

Lefort II

c)

Lefort III

d)

All of the above

178) Dish face deformity commonly seen with fracture of middle third of face is
because of:
a)

Posterior and downward movement of maxilla.

b)

Anterior and downward movement of maxilla

c)

Anterior and forward movement of maxilla

d)

Nasal complex fracture

179) Panda facies, Racoon eyes along with disk face deformity is seen in:
a)

Lefort I.

b)

Lefort II

c)

Lefort III

d)

Lefort II and III

180) Normal prothrombin time is:

a)

5 to 10 min

b)

5 to 10 secs

c)

11 to 13 mins

d)

11 to 13 secs

181) Deficiency of which of the following coagulation factor prolongs

prothrombin time:
a)

Factor VIII

b)

Factor II

c)

Factor IX

d)

Factor XII

182) Floating jaw is a feature of:

a)

Lefort I.

b)

Lefort II

c)

Lefort III

d)

Lefort IV

183) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves the inhalation of:

a)

100% humidified O2

b)

100% non hudified O2

c)

90% non humidified O2

d)

90% humidified O2

184) HIV can be isolated from which type of cells?:

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

Alveolar macrophages

c)

Dendritic follicles

d)

All of the above

185) Anterior open bite is a feature of:

a)

Symphyseal fracture

b)

Midpalatal fracture

c)

Bilateral angle fracture

d)

Bilateral subcondylar fracture

186) Commonest site of mucocele is:

a)

Floor of the mouth

b)

Buccal mucosa

c)

Lower lip

d)

Upper lip

187) Tachyphylaxis occur due to:

a)

Increased dose of LA

b)

Repeated use of LA

c)

Increased dose of vasoconstrictor

d)

Allergy to sodium metabisulphite

188) Entonox is:

a)

N2O + halothane mixture

b)

50% N2O + 20% O2mixture

c)

50% N2O + 50% O2 mixture

d)

50% ether + 50%O2 Mixture

189) Pathognomonic sign of fracture of mandible is:

a)

Deranged occlusion

b)

Tenderness and swelling at site

c)

Sublungual hematoma

d)

Inability to open mouth

190) Anterior belly of digastrics muscle is supplied by:

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Mandibular nerve

c)

Buccal nerve

d)

Lingual nerve

191) Which of the following lesion can be diagnosed from radiograph?

a)

Nasolabial cyst

b)

Dermoid cyst

c)

Lipoma

d)

Mucocele

192) Which of the following is not a suture material?

a)

Catgut

b)

Silk

c)

Stainless steel

d)

All are suture materials

193) Torniquet test is carried out:

a)

To know platelet aggregation

b)

To measure capillary fragility

c)

To measure clotting time.

d)

To measure clot retraction

194) Chondromas are:

a)

Radiosensitive

b)

Radiopaque

c)

Radioresistant

d)

Only present in condylar area

195) Trauma to the excretory duct of sublingual salivary gland causes:

a)

Ranula

b)

Mucocele

c)

Solitary cyst

d)

Sialolithiasis

196) Following cysts occur on lateral side of neck:

a)

Dermoid cyst

b)

Thyroglossal cyst

c)

Brachial cyst

d)

Epidermoid cyst

197) All of the following antibiotic are bacteriostatic except:

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Tetracyclin

d)

Clindamycin

198) The six classical complications of diabetes does not includes:

a)

Periodontitis

b)

Nephropathy

c)

Macrovascular disease

d)

Includes all of the above

199) Oral kaposis sarcoma is treated by:

a)

Laser excision

b)

Radiation therapy

c)

Intraleisional injection with vinblastin

d)

All of the above

200) Purplish red macules or papules with interspersed bullous lesions on oral
mucosa are found in:
a)

Lupus Erythematosus

b)

Pemphigus

c)

Erythema multiforme

d)
Q.77. (a). During your cleaning and shaping procedure, files kept in
cleansing agent?
(A) 15 sec. in glass bead
(B) 30 sec. in glass bead
(C) Sodium hypochlorite
(D) Chlorhexidine

Ans.(C). Sodium hypochlorite

Q.77.(B). To control infection during endo, the files must be cleaned between
uses. How?
(A) Dry gauze in a ring holder
(B) Gauze dampened with water
(C) Gauze dampened with bleach
(D) Gauze dampened with Chlorhexidine

Ans. (C) Gauze dampened with bleach.

DIRECT PICK FROM E-QUESTIONS

Q. 77.(c). Best method to sterilize a K-file during endodontic treatment is:(A) Autoclave
(B) 2 percent glutaraldehyde
(C) Glass bead sterilization
(D) Chemiclave

Ans. (C) Glass bead sterilization

Q.77.(d). Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:

(A) Hot salt sterilizer
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Chemical solutions
(D) Dry heat.

Ans. (C) Chemical solutions

Q77(E) Sterilization of reamers and files in the glass bead or hot salt
sterilize:without affecting the temper of the instrument is attained at:
(A) 150 degree F for five seconds
(B) 450 degree F for five seconds
(C) 150 degree for 30 seconds
(D) 450 degree F for 30 seconds

Ans: (b) 450 degree F for five seconds

Q77(F) Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest
temperature?
(A) Autoclave
(B) Dry heat oven
(C) Ethylene oxide method
(D) Salt or glass bead sterilizer.

Ans: (c) Ethylene oxide methodBullous Pemphigoid