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Vidyamandir Classes

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.


1.

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I : Chemistry, Part II : Physics, Part III : Mathematics).
Each Part has 2 sections (Section I & Section II).

2.

For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your
Test Code, Roll No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.

3.

Section I contains 2 types of questions [Type 1 & Type 2].


Type 1 contains 10 Single Correct Answer Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
Marking scheme [3 Marks for Correct answer & 1 NEGATIVE MARKING for wrong]
Type 2 contains 5 Multiple Correct Answer Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE CHOICES may be correct.
Marking scheme [5 Marks for Correct answer & NO NEGATIVE MARKING for wrong]

4.

Section II contains 5 Single Integer Value Type Questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive)
Marking scheme [4 Marks for Correct answer & 1 NEGATIVE MARKING for wrong]

5.

No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

6.

On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

7.

No one is permitted to leave the test room before the end of the test, i.e. 12.00 NOON

VMC/JEE-2015/Paper-1

MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

PART - I (CHEMISTRY)

75 MARKS
SECTION - I [Type 1]
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 10 Single Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1.
The product (C) in the above sequence of reactions is :

(A)
2.

(D)

4g

(B)

26.7 g

(C)

3.4 g

(D)

6.8 g

On heating 60 cc of a mixture of equal volume of Cl2 and an oxide of chlorine and cooling to room
temperature and pressure, the resulting gas measured 75 cc. Treatment of this gas with caustic soda
solution resulted in a contraction to 15 cc. Assuming that all measurements were done at the same
temperature and pressure, 300 cc of the oxide of chlorine diffuses in 40 sec and 400 cc of a gas,
2
X diffuses in rd of a minute. The gas X could be :
3
(A)

4.

(C)

A mixture of 2g each of the sulphates of two metals whose equivalent weights are 12 and
32 respectively was dissolved in water. To this solution, an excess of BaCl2 was added, the weight of
BaSO4 precipitated is : (atomic weight of O = 16, S = 32, Ba = 137)
(A)

3.

(B)

NO2

(B)

CH2N2

(C)

C4H10

(D)

O3

A silvery metal reacts with excess of hot and concentrated HNO3 to form a solution of metal ion (X)
and a paramagnetic gas. To this solution, potassium tetrathiocyanatocobaltate(II) is added, when a deep
blue precipitate is formed. The metal ion (X) will be :
(A)

Ag+

(B)

Al3+

(C)

Hg2+

(D)

Pb2+

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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5.

The major product in the reaction given below is :

Ph H
PhC CMe

HNO2

(X)

OH NH2
(A)

Ph H
PhC CMe (B)
H

6.

Ph
PhCCMe
O Me

Ph H

octahedral

(B)

tetrahedral

(C)

square pyramidal

(D)

square planar

Pure water is saturated with pure solid AgCl, a silver electrode is placed in the solution and the
potential is measured against normal calomel electrode at 25C. The experiment is then repeated with a
saturated solution of AgI. If the difference in potential of the two cases is 0.177 V , what is the ratio of
solubilities of AgCl and AgI at the temperature of the experiment?
(A)

8.

PhCCHMe (C)

OH H
PhC CMe (D)

PCl5 is highly unstable and in solid state it exists as into [PCl4]+ and [PCl6] ions. The geometry of
[PCl6] is :
(A)

7.

Ph

102

(B)

106

(C)

103

(D)

104

The final product (B) in the following sequence of reaction,


(i) O3
(ii) H2O

(A)

dilute KOH

(B)

would be :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

O
9.

During adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature. The ratio of C p / C v (i.e., ) for the gas is :
(A)

10.

3/2

(B)

7/2

(C)

5/3

(D)

9/7

Microbial growth in a culture follows first order kinetics. The rate constant for this
growth is 0.0462 min1. How many microbes will be in culture after 3 hrs if initially there are
4 106 microbes? ( Use: log 4 103 = 3.6 )
(A)

1.6 1010

(B)

4.38 109

(C)

1.0 108

(D)

4 108

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC/JEE-2015/Paper-1

MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - I [Type 2]
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This section contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11.

5 moles of NO2 and 10 moles of N2O4 are taken in a vessel having total pressure of
2 atm. Which of the following statement is correct about the reaction, 2NO2(g)
N2O4(g) [Given:
G f (N2O4) = 97.3 kJ/mole and G f (NO2) = 51.5 kJ/mole]?
o

(A)
(C)
12.

The reaction moves in forward direction (B)


KP of the equilibrium reaction is 10
(D)

The reaction moves in reverse direction


QP of the reaction is 6

Which of the following statement is(are) correct for compounds of iron?


(A)
FeSO 4 on heating gives sulphurous anhydride and sulphuric anhydride along with reddish
brown residue of Fe 2 O3 .
(B)

FeCl3 .6H 2 O(s) on hating form anhydrous ferrous chloride

(C)
(D)

Brown ring complex on heating releases a paramagnetic gas


Sodium fusion extract of thiourea produces blood red colouration with FeCl3 solution

13.

Which of the following acid is dibasic and has an identical non-metal non-metal bond?
(A)
H2S2O8
(B)
H2S2O4
(C)
H4P2O6
(D)
H2N2O2

14.

Which of the following is correct about P4O6 and P4O10 ?


(A)
There are two types of PO bond lengths in P4O10 but only one type in P4O6
(B)
The PO single bond in P4O6 is longer than in P4O10
(C)
The PO single bond in P4O10 is longer than in P4O6
(D)
P4O6 can show Lewis base character but P4O10 cannot

15.

Which of the following aqueous solutions produce the same osmotic pressure?
(A)
0.1 M NaCl solution
(B)
0.1 M Glucose solution
(C)
0.6 g Urea in 100 ml solution
(D)
1.0 g non-electrolyte solute (X) in 50 ml solution (molecular mass of X = 200)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC/JEE-2015/Paper-1

MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - II
SINGLE INTEGER VALUE CORRECT TYPE
This section contains 5 single Integer Value Correct type Questions. Each question has an integer answer
between 0 and 9. Fill the answer bubbles in the OMR Sheet APPROPRIATELY and CAREFULLY.
1.

Consider the given sequence of reaction,

O
CH3CO

O
C

O
1. LiAlH4
2. H2O

(P) + (Q) + (R)

HIO

4
(P)
(S) (T).

The total number of stereoisomers involved in (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T) will be _______ .
2.

The unit cell of hydrated TlAl(SO4)2 is face centered with unit cell length a = 1.19 nm.
If the density of the salt is 2.32 g/cc, then the approximate number of water of hydration units per
TlAl(SO4)2 unit will be (Molar mass of TlAl(SO4)2 is 423.5).

3.

Find out the ratio of optically active isomers to meso-isomers for the following reaction:
Br

2
CH3CH = CHCH3
products .

in CCl4

4.

In the reaction given below both complex [X] and complex [Y] obey effective atomic number rule.
If effective atomic number of Fe in complex [Y] is 36 then the co-ordination number of Fe in this
complex is________
[Fe(CO)5 ] 2NO
[Fe(CO) 2 (NO) 2 ] 3CO
[Y]
[X]

5.

736 g of K4[Fe(CN)6] reacts with 40 L of 0.2 M H2SO4 to undergo non-redox reaction to liberate CO
gas. The number of moles of CO released is ________.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC/JEE-2015/Paper-1

MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

PART - II (PHYSICS)

75 MARKS
SECTION - I [Type 1]
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 10 Single Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1.

Three long thin wires, each carrying current I in the same direction are in the x-y plane of a gravity
free-space, mass per unit length of the central wire is . The central wire is along y-axis while the
other two are along x d . If the central wire is displaced along the z-direction by a small amount and
released keeping the other two wires fixed, the frequency of oscillation is :
(A)

2.

(B)

0 I d

(C)

2 d 0

(D)

I
2 d

A lift ascends with constant acceleration a, then with constant velocity and finally stops under constant
retardation a. If the total distance ascended is h and total time taken is t, the time during which the lift is
ascended with constant velocity is :
(A)

3.

I
d

t2

4h
a

(B)

t2

8h
a

(C)

t2

4h
3a

(D)

t2

8h
3a

A sinusoidal wave pulse of amplitude A and wavelength , is


propagating in a string towards right with speed c. At t = 0, it starts
reflecting from the fixed end as shown. Find the velocity of the point
which is at a distance of /6 left from fixed end in its mean position

.
6c
3 2cA
down (B)
2

at instant t
(A)

3 2cA
up
2

(C)

1 2cA
down (D)
2

1 2cA
up
2

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4.

5.

Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece of sodium.
The K.E. of the fastest photoelectrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The work function of sodium is
1.82 eV then,
(A)
the energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission is 2.55 eV
(B)
the quantum number of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons are 1 and 4

h
(in the above
2

(C)

the change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom is

(D)

transition)
assuming it to be at rest before transition, the recoil speed of the emitting hydrogen atom of
mass 1.6 1027 kg is 8.5 m/s

A particle of mass m is allowed to oscillate near the minimum of a frictionless


vertical parabolic path having the equation x 2 4ay. The angular frequency of
small oscillation is given by :

6.

7.

(A)

g
a

(B)

(C)

g
2a

(D)

2gh
2

gh
a

A particle is thrown horizontally with relative velocity 10 m/s


from a big inclined plane, which is also moving with
acceleration 10 m/s2 vertically upward. The time after which it
lands on the plane (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A)
1 sec
(B)
2 sec
1
1
(C)
sec
(D)
sec
2
3

v = 10 m/s

a = 10 m/s2

30

A uniform chain of length L has one of its end attached to the wall at
point A, while

3L
of the length of the chain is lying on table as
4

shown in figure. The minimum coefficient of friction between table


and chain so that chain remains in equilibrium is :
(A)
1/3
(B)
1/4
(C)
3/4

(D)

1/5

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes
8.

A ball is released from a point, it goes vertically downwards and collides with a fixed smooth inclined
plane of angle of inclination of 30 from the ground, then ball goes horizontally just after collision.
Find the coefficient of restitution between the ball and the inclined plane.
1
1
1
(A)
(B)
(C)
1
(D)
2
3
5

9.

Two small rings each of mass m are connected to the block of same mass m through inextensible
massless strings of length l each. Rings are constrained to move over smooth rod AB. Initially system
is held at rest as shown in the figure. Let u be the velocity of ring when string makes an angle 60 with
the vertical then :

(A)

10.

gl
5

(B)

8 gl
5

(C)

u 3gl

(D)

3gl
5

A disc, having plane parallel to the horizontal is moving such


that velocity of point P with respect to ground on its periphery is
2m/s j as shown in the figure. If radius of disc is R = 1m and
angular speed of disc about vertical axis passing through disc is
= 2 rad/s, the velocity of centre of disc in m/s is :
(A)

2 j

(B)

2i 2 j

(C)

2i 2 j

(D)

2i 2 j

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC/JEE-2015/Paper-1

MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - I [Type 2]
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This section contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11.

For any general body, under the framework of Newtonian mechanics,


(A)
Center of mass and center of gravity will coincide if the body is placed in uniform gravitational
field
(B)
Center of mass and center of gravity will surely coincide if the body has uniform density
(C)
Center of mass and centroid will coincide if the body has uniform density but it is placed in
non-uniform gravitational field
(D)
Center of mass and centroid will coincide if the body has non-uniform density but it is placed in
uniform gravitational field

12.

The given arrangement carries a capacitor with capacitance 40mF and two inductors L1 25 H and

L2 100 H . If the capacitor initially carries a charge of 10 mC, then

'Q' + C

L1

L2

k1

13.

(A)

k2
the maximum current through the inductor L1 when key k1 is closed is 20 mA

(B)

the maximum current through the inductor L2 when key k 2 is closed is 5mA

(C)

the maximum current through inductor L2 when both the keys are closed is

(D)

time period of oscillation of charge is minimum when both the keys are closed

5 mA

The rate of heat energy emitted by a body at an instant depends upon


(A)
Area of the surface
(B)
Difference of temperature between the surface and its surroundings
(C)
Nature of the surface
(D)
None of these
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14.

A long plank of mass M = 20 kg can move on horizontal frictionless surface freely. Initially the plank is
at rest and an object of mass m = 5kg is given a velocity of 25 m/s and placed on the floor of the plank.
Co-efficient of friction between object and floor of the plank is

5
. After having some relative
8

movement w.r.t. the plank, the object finally starts moving with the plank in one piece. Then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.

the total work done by friction is 1250 J


the minimum length of the plank should be 40 metres
final velocity of plank is 10 m/s
for time t = 3.2 seconds, the object is having relative motion w.r.t. plank

A block B of mass 0.6 kg slides down the smooth face PR of a wedge A


of mass 1.7 kg which can move freely on a smooth horizontal surface.
The inclination of the face PR to the horizontal is 45. Then:
(A)
the acceleration of A is 3g/20
(B)
the vertical component of the acceleration of B is 23 g/40
(C)
the horizontal component of the acceleration of B is 17 g/40
(D)

relative acceleration of B w.r.t. A is

23g
40 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - II
SINGLE INTEGER VALUE CORRECT TYPE
This section contains 5 single Integer Value Correct type Questions. Each question has an integer answer
between 0 and 9. Fill the answer bubbles in the OMR Sheet APPROPRIATELY and CAREFULLY.
1.

A conducting ring of circular cross section with inner and outer radii
a and b is made of a material of resistivity . The thickness of
ring is h. It is placed coaxially in a vertically cylindrical region of
large radius of a magnetic field B = krt, where k is a positive
constant, r is the distance from axis t is the time. If current through
the ring is I kh / b3 a 3 , then find the value of .

2.

Consider as infinite wire carrying uniform linear charge density , placed along the body diagonal of
an imaginary cubical surface. Edge length of cube is a. Find the flux of electric field (in SI units)
through one surface of the cube.
For calculations, take a 3 3 m,

3.

4 SI units.
0

A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved
surface. Now, this lens is used to form the image of an object. A real image of the size of the object is
formed when the object is placed at a distance of

100
cm from the lens. Find x.
x

4.

A radioactive sample decays with a mean life of 20 ms. A capacitor of capacitance 100 F is charged to
some potential and then the plates are connected through a resistance R. If the ratio of the charge on the
capacitor to the activity of the radioactive sample remains constant in time, then find the value of the
resistance R. (in terms of 100 )

5.

A uniform quarter circular thin rod of weight W and radius r is pivoted at


point B and rests against a frictionless vertical wall at A. The reaction

P
W . Find P.

force of wall on circular rod is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Vidyamandir Classes

PART - III (MATHEMATICS)

75 MARKS
SECTION - I [Type 1]

SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE


This section contains 10 Single Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1.

If f x and g x f x 1 2 f x
f x 1

(A)
2.

f x

(B)

are monotonically increasing functions, then x R,


2
3

f x

(C)

1
3

f x

(D)

1
2

Suppose, that f is differentiable for all x and that f ' x 2 for all x. If f 1 2 and f 4 8, then
f (2) has the value equal to :
(A)
3
(B)

3.

(C)

(D)

Let g x f x sin x, where f x is a twice differentiable function on

such that

f ' 1. The value of g " equals to :

(A)
4.

(B)

(C)

(D)

A box contains 12 pairs of shoes. 4 shoes are taken at random. What is the probability that there is at
least one pair?
15
33
12
41
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
322
78
23
161
1 x

5.

If the function f x 4e

1 x

x2
2

x3

7
and g x f 1 x then the value of g ' equals
3
6

to
(A)

6.

1
5

Let f x
(A)

(B)

sin x h
lim
h 0

equal to 1

(B)

ln x h

1
5

sin x

(C)
ln x

6
7

6
7

(D)

(D)

Non-existent

, then f is
2

equal to 0

(C)

ln

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7.

8.

If the algebraic sum of perpendicular distance from the points A(0, 2), B(2, 0) and C(1, 1) on a variable
straight line is zero, then the line always passes through a fixed point P, which w.r.t. the ABC is its
(A)
centroid
(B)
incentre
(C)
orthocentre
(D)
circumcentre
x 2 x tan x x tan 2 x

; x0
Let g x ax tan x tan 3 x

0;
x0

If g ' 0 exist and is equal to non-zero value of b, then


(A)

9.

(B)

7
26

(C)

(D)

5
52

The number of ways in which 2n white and 2n black balls can be arranged such that no consecutive n
white balls are together, (n > 1) are :
(A)
(C)

10.

7
13

b
is equal to :
a
7
52

2 n 1

C2 4 n C2 n

2 n 1

C2 2 n 1C1 3nCn 1 4 nC2 n

(B)
n

(D)

2 n 1

C2 2 n 1C1 3nCn 4 nC2 n

2 n 1

C2 2 n 1C1 3nCn 1

Let X be a set containing n elements. If two subsets A and B of X are picked at random, the probability
that A and B have the same number of elements, is :
2n

(A)

Cn

2n

(B)

1
2n

(C)

1 3 5 2n 1

Cn

2n n!

(D)

3n
4n

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SECTION - I [Type 2]
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This section contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
a 1 1
11.
If a and b are two distinct non-zero real numbers such that a b , then :
b b a
(A)
a>0
(B)
a<0
(C)
b<0
(D)
b>0
12.

13.

1
ab , xy 1
2

(B)

ax

(C)

1
ay , bx 1
2

(D)

a b x y 1

, by

1
2

The possible values of a for which e 2 x a 2 e x a 0 holds for atleast one x 0, , are :
6

(B)

(C)

12

(D)

16

(D)

a=3

If f x a e 2 x b e x cx satisfies the conditions


f 0 1, f ' log 2 31,

(A)
15.

(A)

(A)
14.

If sin 1 a 2 x 2 b 2 y 2 cos 1 ax by , where ab 0, then :

a5

(B)

0 f x cx dx
log 4

39

2
(C)

b 6

, then :

c=2

Which of the following sets can be the subset of the general solution of the equation
1 cos 3 x 2 cos 2 x?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2n
n
n
n
3
6
6
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MOCK JEE ADVANCED - 4/ACEG

Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - II
SINGLE INTEGER VALUE CORRECT TYPE
This section contains 5 single Integer Value Correct type Questions. Each question has an integer answer
between 0 and 9. Fill the answer bubbles in the OMR Sheet APPROPRIATELY and CAREFULLY.
1.


If A, B, C and D are four points in space, then AB CD BC AD CA BD k (area of ABC),

where k is equal to __________.


2.

If z is a complex number lying in the first quadrant such that Re z Im z 3, then the maximum
value of Re z Im z , is __________.
2

3.

The distance of the point (2, 1, 3) from the plane x 2 y 3z 3 0, measured parallel to the line
x y z 1
a 14
is equal to
units, where a is equal to __________.

1 2
3
3

4.

From a point on the line y x c, tangents are drawn to the hyperbola


contact pass through a fixed point x1 , y1 . Then,

5.

x2

x1
is equal to __________.
y1

y2

1, where centre is one of the foci. If circle is touching the


16 25
ellipse, then the radius of the circle is __________.

A circle is inscribed in the ellipse

x2 y2

1 such that chords of


2
1

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