MATERIA MEDICA AND THERAPEUTICS

1.

Systemic antifungal agents with significant efficacy against actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle.
Sodium iodide

2.

Syngamus trachea, the gapeworm of poultry can be effectively treated with:

Tetramisole

3.

Serious or fatal drug interaction can occur when an animal on anticholinesterase therapy is given:
Succinylcholine

4.

All of the following agents are antimuscarinic drugs, EXCEPT:

Pilocarpine

5.

Prostaglandin effective in terminating pregnancy or treating pyometra in cow according to dose requirement:
PG F

6.

One of these drugs is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent: Which one of them?
Succinylcholine

7.

Eclampsia in bitch and milk fever in cow are brought about primarily by:
Tremendous drain on the calcium stores of the body during lactation

8.

Emeria stiedae infection is a serious parasitic disease of rabbits this can be effectively treated by:
Sulfadimethoxine

9.

What drug incompatibility is manifested when physostigmine and atropine are simultaneously administered in
the eye?
Therapeutic

10. Which of these lines of treatment will be most effective in combating congestive heart failure?
Restrict sodium intake and increase sodium excretion
11. Which of the following agents is the most extensively used dermatologic penetration enhancer in veterinary
medicine?
Dimethyl sulfoxide
12. This drug when indicated is specifically directed to the underlying etiology of congested heart failure:
Digoxin
13. Which of these drugs blocks the impulse transmission of the neurotransmitter junction by competing with
acetylcholine?
Curare
14. Generally, which of these groups of drugs are most effective in the treatment of serious gram negative
infections in animals?
Aminoglycosides
15. What is the action of cimitidine?
Minimizes gastric acid secretion
16. All of the following agents could postpone estrus in a bitch, EXCEPT:

Gonadotropin-Releasing hormone (GnRH)

17. How does the opioids diphenoxylate and loperamide bring about their anti-diarrheal effect?
Cause segmental gut contraction
18. Which agent causes increase of secretion and synthesis of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex?
Angiotensin II
19. To correct simple constipation which of the following measures are you going to perform or administer?
Enemas (e.g. soapy water)
20. Which of the following nutrients protects the liver from dietary hepatic radicals aside from being essential in
tissue respiration?
Selenium
21. Which of the following drugs causes stimulation of the intestinal and urinary bladder?
Bethanecol
22. This chemotherapeutic agents is ineffective against feline babesiosis but highly effective against bovine, equine
and canine babesiosis:
Imidocarb dipropionate
23. Because it is hydrolyzed slowly, this local anesthetic makes the duration of its action longest:
Hexylcaine
24. Why is it that ivermectin is ineffective against trematodes?
Trematodes does not utilized gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) as neurotransmitter
25. All of the following neuromuscular blocking agents belong to the ________

or nondepolarizing group ,

EXCEPT:
Succinylcholine
26. If diethylstilbestrol is injected to a cow, what is going to happen?
It will go into estrus without ovulation
27. Which of these drugs are effective heartworm adulticide?
Thiacetarsamide sodium and melarsomine dihydrochloride
28. Most rapid recovery of consciousness would occur after discontinuing administration of which anesthetic?
Nitrous oxide
29. One distinct advantage of per oral route of drug administration over parenteral means is:
The danger of acute drug reaction is lesser
30. This plant is the source of atropine:
Belladona
31. How would you control the excessive gastric acid secretions which is highly accompanied stomach ulcer
formation?
Cimetidine
32. Which of these agents could cause vasodilation?

Acetylcholine
33. Which of the following drugs will you indicate for synechia (adhesion of iris and cornea or lens)?
Atropine and esserine
34. Which major route of drug administration will provide a more predictable current ration of the drug and a
greater control over the rate of introduction?
Intravenous
35. The most significant way whereby, drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body of an animal is
through the:
Kidneys
36. The organophosphorous anthelmintic effective on whipworm is:
Trichlorfon
37. Which of the following aminoglycosides is NOT effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Dihydrostreptomycin
38. All of the following are possible adverse effects of thiazide diuretics, EXCEPT:
Remission of edematous swelling
39. Drug of choice for prostatitis with concurrent urinary tract infection:
Flouroquinolones
40. A 1000 ml of 9% saline solution in 5% dextrose contains how much of each ingredients?
90 grams of salt and50 grams of dextrose
41. Drug of choice for Bordetella bronchiseptica infection in dog is:
Doxycycline
42. This cholinomimetic drug is useful in treating urinary bladder atony in cats:
Betanechol
43. Which of these agents could cause (poisoning) lameness, bone and tooth abnormalities?
Fluoride
44. Which of these corticosteroids has the LEAST effect on the water and electrolyte balance of the body?
Dexamethasone
45. When selecting a sulfonamide for susceptible bacterial intestinal ailment this would be the drug of choice
because of its poor solubility in the gut:
Sulfaquanadine
46. Adverse effects associated with therapeutic use of sulfonamides, EXCEPT:
Bacterial antimetabolites
47. Which of the following agents is a central nervous system stimulant; appetite suppressor and could cause mood
elevation?
Amphetamine
48. The true statement about digestion in horses is:

Microbial digestion of polysaccharides takes place mainly in the colon

49. Screwworm infestation in sheep and goats can be controlled with sprays containing:
Coumaphos
50. Dermatologic disorders in animals like allergic dermatitis, contact dermatitis, phemphigoid and eosinophilic
granuloma are most responsive to which agent?
Glucocorticoids
51. Which of these agents is an emollient hydrocarbon?
White petrolatum
52. Aspirin, phenylbutasone, and indomethacin are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs which irreversibly
inhibits:
Cyclooxygenase
53. If your patient has a microbial infection involving Staphylococcus spp. or Streptococcus spp. but he is sensitive
to Penicillin and Cephalosporins which Penicillin substitute will you indicate that most likely do the job?
Lincomycin
54. When a drug is applied on the surface of the skin which is the major barrier to absorption?
Stratum corneum
55. Deficiency of this vitamin is quite often seen in poultry, protracted disease of the liver and exposure to
decoumarin:
Vitamin K
56. This group of antibiotics exert their anti-bacterial effect by binding with their ribosomes and interferes with
protein synthesis:
Aminoglycosides
57. How do you reverse the toxic effect of inovar-vet (fentanyl-droperidol) administered over dose to a dog?
Naloxone hydrochloride (narcan)
58. Which of the following effects is NOT a pharmacologic property of halothane?
Increase cardiac output
59. Isoproterenol, epinephrine and norepinephrine are potent myocardial stimulants in the order of their strength,
which of these reflects the more potent to the weakest myocardial stimulant?
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol
60. The anticoccidial mechanism of action of this antiprotozoan agent is brought about by interfering in the early
phase of folate synthesis:
Sulfonamide
61. Which of these agents is hypoglycemic?
Insulin
62. Prevalent complication when bovines are subjected to general anesthesia:
Suffocation due to bloat
63. Part of the prescription that gives instruction for the administration of medicine:

Signa
64. Nitrofurantoin is therapeutically useful in the treatment of :
Urinary tract infections cause by susceptible bacteria (e.g. E. coli, Staphylococcus)
65. Where is angiotensin II formed?
Within the blood
66. Which of the following conditions will you NOT expect to occur after administering phenothiazine
tranquilizers?
Increased heart rate output
67. Isopropyl alcohol is most effective germicidal when diluted with water at a final concentration by weight at:
50%
68. Salicylic acid ointment is used as a:
Keratolytic
69. Which of the following drugs will increase the fluidity (expectorant) of respiratory secretions?
Guiafenesin
70. Ruminal acidosis in cow can be alleviated by
Changing ruminal content
71. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye), chronic superficial keratitis pannus) and pigmentary keratitis are most
responsive to which ophthalmic preparation?
Cyclosporine
72. Most serious side effect on prolong and continuos antibiotic therapy
Fungal _____infection
73. When there is a need for urine alkalinization in a dog, which of the following agents is the drug of choice?
Ammonium chloride
74. Long term seizure in dogs, the anti-convulsant of choice is:
Phenobarbital
75. Niacin can effectively treat this nutritional disease of dogs:
Blacktongue
76. Lincomycin as an antibiotic whose spectrum of activity includes:
Gram positive bacteria and mycoplasma
77. Ivermectin and Milbemycin exerts their antiparasitic effects by
Potentiating the release and effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
78. How do you acidify the alkaline urine of a cat via oral route?
NH4CL
79. What is incriminated in the pathogenesis of acanthosis nigricans?
Hypofunction of the thyroid glands
80. Most effective anticonvulsant with the widest spectrum of activity in different convulsive patterns:

Phenobarbital
81. Tylosin, Lincomycin and Spectinomycin are all effective against this organism:
Mycoplasma spp.
82. What is the meaning of half-life of a drug?
Drug concentrated in the body to be reduced by
83. A graded dose-response curve is an indicative of
The extent of receptor occupancy
84. This agent must not be indicated during halothane anesthesia because it could induce cardiac arrhythmia or
ventricular fibrillation:
Epinephrine
85. A practitioner is unable to type the blood of a donor and recipient before blood transfusion which type of blood
could be given safely assuming that both recipient and donor never have any transfusions:
A-negative
86. Most sensitive animal tot he effect of histamine is the guinea pig, which dies by:
Asphyxiation thru bronchial constriction
87. _________ of hepatic glucoronyl transferase (drug metabolizing enzyme) makes a

potentially toxic to this

specie:
Cat
88. This anticholinergic agent is as good if not better than Atropine as pre-anesthetic agent because of the
advantage of causing less cardiac side effects (less tachycardiac response) and less CNS side effects (less
penetration of blood-brain barriers):
Glycopyrrolate
89. The transmembrane transport mechanism is which the cell membranes engulf droplets of solutions that are
released inside the cell is:
Endocytosis
90. Which of these drugs has thyroid carcinogenic potential?
Sulfonamides
91. Best result is obtained in the treatment of cryptorchidism in a dog by serial injection of:
Humaan chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
92. Acetylcholine is very essential to the maintenance of body homeostasis which cannot be used therapeutically
because aside from its very brief action, it:
Acts simultaneously at various tissues sites, thus no selective therapeutic response is achieved
93. Which of these drug interactions is synergistic?
Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
94. Which of these anticoagulant is used to preserved blood sample for _________ :
Sodium citrate
95. Presympathomimetic drug will cause all the following EXCEPT:

Increase cardiac function

96. All of these effects of glucocorticoids when administered except:
Monocytopenia
97. This dermatologic preparation which is keratolytic, antimicrobial and antiseborrhiec is metabolized to benzoic
acid during skin penetration:
Benzoyl peroxide
98. Acute hemorrhagic syndrome is best treated with this systemic hemostatic:
Whole blood
99. The most effective drug for treating central respiratory depression caused by barbiturates and inhalant
anesthetics in dogs, horses and cats is:
Doxapram
100. The following agents are useful in the healing of gastric ulcer, EXCEPT:
Corticosteroids
101.

In renal insufficiency, this drug is contraindicated because potentially nephrotoxic?

Tetracycline

102. The broad-spectrum antibiotic does not include:

Polymixin B
103.

The most notable antibacterial activity of chloramphenicol is effectiveness against:

Salmonella spp.

104. The antifungal activity of griseofulvin does not include:

Actinomycoses
105.

Of these antifungal drugs, which is used mainly for the treatment mucocutaneous and intestinal
candidiasis?
Nystatin

106. The desirable qualities of an ideal anthelmintic does not includes:

Require long with holding periods due to residual effects
107. Benzimidazole anthelmintic with activity against liver fluke:
Albendazole
108.

Of the animal anthelmintics, which group poses the greatest harmful effect to man and his environment?
Organophosphates

109. Phenothiazine anthelmintic is not used in the following animals except:

Cattle
110. Identify which anthelmintic has no efficacy against nematode:
Praziquantel
111.

The three desirable basic properties of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs does not include:
Curative

112. Analgesic of choice for spasmodic colic in horse:

Flunixin
113. Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in all the following condition, except:
Atopy in dogs
114. The antineoplastic antibiotics does not include:
Prednisolone
115. All of the following disinfectants have activity against bacterial spores, except:
Chlorhexidine
116.

The keratolytic and antiseborrheic activity of which antiseptic makes it useful in treating pyoderma in dogs:
Benzoyl peroxide

117. How does alcohol exert their antimicrobial effects:

Damage bacterial membrane and precipitate protoplasmic proteins
118.

Toxic effects of glucocorticoids therapy includes all the following conditions, except:
Cell, lysosomal and mitochondrial membrane stabilization

119.

Which antibacterial is used as growth promotant in cattle and preventive against coccidiosis in chicken?
Monensin

120. All of the following animals are unable to vomit effectively, except:
Swine
121.

If you are going to travel with your cat, which of the following are going to prescribed to control motion
sickness?
Meclizine hydrochloride

122. Psylium seeds, wheat bran, and prunes are examples of:
Bulk laxatives
123. Activated charcoal acts primarily in gastrointestinal tract as:
Absorbent
124. Anti-spasmodic agents includes all the following drugs, except:
Bethanecol
125. Agents of choice for the prophylaxis and treatment of fatty liver:
Choline
126.

To correct simple constipation which of the following measures are you going to perform or administer?
Enemas (e.g. soapy water)

127. An agent that causes contraction of the gallbladder is called:

Cholagogue
128. Potassium permanganate is used a in skin therapy as:
Astringent
129. Determination of dosage of anticancer drugs is frequently based on:
Body surface area
130.

In the treatment of malignant tumor which of the following procedure is most effective?

Chemotherapy and surgery combined

131.

In dermatopharmacology what do you call the medium in which a medical active agent is topically
administered with?
Vehicle

132.

Which of the following agents is the most extensively used dermatologic penetration enhancer in veterinary
medicine?
Dimethyl sulfoxide

133.

Which of the following dermatologic preparation is most helpful in treating warts, keratoses and
hyperplastic skin disease?
Caustics

134.

When a skin infection is caused by the Pseudomonas spp and Proteus spp which of the following topical
antibiotics will you use?
Polymixin B

135. Which of the following agents is an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibiting drug:

Aspirin
136. Drug of choice for allergic rhinitis:
Diphenhydramine
137. Theophylline is primarily a:
Bronchodilator
138.

When treating an aminoglycoside-resistant Pseudomonas eye infection which ophthalmic preparation is the
most effective substitute?
Fluoroquinolones

139.

Conjunctivitis caused by pseudomonas microoganism can host to treated with which eye medicine?
Tobramycin

140.

Which of the following agents will you use as topical anesthetic to produce ocular surface analgesic for
examination and diagnostic procedures?
Tetracaine

141.

Which of the following injectable local anesthetics is most useful for infiltration anesthesia of the
periocular area particularly in large herbivores?
Lidocaine

142. Agent useful for detecting corneal ulceration

Fluorescein dye
143.

Which of the following ophthalmic preparations will you use in an immune-mediated eye disease?
Prednisolone acetate suspension

144. In treating ulcerative keratitis which ophthalmic preparation must you avoid?

Prednisolone chloramphenicol ophthalmic solution

145.

All of the following ophthalmic preparations are effective in _________and reduction of intinocular
pressure in glaucomatous eye, except:
Atropine

146.

A cholinergic drug like pilocarpine will not cause which ocular drugs which instilled in the eye?
Mydriasis

147. In prescription writing q.s. is a Latin abbreviation which means:

A sufficient quantity
148. In prescription writing b.i.d. is a Latin abbreviation which means:
Twice a day
149. Identify which agent is used as tear substitute (lacrimomimetics)
Methylcellulose
150.

When you need pupillary dilation (mydriasis) for the examination of the eye lens and fundus or treat
anterior uveitis the drug of choice is:
Atropine

151. The specific antidote for iron poisoning is:

Deferoxamine mesylate
152.

Which essential part of a classic prescription gives the instructions to the pharmacist?
Subscription

153. Which essential part of a classic prescription makes it a legal document?

The signature
154. Which of the following __________ will you use to __________ _________:
50 % ________ solution
155. The appropriate equivalent of 1 lb. Is:
455.6 gm
156. Which of the following anti-infectives has no antimycotic activity:
Metronidazole
157.

Inhibition of folate reduction is the mechanism of action of which antimicrobial agent?

Trimethoprim

158.

Inhibition of protein synthesis is the mechanism of action of the following antimicrobials except:
Penicillin

159. The use of Amphotericin-B may result in:

Renal and liver dysfunction
160. Select the drug that is most effective against Toxocara canis:
Pyrantel pamoate
161. Pernicious anemia in human is associated with lack of which nutrient:
Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B 12)

162. Styptics does not include which agent?

Vitamin K
163.

Select the agent that is most effective in _________ _________ resulting from _____ _____ ______ _____
_____ _____ _____ :
Vitamin K

164. All of the following agents are antiplatelet (prevents platelet aggregation), Except:
Thromboxane A2
165. Ivermectin has no measurable/antiparasitic effect against:
Flukes and tapeworms
166. Identify which of the following could be a vitamin K antagonist:
Sulfaquinoxaline
167. Toxicity associated with use of Ivermectin in dogs does not include:
Gastric ulcer
168.

Which of the following penicillins are B-lactamase broad-spectrum that are protected from bacterial
enzymatic hydrolysis?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate and ampicillin-sublactam

169. The average parenteral dose of Gentamicin administered once a day is:
3-6 mg/kg
170. Quinolones have synergistics effect with all of the following drug, except:
Chloramphenicol
171.

Aside from aminoglycosides, anaerobic bacteria have the tendency to be resistant to which group of drugs?
Quinolones

172. The most inaccurate statement regarding chloramphenicol is:

It is strictly bactericidal
173.

Because it chelates calcium, it is unwise to indicate which drug for bone surgeries as it will impair bone
healing?
Tetracycline

174.

Systemic antifungal agent with significant efficacy against actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle:
Sodium iodide

175. Nitrofurantoin is therapeutically useful in the treatment of:

Urinary tract infection cause by susceptible bacteria (e.g. E. coli, Staphylococcus)
176.

Drug therapeutically useful not only in the treatment of tuberculosis but also active against several viruses:
Rifampin

177.

Because of the adverse effect on the host, it is not rational to prescribe insecticides, CNS depressants and
phenothiazine tranquilizers when one of the following is being used:
Dichlorvos

178. Aside from its main use as taeniacide, Niclosamide has activity against:

Liver fluke
179.

Generally, which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is the least ulcerogenic in
clinically recommended doses?
Carprofin

180. Cyclooxygenase is:

Enzymes that converts arachidonic acid to inflammatory mediators
181. Which of the following is a potent endogenous pyretic agent?
PGK2
182.

How does steroids primarily exert their beneficial effect when administered during shock?
Minimize blood stasis and promote tissue perfusion

183.

Which of the following agents will you recommend in the therapy of all forms of shock (endotoxic,
hemorrhagic, anaphylactic)?
Steroids

184.

Transmissible venereal tumor in dogs can be effectively treated without surgical intervention with which
antineoplastic agent?
Vincristine

185.

Orgotein is a megalloprotein compound found in animal tissues that contains copper and zinc useful in the
treatment of:
Joint and tendon injuries including septic arthritis in horses

186.

Which of the following agents will you recommend for disinfecting skin hides contaminated by anthrax
spores?
2.9 % HCl

187.

Identify which agent is a flea development inhibitor (prevents formation of chitin for exoskeleton) that
effectively controls flea infestation in cats and dogs with monthly administration:
Lufenoron

188.

Aside from its use to treat clinical bacterial disease, which agent is mainly used as feed additive to promote
animal growth (poultry and swine)?
Virginiamycin

189.

The major hormones used as growth promotant (increase growth feed conversion ability) does not include:
FSH

190.

Aside from its main use as sedative, which agent is also effective appetite stimulant?
Diazepam

191. Which of the following agents is centrally acting emetics?

Apomorphine hydrochloride
192.

Which of the following agents will you indicate to control systematically acute and chronic nonspecific
diarrhea?

Loperamide
193.

The prostaglandin which is antisecretory, cytoprotectant and is effective in healing gastrointestinal ulcer is:
PGE1

194.

Which of the following cytoprotectant drugs is normally used as systemic antiacid:

Sodium bicarbonate

195.

An animal afflicted with liver disease which most likely suffer from what vitamin deficiency?
K

196.

Lipotropic agents are substance that hasten the removal or decrease the deposition of fat in the liver and it
includes all the following agents, except:
Taurocholate

197.

Which of the following dermatological agents will you indicate for crusty and flaky skin?
________________

198. Methotrexate belongs to which group of anticancer drugs?

Antimetabolites
199.

This dermatologic preparation which is keratolytic, antimicrobials, antiseborrheic is metabolized to benzoic

acid during skin penetration:
Benzoyl peroxide

200.

This dermatologic preparation promotes epidermal cell growth and the ability to control some malignant
transformations in the skin:
Retinoids

201.

The B-lactamase-resistant narrow-spectrum penicillins effective in canine pyodermas does not include:
Amoxicillin

202.

Which topical dermatologic preparation has all the following their properties as bactericidal, sporocidal,
fungicidal, viricidal and protozoacidal?
Povidone-iodine ointment

203. Vagally mediated bronchoconstriction can be reversed by all the agents, except:
Thromboxane
204. Drug widely used in veterinary medicine and human for its mucolytic action:
Acetylcysteine
205.

Aside from being commonly used as analgesic, which drug as also an effective antitussive?
Buthorphanol

206.

Which group of respiratory therapeutics preparation decreases the frequency and severity of cough without
impairing muciciliated defense?
Antitussives

207.

Single or mixed eye infections of bacteria (excluding psuedomonas, chlamydia, mycoplasma, rickettsia and
spirochetes can be effectively treated with:

Chloramphenicol
208.

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye), chronic superficial karatitis (pannus) and pigmentary keratitis are most
responsive to which ophthalmic preparations?
Cyclosporine

209.

The antiviral agents commonly used in ophthalmic viral infections includes all of the following drugs
except:
Ivermectin

210.

Which of the following ophthalmic preparations is most effective against keratomycosis?

Natamycin ophthalmic preparations

211.

A single instillation with the ophthalmic preparations of this organophosphate compound will cause the
reduction of intraocular pressure an miosis for several days:
Echothiophate

212.

The precipitation of calcium carbonate after the addition of sodium bicarbonate to a calcium-containing is
an example of what incompatibility?
Chemical

213.

The mydriatic effect (pupillary dilation) of atropine can be effectively reversed with:
Daperazol

214.

Which of the following agents is useful in the control of intraocular pressure in glaucomatous eye by
inhibiting the _____ carbonic anhydrase:
Acetozolamide

215.

Aside from stimulating the iris dilator muscle this agent produce pupillary dilation (mydriasis) by
temporarily paralyzing the iris sphincter muscle:
Tropicanamide

216.

What will occur as a result of a drug interaction if an animal under general anesthetic is given any of the
aminoglycosides antibiotics:
Neuromuscular block

217.

Which of the following agents will you use for treating morphine poisoning and its congeners?
Levalorphan tartrate

218.

The route of administration in which a drug is most likely subjected to a first-pass effect is:
Oral

219.

The transmembrane transport mechanism is which the cell membrane engulf droplets of solutions that are
released inside the cell is:
Endocytosis

220. The mechanism of action of the Fluoroquinolones as antimicrobial agent is:

Inhibit nucleic acid function or synthesis
221.

The pharmacologic action of which drug is associated with the inducement of skeletal muscle paralysis?

Gallamine
222.

Which catecholamine neurotransmitter is found in highest amount of the extra _____ system (caudate
nucleus)?
Dopamine

223.

Absolute polycytemia is associated with all the following abnormal conditions except in:
Dehydration from prolong vomiting

224.

In some animals and human, development of blood dyscrasias (pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia,

leukopenia) may occur following therapy of all these agents except:
Erythromycin

225.

Deficiency of which nutrients is increased by modern husbandry (provision of concrete floor) where piglets
have no access to soil:
Iron

226. Coagulant of choice foe heparin-evoked hemorrhage:

Protamine sulfate
227.

Blood transfusion must be performed in cases of acute hemorrhagic anemias when PCV in small animals is
less than:
20 %

228. The most inaccurate statement regarding anticoagulants for blood collecting is:
Blood collected with heparin can be stored more than 3 days
229.

All of the following antimicrobials can readily penetrate the blood-brain-barrier, except:
Penicillin

230.

The _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ the blood-brain-barrier is:
High fluid solubility

231.

Ototoxicity of aminoglycosides is potentiated when one of the following drugs is administered consistently:
Furosamide

232.

Their ability to penetrate soft tissue and fluids makes this group of drugs the choice in the management of
osteomylitis, prostatitis, and arthritis:
Cephalosphorins

233. All of the following statements concerning aminoglycosides are _____ , except:
Even at low concentration aminoglycosides are bactericidal
234. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the lincosamides
Clindamycin is ineffectvie against dog and cat toxoplasmosis
235.

Which antiviral agent exhibits efficacy against feline leukemia and feline immunodeficiency?
Azidothymidine

236.

Which of the following benzimidazoles is effective against the tissue-dwelling larvae of roundworms and
hookworms in pregnant bitch?

Fenbendazole
237.

Which of the following statement is less accurate therapeutically using benzimidazole anthelmintics?
They are non-teratogenic

238.

All of the following anthelmintics are cholinergic agonist (causes neuromuscular paralysis of parasites),
except:
Milbemycin oxime

239.

Which of the following corticosteriods will cause the least suppression of the hypophyseal-pituitary adrenal
axis?
Prednisolone

240.

Concerning the corticosteroids, which of the following statement is most accurate?

Animals in shock requires 10 times the normal dose for clinical efficacy

241. All of the following agents are immunodulators, except:

Dexamethasone
242.

The antineoplastic properties of the hormonal agents like the glucocorticoids is attributed to:
Lympholytic properties

243. How does organophosphate exert their toxicity against insects?

Inhibit insert acetylcholinesterase ultimately blocking nerve function
244.

Which of the following nutrients that protects the liver from dietary hepatic necrosis aside from being
essential in tissue respiration?
Selenium

245. How _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:
Stimulate _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
246.

Which of the following antibiotics must not be used in immature and rapidly growing dog, as it will
adversely cause articular cartilage damage and subsequent lameness?
Enrofloxacin

247.

What will occur as a result of drug interaction if an animal with renal ailment being treated with
trimethoprim-sulfa is given sodium chloride as urine acidifier?
Crystalluria

248.

What will most likely occur as a result of interaction when penicillin is added to dextrose solution (with
pH 8 or greater):
Penicillin will be inactivated

249. The least accurate statement regarding Methadone hydrochloride is:

It is an opioid antagonist
250.

Inhibition of the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine and related cholinergic agonist is the pharmacologic
action of which drug?
Scopolamine

251.

The pharmacologic action of which drug is associated with the reduction of intraocular pressure?

Timolol
252.

Which catecholamine neurotransmitter is found in highest amount at the adrenal medulla?

Epinephrine

253. Potassium-sparing diuretics does not include:

Furosemide
254.

A bleeding animal who has been chronically taking mineral oil is act likely suffering from:
Vitamin K deficiency

255. What is the primary mechanism of action of heparin as systemic anticoagulant?

Reversibly binds with antithrombin III enhancing the inhibitory effects on various coagulation factors
256.

Identify which of the following drug used as bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal at doses normally used
in clinical practices:
Erythromycin

257.

The following infections have been correctly paired with effective antimicrobial therapy, except:
Tetanus-oxytetracycline

258.

The following antimicrobial are commonly effective in staphylococcus infection, except:

Penicillin

259. Adverse effects associated with therapeutics use of sulfonamides, except:

Bacterial antimetabolites
260.

The following conditions/drugs have been correctly paired with their appropriate antidote specific remedy,
except:
Halothane anesthesia - Epinephrine

261.

The following conditions/drugs have been correctly paired with their appropriate antidote specific remedy,
except:
Barbiturates anesthesia - chloramphenicol

262.

If an animal patient has a history of penicillin allergy, which of the following antibiotics is an appropriate
replacement?
Erythromycin

263. The following drugs are associated with nephrotoxocity, except:

Cephalosporin
264. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs does not include:
Dipyrone
265.

The antibacterial effect of all the following drugs can be potentiated by clavulanic acid, except:
Gentamycin

266. Drugs effective against swine dysentery does not include:

Tetracycline
267.

Which benzimidazole anthelmintics has activity against most species of roundworms, liver fluke and
tapeworm?

Albendazole
268.

The following disease are correctly paired with the drugs effectiveness in their treatment, except:
Demodectic mange - Melarsomine

269. Commonly used anticonvulsant drugs in veterinary medicine does not include:
Phenytoin
270. Stimulation of cats appetite is a feature of this anti-convulsant:
Diazepam
271. How does ivermectin exert its paralyzing effect in worms?
Potentiation of GABA
272.

When administered these antimicrobials commonly cause gastrointestinal disturbance (e.g. colic, irritation):
Macrolides and lincosomides

273.

This tetracycline is exerted by the gut mucosa making it safe to indicate in patient with renal and hepatic
impairment:
Doxycycline

274. What makes ivermectin ineffective against liver fluke?

Liver fluke do not have the neurotransmitter GABA
275. Extended use of this agent may cause thiamine deficiency:
Amprolium
276.

Which of the following antimicrobials should you avoid in surgeries involving bone fractures?
Tetracycline

277. Chronic use of this agent may cause vitamins A,D,E, and K deficiency
Mineral oil
278. General anesthetic of choice for reptiles:
Ketamine
279. Enzootic ataxia in lambs is caused by deficiency of this trace element:
Copper
280. Which paired drugs are most effective against anaerobic bacteria?
Metronidazole ,clindamycin
281.

One of the basic principles in treating congestive heart failure in dog accompanied by ascites is:
Restrict sodium intake and induce mild diuresis

282. Which of the following procedures is most effective in treating malignant tumor?
Chemotherapy and surgery combined
283. Allergic dermatosis in dogs can be best treated with this ointment:
Triam______ _________ cream
284. Therapeutic usefulness of epinephrine includes:
Acute anaphylactoid reaction to biologic vaccination
285. How does organophosphate anthelmintics (e.g. dichlorvos) exert their effect?

Inhibition of cholinesterase
286. Which of the following is not a dissociative anesthetics?
Pentothal
287.

Which of the following anti-microbial combination is the best example of drug synergism?
Gentamycin and carbenicillin

288.

Eimeria stiedae infection is a serious parasitic disease of rabbits which can be effectively treated by:
Sulfadimethoxine

289.

Which of the following general anesthetics causes the least cardio-respiratory depression?
Ketamine hydrochloride

290. The drug most useful in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia is:
Lidocaine
291.

In critically ill patient where the alveolar ventilation is seriously compromised, for whatever causes, which
of these agents will you prescribe?
Oxygen

292. How do you reverse the toxic effect of inovar-vet (fentanyl)

Naloxone hydrochloride
293.

It is difficult to completely anesthesized an abscessed area with local anesthetic because:

The acid pH in the area of pus accumulation prevents proper hydrolysis of the anesthetic resulting to
reduced potency

294.

Concerning organophosphate and carbamates as external parasiticide, which of the following statement is
most inaccurate?
Both parasiticides could be used in healthy animals younger than 3 months

295. Penicillin is synergistic with which anti-microbial in Listeria infection:

Gentamicin
296. Nitrate poisoning causes death by:
Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin which is unable to carry oxygen
297.

Which drug must be avoided when an animal is anesthesized with pentobarbital because it will adversely
prolong the anesthesia:
Chloramphenicol

298.

The use of this drug is disallowed in food-producing animals in most countries including the Philippines
because the residue can induce fatal effects (e.g. spastic anemia):
Chloramphenicol

299. Which of the following paired drugs are B-lactamase inhibitors?

Clavulanic acid and sublactam
300.

Which of the following agents ________ highly effective taeniacide on all animal cestodes with excellent
activity against human schistosomes?

Praziquantel
301.

The dermatologic usefulness of benzalkonium chloride is antagonized by which agent?

Soap

302.

This diuretic is diabetogenic (increase sugar level) and in addition causes hyperuricemia:
Thiazide

303. Benzamidazole anthelmintic (e.g. thiabendazole) act by

Inhibition of fumarate reductase
304.

Which of the following drugs is most effective in reducing the uric acid level of the glomerular filtrate of a
Dalmatian dog suffering from recurrent urolith formation?
Allopurinol

305.

The most commonly used and effective sulfa drug for urinary tract infection in dogs and cats:
Sulfisoxazole

306.

Which agent is effective in the treatment of urinary incontinence and miss-mating in a dog?
Diethylstilbestrol

307.

The most effective drug for treating central respiratory depression used by barbiturates and inhalant
anesthetics in dogs, horses and cat is:
Doxapram

308.

The drug most effective in the treatment of non-articular rheumatism and acute laminitis in horses is:
Phenylbutazone

309.

When used in ceasarotomy, which of these sedatives or anesthetic will you expect to cause the highest fetal
mortality?
Pentobarbital

310.

One of the more effective approaches in the prevention of bloat in dairy cattle is directed to the reduction of
ruminal protozoa. Which would be the most beneficial anti-protozoan agent?
Polaxalene

311. Atropine is not recommended as preanesthetic agent in horse because:

It is ineffective in inhibiting salivation or mucus secretions from the respiratory tract
312.

Fluid therapy of choice for dehydrated patient suffering from congestive heart failure:
5% dextrose in water

313.

Which of the following conditions is penicillin least effective as therapeutic agent?

Salmonellosis

314. Drugs effective for the treatment of Candida infection does not include:
Undecyclinic acid
315.

All of the following are the drawback in the use of aminoglycosides as therapeutics, except:
Effective in gram negative bacteria

316. What is the action of _________ ?

Minimizes gastric acid secretions

317. Which of the following described best the action of sucralfate?
Cytoprotection of the SI mucosa
318. Pyrantel pamoate (tetrahydropyrimidine anthelmintic) act by:
Inhibition of the fumarate reductase
319. Piperazine (simple heterocyclic anthelmintic) act by:
Neuromuscular hyperpolarization
320. Which of the following drugs must be avoided in renal failure?
Oxytetracycline
321. Which of the following statement is not true concerning halothane?
Induction and recovery from its anesthetic effect is slow
322. The effect of heparin can be reversed by:
Protamine sulfate
323. The effect of glucocorticoids on the blood elements does not include:
Increase of circulating number of T lymphocytes
324. The following agents are effective in the treatment of the infections cited, except:
Chlamydial eye infection Sulfacetamide ophthalmic ointment
325.

The following infections/infestations have been paired with appropriate therapy, except:
Fascioliasis - Ivermectin

326.

Which of the following antimicrobials is the safest to indicate in a pregnant dog with urinary tract
infection?
Amoxicillin

327.

The following drugs are correctly paired with the appropriate condition they can effectively treat, except:
Doxycycline acute otitis media

328.

Which of the following type of antimicrobials will you indicate a debilitated patient with bacterial
infection?
One with bactericidal action, broad spectrum of activity and wide margin of safety

329.

The most appropriate way to prepare a cat which has eaten a full meal shortly prior to emergency surgery
is:
Administer xylazine because it causes emesis and sedation

330.

Which of the following diuretics does not adversely cause hypokalemia and hyperuricemia when on
extended use?
Triamterone

331.

Bacteriostatic drugs are dependent in patients body defenses (e.g. phagocytosis, antibodies) in the final
elimination of infecting microbes. It is therefore rational NOT to indicate which drug in septicemia?

Tetracycline
332.

If you found the following pathogens in urinary tract infection, which of them will be the most susceptible
to sulfonamide treatment?
Streptococcus spp.

333.

Which of the following agents will you not indicate to an animal pre-medicated with muscle __________
and anesthetized with penthotal may cause neuromuscular blockade potentiation?
Gentamicin

334.

When extracting teeth in a pregnant bitch, which sedative should you use because it does NOT cross the
placental barrier or crosses it moderately if at all?
Xylazine

335.

Which triad of anti-convulsant is the most useful in veterinary medical therapy and control of epilepsy
Phenobarbital, primidone, diazepam

336.

When a dog experiencing a seizure is brought to you for treatment, which of the following agents will your
drug of choice?
Diazepam IV

337. The important beneficial affect of glucocorticoids when indicated in all forms of shock (endotoxic,
hemorrhagic, anaphylactic) is:
Diminish blood stasis and promotes tissue perfusion
338. A pregnant animal was treated with antibiotic when it was two third post her gestation period. When the fetus
was born, the teeth were yellowish to brown in color. What is most likely drug was indicated?
Tetracycline
339. Why is it advisable to avoid administering isoproterenol or other cathecolamines on an animal anesthesized
with halothane?
Fatal ventricular fibrillation may ensue
340. All of the following drugs are correctly paired according to their pharmacologic effect, except:
Morphine dilation of pupil
341. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in hepatic failure?
Tetracycline
342. The drug not safe to administered in pregnant animal is:
Fluroquinolones
343. The following drugs are correctly paired with the adverse reaction they cause, except:
Tetracycline - osteomalacia
344. Regarding diazepam, which of the following statement is not true?
Does not cause fatal overdose
345. Indications of acepromazine does not include:
CNS seizures
346. Pharmacologic effect of aspirin does not include:

Hearing impairment
347. The following agents are useful in the healing of gastric ulcer, except:
Corticosteroids
348. A solution _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
10 gm in 100ml
349. When molecules pass across the cell membrane either by specialized _____ _____ or by:
Passive transfer process
350. A cardiovascular effects of histamine when administered to a _____

are reduction of arterial

pressure, increased capillary permeability and :

Vasodilation
351. Which of the following paired antibiotics best illustrates drug synergism:
Trimethoprin -sulfa
352. __________ _____ _____ _____ _____ needs of a mature cow comes from:
Volatile fatty acids
353. Which of the following paired drugs demonstrate therapeutic incompatibility?
Atropine / physostigmine
354. Generally, _____ ______ _____ in normal animal blood per 100 ml is maintained _____ _____ :
_____ mg
355. Which of the following antimicrobials could be easily rendered ineffective secreting bacteria?
Penicillin
356. Which of the following key words will you look for procuring fluids of intravenous administration?
Sterile, pyrogen free
357. The half-life of penicillin is increased by probenecid in the body by :
Decreasing proximal tubular excretion
358. The endogenous antiviral agent produced by various cell of the body defense system is
Interferon
359. This drug is specific xylazine antagonist:
Yohimbine
360. Which of the following effect is the most important pharmacologic action of digoxin in congestive heart failure?
The increase in ventricular contractile force
361. Which of the following causes the cessation of growth and ossification of epiphyseal lines in a female after
puberty?
Estrogen
362. Which of the following drugs is derived from animal?
Epinephrine
363. Eclampsia in bitch and milk fever in cow are brought about primarily by:

Tremendous drain on the calcium stores of the body during lactation

364. Which bones or gland are primarily involved in hyperpituitaridism such as seen in acromegaly and giantism?
Long bones
365. The immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids are used to advantage in this condition:
Tissue transfer
366. Which body system is the most sensitive and vulnerable to the toxic effects of antineoplastic drugs?
Gastrointestinal system
367. You can intentionally alter the urinary pH as part of therapeutics regimen to accomplish all the following,
except:
Modify the pH of extracellular fluid
368. Ruminal acidosis in cow can be alleviated by:
Changing ruminal content
369. Tetracycline is a :
Protein synthesis inhibitor
370. Drugs used to increase secretion of the upper respiratory tract is referred to as:
Expectorant
371. The agent capable of inhibiting the wide range of effect of B-lactamase enzyme produced by gram positive and
gram negative bacteria is:
Clavulanic acid
372. Administration of irritating drug solution as best done via which route?
Intravenous
373. A solution containing a higher concentration of osmotic substance than does the body cells is referred to as:
Hypertonic solution
374. Identify which factor will increase the rate of absorption and dissemination of drug administration parenterally:
Increase blood supply of the site and message
375. The depth or level of anesthesia is easiest to control with which anesthetic?
Halothane
376. A slight CNS depression in which the patient is awake but calm and free of nervous is referred to as:
Sedation
377. Gases which are products of fermentation are principally removed from ruminants body by:
Eructation
378. A drug that has affinity for and interacts with a cell receptor to elicit a response is called:
An agonist
379. The safe amount of urea to be in cattles feed concentrate must not be more than:
3%
380. An important and desirable of an antiseptic aside from the effective inhibitory or cidal effect is:

Must be safe when used in tissues

381. Which general statement is most accurate concerning the calcium on phosphorus content of common animal
feeds?
Hay contains are more calcium than grains
382. The time required for the body to eliminate one-half of the drug administered is referred to as:
Half-life of the drug
383. Which of three anti-infectives is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor:
Cephalosporins
384. Which antimicrobial does not belong to the nucleic acid inhibitor:
Sulfonamides
385. These opioid antagonist does not include:
Yohimbine
386. Considering its cost, safety an potency as virucidal and bactericidal agent, the disinfectant of choice for animal
cages is:
Sodium hypochlorite
387. To elicit its desired systemic effects epinephrine must be administered in all these routes, except:
Orally
388. In addition to stimulating secretion of aldosterone, angiotensin II also causes:
Vasoconstriction
389. Which of the following agents has a cathartic effect but not a parasympathetic drug:
_____ _____
390. As a class, penicillin are bactericidals because they:
Interfere with bactericidal wall synthesis
391. How does the ivermectin anthelmintics exert their therapeutic effects?
Potentiation of gamma-butyric acids
392. The most important beneficial effect in the therapeutic use of glucocorticoids is:
Anti-inflammatory
393. Which disinfectant is useful in controlling parasites (e.g. ascarids, parascaris and coccidia):
Carbon disulfide
394. The nutrient needed in all these essential physiological processes as normal vision, reproductive function,
maintenance of epithelial integrity and immune competency is:
Vitamin A
395. Drugs that decrease the frequency and severity of cough without impairing mucocilliary defenses of respiratory
system are called:
Antitussives
396. Which of the following drugs is not a cholinesterase inhibitor?

Atropine
397. Acepromazine _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____?
Phenothiazine tranquilizer
398. The entry of poisons into the animals body is most common via which route?
Orally by ingestion
399. Which is the most accurate statement concerning either xylazine or acepromazine?
Xylazine produces profound analgesia and deep sedation
400. Taking accounts the speed of blood perfusion of the tissue in the distribution of drug, it is expected that this
tissue will be saturated first ahead of the other tissues of the body:
Liver
401. Dietary requirement of calcium and phosphorus is greatest in which stage of animal life?
Lactation
402. Which of the following drugs is a CNS stimulant?
Amphetamine
403. When calculating the dose of a drug, which is the determinant most often, considered?
Body weight
404. The greatest requirement for iron in the life of a normal animal is during
Growth
405. Wood and coal tar _________ used as _________ and disinfectants _____ _____ _____ _____ which animal:
Cats
406. _____

_____

_____

_____

______

_____

_____

_____

_____

_____

produces thin _____ effect:

Thiamine deficiency
407. What is the most common cause of bloat in cattle?
Failure or inability to eructate the accumulates gas
408. Which of the following measurement is approximately equal to 1 fluid ounce?
30 ml
409. Lipophilic drugs tend to accumulate in:
Soft tissues
410. The principal site of drug absorption taken from orally in carnivorous an omnivorous animals is in the:
Upper part of small intestine
411. Which group of antibiotics may cause neuromuscular paralyzing effect by decreasing the release of
acetylcholine from the nerve and also decreasing the sensitivity of the end plates of acetylcholine?
Aminoglycosides
412. The animal suffering from diabetes insipidus is characterized by copious drinking of water and urinates large
quantities of water of low specific gravity because of lack of :

Vasopressin
413. How does calcitonin lowers the calcium blood level?
Blocks calcium mobilization from the bones
414. In correcting acidosis, the lactate or acetate ions in the fluids administered it metabolized by the liver to:
Bicarbonates
415. Identify the compound which is competitive neuromuscular blocking agent:
Tubecurarine
416. Concerning iron in piglets, the accurate statement is:
Those raised on concrete to reduce parasitic infestation increase their marginal iron deficiency state
417. How is diabetic come brought about?
Excess insulin and hypoglycemia
418. All of the following are pharmacologic effects of physostigmine, except:
Atopy of the bladder thereby causing involuntary urination
419. An adrenergic nerve is classified as a
Sympathetic postganglionic nerve
420. Catecholamine that is most potent myocardial stimulant:
Isoproterenol
421. The most prevalent change in the acid base status in anesthesized animal is:
Respiratory acidosis
422. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ containing how much _____ _____ _____ :
_____ of salt and _____ of dextrose
423. Which of the following is the best agent or measure in promoting and featuring ruminal function in digestive
tract disorder?
Fresh ruminal fluid transfer
424. What are some of the possible hazards of long-term exposure to trace amounts of anesthetic gas?
Neurologic problems, spontaneous abortion, kidney and liver dysfunctions
425. Phenothiazine tranquilizers exert their effect by:
Blocking dopamine receptors
426. Potassium can antagonize the toxic effects of cardiac glycosides by:
Stimulation of active sodium-potassium transport
427. A graded dose-response curve is an indicative of:
The extent of receptors occupancy
428. Ophthalmic preparation of atropine sulfate applied on the eye will cause:
Dilution of the pupil and paralysis
429. The adverse effect resulting from extended glucocorticoid treatment does not include:

Hypoglycemia
430. What _____ ______ ______ _____ _____ _____barbiturates

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____

simultaneously?
Depression of hepatic microsomal
431. Meperidine hydrochloride of little value in the management of pain in dog and cat because it:
Is rapidly biodegraded in there species
432. The site of action of these skeletal muscle relaxant is in the central nervous system:
Methecarbanol
433. The specific action (competitive antagonist) of spironolactone is to block:
The effects of aldosterone on the dental tubules
434. The most important precursor of prostaglandin compounds found in higher mammalian species is:
Arachidonic acid
435. If atropine is ineffective in reversing the toxic effect of organophosphate poisoning, valuable agent which
dissociates the cholinesterase from the alkyl phosphate bondage is:
Pralidoxime
436. Aside from intake of finely ground feed particles, the other major cause of froth bloat in feedlot cattle is:
Excessive intake of concentrates
437. How does atropine acts on the parasympathetic nervous system?
Competitive antagonism of acetylcholine
438. Sodium bicarbonate is useful in treating chock patients because it:
Increase blood pH
439. The drug that can reverse the neuromuscular blocking effects (neuromuscular paralysis) of d-tubecurarine is:
Neostigmine
440. Which of the following drugs can reverse the hypotensive effect of acepromazine?
Phenylephrine
441. The most predominant receptors in the muscle tissues are:
Nicotinic
442. What is the effect of parasympathomimetic drug on the heart?
Reduce cardiac function
443. The following are effects of acetylcholine which could all be blocked by scopolamine and atropine, except:
Skeletal muscle contraction
444. The combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid increased their therapeutic usefulness because:
They are effective against lactamase bacteria
445. The organs or functions most sensitive tot he pharmacologic effect of atropine is the:
Salivary and cholinergic sweat glands
446. The clinical procedure which be avoided while an animal is undergoing serial vaccination is:

Administration of dexamethasone
447. How ______ ______ ______ _____ ______ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ :
Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
448. Which B-vitamin requires cobalt is its synthesis by the ruminant stomach microflora?
Cyanocobalamine (B12)
449. Where is the principal source of ruminal water and fluid medium for microbial growth?
Saliva from salivary glands
450. Drugs tightly bound to plasma protein have much longer elimination half-lives and is best exemplified by which
of the following drugs?
Sulfamethoxazole
451. The preponderance of this hormone in blood circulation is diagnostic of Cushings disease:
Cortisol
452. Which of the following condition will occur if carbonic anhydrase is inhibited?
Rate of aqueous humor formation decreased
453. After administering isoproterenol parenterally, which of the following will take place?
Myocardial stimulation
454. Which of the following is the vascular effect of glucocorticoid when administer to an animal?
Reduced lymphocytes and eosinophils
455. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
_____ _____ _____ _____
_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
456. Isoproterenol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are potent myocardial stimulants. In the order of their strength,
which of these reflects the more potent to the weakest myocardial stimulant?
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol
457. If a practitioner unable to type the blood of a donor and recipient before blood transfusion, which type of blood
could be given safely (assuming that both recipient and donor never have any transfusions prior)?
A-negative
458. What is the main constraint and limitations in the use of antiviral drugs?
While they are toxic on viral cells, they are also toxic on mammalian cells
459. On which muscle tissues will Acetylcholine evoke excitatory response?
Smooth muscle of the GI tract
460. The central nervous system is more affected to the action of anesthetic than any system of the body because
there are:
More lipid medium and more vascular
461. How does corticosteroids exert its action in the treatment of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Supress erythrophagocytic and antibody binding

462. Prolong administration of barbiturates to an epileptic dog will reduce the response to another convulsant drugs
because of:
Accelarated rate of biotransformation of hepatic microsomal enzyme
463. How does norepinephrine and phenylephrine decrease the heart rate?
By activating a baroreceptor reflex
464. Which agent causes increase of secretion and synthesis of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex?
Angiotensin II
465. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of heparin in toto?
Antithromboplastin, antiprothrombin, antithrombin
466. The important purpose of administering a positive isotope to a hypotensive anesthesized patient is:
Increase tissue perfusion
467. Most rapid recovery of consciousness would occur after discontinuing administration of which anesthetic?
Nitrous oxide
468. Alpha-adrenergic receptors in the medullary part of the brain when stimulated will:
Produce a decrease in blood pressure and bradycardia
469. This cholinergic blocking drug selectively blocks muscarinic receptors only:
Atropine
470. Dobutamine, a synthetic catecholamine _____ for heart failure belong to which class of drugs?
Beta-1 adrenergic agonist
471. When glucocorticoid is administered in a normal fasting animal the blood sugar level will rise because of:
Decreased oxidation of glucose and accelerated gluconeogenesis
472. Which of these agents blocks muscarinic receptor in the periphery and central nervous system?
Scopolamine
473. Angiotensin II increases blood pressure by:
Stimulating aldosterone secretion and vasoconstriction
474. How would you minimize the risk of undesirable suppression of hypophyseal-pituitary axis (HPA) when using
short-acting glucocorticoid?
Give twice the normal dose on alternate days
475. How many parts of diluent are there in a 1:5 dilutions?
4
476. Which of these forms of penicillin can be administered via intra_____ route with relative safety?
Aqueous potassium salts of penicillin G
477. Aspirin exerts its major effects by:
Inhibiting cyclooxygenase
478. The parenteral routes of administration of drugs does not include:

Aerosole
479. Which of the following is an antimycotic drug?
Nystatin
480. All of the following agents are nonnarcotic analgesic, except:
Meperidine
481. Allaying activity and excitement with drug is referred to as:
Sedation
482. Cross-hypersensitivity exist between cephalosporins and :
Penicillins
483. All of the following are desirable objective which may result from pre-anesthetic medication, except:
Increased dose of anesthetic
484. Which of the following drugs is related to ampicillin but with better oral absorptions?
Amoxicillin
485. Which of these agents could division the bodys ability to withdraw infections healing power?
Glucocorticoids
486. All of the following agents are bronchodilators, except:
Chlorthiazide
487. Manitol belong to which groups of diuretics?
Osmotic
488. Which of the following drugs is effective antidiarrheal agent that inhibits intestinal peristaltic movement?
Loperamide
489. Which vitamin is required for normal vision?
A
490. Chronic consumption of raw fish may cause which vitamin deficiency:
Thiamine
491. Drug of choice for the treatment of chronic arsenic poisoning:
Dimercaprol
492. The primary effect of parathyroid hormone is:
Increased mobilization of calcium from bones
493. All of the following drugs are hyperglycemic agents, except:
Glucagon
494. Which of the following statements is not accurate regarding dexamethasone?
It has an immuno-dependent potential
495. Which of the following parenteral route will you administered _____ solutions for treating _____ __________ ?
Intrathecal
496. Which of the following parenteral routes will you administer irritating and non-isotonic solutions?

Intravenous
497. The desirable advantages of oral dosing of drugs does not include:
High degree of drug metabolic transformation
498. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in idiopathic canine epilepsy?
Acepromazine
499. Considering their therapeutic effects in the digestive system, diphenoxylate, loperamide, paregoric and bismuth
subsalicylate could be conveniently classified as:
Antidiarrheals
500. All the following drugs could stimulate vomiting (emetics), except:
Acepromazine
501. All of the following agents are astringent hemostatics, except:
Epinephrine
502. Basic use of lubricant laxatives (e.g. mineral oil) could cause which adverse effect?
Fat soluble vitamin deficiency
503. Identify which of the following drug _____ ______ ______ _____ ?
Docuoate sodium
504. This systemic antifungal drug is teratogenic and must not be used in pregnant animal:
Griseofulvin
505. Actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle can be effectively treated with:
Sodium iodine
506. Which of the following conditions will you not expect to occur after administering phenothiazine tranquilizers?
Increase heart rate and output
507. The correct statement regarding the action of morphine sulfate is:
It causes excitatory behavior in cat
508. Fatality from digitalis glycoside toxicity is usually caused by:
Cardiac arrythmias
509. Bradycardia of vagal origin during anesthesia can be prevented by administering :
Atropine
510. The __________ characteristics of aminoglycosides does not include:
Hepatotoxicity
511. Which _______nutritional disease of dogs that can effectively treated with :
_______________
512. Which of the following agents is best effective in controlling aggressiveness and fighting among swine?
_______________
513. Which of the following agents is effective in preventing estrus in bitch?
_______________
514. The appropriate fluid therapy for dehydrated patient is:

Lactated ringers solution

515. Which of the following preparation is strong tincture of iodine:
7% iodine in alcohol
516. Doxopram is a:
Respiratory stimulant
517. All of the following agents are bronchodilators, except:
Codeine
518. When treating pregnant animal caution must be observed in prescribing this group of drugs because of their
potential to cause __________ to the fetus:
Aminoglycosides
519. The following antimicrobials at usual concentration are generally bacteriostatic, except:
Cephalosporins
520. Generally, _____ _____ _____ antimicrobial _____ ______ _____ _____, except:
Sulfonamides
521. The approximate equivalent of 1 milligram of penicillin G in _____ is:
1000
522. Antacid containing aluminum, calcium or magnesium will impair the effectiveness of one of the following
drugs when administered orally at the same time:
Doxycycline
523. Initially, how would you treat shock?
Administer fluid by rapid infusion
524. The desirable action of acepromazine as preanesthetic agent in dogs and cats does not include:
Hypotensive
525. Warfarin and congeners exert their adverse anticlotting effect by:
Inhibition of synthesis of coagulation factors by the liver
526. Aminoglycosides including amikacin inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding:
30S ribosomal _____
527. The lipid-soluble barbiturate Thiopental (Pentothal) is expected to accumulate after injection in which of the
following tissue?
Body fat
528. The therapeutic usefulness of Ketoconazole in the treatment of:
Mucocutaneous candidiasis
529. Which of the following effects is not a pharmacologic property of halothane?
Increased cardiac output
530. The pharmacologic properties of ketamine does not include:
Cardiovascular depression
531. The therapeutic value of the following drugs is that they all have antiarrhythmic property, except:

Epinephrine
532. All of the following agents are antimuscarinic drugs, except:
Pilocarpine
533. Identify which of the following diuretics has no carbonic anhydrase inhibiting activity:
Furosemide
534. Which of the following groups of diuretics will you indicate for glaucomatous eye?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
535. What appropriate diuretics will you indicate in condition with elevated intraocular and cerebrospinal fluid
pressures?
Mannitol
536. Which of the following drugs causes stimulation of the intestinal and urinary bladder?
Bethanecol
537. Intestinal _____ ______ therapeutically effective against gastroduodenal _____ ?
__________
538. Vitamin associated with role in chemoprevention of cancer:
E
539.

Which of the following drugs could have most likely cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca during the extended
treatment of X0 cell life infection in bitch?
Sulfamethoxasole

540. Which of the following drugs has no hepatotoxic activity?

Thiopental sodium
541. Poisoning from which agent can be effectively treated with 100% oxygen:
Carbon monoxide
542.

Spreading and rate of absorption of an injected drug (e.g. subcutaneous) can be facilitated by:
Adding hyaluronidase in the solution

543.

Tightly bound to plasma protein drugs have much longer elimination of half-lives and is best exemplified
by which of the following drugs:
Sulfamethoxasole

544.

Which of the following drugs is a microsomal enzyme inhibitors:

Chloromphenicol

545.

When treating ______ _____of the drug dose rates and frequently must be observed for _____ long at least
after birth?
__________

546.

One of the _____ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ ______ _____ _____ ______ _____:
__________

547.

All of the following antiulcerative _____ _____ exert their prophylactic _____
production, except:

by inhibiting gastric acid

Sucralfate
548.

The following agents that increase the movement of ingested material in the GI tract (prokinetic drugs)
does not include:
Dopamine

549.

Which is the least effective drug against skin infection in dogs commonly cause by the B-lactamase
producing Staphylococcus infection:
Penicillin

550.

Drug of choice for sporothrichosis in animals:

Potassium iodine

551.

This antiparasitic is not indicated in certain types of canine breeds (e.g. Collies, Shetland & Old sheepdogs)
because it readily crosses their blood-brain-barrier thus, causing CNS toxicity:
Ivermectin

552.

Which of the following conditions does not occur during glucocorticoids administration?
Neutropenia

553.

This antinematodal drug stimulates cell-mediated immunity in immunologically depressed patients (e.g.
aged animals):
Levamisole

554.

Which of the following drugs will cause _____ _____ _____ _____ extended period at high rate?
Amprolium

555.

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ with which drug will control flea infestation in digs and cats rendering
larvae unable to:
Lufenoron

556.

Which of the following agents is a prokinetic (one that increased the movement of ingesta in GI tract)
drugs:
Metoclopramide

557.

Anesthesia is undesirably prolonged if this drug is administered in surgical patient:

Cloramphenicol

558.

Which of the following drugs will most likely cause toxic _____ _____ when administered even under
normal conditions?
Amphotericin B

559.

Flea and tick infestation can be treated or prevented in dogs and cats by spraying their coat with this
antiparasitic agent at monthly intervals:
Fibronil

560.

For expulsions of uterine contents in pathologic (e.g. pyometra ) conditions, the drug of choice is:
Prostaglandin F2 alpha

561.

Drug of choice in reversing the sedative effect of xylazine in cats:

Tolazoline

562.

Acute, uncomplicated _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:
Trimethoprim -sulfa

563.

Bactericidal enzymatic inactivation of b- lactamase antibiotics (e.g. penicillin, cephalosporins) can be

prevented by concurrent administration of:
Sublactam

564.

Immunosuppressive drugs does not include:

Staphage lysate

565.

Where there is hypofunction of the _________ muscle or bladder atony this cholinergic agonist will be
useful:
Bethanicol chloride

566.

When there is a need for urine alkalinization in a dog, which of the following agents is the drug of choice?
Potassium citrate

567.

An ideal anesthetic should not posses which undesirable property?

Eliminated solely by the liver

568.

Which of the following antiepileptic agent has the undesirable effect of causing megaloblastic anemia,
ataxia and gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin

569.

Which of the following statement aptly describes methicillin?

It is a parenteral penicillin that is resistant to B-lactamase

570.

All of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) produced their anti-inflammatory
effect by inhibiting cyclooxygenase:
Acetaminophen

571.

How does heparin _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:

__________________________________________

572.

Reversible cholinesterase _____ _____ __________:

Echotiophate iodine

573.

Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors includes all of the following drugs, except:

Physostigmine

574.

Malignant hyperthermia associated with halothane anesthesia characterized by muscle rigidity can be
cured by which skeletal-muscle relaxant?
Dantrolene

575.

The greatest and most important factor that requires adjustment of drug and frequencies in neonates is:
Deficiency of hepatic microsomal function

576.

Which of the following systemic hemostatic is most effective infecting rodenticide toxicity, moldy sweet
clover poisoning, _________ and sulfaquinoxaline toxicity?
Vitamin K

577.

Ivermectin and Milbemycin exert their antiparasitic effects by:

Potentiating the release and effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

578.

Griseofulvin acts against fungi by:

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis and nucleic acid synthesis and mitosis

579.

Immune-mediated ________________ (e.g. _________, lupus erythematosus) are best treated with which
__________ pharmacologic agents?
Glucocorticoids

580.

Which glucocorticoids preparation will you _____ _____ _________ situation, _____ _____ _____ ______
________?
Hydrocortisone sodium succinate

581.

Fluid therapy of choice in acute renal failure where hyperkalemia or hypercalcemia is present:
0.9% saline

582.

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:
Pseudomonas spp.

583.

The antimicrobial agent that has _____ _____ _____ ____ _____ _____ _____ infections caused by _____
_____ _____:
Gentamicin

584.

Praziquantel is used to treat:

_______________________

585.

All of the following _____ _____ _____ their antimicrobial effect inhibition of protein synthesis, except:
Cephalosporins

586.

Which of the following aminoglycosides is not effective _____ _____ _____ _____?
Dihydrostreptomycin

587.

A _____ __________, the longest-acting tetracycline is:

Doxycycline

588.

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
______________________

589.

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
______________________

590.

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
______________________

591.

Absorption of drugs following oral administration is:

Commonly through passive diffusion

592.

Drug associated with severe muscular irritation and inflammation when administered via the intramuscular
route:
Chloral hydrate

593.

The following drugs can impair renal functions, except:

Erythromycin

594.

Identify the drug which doses cross the placenta in significant amount?
Xylazine

595.

A therapeutically essential class of antibiotics whose usefulness is restricted by their nephrotoxic and
ototoxic potential:
Aminoglycosides

596.

Which of the following agents should not be mixed with lactated Ringers solution in infusion battle as it
cause drug inactivation (e.g. precipitate):
Sodium bicarbonate

597.

Which of the following drugs is useful in controlling myasthenia gravis-like syndrome in dog?
Neostigmine

598.

The most important use of _______ is:

Pain relief

599.

Drug commonly used as cough depressant:

Codeine

600.

The therapeutic use of thiazide is:

Diuretic

601.

The following drugs are useful in preventing motion sickness in dogs, except:
Apomorphine

602.

The following may cause hypercalcemia, except:

Lactation

603.

The antimicrobial drug which inhibit folic acid metabolism is:

Trimethoprim

604.

Metronidazole is not effective in treating:

Anaplasmosis

605.

All of the following antimicrobials are therapeutically useful in treating pseudomonas infections, except:
Tetracycline

606.

Lyme disease can be effectively treated with:

Tetracycline

607.

Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock:

Adrenaline

608.

The following infections/ infestations are correctly paired with their appropriate treatment, except:
Salmonellosis penicillin

609.

Which of the following statement is not correct concerning Gentamicin:

It is highly effectvie on anaerobic bacterial infections

610.

Adverse effect associated with penicillin include:

Hypersensitivity

611.

All of the following drugs has activity against TB, except:

Amikacin
612.

The following drugs are correctly paired with their known unwanted effects, except:
Dexamethasone anti-inflammatory

613.

Which statement is not true concerning dichlorvos?

It has a wide margin of safety

614.

Drug of choice for congestive heart failure

Digitalis

615.

How does the opioids diphenoxylate and loperamide bring about their anti-diarrheal effect?
Cause segmental gut contractions

616.

Drug of choice for Bordetella bronchiseptics infection in dog is:

Doxycycline

617.

Melarcomine dihydrochloride is used as:

Anti-canine filariasis

618.

What is the desirable effect of furosemide when indicated in congestive heart failure?
Diuresis and accordingly recovers edema fluids

619.

Famotidine and Ranitidine are both H2 receptor antagonist which are the same pharmacologic class with:
Cimetidine

620.

Acepromazine is an ideal preanesthetic agent except that it has this undesirable effect:
Hypotensive

621.

Cross-resistance is usually observed in these paired antibiotics:

Penicillin/Cephalosporin

622.

Which of the following drugs is useful in treating warfarin poisoning in dog or coumarin toxicosis in cattle?
Aquamephyton (vitamin K)

623.

Cephalosporins are considered as bactericidal because they:

Inhibit development of the bacterial cell wall

624.

Moduramicin, clopidol, amprolium, monensin are of common therapeutic usefulness as:

Anticoccidiasis

625.

The anti-infective drug highly effective in the treatment of chlamydia, rickettsia and mycoplasma infections
is:
Tetracycline

626.

Niacin can effectively treat this nutritional disease of dogs:

Blacktongue

627.

Wheat bran, prunes and psyllium seeds belong to the same category of therapeutic agents as:
Bulk laxatives

628.

This is the only domestic animal whose young needs iron prophylactic treatment:
Pig

629.

When an animal is hypersensitive to penicillin, the other drug to witch that most likely cause similar
reactions is:
Cephalosporin

630.

Laryngospasm is most prevalently encounters during induction of barbiturates anesthetic in this specie:
Feline

631.

Deficiency of which nutrient will cause nutritional muscular dystrophy:

Selenium

632.

Digitalis and chloramphenicol must NOT administered orally to this specie because they will be rendered
therapeutically ineffective:
Cattle

633.

Milk must NOT be taken orally with this drug:

Tetracycline

634.

What is the rationale in mixing local anesthetic with epinephrine for site infiltration?
Retard systemic absorption, then prolonging anesthesia

635.

Meperidine (demerol) is seldom used to relieve pain in dogs and cats because:
It is rapidly inactivated by the liver

636.

Identify the agent which is ineffective in controlling persistent capillary bleeding:

Sodium oxalate

637.

Which of the following conditions may be caused by high-dose of glucocorticoid (e.g. dexamethasone) in a
horse?
Laminitis

638.

The depressive effect of which drug can be reversed by naloxone:

Morphine

639.

When using aminoglycoside antibiotics, it is prudent to monitor the blood serum to check this undesirable
effect:
Nephrotoxocity

640.

Frequently used agent in emergency treatment of certain cases of poisoning because of its absorbent
property:
Activated charcoal

641.

This drug is useful in prolonging the effect of penicillin by inhibiting its renal tubular excretion:
Probenecid

642.

Diabetes insipidus can be effectively controlled by this hormone:

Vasopressin

643.

Which of these agents is hyperglycemic?

Insulin

644.

The adverse effect of glucocoriticoids treatment which usually results to adrenal cortex atrophy can be
avoided by:

Administer orally in alternate days

645.

Which of the following drugs is not recommended at any dose for any therapeutic purpose in cats?
Acetaminophen

646.

The undesirable effects of glucocorticoids does not include:

Depresses allergic reaction and inflammation

647.

Identify the hemorrhagic disease-causing agent in cattle derived from spoiled sweet clover:
Dihydroxy coumarin

648.

The drug with widest therapeutic index (margin of safety) is:

Penicillin

649.

Following initial systemic administration of morphine, excitatory behavioral change is seen in:
Cat

650.

Prudence and care must be observed when this anti-infective drug is used because it has caused the highest
incidence of anaphylactoid reactions:
Penicillin

651.

The anti-oxidant vitamins are:

A,C,E

652.

Which animal is not sensitive to phenothiazine?

Horse

653.

Which animal is most sensitive to xylazine?

Cattle

654.

When large dose of corticosteroid is administered, one of the following adverse conditions may ensue:
Hepatopathy

655.

The drug effective as anticestodal in cat is:

Praziquantel

656.

Often cause of death during anesthesia because of absence or lack of it:

Oxygen

657.

All of the following drugs are useful in the management of epilepsy, except:
Pentothal

658.

Anti-infective that could readily penetrate the blood-brain-barriers, placental barriers and ocular tissues:
Chloramphenicol

659.

Which part of the body of the dog is LEAST affected by the analgesic effect of xylazine?
Extremities

660.

Neomycin, streptomycin, bacitracin and succinylsulfathiazole have this important characteristics in

common:
All are poorly absorbed from the gastro-intestinal tract

661.

Which of the following hormones can be administered orally because of its potency is not altered by the
digestive juices:

Diethylstilbestrol
662.

Bovine and ovine polioencephalomalacia (PEM) is caused by deficiency in:

Thiamine

663.

The nutrient that can improve the quality of blood is:

Cyanocobalamine

664.

Candidiasis of the oral cavity, interdigital space and genital tract is most responsive to which anti-fungal
agent?
Nystatin

665.

Generally, the best therapy for respiratory paralysis is:

Artificial ventilation with use of oxygen

666.

Identify which of the following drugs is antitrematodal:

Clorsulon

667.

Vedarbine, ribavirin and asyclovir belong to this category of drugs:

Antiviral

668.

The mineral associated with the function of vitamin E is:

Selenium

669.

The specific clinical use of spironolactone is in:

Hyperaldosteronism

670.

Poisoning from one of the following agents can be reversed by dimercaprol:

Arsenic

671.

Which of the following is the most beneficial in the treatment of respiratory depression caused by
barbiturates anesthetic?
Continuos administration of oxygen

672.

Which important actions does acetylsalicylic acids have that acetaminophen does not?
Anti-thrombotic, anti-inflammatory

673.

The life-threatening migratory arterial larval stage of strongyles in horses can be best-treated with:
Ivermectin

674.

Which of these agents must be avoided in patients with coagulopathies?

Aspirin

675.

Cathartics is most useful in which conditions?

Accumulation of toxic substance in the intestinal tract

676.

Which of these drugs could significantly stimulate neutrophilic granulocytosis?

Dexamethasone

677.

What

is

the

action

Neutralizes gastric acid

of

aluminum

hydroxide

when

taken

orally

by

the

animals?