AIIMS MAY 2015: Solved Paper

Anatomy

1. Lower part of sternum fused by age

a) 12 years
b) 14 years
c) 18 years
d) 10 years

Answer: 14 years
Explanation:

In cartilaginous sternum, five double bony centres appear from above

downwards during fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth and ninth fetal months.
The upper centre forms the manubrium.
Remaining four form body of sternum and fuse with one another from
below to upwards.
Lower two centres fuse at age of 14 years and upper two centres fuse
between 14 to 25 years.
The centre of xiphoid process appears during the third years or later and
fuses with the body at about 40 years.

2. Reticular fibres of collagen tissues are present in all except

a) Thymus
b) Bone marrow
c) Spleen

d) Lymph node

Answer: Thymus
Explanation:

Reticular fibres are regarded as one variety of collagen fibre.

In many situations, these fibres form supporting networks of the cells.
In bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes the reticular network is closely
associated with reticular cells.
Most of these cells are fibroblasts, but some may be macrophage.

3. Nerve beneath the facial colliculus

a) Facial
b) Abducent
c) Glosso-pharyngeal
d) Trigeminal

Answer: Facial
Explanation:

The facial colliculus is an anatomical elevation in the floor of the fourth

ventricle.
The facial colliculus is not formed by the facial nerve nucleus, but by the
abducens nerve nucleus and the motor fibres of facial nerve loop dorsal to
the 6th (Abducent) CN nucleus before leaving the brainstem.

4. Collagen typical of basement membrane

a) Type I

b) Type V
c) Type IV
d) Type III

Answer: Type IV
Explanation:
Type of collagen:
Fibril Forming Collagens:
Collagens Type I- Bone, Tendon, Skin, Cornea and Blood Vessels
Collagens Type II- Cartilage, Inter-vertebral Disk, Vitrous Body
Collagens Type III-Blood Vessels and Fetal skin
Network Forming Collagens:
Collagens Type IV- Basement membrane
Collagens Type VII- Beneath stratified squamous epithelia
Fibril Associated Collagens:
Collagens Type IX- Cartilage
Collagens Type XII- Tendon, Ligament

5. Muscle not inserted on greater trochanter

a) Teres minor
b) Supra-spinatus
c) Infra-spinatus
d) Sub-scapularis

Answer: Sub-scapularis
Explanation:

Muscle- Inserted on greater tubercle

Supra-spinatus- Upper most impression
Infra-spinatus- Middle impression
Teres Minor-Lower impression

6. Not a branch of external carotid artery

a) Trans-cervical artery
b) Lingual
c) Superior thyroid artery
d) Ascending pharyngeal

Answer: Trans-cervical artery

Explanation:
External carotid artery is the chief artery of supply to structures in front of the
neck and in the face.
External carotid artery gives eight branches.
Anterior: Superior thyroid, lingual and facial
Posterior: Occipital and posterior auricular
Middle: Ascending pharyngeal
Terminal: Maxillary and superficial temporal

7. Card test done for

a) Lumbricals
b) Dorsal interossei
c) Palmar interossei
d) Adductor pollicis

Answer: Palmar interossei

Explanation:

Card test is for palmar interossei of the finger and tested by placing a
piece of paper between fingers and seeing how firmly it can be held.
First dorsal interossei can be separately examined by asking the patient to
abduct the index finger against the resistance.

8. Microvilli are seen in all; except

a) Duodenum
b) Gall bladder
c) PCT
d) Collecting duct

Answer: Collecting duct

Explanation:

Microvilli are finger like projections from the cell surface that can be seen
by EM.
Each microvillus consists of an outer covering of plasma membrane and
cytoplasmic core in which there are numerous microfilaments (Actin
filaments).
Microvilli are seen most typically at sites of active absorption e.g. the
intestine and proximal and distal convoluted tubules of kidney.
The inner surface of the gall bladder is covered by the mucosa. The surface
is made up of a simple columnar epithelium. The epithelial cells have
microvilli, and look like absorptive cells in the intestine.

9. Metabolically active part in bone

a) Periosteum
b) Endosteum
c) Cancellous bone
d) Cortical bone

Answer:
Explanation:

10. Special visceral efferent carries all the cranial nerve except
a) Facial
b) Vagus nerve
c) Optic
d) Glosso-pharyngeal

Answer: Optic
Explanation:

Special visceral efferent (SVE) refers to efferent nerves that provide motor
innervations to the muscles of the pharyngeal arches in humans.
The only nerves containing SVE fibers are cranial nerves: the trigeminal
nerve (V), the facial nerve (VII), the glosso-pharyngeal nerve (IX), the vagus
nerve (X) and the accessory nerve (XI).

11. Meso-nephric ducts and tubules give rise to all except

a) Glomeruli
b) Paroophoron
c) Epididymis

d) Vas deference

Answer: Glomeruli
Explanation:
Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the female:
Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter
Trigone of bladder
Epoophoron
Paroophoron
Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the male:
Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter
Trigone of bladder
Posterior wall of the part of the prostatic urethra
Epididymis, Ductus deference, Vas deference, Seminal vesicle, Ejaculatory
duct
Meso-dermal part of prostate
The excretory tubules or nephrons are derived from the lower part of the
nephrogenic cord.

12. Meso-rectal fascia doesnt contain which of the following

a) Inferior rectal vein
b) Para-rectal node
c) Superior rectal vein
d) Inferior mesenteric plexus

Answer: Inferior rectal vein

Explanation:

Peri-rectal fat separated by the rectal fascia the so-called meso-rectum

contains Superior rectal vessels, meso-rectal fat, lymphatic vessels and
nodes.
It is the first area of local rectal cancer dissemination.
Thus, its removal along with the rectum affected by the tumor is essential
for preventing local tumor recurrence.

13. Which of these is not a support of the uterus?

a) Urogenital diaphragm
b) Pelvic diaphragm
c) Perineal body
d) Recto-vaginal septum

Answer: Recto-vaginal septum

Explanation:
Primary support of the uterus:
Muscular or active support:
Pelvic diaphragm
Perineal body
Urogenital diaphragm
Fibro-muscular or mechanical support:
Uterine axis
Pubo-cervical ligament
Transverse cervical ligament of Mackenrodt
Utero-sacral ligament
Round ligament of uterus

Physiology
1. 50 % rise in radius of vessel will rise in blood flow
a) 10 times
b) 20 times
c) 50 times
d) 100
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Brown adipose tissue is not present in

a) Mesentry
b) Subcutaneous fat
c) Scapula
d) Adrenals cortex
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Inheritance of blood groups AB

a) Co-dominance
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Hyper-dynamic state are all Except?

a) Anemia
b) Beriberi
c) Cor pulmonale
d) A-V fistula
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Independent Assortment of Chromosome at which levela) Spermatogonia -Primary spermatocyte

b) Primary to secondary spermatocyte
c) Secondary Spermatocyte-Spermatid
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Secreted by beta cells of pancreas

a) Glucagon like peptide
b) Amylin
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Interstitial pressure hydrostatic was 2 mm Hg, oncotic pressure 7

mmHg, capillary hydrostatic pressure 25mmHg, net filtration was 3 mm Hg.
What is capillary oncotic pressure?

a) 21
b) 27
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

8. Volume of ECF determined by mannitol which is 10% excreted, injected

dose 10 gm. Plasma concentration at equilibrium 50mg/100ml
a) 18
b) 50
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Biochemistry
1. In fasting RBC use
a) Glucose
b) Alanine
c) Ketone body
d) Fatty acid
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Enzyme involved both in glycogenolysis and glucogenesisa) Phospho-glucomutase

b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

3. RNAi gene
a) Knock out
b) Knock in
c) Knock up
d) Knock down
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Crumpled paper appearance causes accumulation of

a) Gangliosidase
b) Sphingomyelinase
c) Glucocerebrosidase
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Child with hepatomegaly, growth retardation, muscle weakness,

hypoglycemia and accumulation of limit dextrin, diagnosis is
a) Pompe
b) Cori Anderson
c) Von Girke

d) Mc Ardle
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Common enzyme between glycogen synthesis and break down

a) Phospho-glucomutase
b) Glycogen synthetase
c) Glycogen Transferase
d) Phosphorylase
Answer:
Explanation:

7. A young boy with high glutamine and uracil

Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia
Enzyme defect is
a) CPS1
b) Ornithine transcarbamylase
c) Arginase
d) Arginosuccinase
Answer:
Explanation:

8. Child presents with copious nasal discharge, macroglossia, coarse facies,

and thick lip with hepato-splenomegaly. Most likely diagnosis is
a) Hurlers
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Proteus syndrome

d) Beckwith Weidman
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Patient with tendon xanthomas, drawn blood milky in appearance. Which

lipoprotein is increased:
a) Chylomicrons
b) chylomicrons remnants
c) LDL
d) HDL

10. Elevated LDL, normal level of LDL receptors

Cause is
a) Phosphorylation of LDL receptors
b) Apo-B100 mutation
c) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency
d) Cholesterol acyl co-A deficiency

11. 10 year old boy presents with muscle weakness, fatigue and increased
lead in blood. Which of following a biochemical parameter is increased?
a) ALA synthase
b) Ferrochelatase
c) PBG deaminase
d)

12. Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency due to which enzyme dysfunction?

a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxy-kinase

b) PDH
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d)

13. cis-regulatory elements (CREs) bind to what site?

a) Re site
b)
c)
d)
Forensic science

1. X fired gunshot on Y. Y escaped with thigh injury. X is punishable under

which IPC?
a) 302
b) 304
c) 324
d) 326

Answer: 324
Explanation:
S. 324 IPC: Voluntarily causing heart by dangerous weapon or means
S. 326 IPC: Voluntarily causing grievous heart by dangerous weapon or
means

2. The knot in judicial hanging is placed at

a) Below occiput
b) Angle of mandible

c) Below the chin

d) Choice of hangman

Answer: Angle of mandible

Explanation:
Though sub-mental knot is thought to be more effective and ensures a
quicker death, side of neck under the angle of jaw (Sub-aural knot) on the left
is the preferred position in India for judicial hanging.
Judicial hanging causes fracture dislocation usually at the level of the second
and third or third and fourth cervical vertebrae.
Bilateral fractures of either the pedicles or laminae of the arch of the second,
third or fourth cervical vertebrae occur.

3. Postponement of capital sentence in case of a pregnant woman comes

under Cr. P. C.
a) 416
b) 417
c) 418
d) 415

Answer: 416
Explanation:
Section-416 of Cr. PC provides if a woman sentenced to death is found to be
pregnant, the High court shall order the execution of the sentence to be
postponed and may, if it thinks fit, commute the sentence to imprisonment
for life.

4. Acrid odor is due to

a) Carbolic acid

b) Ether
c) Nitro-benzene
d) Paraldehyde

Answer: Paraldehyde
Explanation:
Paraldehyde is clear, colorless liquid with an unpleasant ethereal odor and an
acrid nauseous taste.
It is used as a hypnotic by mouth, rectum or parentally and as basal
anesthetic.
Treatment of paraldehyde poisoning:
Gastric lavage with sodium bicarbonate
High colonic irrigation
Calcium gluconate and dextrose IV

5. In car accident, driver and front passenger both died. Which of the
following in postmortem examination will help to indentify driver except?
a) Seat belt over left shoulder
b) Sparrow footmark on the head
c) Whiplash injury to spinal cord
d) Steering wheel impact

Answer: Seat belt over left shoulder

Explanation:
Identification of driver in car accident:
Seat belt over right shoulder
Steering wheel impact

Sparrow footmark on the head- Multiple punctate lacerations of the face

produced due to the shattering of the windscreen glass
Whiplash injury to spinal cord
Identification of front seat passenger in car accident:
Seat belt over left shoulder
Sparrow footmark on the head- Multiple punctate lacerations of the face
produced due to the shattering of the windscreen glass
Whiplash injury to spinal cord

6. According to the Amendment Act 2013, the age for sexual consent is
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 15 years

Answer: 18 years
Explanation:
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013:
The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any
sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the
age of 18 will constitute statutory rape.
Section 370 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been substituted with new
sections, 370 and 370A which deal with trafficking of person for exploitation.
A new section, 376A has been added which states that if a person committing
the offence of sexual assault, inflicts an injury which causes the death of the
person or causes the person to be in a persistent vegetative state, shall be
punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than
twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

6. Blast near-by Delhi two persons died. Which is not true?

a) Injuries due to burns or air blast

b) Force of explosion decrease rapidly
c) Force of explosion is directional
d) Abrasion, bruise and fracture are triad of explosion

Answer: Abrasion, bruise and fracture are triad of explosion

Explanation:
A person can be injured by an explosion due to disruptive effect, burns and
air blast.
Triad of bruises, abrasions and puncture lacerations with tattooing of part of
the body indicate bomb explosion.
Death may result from multiple injuries, burns, shock or cerebral air
embolism.
Explosive force declines rapidly.
Explosive force is highly directional.

7. Rat hole is associated with which injury

a) Postmortem artifact
b) Firearm
c) Razor blade
d) None

Answer: Firearm
Explanation:
Intermediate range wound from shotgun:
Wound of entry is irregular with ragged margin (Rat-hole injury) with satellite
perforation at the margin of the main defect.

8. Segmented blood in retinal blood vessels. Sign is:

a) Rokitansky
b) Tache noir
c) Kevorkian
d) None

Answer: Kevorkian sign

Explanation:
Kevorkian sign: Fragmentation or segmentation of the blood column in the
retinal vessels appears within minute after death and persists for about an
hour.
Tache noir sign: If the eyelids are open for a few hours after death, a film of
dessicated discoloration on the sclera at each side of iris which become
brown then black called tache noir within 3 to 4 hours.

Pathology
1. Oil red O stain used for
a) Frozen specimen
b) Glutaraldehyde specimen
c) Alcohol specimen
d) Formalin specimen
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Cherry red spot and Hollenhaurst plaque seen on

a) BRAO
b) CRAO
c) CRVO

d)
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Which of the following is not an auto immune disorder?

a) Ulcerative colitis
b) Graves disease
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) SLE
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Factor for stabilizing fibrin thread

a) v-WF
b) Thrombin
c) Factor XIII
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Most common nephropathy associated with malignancy

a) Membranous
b) MCD
c) IgA
d) FSGS
Answer:

Explanation:

6. Incisional wound contains fibril network and epithelial layer. Age of wound
a) 12 to 24 hours
b) 24 to 72 hours
c) 4 to 5 days
d) 1 week
Answer:
Explanation:

7. A young boy with Starry sky appearance on HPE. Which of the following is
true?
a) BCR ABL
b) P53 gene mutation
c) MYC mutation
d) RB gene mutation
Answer:
Explanation:

8. Karyotype XXY
a) Klinefelters syndrome
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Pharmacology
1. Methacholine agonist at
a) M2
b) M1
c) M4
d) M3

Answer: M2
Explanation:
Agonist of muscarinic receptors:
M1-Oxotremorine
M2- Methacholine
M3- Bethanechol

2. Adrenergic beta receptor having lipolysis property in fat cells

a) Beta-1
b) Beta-2
c) Beta-3
d) Alpha-1
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Diuretic which can be given in mild to moderate hypertension

a) Loop diuretic
b) Thiazide
c) Osmotic diuretic

d) Potassium sparing diuretic

Answer:
Explanation:

4. A woman had a previous neonatal death due to neural tube defect. Now
she came for pre conception counseling. The daily dose of folic acid that she
should take is
a) 4 microgram
b) 40 microgram
c) 400 microgram
d) 4000 microgram
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Drug for pulmonary papillomatosis

a) Zinc
b) Acyclovir
c) Cidofovir
d) Ranitidine

7. Which of the following drug would not cause whorl like opacities in cornea?
a) Chloroquine
b) Amiodarone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Indomethacin
Answer:
Explanation:

8. Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?

a) Saquinavir
b) Nevirapine
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Which of the following drug doesnt work by increasing insulin secretion?

a) Sitagliptin
b) Rosiglitozone
c) Repaglinide
d) Exenatide
Answer:
Explanation:

10. Nitroglycerine in sublingual route is more effective because

a) It is ionic and less lipid soluble
b) It is ionic and more lipid soluble
c) It is ion-ionic and less lipid soluble
d) It is ion-ionic and more lipid soluble
Answer:
Explanation:

11. Drug used in pulmonary hypertension?

a) Bosentan
b) Amlodipine
c) Enalpril
d) Furosemide
Answer:
Explanation:

12. Drug contra-indicated in pregnancy

a) Methotrexate
b) Azathioprine
c) Cyclosporine
d) Retinoids
Answer:
Explanation:

13. In a child admitted with H. Influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred

over ampicillin because
a) Cefotaxime more active against b- lactamase
b) Cefotaxime more active against altered penicillin binding protein
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Microbiology
1. Filarial stage of adult worms responsible for diseases in all of the following
except:

a) Onchocerca volvulus
b) Brugia
c) Wuchereria
d) Mansonella ozzardi
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Triple swab test, dye found on top most swab. Diagnosis is

a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

3. IgE works on which cell

a) Mast cell
b) NK cell
c) Macrophage
d) T cell
Answer:
Explanation:

4. HPV do not cause which type of carcinoma

a) Base of tongue carcinoma
b) Tonsillar carcinoma

c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d) Respiratory papillomatosis
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Forward dispersion or scatter in flow cytometry signifies

a) Cell death
b) Cell size
c) Cell granularity
d) Cell fluoscence
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Reverse transcriptase enzyme present in

a) HAV
b) HBV
c) HCV
d) HEV
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Cholera toxin causes destruction of

a) Hemi-desmosomes
b) Gap junctions
c) Tight junction
d) Occludens

Answer:
Explanation:

8. RNA dependent DNA polymerase used by?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis E
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Tropical spastic paresis caused by

a) HTLV
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

ENT
1. Kashima operation done for
a) Vocal cord
b) Cholesteatoma
c) Industry surgery
d)
Answer:

Explanation:

2. Test for eustachian tube (Eustachian tube best assessed by)

a) Pulitzer test
b) VEMP
c) Rhino-manometry
d) Tympanometry
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Hearing loss not caused by

a) Kanamycin
b) Vancomycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Quinine
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Which artery is involved in juvenile naso-pharyngeal angio-fibroma

bleeding?
a) Ascending pharyngeal artery
b) Internal maxillary artery
c) Facial
d) Superior thyroid artery
Answer:
Explanation:

Ophthalmology
1. Which of the following topical agents causes hetero-chromia iridis?
a) Latanoprost
b) Prednisolone
c) Timolol
d) Olapatadine
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Evisceration of eye is not done in

a) Malignancy
b) Pan-ophthalmitis
c) Trauma
d) Hemorrhage
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Vitreous humor has high concentration of what compared to blood

a) Glucose
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Ascorbate
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Nerve supply of cornea

a) Naso-Cilliary nerve
b) Supra-trochlear nerve
c) Infra-trochlear nerve
d) Infra-orbital nerve
Answer:
Explanation:

5. High molecular weight proteins in cornea seen only in humans

a) HM 1 and 2
b) HM 2 and 4
c) HM 3 and 4
d) HM 2 and 3
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Universal marker of limbal stem cells

a) Elastin
b) Keratin
c) Collagen
d) ABCG2
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Multifocal ERG impulse records from

a) Rods
b) Ganglion cell layer

c) RPE layer
d) Macular cones
Answer:
Explanation:

8. True Statements regarding Direct Ophthalmoscopy are A/E:

a) 2 disc diameter field of vision
b) Image is virtual and erect
c) Magnification is 5 times
d) Self illuminated device
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Granular dystrophy of cornea diagnosed by which stain?

a) Masson Trichrome
b) Congo red
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

SPM
1. Birth weight of infant born to mothers of two groups; one provided with
food supplement and other not supplemented are to be compared. What is
best test of significance?
a) Chi square
b) Student t test

c) Paired t test
d) Analysis Of Variance (ANOVA)
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Increasing number of non communicable disease since previous year is

which type trend
a) Cyclical
b) Periodical
c) Secular
d) Seasonal
Answer:
Explanation:

3. What is window period?

a) Entry of pathogen to appearance of first clinical symptoms
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Nikshay central government software to determine

a) TB cases
b) High risk pregnancies
c) Neonatal infection
d) Surveillance of malaria

Answer:
Explanation:

5. Sensitive measure
a) True positive
b) True negative
c) False positive
d) False negative
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Age amendment act 2013 for sexual assault

a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Screening is not useful in which carcinoma

a) Ca prostate
b) Ca colon
c) Ca breast
d) Ca testis
Answer:
Explanation:

8. Food safety and distribution comes under which area

a) Rural statistics
b) Ministry of health and family welfare
c) Ministry of consumer affairs
d) Ministry of agriculture
Answer:
Explanation:

9. About JE vaccine, all are true except

a) < 1 year not given
b) 1-3 year two primary doses should be given
c) Effect starts from second week onwards
d) Protection lasts for 5 years
Answer:
Explanation:

10. Total cholesterol 200

TG 150
HDL 25
LDL is
a) 125
b) 50
c) 75
d)
Answer:

Explanation:

11. Child had un-provoked dog bite. Dog was tested to be healthy. Next step
is
a) No treatment to be given and observe dog for 10 days
b) Start treatment and observe the dog
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

12. Haddon matrix role in

a)
b)
c)
d)

13. In one study highest value 58 was mistakenly taken as 85. This will lead
to
a) High mean and high median
b) High mean and same median
c) Low mean and same median
d) Same mean and high median
Answer:
Explanation:

14. Immunization status can be found from

a) Sample registration system

b) District health mission
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Medicine
1. Which of the following is not part of Duke Criteria?
a) Splenomegaly
b) Fever >100.4 Celsius
c) IV drug user
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Which of the following cannot cause reduced DLCO?

a) Emphysema
b) Asthma
c) Pulmonary artery HTN
d) Pneumonia
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Most common site for hypertensive hemorrhage

a) Basal ganglion

b) Thalamus
c) Brain stem
d) Cerebral hemisphere
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Best to given in multiple clotting factor deficiency and active bleeding

a) FFP
b) Whole blood
c) Packed RBC
d) Cryo-precipitates
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Patient with arrhythmia is on defibrillator. He develops shock. Best to know

the integrity of ICD
a) Contrast CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain Radiograph
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Sweating absent in
a) Heat syncope
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke

d) Muscle cramps
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Key symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

a) Tremor
b) Visual hallucination
c) Muscle weakness
d) Sleep disturbance
Answer:
Explanation:

8. True about H1N1

a) H1N1 testing required in class B
b) Cat B require hospitalization and Oseltamivir
c) Pregnant patient with fever sore throat classified as class B and given
Oseltamivir
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Old female with fever, weight loss, night sweats. Biopsy of apical lung
shows caseous necrosis. Caseous necrosis is due to
a) Hypersensitivity reaction consisting of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells
b) Enzymatic degradation
c) Abrupt ischemia
d) Acute decrease in blood supply

Answer:
Explanation:

10. Most sensitive test for myasthenia gravis

a) Edrophonium
b) Single fibre electromyography
c) Repetitive nerve stimulation
d)

Surgery
1. Mallory Weiss syndrome mainly affects which artery?
a) Left gastric artery
b) Right gastric artery
c) Phrenic artery
d) Coronary artery
Answer:
Explanation:

2. In pt with thrombocytopenia, what is the target platelet count after platelet

transfusion to perform an invasive procedure?
a) 40,000
b) 50,000
c) 25,000
d) 30,000
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Incision preferred for diaphragmatic surgery

a) Circumferential
b) Radial
c) Vertical
d) Transverse
Answer:
Explanation:

4. 35 Year old female comes to emergency department with nausea, vomiting

and abdominal pain. Her pulse is 100/min and BP is 90/60 mm Hg. On
ultrasound a right adnexal mass is seen. What is likely management?
a) Immediate laparoscopic surgery
b) Beta-HCG
c) USG
d) IV fluid
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Following carcinoma of thyroid spreads mostly by lymphatics

a) Papillary
b) Medullary
c) Follicular
d) Thyroid lymphoma
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Most common shunt for hydrocephalus

a) Ventriculo-peritoneal
b) Ventriculo-pericardial
c) Ventriculo-pleural
d) Ventriculo-atrial
Answer:
Explanation:

Answer: Ventriculo-peritoneal
Explanation:
Ventriculo-peritoneal (VP) Shunt is the most common procedure for the
treatment of hydrocephalus.
CSF is channeled through an implant called a shunt, which directs flow of CSF
from a lateral or third ventricle into the abdominal cavity where it is absorbed
into the bloodstream.
Answer:
Explanation:

7. In the case of esophageal cancer, prognosis is determined by

a) Age of patient
b) Cellular differentiation
c) Length of involvement
d) T stage
Answer:
Explanation:

8. RTA Bleeding scalp Diabetic. Immediate management is

a) Secure bleeding

b) IV drip
c) CT scan
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

9. Lap Splenectomy is followed by fever and tachycardia on third postoperative day. Next best investigation finding
a) Pus cell in urine
b) LRTI
c) Intra-abdominal fluid in USG
d) Pus in port site
Answer:
Explanation:

10. 60 years old with bloody nipple discharge gives family history of breast
carcinoma. Investigation of choice is
a) MRI
b) Dactoscopy
c) Sono-mammography
d) Cytology of discharge
e) MRI
Answer:
Explanation:

11. 3 year old child comes with hernia sac with hydrocele. What is next step
of management?

a) Herniotomy
b) Hernioplasty
c) Herniorrhaphy
d) Wait for 5 year of age
Answer:
Explanation:

12. Oncocyte dx test is done in breast cancer for

a) Chemotherapy in HR ve
b) Hormone therapy in HR ve
c) Herceptin in HER2 +ve
d) Hormone therapy in HR +ve
Answer:
Explanation:

13. Most common bariatric surgery is

a) Roux en y jejunostomy
b) Gastric banding
c) Bile pancreatic diversion
d)

14. Physiological changes not seen in laparoscopic procedure

a) Decrease in FRC
b) Increase in pH
c) Increase peak flow rate
d) Raised ICT

Answer:
Explanation:

15. Pregnant lady comes to casualty after getting stabbed on the right side of
the chest. She is gasping and BP 80/60 mm Hg and pulse 124/minutes.
Management is
a) Tracheostomy
b) Chest drain
c) IV fluid
d) Oropharyngeal airways
Answer:
Explanation:

16. False statement about Functional division of Liver

a) 4 sectors
b) 8 Segments
c) 3 major and 3 minor fissures
d) Segment according to portal vein and hepatic vein

17. Haddon Matrix

a) Response to injuries
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Gynecology and Obstetrics

1. Drug of choice in a pregnant hypertensive lady
a) Enalpril
b) Verapamil
c) Methyldopa
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Drug not given in PCOD

a) Tamoxifen
b) Clomiphene
c) Oral contraceptive
d) Metformin
Answer:
Explanation:

3. In severe preeclampsia, proteinuria seen

a) 30 gm
b) 300 gm
c) 3000 gm
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Best investigation to know the viability of fetus in 6 weeks pregnancy

a) Doppler USG
b) USG heart sound detection
c) Per-vaginal examination correspond size of uterus is 6 weeks
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Antihypertensive contra-indicated in pregnancy

a) Methyldopa
b) Labetalol
c) Nifedipine
d) Enalprilate
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Galactorrhea amenorrhea syndrome. What will be checked along with

prolactin?
a) LH
b) TSH
c) HCG
d) Urine keto-acids
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Mucin secreting cell with signet ring appearance, bilateral ovarian mass
a) Krukenberg tumor
b)

c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

Pediatrics
1. Fluid of choice in infant diarrhea
a) ORS
b) Salt water
c) Sugar water
d) Dextrose
Answer:
Explanation:

2. A young girl 10 yrs old comes with d huge mobile mass abdomen and in
hypogastric region with doctor unable to insinuate between mass and pelvis.
Mesenteric cyst
b) Ascites
c) Ovarian cyst
d) Omental cyst
e) Duplication of cyst of intestine
f) Fibroid
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Retinoblastoma spread by
a) Lymphatics

b) Optic nerve arterial

c) Direct invasion
d) Vascular invasion
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Dose of dexamethasone for threatened preterm labour

a) 12 mg 12 hourly 4 doses
b) 12 mg 12 hourly 2 doses
c) 6 mg 12 hourly 4 doses
d) 6 mg 12 hourly 2 doses
e) 6 mg 24 hourly apart
f) 12 mg 24 hourly apart
Answer:
Explanation:

5. Test for detecting Streptococcus pyogenes in a girl

a) ASO titre
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

6. Overwhelming sense of responsibility and uncertainty is the feature of

a) Generalized anxiety disorder

b) Personality disorder
c) OCD
4) Phobia
Answer:
Explanation:

Dermatology
1. 26 y old man from Bihar with nodules over face, over back hypopigmented, normo-aesthetic macules with no nerve thickening. History of
prolonged fever present in childhood
Image of lesions on the back
a) Tuberculoid leprosy
b) Post Kala Azar dermal leishmaniasis
c) Lepromatous leprosy
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

2. A picture with lot of pustules of a pregnant woman with diabetes t/the to

be given
a) Cycloserine
b) Methotrexate
c) Retinoids
d) Azathioprine
Answer:
Explanation:

3. 70 years old man presents with vesicular rash over lower limb following a
course of steroids. Tzank smear showed multinucleated giants cells.
Diagnosis is
a) VZV
b) Vaccinia
c) Molluscum
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer:
Explanation:
Radiology

1. Investigation of choice in stress fracture

a) MRI
b) CT
c) Bone scan
d) X-ray

Answer: MRI
Explanation:
Stress fractures are a common overuse injury among athletes.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is being used increasingly as the
investigation of choice for stress fractures. The typical findings on MRI are of
periosteal and marrow edema, as well as fracture line.

2. Immediate investigation of choice for acute appendicitis in a child

a) USG
b) CT scan
c) Barium enema

d) X-ray

Answer: USG
Explanation:
Ultrasound with its lack of ionizing radiation should be the investigation of
choice in young patients, and is effective in competent hands in identifying
abnormal appendixes (A non-compressible and thickened), especially in thin
patients.
CT scanning is more sensitive and specific than ultrasound when diagnosing
acute appendicitis.
Most useful predictors of acute appendicitis on CT are enlarged appendix,
appendiceal wall thickening, peri-appendiceal fat stranding, and appendiceal
wall enhancement.

3. Best non-invasive test for myocardial viability

a) Echo cardiograph
b) PET
c) MRI
d) Thallium 201 Scan

Answer: PET
Explanation:
Viable myocardium is myocardium which due to ischemia does not contract
normally at rest but has the potential to recover its function, either by itself
over time or after revascularization.
PET is generally regarded as the gold standard for the assessment of
myocardium viability. PET identifies ischemic or hibernating myocardium in
10-20 % of the regions that would be classified as fibrotic or infracted by
thallium and technetium labeled compounds.

4. Judet view of X-ray is for

a) Pelvis
b) Calcaneum
c) Scaphoid
d) Spine

Answer: Pelvis
Explanation:
The entire pelvis is demonstrated on each oblique Judet view.
The Judet view demonstrates acetabular fractures and hip dislocation.

5. Shenton line present in

a) Knee
b) Shoulder
c) Elbow
d) Hip

Answer: Hip
Explanation:
Shentons line is an imaginary line drawn along the inferior border of the
superior pubic ramus (superior border of the obturator foramen) and along
the infero-medial border of the neck of femur.
Break in Shentons line:
Fracture of neck of femur
Posterior dislocation of hip
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Congenital dislocation of hip

6. Patient with arrhythmia is on defibrillator. He develops shock. Best to know

the integrity of ICD
a) Contrast CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain Radiograph

Answer:
Explanation:

7. Investigation of choice for biliary atresia in a 2 months old child is

a) Hepatic scintigraphy
b) ERCP
c) USG
d) MRCP

Answer: MRCP
Explanation:
Ultra-sonography is often the initial investigation in patients with suspected
biliary atresia, followed by hepato-biliary scintigraphy, a study that has been
used effectively for many years.
If the diagnosis remains elusive after these studies, magnetic resonance
cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) may be helpful (Investigation of choice).

Anesthesia
1. Which anesthetic agent is pain full in IV?
a) Thiopentone
b) Propofol

c) Ketamine
d) Ether
Answer:
Explanation:

2. After haloperidol administration getting tremor, and rigidity but able to

walk. What should be given?
a) Lorazepam
b) Haloperidol
c) Promethazine
d) Risperidone
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Cad pt bradycardia, hypotension and pt had ischemic heart disease,

anesthesia not used
a) Fentanyl
b) Ketamine
c) Etomidate
d)

Orthopedics
1. Judet view of X-ray is for
a) Pelvis
b) Calcaneum
c) Scaphoid
d) Spine

Shoulder
Answer:
Explanation:

2. Traction not used in lower limb

a) Gallows
b) Bryant
c) Perkins
d) Dunlop
Answer:
Explanation:

3. Jersey finger
a) FDP
b) Extensor digiti minimi
c) Extensor indices proprius
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

4. Shelter line present in

a) Knee
b) Shoulder
c) Elbow
d) Hip
Answer:

Explanation:

5. In the case of irreparable rotator cuff tear, treatment is

a) Total shoulder replacement
b) Acromio-plasty
c) Tendon transfer
d)
Answer:
Explanation:

6. A 45 yrs old man jumps from height from building. One witness told the
doctor that patient fell from height due to fire in the building and landed on
the ground on feet. What findings are in keeping to his details?
a) Ring fracture in skull with lumbar spine injury
b) Depressed fracture with cervical spine injury
c) Pond fracture in skull
d) Gutter fracture with lumbar spine injury
Answer:
Explanation:

7. Which one of the following is not a disc removal procedure?

a) Laminectomy
b) Hemi-laminectomy
c) Laminoplasty
d) Laminotomy
Answer:
Explanation:

Psychiatrics