MODEL E-EXAM (ATPL) NO.

2
1) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The
cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
AIRCRAFT S EXPERIENCES MORE ICING THAN T
2) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the
weather conditions are most likely to be: FOG OR LOW CLOUD
3) For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The
approximate elevation of the airfield is: 160 METRES
4) A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over
large parts of North West Africa is known as a: HARMATTAN
5) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most
pronounced: DURING THE EARLY AFTERNOON
6) Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is
correct? THE AIRCRAFT IS TEMPORARILY PART OF THE LIGHTNING
TRAJECTORY
7) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at
the time they are observed? SN
8) What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield 3000 ft
above MSL, altimeter setting is QFE for the field and local temperature is +
25C? 0 ft.
9) Which of the following statements concerning airborne weather radar is
correct? IT SHOWS ON A PLAN POSITION INDICATOR THE AREAS OF
PRECIPITATION OF RAIN, SNOW AND/OR HAIL
10) Which of the following is correct regarding a warm anticyclone? IT
INCREASES IN INTENSITY WITH INCREASING ALTITUDE

11) If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet
in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the
probability of freezing rain the lowest ? 12000 FEET
12) In which cloud type can a turbulence with the greatest intensity be
expected? Cumulonimbus (CB)
13) At the same latitude the geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind
around an anticyclone with equal pressure gradient because the:
CENTRIFUGAL FORCE IS ADDED TO THE PRESSURE GRADIENT

14) (050-21) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square

3B, away from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions
in winter are: POOR VISIBILITY IN MIST AND DRIZZLE
15) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?
GAS TO SOLID
16) The prevailing surface wind in
the area of the west coast of
Africa north of the equator
(gulf of Guinea) is a: SW
MONSOON IN SUMMER AND
NE TRADEWIND IN WINTER

17) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 FT from A (600

FT/AMSL - QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 FT/AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming
that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the
actual height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be: 4625 FT
18) The geostrophic wind depends on: DENSITY, EARTHS ROTATION,
GEOGRAPHIC LATITUDE
19) With respect to high and low pressure systems : A LOW PRESSURE AREA
AND TROUGH ARE AREAS OF RISING AIR
20) Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for
flight documentation in the tropics? THE TROPOPAUSE IS GENERALLY WELL
ABOVE THE FLIGHT LEVEL ACTUALLY FLOWN
21) The air mass type advected from a
direction indicated by arrow number 6 is
designated: MARITIME POLAR >>>
22) Which of the following is a possible
consequence of subsidence?
AN INVERSION OVER A LARGE AREA
WITH HAZE, MIST.
23) Which statement is true? AIR DENSITY GENERALLY DECREASES AS
ALTITUDE INCREASES.
24) The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves
are: WIND DIRECTION APPROXIMATELY AT RIGHT ANGLES TO THE
MOUNTAIN RANGE- WIND SPEED 30 KT AND STEADLY INCREASING WITH
HEIGHT - AN INVERSION JUST ABOVE THE CREST LEVEL WITH LESS STABLE
AIR ABOVE AND BELOW
25) The Bora is a: COLD CATABATIC WIND WITH THE POSSIBILITY OF VIOLENT
GUSTS
26) Regarding stratus (ST) and nimbostratus (NS): ST DOES CAUSE DRIZZLE AND
NS RAIN

27) In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were
taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010
NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG
= 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG 161050Z
24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =; 161250Z 23012KT
CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17
Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006
BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100
13/11 Q1005 NOSIG = What do you conclude based on these
observations? A WARM FRONT PASSED THE STATION EARLY IN THE
MORNING AND A COLD FRONT DURING LATE AFTERNOON

28) To what extent is Zurich covered by clouds? 5 to 8 OKTAS

29) Which statement regarding aircraft and lightning is correct? AIRCRAFT
MADE BY COMPOSITE MATERIAL MAY GET SEVERE DAMAGE, THE CREW
MAY BE BLINDED AND TEMPORARILY LOSE THE HEARING

30) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?

LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH- SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO
SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF = MODERATE TO
SEVERE CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE TO BE EXPECTED NORTH OF THE ALPS.
INTENSITY INCREASING. DANGER ZONE BETWEEN FL 260 AND FL 380.
31) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the
order of: 16 KM AND -75C OVER THE EQUATOR
32) CAP clouds are one three groups of mountain waves clouds : BOTH A) & B)
ARE CORRECT
33) Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?; TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU
BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = VISIBILITY 10 KILOMETRES OR
MORE, MAIN CLOUDBASE 3000 FEET, WIND 250, TEMPERATURE 18C\
34) Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following types of wind
arise: SEA AND LAND BREEZE
35) A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the
setting. Regardless of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:
ALTITUDE CORRESPONDING TO DIFFERENCE BETWEEN REFERENCE
PRESSURE AND THE PRESSURE WHERE THE INSTRUMENT IS.

36) Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section
shown on the right? TRACK D-A
37) Subsidence is: VERTICALLY DOWNWARDS MOTION OF AIR
38) Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterized
by: FOG, POOR VISIBILITY AND LAYERED CLOUDS

39) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of: 1C/100M
40) The isohypse 5700m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the
following pressure level: 500 hPa
41) What are the most common characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a
warm surface: CUMULIFORM CLOUDS, TURBULENCE AND GOOD VISIBILITY

42) Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the
straight line A-B? 3
43) Fallstreaks or virga are: WATER OR ICE PARTICLES FALLING OUT OF A
CLOUD THAT EVAPORATE BEFORE REACHING THE GROUND
44) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a
depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and
north of the observer. For this observer the wind: VEERING
45) With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated? CB
46) While using the airborne weather radar in order to circumnavigate
thunderstorms, the radar scope is clear between heavy echoes. Which of
the following interpretations of the scope is correct? THE CLEAR AREA
INDICATES AN AREA FROM WHICH NO ECHOES ARE RECEIVED. HOWEVER,
HIS RADAR SCOPE PROVIDES NO ASSURANCE OF BEING IN VMC WHILE
FLYING IN THIS AREA
47) An area on a synoptic chart appearing as a V-shaped extension of a low
pressure area is called a: TROUGH

48) Which of the following statements is true concerning orographic fog? IT IS

FORMED WHEN AIR IS FORCED TO RISE UP A SLOPE
49) Which of the following is correct regarding a cold high pressure area? IT
WILL DECREASE IN INTENSITY WITH INCREASING ALTITUDE
50) In the Southern Hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind
to: VEER AND DECREASE
51) Low level windshear is likely to be greatest: AT THE TOP OF A MARKED
SURFACE-BASED INVERSION
52) Cumulus clouds are an indication for: UP AND DOWN DRAUGHTS
53) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form? LITTLE
OR NO CLOUD
54) Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur? CARRIBEAN SEA, GULF OF
BENGAL, INDIAN OCEAN EAST OF MADAGASCAR.
55) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the
building of CU and CB clouds? CONVECTION
56) You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a fine and hot summer
day. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight? MORNING

57) The warm sector is indicated by letter: C

58) What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the
significant weather chart? FL 220
59) An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately: 7650 FT
60) Katabatic wind is: A FLOW OF COLD AIR DOWN THE SLOPE OF A
MOUNTAIN
61) Snow grains: FALL FROM STRATUS OR SUPERCOOLED FOG

62) What change in pressure, will occur at point F, during the next hour?
A DROP IN PRESSURE

63) What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with
Foehn from south? CLOUDS, ON THE SOUTHERN SIDES OF PASSES IN THE
ALPS
64) A Foehn wind occurs on the: LEEWARD SIDE OF A MOUNTAIN RANGE AND
IS CAUSED BY SIGNIFICANT MOISTURE LOSS BY PRECIPITATION FROM
CLOUD
65) In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means: WIND
FROM 230 TRUE AT 20 KNOTS
66) What does RVR stands for: RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE
67) How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? CHANGES IN ALTITUDE
OCCUR BUT THE AIRCRAFT REMAINS IN POSITIVE CONTROL AT ALL TIMES
68) The validity of a routine TAF is: STATED IN THE TAF
69) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N and the
adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems
are: AZORES HIGH AND WEAK LOW OVER NE CANADA
70) Which FL corresponds with the 600 hPa pressure level? FL 140
71) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above: AIRFIELD LEVEL

72) Which of the following best describes Zone B? COL

73) The possibility of significant icing at altitude, should be expected when on
ground you observe: ICE PELLETS

74) The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from

the surface of the Earth to a certain altitude with the exception of: WATER
VAPOUR
75) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer? 45-70
76) The position of the intertropical convergence zone: SHOWS MORE
VARIATION OVER THE CONTINENTS THAN OVER THE OCEANS
77) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12C and a dew point of
+5C were measured. What temperature change must at least occur during
the night in order to induce saturation? IT MUST DECREASE TO +5 C
78) What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus
clouds? AVERAGE HORIZONTAL VISIBILITY MORE THAN 1000 M, NIL ICING
79) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the: MOUNTAIN DURING DAYLIGHT HOURS
80) After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take-off from an
airfield at mid-latitudes an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated
close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the easterly
surface wind is weak and makes: A SUDDEN STRONG INCREASE IN WIND
SPEED AND STRONG VEERING OF THE WIND A SHORT TIME AFTER TAKEOFF
81) On which side of an easterly wave are thunderstorms most likely to
develop? ON THE EAST SIDE OF THE WAVE
82) Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over
land in moderate latitudes? AIR MASS THUNDERSTORMS
83) What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into
Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC ? TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK
BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA = 4KM
84) Hoar frost forms as a result of: WATER VAPOUR TURNING DIRECTLY INTO
ICE CRYSTALS ON THE AIRCRAFT SURFACE