NURSING PRACTICE I

SITUATION 1: A Nurse utilizes the nursing process in managing patient care. Knowledge of
this process is essential to deliver high quality care and to focus on the clients response to
their illness.
1. During the planning phase of the nursing process, which of the following is the product
developed?
A. Nursing care plan
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Nursing history
D. Nursing notes
2. Objective data are also known as?
A. Covert data
B. Inferences
C. Overt data
D. Symptoms
3. Data or information obtained from the assessment of a patient is primarily used by nurse
to:
A. Ascertain the patients response to health problems
B. Assist in constructing the taxonomy of nursing intervention
C. Determine the effectiveness of the doctors order
D. Identify the patients disease process
4. What is an example of a subjective data?
A. Color of wound drainage
B. Odor of breath
C. Respiration of 14 breaths/minute
D. The patients statement of I feel sick to my stomach
SITUATION : Correct application of the Nursing Process is vital in providing quality care. The
nurse must use her skills and knowledge in proper assessment, planning and evaluating to
meet the patients need and address the priority response of the client to his or her illness.
5. Which statement is a difference between comprehensive and focused assessment?
A. Comprehensive assessments cant include any focus assessments
B. Focused assessments are more important than comprehensive assessments
C. Focused assessments are usually ongoing and concerning specific problems
D. Objective data are included only in comprehensive assessments
6. Two year old Bens mother states Ben vomited 8 ounces of his formula this morning. This
statement is an example of:
A. Objective data from a primary source
B. Objective data from a secondary source
C. Subjective data from a primary source
D. Subjective data from a secondary source
7. Which expected outcome is correctly written?
A. The patient will be less edematous in 24 hours
B. The patient will drink an adequate amount of fluid daily
C. The patient will identify 5 high-salt foods from prepared list by discharge
D. The patient will soon sleep well through the night
8. An expected outcome on a patients care plan reads: Patient will state seven warning signs
of cancer by discharge. When the nurse evaluates the patient progress, the patient is able to
state that a change in wart or mole, a sore that doesnt heal and a change in bowel or bladder
habits are warning signals of cancer. Which of the following would be an appropriate evaluative
statement for the nurse to place on the patients nursing care plan?
A. Patient understands the warning signals of cancer

B. Goal met; Patient cited a change in wart of mole, sore that doesnt heal and a change in
bowel or bladder habits as warning signals of cancer.
C. Goal not met
D. Goal partially met
9. A quality assurance nurse sends questionnaire to patients after discharge to determine their
level of satisfaction with the nurse care they received in the facility. What type of nursing audit
is this?
A. Concurrent
B. Outcome
C. Terminal
D. Retrospective
10. The nurse makes the following entry in the patients record: Goal not met; patient refuses
to attend smoking cessation classes. Because this goal hasnt been met, the nurse should:
A. Develop a completely new nursing care plan
B. Assign the patient to a more experienced nurse
C. Critique the steps involved in the development of the goal
D. Transfer the patient to another facility
SITUATION: Health care delivery system affects the health status of every Filipino. As a Nurse,
Knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life.
11. When should rehabilitation commence?
A. The day before discharge
B. When the patient desires
C. Upon admission
D. 24 hours after discharge
12. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital?
A. Hospital as a center to prevent and control infection
B. Program for smokers
C. Program for alcoholics and drug addicts
D. Hospital Wellness Center
13. Which makes nursing dynamic?
A. Every patient is a unique physical, emotional, social and spiritual being
B. The patient participate in the over all nursing care plan
C. Nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern developments that take place
D. The health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant
and responsive to these changes
14. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in:
A. Hospitals
B. Community
C. Workplace
D. All of the above
15. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees
for a fixed periodic payment.
A. Health Maintenance Organization
B. Medicare
C. Philippine Health Insurance Act
D. Hospital Maintenance Organization
SITUATION: Maslows hierarchy of needs is an integral component of prioritization. As a nurse,
you must know the clients needs that request for an immediate action.
16. The client with history of pulmonary emboli is scheduled for insertion of an inferior vena
cava filter. The nurse checks on the client 1 hour after the physician has explained the
procedure and obtained consent from the client. The client is lying in bed, wringing the hands,

and says to the nurse, Im not sure about this. What if it doesnt work, and Im just as bad off
as before? The nurse addresses which of the following primary concerns of the client?
A. Fear related to the potential risk and outcome of surgery
B. Anxiety related to the fear of death
C. Ineffective individual coping related to the therapeutic regimen
D. Knowledge deficit related to the surgical procedure
17. A nurse is formulating a plan of care for a client receiving enteral feedings. The nurse
identifies which nursing diagnosis as the highest priority for this client?
A. Altered nutrition, less than body requirements
B. High risk for aspiration
C. High risk for fluid volume deficit
D. Diarrhea
18. A home care nurse finds a client in the bedroom, unconscious, with pill bottle in hand. The
pill bottle contained the SSRI Sertraline (Zoloft). The nurse immediately assesses the clients:
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Pulse
D. Urine Output
19. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital for subclavian line placement. Which
psychosocial area of assessment should the nurse address with the client?
A. Strict restrictions of neck mobility
B. Loss of ability to ambulate as tolerated
C. Possible body image disturbance
D. Continuous pain related to ongoing placement of the subclavian line
20. A hospitalized client who has a living will is being fed through a nasogastric tube. During a
bolus feeding, the client vomits and begins choking. Which of the following actions is most
appropriate for the nurse to take?
A. Clear the clients airway
B. Make the client comfortable
C. Start CPR
D. Stop feeding and remove the NG tube
SITUATION: Health Promotion is the priority nursing reponsibility. The nurse should be able to
promote the clients wellbeing and identify ways on improving the clients quality of life.
21. The nurse is caring for a 16 year old female client who isnt sexually active. The client asks
if she needs a Papanicolau test. The nurse should reply:
A. Yes, she should have a Pap test after the onset of menstruation
B. No, because she isnt sexually active
C. Yes, because shes 16 years old
D. No, because she is not yet 21 years old
22. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of abdominal pain, nausea and diarrhea.
When examining the clients abdomen, which sequence should the nurse use?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
D. Palpation, auscultation, percussion, inspection
23. The nurse is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The
average age of the women in the group is 45. Following the Philippine Cancer Society
guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
A. Perform breast self examination annually
B. Have a mammogram annually
C. Have a hormonal receptor assay annually
D. Have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years

24. The school nurse is planning a program for a group of teenagers on skin cancer
prevention. Which of the following instruction whould the nurse emphasize in her talk?
A. Stay out of the sun between 1 p.m and 3 p.m
B. Tanning booths are a safe alternative for those who wish to tan
C. Sun exposure is safe, provided the client wears protective clothing
D. Examine skin once per month, looking for suspicious lesions or changes in moles
25. An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the workplace and encourages all
employees to use it. This is an example of which level of prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Passive prevention
SITUATION: Basic nursing skills are essential for they are vital in many nursing procedures.
Such skills are needed in order to promote health, prevent illness, cure a disease and
rehabilitate infirmities.
26. A nurse has just been told by the physician that an order has been written to administer
an iron injection to a client. The nurse plans to give the medication in the:
A. Gluteal muscle using Z-Track technique
B. Deltoid muscle using an air lock
C. Subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen
D. Anterolateral thigh using 5/8-inch needle
ANSWER: A (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
27. A client has just been told by the physician that a cerebral angiogram will be obtained. The
nurse then collects data from the client about which of the following pieces of information?
A. Claustrophobia
B. Excessive weight
C. Allergy to eggs
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
28. A client has an order for a wound culture to be performed with the next wound irrigation
and dressing change. The nurse would plan to use which of the following solutions for
irrigation before this particular procedure?
A. Providone-iodine (Betadine)
B. One-half-strength hydrogen peroxide
C. Normal saline
D. Acetic acid
29. Which of the following is the best indicator in determining that the clients airway needs
suctioning?
A. Oxygen saturation measurement
B. Respiratory rate
C. Breath sounds
D. Arterial blood gas results
30. A nurse is planning to assist a diabetic client to perform self-monitoring of blood glucose
levels. The nurse should incorporate which of the following strategies to best help the client
obtain an adequate capillary sample?
A. Cleanse the hands beforehand using cool water
B. Let the arm hang dependently and milk the digit
C. Puncture the center of the finger pad
D. Puncture the finger as deeply as possible
SITUATION: Mastery of Intravenous therapy and all aspects that address the response of the
client to complication related to it will help the new nurse in providing quality care.

31. One hour after the IV was inserted, Nurse Net found out that the 1 liter of D5NSS was
empty. Patient was in severe respiratory distress with pinkish frothy sputum. The most
probable complication is:
A. Speed shock
B. Renal failure
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema
32. When an IV of D5W is not infusing well on patient, it is best to first:
A. Pinch the rubber part to flush out clogged blood
B. Coil tube and squeeze hard
C. Lower IV to check for return flow
D. Restart the IV
33. The doctor ordered venoclysis of dextrose 5% in water one liter KVO for 24 hours as a
vehicle for IV medications. How many drops per minute should the fluid be regulated?
A. 20 drops per minute
B. 5 drops per minute
C. 10 drops per minute
D. 15 drops per minute
34. The nurse is administering I.V fluids to an infant. Infants receiving I.V Therapy are
particularly vulnerable to:
A. Hypotension
B. Fluid overload
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Pulmonary emboli
35. A client with severe inflammatory bowel disease is receiving TPN. When administering
TPN, the nurse must take care to maintain the prescribed flow rate because giving TPN too
rapidly may cause:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Air embolism
C. Constipation
D. Dumping syndrome
SITUATION: Teaching and learning is a nursing responsibility. The ability of a nurse to educate
and change the clients behavior through health teaching is one important goal of nursing.
36. A clients hypertension has been recently diagnosed. The nurse would plan to do which of
the following as the first step in teaching the client about the disorder?
A. Gather all available resource material
B. Plan for the evaluation of the session
C. Assess the clients knowledge and needs
D. Decide on the teaching approach
37. A diabetic client who is performing self-monitoring of blood glucose at home asks a clinic
nurse why a glycosylated hemoglobin level needs to be measured. The nurse should plan to
incorporate which of the following into a response?
A. This laboratory test is done yearly to predict likelihood of long term complication
B. This laboratory test gives an indication of glycemic control over the last 3 months
C. It is done as a method of verifying the accuracy of the meter used at Home
D. It is done to predict risk of hypoglycemia with the current diet and medication regimen
38. In teaching the sister of a diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer in
determining the blood sugar level of the client, The nurse is focusing in which domain of
learning according to bloom?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor

D. Affiliative
39. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic client to learn how to
control their diet?
A. Use of pamphlets and effective teaching devices during health instruction
B. Motivation to be symptom free
C. Ability of the client to understand teaching instruction
D. Language and appropriateness of the instruction
40. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive clients, you first
formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process
corresponds to the writing of learning objectives?
A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluating
D. Assessing
SITUATION: Nursing is a science. It involves a wide spectrum of theoretical foundation applied
in different health care situation. The nurse must use these theories in order to deliver the
most needed quality care.
41. The theorist who believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are needed to
foster change is:
A. Betty Neuman
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Martha Rogers
D. Sister Callista Roy
42. The theorist whose theory can be defined as the development of a science of humankind,
incorporating the concepts of energy fields, openness, pattern and organization is:
A. Dorothy Johnson
B. Hildegard Peplau
C. Martha Rogers
D. Myra Levine
43. A theorist whose major theme is the idea of transcultural nursing and caring nursing is:
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Sister Callista Roy
D. Virginia Henderson
44. Florence Nightingale was born in
A. Italy, May 12, 1840
B. Italy, May 12, 1820
C. England, May 12, 1840
D. England, May 12, 1820
45. Smith conceptualizes this health model as a condition of actualization or realization of
persons potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete
developmental actualization.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudemonistic Model
SITUATION: Oxygen is the most important physiologic requirement of the body. Absence of
this vital element for over 6 minutes leads to irreversible brain damage. Measures that
promotes oxygenation is integral in successfully managing clients response to illnesses.
46. The primary effect of oxygen therapy is to:
A. Increase oxygen in the tissues and cells

B. Increase oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

C. Increase respiratory rate
D. Increase oxygen pressure in the alveolar sac
47. A nurse suctions a client who has an endotracheal tube in place. Following the procedure,
which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse
effect of this procedure?
A. Hypertension
B. Cardiac Irregularities
C. A reddish coloration in the clients face
D. Oxygen saturation level of 95%
48. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines:
A. The external circumference of the tube
B. The internal diameter of the tube
C. The length of the tube
D. The tubes volumetric capacity
49. The nurse is correct in performing suctioning when she applies the suction intermittently
during:
A. Insertion of the suction catheter
B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter
C. both insertion and withdrawing of the suction catheter
D. When the suction catheter tip reaches the bifurcation of the trachea
50. The purpose of the cuff in Tracheostomy tube is to:
A. Separate the upper and lower airway
B. Separate trachea from the esophagus
C. Separate the larynx from the nasopharynx
D. Secure the placement of the tube
SITUATION: To deliver a safe and quality care, Knowledge about wound care is necessary. The
nurse will have to deal with different types of wound during practice. It is of outmost
important to apply this knowledge to ensure optimum wound healing.
51. Based on the nurses knowledge of surgical wounds, simple surgical incisions heal by:
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Quarternary intention
52. The nurse documents that the wound edges are approximated. When the edges of an
incision are said to be approximated, this means edges are:
A. Brought together by sutures, tapes or staples
B. Eythematous and swollen
C. Gaping and draining
D. Necrotic and draining
53. Which vitamin is most essential for collagen synthesis?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
54. When assessing the clients wound for sign of infection, the nurse should look for the
presence of which of the following?
A. Granulation tissue
B. Pink tissue
C. Purulent drainage
D. Well approximated edges

55. The nurse is changing dressing and providing wound care. Which activity should she
perform first?
A. Assess the drainage in the dressing
B. Slowly remove the soiled dressing
C. Wash hands thoroughly
D. Put on latex gloves
SITUATION: Physical examination and health assessment are important in rendering care. The
nurse must use assessment knowledge in order to determine and prioritize clients response to
his or her illness.
56. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the:
A. Psychological preparation of the client
B. Physical Preparation of the client
C. Preparation of the Environment
D. Preparation of the Equipments
57. When inspecting a clients skin, the nurse finds a vesicle on the clients arm. Which
description applies to a vesicle?
A. A flat, nonpalpable, and colored
B. Solid, elevated, and circumscribed
C. Circumscribed, elevated, and filled with serous fluid
D. Elevated, pus-filled, and circumscribed
58. When assessing a client with abdominal pain, the nurse should assess:
A. Any quadrant first
B. The symptomatic quadrant first
C. The symptomatic quadrant last
D. The sympomatic quadrant either second or third
59. To assess the client's dorsalis pedis pulse, the nurse should palpate the:
A. Medial surface of the ankle
B. Lateral surface of the ankle
C. Ventral aspect of the top of the foot
D. Medial aspect of the dorsum of the foot
60. Which of the following assessment would be a priority for a 2 year old after bronchoscopy?
A. Cardiac rate
B. Respiratory quality
C. Sputum color
D. Pulse pressure changes
61. The nurse checks the client's gag reflex. The recommended technique for testing the gag
reflex is to:
A. touch the back of the client's throat with a tongue depressor
B. observe the client for evidence of spontaneous swallowing when the neck is stroked
C. place a few milliliters of water on the client's tongue and note whether or not he swallows
D. observe the client's response to the introduction of a catheter for endotracheal suctioning
62. The nurse is evaluating a clients lung sounds. Which of the following breath sounds
indicate adequate ventilation when auscultated over the lung fields?
A. Vesicular
B. Bronchial
C. Bronchovesicular
D. Adventitious
63. The night nurse informs the primary nurse that a client receiving intermittent gavage
feedings is not tolerating them. The primary nurse should first:
A. Change the feeding schedule to omit nights

B. Request that the type of solution be changed

C. Observe the night nurse administering a feeding
D. Suggest that the prescribed antiemetic be given first
64. A client has a chest tubes attached to a pleural drainage system. When caring for this
client, the nurse should:
A. Palpate the surrounding are for crepitus
B. Clamp the chest tubes when suctioning the client
C. Change the dressing daily using aseptic technique
D. Empty drainage chamber at the end of the shift
65. The nurse, aware of a clients 25 year history of excessive alcohol use, would expect the
physical assessment to reveal a:
A. Liver infection
B. Low blood ammonia
C. Small liver with a rough surface
D. High fever with a generalized rash
SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. Miss Linda is a newly appointed nurse in a hospital in
Manila. Born May 1985, her knowledge of nursings professional development is required in
order to project the profession in a way that it lifts the standards of nursing.
66. Mrs. Linda defined nursing as one of the following except:
A. Assisting individual, family and community in attaining health
B. Assisting basic health needs
C. Establishing nursing diagnosis and implementing nursing care
D. Diagnosing, treating, prescribing medication and doing minor surgery
67. PNA was established in:
1. 1922
2. 1926
3. With Mrs. Rosario Delgado as first president
4. With Mrs. Anastacia Tupas as first president
A. 1,3
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 2,4
68. As a national nurses association, it is characterized as follows except:
A. Both a professional body and a labor union
B. Affiliated with the International Council of Nurses
C. Advocating for improved work and life condition of Nurses
D. Accrediting body for continuing education program
69. CPE Units per year is needed for license renewal. The number of CPE units per year should
be:
A. 20 units
B. 30 units
C. 60 units
D. 100 units
70. As a nurse, R.A 1080 exempts her from:
A. Paying her professional tax
B. Examination for civil service eligibility
C. Qualifying for the CGFNS
D. Paying business permit
71. In resigning for her job as a staff nurse, she must give advance notice of:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days

C. 45 days
D. 60 days
72. Why is there an ethical dilemma?
A. Because the law do not clearly state what is right from what is wrong
B. Because morality is subjective and it differs from each individual
C. Because the patients right coincide with the nurses responsibility
D. Because the nurse lacks ethical knowledge to determine what action is correct and what
action is unethical
73. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking
the Licensure examination?
A. Internationally well known experts which services are for a fee
B. Those that are hired by local hospitals in the country
C. Expert nurse clinicians hired by prestigious hospitals
D. Those involved in medical mission whos services are for free
74. The nurse is correct in determining that a License is:
A. A personal property
B. Can be revoked by the Board of Nursing
C. A Right
D. Can be revoked by the PNA
75. A License is renewed every:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
76. Which of the following persons cannot have free access to a patients record?
A. The patient
B. The physical therapist
C. The pharmacist
D. The lawyer
77. Ms. Lindas license will expire in 2007, She must renew her license when?
A. January 2007
B. December 2007
C. May 2007
D. May 2008
78. The practice of Nursing in the Philippines is regulated by:
A. RA 9163
B. RA 9173
C. RA 7164
D. RA 7146
79. This quality is being demonstrated by a Nurse who raise the side rails of a confuse and
disoriented patient?
A. Autonomy
B. Responsibility
C. Prudence
D. Resourcefulness
80. Nurse Joel and Ana is helping a 16 year old Nursing Student in a case filed against the
student. The case was frustrated homicide. Nurse Joel and Ana are aware of the different
circumstances of crimes. They are correct in identifying which of the following Circumstances
that will be best applied in this case?
A. Justifying

B. Aggravating
C. Mitigating
D. Exempting
SITUATION: This is the first day of Mark, R.N. to report as a staff nurse in a tertiary hospital.
As a morning duty nurse, she is about to chart her nursing care.
81. Which of the following is not an accepted medical abbreviation?
A. NPO
B. PRN
C. OD
D. NON
82. Communication is best undertaken if barriers are first removed. Considering this
statement, which of the following is considered as deterrent factor in communication?
A. Not universally accepted abbreviation
B. Wrong Grammar
C. Poor Penmanship
D. Old age of the client
83. Which of the following chart entries are not acceptable?
A. Patient complained of chest pain
B. Patient ambulated to B/R
C. Vital signs 130/70; 84; 20
D. Pain relieved by Nitrogylcerine gr 1/150 sublingually
84. Which of the following indicates narrative charting?
A. Written descriptive nurses notes
B. Date recorded on nurse activity sheet
C. Use of checklist
D. Use of flowsheet
85. Being a new staff nurse, Mark remembers that information needed for daily nursing care
of clients are readily available in which of the following?
A. Kardex
B. Order sheet
C. Admission notes
D. Nurses notes
SITUATION: Mr. Orlando is assigned to Mang Carlos, A 60 years old, newly diagnosed diabetes
patient. He is beginning to write objectives for his teaching plan.
86. Which of the following is written in behavioral term?
A. Mang Carlos will know about diabetes related foot care and the techniques and equipment
necessary to carry it out
B. Mang Carlos sister will be able to determine his insulin requirement based on
blood glucose levels obtained from glucometer in two days
C. Mang Carlos daugter should learn about diabetes milletus within the week
D. Mang Carlos wife needs to understand the side effects of insulin
87. Which of the following is the best rationale for written objectives?
A. Document the quality of care
B. Facilitate evaluation of the performance of the nurse
C. Ensure learning on the part of the nurse
D. Ensure communication among staff members
88. Mang Carlos has been terminally ill for 5 years. He asked his wife to decide for him when
he is no longer capable to do so. As a Nurse, You know that this is called:
A. Last will and testament
B. DNR
C. Living will

D. Durable Power of Attorney

89. Which of the following behavior of Mang Carlos least indicates readiness to learn?
A. Talking with the nurse in charge and doctor
B. Reading brochures and pamphlets about diabetes
C. Inquiring about date of discharge
D. Asking question about diabetes milletus
90. Which of the following behaviors best contribute to the learning of Mang Carlos regarding
his disease condition?
A. Drawing him into discussion about diabetes
B. Frequent use of technical terms
C. Loosely structured teaching session
D. Detailed lengthy explanation
SITUATION: Mrs. Purificacion is now the Chief nurse of a hospital in Manila. She is carefully
reviewing different management styles and theories that will best help her in running the
nursing services in the hospital.
91. Which leadership style best empower the staff towards excellence?
A. Autocratic
B. Situational
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
92. As a Nurse Manager, DSJ enjoys his staff of talented and self motivated individuals. He
knew that the leadership style to suit the needs of this kind of people is called:
A. Autocratic
B. Participative
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
93. A fire has broken in the unit of DSJ R.N. The best leadership style suited in cases of
emergencies like this is:
A. Autocratic
B. Participative
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
94. Mrs. Purificacion is thinking of introducing the Primary Nursing Model Approach. You
understand that this nursing model is:
A. The nurse manager assigns tasks to the staff members
B. Critical paths are used in providing nursing care
C. A single registered nurse is responsible for planning and providing individualized
nursing care
D. Nursing staff are led by an RN leader in providing care to a group of clients
95. Structure, Process and Outcome are components of which step of the management
process?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
SITUATION: Nursing research is the term used to describe the evidence used to support
nursing practice. Nursing, as an evidence based area of practice, has been developing since
the time of Florence Nightingale to the present day, where many nurses now work as
researchers based in universities as well as in the health care setting.

96. Mr. DSJ Plans to undertake a research of Community 1 and 2 on how they manage their
health using Primary health care after an organization and training seminars. This type of
research is:
A. Experimental
B. Historical
C. Descriptive
D. Basic
97. The independent variable is:
A. Primary Health Care
B. Community 1 and 2
C. Organization and training seminars
D. Management of their health
98. In this design, the variable that is being manipulated is
1. Independent
2. Organization and training seminars
3. Dependent
4. Management of Primary Health Care
A. 1,2
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 3,4
99. In general, the research process follows the ff. ordered sequence:
1. Determination of design
2. Statement of the problem
3. Definition of variables
4. Collection and analysis of data
5. Review of related literature
A. 2,5,3,1,4
B. 3,5,4,1,2
C. 2,5,3,4,1
D. 2,5,1,3,4
100. Studies done in natural setting such as this one, posses difficulty of controlling which
variable?
A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Extraneous
D. Organismic

NURSING PRACTICE II
Situation : Nurse Macarena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently
attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions
pertain to meeting
the nursing needs of this particular population group.
1. Daphne, 19 years old, asks nurse Macarena how can pregnancy be prevented through tubal
ligation. Which would be the best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes will lead to permanent closure of the
vagina.
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go.
2. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
A. A woman has no uterus
B. A woman has no children
C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
D. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months
3. Another client named Cindy is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes
with
fertility because:
A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
C. The endometrial lining becomes inflamed leading to narrowing of the cervix.
D. Inflammation of the endometrium causes release of substance P which kills the sperm.
4. Cindy submits herself to Fatima Medical Center and is scheduled to have a
hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following instructions would you give her regarding this
procedure?
A. Menstruation will be irregular for few months as an effect of the dye but it is just normal
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
C. The women may experience some itchiness in the vagina as an after effect.
D. Cramping may be felt when the dye is inserted
5. Cindys cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Macarenas specialization asks what
artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Macarena?
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
D. The husbands sperm is administered intravenously weekly
Situation . Nurse Dee-Lan was a graduate of Our Lady of Fatima University, he started working
as a
nurse just right after he passed and topped the board exam. She was assigned to take care of
a
group of patients across the lifespan.
6. Pain in geriatric clients require careful assessment because they:
A. experienced reduce sensory perception
B. have increased sensory perception
C. are expected to experience chronic pain
D. have a increased pain sensitivity
7. Administration of aminoglycosides to the older persons requires careful patient assessment
because older people:
A. are more sensitive to drugs
B. have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal function
C. have increased sensory perception
D. mobilize drugs more rapidly
8. Elder clients are often at risk of having impaired skin integrity. One factor is that they often
experience urinary incontinence. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence
because of:
A. increased glomerular filtration C. decreased bladder capacity

B. decrease elasticity of blood vessels D. dilated urethra

9. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?
A. decreased breath sounds with crackles C. pain
B. Increase body temperature D. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
10. Prioritization is important to test a nurses good judgment towards different situations.
Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient:
A. circulation, airway, breathing C. airway, breathing, disability (neurologic)
B. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing D. airway, breathing, circulation
11. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will
notice
which of the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Achalasia?
A. Olive shaped mass on abdomen
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 48 hours of life
D. Effortless and non-projectile vomiting
12. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta
previa.
She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to
the
client may indicate a need for further teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days.
C. Call if contractions occur.
D. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down.
13. Ms. Anna, a review assistant of the greatest nursing review center in the Philippines has
been
rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check
first?
A. Check for the presence of infection
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
14. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication
were to
be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the
caregivers
to:
A. avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper
B.avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C.put the diaper on as usual
D. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper
15. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of
relationships
used in delivering nursing care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and counter transference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
16. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. Why are lacerations of
lower
extremities potentially more serious among pregnant women than other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins
17. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following
the
prescribed treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to
make

sure the child does not have a relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion
that a
relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with
diiferential
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for 3 days, or the child
found to have
3-4+ proteinutria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output, and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding, and cloudy urine.
18. The painful phenomenon known as back labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position C. Breech position
B. Right Occipito-Anterior Position D. Left Occipito-Posterior Position
Situation With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.
19. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
20. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most
important
function of the community health nurse?
A. Conduct community assemblies.
B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer.
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our process of detection, control and
treatment
modalities.
D. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition.
21. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under post case treatment
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those undergoing treatment
22. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early treatment C. Those under early detection
B. Those under supportive care D. Those scheduled for surgery
23. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting
the
health of people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. They
receive
money with these hands. You do not see them washing their hands. What should you say/do?
A. Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands
B. All of these
C. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong
D. Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread
Situation : The following questions refers to common clinical encounters experienced by an
entry
level nurse.
24. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Which statement is correct
regarding the use of the cervical cap?
A. It may affect Pap smear results.
B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician.
C. It does not require the use of spermicide.
D. It must be removed within 24 hours.
25. The major components of the communication process are:

A. Verbal, written and nonverbal

B. Speaker, listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. Message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback
26. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always
hungry;
has no lunch money; and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks
of
playing outside until midnight. The nurse will suspect that this child is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ)
B. An orphan
C. A victim of child neglect
D. The victim of poverty
Situation: Mike 16 y/o has been diagnosed to have AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise
ship;
27. Which method of transmission is common to contract AIDS:
A. Syringe and needles A. Sexual contact
B. Body fluids B. Transfusion
28. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following;
A. Fungus C. retrovirus
B. Bacteria D. Parasites
29. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Which procedure should be of outmost
importance;
A. Alcohol wash C. Washing Isolation
B. Universal precaution D. Gloving technique
30. What primary health teaching would you give to mike;
A. Daily exercise C. reverse isolation
B. Prevent infection D. Proper nutrition
31. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health worker dealing with the AIDS patients
.
which among these must be done as priority:
A. Boil used syringe and needles
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound
Situation: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She was reported by her sister to have measles
but
she is at home because of fever, upper respiratory problem and white sports in her mouth.
32. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage
prior to
eruption behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication
especially:
A. Otitis media C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
B. Bronchial pneumonia D. Membranous laryngitis
33. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities, Which includes care of the skin, eyes,
ears,
mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one
below?
A. Water C. Alkaline
B. Sulfur D. Salt
34. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of
complication
of measles. Which of the following should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop C. Inflammation of the nasophraynx
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva D. Ulcerative stomatitis
35. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infection person. Filterable
virus
of measles is transmitted by:
A. Water supply C. Food ingestion

B. Droplet D. Sexual contact

36. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for
rehabilitation of patient includes the provision of:
A. Terminal disinfection C. Immunization
B. Injection of gamma globulin D. Comfort measures
SITUATION: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy
because of
their potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus, or newborn. The following questions pertain to
STDs.
37. Ms. Reynaldita is a promiscuous woman in Manila submits herself to the clinic for certain
examinations. She is experiencing vaginal irritation, redness, and a thick cream cheese vaginal
discharge. As a nurse, you will suspect that Ms. Reynaldita is having what disease?
A. Gardnerella Vaginalis
B. Candida Albicans
C. Treponema Pallidum
D. Moniliasis
38. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the doctor may prescribe a certain medications
for
Ms. Reynaldita. What is the drug of choice for Reynalditas infection?
A. haloperidol
B. miconazole
C. benzathine penicillin
D. metronidazole
39. Based on your learnings, you know that the causative agent of Reynalditas infection is:
A. Monistat Candida
B. Candida Albicans
C. Albopictus Candidiasis
D. Monakiki
40. The microorganism that causes Reynalditas infection is a:
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Fungus
D. Virus
41. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was Ms. Celbong. Her doctor examined Ms. Celbongs
vaginal secretions and found out that she has a Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is
diagnosed through which of the following method?
A. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide that has been treated with
potassium
hydroxide.
B. Vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix.
C. A lithmus paper is used to test if the vaginal secretions are infected with trichomoniasis.
D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with zephiran solution.
42. Daphne who is on her first trimester of pregnancy is also infected with trichomoniasis. You
know that the drug of choice for Daphne is:
A. Flagyl
B. Clotrimazole (topical)
C. Monistat
D. Zovirax
43. Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are under
the
practice of health science, you know that Syphilis is caused by:
A. Treponema Syphilis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia Trachomatis
D. Treponema Pallidum
44. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of syphilis?
A. Spirochete

B. Fungus
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoan
45. Under the second level of prevention, you know that one of the focuses of care is the
screening
of diseases. What is the screening test for syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. Western blot
C. PSA
D. ELISA
46. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy
with
benzathine penicillin G. The characteristic manifestations of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are:
A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
B. Confusion, drowsiness and numbness of extremities
C. sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches
D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia
47. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for consultation with regards to STDs. She inquires
about
Venereal warts and asks you about its specific lesion appearance. Which of the following is
your
correct response to the client?
A. Why are you asking about it? You might be a prostitute woman.
B. The lesions appear as cauliflower like lesions.
C. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by erythema.
D. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth canal.
48. Based on your past learnings in communicable diseases, you know that the causative
agent of
venereal warts is:
A. Chlamydia Trachomatis
B. Candida Moniliasis
C. Human Papilloma Virus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
49. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what
medication for this type of infection?
A. Podophyllum (Podofin)
B. Flagyl
C. Monistat
D. Trichloroacetic acid
50. Cryocautery may also be used to remove large lesions. The healing period after
cryocautery may
be completed in 4-6 weeks but may cause some discomforts to the woman. What measures
can
alleviate these discomforts?
A. Kegels Exercise
B. Cool air
C. Topical steroids
D. Sitz baths and lidocaine cream
51. In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, what is the BEST way to
consider?
A. Condom use
B. Withdrawal
C. vasectomy
D. Abstinence
SITUATION: The Gastrointestinal System is responsible for taking in and processing nutrients
for all
parts of the body, any problem can quickly affect other body systems and, if not adequately
treated,
can affect overall health, growth, and development. The following questions are about

gastrointestinal disorders in a child.

52. Mr. & Mrs. Alcaras brought their son in the hospital for check up. The child has failure to
thrive
and was diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. Which among the following statements are the
characteristic manifestations of pyloric stenosis?
A. Vomiting in the early morning
B. Bile containing vomitus immediately after meal
C. sausage shaped mass in the abdomen
D. Projectile vomiting with no bile content
53. The exact cause of pyloric stenosis is unknown, but multifactorial inheritance is the likely
cause.
Being knowledgeable about this disease, you know that pyloric stenosis is more common in
which
gender?
A. Male
B. Female
C. Incidence is equal for both sexes
D. None of the above
54. To rule out pyloric stenosis, the definitive diagnosis is made by watching the infant drink.
After
the infant drinks, what will be the characteristic sign that will describe pyloric stenosis?
A. An olive-size lump can be palpated
B. There is gastric peristalsic waves from left to right across the abdomen
C. A hypertrophied sphincter can be seen on ultrasound.
D. A tingling sensation is felt on the lower extremities
55. Shee Jan Long a 10 months old infant was admitted to the hospital for severe abdominal
pain.
The doctor found out that the distal ileal segment of the childs bowel has invaginated into the
cecum. The nurse will suspect what disease condition?
A. Intussusception
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Hirschprungs disease
D. Vaginismus
56. In intussusceptions, children suddenly draw up their legs and cry as if they are in severe
pain and
possibly vomit. Another manifestation of such disease is the presence of blood in the stool.
What is
the characteristic stool of client with intussuscepton?
A. Coffee ground
B. Black and Tarry
C. Currant jelly stool
D. Watery stool
57. A 4-year-old child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. As a nurse, you must
monitor
the child closely for:
A. Diarrhea
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
58. A nurse is monitoring for signs of dehydration in a 1-year-old child who has been
hospitalized for
diarrhea. The nurse prepares to take the childs temperature and avoids which method of
measurement?
A. Tympanic
B. Axillary
C. Rectal
D. Electronic
59. A home care nurse provides instructions to the mother of an infant with cleft palate
regarding

feeding. Which statement if made by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
A. I will use a nipple with a small hole to prevent choking.
B. I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the nipple on the lower lip.
C. I will allow the infant time to swallow.
D. I will allow the infant to rest frequently to provide time for swallowing what has been
placed in
the mouth.
60. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit following a surgical repair of a cleft lip
located at
the right side of the lip. The nurse places the infant in which most appropriate position?
A. On the right side
B. On the left side
C. Prone
D. Supine
61. A clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that a
diagnosis
of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is suspected. The nurse expects to
note
which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?
A. Severe projectile vomiting
B. Coughing at night time
C. Choking with feedings
D. Incessant crying
SITUATION: Human development is one of the important concepts that a nurse should learn to
be
able to deal appropriately with their clients of different developmental stages.
62. Which statement best describes when fertilization occurs?
A. When the spermatozoon passes into the ovum and the nuclei fuse into a single cell.
B. When the ovum is discharged from the ovary near the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube.
C. When the embryo attaches to the uterine wall.
D. When the sperm and ova undergo developmental changes resulting in a reduction in the
number of chromosomes.
63. A pregnant client asks you about fetal development. At approximately what gestational
age does
the fetuss single chambered heart begin to pump its own blood cells through main blood
vessels?
A. 10 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 3 weeks
64. At 17 weeks gestation, a fetus isnt considered to be ballotable. Ballotment means that:
A. The examiner feels rebound movement of the fetus.
B. The examiner feels fetal movement.
C. The client feels irregular, painless uterine contractions.
D. The client feels fetal movement.
65. Which hormone stimulates the development of the ovum?
A. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
D. Gonadotropin Releasing Hprmone (GnRH)
66. How long is the gestational period of a full term pregnancy?
A. Ranging from 245 days to 259 days
B. around 5,554 hours to 5,880 hours
C. More than 294 days
D. Averaging of 266 to 294 days
67. An 18 year old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive
sign of
pregnancy should the nurse expect to be present?
A. Fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler stethoscope

B. Fetal movement detectable by palpation

C. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound examination.
D. Fetal heart tones detectable by a fetoscope.
68. During her prenatal visit, a 28 year old client expresses concern about nutrition during
pregnancy. She wants to know what foods she should be eating to ensure the proper growth
and
development of her baby. Which step should the nurse take first?
A. Give the client a sample diet plan for a 2,400 calorie diet.
B. Emphasize the importance of avoiding salty and fatty foods.
C. Instruct the client to continue to eat a normal diet.
D. Assess the clients current nutritional status by taking a diet history.
69. A nurse is teaching a class about the reproductive system. She explains that fertilization
most
often takes place in the:
A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Uterus
D. vagina
70. A large number of neural tube defects may be prevented if a pregnant woman includes
which
supplement in her diet?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. B9
71. A 22 year old client is at 20 weeks gestation. She asks the nurse about the development
of her
fetus at this stage. Which of the following developments occurs at 20 weeks gestation?
A. The pancreas starts producing insulin and the kidneys produce urine.
B. The fetus follows a regular schedule of turning, sleeping, sucking, and kicking.
C. Swallowing reflex has been mastered, and the fetus sucks its thumb.
D. Surfactant forms in the lungs.
SITUATION: Developing countries such as the Philippines suffer from high infant and child
mortality
rates. Thus, as a management to the existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF launched the
IMCI.
72. A 6 month old baby Len was brought to the health center because of fever and cough for 2
days.
She weighs 5 kg. Her temperature is 38.5 taken Axillary. Further examination revealed that
she has
general rashes, her eyes are red and she has mouth ulcers non deep and non extensive, There
was
no pus draining from her eyes. Most probably Baby Len has:
a. Severe complicated measles d. Measles
b. Fever: No MALARIA e. Measles with eye or mouth complications
c. Very severe febrile disease
73. The dosage of Vit. A supplement given to Baby Len would be:
d. 100,000 IU d. 200,000 IU
e. 10,000 IU e. 20,000 IU
74. Using IMCI Chart, this child can be manage with:
f. Treat the child with paracetamol and follow up in 2 days if the fever persist
g. Give the first dose of antibiotic, give Vit. A, apply Gentian Violet for mouth ulcers and refer
urgently to hospital
h. Give100, 000 international units of Vit. A
i. Give200, 000 international units of Vit. A
e. Give Vit. A, apply Gentian violet for mouth ulcers and follow up in 2 days
75. The following are signs of severe complicated measles:
j. Clouding of the cornea
k. Deep or extensive mouth ulcers

l. Pus draining from the eyes

m. A and b only
n. All of the above
76. If the child is having 2 weeks ear discharges, how would you classify and treat the
child:
1. Green 5. Dry the ear by wicking
2. Yellow 6. 5 days antibiotic
3. Pink 7. Urgent referral with first dose of antibiotic
4. Red
a. 4,7 b. 2,5,6 c. 1,5 d. 3,7 e. 2,5
77. The following are treatments for acute ear infections:
a. Dry the ear by wicking d. A and c only
b. Give antibiotics for 5 days e. All of the above
c. Follow up in 5 days
78. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following, except:
a. Ear pain
b. If discharge is present for how long?
c. Ear discharge
d. Is there any fever?
e. None of the above
79. If the child does not have ear problem, using IMCI, what should you do as a nurse?
a. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition
b. Check for ear pain
c. Check for tender swelling behind the ear
d. Check for ear discharge
80. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
81. An ear discharge that has been present for less than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
82. If the child has severe classification because of ear problem, what would be the best thing
that
you should do as a nurse?
a. Dry the ear by wicking
b. Give an antibiotic for 5 days
c. Refer urgently
d. Instruct mother when to return immediately
Situation: Primary Health Care (PHC) is defined by the WHO as essential health care made
universally accessible to individuals, families and communities.
83. The WHO held a meeting in this place where Primary health Care was discussed. What is
this
place?
A. Alma Ata
B. Russia
C. Vienna
D. Geneva
Situation: The national objective for maintaining the health of all Filipinos is a primary
responsibility
of the DOH.
84. The following are mission of the DOH except:
a. Ensure accessibility
b.Quality of health care
c.Health for all Filipinos
d.Quality of Life of all Filipinos
e. None of the above
85. The basic principles to achieve improvement in health include all BUT:
a. Universal access to basic health services must be ensured
b. The health and nutrition of vulnerable groups must be prioritized

c. Performance of the health sector must be enhanced

d. Support the frontline workers and the local health system
e. None of the above
86. Which of the following is not a primary strategy to achieve health goals:
a. Support of local health system development
b. Development of national standards for health
c. Assurance of health care for all
d. Support the frontline workers
e. None of the above
87. According to the WHO health is:
A. state of complete physical, mental and social well being not merely the absence of
disease
B. A science and art of preventing disease and prolonging life
C. A science that deals the optimum level of functioning of the Individual, family and
community
D. All of the above
88. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient is a:
Primary level of prevention
B. Secondary level of prevention
C. Tertiary level of prevention
D. Specialized level of prevention
89. Local health boards were established at the provincial, city and municipal levels. At the
municipal level,the chairman of the board is the:
A.Rural Health physician
B.Governor
C.Mayor
D.Chairman of the Committee on Health
90. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:
A. Treatment of health problems
B. Preventing health problems and promoting optimum health
C. Identification and assessment of health problems
D. Illness end of the wellness-illness continuum.
91. In asking the mother about her childs problem the following communication skills should
be
used except:
a. Use words that the mother understand
b. Give time for the mother to answer the questions
c. Listen attentively
d. Ask checking questions
e. None of the above
92. Which of the following is the principal focus of the CARI program of the Department of
Health?
a. Teach other community health workers how to assess patients
b. Mortality reduction through early detection
c. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where to refer
d. Enhancement of health team capabilities
93. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory problems in the community where
your
health facility serves. Your primary role therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to
pneumonia is
to?
a. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to have a meeting with mothers
b. Refer cases to hospitals
c. Make home visits to sick children
d. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia
94. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of
unnecessary deaths from pneumonia and other severe disease?
a. Weighing of the child
b. Provision of careful assessment

c. Taking of the temperature of the sick child

d. Giving of antibiotics
95. A 4-month-old child was brought to your clinic because of cough and colds. Which of the
following is your primary action?
a. Teach the mother how to count her childs breathing?
b. Refer to the doctor
c. Assess the patient using the chart on management of children with cough
d. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
e. All of the above
96. In responding to the care concerns to children with severe disease, referral to the hospital
is of
the essence especially if the child manifests which of the following?
a. Stopped feeding well c. Wheezing
b. Fast breathing d. Difficulty to awaken
Elvira Magalpok is a 26 year old woman you admit to a birthing room. Shes been having
contractions 45 seconds long and 3 minutes apart for the last 6 hours. She tells you she wants
to
have her baby naturally without any analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the Army
and
assigned overseas, so he is not with her. Although her sister lives only two blocks from the
hospital,
Elvira doesnt want her called. She asks if she can talk to her mother on the telephone instead.
As
you finish assessing contractions, she screams with pain and shouts, Ginagawa ko na ang
lahat ng
makakaya ko! Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirap kong ito?
97. Elvira didnt recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:
A. Sudden increase energy from epinephrine release
B. Nagging but constant pain in the lower back.
C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder pressure.
D. Show or release of the cervical mucus plug.
98. Elvira asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be:
A. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion.
B. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion.
C. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion.
D. Left sacroanterior with full flexion.
99. Elvira is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contraction would you
report
as abnormal?
A. Any length over 30 seconds.
B. A contraction over 70 seconds in length.
C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds.
D. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds.
100. You assess Elviras uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late
deceleration begin?
A. Forty-five seconds after the contraction is over.
B. Thirty seconds after the start of a contraction.
C. After every tenth or more contraction.
D. After a typical contraction ends.

NURSING PRACTICE III

SITUATION: Mang Roberto was long diagnosed with chronic renal failure. You are his nurse
and the
following question assesses your knowledge in the different fluid and electrolyte imbalances
that
are associated with chronic renal failure.
1. Disequilibrium syndrome is always a risk in all clients undergoing hemodialysis for chronic
renal
failure. The nurse should assess Mang Roberto for which of the following sign and symptom
associated with Disequilibrium syndrome?
A. Hypertension, Tachycardia and Fever
B. Imbalance, gait abnormality and inability to stand up
C. Restlessness, irritability and generalized weakness
D. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness and twitching
2. After Mang Roberto completed his hemodialysis, The nurse should use which indicators to
evaluate the clients status after dialysis?
A. Potassium level and weight C. Blood Urea Nitrogen and Creatinine level
B. Vital signs and Blood Urea Nitrogen D. Vital signs and weight
3. Mang Robertos chronic renal failure was caused by a crush injury to the lower leg right
after an
accident. The acute renal failure progresses to chronic renal failure until now, his case is
irreversible.
The nurse is correct in determining that the cause of Mang Robertos Acute renal failure before
was:
A. Pre renal B. Post renal C. Renal D. Extra renal
4. Mang Roberto misses 2 sessions of hemodialysis. Blood was drawn and is sent for analysis.
Which
electrolyte disturbance is expected in a client with chronic renal failure?
A. Hypernatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Alkalemia
5. In Mang Robertos ECG tracing, you would expect to find:
A. Depressed T wave C. A peaked T wave
B. Presence of U wave D. Inverted T wave
6. The main indicator of the need for hemodialysis is:
A. Ascites B. Acidosis C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalemia
7. To gain access to the vein and artery, an AV shunt was used for Mang Roberto. The most
serious
problem with regards to the AV shunt is:
A. Septicemia B. Clot formation C. Exsanguination D. Vessel sclerosis
8. When caring for Mang Robertos AV shunt on his right arm, you should:
A. Cover the entire cannula with an elastic bandage
B. Notify the physician if a bruit and thrill are present
C. User surgical aseptic technique when giving shunt care
D. Take the blood pressure on the right arm instead
9. Mang Roberto Complains of tingling in the finger and twitching of the muscles. This is
caused by:
A. Acidosis C. Calcium Depletion
B. Potassium retention D. Sodium chloride depletion
10. Which of the following is an appropriate instruction for Mang Roberto?
A. Follow a high potassium diet
B. Strictly follow the hemodialysis schedule
C. Use salt substitute instead of the normal table salt
D. Use alcohol on the skin to clean it due to integumentary changes
SITUATION: Mang Robertos condition continues to worsen and the doctor suggested Kidney
Transplantation.
11. Mang Roberto has just received a renal transplant and has started cyclosporine therapy to
prevent graft rejection. Which of the following condition is a major complication of this drug
therapy?
A. Depression C. Infection

B. Hemorrhage D. Peptic ulcer disease

12. Which of the following is the rationale why Azathioprine (Imuran), Prednisone or
Cyclosporine (SandImmune) is given in a client that has undergone Kidney Transplantation?
A. To enhance the immune system preventing rejection
B. To suppress the immune system preventing rejection
C. To enhance kidney function
D. To protect the newly transplanted kidney from invading pathogens
ANSWER: B (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
13. Immunosuppression following Kidney transplantation is continued:
A. For life C. A week after transplantation
B. 24 hours after transplantation D. Until the kidney is not anymore rejected
14. Steroids, if used following kidney transplantation would cause which of the following side
effects?
A. Alopecia C. Orthostatic Hypotension
B. Increase Cholesterol Level D. Increase Blood Glucose Level
15. Mang Roberto was readmitted to the hospital with acute graft rejection. Which of the
following
assessment finding would be expected?
A. Hypotension C. Decreased WBC
B. Normal Body Temperature D. Elevated BUN and Creatinine
SITUATION: Nanette was rushed to the hospital due to burns. Witnesses told the emergency
team
that Nanette fell asleep while she is holding her cigarette thus, burning the bed sheets and
herself.
2nd and 3rd degree burns are on the face, neck, anterior and posterior trunk as well as the
anterior of
the left leg and the whole right arm was burned. First degree burns are located on the anterior
portion of the right leg and the anterior portion of the right and left arm. Nanette is a 110 lbs
female
client.
16. The priority nursing intervention for Nanette is to:
A. Assess airway, breathing and circulation C. Apply ointment over the burned surface
B. Check Nanettes Vital Signs D. Administer oxygen inhalation
17. Using the rule of nine, the percentage of the burned area on Nanettes skin is:
A. 63% B. 81% C. 90% D. 72%
18. The rationale in giving IV fluids for Miss Nanette is to prevent:
A. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolemic shock
B. Septic Shock D. Neurogenic Shock
19. A second degree burn on Nanette is characterized by:
A. Eschars C. Blisters and Edema
B. Broken skin with fat exposed D. Insensate wound draining purple fluid
20. During the first 48 hours, Burn victims is observed for metabolic acidosis resulting from
loss of
bicarbonate ions that arises from:
A. Potassium loss C. Sodium loss
B. Calcium loss D. Magnesium loss
21. IV fluid that is commonly used in clients with dehydration, diarrhea and burns is:
A. Lactated Ringers C. Normal Saline Solution
B. D5 NSS D. NSS Plus potassium
22. The doctor uses Parkland/Baxter formula in computing the amount of fluid needed for
Nanettes
resuscitation. You would expect that the doctor will order how many milliliters of IV fluids?
A. 6 liters during the first 8 hours, 3 liters on the next 8 hours and another 3 liters
on another 8
hours.

B. 12 liters during the first 8 hours and another 12 liters on the succeeding 16 hours
C. 8 liters during the first 8 hours, 4 liters on the next 8 hours and another 8 liters on another
8
hours
D. 10 liters during the first 8 hours and another 10 liters on the succeeding 16 hours
23. During the emergent phase of burn, which of the following is an expected finding on
Nanette?
A. Decreased heart rate C. Increased blood pressure
B. Elevated hematocrit levels D. Increased urinary output
24. Which electrolyte disturbance is the most lethal in client with burn?
A. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia
25. The priority consideration for Nanette during the early phase of burn is:
A. Pain C. Fluid status
B. Body Image D. Infection of the wound
SITUATION: Joanna Marie, a 40 year old client was diagnosed with breast cancer.
26. The nurse is instruction Joanna about breast self examination. The nurse instructs Joanna
to
perform Breast Self Examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation C. Every month during ovulation
B. 1 week after menstruation begins D. Weekly at the same time each day
27. Joanna is taking Adriamycin together with tamoxifen. You know that Adriamycin works by:
A. Inhibiting DNA Synthesis C. Changing the osmotic gradient of the cell
B. Preventing Folic acid synthesis D. Increase cell wall permeability
28. Joannas tumor is said to be ERP+. You know that Estrogen receptor positive tumor is:
A. A good indicator of the possibility of breast reconstruction
B. A good indicator for giving an estrogen replacement therapy to decrease the tumor size
C. An indicator that the client might respond to tamoxifen
D. An indicator that metastasis has already occured
29. Which of the following maybe use to her post operatively?
A. Cystoclysis bottle C. Jackson Pratt Drain
B. 3 way bottle system D. Pleural drainage
30. All of the following are applicable nursing diagnosis for Joanna except:
A. Pain upon lying down C. Potential for sexual dysfunction
B. Body Image Disturbance D. Self care deficit r/t immobility of the arm
31. Rationale for elevating the arm of Joanna post operatively is to:
A. Improve coping ability C. Improve Edema
B. Prevent infection D. Decrease bleeding and drainage
32. After Modified radical mastectomy, which assessment finding indicates that Joanna is
experiencing a complication related to surgery?
A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain
B. Pain at the incision site
C. Complaints of decrease sensation in the operative site
D. Arm edema on the operative arm
33. Allowing Joanna to perform deep breathing exercise will prevent:
A. Pneumonia C. Atelectasis
B. Bronchitis D. Lymph edema
34. The nurse is teaching the sisters of Joanna about Mammography, The nurse tells the client
that:
A. Mammography takes about 1 hour
B. To avoid the use of deodorant, powders and creams on the day of the test
C. There is no discomfort associated with the procedure
D. To maintain an NPO status 8 hours before the procedure
35. Joanna was brought to the hospice. During your visit, Joanna expresses that If I can just
live a
little longer to see my 3 sons finish college, I will be ready to die. Which phase of the grieving
process Is Joanna experiencing?
A. Denial B. Bargaining C. Depression D. Anger

36. In the Philippines, The use of this method is strongly suggested and recommended than
any
other methods to decrease death due to breast cancer:
A. BSE B. Mammography C. Breast Biopsy D. Sugery
37. The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse
should
explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. Thickness and Fullness
B. Malignant or Benign Lumps
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. Fibrocystic masses
38. Anita, Joannas sister is performing BSE and she stands in front of the Mirror. The rationale
for
standing in front of the mirror is to check for:
A. Unusual discharges coming out from the breast
B. Any obvious malignancy
C. The Size and Contour of the breast
D. Thickness and lumps in the breast
39. The nurse puts a folded towel under the Left shoulder of the Client to be examined for
clinical
BSE. Why is this so?
A. To make the left shoulder nearer to the hands of the clinician for palpation
B. To make the pectoralis muscle prominent, toning the breast tissue for better palpation
C. To put the breast in a more lateral position to better ease the palpation
D. To balance and spread the breast tissue thus easing palpation
40. 30. A 52-year-old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right
breast
during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that
this
client's lump is cancerous?
1. Non capsulated mass
2. Fixed, irregular and hard
3. Presence of Orange peel skin
4. Soft and mobile
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,3,4
SITUATION: Agnes, a client with Leukemia is in the clinic for her routine check up.
41. Which finding is unlikely when assessing Agnes?
A. Small abdomen C. Increased WBC Counts
B. Bruises and Petechiae D. Dyspnea during exercise or exertion
42. The most appropriate diagnostic examination for Agnes is:
A. RBC Exam C. Complete Blood Count
B. WBC Count D. Bone Marrow Aspiration
43. What should you encourage her to use in order to maintain her oral hygiene?
A. Use regular toothbrush C. Use cotton pledget only
B. Gargle with mouthwash only D. Use soft toothbrush
44. Which of the following complications are the three main consequence of leukemia?
A. Bone deformities, Infection and Anemia
B. Anemia, Infection and Bleeding tendencies
C. Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia and Anemia
D. Leukocytosis, Thrombocytosis and Polycythemia
45. You noticed that Agnes nose is bleeding, You would instruct Agnes to:
A. lie supine with his neck extended. C. blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his
nose.
B. sit upright, leaning slightly forward. D. hold his nose while bending forward at the
waist.
SITUATION: Mr. Ramos is a 60 year old male client admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis
of pneumonia. He complains of pain when coughing.
46. What action should the nurse take in assisting Mr. Ramos in doing deep breathing and
coughing

exercise?
A. Recognize that the patient is too sick to cough at this time
B. Splint the patients chest while he coughs
C. Turn Mr. Ramos to the unaffected side and ask him to cough
D. Encourage her to cough and then give her pain medication as ordered
47. A sputum specimen was collected from Mr. Ramos for culture and sensitivity. This study is
to ascertain which of the following facts?
A. The virulence of microorganism involved
B. The antibiotics which would be most helpful
C. The patients probably reaction to the causative microorganism
D. The patients sensitivity to antibiotics
ANSWER: B (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
48. Laboratory reports shows RBC : 2,000,000, WBC: 5,000 and Platelets : 300,000.
Considering the above findings which of the following clinical manifestation is the most likely
manifestation Mr.
Ramos is to exhibit?
A. Decrease respiration and increase pulse C. Increase respiration and normal pulse
B. Normal Respiration and increase pulse D. Increase pulse and increase respiration
49. Because of these laboratory findings, the nurse is aware that her most appropriate action
is to
prevent which of the following?
A. Infections and cross contamination
C. Injury might lead to bleeding
B. Over activity that might lead to exhaustion
D. Hypercoagulation that might lead to thrombus formation
50. Upon discharge, the health teaching of the nurse to Mr. Ramos should include which of the
following except:
A. Avoid fatigue C. Maintain the usual exercise
B. Maintain hygiene D. Avoid drafts
SITUATION: Blood transfusion was ordered for Andre after an episode of severe bleeding.
51. Before blood transfusion, The nurse priority is to assess Andre for which of the following?
A. Clotting time B. Vital Signs C. Sodium D. Weight
52. Before administering the transfusion, The nurse must start an IV infusion of which of the
following?
A. Sterile water B. NSS C. D5W D. D5LR
53. Which of the following is an appropriate needle for Blood transfusion?
A. A butterfly needle C. A 25 gauge angiocatheter
B. An 18 gauge angiocatheter D. A 21 gauge angiocatheter
54. Which of the following is not expected to be done by the nurse in case of a whole blood
transfusion?
A. Assess the venipuncture for any signs of bleeding or hematoma
B. Prepare the blood transfusion using a microdrip tubing
C. Assess the patient closely for any reaction
D. Make sure that the drip chamber of the IV fluid is partially filled with blood
55. Which of the following is the recommended flow rate for the first 20 minutes of blood
transfusion?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 60
56. Solutions that are said to be compatible with the osmolarity of the body are called:
A. Isotonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Normosol
D. Hypertonic

ANSWER: A (JUNE 2009)

PRN:
57. Which of the following are signs of hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion?
A. Itching, urticaria and wheezing
B. Cough, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion
C. High fever and chills
D. Fever and backache
58. In any event of an adverse hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion, Nursing
intervention
should focus on:
A. Slow the infusion, Call the physician and assess the patient
B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send the remaining blood to the laboratory
and call the
physician
C. Stop the infusion, Call the physician and assess the client
D. Slow the confusion and keep a patent IV line open for administration of medication
59. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be
administered
within:
A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 4 hours D. 6 hours
60. During blood administration, the nurse should carefully monitor adverse reaction. To
monitor
this, it is essential for the nurse to:
A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
D. Tell the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction
SITUATION : John Mark is a 21 year old male client who was rushed following an automobile
accident. He is very anxious, dyspneic and in severe pain.
61. The nurse notices that Johns chest tube was dislodged from the chest. The most
appropriate
nursing intervention is to:
A. Notify the physician
B. Cover the insertion site with petrolatum gauze
C. Immersed the tube into a bottle of sterile water
D. Clamp the tube
62. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively, the nurse should:
A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Flush the chest tube with 30 to 60 ml of NSS every 4 hours
C. Maintain the client in a sidelying position always
D. Strip the chest tube in the direction towards the client
63. JMs chest tube is said to be functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
C. Suction tubing attached to the wall unit
D. Vesicular breath sounds heard in all lung fields
64. He is intubated with an endotracheal tube and is placed on a mechanical ventilator. Which
findings alerts the nurse to an additional problem with regards to the respiratory function?
A. Dull of percussion in the 3rd to 5th intercostals space, midclavicular line
B. Decreased paradoxical motion
C. Louder breath sounds on the right chest
D. Vesicular breath sound heard at the lung bases
65. The right chest wall of peter moves in during inspiration and balloons out when he
exhales. He is
very dyspneic. The nurse understands that this symptom is indicative of:
A. Hemothorax B. Flail Chest C. Atelectasis D. Pleural effusion

SITUATION : Rene is a 3 y/o boy brought to the health center for fever and cough. You noted
grayish
pinpoint dots located at the buccal mucosa. A maculopapular rash was noted on his face.
Questions
20-25 refer to this.
66. The patients disease is most likely:
A. Rubeola C. Rubella
B. Diptheria D. Pneumonia
67. The lesion in his buccal mucosa is called:
A. Forchheimers spot C. Ghons tubercle
B. Pseudomembrane D. Kopliks spot
68. What is the exanthem of measles?
A. Maculopapular rash B. Forchheimers spot
B. Pseudomembrane D. Kopliks spot
69. The nurse knows that the most common complication of Measles is:
A Pneumonia and larynigotracheitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Otitis Media
D. Bronchiectasis
70. Measles vaccine is given at how many months?
A. At birth B. 1 months C. 6 months D. 9 months
71. All of the following are necessary household management in preventing the spread of
Measles
at home except:
A. Boil foods that are not eaten by the patient
B. Separate eating utensils of the patient from that of other members of the family
C. Isolate the patient when symptoms start to appear
D. Children should be watch out for complications of the disease
72. A client suspected of having tetanus asks the nurse about immunizations against tetanus.
The
nurse explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it:
A. Stimulates plasma cells directly
B. Provides a high titer of antibodies
C. Provide immediate active immunity
D. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity
73. Miss Kate is a bread vendor and you are buying a bread from her. You noticed that she
receives
and changes money and then hold the bread without washing her hand. As a nurse, What will
you
say to Miss Kate?
A. Miss, Dont touch the bread Ill be the one to pick it up
B. Miss, Please wash your hands before you pick up those breads
C. Miss, Use a pick up forceps when picking up those breads
D. Miss, Your hands are dirty I guess Ill try another bread shop
74. The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be:
A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B. Hansens Bacilli
C. Bacillus Anthraces
D. Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus
75. A client who was exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive
immunity
which:
A. Increases the production of short lived antibodies
B. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
C. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large number of antibodies
76. They are the proteins in the body that are produced in response to the invasion to
pathogens
and microorganisms.

A. Antigen
B. Amino Acids
C. Agglutinogen
D. Antibody
77. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe human immunoglobulin. The
student
correctly states that these types of vaccine are:
A. Vaccine that have their virulence diminished so as to not produce a full blown clinical illness
B. Vaccine that contains pathogens made inactive by either chemicals or heat
C. Bacterial toxins that have been made inactive by either chemicals or heat
D. Vaccines collected from pooled blood of people and provide antibodies to variety
of diseases
78. Mode of transmission of leprosy aside from skin contact is by:
A. Oral fecal C. Borrowing utensil
B. Sexual contact D. Droplet infection
79. Which of the following is not a late sign and symptoms of leprosy?
A. Paralysis C. Madarosis
B. Contractures D. Gynecomastia
80. Which among the following person is most susceptible to leprosy?
A. Mark, 21 year old athlete
B. Arvinn, 16 year old student
C. JC, 12 year old student
D. Clarence, 9 year old student
81. The nurse is documenting her care for a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the
following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate?
A. Impaired gas exchange C. Ineffective airway clearance
B. Deficient fluid volume D. Ineffective breathing pattern
82. The nurse walks into the room of a client who has had surgery for testicular cancer. The
client
says that he'll be undesirable to his wife, and he becomes tearful. He expresses that he has
spoiled a
happy, satisfying sex life with his wife, and says that he thinks it might be best if he would just
die.
Based on these signs and symptoms, which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for
planning purposes?
A. Situational low self-esteem C. Social isolation
B. Unilateral neglect D. Risk for loneliness
83. A 92-year-old client with prostate cancer and multiple metastases is in respiratory distress
and is
admitted to a medical unit from a skilled nursing facility. His advance directive states that he
doesn't
want to be placed on a ventilator or receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Based on the
client's
advance directive, the nursing plan of care should include which intervention?
A. Check on the client once per shift.
B. Provide mouth and skin care only if the family requests it.
C. Turn the client only if he's uncomfortable.
D. Provide emotional support and pain relief.
84. Which of these findings is an early sign of bladder cancer?
A. Painless Hematuria C. Nocturia
B. Occasional Polyuria D. Dysuria
85. During a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a client demonstrates
signs
of AIDS-related dementia. The nurse should give the highest priority to which nursing
diagnosis?
A. Bathing or hygiene self-care deficit C. Dysfunctional grieving
B. Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion D. Risk for injury
86. When assessing a client with partial thickness burns over 60% of the body, which of the
following should the nurse report immediately?

A. Complaints of intense thirst C. Urine output of 70 ml the 1st hour

B. Moderate to severe pain D. Hoarseness of the voice
87. A client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care. The
nurse's
primary concern should be:
A. fluid resuscitation. C. body image.
B. infection. D. pain management.
88. client is admitted to the hospital following a burn injury to the left hand and arm. The
client's
burn is described as white and leathery with no blisters. Which degree of severity is this burn?
A. First degree burn C. Third degree burn
B. Second degree burn D. Fourth degree burn
89. A client with end-stage liver cancer tells the nurse he doesn't want extraordinary measures
used
to prolong his life. He asks what he must do to make these wishes known and legally binding.
How
should the nurse respond to the client?
A. Tell him that it's a legal question beyond the scope of nursing practice.
B. Give him a copy of the client's bill of rights.
C. Provide information on active euthanasia.
D. Discuss documenting his wishes in an advance directive.
90. A client is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her chronic systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE). She gets angry when her call bell isn't answered immediately. The most
appropriate response to her would be:
A. "You seem angry. Would you like to talk about it?"
B. "Calm down. You know that stress will make your symptoms worse."
C. "Would you like to talk about the problem with the nursing supervisor?"
D. "I can see you're angry. I'll come back when you've calmed down."
SITUATION: Consider the following hypothesis: The Job turnover rate and job dissatisfaction
levels
of graduate nurses who have worked less than 2 years is higher than for those graduate
nurses who
have worked for more than 2 years
91. A systematic, objective, process of analyzing phenomena importance to nursing is termed
as:
A. Nursing research C. Scientific research
B. Research D. Research process
92. The major reason for conducting nursing research is to:
A. Improve nursing care for clients
B. Promote the growth of the nursing profession
C. Document to cost effectiveness of nursing care
D. Ensure accountability of nursing practice
93. Which is you independent variable?
A. Job dissatisfaction C. Job dissatisfaction and Job turn over rate
B. Job turn over rate D. Length of employment
94. Which is your dependent variable?
A. Job dissatisfaction C. Job dissatisfaction and Job turn over rate
B. Job turn over rate D. Length of employment
95. The type of hypothesis in this situation is classified as:
A. Simple, Directional C. Complex, Directional
B. Simple, Non Directional D. Complex, Research
96. The problem that a researcher would like to give emphasis Is there a relationship
between
timing of the administration of psychological support and feelings of wellbeing among
terminally ill
patients. The appropriate null hypothesis for this problem is:
A. Feelings of wellbeing of terminally ill patients who received psychological support is similar
to the
feelings of wellbeing of those terminally ill patients who did receive said psychological support.

B. There is no relationship between the timing of administration of psychological

support and
feelings of well-being among terminally ill patients
C. Factors are not appropriate to determine any desired results
D. There is no relationship between the timing of the administration of psychological support
and
feelings of adequacy among terminally ill patients
97. In the above number, your dependent variable is:
A. Terminally ill patients C. Timing of psychological support
B. Feelings of wellbeing D. Time
98. In the recent technological innovations, which of the following describe researches that are
made to improve and make human life easier?
A. Pure research C. Basic research
B. Applied research D. Experimental research
99. After the researcher has determined and read relevant literature, she has to:
A. Write down the review
B. Organized the relevant literature
C. Analyze potential literature
D. Integrate the review of literature
100. The final product of review of related literature is:
A. Pool of related literature
B. Organized relevant literature
C. Analyzed potential literature
D. Written review of literature
NURSING PRACTICE IV
Situation : Cancer of the prostate is the leading cancer in Men other than skin cancer. The
following
questions will assess your knowledge and theoretical foundation in dealing with clients with
prostate cancer.
1. Among the following population group, who has a higher risk in the development of prostate
cancer?
A. African-American C. Asian
B. Caucasian D. Hispanics
2. Which among the following is NOT a risk factor for prostate cancer?
A. A family member with prostate cancer C. High fat and diet high in red meats
B. Advancing age D. Smoking
3. Mr. Juan Jose Rodrigo has been diagnosed with prostate cancer just a few hours ago. Which
of the
following sign would alert the nurse that the cancer is already advanced?
A. I have difficulty starting my urination
B. My backs and hips are painful and my right leg is slightly larger than the other
C. My urine is bloody
D. My urine is bouncing
4. At the initial sign and symptoms of prostate cancer, before diagnosis, the physician can
perform a
screening test to detect a characteristic STONY HARD prostate and nodules at the prostate
area
using:
A. Cytoscopy C. DRE
B. PSA D. MRI
5. To diagnose the presence of prostate cancer, the physician will perform:
A. Transrectal needle biopsy of the prostate
B. Test to identify the PSA levels
C. Transrectal ultrasound
D. Radiolabeled monoclonal antibody capromab penetide with indium-111
6. After the removal of the prostate tissue, The physician soaked the solution in formaldehyde
in a
sterile specimen container and asked you to send the specimen immediately. Which of the
following

is a correct nursing action?

A. Dr. Ruiz, I dont think this specimen is acceptable. Please redo the procedure and do not
soak the
specimen in any medium.
B. Dr. Ruiz, I just want you to know that you soaked the specimen in formaldehyde
wherein, it
should not be soaked in any medium at all.
C. Accept the specimen because there is nothing wrong with the physicians action
D. Dr. Ruiz, it should be soaked in NSS not formaldehyde. I am going to report you to the
board of
medicine for this could lead to a false result.
7. In any biopsy, the specimen is sent to the:
A. Radiologist B. Nearest of Kin C. Pathologist D. Medical
Technologist
8. PSA is used not for the detection but to know if the cancer is responding to treatment or
advancing. The nurse knows that the abbreviation PSA stands for:
A. Prostate specific antibody C. Prostate specified antibody
B. Prostate specific antigen D. Prostate specified antigen
9. In testing for the PSA, the nurse will collect which specimen?
A. Blood B. Urine C. Feces D. Prostatic fluid
10. Mr. Rodrigo said that he has difficulty voiding. Which of the following is the best nursing
action
to encourage voiding in any clients with voiding difficulties?
A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to promote urination
B. Bring the client to the bathroom and stay with him when the sensation to void is felt by the
client
C. Catheterize the client
D. Encourage the use of bathroom or commode rather than bedpans
Situation : Care of clients with tracheotosmy is often a challenge to a beginning nurse. The
following
questions will test your knowledge on Tracheostomy and its related care.
11. You know that when rendering tracheotosmy care, the priority consideration is always to
keep
the airway patent and also to prevent infection at the site. The nurse knows the technique
used in
rendering Tracheostomy care is:
A. Clean B. Disinfected C. Sterile D. Medical
12. Prior to the suctioning or removal of the inner cannula, the nurse knows that the client is
prepared and positioned in:
A. High fowlers B. Semi fowlers position C. Left side lying D. Sims
13. In cleaning the inner cannula or other parts of the tracheotosmy tube, The best cleansing
mediums are:
A. Hydrogen peroxide and Sterile NSS
B. Providone Iodine and Sterile NSS
C. Alcohol and Sterile NSS
D. Alcohol and Hydrogen Peroxide
14. In contrary with Tracheostomy tubes, sizes of chest tubes are expressed in terms of:
A. French B. Gauge C. M2 D. Diameter
15. Which of the following is NOT true with regards to securing the Tracheostomy?
A. The cuff provides sufficient securing
B. The Tracheostomy can be sutured in place
C. The Tracheostomy can be stapled in place
D. Tie or Velcro tie are used to generally secure the Tracheostomy around the client
16. The nurse knows that in Tracheostomy creation, 1% Lidocaine and 1:100,000 Epinephrine
is
injected at the incision site. The purpose of Lidocaine is mainly to provide anesthetic effect
while the
Epinephrine is needed to:
A. Relax the bronchus and dilate the airway for easier insertion

B. To promote faster healing

C. To prevent the Vasovagal reflex that might cause bradycardia
D. For Hemostasis
17. Which of the following is not considered as a regular part of a Tracheostomy tube?
A. The outer cannula C. The obturator
B. The inner cannula D. The cuff
18. Which of the following is the reason why will a surgeon select a cuffed tube over a non
cuffed
Tracheostomy tube?
A. Cuffed tube offers efficient securing C. Cuff tube offers excellent attachment
B. Cuffed tube is mainly used to prevent coughing D. For mechanical ventilation
19. The size of the Tracheostomy tube is denoted in terms of:
A. French C. Units
B. Gauge D. Size / mmID
20. The function of the obturator is:
A. To direct the outer cannula to traverse the curvature of the trachea for easier
insertion
B. In cases of emergency, when outer cannula accidentally dislodges
C. To facilitate dilation of the stoma for the insertion of the outer cannula
D. To prevent too much pressure on the jugular vein after the tie has been placed
Situation : Organ donation is a new form of treatment that provides multiple complication such
as
rejection.
21. Organ donation to save life was initially with the first transplant done by:
A. Dr. Christian Barnard of the Union of South Africa
B. Dr. Christian of the U.S.A.
C. Dr. Christian Barnard of Soviet Union
D. Dr. Christian Barnard of U.K.
22. In 1983, The FDA approved the first anti-rejection drug by the name of:
A. Cyclosporine B. Prednisone C. Imuran D. Azathioprine
23. You would expect that in cases of organ donation, you would expect that the
immunosuppressant medications such as Cyclosporine, Prednisone and Imuran are taken:
A. For 2 years C. When rejection is not anymore viable
B. When the suture heals D. For the rest of the clients life
24. Which of the following is a sign that the transplanted kidney is being rejected?
A. Fever and Weight Gain C. Chills, Fever, Polyuria
B. Fever and Weight Loss D. Anuria, Fever, Weight Gain and Hematuria
25. Among children candidates for organ transplant, when all selected children have
appropriate
tissue matches for the same donated organ, the basis for the decision as to which child gets
the
organ is given to the child who:
A. will receive the most benefit from the new organ
B. is most likely to die without the transplant
C. is selected by the lottery system for available organs
D. is at the top of the list and has waited the longest time
Situation: In a client with widespread colon cancer, A colectomy is the surgical procedure of
choice
instead of an Abdominal perineal resection.
26. Ileostomy is performed after a colectomy. The nurse will expect that the stool of the client
will
be:
A. Mushy B. Spicy C. Liquid D. Soft
27. When should the teaching about ileostomy care commence?
A. Immediately after the operation, when the anesthesia is wearing off
B. 72 hours after operation
C. When readiness and interest is observed
D. As soon as the patient is admitted
28. Which of the following indicates a need for further teaching in clients with ileostomy?

A. I am expecting a change in my diet.

B. I can remove the appliance during sleep.
C. I can still swim
D. I am prone to dehydration because of the ileostomy
29. For the clients stool to be more formed which of the following food are added to the
clients
diet?
A. Boiled rice
B. Spaghetti and macaroni
C. Cheese
D. Bran
30. An expert nurse in the field of colostomy and ileostomy is called as a/an:
A. Enterostomal Therapy Nurse C. Nurse oncologist
B. Ostomy nurse D. Nurse Enterostomist
Situation: During surgical operation, it is inevitable to utilize sutures. The nurse should know
the
basic principles in suturing as well as knowledge in selecting sutures and caring for clients with
sutures.
31. Steel has the highest tensile strength among sutures in the non absorbable category.
When you
say tensile strength, it refers to:
A. The amount of weight or force necessary to break the suture
B. The cross sectional size of the suture
C. The ability of the suture to absorb fluid
D. The force necessary to cause the knot to slip
32. In suturing the internal organs such as kidneys, liver, spleen, pancreas and stomach, the
nurse
knows that the type of suture material that the physician will most likely use is:
A. Steel B. Vicryl C. Cotton D. Silk
33. If the suture is removed to soon, the nurse knows that it could lead to failed healing of the
wound as well as infection. If the suture is removed too late, which of the following can occur?
A. Itching B. Swelling C. Scarring D. Pain
34. The nurse noticed that there are yellow and brown crustings around the area of the
suture.
Which of the following is the best cleansing medium to remove such crusting?
A. Hydrogen Peroxide B. Providone Iodine C. NSS D. Alcohol
35. If the suture is performed on the clients face. The nurse will reinforce the teaching that
the
client should return when for suture removal?
A. After 7 days C. After 10 days
B. After 3 to 4 Days D. The next day
36. Sizes of sutures denotes the diameter. The physician will perform a corneal transplant and
will
suture the eye. The nurse will prepare which of the following suture size?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 9-0
37. Who holds the packet flaps of sutures to open it and place it in the sterile table for use?
A. Scrub nurse B. Circulating nurse C. Assistant surgeon D. Surgeon
38. Non absorbable suture material such as cotton, nylon and silk are best used in suturing
which of
the following abdominal layer?
A. Skin B. Peritoneum C. Fascia D. Muscle
39. When least amount of trauma is desired, or when the client is prone to keloid formation,
the
nurse should prepare which type of the needle?
A. Swaged B. Round C. Blunt D. Taper
40. Another alternative suture for skin closure is the use of ____________
A. Staple
B. Therapeutic glue
C. Absorbent dressing

D. Invisible suture
Situation: The following are questions with regards to the OPERATING ROOM.
41. The operating room is divided into three areas, The unrestricted, the semi restricted and
the
restricted areas. Where is the operating room?
A. Restricted B. Unrestricted C. Semi restricted D. PACU
42. What OR attires are worn in the restricted area?
Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
Cap, mask, gloves, shoes
43. What OR attires are worn in the semi-restricted area?
A. scrub suit only
B. scrub suit, shoe cover, mask
C. scrub suit and head cap, with or without the shoe cover
D. head cap, mask, shoe cover only
44. One of the hidden dangers in the OR is missing instruments. What is the appropriate
approach to
this happening?
A. correct labeling
B. a place for everything and everything in its place
C. install a flush sterilizer in the OR
D. increase instrument inventory
45. PACU Vital signs monitoring is performed every:
A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes
46. Mr. T.O. has undergone surgery for lyses of adhesions. He is transferred from Post
Anesthesia
Care Unit (PACU) to the Surgical floor, the nurse should obtain blood pressure, pulse and
respiration
every:
A. 3 minutes C. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes D. 20 minutes
47. Another worthy study is the compliance to the principles of aseptic technique among the
sterile
OR team. Who does NOT belong to the sterile OR team?
A. scrub nurse C. x-ray technician
B. assistant surgeon D. surgeon
48. The patient demonstrates knowledge of the psychological response to the operation and
other
invasive procedure when she asks about:
A. Who will be with me in the OR?
B. How is the post operative pain over the site like?
C. Will I be naked during the operation?
D. Is it cold inside the?
49. Endoscopic minimally invasive surgery has evolved from diagnostic modality to a
widespread
surgical technique. What department should the nurse collaborate which is unusual in
conventional
surgery?
A. engineering department C. blood bank services
B. x-ray department D. linen section
50. When the client is discharged from the hospital and is not capable of doing the needed
care
services, the following can assume the role, EXCEPT:
A. family members C. significant others
B. chaplain D. responsible caregiver
Situation: Anesthesia is used even during the Ancient times. In its evolution, modern marvels
in the
use of anesthesia enables the nurses to develop a more competitive approach in patient care.

51. An anesthesia delivered directly to the spinal canal is known as:

A. Epidural C. General
B. Intrathecal D. Local
52. After spinal anesthesia, 30% of the patient develops spinal headache. This is due to:
A. Severe hypotension associated with Vasodilation due to the anaesthetics.
B. Increase volume of the cerebrospinal fluid due to anesthesia induction.
C. Cerebral edema due to rapid absorption of the anaesthetics.
D. CSF leakage due to the puncture created by the spinal needle in the membrane
that surrounds
the spinal cord.
53. Before the induction of spinal anesthesia, the client is placed in which of the following
preferred
position to widen the vertebral space:
A. Quasi fetal position C. Flat on bed supine position
B. Prone position D. Sidelying position affected side
54. After spinal anesthesia, to prevent spinal headache, the client is placed on which of the
following
position?
A. Sitting position C. Flat on bed, supine
B. Sidelying position affected side D. Flat on bed, prone
55. Another way to prevent spinal headache is by the use of the correct needle gauge. If the
client is
an adult client, the anaesthesiologist might order a pink spinal set. The nurse knows that the
pink
spinal set has a gauge of:
A. 12 B. 16 C. 22 D. 26
Situation: The nurse utilizes the theoretical foundation basic to perioperative nursing in the
various
nursing scenarios:
56. In medical and nursing practice, code means a call for:
A. DNR state C. clinical case
B. call to order D. cardiopulmonary resuscitation
57. The OR team collaborates from the first to the last surgical procedure. Who monitors the
activities of each OR suite?
A. scrub nurse C. circulating nurse
B. anesthesiologist D. surgeon
58. In patients with acute pancreatitis, the administration of the analgesic morphine may
cause:
A. addiction C. paralytic ileus
B. urinary retention D. spasms of the sphincter of Oddi
59. Who is responsible in daily monitoring the standards of safe, nursing practice in the
operating
suite?
A. surgeon C. OR nurse supervisor
B. perioperative nurse D. chief nurse
60. During surgery, movement of personnel should be:
A. kept to a minimum C. monitored
B. restricted D. eliminated when possible
61. The patient has a right to information regarding the operation or other invasive procedure
and
potential effects. This right is achieved through:
A. Enlightened Consent C. charting
B. preoperative visit D. doctors rounds
62. Which statement about a persons character is evident in the OR team?
A. it assists in the control of feelings, thoughts and emotions in the face of difficulty
B. it reflects the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal
behavior and actions
C. it encourages the constructive use of the pleasure of the senses

D. it refers to the quality of being righteous, correct, fair and impartial

63. You continuously evaluate the clients adaptation to pain. Which of the following behaviors
indicate appropriate adaptation?
A. The client reports pain reduction and decreased activity
B. The client denies existence of pain
C. The client can distract himself during pain episodes
D. The client reports independence from watchers
64. Pain in ortho cases may not be mainly due to the surgery. There might be other factors
such as
cultural or psychological that influence pain. How can you alter these factors as the nurse?
A. Explain all the possible interventions that may cause the client to worry
B. Establish trusting relationship by giving his medication on time
C. Stay with the client during pain episodes
D. Promote clients sense of control and participation in control by listening to his
concerns
65. In some hip surgeries, Fentanyl analgesia is given. What is your nursing priority care in
such a
case?
A. Instruct client to observe strict bed rest
B. Check for epidural catheter drainage
C. Administer analgesia through epidural catheter as prescribed
D. Assess respiratory rate carefully
Situation: Mrs. Diaz is assigned in the female surgical ward. While on duty, an 15 year old
client,
married, was admitted for CS. The informed consent for the operation has to be obtained.
66. The person legally responsible for taking the informed consent is:
A. The OR nurse who is going to assist with the operation
B. Any doctor assigned with the team
C. The doctor who is going to perform the procedure
D. The ward nurse where the patient stayed before the operation
67. Mr. Diaz has to remember the following with regard to the IC:
A. Because the patient is a minor, the parents should be asked to sign the consent.
B. The informed consent should be signed either by the patient or her 20 year old
husband if
patient is unconscious
C. Nurses has the responsibility to obtain the informed consent prior to surgery
D. Legal guardian should sign the consent since the client is 15 year old
68. The medical intern who assisted in the operation gave post operative orders. In this case,
Mrs.Diaz should:
A. Validate the order from the surgeon and request him to counter sign
B. Follow the order as long as they are within the scope of nursing practice
C. Clarify from the medical intern those that are ambiguous
D. Refuse to follow the order because it is not legal
69. After one year, Mrs. Diaz was rotated to the delivery room. As a DR Nurse, the
Obstetrician
ordered her to administer spinal anesthesia because the anaesthesiologist did not arrive at the
scene. The nurse would:
A. Give the anesthesia if the supervising nurse approves it
B. Give the anesthesia if the OB supervises her
C. Give the anesthesia if the doctor writes the order
D. Do not follow
70. Which of the following should the nurse remember when a doctor requests them to
administer
anesthesia?
A. The nurse has the right to refuse it, if the doctors order is unlawful
B. Doctors order should always be written
C. The nurse may render medical procedure if the doctor supervises him
D. The staff nurse can be accused of insubordination if she does not follow the doctors order

Situation: Miss Matias, found out that Mang Carding, newly admitted patient, has terminal
cancer
and that his nurse has not yet informed him of the diagnosis.
71. Initially, Miss Matias should:
A. Tell the doctor the Mang Carding hinted that he feels he has Cancer
B. Be available to listen when the patient decides to discuss his illness
C. Call in the family and the team to prepare Mang Carding about his impending death
D. Inform Mang Carding about his Diagnosis
72. On the second day, the wife of Mang Carding shows signs of grieving, The stages of
Grieving
identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross Are:
A. Numbness, Anger, Resolution and Reorganization
B. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Disorganization, Acceptance
C. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Resolution
D. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Detachment
73. Which of the following will be the most helpful therapy for the Grieving family?
A. Watching the video of the dying client over and over to encourage moving on
B. A course on death and dying
C. Psychotherapy
D. Group meeting with other grieving families
74. the nurse, when dealing with the relatives of a dying patients must be sensitive to their
emotional reactions. A family member who blames herself for the condition of the dying
patient
indicates that she:
A. Has major issues
B. is oversensitive
C. Has neurotic tendencies
D. Is potentially risk for suicide
75. In caring of a dying client during post mortem, the most important thing that the nurse
should
remember is:
A. Treat the body with outmost dignity
B. Close the eyes immediately before the onset of rigor mortis
C. Verify that the client is really dead by checking the ABC and double checking the death
notice
D. Close the mouth, straighten the body, elbows and knees before the onset of rigor mortis
Situation : The patients chart is a legal documentation the is admissible in the court. In
working with
the client, The protection of the information on the chart and patients privacy is one of the
priority.
You are caring for Ana, a 12 year old grade 6 pupil from manila and is one of the daughters of
Maria,
A 38 year old mother of 12.
76. Who cannot access the clients chart?
A. Maria C. Member of the health care team
B. The patient D. The nurse from the nearby hospital
77. Who owns the patient chart?
A. The patient C. The hospital
B. The doctor in charge D. The government
78. If the court issues an investigation necessitating the utilization of Anas chart, you know
that the
chart will not be admissible IF:
A. Maria refuses C. The chart is not legible
B. Ana refuses D. The chart is missing
79. The research teams from other countries are interested in investigating Anas case. They
want to
read and gather information about Ana and the manifestation of her condition. For the sake of
improving knowledge and the development of a cure, the nurse knows that research is very
important. Permission in this case will be taken from:

A. Ana C. The hospital management

B. Maria D. The doctor in charge
80. If Ana reaches the age of majority, 18 years of age, and Maria asks for her chart, which of
the
following is the best nursing action?
A. Ignore Marias request
B. Decline Marias request
C. Give the chart to the Mother of Ana
D. Tell Maria to ask permission from Ana
Situation 6 Infection can cause debilitating consequences when host resistance is
compromised
and virulence of microorganisms and environmental factors are favorable. Infection control is
one
important responsibility of the nurse to ensure quality of care.
81. Honrad, who has been complaining of anorexia and feeling tired, develops jaundice, after a
workup he is diagnosed of having Hepatitis A. his wife asks you about gamma globulin for
herself
and her household help. Your most appropriate response would be:
A. Dont worry your husbands type of hepatitis is no longer communicable
B. Gamma globulin provides passive immunity for hepatitis B
C. You should contact your physician immediately about getting gammaglobulin.
D. A vaccine has been developed for this type of hepatitis
82. Voltaire develops a nosocomial respiratory tract infection. He ask you what that means?
Your
best response would be:
A. You acquired the infection after you have been admitted to the hospital.
B. This is a highly contagious infection requiring complete isolation.
C. The infection you had prior to hospitalization flared up.
D. As a result of medical treatment, you have acquired a secondary infection.
83. As a nurse you know that one of the complications that you have to watch out for when
caring
for Omar who is receiving total parenteral nutrition is:
A. stomatitis
B. hepatitis
C. dysrhythmia
D. infection
84. A solution used to treat Pseudomonas wound infection is:
A. Dakins solution
B. Half-strength hydrogen peroxide
C. Acetic acid
D. Betadine
85. Which of the following is the most reliable in diagnosing a wound infection?
A. Culture and sensitivity
B. Purulent drainage from a wound
C. WBC count of 20,000/L
D. Gram stain testing
Situation : Respiration is one of the most important vital sign. This is usually the first Vital sign
to be
assessed more than anything for it is easily altered by the patients consciousness. The nurse
should
be aware of the different changes and alteration in respiration.
86. Another name for an abnormal breath sound is:
A. Adventurous breath sound
B. Excursion
C. Adventitious breath sound
D. Dyspnea
87. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, Kussmauls respiration is exhibited. This is evidence
that
there is the presence of:

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
88. If the nurse will auscultate the base of the lungs, it is expected that she will hear:
A. Bronchovesicular B. Tubular C. Vesicular D. Crackles
89. The respiratory center is found in the:
A. Pons B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla D. Lungs
90. Initially in asthma, you are expecting that the clients acid base disturbance is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Situation: Carbon Monoxide poisoning is said to be the 2nd leading cause of poison death. It is
said to
be the leading cause of inhalation poisoning. Mang edgardo was rushed to the hospital after
being
unconscious inside an enclosed parking lot. Carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected.
91. The pulse oximetry reading of Mang edgardo is 100%. This suggests that:
A. There is no danger of hypoxia
B. There is no carbon monoxide poisoning, it should be ruled out
C. This is not a reliable sign to rule out carbon monoxide poisoning, further
assessment is required
D. That the client has an improved chance of surviving, since the client is well oxygenated
92. Which of the following is a sign the nurse will expect to see on Mang edgardo?
A. Cherry-red skin
B. Pale skin
C. Cyanotic
D. Restlessness
93. Initially, in patient with suspected inhalation poisoning, the most important intervention at
the
scene of poisoning is:
A. Assess the patients airway breathing and circulation
B. Conduct a head to toe physical assessment
C. Administer oxygen and loosen the clients clothing
D. Carry the client on the fresh air immediately opening all windows and doors if this
is enclosed
94. Which of the following laboratory result is constantly checked in clients undergoing
treatment
for carbon monoxide poisoning?
A. Oxygen saturation C. Skin color
B. RBC count D. Carboxyhemoglobin level
95. If a client demonstrates psychoses, visual disturbance, ataxia, amnesia and confusion
even after
completion of resuscitation and the return of normal oxygenation, this will indicate that:
A. The client suffered from an irreversible brain damage
B. That the client still needs to be evaluated for this is evidence that resuscitation is not yet
complete
C. That the client will need a longer rehabilitation to go back to the previous functioning
D. That the client is exhibiting secondary gains
Situation: The physician has ordered 3 units of whole blood to be transfused to WQ following a
repair of a dissecting aneurysm of the aorta.
96. You are preparing the first unit of whole blood for transfusion. From the time you obtain it
from
the blood bank, how long should you infuse it?
A. 6 hours C. 4 hours
B. 1 hour D. 2 hours
97. What should you do FIRST before you administer blood transfusion?
A. verify client identity and blood product, serial number, blood type, cross matching results,

expiration date
B. verify client identity and blood product serial number, blood type, cross matching results,
expiration date with another nurse
C. check IV site and use appropriate BT set and needle
D. verify physicians order
98. As WQs nurse, what will you do AFTER the transfusion has started?
A. add the total amount of blood to be transfused to the intake and output
B. discontinue the primary IV of Dextrose 5% Water
C. check the vital signs every 15 minutes
D. stay with WQ for 15 minutes to note for any possible BT reactions
99. WQ is undergoing blood transfusions of the first unit. The EARLIEST signs of transfusion
reactions
are:
A. oliguria and jaundice C. hypertension and flushing
B. urticaria and wheezing D. headache, chills, fever
100. In case WQ will experience an acute hemolytic reaction, what will be your PRIORITY
intervention?
A. immediately stop the blood transfusion, infuse Dextrose 5% in Water and call the physician
B. stop the blood transfusion and monitor the patient closely
C. immediately stop the BT, infuse NSS, call the physician, notify the blood bank
D. immediately stop the BT, notify the blood bank and administer antihistamines
NURSING PRACTICE V
Situation : Mrs. Andres brought his son, Juanito, age 3 to the Pediatric clinic. She noticed that
her
son is not speaking and tend to repeat everything she says. The mother also told the nurse
that
Juanito prefers to be alone, will cry when someone will come near him and tend to rock
himself
from morning till he will fell asleep.
1. An essential clinical feature of autistic disorder is:
A. Inability to concentrate in any task
B. Easily Distracted
C. Stereotyped motor behaviors
D. Poor motor skills
2. Headbanging is a common manifestation of an autistic child. A relevant nursing diagnosis
would
be:
A. Activity intolerance C. Risk for Injury
B. Impaired physical mobility D. Impaired skin integrity
3. According to freud, Juanity is at what psychosexual stage?
A. Anal B. Oral C. Phallic D. Latency
4. Typically, if there is a change in the environment, the child will manifest which of the
following?
A. Clinging behavior C. Suicide
B. Temper tantrums D. Talks incoherently
5. The best treatment approach for autistic children is encouraging their desired behavior
through
positive reinforcement. This is:
A. Milieu Therapy B. Psychoanalysis C. Play Therapy D. Behavior Therapy
6. There is no definite cause identified for autism, but a strong link has been found on:
A. Environmental factors C. Upbringing
B. Genetic factors D. MMR vaccination
7. Which of the following is true about Autism?
A. Autism is common among boys than girls
B. Autism is common among girls than boys
C. MMR vaccination has been strongly linked in the development of Autism
D. Autistic children usually develops normal social skills
8. The mother of Juanito asked the nurse, When is autism diagnose? The nurse will respond:
A. Autism is diagnosed after 3 years old

B. Autism is diagnosed after 6 years old

C. At 4 years old, Autism is diagnosed
D. Autism is diagnosed before 3 years old
9. If a child with autism develops destructive behavior, The drug of choice that the nurse will
expect
that the physician will give to control self injury is:
A. Chlorpromazine [Thorazine] C. Time-out
B. Methylphenidate [Ritalin] D. Valium, Librium or other Anxiolytic
10. Chlorpromazine was given to the child. Which is true with regards to this medication?
A. Expect that the child will be unusually alert and hyperactive during the therapeutic period
B. The mother should decrease the fluid intake of the child as this drug causes fluid retention
C. That the drug is given in order to decrease the childs hyperactivity
D. The mother should avoid overexposing the child to sunlight for the child might
develop rashes
due to photosensitivity
Situation: Mastery of Psychotropic medications is necessary for the therapeutic improvement
in the health of the psychiatric clients.
11. Lithium is only given:
A. P.O
B. IM
C. IV
D. SQ
12. The nurse should expect that a client who cheeks the medication is a non-complaint
patient. Knowing the non compliance is the single most important factor for exacerbation and
rehospitalization, the doctor ordered prolixin [Fluphenazine Decanoate]. The nurse knows that
is it given:
A. Orally
B. Sublingually
C. IV
D. IM
ANSWER: D (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
13. Which of the following is an antidepressant?
A. Serenace (Haloperidol)
B. Valium (Diazepam)
C. Tofranil (Imipramine HCl)
D. Trilaton (Pherpenazine)
ANSWER: C (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
14. The nurse knows that the relationship between sodium and lithium is that:
A. When lithium increases, sodium also increases
B. When sodium increases, lithium also increases
C. They are inversely proportional
D. They are directly proportional
15. Which of the following class of antidepressant is the least sedating?
A. SSRI
B. MAOI
C. TCA
D. Neuroleptics
ANSWER: A (JUNE 2009)
PRN:

Situation : Mang Cardo, Age 72, is a widower with moderate Alzheimers disease. Was brought
to
the home for the Aged by his married daughter. On admission, she says to the nurse, I never
thought this would happen to us. I really feel guilty about bringing him here, I cant bear to
part with
him.
16. The nurses therapeutic response to Mang Carlos daughter is:
A. You have indeed made a sound decision, Your father needs professional care which you
cannot
provide at home.
B. Why are you feeling guilty bringing him here?
C. I know that his has been a difficult time for you. You seemed troubled about
bringing him
here.
D. You have done well everything for your father, Do not be upset. We will take care of him.
17. Initially, the nursing diagnosis would be:
A. Impaired communication C. Altered thought process
B. Impaired social interaction D. Altered family process
18. To guide the nurse in planning activities for Mang Carlos, The nurse should prioritize
soliciting
which information?
A. Support system from the significant others
B. Coping mechanism
C. Routine activities at home
D. The extent of memory impairment
19. Cardo appears to be awake and restless throughout the night. Which of the following is the
medication you are expecting to be given?
A. Diazepam [Valium]
B. Chlorpromazine [Thorazine]
C. Imipramine [Tofranil]
D. Lithium [Lithane]
ANSWER: A (JUNE 2009)
PRN:
20. One morning, Mang Cardo has difficulty putting his pajamas. In Alzheimers disease, this is
known as:
A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Anomia
21. Which of the following is the cause of Dementia of the Alzheimers type?
A. Unknown C. Increasing Age
B. Decreased Acetylcholine D. Senile plaques deposition
22. The initial sign of Dementia is:
A. Aphasia C. Confusion
B. Forgetfullness D. Restlessness
23. Mang Cardo has been talking about how he got his scratch on his left arm, he told you that
it
was caused by a shard of glass that touches his skin accidentally. The next day, he told you
that the
scratch was caused by a knife he did not see that it fell from the table towards his arms. The
next
day, he said it was bitten by an ant and he scratched it because it was itchy. This is a symptom
seen
in Dementia known as:
A. Confusion B. Altercation C. Aphasia D. Confabulation
24. Tacrine was given to the client and the nurse knows that which of the following enzyme is
periodically checked?
A. ALT B. Creatinine C. AST D. BUN

25. A client with Alzheimer's disease mumbles incoherently and rambles in a confused manner.
To
help redirect the client's attention, the nurse should encourage the client to:
A. fold towels and pillowcases. C. play cards with another client.
B. participate in a game of charades. D. perform an aerobic exercise.
Situation : A nurse is working with an aggressive client in the psychiatric unit.
26. All of the following concepts are true EXCEPT:
A. Hostility is destructive
B. Frustration develops in response to unmet needs, wants and desire
C. Anger is always incompatible with love
D. Aggression can be expressed in a constructive as well as a destructive manner.
27. Carlo is acting out hostile and aggressive feeling by kicking the chairs in the room. the
MOST
effective way to deal with Carlos behavior is initially to:
A. Set limits on the behavior by verbal command
B. Administer PRN tranquilizer
C. Remove the chairs from the room
D. Restrain the patient and place him in the Isolation Room
28. Mrs. Dizon was visiting her son at the Psychiatry Ward. Which of the following items will
the
nurse not allow to be brought inside the ward?
A. String rosary bracelet C. Bottle of coke
B. Box of cake D. Rubber shoes
29. Which of the following will probably be most therapeutic for a patient on a behavioral
modification ward?
A. If the client is agitated, discuss the feelings especially anger
B. Insist to stop obscene language by verbal reprimand
C. Give client support and positive feedback for controlling use of obscene language
D. Provide a punching bag as an alternative to express upset emotions
30. Which of the following must be considered while planning activities for the depressed
patient?
A. Activities which require exertion of energy
B. Challenging activities to get him out of his depression
C. Structured activities that the client can participate
D. Variety of unstructured activities
31. To maintain a therapeutic eye contact and body posture while interacting with angry and
aggressive individual, the nurse should:
A. keep an eye contact while staring at the client
B. keep his/her hands behind his/her back or in ones pockets
C. fold his/her arms across his/her chest
D. keep an open posture, e.g. Hands by sides but palms turned outwards
32. A patient in the ward suddenly slapped you in the face and spitted on your face and is
obviously
agitated and violent. Which of the following is the best nursing action?
A. Tell the client: Because of that, you are not going to eat your lunch, dinner and breakfast
anymore.
B. Slap the client back and say I am your nurse, you are a patient and you have no right to
hurt me.
C. Prepare a 5 member team to restraint the client
D. Respond by saying You are losing control of yourself, you slapped me and you spitted on
me and
you are way out of control
33. Which of the following is an accurate way of reporting and recording an incident?
A. When asked about his relationship with his father, client became anxious.
B. When asked about his relationship with his father, client clenched his jaw/teeth,
made a fist and turned away from the nurse.
C. When asked about his relationship with his father, client was resistant to respond

D. When asked about his relationship with his father, his anger was suppressed
34. To encourage thought, which of the following approaches is NOT therapeutic?
A. Why do you feel angry?
B. When do you usually feel angry?
C. How do you usually express anger?
D. What situations provoke you to be angry?
35. A patient grabs and about to throw it. The nurse best responds saying.
A. Stop! Put that chair down.
B. Dont be silly.
C. Stop! The security will be here in a minute.
D. Calm down.
Situation: In your professional nursing role, it is essential to establish a meaningful nursepatient
relationship.
36. A helping nurse patient relationship is characterized by which of the following?
A. Recovery promoting C. Mutual interaction
B. Growth facilitating D. Health enhancing
37. Demonstrating a helping relationship enables you to establish in the patient:
A. Compliance to treatment
B. Positive response to illness
C. Gratitude to your services
D. Some sense of trust in you
38. Therapeutic communication begins with:
A. Knowing the patient C. Interacting with the patient
B. Trust D. Knowing yourself
39. Which of the following approaches will most likely make your patient accept your help?
A. Attending to all his needs C. Demonstrating a relaxed and attending attitude
B. Calling him by first name D. Asking personal questions for health information
40. The client said I am troubled that my Son is starting to use drugs. The nurse replied,
Its
troubling and painful for you, I feel sorry about this. The nurses reply is an example of:
A. Empathy B. Sympathy C. Telepathy D. Self awareness
41. Preparation for termination of the nurse-patient relationship begins during the:
A. Termination phase C. Pre-orientation phase
B. Working phase D. Orientation phase
42. The clients past reactions to ending relationships is withdrawal. The nurse assists her to
practice better ways of coping termination by providing opportunities to:
A. Test new patterns of behavior C. Conceptualize her problem
B. Plan for alternatives D. Value and find meaning in experience
43. A male nurse reminds the client that is already time for group activities, The client
responded by
yelling to the nurse You are always telling me what to do! Just like my father! This is an
example
of:
A. Symbolization C.Reaction Formation
B. Transference D. Counter Transference
44. The longest and the most productive phase of the NPR is:
A. Termination phase C. Pre-orientation phase
B. Working phase D. Orientation phase

45. The objection of the nurse-patient relationship is to provide an opportunity of the patient
to:
A. Clarify problems C. Have a corrective emotional experience
B. Develop insights D. Develop interpersonal relationship
Situation: Mental Retardation is an increasingly common childhood disorder that impairs
learning.
46. Mental retardation is:
A. a delay in normal growth and development caused by an inadequate environment
B. a lack of development of sensory abilities
C. a condition of subaverage intellectual functioning that originates during the
developmental
period and is associated with impairment in adaptive behavior
D. a severe lag in neuromuscular development and motor abilities
47. An important principle for the nurse to follow in interacting with retarded children is:
A. seen that if the child appears contented, his needs are being met
B. provide an environment appropriate to their development task as scheduled
C. treat the child according to his chronological age
D. treat the child according to his developmental level
48. The child was classified as having an IQ of 55. This is said to be:
A. Mild Mental Retardation C. Severe Mental Retardation
B. Moderate Mental Retardation D. Profound Mental Retardation
49. Which of the following is true with regards to Mild Mental Retardation?
A. Trainable, Can reach up to 2nd grade and can reach the maturity of a 7 year old
B. Custodial and barely trainable
C. Requires total care throughout life, Mental age of a young infant
D. Educable, can reach up to grade 6 and has a maturity of a 12 year old
50. A child with an IQ of 35-49 is:
A. Barely trainable C. Educable
B. Trainable D. Requires total care
51. Which of the following is true with regards to mental retardation?
A. Mental retardation is always accompanied by physical features
B. Hereditary and perinatal factors do not result to mental retardation
C. Mental retardation is a mental illness
D. Hereditary and perinatal factors are known to result to impaired intellectual
functioning
52. The onset of mental retardation is before the child reaches what particular age?
A. 17 B. 16 C. 15 D. 18
53. The possible nursing diagnosis for a mentally retarded child who is hyperactive is:
A. Impaired physical mobility
B. Potential for injury
C. Impaired social adjustment
D. Ineffective coping
54. A tranquilizing agent given in calming a hyperactive mentally retarded is:
A. Chlorpromazine [Thorazine] C. Imipramine [Tofranil]
B. Haloperidol [Haldol] D. Diazepam [Valium]
55. This form of psychotherapy allows the child to experience and express intense or troubling
emotion in a safe environment with a caring individual:
A. Play therapy C. Behavior therapy

B. Milieu therapy D. Gestalt therapy

Situation : Margie has been diagnosed with Bipolar I disorder. The client demonstrates
extreme
psychomotor agitation, flight of ideas, loud talking and elated mood.
56. Which of the following is true about manic reaction?
A. It is an expression of destructive impulse
B. A means of coping with frustrations and disappointments
C. A means of ignoring reality
D. An attempt to ward of feelings of underlying depression
57. Nursing care plan for a client with Mania like Margie should give priority to:
A. Discourage him from manipulating the staff
B. Prevent him from assaulting other patient
C. Protect him against suicidal attempts
D. Provide adequate food and fluid intake
58. During a nurse patient interaction, Margie jumps rapidly from one topic to another, This is
known as:
A. Flight of Ideas C. Ideas of reference
B. Clang association D. Neologism
59. Which of the following is a suitable activity that a nurse should assign for a Manic client?
A. delivering supply of linen to other rooms
B. conducting a drama workshop
C. engaging in activity therapy and group exercises
D. painting a mural with other patients
60. The doctor ordered lithium. You know that this is indicated in patients with:
A. Depression C. Schizophrenia
B. Mania D. Anxiety disorders
61. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range of:
A. 0.1 to 1.0 mEq/L C. 10 to 50 mEq/L
B. 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L D. 50 to 100 mEq/L
62. Which of the following is a side effect of lithium toxicity?
A. Anuria C. Sudden burst of muscle strength
B. Oliguria D. Polyuria
63. What specimen is taken from a client when checking the lithium level of the body?
A. Blood B. Stool C. Urine D. Sweat
64. Which of the following is NOT a drug use to augment lithium toxicity?
A. Urea
B. Mannitol
C. Aminophylline
D. Acetylcysteine
65. The nurse has a standing order of Lithium for Margie. If the lithium level is 1.5 mEq/L, the
nurse knows that she should:
A. Administer the next dose and continue monitoring the client
B. Report this to the physician
C. Recheck the lithium level and validate first before doing any action
D. Withhold the next dose and notify the physician
Situation : Nursing informatics is a way of using information technology, computers and the
internet
in the improvement of nursing care. The first nursing informatics conference was held during
1977.

66. The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as a new field in
nursing during what year?
A. 1992 B. 1994 C. 2001 D. 2004
67. When is the first certification of nursing informatics given?
A. 1992-1993 B. 1994-1995 C. 2001-2002 D. 2004-2005
68. Which of the following is the 3 integrated components of the nursing informatics?
1. Nursing science 3. Health science
2. Computer science 4. Information science
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 3,4,5
69. A textbook publisher wants to store large amount of data in a computer format that
cannot be changed by other people. Which of the following would best serve this purpose?
A. CD ROM B. Floppy disk C. RAM D. Network
70. The challenge most associated with the utilization of an electronic record system is which
of the
following?
A. Cost B. Accuracy C. Privacy D. Curability
71. A client insists that the practitioner use a treatment method discovered on an internet data
base. Which of the following response is most appropriate?
A. The treatment must be examine to see if it is appropriate
B. Most website treatments have not been studied or researched
C. The person establishing the website is the only one who can use it on clients
D. Websites are like advertising, they are biased and may not be legitimate.
72. This is a type of a computerized recording system that enables hospitals to organize
various data
such as admission, records, clinical laboratory, pharmacy, inventory and finance.
A. Management information system
B. Hospital information system
C. University information system
D. Government information system
73. A nurse, who is proficient in computers and information technology that uses these
advantages
to promote effective and secured use of computerized record is referred to as:
A. Information technician C. Nursing information technician
B. Nursing IT D. Nurse Informaticist
74. One advantage of a computerized recording system is that:
The nursing diagnoses for a clients data can be accurately determined
Cost of confinement will be reduced
Information concerning the client can be easily updated
The number of people to take care of the client will be reduced
75. You are to research the different types of oxygen delivery system. From the nasal cannula
up to
the venturi mask. Using nursing informatics, you found out different sources of information.
One of
the question that needs to be answered in your research is What type of oxygen delivery
system is
the most comfortable? you will answer:
A. Nasal cannula, according to the American journal of nursing and medicine
B. Face masks, according to a nursing blog site
C. Venturi mask, according to Wikipedia
D. Oxygen tents, according to a personal website from yahoo search engine

Situation: Celina age 25, a ramp model, suddenly became blind after her boyfriend broke off
with
her. A thorough work up did not reveal any pathological findings.
76. The loss or alteration of physical functioning without organize cause bit is an expression of
a
psychological needs is known as:
A. Somatization C. Hypochondriasis
B. Depersonalization D. Conversion
77. Initially, the relevant nursing diagnosis the nurse includes in her care plan is:
A. Self esteem disturbance
B. Impaired adjustment
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Ineffective denial
78. The defense mechanism commonly used by these clients is:
A. Projection C. Repression
B. Rationalization D. Sublimation
79. An appropriate nursing intervention which can help Celina is:
A. Establishing a trusting relationship
B. Encourage her to verbalize her feelings
C. Reinforce reality
D. Accept her limitation as a person
80. An effective modality of treatment for Celina would be:
A. Milieu therapy
B. Systematic desensitisation
C. Cognitive-Behavioral therapy
D. Psychopharmacology
Situation : Records and Records management is one of the core of professional nursing
practice.
81. The National Archives of the Phils. (NAP) is mandated by R.A. 9470 of 2007 to plan,
formulate
and implement records management and archival administration program for the efficient
action,
utilization, maintenance, retention, preservation, conservation and disposal of public records
including the adoption of security measures and vital records protection program for the
government and give technical assistance to all branches of government. Hospitals should safe
keep
their record and coordinate with which of the following agency for its disposal?
A. National Archives of the Philippines
B. Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
C. Record Management and Archive Office
D. Department Of Health
82. If The research team finished the research about Anas case and they are done
disseminating
data and after the report has been completed and written, Pre-processed data about Ana
should be:
A. Preserved C. Stored for future use
B. Destroyed by Burning or Shredding D. Keep in a private file nobody can access
83. All of the following are purposes of the chart EXCEPT:
A. To document the quality of care
B. A vehicle for communication
C. For the prerecording of nursing actions

D. For research and education

84. What is an example of a subjective data?
A. Color of wound drainage
B. Odor of breath
C. Respiration of 14 breaths/minute
D. The patients statement of I feel sick to my stomach
85. Charting should be legible and include only standard abbreviations. Which of the
following is NOT a standard abbreviation?
A. PRN C. NNO
B. OD D. NPO
Situation: A nurse should be aware that some problems in the emergency setting are not
always
physiologic. Sometimes, Crisis can affect the patient in an emergency setting.
86. Which of the following statements best describes acquaintance rape?
A. Sexual intercourse when one person engaging in the activity is unsure about wanting to do
so
B. When two people dont love each other and engage in sexual activities
C. When someone on a date tricks the other person into having sexual intercourse
D. Sexual intercourse committed with force or the threat of force without a persons consent
87. Male to male rape is also another problem that a nurse can encounter. The nurse knows
that in
male to male rape, The perpetrator is usually:
A. An effeminate male homosexual C. A heterosexual who believes that he is superior
B. A young, newcomer heterosexual male D. A passive homosexual male
88. An 18 year old male client was rushed to the hospital due to burns, bruises and cuts on
the face
and body. The teenager confessed that he was raped by 4 of his classmates, all of which are
also
male. Male to male rape also occurs and the nurse must know that:
A. If there is an erection, the male victim also consents to the rape itself.
B. That all male to male rape cases occurs at home, which is statutory most of the time.
C. That male rape victims are usually homosexuals. Which are very much deserving to be
raped.
D. Most victims of male to male rapes never dare to report the incident.
89. One of four factors describing the experience of sexually abused children and the effect it
has on
their growth and development is stigmatization. Stigma will occur when:
A. A child blames him or herself for the sexual abuse and begins to withdraw and Isolate
B. Newspapers and the media dont keep sexual abuse private and accidentally or on purpose
reveal
the name of the victim
C. The child has been blamed by the abuser for his or her sexual behaviors, saying that the
child
asked to be touched or did not make the abuser to stop
D. The childs agony is shared by other members of the family or friends when the
sexual abuse becomes public knowledge
90. Which of the following is an example of hostile environment in terms of sexual
harassment?
A. the boss assures you of a big promotion if you go out on a couple of dates with him
B. your supervisor makes masturbatory gestures every time you walk pass him
C. the personnel manager hints that the job will be yours if you cooperate sexually with him
D. your boss suggests that your raise is dependent upon having sex with him

Situation : You are a nurse working in the medical ward.

91. Mr. E.O. age 52 had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are
given to
Mr.F.O. and his family. Which response by written communication from Mr. F.O. or verbal
response
from the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be reclarified?
a. it is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that condition is stable
b. the suctioning at home must be a clean procedure, not sterile.
c. report swelling, pain or excessive drainage
d. cleans skin around stoma BID, use hydrogen peroxide and rinse with water, pat dry.
92. Dr. Tuazon scheduled Mrs. Poe for a right breast mass incision with frozen section and
possible mastectomy on Monday, first case. As the nurse in-charge for scheduling you will
collaborate with
the following departments EXCEPT:
a. pathology c. anesthesia
b. dietary d. surgery
93. A mother who is pregnant and has ovarian cancer has to undergo surgery to treat the
cancer. In
the process the fetus died. The doctrine that justifies the death of the fetus is:
a. justice c. exception to the role
b. anatomy d. double effect
94. A nurse is waiting for a report to be sent by fax. The machine activates but instead of the
report,
the nurse received a sexually oriented photograph. The MOST appropriate nursing action is to:
a. call the nursing supervisor and report the incident
b. cut the photograph and throw it away.
c. call the police
d. call the unit who sent it and ask for the name of person who sent the photograph
95. Ms. F.X.. has been admitted with right upper quadrant pain and has been placed on a low
fat diet.
Which of the following trays would be acceptable for her?
a. liver, fried potatoes and avocado
b. whole milk, rice and pastry
c. ham, mashed potatoes, cream peas
d. skim milk, lean fish, tapioca pudding
Situation : Some equipments and materials in our hospital are color coded, this is to increase
the
safety and proficiency of rendering patients care.
96. If a nurse has been ordered to prepare a spinal set gauge 16, the nurse knew that the
color for that
spinal set is coded at:
A. Red B. Pink C. Yellow D. Blue
97. If the anaesthesiologist asked for a 22 gauge spinal set, the nurse knew that the color of
the set
that she will obtain is:
A. Red B. Pink C. Yellow D. Blue
98. For pediatric patients, the spinal set is coded with color:
A. Red B. Pink C. Yellow D. Blue
99. An anesthesiologist is preparing to do a spinal anesthesia to a 220 lb, 30 year old athlete
she

request the circulating nurse to prepare a pink spinal set with another blue set as stand by.
What
gauge spinal sets will make available in the OR suite?
A. Gauge 16 and 22
B.Gauge 18 and 16
C.Gauge 16 and 20
D. Gauge 5 and 22
100. Medical gases are used a lot in the OR. Some gases are used to operate equipment and
some are
used to administer general anesthesia through inhalation. What is the identifying color of the
tank
which contains laughing gas?
A. Yellow B. Green C. Black D. Blue