RAFFLES INSTITUTION

Higher 2 Biology Paper 1,2 &3 Answers

.
Paper 1 answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

D
B
B
D
B
D
B
B
C
A

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

D
B
B
A
C
A
A
C
C
C

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

A
D
C
C
A
C
B
D
B
D

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

A
B
D
D
B
D
A
C
A
D

Paper 2 answers:
Section A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1
In an experiment to study ATP synthesis in plants, chloroplasts are isolated, and the pH levels
in the various compartments are monitored. The graph below shows the results of the
experiment.

pH

Light

Fig.1.1
(a)

Explain the changes in pH seen in Fig.1.1 upon illumination. [3]

a) Illumination of chloroplasts causes the excitation of the electrons from the
reaction centre.
b) This initiates the electrons flow down the ETC, energy lost is used to pump H+
from the stroma into the thylakoid.
c) Hence the increase in pH in the stroma and the decrease in pH (increase in H+)
in the thylakoid space

(b)
Describe a similarity and a difference in the production of ATP in chloroplasts and in
mitochondria. [2]
Similarity
a) Flow of electron down the electron transport chain of progressively
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increasing electronegativity.
b) Generation of proton motive force / electrochemical / H+ gradient
c) Diffusion of H+ from through ATP synthase complex, energy used for the
phosphorylation of ADP to ATP (ref to chemiosmosis, but R:just
chemiosmosis without description)
Difference
Photophosphorylation

Oxidative phosphorylation

Electron
donor

Reaction centre
chlorophyll a / water

Reduced coenzyme, NADH/FADH

Final
electron
acceptor

NADP

Molecular Oxygen

Source of
energy for
phosphoryla
tion

Light

Oxidation of glucose / NADH / FADH

(to be discussed)

*Direction of
H+ pumped

Pumped from stroma to

thylakoid space

Pumped from matrix to

intermembranal space

*Direction of
H+ diffuse

from thylakoid space to

stroma

from intermembranal space to matrix

* not the best to quote

(c)

According to the endosymbiotic theory, mitochondria and chloroplasts were originally

prokaryotic cells that were engulfed by an ancestral eukaryotic cell.
State two structural features of the two organelles that provide evidence to support this
theory. [2]
a) Circular DNA
b) 70S ribosomes
c) double membrane

Molecule X forms a pore in the phospholipid bilayer of mitochondria as shown in the Fig.1.2.
Molecule X

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Fig.1.2
(d)
Explain how the presence of molecule X might affect the synthesis of ATP in isolated
mitochondria. [3]
a) no ATP synthesis
b) Allows H+ to diffuse down a concentration gradient through the pore
c) and prevents the generation of H+ / electrochemical gradient
(e)

In plants, yeasts and bacteria, anaerobic respiration results in the production of alcohol
and carbon dioxide, a process that is exploited by both the brewing and the baking
industries.
Describe how ATP is generated under anaerobic conditions in yeast. [3]
a) pyruvate is decarboxylated to ethanal which is reduced to ethanol by alcohol
dehydrogenase while removing H+ from NADH

b) NAD+ is regenerated
c) for glycolysis to proceed/continue
d) Producing 2 net ATP per glucose
[Total : 13]
2 The human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) is a transmembrane glycoprotein
receptor belonging to a family of growth factors with intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity. Research
has shown that HER2 gene amplification and its overexpression is frequently associated with
metastatic breast cancer.
Fig.2.1 below shows the three dimensional structure of a dimerised HER2 receptor inserted
into the cell membrane.

Fig.2.1
(a)

Describe how the structural features of HER2 enables it to be embedded in the cell
membrane of the cancer cell. [2]
a) Region that spans the hydrophobic core of the membrane consist of amino
acids that contain non-polar R group enable hydrophobic interaction with the
non-polar hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail of the phospholipids that makes up
the membrane.
b) Polar / Hydrophilic R groups of amino acids interact with the hydrophilic
phosphate head of the phospholipid bilayer / aqueous environment

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(b)

With reference to Fig.2.1, describe how the transmembrane region of a subunit of a

HER2 receptor differs from that of a GPCR. [1]
a) Transmembrane region of GPCR passes through the membrane 7 times whereas
a HER2 subunit only passes through the membrane once

Fig.2.2 below shows the HER2 signaling pathway.

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ligand

Nucleus

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(c)

Describe the events occurring in stage A of the HER2 signaling pathway shown in
Fig.2.2. [4]
a) Ligand which is complementary in shape to the ligand binding site of the
HER2 receptor bind to receptor
b) Causes dimerization HER2 receptor subunits
c) Conformational change in the intracellular domain of receptor
d) Activates intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity of intracellular domain
e) Cross phosphorylation of tyrosine residues by tyrosine kinase [max 4 marks]

(d)

Describe two benefits of cell signaling pathways. [2]

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a) they amplify the signal to produce a stronger response

b) one signal molecule may elicit many cellular responses through many
different pathways
c) ability to regulate and control as the pathway provides many potential
checkpoints for regulation
d) co-ordinated activation of many cells simultaneously
e) specificity specific ligand elicit specific reaction via specific pathway
in each cell type ability of a molecule reaching a cell membrane to
activate genes in the nucleus
[max 2 marks]

The outcome for patients with HER2-positive breast cancer is greatly improved by the
development of the drug trastuzumab (Herceptin) which targets the extracellular domain of the
receptor. The use of this drug improves overall survival when added to the drugs used in
chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic breast cancer.
(e)

Suggest and explain how trastuzumab may act to prevent progression of cancer. [2]
1st Mark:
a) ref to idea of binding to relevant section of receptor to prevent dimerization of
HER2 subunits.
o E.g. Complementary in shape and charge to ligand binding site of
extracellular domain /Competes with natural ligand for ligand binding
site /Block receptor ligand interaction hence ligand cannot bind.
Binds to a site other than the ligand binding site and changes the
conformation of the ligand-binding site, hence ligand cannot bind.
2nd Mark:
b) Reduce/Prevent signal transduction and cellular response
c) Reduce/Prevent activation of proteins involved in cell proliferation E.g. protooncogene
d) Reduce/Prevent inactivation of proteins involved in cell cycle arrest.E.g.
tumour suppressor genes.
o

Research has shown that many patients treated with trastuzumab showed a decrease in the
incidence of recurrence of metastatic breast cancer. However, a more recent study has shown
an increasing proportion of patients experiencing a recurrence of cancer.
(f)
Suggest how the cancer cells in these cases overcome the effects of trastuzumab. [2]
a) Gene (substitution) mutation resulting in changes 3D conformation of ligand
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binding site /trastuzumab binding site/ allosteric site
b) Does not bind Trastuzumab
OR
c) Gene amplification the HER2 gene / translocate near enhancer increase
expression of HER2 gene
d) increase in HER2 receptor, hence out-compete the inhibitory effect of the
trastzumab
OR
e) gain-in-function mutation of downstream relay proteins / receptor
f) constitutive signal transduction expression of genes resulting in increased
cell proliferation, independent of ligand binding.
[Total : 13]
3 Fig.3.1 shows all the chromosomes of a cell from hawkweed plant undergoing meiosis.

(a)

(b)

Fig.3.1
Explain what is meant by homologous chromosomes. [2]
a) A pair of chromosomes, one of paternal and one of maternal origin,
b) that are similar in size, shape, centromere position and staining pattern
c) They have the same genes at corresponding loci, but may have different
alleles at the corresponding locus
(i)

Draw the chromosomes in hawkweed cell at anaphase II in the space below. [2]
a) Number of chromosomes moving to each pole = 4
b) centromere of chromosome leading the way with kinetochore fibres

(c)

Fig.3.2 shows the changes in the amount of DNA in cells obtained from a hawkweed
plant during cell division.

Meiosis I

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Cytokinesis
End of Meiosis II
Cells still have
haploid no. of
chromosomes

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S phase
DNA replication
2x
Meiosis II

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Fertilisation of
gametes

Cytokinesis
End of Meiosis I
Cells have haploid
no. of
chromosomes

Fig.3.2
(i)
a)
b)
(ii)
a)
b)
(iii)

State and account for the number of DNA molecules per cell at stage A. [2]
16 DNA molecules
8 chromosomes in cell from organism X correspond to 8 DNA molecules,
which doubles following DNA replication at S phase of interphase
State and account for the number of chromosomes per cell at stages B and C.
[2]
B: 4 chromosomes. Homologous chromosomes have separated at the end
of meiosis I and this leads to halving of chromosome number from 8 to 4.
C: 4 chromosomes. Chromatids of 4 chromosomes have separated at end
of meiosis II and each is now a chromosome

Explain why the cells at stage B are not genetically identical. [2]
a) Crossing over has occurred between non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes during prophase I.
b) Independent assortment of homologous pairs of chromosomes occurred
during metaphase I

Fig.3.3 shows a cell from another organism, Y, undergoing meiosis.

Fig.3.3
(d)

With reference to Fig.3.3,

(i) state the number of different types of gametes that can be formed from the cell; [1]
22 or 4

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(ii) state all the possible genotypes of the gametes that can be formed. [1]
ABEQR, abeQR, aBeQR, AbEQR
[Total: 12]
4 In bacteria, the production of the amino acid tryptophan is catalyzed by five specific enzymes
(simply named as E, D, C, B and A in this question) encoded by specific genes trpE, trpD,
trpC, trpB and trpA. The trp operon is transcriptionally regulated by a repressor protein,
(named R in this question), encoded by the trpR gene. Expression of the trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB
and trpA genes is controlled by a promoter region and an operator region.
When levels of tryptophan are high, tryptophan binds to the repressor protein, R. The
tryptophan-repressor protein complex binds to the operator region and prevents expression of
the trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB and trpA genes.
(a)(i) Draw a simple diagram to show the trp operon. Include all elements mentioned above
which belong to this operon. [1]
Promoter

Operator

Structural genes

trpE

Reject: if operator not within promoter

Reject: if the structural genes are not in order of sequence; all or none
(ii)Explain why it is useful for a bacterial cell to decrease expression of the trp genes when
tryptophan is present. [2]
a) Trp
genes
code
for
enzymes
(involved
in/necessary
for)
(anabolism/synthesis) of tryptophan;
b) Decreased expression helps to conserve resources that could be diverted
for other uses; accept idea of preventing wastage of resource;
Reject: ONLY mention of energy and not resources

Table 4.1 below indicates the activity levels of the functional enzymes E, D, C, B and A in wild
type bacterial cells in the presence and absence of tryptophan (Trp).
Activity level of enzymes/units
Enzyme
E
D
C
B
A

Trp absent
Trp present
700
0
700
0
700
0
700
0
700
0
Table. 4.1
You have managed to obtain several bacterial mutants. Each mutant is the result of a single
base-pair substitution in a single component of the trp operon. The activity level of functional
enzymes E, D, C, B and A in the bacterial cells having these individual mutations is shown in
Table 4.2.
Activity level of enzymes/units
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Enzymes
E
D
C
B
A
(b)

(i)
a)
b)

(ii)

Mutant 1
Trp absent
Trp
present
700
700
700
700
700
700
700
700
700
700

Mutant 2
Mutant 3
Trp absent
Trp
Trp absent
Trp
present
present
700
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
700
0
0
0
700
0
0
0
700
0
0
0
Table. 4.2
Which mutant has a phenotype that is consistent with a loss-of-function mutation
in the trpR gene? Explain your choice using data from both tables. [2]

Mutant 1
The normal / wild type trpR activity is repression of the trp operon / codes for
repressor protein (e.g. zero enzyme activity in the presence of tryptophan).
A loss of the repression / lack of repressor will lead to constitutive
expression of the trp genes (700 units of enzyme activity even in the
presence of tryptophan
A loss-of-function mutation in which component of the trp operon could explain
the phenotype of mutant 3? Explain your choice. [2]
a) promoter
b) A loss of function of the promoter could prevent RNA polymerase binding,
and thus block / prevent expression of the trp operon.
Reject: operator as a loss of function in that component would not allow
the repressor to bind, causing expression of the trp genes.
Reject trpR loss-of-function mutation since there would be no functional
repressor and the phenotype would be the same as mutant 1.

(c)

If the phenotype of mutant 3 is caused by a mutation in the trpR gene, explain how this
mutation would affect the structure and function of the repressor protein. [3]

a) Mutation causes a change in amino acid / Missense mutation in the trpR gene
b) which causes the protein to fold into the same conformation as the active
repressor / trp-bound wild type R protein; (only awarded if it leads to correctly
stated altered repressor function as stated below)
c) Permanently bound to operator / binds to operator even in absence of
tryptophan;
[Total :10]
5 The enzyme ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) is needed for DNA synthesis. The enzyme
catalyses the reaction in which adenosine diphosphate (ADP) is converted to deoxyadenosine
diphosphate (dADP).

RNR
+ H20

Reduced NADP

NADP

Fig.5.1

(a)

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(i) State how ADP differs from dADP. [1]

adenosine diphosphate contains a ribose (not deoxyribose) sugar /

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which has an OH group on carbon 2/ C2 and not a H
(ii)

Suggest how dADP is used in the synthesis of DNA. [3]

a) After dADP is phosphorylated to form dAT

b) dATP complementary base pairs with thymine on template (strand /
polynucleotide)
c) DNA polymerase catalyses formation of phosphodiester bonds
d) between adjacent nucleotides of the newly synthesised strand
(b)

A particular region of a gene has the following nucleotide sequence in the template
strand:
5 TAC TTA GAA TCT CAG CCA ATT ACT CAT 3
How many amino acids does the protein encoded by this section of the gene have? [1]
7 (UAA is a stop codon)

(c)

Fig.5.2 illustrates a process that can occur in eukaryotic cells.

Fig.5.2
(i)

Name process X. [1]

Alternative splicing

(ii)

Explain why counting the number of unique mRNA sequences will result in an
over-estimation of the number of actual genes in an organism. [2]
a) One gene may code for more than one type of mRNA
b) Where different combinations of exons are joined to give rise to
different mRNA sequences

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(d)

When a particular retrovirus that does not carry oncogenes infects a particular organism,
the amount of mRNAs transcribed from a particular proto-oncogene became elevated
approximately 20-fold compared with uninfected individuals.
(i) Suggest an explanation for the above observation.[2]
a) integration of viral DNA into the host chromosome
b) insertion of a strong viral promoter upstream of proto-oncogene / provirus
may contain an enhancer / disrupt a silencer
increase expression of nearby proto-oncogenes
Mutations in tumour suppressor genes can increase the chances of a person getting
cancer.
(ii) Explain why mutations in tumour suppressor genes are considered to be
recessive.[2]
a) even though one allele may produce a non-functional protein
b) the other allele can still produce a protein that can mask the effect of the
non-functional protein
(iii) Suggest why most skin cancers are considered non-hereditary? [2]
a) Due to environmental effects, e.g. exposure to UV light, resulting in
mutation
b) most skin cancers are associated with somatic mutations not germ-line
mutation
[Total:14]

6 In horses, the dominant allele E codes for a black pigment for coat colour. The genotype ee
codes for chestnut coat colour.
A gene on another chromosome is responsible for the regions on the body where the black
pigment appears. The dominant allele A causes the localization of the black pigment to the
tips (e.g. lower legs, eartips and tail), while the recessive allele a has no effect.
A cross made between a pure-bred horse with black coat and a pure-bred horse with chestnut
coat results in offspring having bay coat. A horse with bay coat has black pigment restricted to
the tips.

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(a)

(i)

Fig.6.1
Construct a genetic diagram to explain the cross. [3]
Let E be the dominant allele that results in black pigment production.
Let e be the recessive allele that results in chestnut pigment production.
Let A be the dominant allele that causes black pigment to localize to tips.
Let a be the recessive allele that does not cause black pigment to localize.
Parental phenotype
Parental genotype

Black horse
EEaaPlasma

Chestnut horse

eeAA

membrane

Meiosis
eA

Ea

Gametes
Fertilization
Offspring genotypeCytoplasm
Offspring phenotype

(b)
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EeAa
Bay horse

1 mark - correct parental genotypes AND phenotypes

1 mark correct gametes (must circle both gametes)
1 mark - correct offspring genotype AND phenotype
(ii)
State and explain the mode of inheritance of coat color in horses. [3]
a) (Recessive) epistasis
b) ee genotype is epistatic to A/a gene locus
c) The dominant allele E that codes for black pigment must be present in
order for allele A that controls black pigment localization to take effect
(OWTTE)
OR
A horse with genotype ee is not able to produce black pigment, thus
negates effect of allele A (OWTTE)
(iii)
In a natural population, apart from black, chestnut and bay, there are other coat
colors found in horses. Suggest what accounts for such an observation. [1]
a) Multiple alleles coding for different coat colour
b) There are other gene loci that can modify/alter the final coat color.
c) The many other coat colors indicates polygenic inheritance where there is an
additive effect of many genes on a single phenotypic character
A horse breeder had noticed that his horses with floppy ears were affected by a
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recessive genetic skin disease known as hereditary equine regional dermal asthenia
(HERDA). Affected foals will only show symptoms later and they cannot be ridden as
they will suffer from severe lesions along their backs.
In his investigation into the inheritance of HERDA, F 1 horses (non-floppy ears, normal)
were test crossed and they produced offspring with the following four phenotypes:
non-floppy ears, normal
21
non-floppy ears, HERDA
9
floppy ears, normal
15
floppy ears, HERDA
5
A 2 (chi-squared) test was performed and the calculated 2 = 11.76.
Number of degrees
of freedom
1
2
3
4

distribution of 2
probability
0.1
0.05
2.71
3.84
4.60
5.99
6.25
7.82
7.78
9.49

0.01
6.64
9.21
11.34
13.28

(i)

State the expected ratio in this test cross. [1]

1:1:1:1
(ii)
Using the data and table of probabilities shown above, describe the conclusion
that can be drawn from this 2 test. [2]
a) Since 2 value of 11.76 is more than the critical value of 7.82, p < 0.05 we
therefore reject the null hypothesis.
b) The difference between the observed and expected results is significant
and not due to chance alone and could be due to some other factors

Lord Howe island (Fig.7.1) is a small subtropical island of less than 12 km 2, situated 580 km
off the eastern coast of Australia. The island was formed by volcanic activity 6.4-6.9 million
years ago.
Howea is a genus of palms with 2 sister species estimated to have diverged from each other
2 million years ago. The 2 sister species which are found only on Lord Howe island are
monoecious. This means they have both female and male flowers on each individual tree.
The graph below shows the flowering times of the female and male flowers of each palm.

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Fig.7.1
(a)

Compare sympatric and allopatric speciation. [2]

Similarity :
Both require disruption of gene flow.
Difference:
Allopatric speciation is formation of species from populations due to
geographic isolation between 2 populations whereas;
Sympatric speciation is the formation of species from populations in the same
geographic location / by means other than geographic isolation - such as
behaviour, physiology isolation

(b)

In relation to its geographic location, size or age, explain what led scientists to think
that Lord Howe was an ideal place to study sympatric speciation in Howea palms. [2]
a) Small size,
b) low possibility of geographical isolation within the island itself - factors
such as big rivers/ mountains, forest fragments/ any other example
OR
c) Howea endemic to Lord Howe only (i.e. found only on Lord Howe island) so
d) no possibility of other islands or mainland (eg Australia) acting as areas of
geographical isolation for either one of the species to form/(OWTTE)
OR
e) It is of a known age
f) so that it is possible to know that the palm speciated only on Lord Howe
island since Lord Howe island (6.46.9 million years) is older than the
speciation of Howea (2 million years ago)

(c)

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With reference to the graph of flowering times in Fig.7.1, explain how sympatric
speciation may have occurred in Howea. [4]
a) The differences in flowering times arose in 2 subpopulations/populations in
the ancestral Howea species
b) In response to the different soil types, calcareous and volcanic soil.
c) With the frequency of flowering in H. fosteriana mainly during week 1-7,
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d)
e)

peaking at week 2.5 (male flowers) and 5.0 (female flowers) at 0.28 frequency
And flowering in H. belmoreana mainly from week 5-14, peaking at week 9.5
at around 0.27 frequency
This displacement in flowering times would result in the reproductive
isolation as only those with the similar flowering times would be able to
fertilise one another and hence a disruption of gene flow occurred between
the ancestral populations
[Total: 8]

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Section B
Answer EITHER 8 OR 9.
Write your answers on the separate answer paper provided.
Your answers should be illustrated by large, clearly labeled diagrams, where appropriate.
Your answers must be in continuous prose, where appropriate.
Your answers must be set out in sections (a), (b) etc., as indicated in the question.
8

(a)

Explain how glucagon differs from glycogen. [8]

Point of
Comparison
a) Type of
macromolecule
b) Type of
monomer
c) Type of bonds
between
monomer

glucagon
Glucagon is a globular
protein.
(R: spherical/enzyme)
Monomers are amino acid
residues with different R
groups.
Amino acid residues
joined by peptide bonds.

glycogen
Glycogen is an extensively
branched polysaccharide
made of helical chains.
Monomers consists of alpha
glucose only.
Alpha glucose joined by
alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
with branched alpha 1-6
glycosidic linkages.

d) Number of
monomer per
molecule
e) Solubility in
water

Fixed number of amino

acid per molecule.

Variable number of glucose

per molecule.

Soluble in water as it is
globular in structure.

Insoluble in water as it has a

large molecular weight.

f) Synthesis

Glucagon is produced by
alpha cells in the pancreas
in the islets of
Langerhans.
Glucagon is a
hormone/signal protein
that regulates blood
glucose.

Glycogen is synthesized in
liver and muscle cells when
blood glucose is high.

g) Function

Glycogen provides an energy

store in muscle and liver.

Each pt for pt comparison : 2 marks

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(b)

Distinguish how genes are regulated at the transcription level in eukaryotes and
prokaryotes. [6]
Transcription
Promoter strength
(determined by degree of
similarity between critical
elements and consensus
sequence the greater
the similarity, the greater
the transcription
frequency)
[2max]

Promoter recognition
[4]

Regulatory proteins
[4]

Eukaryotes
Critical elements in promoter
1a) TATA box (located 25bp
upstream of transcription
start site) is important in
determining the precise
location of the
transcription start site
or
b) CAAT and GC boxes
improve efficiency of
promoter by helping to
recruit general
transcription factors and
RNA polymerase

Prokaryotes
Critical elements in promoter
1a) Sequences at -10/ (Pribnow
box) and -35 are critical
elements that determine
strength of promoter
[2]

2a) Promoter recognized by

general transcription
factors
or
General transcription
factors assemble at
promoter region and then
recruit RNA polymerase.

2a) Promoter recognized by

sigma factor
or
Sigma factor binds to core
RNA polymerase to form
RNA polymerase
holoenzyme. As the
holoenzyme scans along the
DNA, its sigma factor
recognizes the promoter
elements at the -10 and -35
sequences. [2]

2b) Same set of general

transcription factors
recognize different
promoters. Thus general
transcription factors do not
determine which gene is
transcribed.

2b) Different sigma factors

recognize different
promoters. Availabilty of
sigma factors will determine
which genes are transcribed.
[2]

Specific transcription factors

(activators and repressors)

CAP and repressors

3a) Activators and enhancers

Activators bind to
enhancers
promote assembly of
transcription initiation
complex
transcription rate
increases

3a) Positive gene regulation

binding of activated
Catabolite Activator Protein
(CAP) binds to the CAP
binding site at the promoter
of the lac operon , increases
the affinity of RNA
polymerase to the promoter
transcription rate
increases.

3b) Repressors and silencers

Repressors bind to
silencers
prevent assembly of
transcription initiation
complex
transcription rate
decreases

3b) Negative gene regulation

binding of repressor to the
operator (in both lac and trp
operon) prevents RNA
polymerase from binding to
the promoter site
transcription rate
decreases

Each pt for pt comparison: 2m 6max

FULL sentences required to get any marks.
Each pt for pt comparison : 2 marks

RI 2012

Preliminary Examination 9648/02

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19
(c)

RI 2012

Explain the role of geographical and behavioural isolating mechanisms in the evolution
of new species. [6]
1. Speciation occurs when there is disruption to gene flow in a population
of a particular species.
2. Disruption of gene flow can occur by behavioural isolation,
where in a population in a particular area, some members of the
population developed a new behaviour and tended to mate preferentially
with the members with the similar behavior.
3. The occurred in an ancestral population of the eastern and western
meadowlarks.
4. Disruption of gene flow can also occur by geographical isolation,
where in a physical barrier separates members of a population into 2 sub
populations, preventing interbreeding.
5. This occurred in an ancestral population of the Caribbean porkfish and
the Panamic porkfish when the isthmus of Panama formed between the
Caribbean sea and the Pacific ocean.
(Also accepted: Finches in the Galapagos islands)
6. Since there was variation within the population, favourable
characteristics were selected for and unfavourable characteristics were
selected against.
7. Thus evolutionary changes occured independently in each subpopulation
i.e. different genetic changes occurred in each sub-population.
8. Over hundreds and thousands of successive generations each
subpopulation became 2 genetically distinct species which were unable
to interbreed and produce fertile viable offspring.
9. Pre zygotic isolating mechanism

Preliminary Examination 9648/02

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20
9

(a)

Explain, using two named examples, how environmental forces act as forces of
natural selection. [8]
Example 1:
a) There are two types of peppered moths (Biston betularia). The lighter form
(white with black spots) and the melanic form (black with white spots).
b) Before 1848, the lighter form of moths had a selective advantage/ were wellcamouflaged from predator on light coloured, lichen-covered tree barks and
were selected for and hence they increased in frequency.
c) With the industrial revolution lichens on bark of trees were killed and barks
were covered with soot & thus appeared darker.
d) The lighter forms of moths were selected against / lighter form of moth
became more visible and easy prey to birds. Thus, their numbers declined.
e) The darker forms of moth however, were well camouflaged and thus
proliferated.
f) Hence there was differential reproductive success i.e. individuals with the
favourable characteristic survived.
(max 4)
Example 2:
g) Antibiotic resistant and non-resistant Staphylococcus aureus bacterial
strains i.e. variation, exists naturally.
h) Resistant strains usually arise by spontaneous mutations.
i) Vancomycin kills most non-resistant bacteria. Thus the non-resistant
bacterial are selected against in the presence of
antibiotics in the
environment.
j) Vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus bacteria however have a
selective advantage in the presence of antibiotics.
k) Thus they are selected for and pass on the allele for antibiotic resistance to
subsequent generations. Hence the antibiotic-resistant allele frequency
increases population.
l) Hence differential reproductive success occurs due to a change in the
environment.
(max 4)
AVP:
m) Named example (Galapagos finches)
n) Original phenotype with selective advantage (medium ground finch which
fed on small tender seeds)
o) Change in environment (drought, only large hard seeds available)
p) Selection pressure and choice of new phenotype (finches with large, more
powerful beaks fed on the large hard seeds were selected for)
q) Differential reproductive success change in allele frequency
(max 4)

RI 2012

Preliminary Examination 9648/02

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Examiners
Use

For
Examiners
Use

21
(b)

Describe the structural features of an enzyme molecule. [6]

a) Enzymes are globular proteins in nature;
b) They are macromolecules with unique 3-D conformation;
c) They possess an active site that is a groove on the surface of protein, that is
complementary in shape and charge to the substrate;
d) Formed by few amino acids, Ref to catalytic and contact residues ;
e) The structural residues provide framework that reinforces conformation of
active site;
f) Induced fit entrance of substrate induces enzyme to change its shape
slightly to wrap around substrate / better fit;
g) Bring chemical groups of active site into positions that enhance their ability
to catalyze the chemical reaction;
Some enzymes contain another site (apart from active site) for another
molecule to bind to (cofactors/allosteric activators/inhibitors) must make
ref to the correct types of molecules; (max 6)

(c)

Describe the development of cancer as a multi-step process. [6]

1) The development of cancer requires the accumulation of mutations in
the genes which control regulatory checkpoints of the cell cycle in a
single cell
2) This will disrupt the normal cell cycle, thus causing the cell to undergo
excessive cell growth and proliferation
3) A gain-in-function mutation is a dominant mutation where mutation in
just one copy/allele of a proto-oncogene will result in its overexpression
which will result in the production of excessive amounts
of/hyperactive/degradation resistant growth factors leading to cell
proliferation
4) Loss-of- function mutations is a recessive mutation where mutations in
both copies/alleles of a tumour suppressor gene will disrupt their ability
to inhibit cell cycle, enable DNA repair and promote apoptosis
5) Upregulation/activation of the genes coding for telomerase result in
telomeres being lengthened and the cell can thus dividing indefinitely as
the chromosomes are prevented from shortening with DNA replication
cycle.
6) Loss of contact inhibition will enable the cells to grow into a
tumour/mass of cells.
7) Angiogenesis must occur within the tumour so that the blood vessels
formed can transport oxygen and nutrients for its growth.
8) Finally the cells must metastasise. i.e leave the primary site and spread
to other tissues in different parts of the body via the blood stream and
form tumours there.
Since the above steps should occur in order for cancer to develop.

RI 2012

Preliminary Examination 9648/02

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