Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
CET - 2015
e-BROCHURE - II
More Information about
Common Entrance Test
and
Schedule for submission
of
Special Category Certificates
N.B.: Brochure III regarding Document Verification and Seat Allotment will be
supplied to all the candidates on the 2nd day of CET Examination at the
respective examination centres.
CALENDAR OF EVENTS
1
29-04-2015 &
30-04-2015
Kannadiga candidates)
Submission of Special Category Certificates to KEA (NCC, Sports, Defence,
4
5
02-05-2015 to
09-05-2015
05-05-2015
01-05-2015
15-04-2015
04-05-2015 to
12-05-2015
16-05-2015
11-05-2015
20-05-2015
10
Last date for submission of NATA scores along with a copy of the
2nd PU / 12 Std. Marks card to KEA
22-05-2015
Day
29-04-2015
Wednesday
30-04-2015
Thursday
Timings
Subject
Marks
10.30 am 11.50 am
Biology
60
02.30 pm 03.50 pm
Mathematics
60
10.30 am 11.50 am
Physics
60
02.30 pm 03.50 pm
Chemistry
60
Friday
11.30 am to 12.30 pm
Day
Timings
16-05-2015
Saturday
9.00 am onwards
Subject
Marks
Page2of28
200
# Minimum of 50% marks in Practical Examination is required to claim seat under Agriculturist Quota.
Further, Agriculturist Quota is applicable only for Farm University courses. Practical Examination will be
conducted at Bangalore, Hassan, Mandya, Raichur, Mysore, Munirabad (Koppal District), Arabhavai
(Gokak Tq) Tamaka (Kolar District), Mangalore, Bidar, Bagalkot, Dharwad and Shimoga.
Candidates applying under Agriculturist Quota for Under Graduate Degree Programmes of Agriculture /
Horticulture / Veterinary Universities etc., will have to appear for Document Verification (restricted to
Agriculturist Quota) in the district chosen by the candidates on any one of the days between 04-05-2015
to 12-05-2015 at the respective Practical Examination Centres and for Practical Examination on 16-052015 in the practical examination centre opted by the candidate in the online application form.
Candidates should carry all the relevant certificates including the Agriculturist Quota in the prescribed
format, along with, Practical Test Fees: Rs.500/- for General and OBC (Rs.250/- for SC, ST and
Category -1), this fee amount shall be paid at the respective Practical Test Centre on the day of
verification of documents in the form of Demand Draft drawn in favour of Comptroller of the respective
University.
In the case of Agriculturist Quota, the merit list will be prepared based on 25% marks each, secured in
concerned combinations in II year PUC (PCMB) & CET and 50% marks secured in the Practical Test.
In case of B.V.Sc & AH merit will be prepared based on 50% of Marks secured in CET (Physics,
Chemistry and Biology) and 50% of marks scored in the practical test.
* KANNADA LANGUAGE TEST: The candidates claiming eligibility for Government seats under
Horanadu & Gadinadu Kannadiga clauses (c and d) and whose mother tongue is Kannada, Tulu or
Kodava, will have to undergo a Kannada language test, to establish their ability to speak, read and write
Kannada. The Kannada Language test will be conducted by KEA as per the above schedule only in
Bangalore Centre; therefore such candidates will have to appear for the 'Common Entrance Test - 2015'
in a test centre located at BANGALORE Only.
The minimum passing marks for all Horanadu and Gadinadu Kannadiga candidates shall be 12 out of
50 marks in Kannada Language Examination conducted by KEA in order to be considered for assignment
of ranks and to become eligible for allotment of seats in CET-2015. (The Kannada Language Test paper
will be of 4th Standard Level)
However, the Horanadu and Gadinadu Kannadiga candidates who have studied TEN full academic years
in Kannada Medium from 1st standard to 10th standard in places outside the state of Karnataka need not
appear for Kannada Language Test conducted by KEA.
Based on the performance of the candidates in the Common Entrance Test and the
Qualifying Examination, as the case may be, the merit / rank list will be prepared and
published. All the eligible candidates will be considered for allotment of seats in the order of
their merit / rank and based on the options and as per the seat matrix issued by the
Government.
Page3of28
This SCHEDULE should be observed scrupulously without any variation or scope for complaints whatsoever.
Sl.
No.
BELL NUMBER
MORNING
SESSION
(BIOLOGY &
PHYSICS)
AFTERNOON
SESSION
(MATHS &
CHEMISTRY)
FIRST BELL
10.15 A.M.
2.15 P.M.
SECOND BELL
10.30 A.M.
2.30 P.M.
THIRD BELL
10.40 A.M.
2.40 P.M.
FOURTH BELL
11.45 A.M.
3.45 P.M.
11.50 A.M.
3.50 P.M.
Page4of28
PARTICULARS
The candidates will be allowed to enter and occupy their seats in the examination
hall, upon showing their Admission Tickets.
The Invigilator will verify the Photograph printed on the Admission Ticket and
Nominal Roll with the candidate present for examination.
The Invigilator will distribute the OMR Answer Sheets ONLY to the candidates
present in the examination hall.
The candidates should write their Name; then carefully enter the CET admission
ticket number and shade the respective circle on the top portion of the OMR
Answer Sheet.
The Deputy Chief Superintendent / Custodian should distribute the sealed
Question Paper packet to room invigilators in the examination hall at 10.30 A.M. /
2.30 P.M.
The Invigilator will LOUDLY ANNOUNCE by showing the sealed Question Paper
packet to the candidates present in the examination hall THE SEAL OF THE
QUESTION PAPER PACKET IS FULLY INTACT. NOW, I REQUEST ANY TWO
CANDIDATES PRESENT HERE TO CERTIFY THE SAME ON THIS PACKET, SO
THAT I CAN OPEN THE SEAL OF THE QUESTION PAPER PACKET and will
obtain signatures of any TWO candidates present in the examination hall, in the
space provided on the packet.
The Invigilator will open the Question Paper packet and distribute the question
booklets in the prescribed manner ONLY at 10.35 A.M. / 2.35 P.M. to the
candidates present in the examination hall.
NOTE: Only INVIGILATORS are authorized to open the seal on the Question Paper
packet in the manner prescribed above. The other staff involved in exam duty
(including the Deputy Chief Superintendent / Custodian / Chairman / Secretary /
President / Administrator etc.) are not authorized to open the seal of Question
Paper packet.
The candidates will enter the Serial number of the question booklet in the space
provided on the top portion of the OMR Answer Sheet; and should carefully enter the
Version Code of the question booklet and shade the respective circle on top
portion of the OMR Answer Sheet. They should also affix their signature on bottom
portion of the OMR Answer Sheet, in the box provided.
Until the third bell is rung, the candidates should not be allowed either to look inside
the question booklet or to start answering on the OMR Answer Sheet.
The Invigilator should obtain signature of the candidates on the Nominal Roll and
should verify the same with the signature printed on the Nominal Roll.
The candidates will be allowed to open the question booklet and to start answering
on the OMR Answer Sheet.
After this bell at 10.40 A.M. / 2.40 P.M., the candidates will not be allowed either to
enter OR to leave the examination hall, till the completion of the session.
This is a CAUTION BELL and the Invigilators should inform all the candidates
ONLY FIVE MINUTES ARE REMAINING FOR THE EXAMINATION TO
END.
End of the examination.
Soon after this bell, the Invigilator shall first ensure that all the candidates have
stopped answering on the OMR Answer Sheet.
The invigilator shall instruct the candidates to affix their LEFT HAND THUMB
impression on the bottom portion of the OMR Answer Sheet.
The Invigilator shall collect the OMR Answer Sheets as it is from the candidates.
IMPORTANT: Before allowing the candidates to leave the examination hall, the
Invigilators must ensure that they have collected the OMR Answer Sheets from all
the candidates.
The Invigilator shall separate the TOP sheet of the OMR Answer Sheet (KEA
COPY) and shall retain the same with them.
The Invigilator shall return the bottom sheet replica (CANDIDATE COPY) to the
respective candidates, along with their question booklets.
SYLLABUS
The question papers of the Common Entrance Test will be based on the First and Second
PUC syllabi prescribed by the Department of Pre-University Education of Karnataka State.
2.
The Common Entrance Test will be held on TWO days in FOUR different sessions for four
subjects. On the first day, test will be conducted for Biology and Mathematics subjects in
two sessions and on the next day test will be conducted for Physics and Chemistry subjects
in two sessions as per the date and time notified. Each paper / subject will be conducted for
60 marks each with a duration of 80 minutes.
Page5of28
Each question paper will be of Multiple Choice Questions (Objective) type. The question
paper in each subject will be in 16 different versions and each question will have four
different options. Each question will carry ONE mark. The candidate is expected to attempt
all the questions, in order to obtain maximum marks. In other words, there is no choice of
questions. THERE WILL BE NO NEGATIVE EVALUATION WITH REGARD TO WRONG /
INCORRECT ANSWERS BUT MARKS WILL NOT BE AWARDED IN RESPECT OF MULTIPLE
ANSWERS for the same question. The version code of the question paper will be boldly
printed on facing sheet of the question paper.
The version codes used in each paper will be from A - 1 to A - 4, B - 1 to B - 4, C - 1 to C - 4
& D - 1 to D - 4. The version code of the question papers given to a student may be
different OR may be the same for different sessions.
Page6of28
More details about precautions to be taken while filling the particulars on OMR answer
sheets are given below:
(i)
(ii)
The upper sheet is to be used for the purpose of marking correct answers
and later scanning & evaluation and the lower sheet will be returned to the
candidates after completion of each session of the test. The lower sheet is
coated with a special kind of chemical which acts as a Carbon paper. When
the candidate shades the circles on the upper sheet, the pressure on the
lower sheet will automatically create a replica of the top sheet.
(A)
INITIAL 10 MINUTES:
In all the four sessions, the initial TEN minutes will be given for the candidates to
write / shade the particulars such as Name, CET Number, Version Code and Serial number
of the question booklet on the OMR answer sheets in the boxes provided. OMR answer
sheets in which the candidates do not write / shade the correct CET Number and
Version code on the OMR Answer Sheet will not be scanned and such candidates
will not be assigned any rank. The entries pertaining to Name, CET Number and
Question booklet Version code are very crucial ones. Therefore, candidates are advised to
take extra precaution while writing and shading these three items accurately on the top
portion of the OMR answer sheet.
Page7of28
The candidates will have to mark correct options on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer
sheet, which will be supplied at the beginning of each session of the test. Each question will
have only one correct answer. The candidate shall mark the correct answer by completely
shading only one circle against a question number, using BLUE or BLACK ink ball point pen.
(B)
NEXT 70 MINUTES:
(C)
END OF PAPER:
The candidates are required to COMPULSORILY AFFIX THEIR LEFT HAND THUMB
IMPRESSION in the space provided on the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet of the
upper with the ink-pad provided by the room Invigilator, after completion of each Session of
the Test. However, they need not affix their thumb impression on the lower sheet i.e., the
replica of the OMR answer sheet. Thereafter, the invigilators will detach the lower sheet
from the upper sheet at the perforations and hand over the lower sheet replica to the
candidates and candidates are allowed to carry the same with them. The upper sheet will be
retained by the invigilator for returning the same to the Deputy Chief Superintendent of the
examination center and in turn to KEA.
NOTE: The OMR answer sheets in respect of all the candidates who have affixed their left
hand thumb impression will only be scanned and the results in respect of such candidates
will be published. The OMR answer sheets in respect of candidates who have not affixed
their left hand thumb impression, for any reason, will not be scanned. Also, the results in
respect of such candidates will not be published.
Page8of28
Qn. No.
Answers
- Use of Dot.
The candidates should invariably preserve their CET 2015 OMR answer sheet replicas of all
the subjects for a minimum period of one year from the date of obtaining the admission order.
6.
DETERMINATION OF MERIT:
The merit of the candidates who appear for the Common Entrance Test2015 will be determined are detailed
below:
Sl.
No.
Discipline
Medical / Dental
(MBBS / BDS)
Ayurveda, Homoeopathy,
Unani, Naturopathy and
Yoga
(ISM & H)
Engineering / Technology
(B.E. / B.Tech)
Architecture (B.Arch)
Page9of28
B.Sc. (Agriculture),
B.Sc. (Forestry),
B.Sc.(Sericulture),
B.Sc.(Agri.
Biotech),B.Sc.(Horticulture),
B.H.Sc.,(Home Science)
B.Tech.(Food Technology),
B.Tech.(Dairy Technology),
B.F.Sc (Bachelor of
Fisheries Science) B.Tech.
(Food Science &Tech.),
B.Sc.(Ag. Marketing and
Co-operation)
and B. Tech (Agriculture
Engineering)
Bachelor of Veterinary
Science and Animal
Husbandry
(B.V.Sc. & A.H.)
B-Pharm
Pharm-D
Provided that where the merit of two or more candidates is the same, the interse merit shall
be determined with reference to the marks obtained in the Common Entrance Test in
Biology in the case of Medical / Dental / Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy
courses and in Mathematics in the case of Engineering / Technology courses and where the
marks obtained in such cases are equal then the interse merit shall be determined on the
basis of the marks obtained in Chemistry in the case of Medical / Dental / Indian Systems of
Medicine and Homoeopathy courses and in Physics in the case of Engineering / Technology
courses and where the marks obtained are equal again the interse merit shall be determined
on the basis of the marks obtained in the respective subjects in the Qualifying examination
as stipulated above and where marks obtained are equal again, the interse merit shall be
determined on the basis of the age of the candidate, wherein the elder candidate will be
considered before the younger.
Page10of28
Provided further that where the merit of two or more candidates is same, the interse merit
shall be determined with reference to the marks obtained in NATA, where marks obtained in
NATA are equal, then the interse merit shall be determined on the basis of marks obtained
in Mathematics in the qualifying examination and where marks obtained in Mathematics are
equal, the interse merit shall be determined on the basis of the age of the candidate,
wherein the elder candidate will be considered before the younger.
NOTE: If everything as specified in the provisions to sub-clauses referred to above i.e. (A)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 are equal, then the interse merit will be determined by draw of
lots.
The determination of interse merit as detailed above for selection of Government seats will
be the basis for the merit list of candidates claiming benefit of reservation under Admission
Rules.
(B)
After the completion of the entrance test, the ANSWER KEY will be published on
05-05-2015 on the KEA Website: http://kea.kar.nic.in The candidates / parents / lecturers
can file their objections, if any, addressed to the Executive Director, Karnataka
Examinations Authority, Bangalore on or before 11-05-2015 either in person or only
through SPEED POST / email: keauthority-ka@nic.in, with regard to any of the published
answer Key, along with all supporting documents / justification. The objections received by
the KEA will be placed before an Expert Committee, whose decision will be final for
determination of the right answer key. The answer key approved by the Expert Committee
will be applied during evaluation for determination of merit order.
As per the merit determined by the KEA, the Medical / Dental, ISM & H, Engineering,
Architecture, Farm Science, B-Pharm and Pharm-D ranks will be assigned to the eligible
candidates. Separate result sheets showing the Medical / Dental, ISM & H, Engineering,
Architecture, Farm science, B-Pharm and Pharm-D ranks will be published on 26-05-2015
on KEA Website http://kea.kar.nic.in. The correct answer key and the list of candidates
whose results have been withheld and the reasons for withholding the results will also be
published along with the results. The candidates whose results are with-held for want of 2nd
PUC / 12th std. Marks and date of birth such candidates / parents need not worry because,
ranks will be assigned as and when they submit the required documents on the specified
dates during office hours.
Page11of28
(1) The candidates are requested to verify their qualifying examination marks
printed on the result sheets without fail, if there is any discrepancy with reference
to qualifying examination marks the same should be brought to the notice of this
office immediately for fresh assignment of ranks, if any.
(2) Candidates whose results will be withheld for want of qualifying examination
marks should submit a photocopy of their Q. E. marks card either in person or
through Speed Post to the KEA and the ranks in respect of such candidates will be
published subsequently.
(C) Request for re-totaling or revaluation of the OMR answer sheets will not be
entertained, as the valuation and the subsequent scoring will be error free.
What does G 55 mean?
After the declaration of the results, the candidates may not get ranks assigned mainly for the following
reasons :
1) For want of Q. E. marks, a candidate might have missed the rank. 2) A candidate might have marked
the version code wrongly. 3) Q. E. marks may change due to revaluation or otherwise, when corrected, a
fresh ranking becomes necessary.
The KEA computers are programmed to assign new ranks or fresh ranks to the candidates falling within
the above said categories without disturbing the rank numbers assigned to the candidates whose results
were declared earlier.
The computer program is such that it can assign ranks in between two integers without altering the
previous rank numbers. Undoubtedly, you were assigned a rank after the declaration of the results. When
a rank was assigned to you, rank 1234 and 1235 had been assigned to two other candidates. When it
came to assigning a rank to you, the computer found that in the normal course, your rank would have been
after the candidate with rank 1234 and before the candidate with rank 1235. Therefore, the computer had
to place you between 1234 and 1235.
As already said, the computer is programmed to generate large number of ranks between two integers by
dividing the space alphabetically from A to Z. Then each alphabet is subdivided from 1 to 99. Now, if a new
rank is required to be assigned between two integer ranks, in the first instance, the computer assigns a
division number as G 55 before the previous rank. If one more rank needs to be assigned between the
rank 1234 and 1234 G 55, the computer assigns a rank as 1234 G 44. If one more rank is to be assigned
between 1234 G 55 and 1235, then it assigns a rank as 1234 G 66.
Page12of28
OF
SEATS
IN
FAVOUR
OF
SPECIAL
CATEGORY
Name of the
Special Category
Eligibility Criteria
(I)
(ii)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(iii)
(a)
Reservation for
NCC
(a) All India Thal Sainik Camp (Boys) - TSC (B); (b) All India
Thal Sainik Camp (Girls) - TSC (G) ; (c) All India Nau
Sainik Camp - NSC ; (d) All India Vayu Sainik Camp
VSC; (e) Cadets participate in All India Movalankar
Shooting Championship as a part of KAR and GOA
Director Team. AND in complete - Mountaineering
Expeditions (over 5900 Mtrs), Sailing Expeditions using
wind power only (401 KMs), Motor Cycle Expeditions
(more than 3500 KMs) and Cycling Expeditions (more
than 1500 KMs), organised by DG, NCC / NCC Director
of Karnataka & Goa.
(iv)
Page13of28
(v)
(b)
Reservation for
SPORTS :
Page14of28
(e)
Reservation for
EX_DEFENCE :
(f)
Reservation for
PHYSICALLY
DISABLED:
Page16of28
(g)
Reservation for
ANGLO-INDIAN:
(h)
Reservation for
CENTRAL ARMED
POLICE FORCE:-
(i)
Page17of28
(c)
Reservation for
KANNADA MEDIUM
CANDIDATES
(d)
Reservation
of
seats
HYDERABAD
KARNATAKA
The interse merit determined under Rule - 7 (Please see Item - 6) will remain the
same for the purpose of eligibility and benefit of reservation under Item - 7. If any seat
reserved in favour of candidates belonging to any of the categories referred Item - 7 above is
not filled up due to non-availability of eligible candidates belonging to such categories, the
reservation to that extent will stand reduced and will be transferred to the General Merit
category after allotment of seats.
Page19of28
Defence
Ex-CAPF
N.C.C.
CAPF / CRPF / CISF / BSF / ITBP
02-05-2015
(10.30 am to 5.30 pm)
04-05-2015 to 05-05-2015
(10.30 am to 5.30 pm)
06-05-2015 to 07-05-2015
(10.30 am to 5.30 pm)
Sports
08-05-2015 to 09-05-2015
(10.30 am to 5.30 pm)
Candidates who do not submit their original Special Category Certificates on the notified dates, WILL
NOT BE ELIGIBLE for further verification and they will not be considered for allotment of seats under the
respective Special categories.
Page20of28
..
Date:
Date:
(Signature of parent)
(Signature of parent)
COUNTERSIGNED BY
COUNTERSIGNED BY
Unit Seal
Date:
Unit Seal
Date:
Unit Seal
Date:
..
Date:
(Signature of Parent)
COUNTERSIGNED BY
Unit Seal
Date:
Page21of28
gi zrPgt it v
... fAi ....
vQ
. U / ltz Vg
/ w (CsyAi vAz
Cx v) gg ..
wAi vqVz, J UAz Cg
P gi g .
Egvz.
Cg U / Uz Pig / Pij
.. (Csy) Eg 2015g
i jPAi vUzPArz,
CzP AAzAv F gi
it v jAi Avg qVz.
:
AP :
vgg
PbjAi , g
v zgt AS
CATEGORY CANDIDATES
Date
................
This
is
to
certify
that
Sri.
/
Kum.
.................................
S/o
/
D/o
......................
NCC Camps / Sports
events, when he / she was a student of this institution
.. Aged . years
residing at
... do hereby solemnly affirm and state on oath as follows:
I was a resident of (place) located at
District in Karnataka State. Presently I am
residing at .. (place) located in
.. State. My son / daughter Mr. / Kum.
......... with CET Number
has appeared for the Common Entrance Test 2015.
My Mother tongue is .. (Kannada / Tulu /
Kodava.) and my son / daughter is able to read, write and speak
Kannada language.
In the proof of Kannada / Tulu / Kodava as the Mother Tongue of
myself and my son / daughter, I have sworn to this affidavit and
submitted to the KEA for selection of seat under the Horanadu /
Gadinadu Kannadiga candidate category.
I declare that the above information is correct to the best of my
knowledge and belief. In case any of the above information is found
to be false or incorrect, my son / daughter shall forfeit the seat allotted
by the KEA. I hold myself also, liable for civil or criminal action and
the Government or KEA, Karnataka may take appropriate action
against me in this behalf.
Date:
Deponent
Vg
Eg
vgUwAz
Signature of
Head of the institution
(Name in Block letters..........................................)
Institution seal
COUNTER SIGNED BY ME
Address, Seal & Office Telephone Number
of the Block Educational Officer / DDPI.
Page22of28
:
AP :
Ai SzsAig
Ai t ,
g v zgt AS
gd
Pv Pt CPjU ,
PbjAi ,
g v zgt AS
PROFORMA FOR CAPF / CRPF / CISF / BSF / ITBP UNDER CLAUSE 6(o) OF ITEM 6 OF CHAPTER 1 OF e-BROCHURE
This is to certify that Sri / Kum . DOB. Class Name and Place of the Scholl
is the Son / Daughter of service No. .. Rank .. Name Trade
. Who is / was a combatant member of the wef and presently
serving at .. (unit) (place) wef.Service No. . Rank .. Name
Trade . Unit . Is / was a CAPF / CRPF / CISF / BSF / ITBP member according to definition as laid down
by Government of Karnataka. His permanent residential address at the time of joining service as per his service documents
is.....
Date:
(Signature of parent)
COUNTERSIGNED BY
Unit Seal
Date:
Unit Seal
Date:
ANNEXURE-II to G.O. No. SWD 225 BCA 2000 dated 30th March 2002
NEW COMPREHENSIVE CREAMY LAYER
Under Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution of India, the following persons shall not be eligible for
reservation of seats of posts categorised under IIA, IIB, IIIA and IIIB.
NOTE:
3
4
Page23of28
LIST OF GAMES AND SPORTS EVENTS FOR THE PURPOSE OF RULE 9(1) (B)
i.e., ITEM 7 (A) (b) OF THIS BROCHURE
SUPER A GAMES
Olympic Games
World Championships
Asian Championships
Asian Games
Commonwealth Games
Commonwealth Championships
A GAMES
1. Afro-Asian Games
2. S. A. F. Games
3. International Meets
B GAMES
1. National Games
2. National Championships
3. All India Inter Zonal Meets
4. National level Tournaments / Championships
Conducted by School Games Federation of
India.
5. All India Rural Sports Meets conducted by
Sports Authority of India.
6. All India Women Sports Meets conducted by
Sports Authority of India. and
National Meets / Championships conducted by
the following 60 National Sports Federations
recognized by Government of India:
1. Archery Federation of India
2. Amateur Athletics Federation of India
3. Amateur Basketball Federation of India
4. Indian Amateur Boxing Federation
5. Cycling Federation of India
6. Equestrian Federation of India
7. All India Football Federation
8. Fencing Association of India
9. Gymnastics Federation of India
10. Handball Federation of India
11. Indian Hockey Federation
12. Judo Federation of India
13. Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India
14. Kho - Kho Federation of India
15. Indian Kayaking and Canoeing Association
16. National Rifle Association of India
17. Net ball Federation of India
18. Rowing Federation of India
19. Swimming Federation of India
20. Table Tennis Federation of India
21. All India Lawn Tennis Association
22. Taek-wondo Federation of India
23. Volleyball Federation of India
24. Indian Weight lifting Federation of India
25. Wrestling Federation of India
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Page24of28
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
LIST OF PLACES WHICH DO NOT COME UNDER THE PURVIEW OF RURAL AREAS
The candidates claiming eligibility for rural seats, should have studied 10 full academic
years continuously from 1st to 10th standard in a place / places OTHER THAN
the places mentioned below. However, if the candidates have studied in these
places from 1st to 10th standard before the date of notification as urban area, such
candidates are eligible to claim rural reservation benefit.
District Name
1.
Bangalore Urban
(BBMP)
gollarapalya,
Ananthapura,
Govindapura, Kenchanahalli, Manchenahalli, Chokkanahalli.
Year of
Notification
1995-96
2006-07
2.
Bangalore Rural
1995-96
3.
Ramanagaram
1995-96
4.
Mysore
5.
Belgaum
Page25of28
1995-96
1995-96
6.
Gulbarga
1995-96
7.
Tumkur
1995-96
8.
Kolar
1995-96
9.
Chickaballapur.
1995-96
10.
Chitradurga
11.
Davanagere
12.
Shimoga
1995-96
13.
Chamarajnagara
1995-96
14.
Mandya
1995-96
15.
Hassan
1995-96
16.
Chickamagalur
1995-96
17.
Udupi
1995-96
18.
Dakshina Kannada
1995-96
19.
Bijapur
1995-96
20.
Uttara Kannada
1995-96
21.
Bagalakote
1995-96
22.
Haveri
1995-96
23.
Gadag
1995-96
24.
Dharwad
1995-96
25.
Raichur
1995-96
26.
Koppal
1995-96
27.
Bidar
1995-96
28.
Bellary
1995-96
29.
Kodagu
1995-96
1995-96
1995-96
DeclarationofTownPanchayath(TP)toTownMunicipalCorporations(TMC)referthefollowing
notificationsNo.
(1)UDD220MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014(2)UDD221MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014
(3)UDD222MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014(4)UDD223MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014
(5)UDD224MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014(6)UDD225MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014
(7)UDD227MLR2013,BangaloreDated:11122014(8)UDD01MLR2014,BangaloreDated:11122014
(9)UDD02MLR2014,BangaloreDated:11122014(10)UDD86MLR2014,BangaloreDated:11122014
Page26of28
DeclarationofTownMunicipalCorporations(TMC)toCityMunicipalCorporations(CMC)referthe
followingnotificationsNo.
(1)UDD210MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014(2)UDD211MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014
(3)UDD212MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014(4)UDD215MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014
(5)UDD214MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014(6)UDD229MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014
(7)UDD231MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014(8)UDD232MLR2013,BangaloreDated:09122014
(9)UDD11MLR2014,BangaloreDated:09122014(10)UDD208MLR2013,BangaloreDated:15122014
gd irP.
UzjU CP qU.
Ut AU it v v j it vU CQv izjU F PU qVz.
Ut AU it v
j it v
. gg U / U . Eg
(i UzjU iv )
f
Ai . vQ . Uz
Vg
Eg
vgUwAigU
v
Q
AU
.....
vgUwAz
fAi
....
.. Uz ... Ai
ir
...
qz
jPAi
GwtgVgvg.
rg MAz zq Ug z, t Ug z Cx
1. . w Eg U :
U JAg PlP
gdz fAi U /
lt / Ugz i AiiVzg v
Eg dg jm UP jzgVgvg.
2. Pig/Pij . Eg vAz / v
/ Pg Pj Dz AS : Jq 251
J 95, AUg, AP : 31-01-1995g CAi
dg jm Uz g (Creamy layer) z
gAz itPjVz.
jv Avz
g zU gvz zzv.
AP :
AP
:
Ai SzsAig
Ai t ,
g v zgt AS
gd
Pv Pt CPjU ,
PbjAi , g v zgt AS
Z - 2 : j it v q CPv
v zgt AS
Z -1 : Ezg GAiVVg i
JA z 1950g dv wzs PzAi
20 CZzz Cx Agvz.
vgg
PbjAi , g
: .F it v i Uzg jzAv
J Uzg dgrz iv Ut w
Uz Cr l DAiU jUtUz.
Page27of28
(Creamy layer)
zg
Ugw
UrVg
CAU
gV
RavrPAq Avg it v qP.
2 U
3 U
4 U
5 U
... fAi
gi zrPgt it v
vQ . U / ltz Vg / w
(CsyAi vAz Cx v) gg .. wAi vqVz, J
UAz Cg P gi g . Egvz. Cg U / Uz Pig / Pij
.. (Csy) Eg 2015g i jPAi vUzPArz, CzP AAzAv
Page28of28
vgg
PbjAi , g v zgt AS
<L`<LFM%LPM$L$L 7La<L%M-7L/La
<L`<LFM%LPM$L$LLSE :,LR=P%LPAb T?FL<L%M*LP<L M=PhL$L<LP/LPY <L$L <LPLVJLP FLAbFL:TOM$LP<L 7La<L%M- 7L/La
/L<LP_ 3M%LP3L 7La<LPP <LPR?<LQ <L`<LFM%LP 7LBLPFLTRO7L5T=PO5LPM&TLSET FL93,L7L'W T?FL <L%M*LP<L
LRA%L%M3L[Ab<L$L<LPLVJM3L[AbLSE7LBLPFLTRO7L5T/TRO'M&T=BLc=3M`?%LPLJLP5L*TFLP<L7Ma%TROL
7L&OTd<LPR?L7La<TOBL7L*T%LP?PHLh/TM
:,L`2h/L3T/M>P7TRODLL$L/L3T/M>PLK9^$LP<LPS/L$M3L[AbTRODL.T
5M5LP <LPR?L 5L5L\ <LS0Y%LPP 3LP <LP/LPY 3TO 5L5L\ 3M%LP3L 7La<LPP
<LPR?<M3T%TP3LPTROEFLP/TYO5T
FLI
HTFL$LP
:,L`2h/L3T/M>P7TRODLL$LP
9L3M%L%M4iM&LJL7La<L%M-7L/La<L$L<L%M5L<L5LP\L*MX%LP<M5L<LPR4FL:TOLP
LSE7LBLP/TRO'M&T=BLc=3M`?%LPLJL7La<TOBLTV#h3M$L$M$LP<LCaOLP<L%M&
%LP<L$LPCaOCaO<LP0%LP<L$L<LPL<LPLJLPCa/L$LP$LP/MY$T
CaO<LP0CaO%LP<L$L
<LS0Y%LPP
<L`<LFM%LP7LBLPFLTRO7L5T=PO5LPM&T
<L%MAL$M 1L<M TO-N3M$L$MLSE :,LR=P%LPAb 3TUIL BLa<LP 3LP[ <L$L 7La<LPP 3M%LP<LQ LSE LSE
M=PhL<LS0Y>P3L@TO$LP/LY3T%TP3LP<LPR?L3LS+iOL&FL@M3T
<L$L <MEhL 3M%LP<LQ <L`<LFM%LPLSE :,LR=P7LBLP FLTRO7L5T=PO5LPM&T%LPAb 3TUIL BLa<LP43L
$LR
Ld$LLJLAbLJM3T%TP3LP
<LPR?L3LS+iOL&FL@M3T
45ML/LHLC@M[$L$LFLI<LP/LPY L TO&
<TRHL$LP
FLZJL7La<L%M-7L/La 6O*LP<L4iM&LJL
<TRHL$LP
<TPOA5L 7La<L%M- 7L/La3LAb 6<LPT 5Lc>PFL4$LP<LQ3L5LP\
HTR*T3LPHM
)7L]-N7La<L%M-7L/La5LP\%L%M<LFLZJL3LAb <TPO@THTOK3L<LS0Y%LP5LP\5L*TFL@MLP0Y3T%TRO!=PO5LP3T%TROAb5L
L3M%LP/LHLC@M[$L&3L@TO7L*T4$L:TOLP:TO$T%L%M&3L@M3L$LR7L*T43L[$T3L5LP\7L&L-NFL@MLP<LQ4?b
CERTIFICATE 3
Certificate to be furnished by Agriculturist/Manual Labour in Agricultural Activities
To become eligible for seats reserved for Agriculturists and /or children of Agriculturist and /or
Agricultural Labour and or children of Agriculture Labour in Agricultural activities with main source
of income from Agriculture /Animal Husbandry/Fisheries/Manual Labour in agricultural activities.
A) Declaration by the Applicant /Parent/Guardian (If both the Parents are not alive)
I hereby declare that my profession is Agriculture/Agriculture Labour and the main source of my
income is from this profession.
Signature
Name
(Applicant/Parent/Guardian)
B) Certificate from Revenue Authority (income to be mentioned invariably)
*Sri/kumari.............................................*Son/daughter/ward of *Sri/Smt............................. is an
applicant for admission to the Farm University.
This is to certify that Sri/Smt.......................................... *agriculturist (as owner)/manual labour in
Agricultural activities and whose main source of income is from...............................................
This is to certify that their Annual Income from *Agriculture/Animal Husbandry/Fisheries/Manual
Labour on Agriculture land is
Rs................................ (in words......................................................................................................)
Place:
Date:
Signature of
Tahasildar
(Seal of the Certificate Issuing Authority)
*Strike off whichever is no applicable in the above certificate
Note: Certificate-3 should be obtained from the Revenue Tahasildar of the area where the above
profession is being practiced/land is situated. Certificate issued by any other authority will not be
accepted.
0D?%<*<(<C"N?<<$,<J0<=$,<%<J
LSETRO(M3L+7La<TOBM07L*T%LP?P9%LPFLP<L:,L`2hLJL/L3T/M>PLJLP FLAbFLP<L
<TO/L5LHMLRLSE3M%LP3L3LS+iOLS/L7La<L%M-7L/La
CaO<LP0CaO$L<L$LP
HLP3T[%LPAbL/Lh<L`6<LhIFLP0Y3LP[<L$L<LPR?<TO/L5LL TO&%LP<L$L<L%M5LLK3L<MEhL
<L$L<L%M5L$LRLd$LLJLAb
<L$L<TO/L5LBTaO-N$LR>P3L$L<L$TT$LP/LY3T
0D?%<*<6DJ?$><@10<<<;<@)*=<
(<
<0<DDD;<*<&(D
&<;<@
0<@B3
0D?%<*<
6DJ?$>
%<@ F
/#<%DI
0<@*D
/="D
/#<%DI
*<<</#<%DI
+H%<D
@F
8a@g
<TPO
!R5g
!P@TU
LFgW
FT7TW9$g
TRWO9$g
5L<L9$g
+FT9$g
!5L<L&
7,T9a<L&
<L%Mgh
@F
FLZJL
45ML
9'<M*T4iM&%LPFLI
L TO&%LP=JMFL
<TRHL$LP
$
!1%(241'7&('%;6+(&$0','$6(59+1&.$,/5($65 70'(4*4,&7.674,56
3716$$0'9+15(2$4(065+$8(,0&1/()41/$*4,&7.674($0'5$.$4;
Basic
pay
D.A.
H.R.A.
C.C.A.
Others
Total
April 2014
May 2014
June 2014
July 2014
August 2014
September 2014
October 2014
November 2014
December 2014
January 2015
February 2015
March 2015
Encashment
Supplementary
Any other
Gross Total
.$&(
$6(
-+0%452)%0()%.1*
2%6-0+**-')2
,<J0<=$,<%<J
0<<0<=*<<;< 10<<<;<@
%<(D%=2@,DB?7<<<@<;<0<<0<=*<(=<@0<A=9<0<C&G2@(<:DB)<@0<0<<<C8<<
DB?=(<",<J0D?6<,<!D<@@0</#<I'M<;<@9<5K9<@0<,<J0<=$,<%<J
CaO<LP0CaO $L<L$LP FLc/L <LS0Y MFL <LS0Y
HTR43LP[ <L$L
5TO FMA5L FLc/LMFL <LS0Y%LP <MEhL 'PW 3M%LP<LQ
$LR
Ld$LLJLAb $LP/LY3T
<LPP3LP<L$T3LP 5M5LP 3M%LP /T&T 7M<L0FLP<L<L5M3LP[ <LDLh3L
$L
3M%LP<L$L<L%M5L/T&T%LP5LP\FLAbG3L=<L$LLJL5LP\?L0YG3T[O<T
45ML
FLI/L3T/M>P7TRODLL$LP
FLZJL
/L3T/M>P#O<L/L<M3L[Ab
*<@.(#<
:,L`2h/L3T/M>P7TRODLL$LPLSE<L$L<L%M5L3L"TR/TT:TO$T<LPR?LK3L9$LP<L3M%LP3L
<MEhL=<L$LLJL5LP\FLAbFL:TOM3L8i*L=(g5L5L<LPR5T
-N!<1L
FMW7g7TO7L$g$LR $LAb
5M5LPHTFL$LP<L%LPFLPe<LDLh=JMFL
3LAb<MFL<M3T[O5T3LPTJLL*L/TTROEFLP/TYO5T
CaO<LP0CaO5M5LPCaO<LP0CaO%LP<L$L
<LPL<LPLJM3LP[5L5L\<LS0Y%LPP$LP/LY3T5L5L\@Mb&O0%LP
<LPR?LK3L<MEhL3M%LPLJL=<L$LLJLPTJLL5L0<T
<0=8M<0<<0<=*<
(<
<J9<
0<<0<=*<(<10<<@<;<@
LSEM=PhL:TOFM%LP3L<LPR?L
$LR
;
<LS0Y%LP <LPR?L 'PW <TR/LY <L$L<L%M5L /T&T $LR
7M<L0G$LP<L/T
G
<TO/L5L3LL <LPR?L <L$L<L%M5L3L <TR/LY 7La<L%M- 7L/La
$LR
?L0YG3T
+
:TO$T<LPR?LK3L=<L&G
$LR
'PW
$LR
@F0DB%<G
5L5L\<LPR?<L$L<L%M5L<LQLSEM=PhL<LS0Y%LP3L$LP/LY3T
9<B<*D <TPO@T 0KG$LP<L/T 3LFLP<L 7La<L%M- 7L/LaLJLP 5TU!/T>P?b43L[ $T 0$LFLV&FLP<L HMLP M5LR5LP
&O0%LP La<LPLJL5LP\ :,L`2hLJL <TPO@T /TT3LPTRJLPf<L 4i M$L<L5LP\ LSE =BLc=3M`6?%LPLJLP
HTR4$LP/LY<T
45ML/L3T/M>P7TRODLL$LP
FLZJL
/L3T/M>P#O<L/L<M?b43L[Ab
*<*<H0<@@(D,<J0<=$><9<4=(D
45ML5M`%L%M4OBL$LP5TRO'&%LP<L$LFLI
<LP/LPY<TRHL&5TR4T
FLZJL
8
$6(
.$&(
,*0$674(1)$4(067$4',$0
,)%16+2$4(065$4(016$.,8(
#
14/$61))),'$8,661%(57%/,66('%;6+($0','$6($4(067$4',$09+1+$5
16+(45174&(51),0&1/(,0$'',6,1061*4,&7.674(
!
!5
$*( ==== ;($45
4(5,'(06 1) ======================= '1 +(4(%; 51.(/0.;
$)),4/$0'59($4$5)1..195
$/ 6+( 2$4(06*7$4',$0 1) 6+( &$0','$6(
4,7/$4,
============= ( +( ,5 70'(4 /; &7561'; ; 1&&72$6,10 ,5
!+( $007$. ,0&1/( 1) /; )$/,.; )41/
',))(4(065174&(59$5$5)1..195
41
.
(6$,.51),0&1/(
/1706,05
1
$ &67$.7.6,8$6,10*4,&7.674($%174
5
% 75,0(55*4155$/1706"$52(4!#
5
& 4155 5$.$4; ,0&.7',0* $.. $..19$0&(5 0&.15( 5
$.$4;(46,),&$6(
' 6+(4 174&(5 2(&,);
5
14%. 3
!+(/$,05174&(1)/;,0&1/(,5)41/*4,&7.674(*4,&7.674(.$%174
$6(
.$&(
,*0$674(1)$4(067$4',$0
,)%16+2$4(065$4(016$.,8(
"
$6(
.$&(
,*0$674(1)7',&,$.$*,564$6(
16$4;7%.,&9,6+5($.
KEA COPY
PHYSICS
1. NAME OF THE CANDIDATE (IN BLOCK LETTERS ONLY)
21
41
22
42
23
43
24
44
25
45
26
A-1
A-2
27
A-3
A-4
28
B-1
B-2
29
B-3
B-4
10
C-1
11
C-2
C-3
C-4
12
D-1
D-2
W W
D-3
D-4
47
48
49
30
50
31
51
32
52
13
33
53
14
34
54
15
35
55
16
36
56
17
37
57
18
38
58
19
39
59
20
40
60
WRONG METHODS
1
INSTRUCTIONS
46
CORRECT METHOD
1
SP
P
Q
PY
ANSWERS
EN
Q.
No .
ANSWERS
4.QUESTION
BOOKLET
VERSION CODE
Q.
No .
ANSWERS
EC
3. CET NUMBER
Q.
No .
IM
2. QUESTION BOOKLET
SERIAL NUMBER
1. Do not make any stray marks on this OMR sheet. For rough work use the space provided in Question Booklet.
2. Affix your Left Hand THUMB IMPRESSION only, after completion of the test in the space provided below.