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Sep 04, 2015

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AP Physics

© All Rights Reserved

3.1K (de) vizualizări

AP Physics

© All Rights Reserved

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1 Statics

Choice A

Charge

Choice B

Energy

It is uniformly

It is concentrated distributed

at the center of the throughout the

sphere.

sphere.

Choice C

Impulse

Its density

decreases radially

outward from the

center.

5 Statics

is disconnected and the separation between the plates is increased, what will

happen to the charge on the capacitor and the voltage across it?

E

A point P is 0.50 meter from a point charge of 5.0 10^(8) coulomb. The

intensity of the electric field at point P is most nearly:

D

A point P is 0.50 meter from a point charge of 5.0 10^(8) coulomb. The

electric potential at point P is most nearly:

C

2.5 10^1

2.5 10^(8) N/C N/C

2.5 10^1

2.5 10^(8) N/C N/C

Both decrease

9.0 10^2

N/C

9.0 10^2

N/C

6 Statics

One joule of work is needed to move one coulomb of charge from one point

to another with no change in

velocity. Which of the following is true between the two points?

The resistance is

one ohm.

The potential

The current is one difference is one

ampere.

volt.

The charge

increases and the

voltage decreases.

1.8 10^3

N/C

1.8 10^3

N/C

The electric field

strength is one

newton per

coulomb.

7 Statics

Two positive charges of magnitude q are each a distance d from the origin A

of a coordinate system as shown

above. At which of the following points is the electric field least in magnitude? A

8 Statics

Two positive charges of magnitude q are each a distance d from the origin A

of a coordinate system as shown

above. At which of the following points is the electric potential greatest in

magnitude?

9 Statics

capacitor has plates with twice the area and twice the separation. The

capacitance of the second capacitor is most nearly:

2C

4C

10 Statics

and are separated by a distance d

(much greater than the radii of the spheres) as shown above. The magnitude

of the force of attraction on the left

sphere is F1. After the two spheres are made to touch and then are

reseparated by distance d, the magnitude of the force on the left sphere is F2.

Which of the following relationships is correct?

E

2F1=F2

F1=F2

F1=2F2

11 Statics

The distance

The charge on

between the plates each plate

An electron is accelerated from rest for a time of 10^-9 second by a uniform

electric field that exerts a force of

8.0 x 1015 newton on the electron. What is the magnitude of the electric

field?

An electron is accelerated from rest for a time of 10^-9 second by a uniform

electric field that exerts a force of

8.0 x 1015 newton on the electron. The speed of the electron after it has

accelerated for the 10^9 second is most nearly

energy

electric field

plates

electric potential

due to one

electron

F1=4F2

The potential

difference across

the plates

F1=8F2

which of the following?

C

10^1 m/s

2 Statics

3 Statics

4 Statics

12 Statics

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14 Statics

Question Text

The electron volt is a measure of

Answer

B

distributed in or on the sphere?

16 Statics

distances from the center of the

sphere, which location will have the greatest electric field strength?

Two isolated charges, + q and 2q, are 2 centimeters apart. If F is the

magnitude of the force acting on charge

2Q, what are the magnitude and direction of the force acting on charge +q?

17 Statics

Charges + Q and 4Q are situated as shown above. The net electric field is

zero nearest which point?

A

15 Statics

Choice D

Momentum

Its density

increases radially

outward from the

center.

Choice E

Velocity

It is uniformly

distributed on the

surface of the

sphere only.

The charge

remains fixed

7.5 10^8

N/C

7.5 10^8

N/C

The electric field

strength is one

joule per electron.

Justification

by definition

Since charge is free to move around

on/in a conductor, excess charges will

repel each other to the

outer surface

When the battery is disconnected, Q

remains constant. Since C decreases

when d increases and

Q = CV, V will increase

E = kQ/r^2

V = kQ/r

W = qV

Since both charges are positive, the

electric field vectors point in opposite

directions at points

between the two. At point A, the

magnitudes of the electric field vectors

are equal and therefore

cancel out, making E = 0 at point A

7.statics.png

V = kQ/r and since both charges are

positive, the largest potential is at the

closest point to the

two charges (it is more mathematically

complex than that, but this reasoning

works for the

choices given)

7.statics.png

C=

0

A/d; if A 2, C 2 and if d 2, C 2 so

the net effect is C is unchanged

The net charge on the two spheres is

+Q so when they touch and separate,

the charge on each

sphere (divided equally) is Q. F

Q1

Q2 so before contact F (2Q)(Q) =

2Q2

and after

contact F ( Q)( Q) = Q2

E

or 1/8 of the original force

10.statics.png

None of the above effect on the capacitance

electron charge

electric charge

By definition

E = F/q

10^3 m/s

10^5 m/s

10^7 m/s

10^9 m/s

0 (center of the

sphere)

3R/2

5R/4

2R

(1/2) F Toward

charge 2q

2 F Away from

charge 2q

2q

charge 2q

Image name

= 10^4 10^9 10^30 = 10^(14 +

9 (30))

Inside the metal sphere E = 0. Once

None of the above outside the sphere E decreases as you

because the field move away so the

is of constant

strongest field will be the closest point

strength

to the outside of the sphere

2F Toward charge

2q

Newtons third law

Where E is zero must be closer to the

smaller charge to make up for the

weaker field. The

vectors point in opposite directions

when outside the two opposite charges.

These two criteria

E

eliminate 4 of the choices.

17.statics.png

18 Statics

19 Statics

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22 Statics

sphere. Which of the following is

true?

E

Two large parallel conducting plates P and Q are connected to a battery of

emf E, as shown above.

A test charge is placed successively at points I, II, and III. If edge effects are

negligible, the force on the charge

when it is at point III is

B

Forces between two objects which are inversely proportional to the square of

the distance between the objects

include which of the following? I. Gravitational force between two celestial

bodies

II. Electrostatic force between two electrons

III. Nuclear force between two neutrons

C

The diagram above shows an isolated, positive charge Q. Point (B) is twice

as far away from Q as point A. The

ratio of the electric field strength at point A to the electric field strength at

point B is

B

Which of the following is true about the net force on an uncharged conducting

sphere in a uniform electric

field?

A

24 Statics

Two conducting spheres of different radii, as shown above, each have charge

Q. Which of the following

occurs when the two spheres are connected with a conducting wire?

E

Two parallel conducting plates are connected to a constant voltage source.

The magnitude of the electric field

between the plates is 2,000 N/C. If the voltage is doubled and the distance

between the plates is reduced to 1/5

the original distance, the magnitude of the new electric field is

E

25 Statics

The figure above shows two particles, each with a charge of +Q, that are

located at the opposite corners of a

square of side d. What is the direction of the net electric field at point P ?

26 Statics

The figure above shows two particles, each with a charge of +Q, that are

located at the opposite corners of a

square of side d. What is the potential energy of a particle of charge +q that is

held at point P ?

D

23 Statics

27 Statics

28 Statics

29 Statics

30 Statics

31 Statics

32 Statics

a battery of emf E. Which of the

following is correct if the plate separation is doubled while the battery remains

connected?

B

A 4 F capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V. The electrical

energy stored in the capacitor is

E

The hollow metal sphere shown above is positively charged. Point C is the

center of the sphere and point P is

any other point within the sphere. Which of the following is true of the electric

field at these points?

A

a distance d from the origin O, as

shown above. What is the direction of the electric field at the origin O ?

D

Charges Q and +Q are located on the x and yaxes, respectively, each at

a distance d from the origin O, as

shown above. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin O?

D

An electron e and a proton p are simultaneously released from rest in a

uniform electric field E, as shown above.

Assume that the particles are sufficiently far apart so that the only force acting

on each particle after it is

released is that due to the electric field. At a later time when the particles are

still in the field, the electron and

the proton will have the same

E

inside the sphere

The charge

resides uniformly is constant in

magnitude, but not

throughout the

zero.

sphere.

of equal magnitude of equal magnitude

and in the same

and in the same

direction as the

direction as the

force on the

force on the

charge when it is charge when it is

at point I

at point II

An insulated metal

object acquires a

net positive charge

when brought near

to, but not in

contact with, the

sphere

much greater in

equal in magnitude magnitude than

to the force on the the force on the

charge when it is charge when it is

at point I, but in the at point II, but in

opposite direction the same direction

When a second

conducting sphere

is connected by a

conducting wire to

the first sphere,

charge is

transferred until

the electric

potentials of the

two spheres are

equal.

much less in

magnitude than

the force on the

charge when it is

at point II, but in

the same direction

the region

surrounding the

sphere increases

with increasing

distance from the

sphere.

I only

III only

I and II only

8 to 1

4 to 1

2 to 1

It is zero

No charge flows

1 to 1

It produces a

torque on the

It is in the direction sphere about the

It is in the direction opposite to the

direction of the

of the field

field

field.

Negative charge

Negative charge

flows from the

Negative charge

flows from the

larger sphere to

flows from the

smaller sphere to

the smaller sphere larger sphere to

the larger sphere

until the electric

the smaller sphere until the electric

field at the surface until the electric

field at the surface

of

potential of each

of

each sphere is the sphere is the

each sphere is the

same.

same.

same.

1 to 2

It causes the

sphere to oscillate

about an

equilibrium

position.

Negative charge

flows from the

smaller sphere to

the larger sphere

until the electric

potential of each

sphere is the

same.

in potential. Analyzing the other

choices: A is wrong

because the charge resides on the

surface. For B, E = 0 in a charged

conducting sphere. E =

kQ/r^2

eliminates choice C. And for D, charge

separation will occur, but the object will

not

acquire any charge.

plates therefore the force on a charge is

also uniform

between the plates

19.statics.png

The nuclear force does not have a

similar relationship.

E 1/r2

so if r 2, E 4

21.statics.png

forces on the opposite charges are in

opposite directions,

canceling out

V = kQ/r so the smaller sphere is at the

lower potential (more negative = lower)

Negative charge

flows from low to high potential so the

charge will flow from the smaller sphere

to the larger.

The flow of charge ceases when there

is no difference in potential.

23.statics.png

E = V/d so if V 2, E 2 and if d 5, E

5 so the net effect is E 10

The electric field vectors from the two

charges point down and to the left

(away from the

charges) so the resultant field points

northeast

east

southeast

south

southwest

down and left

25.statics.png

The potential energy of a particle at a

location is the potential at that location

times the charge.

SQRT(2)qQ/

2SQRT(2)qQ/

In this case, the potential is kQ/d +

zero

(40d)

1qQ/(40d)

2qQ/(40d)

(40d)

kQ/d = (2kQ/d)

25.statics.png

If the battery remains connected, the

The potential

The potential

potential remains constant. C

The electric charge The electric charge difference between difference between

decreases as the separation

on the plates is

on the plates is

the plates is

the plates is

The capacitance is increases soothe charge Q = CV will

doubled.

halved

doubled.

halved

unchanged.

also decrease

800N/C

1,600N/C

2,400N/C

5,000N/C

20,000N/C

2 10^10 J

2 10^6 J

It is zero at C, but

at P it is not zero

and is directed

outward.

2 10^4 J

2 10^2 J

It is zero at both

points.

2 10^8 J

It is zero at C, but

at P it is not zero

and is directed

inward

It is zero at P, but

at C it is not zero.

It is not zero at

either point.

east

west

northwest

southeast

southwest

kQ/(2d^2)

kQ/(2^(1/2)d^2)

kQ/d^2

2^(1/2)kQ/d^2

2kQ/d^2

magnitude of

acceleration

equal charge, the forces on them are

equal. Since they

have different masses, the

magnitude of force accelerations, speeds and

acting on them

displacements will not be equal.

32.statics.png

displacement

UC = CV^2

In metals under electrostatic conditions,

the electric field is zero everywhere

inside.

29.statics.png

The electric field vector from the +Q

charge points down and from the Q

charge points to the

right so the resultant field points down

and right

30.statics.png

The two vectors, each of magnitude E =

kQ/d2, point at right angles to each

other so the resultant field is 2E

30.statics.png

33 Statics

34 Statics

35 Statics

36 Statics

37 Statics

38 Statics

10 V

8V

6V

4V

2V

parallel plates is uniform, which means

the potential changes

uniformly with distance. For a change of

8 V over 4 cm means the change of

potential with

position (and the electric field strength)

is 2 V/cm, which gives the potential 1

cm away from the

2 V plate as 4 V

33.statics.png

800 V/m

600 V/m

400 V/m

200 V/m

100 V/m

E=V/d

1/4 K

1/2 K

4K

effect on the kinetic energy, just on the

speed in this case)

2K

A small negatively

charged object

The charge on Y is

placed at point X

negative and the

The strength of the The electric field is would tend to

charge on Z is

electric field is the strongest midway move toward the

positive.

same everywhere. between Y and Z. right.

E = kQ/r2

1/4 Co

1/2 Co

Co

2 Co

4 Co

directed

perpendicular to

the surface

independent of the

directed parallel to surface charge

the surface

density

zero

directly

proportional to the

distance between

R and S

positive

zero

Charges arrange themselves on

conductors so there is no electric field

inside, and no electric field

component along the surface

Two large, flat, parallel, conducting plates are 0.04 m apart, as shown above.

The lower plate is at a potential of

2 V with respect to ground. The upper plate is at a potential of 10 V with

respect to ground. Point P is located

0.01 m above the lower plate. The electric potential at point P is

D

Two large, flat, parallel, conducting plates are 0.04 m apart, as shown above.

The lower plate is at a potential of

2 V with respect to ground. The upper plate is at a potential of 10 V with

respect to ground. Point P is located

0.01 m above the lower plate. The magnitude of the electric field at point P is D

A particle of charge Q and mass m is accelerated from rest through a

potential difference V, attaining a kinetic

energy K. What is the kinetic energy of a particle of charge 2Q and mass m/2

that is accelerated from rest

through the same potential difference?

D

The diagram above shows electric field lines in an isolated region of space

containing two small charged

spheres, Y and Z. Which of the following statements is true?

A hollow metal sphere 1.0 m in diameter carries a charge of 4.0 C. The

electric field at a distance of 2.0 m

from the center of the sphere is most nearly

A parallelplate capacitor has a capacitance Co. A second parallelplate

capacitor has plates with twice the area and twice the separation. The

capacitance of the second capacitor is most nearly

39 Statics

40 Statics

Points R and S are each the same distance d from two unequal charges, + Q

and +2Q, as shown above. The work required to move a charge -Q from point

R to point S is

D

41 Statics

A rigid insulated rod, with two unequal charges attached to its ends, is placed

in a uniform electric field E as shown above.The rod experiences a

B

42 Statics

The electric field of two long coaxial cylinders is represented by lines of force

as shown above. The charge on

the inner cylinder is +Q. The charge on the outer cylinder is

E

43 Statics

44 Statics

45 Statics

46 Statics

47 Statics

48 Statics

An isolated capacitor with air between its plates has a potential difference Vo

and a charge Qo. After the space between the plates is filled with oil, the

difference in potential is V and the charge is Q. Which of the following pairs of

relationships is correct?

B

Two small spheres have equal charges q and are separated by a distance d.

The force exerted on each sphere by the other has magnitude F. If the charge

on each sphere is doubled and d is halved, the force on each sphere has

magnitude

E

conditions is true?

a force F that must be

D

A positive charge of 3.0 10^ -8 coulomb is placed in an upward directed

uniform electric field of 4.0 10^4 N/C.When the charge is moved 0.5 meter

upward,the work done by the electric force on the charge is

A

The following configurations of electric charges are located at the vertices of

an equilateral triangle.Point P is equidistant from the charges. In which

configuration is the electric field at P equal to zero?

A

dependent on the

path taken from R

to S

Both charges

spheres Y and Z

The field lines point away from Y and

carry the charge of toward Z making Y positive and Z

the same sign.

negative.

infinite

33.statics.png

36.statics.png

By symmetry VR = VS so VRS = 0

and W = qV

40.statics.png

The force on the upper charge is to the

left and twice the magnitude of the

net force to the left

net force to the

force on the bottom charge, which is to

net force to the left and a

net force to the

right and a

the right. This makes the net force to

and a clockwise

counterclockwise right and a

counterclockwise rotation, but no net the left and the torque on the rod to be

rotation

rotation

clockwise rotation rotation

force

counterclockwise.

41.statics.png

Compared to the +Q charge at the

center, the charge on the outer surface

of the outer cylinder has twice the

magnitude and is of opposite sign (so it

is 2Q). There is also an equal and

opposite charge induced on the inner

surface of the outer cylinder making the

total charge on the outer cylinder 2Q +

positive 3Q

positive Q

0 negative Q

negative 3Q

Q

42.statics.png

Since the capacitor is isolated, Q

remains constant. Filling the place with

oil (a dielectric) will increase the

capacitance, causing the potential (V =

Q = Qo and V > Vo Q = Qo and V < Vo Q > Qo and V = Vo Q < Qo and V < Vo Q > Qo and V > Vo Q/C) to decrease

negative

parallel to v

perpendicular to v

perpendicular to v

and E

FE q1q2/r2; if q1 and q2 2; F

4 and if r 2, F 4 making the

net effect F 4 4

Since there is no component of the

The electric field at The surface of a

electric field along a conducting surface

the surface of a

conductor is

under electrostatic conditions, no work

conductor is

always an

is done moving the charge around the

tangent to the

equipotential

surface, meaning no differencesin

surface.

surface.

potential

Regardless of velocity, the force on a

charge in an electric field is parallel to

parallel to E

perpendicular to E the field (F = qE)

6 10^ -4 J

12 10^ 4 J

2 10^ 4

8 x 10^ 4 J

12 x 10^4 J

W = Fd = qEd

toward charges. Use symmetry.

2F

Charge that is

Positive work is

placed on the

required to move a surface of a

positive charge

conductor always

over the surface of spreads evenly

a conductor

over the surface

4F

The electric

potential inside a

conductor is

always zero.

8F

16F

48.statics.png

an equilateral triangle. Point P is equidistant from the charges. In which

configuration is the electric field at P pointed at the midpoint between two of

the charges?

49 Statics

51 Statics

52 Statics

53 Statics

54 Statics

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56 Statics

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58 Statics

59 Statics

50 Statics

60 Statics

61 Statics

62 Statics

The capacitance

decreases.

The potential

difference across

the capacitor

decreases.

From X to Y

From Y to X

E = 0, V = kQ/R

E = 0, V = kQ/r

will not point at the midpoint of any

side. The field in

C

D

E

choice B points at the bottom charge.

48.statics.png

Since the capacitor is isolated, Q

The electric field

remains constant. Filling the place with

The energy of the The charge on the between the

oil (a dielectric) will

capacitor does not capacitor plates

capacitor plates

increase the capacitance, causing the

change.

decreases

increases.

potential (V = Q/C) to decrease.

It cannot be

V = kQ/r so the smaller sphere (Y) is at

It cannot be

determined without the higher potential. Negative charge

There will be no

determined without knowing whether flows from low to

flow of charge in

knowing the

the spheres are

high potential so the charge will flow

the wire.

magnitude of Q.

solid or hollow.

from X to Y.

52.statics.png

Once inside a uniform sphere of

charge, the electric field is zero. Since

E = 0 the potential does

not change within the sphere (meaning

E = 0, V = 0

E = kQ/r^2, V = 0 E = kQ/R^2, V = 0 it is the same value as the surface)

E = kQ/R^2, V =

kQ/R

E = kQ/R, V =

kQ/R

E = kQ/r^2, V =

E = kQ/R, V = kQ/r kQ/r

parallelplate capacitor. Which of the

B

Two conducting spheres, X and Y have the same positive charge +Q, but

different radii(rx > ry) as shown above. The spheres are separated so that the

distance between them is large compared with

either radius. If a wire is connected between them, in which direction will

electrons be directed in the wire?

A

A sphere of radius R has positive charge Q uniformly distributed on its

surface. Which of the following represents the magnitude of the electric field

E and the potential V as functions of r, the

distance from the center of the sphere, when r < R ?

A sphere of radius R has positive charge Q uniformly distributed on its

surface. Which of the following represents the magnitude, of the electric field

E and the potential V as functions of r, the

distance from the center of sphere, when r > R ?

From the electric field vector at a point, one can determine which of the

following?

I. The direction of the electrostatic force on a test charge of known sign at that

point

II. The magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted per unit charge on a test

charge at that point

III. The electrostatic charge at that point

A conducting sphere of radius R carries a charge Q. Another conducting

sphere has a radius R/2, but carries the

same charge. The spheres are far apart. The ratio of the electric field near the

surface of the smaller sphere to

the field near the surface of the larger sphere is most nearly

A circular ring made of an insulating material is cut in half. One half is given a

charge q uniformly distributed

along its arc. The other half is given a charge + q also uniformly distributed

along its arc. The two halves are

then rejoined with insulation at the junctions J, as shown above. If there is no

change in the charge

distributions, what is the direction of the net electrostatic force on an electron

located at the center of the circle?

Four positive charges of magnitude q are arranged at the corners of a square,

as shown above. At the center C

of the square, the potential due to one charge alone is Vo and the electric

field due to one charge alone has

magnitude Eo. Which of the following correctly gives the electric potential and

the magnitude of the electric

field at the center of the square due to all four charges?

Two charges, 2Q and +Q, are located on the xaxis, as shown above. Point

P, at a distance of 3D from the

origin O, is one of two points on the positive xaxis at which the electric

potential is zero. How far from the

origin O is the other point?

D

Two concentric, spherical conducting shells have radii r1 and r2 and charges

Q1 and Q2, as shown above. Let r

be the distance from the center of the spheres and consider the region r1 < r

< r2. In this region the electric field

is proportional to

A

equipotential lines?

I only

III only

0.25

the page

I and II only

0.5

of the page

To the right

E = kQ/r^2, V =

kQ/r^2

behaves as a point charge.

equation allows one to find the direction

of F and the equation

itself allows one to find the ratio F/q, but

not q specifically

4 behaves as a point charge. E = kQ/r2

To the left

at the center from the top half will be

straight down and

the force from the bottom half will also

be straight down

57.statics.png

vectors from the four charges will

Electric Potential = Electric Potential = Electric Potential = Electric Potential = Electric Potential = cancel. V is a scalar

zero, Electric Field zero, Electric Field 2Vo, Electric Field 4Vo, Electric Field 4Vo, Electric Field and will add since they are all positive

= zero

= 2Eo

= 4Eo

= zero

= 2Eo

charges.

58.statics.png

The points where V = 0 must lie closer

to the smaller charge. Unlike electric

field vectors which

also require the individual vectors point

in opposite directions, there are a locus

of points (in this

case in a ring surrounding the +Q

charge) where V = 0 as the two

charges are opposite in sign

and V is a scalar. So the other point on

the x axis is between the two charges,

but closer to the

+Q charge. This must be a value

2/3D

D

3/2D

5/3D

2D

between 1.5 D and 2 D

59.statics.png

When inside a uniform shell of charge,

there is an electric field due to the shell.

When outside a

uniform shell of charge, the electric field

Q1/r^2

(Q1 + Q2)/r^2

(Q1 + Q2)/r

Q1/r1 + Q2/r

Q1/r + Q2/r2

is as if the shell was a point charge.

60.statics.png

0N

D

to the right, but its

magnitude cannot

be determined

without knowing

1N, directed to the 1N, directed to the the distance

right

left

between the lines

E

to the left, but its

magnitude cannot

be determined

without knowing

the distance

between the lines

plates is 4 V and the right side is the

positive plate. We

need the batteries pointing in the same

direction with the positive terminal on

the right.

62.statics.png

toward the positive plate of magnitude

F = Eq. E = V/d and

cannot be calculated without knowing d. 62.statics.png

63 Statics

Two metal spheres that are initially uncharged are mounted on insulating

stands, as shown above. A negatively

charged rubber rod is brought close to, but does not make contact with,

sphere X. Sphere Y is then brought

close to X on the side opposite to the rubber rod. Y is allowed to touch X and

then is removed some distance

away. The rubber rod is then moved far away from X and Y. What are the

final charges on the spheres?

D

67 Statics

Which of the following capacitors, each of which has plates of area A, would

store the most charge on the top

plate for a given potential difference V?

A parallelplate capacitor has charge +Q on one plate and charge Q on the

other. The plates, each of area A,

are a distance d apart and are separated by a vacuum. A single proton of

charge +e, released from rest at the

surface of the positively charged plate, will arrive at the other plate with

kinetic energy proportional to

Two initially uncharged conductors, 1 and 2, are mounted on insulating

stands and are in contact, as shown

above. A negatively charged rod is brought near but does not touch them.

With the rod held in place, conductor

2 is moved to the right by pushing its stand, so that the conductors are

separated. Which of the following is now

true of conductor 2?

As shown above, two particles, each of charge +Q, are fixed at opposite

corners of a square that lies in the plane

of the page. A positive test charge +q is placed at a third corner. What is the

direction of the force on the test

charge due to the two other charges?

68 Statics

If F is the magnitude of the force on the test charge due to only one of the

other charges, what is the magnitude

of the net force acting on the test charge due to both of these charges?

69 Statics

Two charges are located on the line shown in the figure below, in which the

charge at point I is +3q and the

charge at point III is +2q. Point II is halfway between points I and III....Other

than at infinity, the electric field strength is zero at a point on the line in which

of the following ranges?

C

64 Statics

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66 Statics

Sphere X:

Zero Sphere Y:

Zero

Sphere X:

Negative Sphere

Y: Negative

Sphere X:

Sphere X:

Negative Sphere Positive Sphere

Y: Positive

Y: Negative

Sphere X:

Positive Sphere

Y: Positive

electrons will repel away from the rod

out of sphere X into

sphere Y.

63.statics.png

The capacitor with the largest

capacitance will store the most charge.

C = 0A/d where glass >

air and Kvacuum

64.statics.png

(edQ)/A

It is uncharged

Q^2/(eAd)

It is positively

charged

eQ^2/Ad

It is negatively

charged

It is charged, but

its sign cannot be

predicted

It is at the same

potential that it

was before the

charged rod was

brough near

electrons will repel away from the rod

out of sphere 1 into

sphere 2.

Zero

F/2^(1/2)

[2^(1/2)]F

To the left of I

Between I and II

To the left of I

Between I and II

4104 V

102 V

2.5103 V

2106 V

6106 V

72 Statics

function of position along the xaxis.

At which point would a charged particle experience the force of greatest

magnitude?

73 Statics

circular orbit of constant radius R. Assuming that the proton is stationary and

only electrostatic forces act on the particles, which of the following represents

the kinetic energy of the twoparticle system?

B

75 Statics

Q/ed

71 Statics

74 Statics

(AeQ)/d

is V in this case) which gives K = e

(Q/C) and if we

use C = 0A/d we have K = e(Qd/0A)

charges point down and to the left

(away from the charges) so

E

the resultant force points down and left

The two vectors, each of magnitude F,

point at right angles to each other so

the resultant field is

2 2F

Where E is zero must be closer to the

smaller charge to make up for the

weaker field. The

vectors point in opposite directions

when between the two like charges.

None; the field is

These two criteria

zero only at infinity eliminate 4 of the choices

Since both charges are positive and V

None; this

is a scalar equal to kQ/r, the potential

potential is never will never be zero

negative.

in the vicinity of these two charges

The electric potential is negative at some points on the line in which of the

following ranges?

E

The work that must be done by an external agent to move a point charge of 2

mC from the origin to a point 3 m away is 5 J. What is the potential difference

between the two points?

C

70 Statics

If the only force acting on an electron is due to a uniform electric field, the

electron moves with constant

A

Two charged particles, each with a charge of +q, are located along the xaxis

at x = 2 and x = 4, as shown

above. Which of the following shows the graph of the magnitude of the

electric field along the xaxis from the

origin to x = 6?

A

66.statics.png

67.statics.png

67.statics.png

69.statics.png

69.statics.png

C

acceleration in a

acceleration in the direction

direction of the

perpendicular to

field

that of the field

acceleration in a

direction opposite

to that of the field

speed in a

direction opposite

to that of the field

speed in the

direction of the

field

W=qV

The electric field (and hence, the

electric force on a charge) is greatest

where the potential changes most

rapidly with position (the greatest

gradient) since E = V/d. On this graph,

this

would be the point where the slope is

the greatest

72.statics.png

FE =FC andq1 =q2 =e so we have

ke2/R2 =mv2/R and we multiply both

sides by 12R so the B right side

becomes 12 mv2 (the kinetic energy).

Choices C and E could have been

eliminated

because they are negative, and kinetic

energy cannot be negative. Choices A

& D are

dimensionally incorrect (D has the units

of a force, not energy, and A has the

units of electric

potential)

73.statics.png

If F is constant and F = ma, the

acceleration is also constant. Negative

charges experience forces A opposite

in direction to electric field lines.

goes to infinity near each charge (E =

kQ/r2)

75.statics.png

78 Statics

locations in an electric field, with no work

done by or against the field at any time during the motion. This situation can

occur only if the...

D

The nonconducting hollow sphere of radius R shown above carries a large

charge +Q, which is uniformly

distributed on its surface. There is a small hole in the sphere. A small charge

+q is initially located at point P. a

distance r from the center of the sphere.If k = 1/4o, what is the work that

must be done by an external agent

in moving the charge +q from P through the hole to the center O of the

sphere?

E

A capacitor is constructed of two identical conducting plates parallel to each

other and separated by a distance d. The capacitor is charged to a potential

difference of V0 by a battery, which is then disconnected. If any edge effects

are negligible, what is the magnitude of the electric field between the plates? B

79 Statics

other and separated by a distance d. The capacitor is charged to a potential

difference of V0 by a battery, which is then disconnected. A sheet of

insulating plastic material is inserted between the plates without otherwise

disturbing the system.

76 Statics

77 Statics

charge is moved

charge is moved in opposite to the

the direction of the direction of the

field

field

charge is moved

perpendicular to

an equipotential

line

charge is moved

along an

equipotential line

electric field is

uniform

is a field present, the motion must be

perpendicular to the field, along an

equipotential line, making the force

perpendicular to the displacement of

the

charge (a requirement for zero work).

Along an equipotential line, V = 0 and

W = qV.

the potential does not change with

position and is the same value as the

surface, which is kQ/R. At point P, the

potential is kQ/r. W = qV = q(kQ/R

kQ/r)

Zero

kqQ/r

kqQ/R

kq(Q q)/r

kqQ(1/R 1/r)

V0d

V0/d

d/V0

It causes the

capacitance to

decrease

None; the

capacitance does

not change

V02/d

Nothing can be

said about the

effect without

knowing the

thickness of the

sheet

E=V/d

It causes the

capacitance to

increase

V0/d2

Nothing can be

said about the

effect without

knowing the

dielectric constant

of the plastic

Q only

the charge

distribution on the

sphere only

distribution on the

sphere

charges

9 10^3 J

9 10^3 J

6 10^4 J

2 10^4 J

2 10^7 J

UC = CV^2

1/V

1/V^(1/2)

V^(1/2)

V^2

remains constant. If a dielectric is

inserted between the plates, the

capacitance increases and since Q =

CV, the potential difference decreases.

Conductors under electrostatic

conditions will arrange their changes so

no electric field exists inside (other

than those created by charges placed

inside the empty cavity). Fields from

external

charges will not penetrate into

conducting enclosures.

80.statics.png

82 Statics

turn is near several isolated point

charges, as shown above. The electric field at point P inside the shell

depends on the magnitude of

A

A 20 F parallelplate capacitor is fully charged to 30 V. The energy stored in

the capacitor is most nearly...

B

A potential difference V is maintained between two large, parallel conducting

plates. An electron starts from

rest on the surface of one plate and accelerates toward the other. Its speed

as it reaches the second plate is

proportional to...

C

83 Statics

figure above. Assume the particles are

isolated from all other charges. Which of the following describes the direction

of the electric field at point P?

E

positive x

positive y

negative y

84 Statics

figure above. Assume the particles are isolated from all other charges. At

which of the labeled points on the xaxis is the electric field zero?

W = K = qV and K = mv^2

At point P, the field due to charge Q

points up and to the right and the field

due to charge 4Q is

larger in magnitude and points down

Components in

Components in

and to the right. Due to the asymmetry,

both the x and +y both the +x and y no components will

directions

directions

cancel.

Where E is zero must be closer to the

smaller charge to make up for the

weaker field. The

vectors point in opposite directions

outside the two opposite charges.

These two criteria eliminate

3 of the choices. For the magnitudes of

the electric fields to be zero the ratios

Q/r2

must be equal

giving (in units along the x axis) Q/r2

= 4Q/(r + 4 units)2

A

D

E

giving r = 4 units

Since E = V/d, E represents the slope

of the line on the graph which could be

choice C or D.

since V 1/r the slope is

proportional to V/r = (1/r)/r =

D

E

1/r^2 which is choice C

12^(1/2) / 4 *

Q/R^2

18^(1/2) / 4 *

Q/R^2

3^(1/2) / 2 *

Q/R^2

3 / 2 * Q^2/R

9 / * Q^2/R

80 Statics

81 Statics

85 Statics

86 Statics

87 Statics

88 Statics

outer surface. A graph of electric

potential V as a function of position ris shown above. Which of the following

graphs best represents the

magnitude of the electric field E as a function of position rfor this sphere?

As shown in the figure above, six particles, each with charge +Q, are held

fixed and ate equally spaced around

the circumference of a circle of radius R. What is the magnitude of the

resultant electric field at the center of the circle?

As shown in the figure above, six particles, each with charge +Q, are held

fixed and ate equally spaced around

the circumference of a circle of radius R. With the six particles held fixed, how

much work would be required to bring a seventh particle of charge + Q

from very far away and place it at the center of the circle?

The diagram above shows equipotential lines produced by an unknown

charge distribution. A, B, C, D, and E

are points in the plane. Which vector below best describes the direction of the

electric field at point A ?

6^(1/2) / 4 *

0 Q/R^2

northeast

southwest

southeast

northwest

77.statics.png

83.statics.png

83.statics.png

85.statics.png 85.

staticsquestion.png

86.statics.png

W = qV = +Q(Vcenter V) =

+QVcenter where Vcenter = V = kQ/r

= 6kQ/R

86.statics.png

E points from high potential to low

potential, perpendicular to equipotential

None of these; the lines (the direction of

field is zero.

the force on a positive charge)

88.statics.png

89 Statics

90 Statics

91 Statics

charge distribution. A, B, C, D, and E

are points in the plane. At which point does the electric field have the greatest

magnitude?

B

charge distribution. A, B, C, D, and E

are points in the plane. How much net work must be done by an external

force to move a 1 C point charge from rest at point C to rest

at point E ?

B

The plates of a parallelplate capacitor of cross sectional area A are

separated by a distance d, as shown above.

Between the plates is a dielectric material of constant K. The plates are

connected in series with a variable

resistance R and a power supply of potential difference V. The capacitance C

of this capacitor will increase if

which of the following is decreased?

D

92 Statics

A physics problem starts: "A solid sphere has charge distributed uniformly

throughout. . . " It may be correctly

concluded that the

93 Statics

A uniform spherical charge distribution has radius R.. Which of the following

is true of the electric field

strength due to this charge distribution at a distance r from the center of the

charge?

94 Statics

95 Statics

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99 Statics

100 Statics

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102 Statics

103 Statics

When a negatively charged rod is brought near, but does not touch, the

initially uncharged electroscope shown

above, the leaves spring apart (I). When the electroscope is then touched

with a finger, the leaves collapse (II).

When next the finger and finally the rod are removed, the leaves spring apart

a second time (III). The charge on

the leaves is

A positively charged conductor attracts a second object. Which of the

following statements could be true?

I. The second object is a conductor with negative net charge.

II. The second object is a conductor with zero net charge.

III. The second object is an insulator with zero net charge..

A point charge of +4.0 C is placed on the negative xaxis 0.20 m to the left

of the origin, as shown in the

accompanying figure. A second point charge q is placed on the positive x

axis 0.30 m to the right of the origin. If the net electric field at the origin is

zero. What is q?

A point charge of +4.0 C is placed on the negative xaxis 0.20 m to the left

of the origin, as shown in the

accompanying figure. A second point charge q is placed on the positive x

axis 0.30 m to the right of the origin. If the net electric potential at the origin is

zero, what is q?

Which of the following statements about solid conductors in electrostatics are

true?

I. The electric field inside the conductor is always zero.

II. The electric potential inside the conductor is always zero.

III. Any net charge is on the surface.

A small object with charge q and weight mg is attached to one end of a string

of length L. The other end is

attached to a stationary support. The system is placed in a uniform horizontal

electric field E, as shown in the

accompanying figure. In the presence of the field, the string makes a constant

angle q with the vertical. What is

the sign and magnitude of q?

An isolated conducting sphere of radius R has positive charge + Q. Which

graph best depictsthe electric

potential as a function of r, the distance from the center of the sphere?

In the figure to the right, equipotential lines are drawn at 0, 20.0 V, and 40.0

V. The total work done in moving

a point charge of + 3.00 mC from position a to position b is:

Two positive point charges repel each other with force 0.36 N when their

separation is 1.5 m. What force do

they exert on each other when their separation is 1.0 m?

An amber rod is given a net negative charge and held at rest. Which of the

following statements is true?

20 J

10 J

10 J

20 J

30 J

potential, perpendicular to equipotential

lines (the direction of

the force on a positive charge)

88.statics.png

VCE = VE VC = 10 V. The amount

of work, W = qV = 1 C 10 V = 10

C. Since the B

external force must push against the

negative charge to keep it from

accelerating and bring it to

rest at point E, the work done by the

external force must be negative.

88.statics.png

geometry of the capacitor will change

the capacitance, not changes to the

battery or resistor.

R

electric field inside

the sphere is the

electric field is zero same as the

everywhere inside electric field

the sphere

outside

It is directly

It is greatest when It is greatest when proportional to r

r = 0.

r = R/2.

when r > R.

positive in both I

and III

I only

9.0 C

negative in both I

and III

II only

K

electric potential

on the surface of

the sphere is not

constant

positive in I,

negative in III

III only

6.0 C

9.0 C

6.0 C

I only

II only

electric potential in

the center of the

sphere is not made For charge to be distributed throughout

sphere is zero

of metal

a material, it must be non-conducting

Advanced question (not exactly in the B

curriculum, but interesting). Like gravity

inside a uniform sphere of mass, the

It is directly

field is directly proportional to r when

proportional to r

It is directly

inside the sphere (and proportional to

when r < R.

proportional to r2. 1/r2 when outside)

93.statics.png

In I, charge separation occurs (negative

charges repel to the leaves). The whole

process describes charging by

induction, where the electrons leave the

electroscope to ground (the finger) and

impossible to

once contact with ground is broken, the

negative in I,

determine in either electroscope is left with a positive

positive in III

I or III

charge (III)

I & II only

0 6.0 C

0 6.0 C

III only

I, II & III

opposite charge, but also neutral

objects by separation of charges.

9.0 C

opposite directions, making q positive.

In magnitude we can find q by (+4 C)/

(0.2 m)2= q/(0.3 m)2

96.statics.png

9.0 C

negative and (+4 C)/(0.2 m) = q/(0.3

m)

electrostatic conditions

positive with

magnitude

(mg)/E

positive with

magnitude

(mg)/(Etan(theta))

negative with

magnitude

(mg)/E

negative with

magnitude

(mg)/(Etan(theta))

negative with

magnitude

(E)/(mgtan(theta))

4.00 mJ

8.00 mJ

12.0 mJ

24.0 mJ

120 mJ

0.81 N

0.54 N

0.36 N

91.statics.png

0.24 N

The amber rod is

surrounded by

both a magnetic

The amber rod is The amber rod is field that circles

The amber rod is surrounded only by surrounded only by the rod and an

surrounded only by an electric field

an electric field

electric field that is

a magnetic field

that is directed out that is directed into directed out from

that circles the rod. from the rod.

the rod.

the rod.

0.16 N

The amber rod is

surrounded by

both a magnetic

field that circles

the rod and an

electric field that is

directed into the

rod.

96.statics.png

charge to the right, with the field line, it

is a positive charge. Fy= 0 gives T cos

= mg and Fx= 0 gives T sin = FE=

qE. Divide the two expressions to

eliminate T.

99.statics.png

V is constant inside and on the surface

of a charged conductor and is

proportional to 1/r outside a charged

conducting sphere.

100.statics.png

W = qV (motion along an equipotential

line requires no work so only V

matters, not the path)

102.statics.png

F 1/r2

field are created by moving charges.

Electric field lines

point toward negative charges.

104 Statics

105 Statics

106 Statics

107 Statics

108 Statics

109 Statics

110 Statics

Two isolated conducting spheres (S1 of radius 0.030 m and initial charge +

6.0 nC and S2

of radius 0.040 m and initial charge + 2.0 nC) are connected by a conducting

wire. Charge will flow in the wire until:

E

A point charge +q is placed midway between two point charges +3q and q

separated by a distance 2d. If

Coulombs constant is k, the magnitude of the force on the charge +q is:

How much work is required to move 24 mC of charge 4.0 m parallel to a

uniform 6.0 N/C electric field?

An isolated conducting sphere of radius R has positive charge + Q. Which

graph best depicts the electric field

as a function of r, the distance from the center of the sphere?

equally charged.

zero.

the force of

repulsion between both spheres have both spheres are

the two spheres

the same surface at the same

becomes equal.

charge density.

potential.

2kq^2/d^2

4kq^2/d^2

6kq^2/d^2

8kq^2/d^2

10kq^2/d^2

1.0 mJ

16 mJ

36 mJ

62 mJ

576 mJ

Point charges 1 and 2 have equal magnitude. The diagram to above shows

the electric field lines surrounding

them. Which of the following statements is true?

A

A charged rod is placed between two insulated conducting spheres as shown.

The spheres have no net charge.

Region II has the same polarity as Region

B

A charged rod is placed between two insulated conducting spheres as shown.

The spheres have no net charge.

Region II has the same polarity as Region

B

112 Statics

Two large oppositely charged insulated plates have a uniform electric field

between them. The distance between the plates is increased. Which ofthe

following statements is true? I. The field strength decreases.

II. The field strength increases.

III. The potential difference between the plates increases.

C

When two charged pointlike objects are separated by a distance R, the force

between them is F. If the distance between them is quadrupled, the force

between them is

E

113 Statics

When an object is brought near the top plate of the electroscope, the foils

separate even further. We could conclude

A

111 Statics

114 Statics

115 Statics

116 Statics

117 Statics

diagram. The force between charges 1

and 3 is 6.0 N; the force between charges 2 and 3 is 5.0 N; and the force

between charges 3 and 4 is 3.0 N. The

magnitude of the total force on charge 3 is most nearly

A

Two isolated parallel plates are separated by a distance d. They carry

opposite charges Q and each has surface

area A. Which of the following would increase the strength of the electric field

between the plates? I. Increasing Q

II. Increasing A

III. Increasing d

A

Consider the two oppositely charged plates asshown in the diagram. At which

of the marked pointsshown in

the diagram would a positively charged particle have the greatest electrical

potential energy?

E

How much work would be required to move a 4 coulomb charge 6 meters

parallel to a 24 N/Celectric field?

E

118 Statics

hollow metal sphere suspended by an

insulating string, the sphere will be attracted to the rod because:

119 Statics

An alpha particle and a proton are placed equal distance between two large

charged metal plates as shown.

Which of the following would best describe the motion of the two particles if

they were free to move?

Charge 1 is

positive, charge 2

is negative.

Charge 1 is

Both charges 1

negative, charge 2 Both charges 1

and 2 are

is positive.

and 2 are positive. negative.

E

Both charges 1

and 2 have the

same sign, but it is

impossible to tell

which.

I only

III only

IV only

I & IV only

I only

III only

IV only

I & IV only

I only

II only

III only

16 F

4F

F/4

that the object is

that the object is

negatively

positively charged. electrically neutral. charged.

6.3 N

8.0 N

10 N

in potential.

The distance between the +q charge

and each charge is d. The force on the

+q charge from each

charge is in the same direction, making

the net force kq2/d2 + k(3q2)/d2

W = Fd = qEd

E is zero inside a charged conductor

and is proportional to 1/r2 outside a

charged conducting sphere.

108.statics.png

of the force on a positive charge (away

from positive charges and toward

negative charges)

109.statics.png

The rod will attract the same charge

from each sphere to the side closer to

the rod.

110.statics.png

The rod will attract the same charge

from each sphere to the side closer to

the rod.

110.static.png

Since the plates are insulated, the

charge remains constant. If the

distance is increased, the

capacitance will decrease (C A/d)

and since Q = CV, the potential

difference must increase by the

same factor that the distance

increases. This means E = V/d

remains the same.

F 1/r2 ; if r 4, F 16

If the leaves are positive, further

separation means they are becoming

more positive, which

implies electrons are leaving the

leaves, attracted to the top plate of the

only that the object only that the object electroscope. This will

is charged.

is uncharged

occur if the object is positively charged.

Vector addition. Since all the charges

are positive, the forces due to charges

2 and 4 point in

opposite directions, making the

magnitude of the net force along the x

axis 2 N. Combine this

with a net force along the y axis of 6 N

11 N

14 N

using the Pythagorean theorem

114.statics.png.png

F/16

I only

II only

III only

0

A/d gives E = Q/

0

A

The greatest potential energy would be

where the charge is at the point with the

greatest potential

since UE

= qV (at a point). This is closest to the

positive plate.

116.statics.png

0J

24 J

96 J

576 J

W = Fd = qEd

larger than the

sphere

electron from the

sphere

will travel upwards

with twice the

velocity of the

proton.

travel upwards

with the same

velocity.

144 J

the charge on the

the electric charge rod causes a

produces a

separation of

magnetic field to

charge in the

attract the sphere sphere

some of the

protons from the

Charged objects attract neutral objects

rod have been

by separating the charges within the

given to the sphere neutral object.

An alpha particle has twice the charge

and four times the mass of a proton.

The alpha particle

The alpha particle Twice the charge

will accelerate

Both particles will will accelerate

means twice the electric force. This,

upwards with twice accelerate

upwards with half combined with four times the mass

the acceleration of upwards with the the acceleration of gives half the

the proton.

same acceleration. the proton.

acceleration.

119.statics.png

120 Statics

Two parallel metal plates carry opposite electrical charges each with a

magnitude of Q. The plates are separated

by a distance d and each plate has an area A. Consider the following:

I. increasing Q

II. increasing d

III. increasing A

Which of the following would have the effect of reducing the potential

difference between the plates?

121 Statics

by a distance d. What would be

the magnitude of the electric field midway between the two charges?

E

122 Statics

point P (x = +1, y = 0). A negative

charge 2Q is placed at such a point as to produce a net field of zero at point

P. The second charge will be

placed on the

C

123 Statics

124 Statics

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126 Statics

127 Statics

128 Statics

129 Statics

130 Statics

131 Statics

A 300 eV electron is aimed midway between two parallel metal plates with a

potential difference of 400 V. The

electron is deflected upwards and strikes the upper plate as shown. What

would be the kinetic energy of the

electron just before striking the metal plate?

Two small hollow metal spheres hung on insulating threads attract one

another as shown. It is known that a

positively charged rod will attract ball A.

I. Ball A has a positive charge

II. Ball B has a negative charge

III. Ball A and Ball B have opposite charges

Which of the above can be correctly concluded about the charge on the

balls?

A 5 106 coulomb electric charge is placed midway between two parallel

metal plates connected to a 9volt

battery. If the electric charge experiences a force of 1.5 104 newtons,

what is the separation of the metal

plates?

A parallelplate capacitor is connected to a resistanceless circuit with a

battery having emf E until the capacitor

is fully charged. The battery is then disconnected from the circuit and the

plates of the capacitor are moved to

half of their original separation using insulated gloves. Let Vnew be the

potential difference across the capacitor

plates when the plates are moved together. Let Vold be the potential

difference across the capacitor plates when

connected to the battery. Vnew/Vold=

spherical region of radius a. A point

charge +Q is placed at the common center of the spheres. Taking V = 0 as r

approaches infinity, the potential at

position r = 2 a from the center of the spheres is:

Two identical electrical point charges Q, separated by a distance d produce

an electrical force of F on one

another. If the distance is decreased to a distance of 0.40d, what is the

strength of the resulting force?

Qd/0A

At a point midway between the charges

E = kq/(d/2)2 from each charge. Since

they are opposite

charges, the field vectors between the

E=0

E=kq/d^2

E=2kq/d^2

E=4kq/d^2

E=8kq/d^2

charges point in the same direction.

121.statics.png

For the E field vectors to point in

opposite directions, point P must lie

outside the two charges.

For the magnitudes of E due to each

charge to cancel, Point P must be

x-axis where 0 < x

closer to the smaller

x-axis where x > 1 < 1

x-axis where x < 0 y-axis where y > 0 y-axis where y < 0 charge

122.statics.png

The extra kinetic energy gained by the

electron is W = K = qV, where V is

the potential

difference between the midway line and

the upper plate, which is 200 V. This

makes the

additional kinetic energy 200 eV.

Kinetic energy is a scalar so the total

KE of the electron is now

360 eV

400 eV

500 eV

700 eV

740 eV

300 eV + 200 eV

123.statics.png

I only

II only

III only

I and III

II and III

I only

II only

III only

all of these

none of these

either negative or neutral. For ball B to

also attract ball A

means ball B can be charged positive

or negative (if ball A is neutral) or

neutral (if ball A is

positive)

6.75 109 m

2.7 104 m

3.7 103 m

0.30 m

3.3 m

The most convincing proof of the fact that electrical charge comes in a

fundamentallysized basic amount was

provided by the work of

E

Four electrical charges are arranged on the corners of a 10 cm square as

shown. What would be the direction of the resulting electric field at the center

point P?

B

A proton is released between the two parallel plates of the fully charged

capacitor shown above. What would

be the resulting acceleration of the proton?

E

0 2kQ/3a

kQ/3a

kQ/a

kQ/2a

charge remains constant. If the

distance is decreased, the

capacitance will increase (C A/d)

and since Q = CV, the potential

difference must decrease by

the same factor that the distance

4 decreases.

126.statics.png

Since the spherical shell is conducting,

a charge of Q is induced on the inner

surface. This gives

a charge of +Q on the outer surface

since the spherical shell is neutral. As E

= 0 inside the

conducting shell, the potential inside is

constant and the same as on the

surface, which is kQ/r

16F

6.3F

2.5F

0.40F

0.16F

Crookes

Lorentz

Rutherford

Faraday

Millikan

Right

Up

Left

Down

Northeast

The oil drop experiment not only found

the charge of the electron, but also the

fact that charge

was quantized.

The force vectors from each charge

and their relative magnitude are going

from P to the outer dots.

a=qV/md

129.statics.png

130.statics.png

131.statics.png

132 Statics

capacitor is fully charged before

the battery is disconnected from the circuit. A uniform material of dielectric

constant is inserted between the

plates of the capacitor, effectively filling the space between the plates. Let

Uold be the energy stored by the

capacitor before the dielectric was inserted, while Unew is the energy stored

after the dielectric was inserted.

The ratio of Unew/Uold is:

133 Statics

spherical region of radius 2a. A point

charge +Q is placed at a position a distance a from the common center of the

spheres. What is the magnitude of

the electric field at the position r = 4a from the center of the spheres as

marked in the figure by P?

B

134 Statics

135 Statics

136 Statics

137 Statics

138 Statics

139 Statics

A

A positively charged object is brought near but not in contact with the top of

an uncharged gold leaf

electroscope. The experimenter then briefly touches the electroscope with a

finger. The finger is removed,

followed by the removal of the positively charged object. What happens to the

leaves of the electroscope when

a negative charge is now brought near but not in contact with the top of the

electroscope?

B

143 Statics

For the diagram shown below, what is the ratio of the charges q2/q1 where

the diagram shown has a representation of the field lines in the space near

the charges.

1/k

0 kQ/16a^2

1 k

decreases as the

charges are

separated.

3kQ/16a^2

is proportional to

depends on the

the square of the

sign of the charge. relative speed.

kQ/9a^2

is inversely

proportional to the

square of the

separation.

is repulsive.

they remain

uncharged

apart

together

they remain

positively charged

but unmoved

-5Q

3Q

-4Q

4Q

Right

Down

Left

Southeast

the electric

potential of the

batteries is

neutralized.

radio is zero.

travel through the

cage.

the radio waves

cannot penetrate

the cage.

VC =VB <VA

VA <VB <VC

If the potential

energy of the

system is positive,

net positive work is

required to bring

any new charge

not part of the

system in from

infinity to its final

resting location.

VC =VB =VA

If the potential

energy of the

system is negative,

net positive work

by an external

agent is required

to take the charges

in the system back

to infinity.

If the potential

energy of the

system is zero, no

negative charges

are in the

configuration.

If the potential

energy of the

system is negative,

net positive work

by an external

agent was required

to assemble the

system of charges.

4F

2F

F/2

F/4

-3/2

-2/3

When inside the cage the radio stops

playing because

D

A spherical conducting shell has a net charge +Q placed on it. Which of the

following is the correct

relationship for the electric potential at the points labeled A, B, and C? Point A

is at the center of the sphere,

point B is at the surface of the shell, a distance R from point A, and point C is

a distance R from point B outside

the sphere. As r goes to infinity, V = 0.

E

142 Statics

141 Statics

1/(k^2)

UE = kq1q2/r

The process described is charging by

induction which gives the electroscope

in this case a net negative charge.

Bringing a negative charge near the top

of the electroscope will cause electrons

they remain

to repel to the leaves. Since the leaves

negatively charged are already negative, this will cause

but unmoved

them to separate further.

The charge density is Q/area which is

Q/4r2 so for the inner surface it is

Qinner/4a2 and for the outer surface it

is Qouter/16a2. For these to be equal

Qouter must be 4Qinner. Because of

the +Q charge inside, there is a charge

of Q induced on the inner surface,

which means the outer surface must

have charge -4Q. Thus the total charge

-3Q

on the shell is -5Q.

The force on a positive charge is in the

direction of the electric field at that

Up

location.

Conductors under electrostatic

conditions will arrange their changes so

no electric field exists D inside (other

than those created by charges placed

inside the empty cavity). Fields from

none of the above external sources will not penetrate into

reasons.

conducting enclosures.

Once inside a uniform sphere of

charge, the electric field is zero.

Since E = 0 the potential does not

change within the sphere

(meaning it is the same value as

the surface). V 1/r outside the

VC <VB =VA

sphere.

If the potential

energy of the

system is zero,

then there is no

electric force

anywhere in space

on any other

charged particle

not part of the

system.

A solid spherical conducting shell has inner radius a and outer radius 2a. At

the center of the shell is located a

point charge +Q. What must the excess charge of the shell be in order for the

charge density on the inner and

outer surfaces of the shell to be exactly equal?

A

A small positive test charge is placed at point P in the region near two

charges. Which of the following arrows

indicates the direction of the force on the positive test charge?

C

Which statement about a system of point charges that are fixed in space is

necessarily true?

A positive point charge exerts a force of magnitude F on a negative point

charge placed a distance x away. If the distance between the two point

charges is halved, what is the magnitude of the new force that the positive

point charge exerts on the negative point charge?

Two uniformly charged nonconducting spheres on insulating bases are

placed on an air table. Sphere A has a charge +3Q coulombs and sphere B

has a charge +Q coulombs. Which of the following correctly illustrates the

magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force between the spheres when

they are released?

140 Statics

remains constant. UC = Q2/2C so

Unew/Uold = Cold/Cnew = (0A/d)/

k^2

(0A/d) = 1/

Since the spherical shell is conducting,

a charge of Q is induced on the inner

surface. This gives a charge of +Q on

the outer surface since the spherical

shell is neutral and the field outside the

shell is as if the shell was a point

None of the above. charge.

133.statics.png

VC <VB <VA

0.666

1.5

136.statics.png

137.statics.png

138.statics.png

139.statics.png

F 1/r^2

. Newtons third law requires the forces

be equal and opposite. This eliminates

choices A, B and

C. Since they both positive, the force is

repulsive.

142.statics.png

q2/q1

= lines on q2/lines on q1 and since the

lines point toward q2 and away from q1

they are B

oppositely charged, making the ratio

1 negative.

143.statics.png

144 Statics

In which Region(s) is there a place on the xaxis (aside from infinity) at which

the electric potential is equal to zero?

E

Only in Region II

In both Regions I

and II

In both Regions I

and III

In both Regions II

and III

145 Statics

In which Region(s) is there a place on the xaxis (aside from infinity) at which

the electric field is equal to zero?

B

Only in Region II

In both Regions I

and II

In both Regions I

and III

In both Regions II

and III

146 Statics

capacitor, a student pulls the capacitors plates apart so that the plate

separation doubles. As a result of this action, what happens to the voltage

across the capacitor and the energy stored by the capacitor?

D

the voltage

doubles; the

energy stays the

same

the voltage

the voltage halves; doubles; the

the energy doubles energy halves

147 Statics

A person rubs a neutral comb through their hair and the comb becomes

negatively charged. Which of the following is the best explanation for this

phenomenon?

protons from the

comb.

protons from the

comb while giving

electrons to the

comb.

148 Statics

is held at x = +1 meter, as shown in the diagram above. At what position on

the xaxis will a test charge of +q experience a zero net electrostatic force?

(3 + 8) m

1/3 m

149 Statics

The two plates of a parallel-plate capacitor are a distance d apart and are

mounted on insulating supports. A

battery is connected across the capacitor to charge it and is then

disconnected. The distance between the

insulated plates is then increased to 2d. If fringing of the field is still negligible,

which of the following

quantities is doubled?

D

150 Statics

151 Statics

152 Statics

Four point charges are each brought from infinity into a region of empty space

and are "attached in place" into a

square arrangement of side length a as shown below. The location marked P

is at the center of the square and

has no charge associated with it. Which is a true statement about the

configuration of charges?

E

Two point objects each carrying charge 10Q are separated by a distance d.

The force between them is F. If half

the charge on one object is transferred to the other object while at the same

time the distance between them is

doubled, what is the new force between the two objects?

A

2.A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a voltage V. To double the energy

stored on the capacitor, what would

the voltage between the plates have to become?

C

the capacitor

on the capacitor

field at point P is

directed to the left

field at point P is

directed to the

right.

the same; the

energy halves

to the smaller charge. Unlike electric

field vectors which

also require the individual vectors point

in opposite directions, there are a locus

of points (in this

case in a ring surrounding the Q

charge) where V = 0 as the two

charges are opposite in sign

and V is a scalar.

144,145.statics.png

For E to be zero, the electric field

vectors from each charge must point in

opposite directions and

must therefore occur at a point outside

the charges. For the electric field

vectors from each

charge to be equal in magnitude so

they can cancel, it must also occur at a

point closer to the

smaller charge to make up for the

weaker field.

144,145.statics.png

Since the battery remains

connected, V remains constant. C

decreases as d increases (C 1/d)

and UC = CV

D

2

the same; the

energy doubles

The comb loses

protons to the

The comb loses

persons hand

The hair loses

protons to the

while also gaining

electrons to the

persons hand

electrons from the Only electrons are transferred in static

comb.

holding the comb. hair.

charging processes.

Any charge will experience a net force

of zero where the electric field is zero.

This must be

where the fields from each charge point

in opposite directions and also closer to

the smaller

charge, which is to the left of the +Q

charge (the answer will be to the left of

1 m). Let the

distances to the +Q and the 2Q

charge be x and (X + 2), respectively.

This gives E1

= E2 and

kQ/x2

= k(2Q)/(x + 2)2

Solve for x and add the extra 1 m to the

0

0.333 (3 + 8) m

origin

148.statics.png

Since the battery is removed, the

charge remains constant. If the

distance is increased, the

capacitance will decrease (C A/d)

The surface

density of the

The intensity of the and since Q = CV, the potential

charge on the

electric field

difference must increase by

plates of the

The energy stored between the plates the same factor that the distance

capacitor

in the capacitor

of the capacitor

increases and Uc= QV

UE = kq1q2/r where we are summing

each pair of charges. Computing UE

gives a total

potential energy that is negative. This

means negative work must have been

done by an outside

The total force on

agent to keep the chargesfrom colliding

each charge from The electric

The outside agent into each other and stop them in their

the other three in potential at the

that assembled the respective

the configuration is point P is (2Q)/

charges did

locations. The net field and the potential

zero.

[(pi)Ea)]

negative net work at the center is zero due to symmetry

150.statics.png

0.19 F

0.25 F

0.75 F

4.0 F

no change in F

0.25 V

0.50 V

1.4 V

2.0 V

4.0 V

100Q2/d2. The new charges are

15Q and 5Q making the new force

F 75Q2/(2d)2= 19Q2/d

Assuming C remains constant and UC

= CV2, for UC to double V must

increase by 2

153 Statics

154 Statics

155 Statics

156 Statics

157 Statics

158 Statics

Two identical spheres carry identical electric charges. If the spheres are set a

distance d apart they repel one another with a force F. A third sphere,

identical to the other two but initially uncharged is then touched to one sphere

and then to the other before being removed. What would be the resulting

force between the original two spheres?

Two parallel metal plates 0.04 meters apart are connected to a 1.5 volt

battery. When fully charged, each metal

plate has a charge of magnitude 9.0 x104coulombs. What is the capacitance

of the two plates?

An alpha particle is accelerated to a velocity v in a particle accelerator by a

potential difference of 1200 V.

Which of the following potential differences would be needed to give the

alpha particle twice the velocity?

An electrical charge Q is placed at one vertex of an equilateral triangle. When

an identical charge is placed at

another vertex, each charge feels a force of 15 N. When a third charge

identical to the first two, is placed at the

third vertex, what would be the magnitude of the force on each charge?

Two conducting spheres with the same charge Q are separated by an infinite

distance. Sphere A has a radius of

10 cm while sphere B has a radius of 20 cm. At what distance from the

centers of the spheres would the

magnitude of the electric field be the same?

A large conducting sphere labeled X contains an electrical charge Q. Sphere

X is connected by a metal wire to

a small uncharged conducting sphere labeled Y. The wire is then removed.

How does the electrical field (Ey) at the surface of sphere Y compare to the

electrical field (Ex) at the surface of sphere X?

5/8 F

3/8 F

charged divides equally ( Q

each). When this sphere is then

touched to the second sphere, the

net charge (3/2 Q) is divided

equally ( Q each). Since F q1q2,

the original force is proportional to

Q2 and the new force is then

proportional to ( Q)(Q) = 3/8 Q

1.5 102 F

1.2 103 F

3.0 104 F

6.0 104 F

9.0 104 F

Q = CV

7200 V

4800 V

4100 V

2400 V

1700 V

v to double, V must increase by 4

Adding the force vectors shown (each

15 N) with x components that cancel

and y-components that equal 15 N cos

30 gives F= 2 15 N cos 30 = 26 N

15 N

26 N

30 N

42 N

45 N

15 cm from A and

15 cm from B

20 cm from A and

34 cm from B

20 cm from A and

40 cm from B

30 cm from A and

40 cm from B

40 cm from A and

40 cm from B

Ey= 0

Ey= Ex

Ey< Ex

Ey> Ex

Ex= 0

0.17 V

3.7 V

5.9 V

14 V

27 V

point charges and their difference in

size is irrelevant

157.Statics.png

When connected, the potentials

become equal. This gives kQX/rX =

kQY/rY and since E = kQ/r2, dividing

the potentials by their respective radii

gives kQX/(rX)^2< kQY/(rY)^2

1.5 10^12 excess electrons is a

charge of magnitude (1.5 10^12)

(1.6 10^19) = 2.4 10^7C.Use Q =

CV

points K and N

points L and M

points K and L

points M and N

point K only

metal sphere.

(A) Ed

(B) E/d

(C) EA/d

(D) Ed/A

(E) EA

V = Ed

The force on Q2 from Q1 points

downward and the force from Q3 points

at right angles to the left. Compute

each force using F = kq1q2/r2and use

(E) 1.47 10^4 N the Pythagorean theorem.

162.statics.png

The field at the center due to Q1 and

Q3 cancels. The only contribution to the

field then is that due to Q2. E =

(E) 90 N/C

kQ/r^2where r2= 0.3^2+ 0.4^2

162.statics.png

sign but 1/2 the

magnitude as

originally on

sphere A

sign but 1/4 the

magnitude as

originally on

sphere A

but 1/2 the

magnitude as

originally on

sphere C

(E) neutrally

charged

161 Statics

1.5 10^12

excess electrons on one plate of the capacitor?

E

A hollow metal sphere is uniformly charged with positive charge. Points K and

L are inside the sphere and

points M and N are outside the sphere as shown in the diagram. At which

point would the field be the smallest?

C

Two circular metal plates, each having an area A are placed to one another a

distance d apart. When a potential

difference is applied across the two plates, an electric field E is measured

halfway between the two plates at

their centers. What is the magnitude of the potential difference between the

two plates?

A

162 Statics

Three electric charges (Q1, Q2, and Q3) are arranged at three corners of a

rectangle as shown in the diagram and

each has a charge of 40 nC. What is the magnitude of the net force on Q2?

159 Statics

160 Statics

163 Statics

164 Statics

What would be the magnitude of the total electric field at center point X?

Which of the following graphs would best represent the electric field of a

hollow Van de Graff sphere as a

function of distance from its center when it is charged to a potential of

400,000 volts?

165 Statics

spheres are touching one another, as

shown in the diagram below. A strong positively charged object is brought

near sphere A and a strong negative

charge is brought near sphere C. While the charged objects remain near

spheres A and C, sphere B is removed

by means of its insulating stand. After the charged objects are removed,

sphere B is first touched to sphere A

and then to sphere C. The resulting charge on B would be of what relative

amount and sign?

but 1/2 the

magnitude as

originally on

sphere A

166 Statics

graphs below best represents the

magnitude of the electric field as a function of distance from the center of the

sphere?

160.Statics.png

Initially, when B is removed, A and C

are equally and oppositely charged and

B is neutral.

Touching B to A gives B the charge

of A (split equally). The charge on B is

then that of C

and oppositely charged. When B and C

touch, the total charge between them is

the charge of

C and the same sign as C. Each sphere

then has of the charge of C after

contact is made. This

makes the end result that the charge on

sphere B is the original charge of A

and the same sign

as sphere C, which is opposite that of A 165.statics.png

Advanced question (not exactly in the B

curriculum, but interesting). Like gravity

inside a

uniform sphere of mass, the field is

directly proportional to r when inside the

sphere (and

proportional to 1/r^2 when outside)

166.statics.png

167 Statics

168 Statics

Four point charges are placed at the corners of a square with diagonal 2a as

shown in the diagram. What is the

total electric field at the center of the square?

B

A free electron and a free proton are placed between two oppositely charged

parallel plates. Both are closer to

the positive plate than the negative plate. See the diagram below. Which of

the following statements is true? I. The force on the proton is greater than the

force on the electron.

II. The potential energy of the proton is greater than that of the electron.

III. The potential energy of the proton and the electron is the same.

B

(B) kq/a2 at an

angle 45 below

the x axis.

(C) 3kq/a2 at an

angle 45 above

the x axis.

(D) 3kq/a2 at an

angle 45 below

the +x axis.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(A) +Q on the inner is spread uniformly

surface, q Q on between the inner

the outer surface. and outer surface.

(C) Q on the

inner surface, q

+ Q on the outer

surface.

(D) Q on the

inner surface, q

on the outer

surface.

(C) kQ/R

cancel. The q in the upper right

counters q from the

lower left, leaving the net contribution to

the field a q from the lower left.

167.statics.png

With equal charge, the forces are the

same. The potential energy of the

charges is equal in magnitude, but

positive for the proton and negative for

the electron. For scalars, positive

numbers are higher than negative

(E) I & III only

numbers.

168.statics.png

The charge Q in the middle will induce

a charge Q on the inner surface of the

shell. For the net charge of the shell to

(E) Zero charge on be q, the outer surface must have the

the inner surface, rest of the charge such that qouter +

q on the outer

qinner = q so qouter= q qinner= q

surface.

(Q) = Q q

169.statics.png

The potential inside the shell is the

same as the potential at the surface of

the shell since E = 0 inside the shell. V

(E) k(Q q)/b

= kqouter/b

(E) 9kq/a2 at an

angle 45 above

the +x axis.

169 Statics

170 Statics

What is the electrostatic potential at a distance R from the center of the shell,

where b < R < a?

E

(A) 0

171 Statics

the diameter of sphere X and

initially has charge q. If the spheres are connected by a long thin wire, which

of the following is true once

equilibrium has been reached?

(A) Sphere Y has (B) Spheres X and .(C) Sphere Y has .(D) Sphere Y has .(E) Spheres X and

half the potential of Y have the same twice the potential half the charge of Y have the same Charges flow when there is a difference

sphere X.

potential.

of sphere X

sphere X

charge

in potential.

172 Statics

Four positive charges are fixed at the corners of a square, as shown above.

Three of the charges have magnitude Q, and the fourth charge has a

magnitude 2Q. Point P is at the center of the square at a distance r from each

charge. What is the electric potential at point P?

E

(A) Zero

(B) kQ/r r

173 Statics

(A) Zero

(B) kQ/r2

(A) The

capacitance

electrostatic

energy

(A) It is greater.

(A) 9U

(A) Mg

(B) Mg + kq/d

(C) Mg kq/d

(D) Mg + kq2/d2

(E) Mg kq2/d2

a grounded metal cup without

touching the inside surface of the cup, as shown above. The grounding wire

attached to the outside surface is

disconnected and the charged sphere is then removed from the cup. Which of

the following best describes the

subsequent distribution of excess charge on the surface of the cup?

B

A helium nucleus (charge +2q and mass 4m) and a lithium nucleus (charge

+3q and mass 7m) are accelerated

through the same electric potential difference, V0. What is the ratio of their

resultant kinetic energies, K Lithium/ K Helium?

E

(A) 2/3

(B) 6/7

(C) 1

(D) 7/6

(E) 3/2

(E)

Noregiononthexaxis

K=qVsoK1/K2=q1/q2

179.statics.png

The field is zero where the fields from

each charge point in opposite directions

and also closer to A

the smaller charge, which is to the left

of the Q charge

181.static.png

40 V/0.25 m

perpendicular to

the plane of the

page

E=V/d

E fields point from high potential to low

potential, perpendicular to the

equipotential lines.

174 Statics

175 Statics

176 Statics

177 Statics

178 Statics

179 Statics

180 Statics

181 Statics

182 Statics

capacitor is increased slightly, which of

the following also increases?

The two charged metal spheres X and Y shown above are far apart, and each

is isolated from all other charges.

The radius of sphere X is greater than that of sphere Y, and the magnitudes

of the electric fields just outside their

surfaces are the same. How does the charge on sphere X compare with that

on sphere Y?

Two negative point charges are a distance x apart and have potential energy

U. If the distance between the point

charges increases to 3x, what is their new potential energy?

Sphere X of mass M and charge +q hangs from a string as shown above.

Sphere Y has an equal charge +q and is

fixed in place a distance d directly below sphere X. If sphere X is in

equilibrium, the tension in the string is most

nearly

(A) kq/a2 at an

angle 45 above

the +x axis.

A point charge Q is located at the origin, while a second point charge +2Q is

located at x = d on the x-axis, as shown above. A point on the x-axis where

the net electric field is zero is located in which of the following regions?

A

Which of the following expressions best represents the magnitude of the

electric field at point P ?

B

(B) kQ/a

(C) 2kQ/r

(D) 4kQ/r

(E) 5kQ/r

(B) It is less.

V = kQ/r

172.statics.png

The electric field cancels from

symmetry all but +Q remaining in the

(C) 2kQ/r2

(D) 4kQ/r2

(E) 5kQ/r2

upper right corner and E = B kQ/r2

173.statics.png

Since the plates are insulated, the

charge remains constant. If the

distance is increased, the B

capacitance will decrease (C A/d)

(E) The magnitude and since Q = CV, the potential

(C) The force of

(D) The magnitude of the electric field difference must increase by

attraction between of the charge on

in the region

the same factor that the distance

the plates

each plate

between the plates increases. UC = 12 QV

174.statics.png

(E) It cannot be

D) It cannot be

determined without

determined without knowing the actual

knowing the actual value of the

If the E fields are the same, that means

radii of the

electric field just

kQX/rX2 = kQY/rY2, or QX/QY =

(C) It is the same. spheres.

outside the sphere rX2/rY2

(B) 3U

(C) U

(D) 1/3 U

(E) 1/9 U

UE1/r

F=0sowehaveT+k(q)(q)/d2

Mg=0givingT=Mgkq2/d2

177.statics.png

When lowered inside, the charged

sphere induces a negative charge on

(E) Negative

the inner surface of the B cup. The

(A) Negative

(B) Negative

(C) Positive charge (D) Positive charge charge resides on outer surface remains neutral since it is

charge resides on charge resides on resides on the

resides on the

the inside surface, grounded. When the grounding wire is

the inside surface, the outside

inside surface, and outside surface,

and positive

removed, the cup has a net negative

and no charge

surface, and no

no charge resides and no charge

charge resides on charge, which when the sphere is

resides on the

charge resides on on the outside

resides on the

the outside

removed, will move to the

outside surface.

the inside surface. surface.

inside surface.

surface.

outer surface of the cup.

178.statics.png

(A)-<x<0

(B)0< x<d/2

(C)d/2<x<d

(D)d<x<

10 V/0.14 m

10 V/0.04 m

25 V/0.14 m

25 V/0.04 m

of the page

the page

182.183.static.png

182.183.static.png

183 Statics

The electric field E0 and potential V0 at the surface of each drop is given by

which of the following?

00

kQ/R2 kQ/R^2

kQ/R^2 kQ/R

0 kQ/R

kQ/R 0

184 Statics

If two droplets happen to c2ombine into a single larger droplet, the new

potential V at the surface of the larger droplet is most nearly equal to

3V

2V

2/3square root2 V

3square root 2 V

2ke2/a

3ke2/2a

ke2/2a

3ke2/2a

3ke2/a

zero

450 V/m

900 V/m

4,500 V/m

90,000 V/m

I and II

I and IV

II and III

II and IV

III and IV

1V

2V

3V

4V

6V

increase the

ammeter reading

decrease the

ammeter reading

increase the

voltmeter reading

decrease the

voltmeter reading

produce no

change in either

meter reading

E = kQ/r2

The resistances are as follows: I: 2 ,

II: 4 , III: 1 , IV: 2

1.circuits.png

The total resistance of the 3 and 6

in parallel is 2 making the total circuit

resistance 6 B

andthetotalcurrentE/R=1A.

This1Awilldivideintheratioof2:

1throughthe3and6 respectively so

the 3 resistor receives 2/3 A making

the potential difference IR = (2/3 A)(3

)

= 2 V.

2.circuits.png

Adding resistors in parallel decreases

the total circuit resistance, this

increasing the total current A in the

circuit.

3.circuit.png

longest, narrowest resistor.

4/9.

2/3.

= C2V2 so Q1/Q2 = C1/C2 = 1.5

5.circuits.png

For steady power dissipation, the circuit

must allow current to slow indefinitely.

For the greatest

power, the total resistance should be

the smallest value. These criteria are

met with the resistors

in parallel.

6-7.circuits.png

To retain energy, there must be a

capacitor that will not discharge through

a resistor. Capacitors

in circuits C and E will discharge

through the resistors in parallel with

them.

6-7.circuits.png

0.025 V

.67 V

2.5 V

6.25 V

40 V

P = IE

IRt

I^2Rt

IR^2t

IRt^2

IR/t

W = Pt = I2Rt

The resistance of the two 2 resistors

in parallel is 1 . Added to the 2

resistor in series with

the pair gives 3

1 circuits

Two protons and an electron are assembled along a line, as shown above.

The distance between the electron and each proton is a. What is the work

done by an external force in assembling this configuration of charges?

B

A conducting sphere with a radius of 0.10 meter has 1.0 109 coulomb of

charge deposited on it. The electric field just outside the surface of the sphere

is

C

Which two arrangements of resistors shown above have the same resistance

between the terminals?

B

2 circuits

In the circuit shown above, what is the value of the potential difference

between points X and Y if the 6volt battery has no internal resistance?

185 Statics

186 statics

5 circuits

resistance are connected as shown above. Connecting another lamp in

parallel with the first lamp as shown by the dashed lines would

The five resistors shown below have the lengths and crosssectional areas

indicated and are made of material with the same resistivity. Which has the

greatest resistance?

Two capacitors are connected in parallel as shown above. A voltage V is

applied to the pair. What is the ratio of charge stored on C1 to the charge

stored on C2, when C1 = 1.5C2 ?

6 circuits

The five incomplete circuits below are composed of resistors R, all of equal

resistance, and capacitors C, all of

equal capacitance. A battery that can be used to complete any of the circuits

is available. Into which circuit should the battery be connected to obtain the

greatest steady power dissipation?

3 circuits

4 circuits

7 circuits

8 circuits

9 circuits

The five incomplete circuits below are composed of resistors R, all of equal

resistance, and capacitors C, all of

equal capacitance. A battery that can be used to complete any of the circuits

is available. Which circuit will retain stored energy if the battery is connected

to it and then disconnected?

The circuit shown above left is made up of a variable resistor and a battery

with negligible internal resistance. A

graph of the power P dissipated in the resistor as a function of the current I

supplied by the battery is given

above right. What is the emf of the battery?

An immersion heater of resistance R converts electrical energy into thermal

energy that is transferred to the

liquid in which the heater is immersed. If the current in the heater is I, the

thermal energy transferred to the

liquid in time t is

11 circuits

The total equivalent resistance between points X and Y in the circuit shown

above is

The five resistors shown below have the lengths and crosssectional areas

indicated and are made of material

with the same resistivity. Which resistor has the least resistance?

12 circuits

In the circuit shown above, the value of r for which the current I is 0.5 ampere

is

E

10 circuits

1 3/2.

9/4.

1

Increasing the

pressure applied to

the material

beyond a certain

threshold pressure

10

20

Cooling the

material below a

certain threshold

temperature

Stretching the

material to a wire

of sufficiently small

diameter

Placing the

material in a

sufficiently large

magnetic field

Conservation of

energy

Ampere's law

Faraday's law

Ohm's law

13 circuits

Which of the following will cause the electrical resistance of certain materials

known as superconductors to

suddenly decrease to essentially zero?

0

Increasing the

voltage applied to

the material

beyond a certain

threshold voltage

14 circuits

following?

Conservation of

charge

Forasphere,E=kQ/r2andV=kQ/r

184.185.static.png

Combining two droplets doubles the

charge. The volume is doubled, which

means the radius is multiplied by 3

square root 2

184.185.static.png

The work to assemble the charges is

the potential energy of the system,

which is the sum of the potential

energies of each pair of charges UE =

ke2/a ke2/a + ke2/2a

186.static.png

4.circuits.png

10.circuits.png

widest, shortest resistor

11.circuits.png

The resistance of the two resistors in

parallel is r/2. The total circuit

resistance is then 10 + 12 E r, which

is equivalent to E/I = (10 V)/(0.5 A) = 20

= 10 + r/2

12.circuits.png

Resistance varies directly with

temperature. Superconductors have a

resistance that quickly goes C to zero

once the temperature lowers beyond a

certain threshold

The loop rule involves the potential and

energy supplied by the battery and its

use around a

circuit loop.

15 circuits

16 circuits

17 circuits

18 circuits

19 circuits

What is the potential difference across the terminals X and Y of the battery?

What power is dissipated by the 4ohm internal resistance of the battery?

C

A

20 circuits

connections to the same source of emf

that has no internal resistance. How does the power dissipated by the

resistors in these two cases compare?

21 circuits

22 circuits

The electrical resistance of the part of the circuit shown between point X and

point Y is

23 circuits

24 circuits

25 circuits

26 circuits

When there is a steady current in the circuit, the amount of charge passing a

point per unit of time is

A certain coffeepot draws 4.0 A of current when it is operated on 120 V

household lines. If electrical energy costs 10 cents per kilowatthour, how

much does it cost to operate the coffeepot for 2 hours?

consisting of two parallel resistors each having resistance R. At what value of

R will the power dissipated in the load be a maximum?

D

Two concentric circular loops of radii b and 2b, made of the same type of

wire, lie in the plane of the page, as shown above. The total resistance of the

wire loop of radius b is R. What is the resistance of the wire loop of radius

2b?

D

28 circuits

individual capacitances for which of the following reasons?

A

A wire of length L and radius r has a resistance R. What is the resistance of a

second wire made from the same material that has a length L/2 and a radius

r/2?

B

29 circuits

The operating efficiency of a 0.5 A, 120 V electric motor that lifts a 9 kg mass

against gravity at an average velocity of 0.5 m/s is most nearly

E

30 circuits

31 circuits

A

When lighted, a 100watt light bulb operating on a 110volt household circuit

has a resistance closest to

E

27 circuits

32 circuits

parallel is 6 F. Combined with the 3F

in series gives 2

F for the right branch. Added to the 5

10/7 F

3/2 F

7/3 F

7 F

14 F

F in parallel gives a total of 7 F

Since the 5 F capacitor is in parallel

with the battery, the potential difference

across it is 100 V.

360 C

500 C

710 C

1,100 C

1,800 C

Q = CV

Total circuit resistance (including

internal resistance) = 40 ; total current

1.2 V

6.0 V

10.8 V

12.0 V

13.2 V

= 0.3 A. E = IR

VXY = E Ir where r is the internal

1.2 V

6.0 V

10.8 V

12.0 V

13.2 V

resistance

0.36 W

1.2 W

3.2 W

3.6 W

4.8 W

P = I2r

With more current drawn from the

battery for the parallel connection, more

It is different for

It is different for

power is dissipated in

each connection, each connection, this connection. While the resistors in

but one must know but one must know series share the voltage of the battery,

It is greater for the

the values of R1

the value of to

the resistors in

It is greater for the parallel

It is the same for

and R2 to know

know which is

parallel have the full potential difference

series connection. connection.

both connections. which is greater.

greater.

of the battery across them.

Amperes = I (current); Volts = V

(potential difference); Seconds = t

8 coulombs

8 newtons

8 joules

8 calories

8 newtonamperes (time): IVt = energy

Resistance of the 1 and 3 in series

= 4 . This, in parallel with the 2

resistor gives (2 4)

/(2 + 4) = 8/6 . Also notice the

equivalent resistance must be less than

2 (the 2 resistor is

4/3

2

2.75

4

6

in parallel and the total resistance in

The upper branch, with twice the

the same

greater in the 1 greater in the 2

greater in the 1 resistance of the lower branch, will

everywhere in the resistor than in the resistor than in the greater at point X resistor than in the have the current of the

circuit

2 resistor

3 resistor

than at point Y

3 resistor

lower branch.

2.4 cents

4.8 cents

0 r/2

15.circuits.png

17.circuits.png

17.circuits.png

17.circuits.png

20.circuits.png

22.circuits.png

22.circuits.png

8.0 cents

9.6 cents

16 cents

2r

4r

= Pt = (0.48 kW)(2 hours) = 0.96 kW-h 24.circuits.png

Total circuit resistance of the load =

R/2. Total circuit resistance including

the internal resistance D = r + R/2. The

current is then E/(r + R/2) and the total

power dissipated in the load is P =

I2Rload

= (E2R/2)/(r + R/2)2. Using calculus

max/min methods or plotting this on a

graph gives the value

of R for which this equation is

maximized of R = 2r. This max/min

problem is not part of the B curriculum

but you should be able to set up the

equation to be maximized.

25.circuits.png

R/4

The charge on

each capacitor

depends on its

capacitance, but

the potential

difference across

each is the same.

R/2

The charge is the

same on each

capacitor, but the

potential difference

across each

capacitor depends

on its capacitance.

2R

4R

has twice the circumference (length)

and R = L/A

Equivalent

capacitance is

always greater

than the largest

capacitance.

Capacitors in a

circuit always

combine like

resistors in series.

The parallel

combination

increases the

effective

separation of the

plates.

possible true statement.

4R

2R

R/2

R/4

7%

15.circuits.png

13%

25%

53%

0.8mA

1.0mA

2.0mA

3.0mA

6.0mA

I1 > I2 > I3

I1 > I3 > I2

I2 > I1 > I3

I3 > I1 > I2

I3 > I2 > I1

102

101

10

100

R=L/A. IfL2,

R2andisr2thenA4andR4makingtheneteffectR24

ThemotorusesP=IV=60WofpowerbutonlydeliversP=Fv=mgv=45Wofpower.

The E efficiency is what you get

75% what you are paying for = 45/60

Resistance of the 2000 and 6000

in parallel = 1500 , adding the 2500

in series gives a total circuit resistance

of 4000 . Itotal = I1 = E/Rtotal

30.circuits.png

I1 is the main branch current and is the

largest. It will split into I2 and I3and

since I2 moves through the smaller

resistor, it will be larger than I3.

30.circuits.png

P=V2/R

32.circuits.png

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

circuits

44 circuits

12

18

the junction rule at the top junction,

where 1 A + 2 A enter giving I = 3 A.

Now utilize Kirchhoffs loop rule through

the left or right loops: (left side) + 16

V (1 A)(4 ) (3 A)R = 0 giving R = 4

33.circuits.png

behaves as if the capacitor were just a

wire and all the

potential of the battery is across the

resistor. As the capacitor charges, the

voltage changes over

to the capacitor over time, eventually

making the current (and the potential

difference across the

resistor) zero and the potential

difference across the capacitor equal to

the emf of the battery

44.circuits.png

Which graph best represents the voltage across the capacitor versus time?

Three 6microfarad capacitors are connected in series with a 6volt battery.

The equivalent capacitance of the set of capacitors is

0.5 F

2 F

3 F

9 F

18 F

4 J

6 J

12 J

18 J

36 J

l only

d only

l and only

d and only

l, d, and

L/d^2

P/9

P/3

3P

6P

P = I^2 R

49 circuits

The power dissipated in a wire carrying a constant electric current I may be

written as a function of the length l

of the wire, the diameter d of the wire, and the resistivity of the material in

the wire. In this expression, the

power dissipated is directly proportional to which of the following?

A wire of resistance R dissipates power P when a current I passes through it.

The wire is replaced by another

wire with resistance 3R. The power dissipated by the new wire when the

same current passes through it is

Two resistors of the same length, both made of the same material, are

connected in a series to a battery as

shown above. Resistor II has a greater cross. sectional area than resistor I.

Which of the following quantities

has the same value for each resistor?

There are several ways to do this

problem. We can find the total energy

stored and divide it into

the three capacitors: UC = CV2=

(2 F)(6 V)2= 36 J 3 = 12 J each

Potential

Electric field

difference between strength within the

the two ends

resistor

Resistance

area

Current

50 circuits

of the system of capacitors is

C

2/3F

4/3 F

3 F

6 F

12 F

51 circuits

What potential difference must be applied between points X and Y so that the

charge on each plate of each

capacitor will have magnitude 6 microcoulombs?

C

1.5 V

3V

6V

9V

18 V

52 circuits

In the circuit above, the emf's and the resistances have the values shown.

The current I in the circuit is 2 amperes.

The resistance R is

53 circuits

1.2 V

6.0 V

8.4 V

10.8 V

12.2 V

54 circuits

6J

180 J

360 J

720 J

1440 J

55 circuits

Immediately after the switch is closed, the current supplied by the battery is

V/(R1+ R2)

V/R1

V/R2

V(R1+R2)/R1R2

zero

56 circuits

A long time after the switch has been closed, the current supplied by the

battery is

V/(R1+R2)

V/R1

V/R2

V(R1+R2)/R1R2

zero

45 circuits

46 circuits

47 circuits

48 circuits

must have the same current.

Each branch, with two capacitors in

series, has an equivalent capacitance

of 2 F 2 = 1 F.

The three branches in parallel have an

equivalent capacitance of 1 F + 1 F +

1 F = 3 F

For each capacitor to have 6 C, each

branch will have 6 C since the two

capacitors in series in

each branch has the same charge. The

total charge for the three branches is

then 18 C. Q = CV

gives 18 C = (3 F)V

Utilizing Kirchhoffs loop rule starting at

the upper left and moving clockwise:

(2 A)(0.3 ) +

12 V 6 V (2 A)(0.2 ) (2A)(R)

(2A)(1.5 ) = 0

Summing the potential differences: 6

V (2 A)(0.2 ) (2A)(1 ) = 8.4 V

Energy = Pt = I2

Rt

When the switch is closed, the circuit

behaves as if the capacitor were just a

wire, shorting out the resistor on the

right.

When the capacitor is fully charged, the

branch with the capacitor is closed to

current, effectively removing it from the

circuit for current analysis.

49.circuits.png

50.circuits.png

51.circuits.png

52.circuits.png

53.circuits.png

54.circuits.png

55.circuits.png

56.circuits.png

57 circuits

58 circuits

59 circuits

battery of emf 20 volts and internal resistance r. The current in the circuit is

0.8 ampere. What is the value of r?

C

A variable resistor is connected across a constant voltage source. Which of

the following graphs represents the power P dissipated by the resistor as a

function of its resistance R?

A

0.22

4.5

16

70

1.5

V0+ QC I2R = 0

V0 Q/C IR = 0

V02-Q2/2C-I2R=0 V0-CI-I2R=0

Q/C IR = 0

61 circuits

If the ammeter in the circuit above reads zero, what is the resistance R ?

E

A resistor R and a capacitor C are connected in series to a battery of terminal

voltage V0. Which following equations relating the current I in the circuit and

the charge Q on the capacitor describes this circuit?

B

Which of the following combinations of 4 resistors would dissipate 24 W

when connected to a 12 Volt

battery?

E

62 circuits

A narrow beam of protons produces a current of 1.6 103 A. There are 109

protons in each meter along the beam. Of the following, which is best

estimate of the average speed of the protons in the beam?

D

10^15 m/s

10^12 m/s

10^7 m/s

10^7 m/s

10^12 m/s

63 circuits

1.0 F

2.0 F

4.5 F

6.0 F

9.0 F

64 circuits

circuit with a 12 V battery as shown above.The potential difference between

points Y and Z is

Zero

3V

4V

8V

9V

Bulb 2:Gets

brighter

Bulb 1:Gets

brighter Bulb 2:

Goes out

Bulb 1:Gets

brighter Bulb 2:

Gets slightly

dimmer

Bulb 1:Gets

slightly dimmer

Bulb 2:Gets

brighter

Bulb 1:Nothing

Bulb 2:Goes out

0.1 F

0.1

1 F

10

2/3 F

12

12 F

120

1/6 F

1440

60 circuits

66 circuits

67 circuits

The circuit in the figure above contains two identical lightbulbs in series with a

battery. At first both bulbs glow with equal brightness. When switch S is

closed, which of the following occurs to the bulbs?

B

Three 1/2 F capacitors are connected in series as shown in the diagram

above. The capacitance of the combination is

E

A hair dryer is rated as 1200 W, 120 V. Its effective internal resistance is

C

68 circuits

When the switch S is open in the circuit shown above, the reading on the

ammeter A is 2.0 A. When the switch is closed, the reading on the ammeter is B

doubled

69 circuits

Two conducting cylindrical wires are made out of the same material. Wire X

has twice the length and twice the diameter of wire Y. What is the ratio Rx/Ry

of their resistances?

B

"1/4"

65 circuits

71 circuits

You are given three 1.0 resistors. Which of the following equivalent

resistances CANNOT be produced using all three resistors?

C

The figures above show parts of two circuits, each containing a battery of emf

and internal resistance r. The current in each battery is 1 A, but the direction

of the current in one battery is opposite to that in the other. If the potential

differences across the batteries' terminals are 10 V and 20 V as shown, what

are the values of and r ?

C

72 circuits

In the circuit shown above, the equivalent resistance of the three resistors is

10.5

73 circuits

What is the current through the 6.0 resistor shown in the accompanying

circuit diagram? Assume all batteries have negligible resistance.

0A

70 circuits

1/3

E = 5 V, r = 15

Resistance of the 30 and 60

resistors in parallel =20 adding the

internal resistance in series with the

external circuit gives Rtotal= 20 + r =

25

57.circuits.png

P = V2/R and if V is constant P

58.circuits.png

1/R

For the ammeter to read zero means

the junctions at the ends of the

ammeter have the same potential. For

this to be true, the potential drops

across the 1 and the 2 resistor

must be equal, which means the

current through the 1 resistor must

be twice that of the 2 resistor. This

means the resistance of the upper

branch (1 and 3 ) must be that of

the lower branch (2 and R) giving 1

+ 3 = (2 + R)

59.circuits.png

Kirchhoffs loop rule (V = Q/C for a

capacitor)

To dissipate 24 W means R = V2/P = 6

. The resistances, in order, are: 8 ,

4/3 , 8/3 , 12 and 6

Dimensional analysis: 1.6 103

A = 1.6 103 C/s 1.6 1019

C/proton = 1016 protons/sec 109

protons/meter = 107 m/s

The equivalent capacitance of the two 3

F capacitors in parallel is 6 F,

combined with the 3 F in series gives

Ctotal = 2 F

The equivalent capacitance between X

and Y is twice the capacitance between

Y and Z. This means the voltage

between X and Y is 12 the voltage

between Y and Z. For a total of 12 V,

this gives 4 V between X and Y and 8 V

between Y and Z.

Closing the switch short circuits Bulb 2

causing no current to flow to it. Since

the bulbs were

originally in series, this decreases the

total resistance and increases the total

current, making bulb

1 brighter.

P = V^2/R

Closing the switch reduces the

resistance in the right side from 20 to

15 , making the total

circuit resistance decrease from 35 to

30 , a slight decrease, causing a

slight increase in

increased slightly

decreased slightly

current. For the current to double, the

but not doubled

the same

but not halved

halved

total resistance must be cut in half.

R = L/A L/d^2 where d is the

diameter. Rx/Ry = Lx/dx^2

Ly/dy^2 = (2Ly)d^2/[Ly(2dy)^2]

12

1

2

4 =

Using all three in series = 3 , all three

in parallel = 1/3 . One in parallel with

two in series =

2/3 , one in series with two in parallel

2/3

1.0

1.5

3.0

= 3/2

The values cannot Summing the potential differences from

be computed

bottom to top:

unless the

left circuit: (1 A)r + E = 10 V

complete circuits

right circuit: + (1 A)r + E = 20 V, solve

E =10 V, r = 100 E = 15 V, r = 5

E = 20 V, r = 10 are shown.

simultaneous equations

The equivalent resistance of the 20

and the 60 in parallel is 15 , added

to the 35 resistor

15

20

50

115

in series gives 15 + 35 = 50

If you perform Kirchhoffs loop rule for

the highlighted loop, you get a current

of 0 A through

0.40 A

0.50 A

1.3 A

1.5 A

the 6 resistor.

61.circuits.png

63.circuits.png

64.circuits.png

65.circuits.png

66.circuits.png

68.circuits.png

71.circuits.png

72.circuits.png

73.circuits.png

74 circuits

Four identical light bulbs K, L, M, and N are connected in the electrical circuit

shown. Rank the current through the bulbs.

D

K>L>M>N

L=M>K=N

L>M>K>N

N>K>L=M

N>L=M>K

75 circuits

Four identical light bulbs K, L, M, and N are connected in the electrical circuit

shown. In order of decreasing brightness (starting with the brightest), the

bulbs are:

D

K=L>M>N

K=L=M>N

K>L=M>N

N>K>L=M

N>K=L=M

76 circuits

Four identical light bulbs K, L, M, and N are connected in the electrical circuit

shown. Bulb K burns out. Which of the following statements is true?

E

go out.

out.

Bulb N becomes

brighter

bulb N remains the dimmer but does

same

not go out.

current. The current then divides into

the two branches,

with K receiving twice the current as L

and M. The L/M branch has twice the

resistance of the K

branch. L and M in series have the

same current.

Current is related to brightness (P =

(I^2)R) ("N is in the main branch, with

the most current. The current then

divides into the two branches,

with K receiving twice the current as L

and M. The L/M branch has twice the

resistance of the K branch. L and M in

series have the same current.")

If K burns out, the circuit becomes a

series circuit with the three resistors, N,

M and L all in

series, reducing the current through

bulb N.

If M burns out, the circuit becomes a

series circuit with the two resistors, N

and K in series, with

bulb L going out as well since it is in

series with bulb M.

Using Kirchhoffs loop rule around the

circuit going through either V or R since

they are in

parallel and will have the same

potential drop gives: V (1.00 mA)(25

) + 5.00 V (1.00

mA)(975 ) = 0

74.circuits

75.circuits

76.circuits

77 circuits

Four identical light bulbs K, L, M, and N are connected in the electrical circuit

shown. Bulb M burns out. Which of the following statements is true?

E

go out.

out.

but at least one

The brightness of Bulb N becomes

other bulb remains bulb N remains the dimmer but does

lit

same

not go out.

78 circuits

10.0 k and the ammeter has internal

resistance 25.0 . The ammeter reading is 1.00 mA. The voltmeter reading is

most nearly:

D

1.0 V

2.0 V

3.0 V

79 circuits

When two resistors, having resistance R1 and R2, are connected in parallel,

the equivalent resistance of the

combination is 5 . Which of the following statements about the resistances

is correct?

Both R1 and R2

are greater than 5

.

Both R1 and R2

are equal to 5 .

Both R1 and R2

are less than 5 .

zero

0.020 A

0.025 A

5.0 V

78.circuits

One of the

resistances is

greater than 5 ,

one of the

The sum of R1 and resistances is less The equivalent resistance in parallel is

R2 is 5 .

than 5 .

smaller than the smallest resistance.

When the capacitor is fully charged, the

branch on the right has no current,

effectively making

the circuit a series circuit with the 100

and 300 resistors. Rtotal

C

0.033 A

0.100 A

= 400 , E = 10 V = IR

80.circuits

1.0 V

2.0 V

3.0 V

6.0 V

12 V

(n^2)P

nP

P/n

P/(n^2)

I only

II only

I and II only

charge on

current through

power from

resistance of

voltage across

R/8

R/4

R/2

2R

10.0 A

12.0 A

14.1 A

0.100 A

0.141 A

10 V

18 V

24 V

30 V

42 V

80 circuits

81 circuits

82 circuits

83 circuits

84 circuits

See the accompanying figure. What is the current through the 300 resistor

when the capacitor is fully

charged?

C

Three resistors R1, R2, and R3 are connected in series to a battery.

Suppose R1 carries a current of 2.0 A, R2

has a resistance of 3.0 , and R3 dissipates 6.0 W of power. What is the

voltage across R3?

C

When a single resistor is connected to a battery, a total power P is dissipated

in the circuit. How much total

power is dissipated in a circuit if n identical resistors are connected in series

using the same battery? Assume the internal resistance is zero.

D

Consider the compound circuit shown above. The three bulbs 1, 2, and 3

represented as resistors in the

diagram are identical. Which of the following statements are true? I. Bulb 3

is brighter than bulb 1 or 2.

II. Bulb 3 has more current passing through it than bulb 1 or 2.

III. Bulb 3 has a greater voltage drop across it than bulb 1 or 2.

When any four resistors are connected in parallel, the _______ each resistor

is the same.

86 circuits

Wire I and wire II are made of the same material. Wire II has twice the

diameter and twice the length of wire I. If wire I has resistance R, wire II has

resistance

A heating coil is rated 1200 watts and 120 volts. What is the maximum value

of the current under these conditions?

87 circuits

In the accompanying circuit diagram, the current through the 6.0 resistor is

1.0 A. What is the power supply voltage V?

D

85 circuits

4.0 V

77.circuits

current, 2 A. P3

= I3V3

P = (E^2)/R. Total resistance of n

resistors in series is nR making the

power P = (E^2)/nR = P/n

The current through bulb 3 is twice the

current through 1 and 2 since the

branch with bulb 3 is

half the resistance of the upper branch.

The potential difference is the same

across each branch,

but bulbs 1 and 2 must divide the

potential difference between them.

83.circuits

by definition of a parallel circuit

R = L/A L/d^2 where d is the

diameter. RII/RI = LII/dII^2

LI/dI^2 = (2LI)dI^2/[LI(2dI)^2] =

P = IV

If the current in the 6 resistor is 1 A,

then by ratios, the currents in the 2

and 3 resistor are 3 A and 2 A

respectively (since they have 1/3 and

1/2 the resistance). This makes the

total current 6 A and the potential drop

across the 4 resistor 24 V. Now use

Kirchhoffs loop rule for any branch.

87.circuits.png

88 circuits

89 circuits

18.0 C. What is the value of the power supply voltage V?

What is the resistance of a 60 watt light bulb designed to operate at 120

volts?

93 circuits

Given the simple electrical circuit above, if the current in all three resistors is

equal, which of the following statements must be true?

Wire Y is made of the same material but has twice the diameter and half the

length of wire X. If wire X has a resistance of R then wire Y would have a

resistance of

The diagram above represents a simple electric circuit composed of 5

identical light bulbs and 2 flashlight cells. Which bulb (or bulbs) would you

expect to be the brightest?

Three different resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel to a battery.

Suppose R1 has 2 V across it, R2 = 4 , and R3 dissipates 6 W. What is the

current in R3?

94 circuits

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the simple circuit

shown where resistors R1, R2 and R3 all have equal resistances?

90 circuits

91 circuits

92 circuits

95 circuits

96 circuits

97 circuits

98 circuits

99 circuits

100 circuits

101 circuits

102 circuits

103 circuits

104 circuits

If all of the resistors in the above simple circuit have the same resistance,

which would dissipate the greatest

power?

The following diagram represents an electrical circuit containing two uniform

resistance wires connected to a

single flashlight cell. Both wires have the same length, but the thickness of

wire X is twice that of wire Y.

Which of the following would best represent the dependence of electric

potential on position along the length of

the two wires?

Each member of a family of six owns a computer rated at 500 watts in a 120

V circuit. If all computers are

plugged into a single circuit protected by a 20 ampere fuse, what is the

maximum number of the computers can

be operating at the same time?

4.40 V

6.00 V

8.00 V

10.4 V

11.0 V

(Q = CV) and since the capacitor is in

parallel with the 300 resistor, the

voltage across the 300 resistor is

also 6 V. The 200 resistor is not

considered since the capacitor is

charged and no current flows through

that branch. The 100 resistor in

series with the 300 resistor has 1/3

the voltage (2 V) since it is 1/3 the

resistance. Kirchhoffs loop rule for the

left loop gives E = 8 V.

88.circuits.png

0.5

7200

P = V^2/R

X and Y have

equal resistance

60

X and Y added

together have the

same resistance

as Z

240

X, Y, and Z all

have equal

resistance

R/8

R/2

V only

V and W only

V and Z only

For the currents in the branches to be

more resistance

none of the above equal, each branch must have the

than Z

must be true

same resistance.

90.circuits.png

R L/A = L/d^2. If d 2, R 4

and if L 2, R 2 making the net

2R

8R

effect R 8

all five bulbs are

Bulbs in the main branch have the most

the same

current through them and are the

V, W and Z only

brightness

brightest.

92.circuits.png

0.33 A

0.5 A

will pass through

across R2

R1

is 5 volts

2A

the power

dissipated in

R3 could be 5

watts

3A

if R2 were to burn

out, current would

still flow through

both R1 and R3

Resistor A

Resistor C

Resistor D

The steady current in the above circuit would be closest to which of the

following values?

When the switch is closed, what would be the current in the circuit?

How much current flows through a 4 ohm resistor that is dissipating 36 watts

of power?

106 circuits

How would the current through the 2 ohm resistor compare to the current

through the 4 ohm resistor?

0.33 C

0.67 C

of the circuit is less If the resistances are equal, they will all

than R1

draw the same current.

94.circuits.png

Resistor D is in a branch by itself while

They would all

resistors A, B and C are in series,

dissipate the same drawing less current

power

than resistor D.

95.circuits.png

1.0 C

same voltage (2 V). P3 = I3V3

4 5 or more

1.5 C

3.0 C

resistances and currents, the potential

drop across each is

1.56 V and will vary by the same

gradient, dropping all 1.56 V along the

same length.

96.circuits.png

4 computers will draw 16.7 A, while 5

will draw over 20

A.

The capacitance of the two capacitors

in parallel is 2C. Combined with a

capacitor in series

gives C=(Cx2C)/(C+2C)=2C/3

98.circuits.png

0.2 amp

0.37 amp

0.5 amp

2.0 amp

only bulb D

only bulb E

only bulbs A or E

only bulbs C or D

$1.55 kW 8 h = 12.48 kW-h

Resistance of bulbs B & C = 20

combined with D in parallel gives 6.7

for the right side.

Combined with A & E in series gives a

5.0 amp

total resistance of 26.7 . E = IR

100-101.circuits.png

A and E failing in the main branch

would cause the entire circuit to fail. B

and C would affect

bulbs B, C, or D

each other.

100-101.circuits.png

30 V

30 V

40 V

40 V

60 V

60 V

70 V

70 V

110 V

110 V

1.1 A

1.7 A

2.0 A

2.3 A

3.0 A

2.25 amps

3.0 amps

4.24 amps

9.0 amps

144 amps

Which bulb (or bulbs) could burn out without causing other bulbs in the circuit

to also go out?

A

With the switch open, what would be the potential difference across the 15

ohm resistor?

A

With the switch open, what must be the voltage supplied by the battery?

D

105 circuits

shown in the following diagram. What

would be the total equivalent capacitance of the circuit?

B

An electric heater draws 13 amperes of current when connected to 120 volts.

If the price of electricity is

$0.10/kWh, what would be the approximate cost of running the heater for 8

hours?

D

Resistor B

12 A

$0.19

$0.29

$0.75

$1.25

equally as large

V = IR

E = IRtotal where Rtotal = 35

With the switch closed, the resistance

of the 15 and the 30 in parallel is

10 , making the

total circuit resistance 30 and E = IR

102-104.circuits.png

102-104.circuits.png

104.circuits.png

P = I^(2)R

The equivalent resistance through path

ACD is equal to the equivalent

resistance through path

ABD, making the current through the

two branches equal

106.circuits.png

107 circuits

108 circuits

What would be the potential at point B with respect to point C in the above

circuit?

A cylindrical resistor has length L and radius r. This piece of material is then

drawn so that it is a cylinder with

new length 2L. What happens to the resistance of this material because of

this process?

"+7 V"

"+3 V"

"0 V"

"-3 V"

the resistance is

quartered.

the resistance is

halved.

the resistance is

unchanged.

the resistance is

doubled.

Bulb #1 only

Bulb #2 only

Bulbs #2 and #3

only

#3

110 circuits

A circuit is connected as shown. All light bulbs are identical. When the switch

in the circuit is closed

illuminating bulb #4, which other bulb(s) also become brighter?

A

A cylindrical graphite resistor has length L and crosssectional area A. It is to

be placed into a circuit, but it

first must be cut in half so that the new length is L. What is the ratio of the

new resistivity to the old

resistivity of the cylindrical resistor?

C

111 circuits

112 circuits

Which resistor(s) have the greatest rate of energy dissipation?

113 circuits

The circuit shown has an ideal ammeter with zero resistance and four

identical resistance light bulbs which are

initially illuminated. A person removes the bulb R4 from its socket thereby

permanently breaking the electrical

circuit at that point. Which statement is true of the circuit after removing the

bulb?

114 circuits

A current through the thin filament wire of a light bulb causes the filament to

become white hot, while the

larger wires connected to the light bulb remain much cooler. This happens

because

115 circuits

In the circuit above the voltmeter V draws negligible current and the internal

resistance of the battery is 1.0 ohm. The reading of the voltmeter is

109 circuits

is 9 , making the current in each

branch 1 A. From

point A, the potential drop across the 7

resistor is then 7 V and across the 4

resistor is 4 V,

"-7 V"

making point B 3 V lower than point C 107.circuits.png

Since the volume of material drawn into

a new shape in unchanged, when the

the resistance is

length is doubled,

quadrupled.

the area is halved. R = L/A

Closing the switch reduces the total

resistance of the circuit, increasing the

current in the main

None of the bulbs. branch containing bulb 1

109.circuits.png

J only

J only

M only

M only

N only

N only

The power

supplied by the

battery increases

the thin filament

has more

resistance than the

larger connecting

wires.

The voltage

accross R1

increases

to C increases

the larger

connecting wires

have more

resistance than the

filament.

10.5 V

12.0 V

10.8 V

13.0 V

0.25 Not to be confused with resistance

Resistors J and N are in the main

branch and therefore receive the

K&L only

largest current

K&L only

P = I^(2)R

Breaking the circuit in the lower branch

lowers the total current in the circuit,

decreasing the

voltage across R1. Looking at the upper

loop, this means R2

A

The bulb R2

now has a larger share of the battery

maintains the

voltage and the voltage across AD is

same brightness

the same as the voltage across BC

the current in the

filament is less

than that through

the connecting

In series circuits, larger resistors

wires.

develop more power

With a total resistance of 10 , the total

current is 1.2 A. The terminal voltage

11.6 V

VT = E Ir

Most rapid heating requires the largest

power dissipation. This occurs with the

resistors in

E

parallel.

0.2 A

2A

4A

5A

7.2 A

D

D

0.5

J&N only

J&N only

The ammeter

reading is

unchanged

the current in the

filament is greater

than that through

the filament wire is the connecting

not insulated.

wires.

117 circuits

Suppose you are given a constant voltage source V0 and three resistors R1,

R2, and R3 with R1 > R2 > R3. If you wish to heat water in a pail which of the

following combinations of resistors will give the most rapid heating?

E

A household iron used to press clothes is marked 120 volt, 600 watt. In

normal use, the current in it is

D

118 circuits

For the circuit shown, a shorting wire of negligible resistance is added to the

circuit between points A and B.

When this shorting wire is added, bulb #3 goes out. Which bulbs (all identical)

in the circuit brighten?

C

Only Bulb 2

Only Bulb 4

119 circuits

simultaneously. After equilibrium is

established, what is the charge on the top plate of the 5 F capacitor?

100 C

50 C

30 C

116 circuits

25 C

121 circuits

How many coulombs will pass through the identified resistor in 5 seconds

once the circuit was closed?

E

A junior Thomas Edison wants to make a brighter light bulb. He decides to

modify the filament. How should

the filament of a light bulb be modified in order to make the light bulb produce

more light at a given voltage?

B

Increase the

resistivity only.

Increase the

diameter only.

Decrease the

diameter only.

Decrease the

diameter and

increase the

resistivity.

122 circuits

In the circuit diagram above, all of the bulbs are identical. Which bulb will be

the brightest?

120 circuits

1.2

12

2.4

10 C

111.circuits.png

112.circuits.png

113.circuits.png

115.circuts.png

116.circuts.png

P = IV

Shorting bulb 3 decreases the

resistance in the right branch,

increasing the current through bulb 4

and decreasing the total circuit

resistance. This increases the total

current in the main branch

containing bulb 1.

118.circuts.png

The total charge to be distributed is

+100 C 50 C = + 50 C. In parallel,

the capacitors must

have the same voltage so the 20 F

capacitor has four times the charge of

the 5 F capacitor.

This gives Q20 = 4Q5 and Q20 + Q5 =

4Q5 + Q5 = 5Q5 = 50 C, or Q5

= 10 C

119.circuts.png

The equivalent resistance of the two 4

resistors on the right is 2 making

the total circuit

resistance 10 and the total current

2.4 A. The 2.4 A will divide equally

between the two

branches on the right. Q = It = (1.2 A)(5

24

6 s) = 6 C

120.circuts.png

For more light at a given voltage, more

current is required, which requires less

Increase the length resistance. R =

only.

L/A

The bulbs all have

the same

Bulb C in the main branch receiving the

brightness.

total current will be the brightest

122.circuts.png

123 circuits

For the circuit shown, the ammeter reading is initially I. The switch in the

circuit then is closed. Consequently:

124 circuits

Approximately how much would it cost to keep a 100 W light bulb lit

continuously for 1 year at a rate of $0.10

per kW hr?

126 circuits

.In the circuit shown above, the potential difference between points a and b is

zero for a value of capacitance C

of

A

The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown to the right with resistances R1

= 4.00 , R2 = 3.00 , and R3

B

127 circuits

For the circuit shown, when a shorting wire (no resistance) connects the

points labeled A and B, which of the

numbered light bulbs become brighter? Assume that all four bulbs are

identical and have resistance R .

128 circuits

In terms of the seven fundamental SI units in the MKS system, the Ohm is

written as

125 circuits

1/3 microfarad

0.111

0.923

Bulb 1 only

Bulb 2 only

(kgm^2)/

(A^2s^3)

(kgm^2s)/C^2

130 circuits

.Consider a simple circuit containing a battery and three light bulbs. Bulb A is

wired in parallel with bulb B and

this combination is wired in series with bulb C. What would happen to the

brightness of the other two bulbs if

bulb A were to burn out?

C

For the RC circuit shown, the resistance is R = 10.0 , the capacitance is C =

5.0 F and the battery has voltage

= 12 volts . The capacitor is initially uncharged when the switch S is closed at

time t = 0. At some time later, the

current in the circuit is 0.50 A. What is the magnitude of the voltage across

the capacitor at that moment?

D

131 circuits

132 circuits

129 circuits

never light. Closing the switch merely

adds bulb #2 in

The power

parallel to bulb #1, which does not

supplied by the

change the potential difference across

battery decreases. bulb #1.

1 year = 365 days 24 hours/day =

8760 hours. W (energy) = Pt = 0.1 kW

8760 hours = 867

$1

$10

$100

$1000

$100000 kW-h $0.10 per kW-h = $ 86.7

For points a and b to be at the same

potential, the potential drop across the

3 resistor must be

equal to the potential drop across

capacitor C. The potential drop across

the 3 resistor is three

times the drop across the 1 resistor.

For the potential drop across capacitor

C to be three times

the crop across the 1 F capacitor, C

2/3 microfarad

2 microfarads

3 microfarads

9 microfarads

must be 1/3 the capacitance, or 1/3 F

The potential

The potential

difference between

The ammeter

difference between E and F stays the Bulb #3 lights up

reading decreases. E and F increases. same.

more brightly.

There would be no

change in the

brightness of either Both would get

bulb B or bulb C.

brighter.

1.08

3.00

In parallel

126.circuits.PNG

Shorting bulb 4 decreases the

resistance in the right branch,

increasing the current through bulb 3

and in the main branch containing bulb

Bulb 3 only

Bulbs 1 and 3 only Bulbs 1, 2, and 3 1.

127.circuits.PNG

R = V/I where V = W/Q and Q = It

giving R = W/I2

t and W = joules = kg m2

/s

kgm/Cs

(kgm^2)/As^2

2

If A were to burn out, the total

resistance of the parallel part of the

circuit increases, causing less

current from the battery and less

current through bulb A. However, A and

B split the voltage

from the battery in a loop and with less

current through bulb A, A will have a

smaller share of

Bulb B would get Bulb B would get

voltage, increasing the potential

brighter and bulb C dimmer and bulb C Only bulb B would difference (and the current) through

would get dimmer. would get brighter. get brighter

bulb B.

5 volts

6 volts

7 volts

12 volts

In the circuit shown above, the 10 F capacitor is initially uncharged. After the

switch S has been closed for a

long time, how much energy is stored in the capacitor?

D

0 J

100 J

250 J

500 J

1000 J

.In the circuit shown above, a constant current device is connected to some

identical light bulbs. After the switch

S in the circuit is closed, which statement is correct about the circuit?

Bulb #2 becomes

brighter.

Bulb #1 becomes

dimmer.

become equally

brighter.

The voltage

between points C

and D is

decreased.

the current device

is increased.

120 V

80 V

60 V

40 V

30 V

134 circuits

A voltmeter with a resistance of

1000 is connected across the last resistor as shown. What would be the

reading on the voltmeter?

D

Two resistors, one with resistance R and the second with resistance 4R are

placed in a circuit with a voltage V. If resistance R dissipates power P, what

would be the power dissipated by the 4R resistance?

A

4P

2P

.5P

.25P

135 circuits

133 circuits

125.circuits.PNG

9.00

0 volts

123.circuts.png

across the resistor is V = IR = 5 V.

According to the loop

rule, the remaining 7 V must be across

the capacitor.

When the switch has been closed a

long time, the voltage across the

capacitor is 10 V as the

current has stopped and the resistor

has no potential drop across it. UC =

CV

D

2

Since there is constant current, bulb 1

remains unchanged and bulbs 2 and

three must now split

the current. With half the current

through bulb 2, the potential difference

between A and B is

also halved.

The voltmeter is essentially another

resistor. The voltmeter in parallel with

the 100 resistor

acts as a 500 resistor, which will half

the voltage of the 100 resistor on

the left. Thus the

120 V will split into 80 V for the 1000

resistor and 40 V for the voltmeter

combination.

130.circuits.PNG

131.circuits.PNG

132.circuits.PNG

133.circuits.PNG

through each resistor.

134.circuits.PNG

The greatest current is in the main

branch.

135.circuits.png

136 circuits

137 circuits

the simple circuit shown above. When the switch is closed what would

happen to the potential difference across the 15 ohm resistor?

2

it would be twice

the potential

difference across

the 30 ohm

resistor

potential difference

across the 20 ohm

resistor

potential difference

across the 30 ohm

resistor

138 circuits

2 amp

4 amp

5 amp

139 circuits

positive 2 V

positive 4 V

positive 5 V

140 circuits

Two resistors and a capacitor are connected with a 10 volt battery, a switch

and an ideal ammeter to form the simple electrical circuit shown. After the

switch is closed and the current in the circuit reaches a constant value, what

is the reading on the ammeter in the circuit?

9.2 102A

8.1 102A

7.5 102A

141 circuits

When the switch is closed, what would be the current in the circuit shown in

the diagram above if the two batteries are opposing one another?

1.25 A

.75 A

.5 A

142 circuits

Four resistors, R1, R2, R3, and R4, are connected in the circuit diagram

above. When the switch is closed, current flows in the circuit. If no current

flows through the ammeter when it is connected as shown, what would be the

value of R3?

D

potential difference

The 15 resistor would be in parallel

across the 30 ohm

with the 30 resistor when the switch

resistor

none of the above is closed.

ACD = 9 , ABD = 9 so the total

resistance is 4.5 making the total

7 amp

9 amp

current E/R = 2 A.

The 2 A will divide equally between the

two branches with 1 A going through

each branch.

From B to D we have (1 A)(2 ) = 2

positive 7 V

positive 9 V

V, with B at the higher potential

When the capacitor is charged, the

branch is effectively removed from the

circuit, making it a

simple parallel circuit. The total

6.9 102A

Zero

resistance is 133.3 and V = IR

In a simple series circuit with two

batteries opposing one another the

voltages subtract from one

another. The total effective voltage for

this circuit is then 4 V. With a total

resistance of 20

.3 A

.2 A

the total current is (4 V)/(20 )

For no current to flow, the potential

drop across R1 must equal the potential

drop across R2. For

this to occur I1R1 = I2R2. Since the two

branches also have the same potential

difference as a

whole (they are in parallel) we also

have I1(R1 + R3) = I2(R2 + R4). Solve

(R1*R4)/R2

R1

for R3

When the capacitor is charged, the

branch is effectively removed from the

circuit, making the

circuit a 10 resistor in series with two

10 resistors in parallel. The lone 10

resistor has

twice the voltage of the two 10

resistors in parallel with an effective

resistance of 5 . The 10

volts will then divide with 3.3 V going to

the parallel combination and 6.7 V

going to the single

10 resistor. The capacitor is in

parallel with the single 10 resistor. Q

100 C

150 C

= CV

The resistances are, respectively, 4/3

D

E

R, 2/5 R, R, and 5/3 R

Closing the switch adds another parallel

branch, increasing the total current

delivered by the battery. Bulb 3 will get

brighter. Bulb 2, in its own loop with

It cannot be

bulb 3 and the battery will then lose

determined without some of its share of the potential

knowingthe emf of difference from the battery and will get

Both bulbs

the battery.

dimmer

For the 3 capacitors in series on the

right CTC= C/3. Adding to the

capacitor in parallel gives C + C/3 =

3C

4C

4C/3

Superconductors have a property

where the resistance goes to zero

D

E

below a certain threshold temperature

(R1+R4)/[(R1+R2) [(R1+R2)*(R4)]/

*(R3+R4)]

(R2+R4)

(R1+R2)/R4

23 C

40 C

67 C

144 circuits

capacitor. If each resistor has a

resistance of 10 and the capacitor has a value of 10 F, what would be the

charge stored in the capacitor

when an EMF of 10 V is maintained in the circuit for a sufficient time to fully

charge the capacitor?

C

Given 4 identical resistors of resistance R, which of the following circuits

would have an equivalent resistance of 4/3 R?

A

145 circuits

The three lightbulbs in the circuit above are identical, and the battery has zero

internalresistance. When switch S is closed to causebulb 1 to light, which of

the other two bulbs increase(s) in brightness?

C

Neither bulb

Bulb 2 only

Bulb 3 only

146 circuits

capacitor has a capacitance of C?

4/3 C

147 circuits

Which of the following graphs would best represent the resistance versus

temperature relationship for a superconductor?

143 circuits

The potential difference across the 1

resistor is then x

volts. The current will divide between

the upper branch (5 ) and the lower

branch (9 ) with

(using the current divider ratio method)

9/(9 + 5) = 9/14 x in the upper branch

and 5/14 x in the

lower branch. The potential differences

are then IR giving for the 2, 3, 4, 5

resistors,

respectively 18/14 x, 27/14 x, 20/14 x

and 25/14 x volts.

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137.circuits.png

138.circuits.png

138.circuits.png

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143.circuits.png

144.statics.png

145.statics.png

146.statics.png

147.statics.png

148 circuits

What would be the total current being supplied by the battery in the circuit

shown above?

3.0 amperes

2.25 amperes

2.0 amperes

1.5 amperes

1.0 amperes

51V

42V

36V

24V

21V

150 circuits

In the electric circuit shown above, the current through the 2.0 resistor is

3.0 A. Approximately what is the emf of the battery?

Which of the following wiring diagrams could be used to experimentally

determine R using Ohm's Law? Assume an ideal voltmeter and an ideal

ammeter.

151 circuits

If B2 were to burn out, opening the circuit, which voltmeter(s) would read zero

volts?

B

zero

Only V2

152 circuits

If B2 were to burn out, opening the circuit, what would happen to the reading

of V1? Let V be its original reading when all bulbs are functioning and let V

(underline) be its reading when B2 has burnt out.

V > 2V

2V> V> V

153 circuits

Closing which of the switches will produce the greatest power dissipation in

R2?

S1 only

S2 Only

154 circuits

Closing which of the switches will produce the greatest reading on the

ammeter?

S1 only

S2 only

155 circuits

Closing which of the switches will produce the greatest voltage across R3?

S1 only

S2 only

156 circuits

Two cables can be used to wire a circuit. Cable A has a lower resistivity, a

larger diameter, and a different

length than cable B. Which cable should be used to minimize heat loss if the

same current is maintained in

either cable?

Cable A

Cable B

157 circuits

12 V

6V

158 circuits

9A

6A

159 circuits

1/11 F

11/18 F

Q3 < Q6 V3 = V6

Q3 = Q6 V3 < V6

149 circuits

160 circuits

161 circuits

162 circuits

How do the charge Q3 stored in the 3 F capacitor and the voltage V3 across

it compare with those of the 6 F capacitor?

C

A length of wire of resistance R is connected across a battery with zero

internal resistance. The wire is then cut

in half and the two halves are connected in parallel. When the combination is

reconnected across the battery,

what happens to the resultant power dissipated and the current drawn from

the battery?

E

A fixed voltage is applied across the length of a tungsten wire. An increase in

the power dissipated by the wire

would result if which of the following could be increased?

B

No change No

change

The resistivity of

the tungsten

Doubles Doubles

The crosssectional area of

the wire

parallel have an equivalent resistance

of 2 . Added to the 4 resistance in

the middle branch which is in series

with the pair gives 6 across the

middle. This is in parallel with the 3

resistor at the top giving an equivalent

resistance of 2 . Lastly add the 4

resistor in the main branch giving a

total circuit resistance of 6 . V = IR

148.statics.png

Using ratios, the currents in the 6and

3 resistors are 1 A and 2 A. They

have three times and 3/2 times the

resistance of the 2 resistor so they will

have 1/3 and 2/3 the current. The total

current is then 6 A giving a potential

drop of 36 V across the 6 resistor in

the main branch and adding any one of

the branches below with the loop rule

gives 36 V + 6 V = 42 V for the battery 149.statics.png

and ammeters must be placed in series

Even though B2 burns out, the circuit is

only V2, V4, and

The would all read still operating elsewhere as there are

only V3 and V4

V5

zero

still closed paths

With B2 burning out, the total

resistance of the circuit increases as it

is now a series circuit. This decreases

the current in the main branch,

decreasing V1. For V1 to be halved,

the current must be halved which

means the total resistance must be

doubled, which by inspection did not

happen in this case (total before = 5/3

V= V

V> V>V/2

V/2 > V

R, total after = 3 R)

S1 must be closed to have any current.

Closing S2 will allow current in R2 but

S1 and S2 only

S1 and S3 only

S1, S2, and S3

closing R3 would short circuit R2.

S1 must be closed to have any current.

Closing S3 will short circuit R3, leaving

only resistor R1, E

S3 only

S1 and S2

S1 and S3

which is the lowest possible resistance.

S1 must be closed to have any current.

The greatest voltage will occur with the

greatest current

through R3 but closing S2 or S3 will

S1 and S2 only

S1 and S3 only

S1, S2, and S3

draw current away from R3.

It cannot be

determined without

knowing the

It cannot be

materials

determined without contained in each

The heat loss is

knowing the length cable

the same for both. of each cable.

123.

R = L/A

0 V, since the fuse Starting at A and summing potential

would break the

differences counterclockwise to point C

3V

2V

circuit

gives 12 V

The branch with two 2 resistors has a

0 A, since the fuse total resistance of 4 and a potential

would break the

difference of 12 V.

3A

2A

circuit

V = IR

For the 6 F and 3 F capacitor in

series, the equivalent capacitance is 2

F. Adding the 2 F in

parallel gives a total capacitance of 4

1 F

4 F

11 F

F

In series the capacitors have the same

charge, but the smaller capacitor will

have the larger

potential difference (to force the same

Q3 = Q6 V3 > V6 Q3 > Q6 V3 = V6 Q3 > Q6 V3 > V6 charge on a smaller area)

Quadruples

Doubles

The length of the

wire

Doubles

Quadruples

cutting we have two wires of resistance

R which in

parallel is an equivalent resistance of

R. P = V2/R and I = V/R

Quadruples

Quadruples

The temperature of

The temperature of the wires

P = V2/R and R = L/A giving P =

the wire

surroundings

V2A/L

150.statics.png

151.statics.png

152.statics.png

153.statics.png

154.circuits.png

155.circuits.png

157.cicuits.png

158.circuits.png

159.circuits.png

163 circuits

resistance of 20 ohms by a

current of

A

Four infinitely long wires are arranged as shown in the accompanying figure

endon view. All four wires are perpendicular to the plane of the page and

have the same magnitude of current I. The conventional current in the wire in

the upper righthand corner is directed into the plane of the page. The other

conventional currents are out of the plan of the page. Point P is a distance a

1 magnetostatics from all four wires. What is the total magnetic field at point P?

C

The conventional current I in a long straight wire flows in the upward direction

as shown in the figure. (Electron flow is downward.) At the instant a proton of

charge +e is a distance R from the wire and heading directly toward it, the

2 magnetostatics force on the proton is:

E

A charged particle with constant speed enters a uniform magnetic field whose

direction is perpendicular to the

3 magnetostatics particles velocity. The particle will:

E

A long straight wire conductor is placed below a compass as shown in the top

view figure.

When a large conventional current flows in the conductor as shown, the N

pole of the

4 magnetostatics compass:

D

region with electric and magnetic fields

perpendicular to each other. The electric field has magnitude E. The

5 magnetostatics magnitude of the magnetic field B is

An electric current flows through a horizontal wire as shown.

Which option best represents the direction of the magnetic field

6 magnetostatics at point P

Two bar magnets are to be cut in half along the dotted lines shown. None

7 magnetostatics of the pieces are rotated. After the cut:

An ion with charge q, mass m, and speed V enters a magnetic field B and is

deflected into a path with a radius

of curvature R. If a second ion has speed 2V, while m, q, and B are

unchanged, what will be the radius of the

8 magnetostatics second ions path?

page. The wire experiences an induced charge separation

9 magnetostatics as shown. Which way is the wire moving?

A charged particle with constant velocity enters a uniform magnetic field

whose direction is parallel to the

10 magnetostatics particles velocity. The particle will

10 amp.

20 amp.

14.1 amp.

36 amp.

Each wire contributes a B field given by

oI / 2a in a direction found using

RHRcurl. The

direction of each B field is as follows,

(1)Top right wire: B up&left, (2)Top left

wire: B

up&right, (3)Bottom left wire: B up&left,

(4)Bottom right wire: B down&left.

Forces from

1 and 4 cancel leaving both 3 and 4 B

fields acting up and left and adding

0 together.

1.magnetostatics.png

The B field at the location of the charge

+e is created by the wire next to it and

given by

B = oI / 2R. Based on RHRcurl the

direction of that B field is into the page

at that

location. Then the force on that charge

is given by Fb=qvB, with q=e and B

ev(oI)/(2R)

from before

downward (in the so Fb = ev(oI / 2R). Using the

opposite direction RHRflat for the + charge, the force

as I)

comes out as down.

2.magnetostatics.png

18 amp.

the upper left hand the lower left hand toward the upper

corner

corner

left hand corner

2(o I / 2a)

toward the lower

left hand corner

(o/2)I^2 toward

the wire

(oI^2L)/(2R)

upward (in the

same direction as

I)

(oI^2L)/(2R)

downward (in the

opposite direction

as I)

ev(oI)/(2R)

upward (in the

same direction as

I)

Speed up

Slow down

Experience no

change in velocity

arc

arc

remains

undeflected

reversed

ME^2/K

ME/2K

2ME^2/K

ME^2/2K

ME^2/K^2

page

the page

will attract any

each magnet will

other

attract each other

each magnet will

repel each other

fields move in circles

The compass is ABOVE the wire. Using

RHRcurl on the wire, the B field points

towards the

right at the location above the wire.

Since compasses follow B field lines,

the compass will

also point right, which is east.

4.magnetostatics.png

To be undeflected, the electric and

magnetic forces must balance.

Fe = Fb Eq = qvB B = E / v With v

related to K by K = mv2

gives B = E / (2K/m) which is

equivalent to choice D

of the page

RHRcurl and you get into page

6.magnetostatics.png

When cutting a magnet, you must end

up with two new magnets having 2

poles each. For the top

magnet the current N and S must stay

as is, so the left of center part becomes

a S and the

right of center part becomes a N. There

are now two opposite poles that attract.

For the

bottom magnet, by slicing it down the

center you now have two magnets on

The two halves of The two halves of top of each

the top magnet will the top magnet will other. The poles would not change their

repel, the two

attract, the two

current locations so you have two north

halves of the

halves of the

and two

bottom magnet will bottom magnet will south poles near each other on top and

attract

repel

bottom which makes repulsion.

7.magnetistatics.png

4R

2R

R/2

to the right

to the left

the page

provided by the magnetic force. So that

Fnet(C) = mv2/r

R/4

qvB = mv2/r qBr = mv 2 x V --> 2 x r

Focus on a single + charge in the wire

that gets pushed to the right. So this +

charge is moving in

a magnetic field pointing into the page

with a force directed right, based on

toward the bottom RHRflat, the

of the page

charge must be moving down.

9.magnetostatics.png

speed up

slow down

experience no

change in velocity

follow a parabolic

arc

follow a circular

arc

T and Y

T and Z

X and Y

X and Z

S, T, and Z

The diagram to the right depicts iron filings sprinkled around three permanent

11 magnetostatics magnets. Pole R is the same pole as

D

fields, no forces are experienced.

Assume R is north. Based on the lines,

T would have to be north and so would

Y.

11.magnetostatics.

This makes X and Z south and S north. png

If conventional electric current flows from left to right in a wire as shown, what

12 magnetostatics is the direction of the magnetic field at point P?

C

of the paper

into the paper

to the right

Using RHRcurl, we get into the page

both wires will

the force on the

experience a

the wires will

the wires will

right hand wire will torque until they

experience a force experience a force cancel the force on are at right angles

Parallel current wires with same

of attraction

of repulsion

the left hand wire to each other

none of the above direction current attract.

Focus on a single + charge in the wire

that gets pushed to the right. So this +

charge is moving

down with a force directed right, based

on RHRflat, the magnetic field must

towards the bottom

towards the top of point into the

into the page

of the page

towards the right

out of the page

the page

page.

By definition, E fields exert forces on +

charges in the same direction as the E

field. So the force

from the E field must be UP. To

maintain a constant velocity, this

upwards force must be

counterbalanced by a downwards force,

which in this case it is to be provided by

the

magnetic field. With a + charge moving

right, and a magnetic force down,

into the plane of

out of the plane of

up the plane of the RHRflat gives a

the page

the page

to the right

to the left

page

magnetic field pointing out of the page.

A coil of wire (solenoid) like this

becomes an electromagnet when the

current runs through it.

Use the RHRsolenoid to determine

that the right side of this electromagnet

becomes the

north side. Now pretend that the

electromagnet is simply a regular

magnet with a N pole on

the right and a S pole on the left and

draw the field lines. In doing so, the

lines end up

not move since the not move since the pointing to the left at the location of the

point toward the

magnetic field of

magnetic field of

compass. Since compasses follow

point toward the

point toward the

bottom of the

the coil is into the the coil is out of

magnetic field

left

right

paper

paper

the paper

lines, the compass will also point left.

Due to action reaction the forces must

be the same. Another way to look at it

is that wire A

creates the field that wire B is sitting in

based on its current I, Ba

= oI

a

/ 2R. The force on

wire B is dependent on the field from A,

and also the current in wire B itself and

is given by

Fb

=Ba

I

b

L Fb

= (oI

a

/ 2R) Ib

L. So since both currents from A and B

affect each

FB on A = 4 FA on FB on A = FA on FB on A = 2 FA on FB on A = FA on

respective force, they should share the

B

B

B

B

FB on A = FA on B same force.

Think about this as if you are looking

down at a table top with the + particle

on it. An E field is

pointed down into the table so an

electric force acts down into the table

also. The electric

force pushing down will not move the

charge. A magnetic field comes up out

It cannot be

The relative sizes of the table,

determined without of the electric and but since the charge is at rest, the

knowing the exact magnetic fields are magnetic field exerts zero force on it.

value of the charge needed to answer So Fe

FE > FB

FE<FB

FE<FB

of the particle

this question

> Fb

pole

Two light wires are hung vertically. With electrical current in both wires

13 magnetostatics directed upwards

experiences an induced charge separation as shown. What is the

14 magnetostatics direction of the magnetic field?

region of space in which there is an electric field directed up the

plane of the paper as shown. In which direction does the

magnetic field have to point in this region so that the particle

15 magnetostatics maintains a constant velocity?

current is then run through the coil from left to right as shown. This

16 magnetostatics will cause the North pole of the compass to:

Two parallel wires are carrying different electric current in the same direction

as shown. How does the

17 magnetostatics magnitude of the force of A from B compare to the force of B from A

electric field E is directed into the

plane of the table. A nonzero magnetic field B is directed out of the plane of

the table. What is true about the

magnitude of the electric force on the particle FE compared to the magnetic

18 magnetostatics force on the particle FB?

A positive electric charge of negligible weight is released from rest between

the

poles of a horseshoe magnet as shown. What would be the direction of the

19 magnetostatics acceleration of the charge caused by the magnetic field?

the paper

pole

upwards

downwards

moving will not experience a magnetic

none of the above force

12.magnetostatics.

png

14.magnetostatics.

png

15.magnetostatics.

png

16.magnetostatics.

png

17.magnetostatics.

png

19.magnetostatics.

png

Two very long currentcarrying wires are shown end on in the figure. The

wire on the left has a 4A current

going into the plane of the paper and the wire on the right has a 3A current

coming out of the paper.

Disregarding the case of x --> , in which region(s) could the magnetic field

from these two wires add to zero

20 magnetostatics on the xaxis.

21 magnetostatics The magnetic field line passing through point P inside the solenoid is directed D

The diagram below shows a straight wire carrying a

current i in a uniform magnetic field. An arrow

indicates the magnetic force F on the wire. Of the

following possibilities, the direction of the magnetic

22 magnetostatics field must be

A

current coming out of the plane of the page), the wire on the right is

labeled P. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the wire labeled

23 magnetostatics P from the other wires?

A wire has a conventional current I directed to the right. At the instant shown

in the figure, an

electron has a velocity directed to the left. The magnetic force on the electron

24 magnetostatics at this instant is

E

Region I only

Region II only

to the right

to the left

downward toward

the bottom of the

page

current makes a bigger B field and the

further from the

wire the less the B field. Using

RHRcurl, the 4A wire has decreasing

magnitude B fields

pointing down in regions II and III on

the axis and upwards on region I. The

3A wire has B

fields pointing upwards in region III and

downwards in regions II and I. To

cancel, fields

would have to oppose each other.

Region I is a possibility but since the

distance from the 4A

wire is smaller at every point and it also

has a larger current it will always have

a larger B

field so there is no way to cancel.

Region II has fields in the same

direction and cannot

cancel. Region III has opposing fields.

Since the 4A wire has a larger current

but also a

larger distance away from any point in

Region III and the 3A wire has a

smaller current but a

closer distance to any point in Region

III it is possible that these two factors

compensate to

Regions I and III

make equal B fields that oppose and

only

none

could cancel out.

Using RHRsolenoid the top of the loop

is N and the bottom is S. Drawing a

field line out of the

top and looping outside down to the

bottom, you have to continue up

through the solenoid to

complete the field line so the direction

is UP. (Note: this may seem

counterintuitive because

the field line points from the south to

the north which is opposite of what you

might think but

in no direction

this is INSIDE the solenoid (magnet).

upward toward the since the magnetic Only outside, do lines come out of N

top of the page

field is zero

and into S.)

to the right

page

the page

To the left

zero.

Use RHRflat

We first need to determine the direction

of the B field at P due to the other wires

using RHRcurl.

The top wire creates a B field pointing

up&right, the bottom wire creates a B

field pointing

up&left. The left and right parts of these

cancel out making a field only up from

these two

wires. The wire on the left also

produces a field only up so the net B

field points up at

Up the plane of the Down the plane of

location P. Now using RHRflat for the

To the right

page

the page

There is no force. right wire, the force is left.

First determine the B field direction

created by the current wire at the

location above the wire

using RHRcurl. This gives B out of

directed toward the page. Then use LHRflat for the

directed out of the directed into the

directed toward the bottom of the

negative charge to get

plane of the page. plane of the page. top of the page.

page.

force acting down.

20.magnetostatics.

png

21.magnetostatics.

PNG

22.magnetostatics.

PNG

23.magnetostatics.

PNG

24.magnetostatics.

PNG

regions of space along the dotted-line trajectory shown in

the figure. There is a uniform electric field in Region I

directed into the plane of the page (as shown). There is no

electric field in Region II. What is a necessary direction of

the magnetic field in regions I and II? Ignore gravitational

25 magnetostatics forces.

A proton moves straight up the plane of this page into a region that has a

magnetic field directed

to the right. If the particle is undeflected as it passes through this region, in

what direction must

26 magnetostatics there be a component of electric field? Ignore gravity.

To the left

To the right

For the figure shown, the variable resistance in the circuit is increased at a

constant rate. What is the direction of the magnetic field at the point P at the

27 magnetostatics center of the circuit

negative electron with a force opposite

the direction of

the E field (out of the page). For the

charge to not be pushed out, the

magnetic field must

create a force into the page to resist

this. Based on LHRflat the B field must

point up. Then

in region II based on how the charge

gets pushed, its magnetic force is up

initially. Using

LHRflat again in region II gives B field

direction out of the page.

Based on RHRflat the magnetic force

is directed into the page. To be

undeflected, the E field

must create a force out of the page to

resist this, and since its a + charge the

E field points

out.

This is a loop. Current flows clockwise

around the loop. Using the RHR

solenoid for the single

loop the B field in the center is pointing

into the page.

Charges moving without energy loss

have to maintain a constant radius

circle. For the circle to

decrease in radius, energy would be

radiated out from it. Since its an

electron we use

LHRflat to get a force pointing down

making it follow path D.

page

page

right

zero

Use RHRflat

to the left

to the right

Use RHRcurl

Using RHRcurl we find the direction of

the magnetic field from each wire. To

the right of the

leftmost wire, its field points down along

the axis with a decreasing magnitude

as you move

away from it. For the rightmost wire its

field also points down when you move

left of it.

Since both fields point down between

the wires, they will add and cannot

cancel. On the far

right side of the arrangement, the

leftmost wire makes a field down and

the rightmost wire

makes a field up but since the

distances to any location are different

from each wire the

magnitude of the fields would be

different so no way to cancel. The same

would happen on

31.magnetostatics.

the far left of the wires.

PNG

without any loss of energy through a uniform magnetic field directed

28 magnetostatics into the page?

A wire in the plane of the page carries a current directed toward the

top of the page as shown. If the wire is located in a uniform

magnetic field B directed out of the page, the force on the wire

29 magnetostatics resulting from the magnetic field is

The direction of the magnetic field at point R caused by the current I in

30 magnetostatics the wire shown is

Two long, parallel wires are separated by a distance d, as shown. One wire

carries a steady current I into the

plane of the page while the other wire

carries a steady current I out of the page.

At what points in the plane of the page and

outside the wires, besides points at infinity,

is the magnetic field due to the currents

zero?

31 magnetostatics (A) Only

An electron is in a uniform magnetic field B that is directed out of the

plane of the page, as shown. When the electron is moving in the plane of

the page in the direction indicated by the arrow, the force on the electron is

32 magnetostatics directed

(A) Only at point P the line SS'

two wires

A) Changing the

magnitude of the

magnetic field

B) Increasing the

diameter of the

circle by

strenching the

spring

C) Rotating the

spring about a

diameter

Of the following, which is the best estimate of the work done by the magnetic

34 magnetostatics field on the protons during one complete orbit of the circle?

A

0J

10^-22 J

10^-5 J

Of the following, which is the best estimate of the speed of a proton in the

35 magnetostatics beam as it moves in the circle?

10^-2 m/s

10^3 m/s

10^6 m/s

circle. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field, as

shown. Which of the following will not cause a current

33 magnetostatics to be induced in the spring?

a circle of radius

2d centered on

point P

(E) At no points

of the page

bottom of the page Use LHRflat

To induce a current, the flux through

the spring loop must change. When

moving the spring

parallel to the magnetic field, the same

B field and the same area is enclosed

D) Moving the

E) Moving the

in the loop so

spring parallel to

spring in and out of the flux stays constant and there is no

the magnetic field the magnetic field induced current.

When moving in a circle at constant

velocity, no work is done as explained

10^2 J

10^20 J

in previous answers.

Choose 1 proton moving in the circle.

For this proton. Fnet(C) = mv2/r Fb =

mv2/r

qvB = mv2/r v = qBr/m = 1.6x1019

(0.1)(0.1) / (1.67x1027) ~ 1021 / 10

10^8 m/s

10^15 m/s

27

25.magnetostatics.

png

27.magnetostatics.

png

28.magnetostatics.

PNG

29.magnetostatics.

PNG

30.magnetostatics.

PNG

32.magnetostatics.

PNG

33.magnetostatics.

PNG

Two parallel wires, each carrying a current I, repel each other with a force F.

36 magnetostatics If both currents are doubled, the force of repulsion is

rest in a uniform electric field E, as shown. Assume that the

particles are sufficiently far apart so that the only force acting

on each particle after it is released is that due to the electric

field. At a later time when the particles are still in the field,

37 magnetostatics the electron and the proton will have the same

As shown, a positively charged particle

moves to the right without deflection

through a pair of charged plates. Between

the plates are a uniform electric field E of

magnitude 6.0 N/C and a uniform

magnetic field B of magnitude 2.0 T,

directed as shown in the figure. The speed

38 magnetostatics of the particle is most nearly

Two long, parallel wires, fixed in space, carry currents I1 and I2

. The force of attraction has magnitude F. What

39 magnetostatics currents will give an attractive force of magnitude 4F?

2F

0.33 m/s

0.66 m/s

I2 & 2I

I1 and I2

1 induction

2 induction

For the solenoids shown in the diagram (which are assumed to be close to

each other), the resistance of the left-hand circuit is slowly increased. In

which direction does the ammeter needle (indicating the direction of

conventional current) in the right-hand circuit deflect in response to this

change?

3 induction

A strong bar magnet is held very close to the opening of a solenoid as shown

in the diagram. As the magnet is moved away from the solenoid at constant

speed, what is the direction of conventional current through the resistor

shown and what is the direction of the force on the magnet because of the

induced current?

A

A magnet is dropped through a vertical copper pipe slightly larger than the

magnet. Relative to the speed it would fall in air, the magnet in the pipe falls.

more slowly

because it is

attracted by the

innate magnetic

field of the pipe

4 induction

22 F

Farads

The needle

deflects to the left

4F

Displacement

3.0 m/s

on either wire is Fb = (oIa / 2R) Ib

A

L. So doubling both

42 F

8F

Is in the equation gives 4x the force.

Not a magnetism question, but lets

review. Since the charge magnitude is

the same, they will

experience the same forces based on

Fe=Eq, but move in opposite directions.

Since the

masses are different, the same forces

will affect each object differently so that

the smaller

mass electron accelerates more, thus

gains more speed and covers more

distance in equal

magnitude of force time periods. So only the force is the

37.magnetostatics.

Magnitude of Accel acting on them

same.

PNG

12 m/s

18 m/s

magnetic forces must balance.

Fe = Fb Eq = qvB v = E / B = 6 / 2

38.magnetostatics.

PNG

2R) Ib

Since the particle is moving parallel to

the field it does not cut across lines and

Joules

Volts

m/s

Webers

has no force.

We first need to determine the direction

of the B field at P due to the other wires

using RHRcurl. The top wire creates a

B field pointing up&right, the bottom

wire creates a B field pointing up&left.

The left and right parts of these cancel

out making a field only up from these

two wires. The wire on the left also

The needle rotates

produces a field only up so the net B

The needle

in

field points up at location P. Now using

The needle

oscillates back and counterclockwise The needle never RHRflat for the right wire, the force is

deflects to the right forth

circles

moves

left.

2.induction.png

A complex problem. On the left

diagram, the battery shows how +

current flows. Based on this it flows left

through the resistor and then down on

the front side wires of the solenoid.

Using the RHRsolenoid, the right side

of the solenoid is the North pole. So

field lines from the left solenoid are

pointing to the right plunging into the

solenoid core of the right side circuit. As

the resistance in the left side increases,

less current flows, which makes the

magnetic field lines created decrease in

value. Based on Lenz law, the right side

solenoid wants to preserve the field

lines so current flows to generate field

lines to the right in order to maintain the

flux. Using the RHRsolenoid for the

right hand solenoid, current has to flow

down on the front side wires to create

the required B field. Based on this,

current would then flow down the

resistor and to the left through the

B

C

D

E

ammeter.

3.induction.png

Similar to the problem above. The field

lines from the bar magnet are directed

to the left through the solenoid. As the

magnet is moved away, the magnitude

of the field lines directed left in the

solenoid decrease so by Lenz law the

solenoid makes additional leftward field

to maintain the flux. Based on RHR

more slowly

more quickly

solenoid, the current would flow up the

because the

more quickly

because the

front side wires of the solenoid and then

currents induced in

because it is

currents induced in to the right across the resistor. This

the pipe produce

attracted by the

the pipe produce

also means that the left side of the

an opposing

innate magnetic

an opposing

solenoid is a N pole so it attracts the S

magnetic field

at the same rate

field of the pipe

magnetic field

pole of the nearby magnet.

I1 and I2

6 induction

A 0.20 m long copper rod has constant velocity 0.30 m/s traveling through a

uniform magnetic field of 0.060 T. The rod, velocity, and magnetic field are all

mutually perpendicular. What is the potential difference induced across the

rods length?

B

When a wire moving through a magnetic field has a voltage induced between

the wires ends, that voltage is

I. directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field

II. directly proportional to the velocity of the wire

III. directly proportional to the diameter of the wire

A

7 induction

magnetic field could be a restatement of

D

5 induction

8 induction

9 induction

of the loop as shown. The loop is 0.50 meters on a side and the magnetic

field B has a strength of 2 T. If the loop is rotated through an angle of 90 in

0.1 second what would be the average induced EMF in the loop?

D

The figure shows a bar moving to the right on two conducting rails. To make

an induced current i in the direction indicated, in what direction would the

magnetic field be in the area contained within the conducting rails?

C

0.0036 V

0.040 V

0.090 V

1.0 V

25 V

pipe, which is a looped conductor, the

magnetic field lines plunging into that

conductor increase in magnitude.

Based on Lenzs law, current flows in

the conductor to oppose the gain in

field and maintain the flux. The copper

loop will create a B field upwards to

maintain flux and this upwards B field

will be opposite from the magnets B

field which will make it slow.

I only

II only

III only

Amperes law

Ohms Law

Teslas Law

I and II only

The Law of

Conservation of

Energy

0.025 C

0.40 V

10 induction

external magnetic field directed out of the page as shown. The effect of the

forces that act on this current is to make the loop

expand in size

contract in size

11 induction

The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire of width l and resistance R. One

end of the loop is in a uniform magnetic field of strength B at right angles to

the plane of the loop. The loop is pulled to the right at a constant speed v.

What are the magnitude and direction of the induced current in the loop?

1x10^-4 V

2.5x10^-3 V

rotating the

secondary coil

about the z-axis

rotating the

secondary coil

about a diameter

13 induction

In each of the following situations, a bar magnet is aligned along the axis of a

conducting loop. The magnet and

the loop move with the indicated velocities. In which situation will the bar

magnet NOT induce a current in the

conducting loop?

C

A square loop of copper wire is initially placed perpendicular to the lines of a

constant magnetic field of

5 x 10-3 tesla. The area enclosed by the loop is 0.2 square meter. The loop is

then turned through an angle of

90 so that the plane of the loop is parallel to the field lines. The turn takes

0.1 second. The average emf

induced in the loop during the turn is

E

14 induction

There is a current in the primary coil. All of the following procedures

will induce a current in the secondary coil EXCEPT

12 induction

none of these

Based on =BLv

This is a fact. It is best thought about

through example and thinking about

how nonconservative forces are at

play. Lenz law says opposing fields are

induced for moving magnets, this slows

them if the opposite was true you

would get accelerated systems where

5V

10 V

80 V

energy would not be conserved

Use = / t

= ( BAf BAi ) / t

to the right

to the left

It is impossible

= (0(2)(0.5x0.5))/0.1

The rail makes a loop of wire as shown

by the current flow. Using Lenz law, as

the loop expands with the motion of the

bar, it is gaining flux lines in whatever

direction the B field is and the loop

current flows in a direction to oppose

that gain. Using RHRsolenoid for the

single loop, the B field induced is

rotate about an

rotate about an

directed out of the page so it must be

axis perpendicular axis in the plane of accelerate into the opposing the gain of B field that is

to the page

the page

page

already there going into the page.

Take a small section of wire on the loop

at the top, bottom, right and left hand

sides and find the forces on them. For

example, the section of wire on the top

has current pointing left and B pointing

out using RHRflat for that piece

gives a force pointing up. At all of the

positions, the force acts in a manner to

C

D

E

pull the loop outwards and expand it.

The induced emf occurs in the left side

vertical wire as that is where the charge

separation

happens. Looking at that wire, the

induced emf is given by =BLv. This

emf then causes a

current I to flow in the loop based on

V=IR, so I is given as BLv / R. The

direction of that

current is found with Lenz law as there

is a loss of flux into the page, RHR

solenoid shows

current must flow CW to add back flux

C

D

E

into the page and maintain it.

As long as the flux inside the loop is

changing, there will be an induced

current. Since choice E

has both objects moving in the same

direction, the flux through the loop

remains constant so

0.01 V

100 V

400 V

no need to induce a current.

moving the

decreasing the

secondary coil

cross-sectional

closer to the

varying the current area of the

Same as question 35, different

primary coil

in the primary coil secondary coil

numbers

8.induction.png

9.induction.png

10.induction.png

11.induction.png

12.induction.png

14.induction.png

15 induction

16 induction

17 induction

A magnetic field B that is decreasing with time is directed out of the page

and passes through a loop of wire in the plane of the page, as shown. Which

of the following is true of the induced current in the wire loop?

A wire of constant length is moving in a constant magnetic field, as shown.

The wire and the velocity vector are perpendicular to each other and are

both perpendicular to the field. Which of the following graphs best

represents the potential difference E between the ends of the wire as a

function of velocity?

A square loop of wire of resistance R and side a is oriented with its plane

perpendicular to a magnetic field B, as shown. What must be the rate of

change of

the magnetic field in order to produce a current I in the loop?

21 induction

magnitude 2 T that is directed out of the page. The loop measures

5 cm by 8 cm, and the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field, as

shown. The total magnetic flux through the loop is

A single circular loop of wire in the plane of the page is perpendicular to

a uniform magnetic field B directed out of the page, as shown. If the

magnitude of the magnetic field is decreasing, then the induced current in

A uniform magnetic field B that is perpendicular to the plane of the page

now passes through the loops, as shown. The field is confined to a region

of radius a, where a < b, and is changing at a constant rate. The induced

emf in the wire loop of radius b is . What is the induced emf in the

wire loop of radius 2b ?

Two conducting wire loops move near a very

long, straight conducting wire that carries a

current I. When the loops are in the positions

shown, they are moving in the direction shown

with the same constant speed v. Assume that

the loops are far enough apart that they do not

affect each other. Which of the following is

true about the induced electric currents, if any,

in the loops

22 induction

to the field, as shown. How many times is the induced current in the loop

reversed if the loop makes 3 complete revolutions from the position shown?

18 induction

19 induction

20 induction

flows CCW around it so based on

RHRsolenoid the

magnetic field lines from that coil are

pointing to the left and they extend into

the secondary

coil. To induce a current in the

secondary coil, the flux through the

secondary coil needs to

be changed so an induced current will

flow based on Lenz law. Choice A

means spinning

the coil in place like a hulahoop or a

spinning top and this will not cause a

change in flux.

15.induction.png

Based on Lenz law, as the flux pointing

up decreases, current flows in the loop

to add back that

lost flux and maintain it. Based on

RHRsolenoid, current would have to

flow CCW

16.induction.png

It is

counterclockwise

in direction.

It is clockwise in

direction.

It is directed into

the page.

the page.

magnitude.

IR/a2

Ia2

/R

Ia/R

Ra/I

IRa

zero

2 x 10-3 T-m2

8 x 10-3 T-m2

2 x 10-1 T-m

8 x 10-1 T-m

paper

paper

clockwise around

the loop

counterclockwise

around the loop

Zero

induced)

= BA = (2)(0.05)(0.08)

19.induction.png

From Lenz law, as the flux decreases

the loop induces current to add back

that declining field.

Based on RHRsolenoid, current flows

4

CCW to add field coming out of page.

20.induction.png

/2

One

Two

Three

Six

Twelve

We are looking to find rate of change of

magnetic field B/t so we need to

arrange equations to

find that quantity. Using induced emf for

a loop we have. = / t = BA/t, and

substituting V=IR, and area = a2 we

have IR = B (a2) / t isolate B/t

to get answer

18.induction.png

value of BA and it is changing the same

for both of them, the

quantity BA/t is the same for both so

both have the same induced emf.

21.induction.png

Above the wire is a B field which is

directed into the page based on

RHRcurl. That B field has a decreasing

magnitude as you move away from the

wire. Loop 1 is pulled up and therefore

is

loosing flux lines into the page. By Lenz

Law current flows to maintain those

lines into the

page and by RHRsolenoid current

would have to flow CW to add lines into

the page and

maintain the flux. Loop 2 is moving in a

direction so that the magnitude of flux

lines is not changing and therefore

there is no induced current

22.induction.png

23 induction

If the bar is pushed northward on the rails, the electromotive force induced in

the bar as a result of the magnetic field will

D

Be directed

upwards

Be zero

Produce a

westward current

24 induction

A battery is connected between the rails and causes the electrons in the bar

to drift to the east. The resulting magnetic force on the bar is directed

North

South

East

25 induction

A battery is connected between the rails and causes the electrons in the bar

to drift to the east. The resulting magnetic force on the bar is directedvelocity

v to the right through a region of space

where there is a uniform magnetic field B

directed into the page, as shown. The induced

current is as follows

Directed CW both

entering and

leaving

REGION II

Directed CCW

both entering and

leaving

REGION II

Directed CW

entering REGION

II and

CCW leaving

REGION II

26 induction

A square loop of wire of side 0.5 meter and resistance 10-2 ohm is located in

a uniform magnetic field of intensity 0.4 tesla directed out of the page as

shown. The magnitude of the field is decreased to zero at a constant rate in 2

seconds. As the field is decreased, what are the magnitude and direction of

the current in the loop?

B

Zero

5 A,

counterclockwise

5 A, clockwise

27 induction

from point X to

point Y

from point Y to

point X

28 induction

After the switch S has been closed for a very long time, the currents in the

two circuits are

zero in both

circuits

zero in circuit 1

V/R1 in circuit 1

and V/R2 in circuit and zero in circuit

2

2

circular object like a small plate and

rotating it towards you keeping track of

the current flow. Grab the top of the

plate and pull it towards you out of the

page and move down at the same time

to rotate it. This will increase the flux

lines into the

loop as you rotate and cause a current

to flow to fight the increase until it

becomes flat and

you have moved 90 degrees in

relations to the rotation you are making.

Then as you pass this point and begin

pushing the part of the loop you are

holding down and into the page away

from you, you start to lose field lines

and current will flow the other way to try

and maintain the flux lines until your

hand has moved what was once the top

of the loop all the way to the bottom. At

this point you are 180 degrees through

the rotation and have changed direction

once. As you pass through 180, you will

notice that the current flows the same

way to maintain the zero flux you get at

the 180 location (even though you

might think there should be a change

here, this is where the physical object

helps). Then as you move up the back

and do the same thing on the reverse

side to return the part of the loop you

are holding to the top you will undergo

another direction change at 270

degrees so you have 2 direction

changes total in one revolution. Do it

Produce an

Stop the motion of two more times and you get 6

eastward current

the bar

reversals.

Since the bar is not cutting across field

lines and has no component in a

perpendicular direction to the field line

West

Vertically

there will be no induced emf.

As you enter region II, flux into the page

is gained. To counteract that, current

flows to create a field out of the page to

maintain flux. Based on RHRsolenoid,

Directed CCW

that current is CCW. When

entering REGION

leaving the region, the flux into the

II and

page is decreasing so current flows to

CW leaving

add to that field

REGION II

zero at all times

which gives CW.

Firstuse=/t =(BAfBAi)/t =(0(0.4)

(0.5x0.5))/2 =0.05V Then use V=IR

0.05V = I(.01) I = 5A

Direction is found with Lenz law. As the

field out decreases, the current flows to

add

20 A,

outward field to maintain flux. Based on

counterclockwise 20 A, clockwise

RHRsolenoid, current flows CCW.

Loop 2 initially has zero flux. When the

circuit is turned on, current flows

through loop 1 in a CW direction, and

using RHRsolenoid it generates a B

field down towards loop 2. As the

field lines begin to enter loop 2, loop 2

has current begin to flow based on lenz

law to try and maintain the initial zero

flux so it makes a field upwards. Based

on RHRsolenoid for

Oscillating

Impossible to

loop 2, current would have to flow CCW

between point X

determine its

around that loop which makes it go

and Y

direction

from X to Y.

After a long time, the flux in loop 2

becomes constant and no emf is

induced so no current flows. In circuit 1,

V/R1 in circuit I

oscillating with

the loop simply acts as a wire and the

and V/R2 in circuit constant amplitude current is set by the resistance and

2

in both circuits

V=IR

23.induction.png

25.induction.png

26.induction.png

27.induction.png

27.induction.png

29 induction

30 induction

31 induction

32 induction

1 Quantum

always clockwise

with increasing

magnitude

always clockwise

with decreasing

magnitude

always

counterclockwise

with increasing

magnitude

always

counterclockwise

with decreasing

magnitude

first

counterclockwise,

then clockwise

Bottom End: Neg

Bottom End: Pos

Bottom End: Zero

Bottom End: Neg

Bottom End: Zero

0.2 V

0.6 V

1.2 V

1.5 V

2.8 V

frequency of light

is decreased

frequency of light

is increased

intensity of light is

decreased

intensity of light is

increased

velocity of light is

increased

gamma

infrared

radio

visible

x-rays

(1/9)

(1/3)

increase in the down direction. Based

on Lenz law, current in the loop would

flow to create a field upwards to cancel

the increasing downwards field.

Using RHRsolenoid, the current would

flow CCW. Then, when the magnet is

pulled

upwards, you have downward flux lines

that are decreasing in magnitude so

current flows to

add more downward field to maintain

flux. Using RHRsolenoid you now get

CW.

29.induction.png

Since the wire is not cutting across the

field lines, there is no force and no

charge separation

30.induction.png

As the loop is pulled to the right, it loses

flux lines right so current is generated

by Lenz law to add more flux lines right.

This newly created field to the right

from the loop is in the same

direction as the magnetic field so

makes an attractive force pulling the

magnet right also.

31.induction.png

Use a 1 second time period, the field

would decrease to 2.5 T in that time.

Then apply = / t

= ( BAf BAi ) / t = A (Bf Bi)

= (0.4)(3 2.5) / 1

Standard photoelectric effect question.

If the frequency does not cause

emission, it is below the

threshold and will not be able to cause

emission. The only way to cause

emission is the increase

the frequency above the threshold.

E=hf. Energy is directly related to

frequency. The higher frequency means

more energy.

de Broglie wavelength is given by, p = h

/ mv = h / = h / mv 3x m =

1/3

6.0 eV

From K = hf y = mx + b the

work function is the y intercept, extend

the line.

In the figure, the north pole of the magnet is first moved down toward the loop

of wire, then withdrawn upward. As viewed from above, the induced current in

the loop is

E

A vertical length of copper wire moves to the right with a steady velocity v in

the direction of a constant horizontal magnetic field B as shown. Which of the

following describes the induced charges on the ends of the wire?

E

A conducting loop of wire that is initially around a magnet is pulled away from

the magnet to the right, as indicated in the figure, inducing a current in the

loop. What is the direction of the force on the magnet and the direction of the

magnetic field at the center of the loop due to the induced current?

A

A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page, as shown above.

A loop of wire of area 0.40 m^2 is in the plane of the page. At a certain

instant the field has a magnitude of 3.0 T and is decreasing at the rate

of 0.50 T/s. The magnitude of the induced emf in the wire loop at this

instant is most nearly

A

are emitted. Electrons may be

emitted if the

5 Quantum

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the least energy

per photon

An atomic particle of mass m moving at speed v is found to have wavelength

. What is the wavelength of a

second particle with a speed 3v and the same mass

A student performs the photoelectric effect experiment and obtains the data

depicted in the accompanying graph

of Ekm (max kinetic energy) of photoelectrons vs the frequency of the

photons. What is the approximate work

function of this material?

According to the Bohr theory of the hydrogen atom, electrons starting in the

4th energy level and eventually

ending up in the ground state, could produce a total of how many lines in the

hydrogen spectra?

6 Quantum

alpha particles would pass through the

foil undeflected. Which of the following nuclear properties can be inferred

from this observation.

7 Quantum

Which of the following is best explained only by the wave theory of light

2 Quantum

3 Quantum

4 Quantum

1.5 eV

2.0 eV

have a positive

charge

blackbody

radiation

2.7 eV

The nucleus

Most of the mass contains both

of an atom is in the protons and

nucleus

neutrons

the photoelectric

the Compton effect effect

4.0 eV

31 or 41 this is a total of 6

5

4

3 different transitions.

While Rutherfords experiment did show

most of these, looking at the single fact

The diameter of

provided (that

the nucleus is

most particles pass straight through)

small compared to

only meant that most of the atom was

the diameter of the

empty space and that

atom

none of the above. the nucleus must be small.

pairproduction

diffraction

4.quantum.png

8 Quantum

when light of frequency f shines on

the electron-emitting metal surface. If the metal surface on which the light

shines is replaced with a new

material that has half the work function, what is the new stopping potential,

Vnew for light of frequency shining

on it?

E

9 Quantum

The diagram to the right shows the lowest four energy levels for an electron in

a hypothetical atom. The electron is excited to the 1 eV level of the atom

and

transitions to the lowest energy state by emitting only two photons. Which of

the following energies could not belong to either of the photons?

B

10 Quantum

11 Quantum

to be ejected from the metallic

surface with a maximum kinetic energy of E. What would happen to the

maximum energy of the ejected

electrons if the frequency of the light were doubled?

E

If the electrons in an electron microscope are traveling with a velocity of 1.6

x107 m/s, what would be the

effective wavelength of the electrons?

C

14 Quantum

A very slow proton has its kinetic energy doubled. What happens to the

protons corresponding deBroglie

wavelength

The diagram shows light being emitted due to

a transition from the n=3 to the n=2 level of a

hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. If the

transition were from the n=3 to the n=1 level

instead, the light emitted would have

Which color of light emitted from an atom would be associated with the

greatest change in energy of the atom?

15 Quantum

Which graph best shows the maximum kinetic energy K of the photoelectrons

as a function of the frequency of

incident light?

A

12 Quantum

13 Quantum

E

D

K=Vstopq ... combined with K = hf ,

we see the stopping

potential is related to the incoming light

energy minus the work function.

However, none of the

choices give a proper result. The

answer depends on what that actual

incoming energy hf and

work function are. Here is an example.

Lets say hf was 3eV and the was 2

eV initially. From

Vq=hf the stopping potential for

an electron (1e) would be equal to 1eV.

Now if we were

to half the work function, the new

stopping potential would be 3eV 1eV

= 2 eV so it appears

that the stopping potential doubled. But

that result only works for those sample

numbers. Lets

assume instead that hf = 10eV and =

2eV. Now initially the Vstop = 8eV.

Then we again half

the work function 10eV 1 eV and

we get a stopping potential of 9V .. not

nearly doubled

this time. The results depend on the

actual numbers used because of the

It is indeterminate minus sign in the

Vstop < Vnew <

with the given

equation and not a simple multiplier

Vnew > 2Vstop

Vnew = 2 Vstop

2Vstop

Vnew = Vstop

information

effect.

To transition to the 12eV state with

only two photon emissions, the only

options are for the

electron to make the following

transitions: 1eV 3eV 12eV

giving us photons of energy

2eV and 9eV or 1eV 7 eV

12eV giving photons of energy 6eV and

5eV . This means

that the 4 eV photon is not possible with

2 eV

4 eV

5 eV

6 eV

9 eV

only two transitions.

9.quantum.png

K = hf now double hf Knew =

2hf

(now sub in the first equation

rearranged for hf, into the second

equation)

Knew = 2(K+ ) = 2K + 2

the maximum

the maximum

the maximum

the maximum

the maximum

Knew = 2K +

energy of the

energy of the

energy of the

energy of the

energy of the

So the new energy is increased by

electrons would be electrons would be electrons would be electrons would be electrons would be double the old energy + the work

less than E

E

(2) E

2E

greater than 2E

function value

p = h / mv = h / = h / mv =

(6.63x104) / (9.11x101)(1.6x107) =

1.2x108 m

6.6x109 m

4.5x1011 m

2.6x1011 m

8.6x1017 m

4.5x101 m

From above = h / mv Since K =

mv2 , 2x K means 2x v. So when we

plug in the new

the wavelength is

the wavelength is

velocity of 2v, the wavelength

decreased by a

the wavelength is there is no change increased by a

the wavelength is decreases by this factor since we

factor of 2

halved

in the wavelength factor of 2

doubled.

divide.

3 to 1 would be a higher energy

emission. More energy means more

frequency, and less but

these are not choices. From p = h / ,

lower frequency

less energy

longer wavelength greater speed

greater momentum less means more momentum.

13.quantum.PNG

From E = hf, more frequency = more

Blue

Green

Red

Violet

Yellow

energy.

Below a threshold frequency, there

would be no emissions and thus zero K

for everything below

that point. Above that threshold, more

frequency means more K based on K =

hf , with h as

the constant slope. Graph A has all

A

B

C

D

E

these properties.

15.quantum.PNG

16 Quantum

a function of the intensity of

incident light?

E

17 Quantum

Electrons that have been accelerated from rest through a potential difference

of 150 volts have a de Broglie

wavelength of approximately 1 Angstrom (10l0 meter). In order to obtain

electrons whose de Broglie

wavelength is 0.5 Angstrom (5 x 10lI meter), what accelerating potential is

required?

D

37.5 V

75 V

300 V

18 Quantum

According to the Bohr model of the atom, electrons orbit the nucleus in

definite orbits. According to the laws of

classical physics, this model would be impossible because

the positively

charged nucleus

attracts the

electrons

Coulomb's law

applies

accelerating

electrons radiate

energy

19 Quantum

gas of these atoms initially in the ground state is

irradiated with photons having a continuous range of

energies between 7 and 10 electron volts. One would

expect photons of which of the following energies to be

emitted from the gas?

1, 3, 5, and 10 eV

1, 2, and 3 eV only 4, 5, and 9 eV only only

a single given photoelectron. Each

photoelectrons

energy is simply based on K = hf .

More intensity means a larger total

number of

photoelectrons and would result in

more total energy, but the energy of

each photoelectron is the

same for all levels of the overall

D

E

intensity.

16.quantum.PNG

The following formulas apply. K = Vq

K = mv2 p = mv p=h/

To get half the , the p must be doubled

must be doubled

When the velocity is doubled, the

Kinetic energy is 4x as much

To get 4x the K, we need 4x the

600 V

22,500 V

potential.

According to classical physics, when

charges accelerate in circles, they

necessarily radiate energy

in the form of light. This would cause

them to spiral into the nucleus as they

radiate continuous

there is a

angular

spectrums of color. This does not

centripetal force on momentum is

happen though, which is a flaw in the

the electrons

conserved

Rutherford model.

The ground state is at 14eV. The next

excited state is 4eV higher (at 10eV)

which cant be

reached since we are only putting in a

range of 710. So we try the next jump

to the 5eV state.

This would require and input of 9 eV

and this is possible since it falls in the

range. The next state

3eV is not possible since it would

require 11 eV input. So the only excited

state we can be

brought to with this energy input is the

5eV state. From this state we will now

go through

emissions as the electrons fall back

Since the original down to the ground state. This can be

done through three

photons have a

range of energies, possible jumps:

one would expect 5eV10eV, then 10eV14eV or it

a range of emitted could go directly from 5eV14eV.

1, 5, 7, and 10 eV photons with no

In these three scenarios, the emissions

only

particular energies. possible are 5, 4 and 9.

19.quantum.PNG

20 Quantum

21 Quantum

C

Which of the following graphs best represents the de Broglie wavelength of

a particle as a function of the

linear momentum p of the particle?

D

They penetrate

light materials.

They ionize gases. by magnetic fields. electrified bodies.

not be deflected by a magnetic field. All

of the rest of the

listed properties are true however. a) x

rays clearly pass through light materials

as evidenced

from their use in the medical field. b)

From Bohrs energy level diagram for

hydrogren we can

conclude this is true. The differences

between levels on the diagram

represent energies needed to

jump levels, and these energies

correspond to visible and UV light

energies. The energy listed

for each level is the ionization energy,

which is the energy needed to remove

an electron. Any

energy larger than or equal to the

ionization energy for a level will do.

Since Xrays have such

high energy, they clearly will be able to

ionize any level in hydrogen gas c) not

true. d) The

Compton effect shows this ability to

strip electrons. e) An x ray is an EM

wave and like all waves

should diffract. Since the wavelength is

so small, they would have to be

diffracted by very small

They are diffracted openings such as crystal structures in

by crystals.

atoms.v

the fraction of

particles scattered

through large

angles was too

large to be

explained by

no particles

the most common

previous models of passed through

scattering angle

the atom

the foil undeflected was about 90

scattering angle

was about 180

The production of

x-rays by electrons The scattering of

striking a metal

photons by

target

electrons at rest

21.Quantum.PNG

A) Not true. When particles came near

the nucleus, most of them were

deflected up or down

through angles less than 90. A few of

them, were deflected back at angles

larger than 90.

B) TRUE Previous models could not

accounts for the particles that got

scattered through large

angles. These large angle scattering

events prompted Rutherford to

conclude a concentrated +

nucleus to produce this result.

Electron jumps could happen as follows

43,32,21 or 42, 21 or 43,

31 or 41.

In these emissions from the differences

in the energy level graph, we can make

all of the energy

difference choices except 4 eV.

23.Quantum.PNG

Big means the least energy based on

E=hc/ . The least energy corresponds

to the smallest

energy level jump which is 4.

24.Quantum.PNG

The photoelectric effect is the main

proof of lights particle nature. All of the

other choices are

related to the proof of wave natures.

The DavissonGermer experiment

involves the diffraction of electron

particles through a nickel

crystal. Since these particles diffracted,

this demonstrated the wave nature of

particles.

based on the work function (which is

based on the nature

of the surface) and K is also based on

the frequency of the incoming light.

22 Quantum

The scattering of alpha particles by a thin gold foil was measured by Geiger

and Marsden. The Rutherford model of the atom was proposed in order to

explain why

more particles

scattered through

angles greater

than 90 than

through angles

less than 90

23 Quantum

found in the emission spectra of this atom after it has been

excited to the n = 4 state?

1 eV

2 eV

3 eV

4 eV

5 eV

24 Quantum

Which of the following transitions will produce the photon with the longest

wavelength?

n = 2 to n = 1

n = 3 to n = 1

n = 3 to n = 2

n = 4 to n = 1

n = 4 to n = 3

25 Quantum

Of the following phenomena, which provides the best evidence that light can

have particle properties?

Interference of

light in thin films

Electromagnetic

radiation

The absorption of

photons by

electrons in an

atom

The alpha-decay

of radioactive

nuclei

The interference

pattern produced

by neutrons

incident on a

crystal

26 Quantum

27 Quantum

Of the following phenomena, which provides the best evidence that particles

can have wave properties?

In the photoelectric effect, the maximum speed of the electrons emitted by a

metal surface when it is illuminated

by light depends on which of the following?

I. Intensity of the light

II. Frequency of the light

III. Nature of the photoelectric surface

I only

III only

I and II only

28 Quantum

In the Bohr model of the atom, the postulate stating that the orbital angular

momentum of the electron is

quantized can be interpreted in which of the following ways?

An integral number

of electron

wavelengths must

fit into the

electron's circular

orbit.

shells

31 Quantum

Quantum transitions that result in the characteristic sharp lines of the X-ray

spectrum always involve

Which of the following experiments provided evidence that electrons exhibit

wave properties?

I. Millikan oil-drop experiment

II. Davisson-Germer electron-diffraction experiment

III. J. J. Thomson's measurement of the charge-to-mass ratio of electrons

If the momentum of an electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength is

multiplied by a factor of

32 Quantum

33 Quantum

frequency 2f will have a momentum of

34 Quantum

surface, and electrons are emitted from

the surface as a result. To produce more electrons per unit time but with less

kinetic energy per electron, the

experimenter should do which of the following?

B

29 Quantum

30 Quantum

36 Quantum

energy state of an atom?

Which graph shows the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons

versus the frequency of the light?

37 Quantum

Which graph shows the total photoelectric current versus the intensity of the

light for a fixed frequency above

the cutoff frequency?

35 Quantum

An electron has a

spin of 1/2.

The atom is

composed of a

small, positively

charged nucleus

orbited by

electrons.

emission of beta

particles from the

nucleus

nucleus

nucleus

Xray photons are high energy, they

must involve

discussed in question 26. The other two

choices have

I only

II only

I and III only

II and III only

I, II, and III

nothing to do with matterwaves.

From p=h/ , 2x p means the

0.25

0.5

1

2

4 wavelength.

Rutherfords experiment was not a

quantum concept; it was on the atomic

level and led to a

model of the atom. All of the other

Rutherford's

choices involve a quantization effect or

scattering

Bohr's theory of

Compton

the blackbody

the photoelectric

particle nature of

experiments

the hydrogen atom scattering

spectrum

effect

light which are quantum concepts.

From p=h/ , and c=f p = hf/c.

There is a direct relationship between p

2p

(2)^1/2p

p

p/(2)^1/2

p

and f.

The K of each photoelectron is given

by. K = hf . To reduce the energy of

each photon, we

Increase the

Decrease the

need less f (which means more ) for

intensity and

Increase the

Decrease the

intensity and

the incoming light. Since intensity is

decrease the

intensity and the

intensity and the

increase the

None of the above directly related to the

wavelength of the wavelength of the wavelength of the wavelength of the would produce the number of photoelectrons emitted we

light.

light.

light.

light.

desired result.

want to increase the intensity.

A fact. The Pauli exclusion principle

involves the filling of orbitals by

The law of

electrons and how many

The Heisenberg

conservation of

electrons fill each orbital. This is related

uncertainty

The Pauli

The Bohr model of The theory of

energy

to the quantum state of the electrons in

principle

exclusion principle the hydrogen atom relativity

(C)

each level.

10^8

10^22

10^30

10^40

10^56

/h

h/

/ hc

hc /

Same, same

less for red

greater for red

for red

greater for red

B

B

39 Quantum

following is the best estimate of the

number of photons it emits per second?

C

The work function for a metal is . What is the threshold frequency of incident

light required for the emission of

photoelectrons from a cathode made of that metal?

A

40 Quantum

Two monochromatic light beams, one red and one green, have the same

intensity and the same cross sectional

area. How does the energy of each photon and the number of photons

crossing a unit area per second in the red

beam compare with those of the green beam?

38 Quantum

can exist in each

possible electron

state.

electron energy

levels that have

the same principal

quantum number

from de Broglie and the relationship of

momentum to

wavelength through matterwaves. de

An incident photon Broglie theorized that electrons have

is completely

wavelike properties

absorbed when it and must exist in whole number

causes an electron multiples of wavelengths around an

to move to a

orbit to so they interfere

higher energy

constructively and do not get knocked

state.

out.

36.quantum.png

The photoelectric current is directly

related to the number of photoelectrons

emitted; the more

photoelectrons the more the current.

Also, the # of photoelectrons is directly

related to the

intensity. This means that photoelectric

current and intensity also have a direct

relationship.

When we are above the threshold

frequency, 0 intensity would correspond

to 0 current, but as

intensity increases, the current

increases proportionally.

37.quantum.png

We find the total energy produced in 1

second and then use the energy of 1

photon to determine

how many photons would be emitted.

Total energy = W = Pt = 50000 (1 sec)

= 50000 J = 5x10^4

Energy of 1 photon E = hc / = 2x10^25/ 4 = 0.5x10^-25 = 5x10^-26

Total Energy / Energy of 1 photon = #

photons released.

5x10^4 / 5x10^-26 = 1030

Energy of a photon is related to

frequency. The red light has a lower

frequency and thus less energy per

photon. Intensity is the total energy of

the beam. To have the same intensity,

there would need to be more of the

lower energy red photons.

In an x-ray tube, electrons striking a target are brought to rest, causing x-rays

to be emitted. In a particular x-ray

tube, the maximum frequency of the emitted continuum x-ray spectrum is

fo. If the voltage across the tube is

doubled, the maximum frequency is:

E

fo /2

fo /2

fo

2fo

2fo

1 Nuclear

alpha particle

electron

photon

positron

proton

2 Nuclear

14N7

15N7

15O8

14F9

15F9

3 nuclear

216Po84

220At85

220Rn86

220Fr87

224Ra88

4 Nuclear

5 nuclear

A photon with frequency f behaves as if it had a mass equal to:

E

B

36Cl17

hfc2

44Sc21

hf/c2

40Ar18

c2 /hf

40K19

fc2 /h

40Ca20

h/fc2

6 Nuclear

7 nuclear

What does the ? represent in the nuclear reaction 2H1 + 2H1 -> 3He2

What does the ? represent in the nuclear reaction 6Li3 + ? ->7Li3

D

D

an alpha

an alpha particle

a beta

a deuteron

a gamma

an electron

a proton

a proton

8 Nuclear

a helium nucleus

a positron

an electron

a neutron

a neutron

a high energy

photon

9 nuclear

Fission

Fusion

Alpha decay

Beta decay

Positron decay

Fission

Fusion

Alpha decay

Beta decay

Positron decay

11 nuclear

During a particular kind of radioactive decay, a particle is emitted from the

nucleus of an atom and the atoms atomic number increases by one. This

decay necessarily involves the emission of _________ from the nucleus

An alpha particle

A beta particle

A gamma ray

A proton

A neutron

12 Nuclear

(atomic mass 207, atomic number 82) in about a billion years by emitting 7

alpha particles and x beta particles, where x is

13 nuclear

A proton

This is possible

because Einsteins

equation says that

mass and energy

are equivalent... it

is just very

difficult to achieve

with electrons

A.

41 Quantum

10 Nuclear

14 Nuclear

15 nuclear

spontaneously convert an electron completely into energy in the laboratory

without any other material required. What is the conclusion about this claim

from our current understanding of physics?

A new element, named Physonium (symbol Phys) is discovered to undergo

double alpha decay and beta decay simultaneously. Amazingly, this causes

the material to decay into an element called Awsomeonium (symbol Oo).

What is the correct representation of the (Oo)?

An electron

a deuteron

kinetic energy given by W = Vq = K.

Doubling the voltage doubles the

energy of the electrons. The emitted x

ray energy coming from the electron

energy

is given by E=hf and with double the

energy there should be doube the

frequency.

1 u = 1.66x10 is 1/12 of carbon 12 and

is approximately the same as a proton

mass.

or a positron to be emitted, the oxygen

must have undergone beta+ decay,

which is the opposite of beta decay. In

beta+ decay a proton turns into a

neutron + the emitted beta particle. The

mass number stays the same (P+N still

the same), but the atomic number goes

down by 1 since

there is 1 less proton.

An alpha particle is 4He2 so reduce the

atomic mass by 4 and the atomic

number by 2.

In beta decay, a neutron turns into a

proton. Atomic mass same, mass

number +1.

Equate E=hf to E=mc2 ... m = hf/c2.

For everything to add up properly, we

need ... 1/0... which is a neutron.

Same as above.

Definition of alpha particle.

Uranium split by a neutron is called

fission.

Merging together two elements (He

usually being one of them) is called

fusion.

9.nuclear.png

10.nuclear.png

The mass number has changed by 28,

the atomic number has changed by 10.

7 alpha particles (4He2)*7 equates to a

loss of 28 for atomic mass and 14 for

atomic number. If

only the alpha particles were emitted, 4

protons would be missing. Those

protons must have

come from the conversion of neutrons

into protons which would happen with

the release of 4

7 beta particles.

To balance the nuclear reaction, the

sum of the values across the top and

across the bottom must match... That

is, we have 4 + 9 = 12 + A A = 1 and

2 + 4 = 6 + Z Z = 0 . This gives us

a particle with 1 nucleon, but 0 protons.

This is a neutron.

13.nuclear.png

An alpha particle

A neutron

This is possible

and it is done all

the time in the

high-energy

physics labs.

A positron

The scientist is

almost correct...

except that in

converting the

electron to energy,

an electrons antiparticle

is produced in the

process as well.

The scientist is

almost correct...

except that in

converting the

electron to energy,

a proton is

produced in the

process as well.

Eliminating an electron by itself violates

this. However, when and electron ()

meets a positron (+) the matter and

This is not possible antimatter can annihilate to produce

because charge

energy and the + and charges can

conservation

neutralize to conserve charge .. just as

would be violated. a side note.

B.

C.

D.

E.

the top and bottom arrives at choice E.

15.nuclear.png

17 nuclear

The most common isotope of Uranium, U (atomic mass 238, atomic number

92), radioactively decays into lead, Pb (atomic mass 206, atomic number 82),

by a means of a series of alpha and beta particle emissions. How many of

each particle must be emitted.

D

Rutherford was the first person to artificially transmute one element into

another (nitrogen to oxygen). A nuclear equation for his reaction could be

written as follows (see image). The unknown particle in the above equation is A

18 Nuclear

19 nuclear

alpha particle (atomic mass 4, atomic number 2).The next two elements in

radioactive decay

chain each emit a beta particle (atomic mass 0, atomic number -1). What

would be the resulting nucleus after these three decays have

occurred?

20 Nuclear

21 nuclear

the following gives the mass number

and atomic number of nuclide X?

22 Nuclear

(z) are the masses of the three

particles. which of the following relationships is true?

23 nuclear

24 Nuclear

A proton collides with a nucleus of N (atomic mass 14, atomic number 7). If

this collision produces a nucleus of C (atomic mass 11, atomic number 6) and

one other particle,

that particle is

D

25 nuclear

undergoes beta decay, emitting an electron,

the nucleus is transmuted into

26 Nuclear

16 Nuclear

27 nuclear

28 Nuclear

An electron and a positron, each of mass 9.1 x 10^(31) kilogram, are in the

same general vicinity and have very small

initial speeds. They then annihilate each other, producing two photons. What

is the approximate energy of each emerging photon?

An electron and a positron, each of mass 9.1 x 10^(31) kilogram, are in the

same general vicinity and have very small

initial speeds. They then annihilate each other, producing two photons. What

is the angle between the paths of the emerging photons?

32 alphas, 10

betas

16 alphas, 16

betas

A proton

Protons increases

by one while the

number of

neutrons

decreases by one.

A neutron

Protons decrease

by one while the

number of

neutrons increases

by one.

particles do not change the atomic

mass number since there is simply a

conversion between nucleons, so the

only way to reduce the mass number is

by

emitting alpha particles. The mass

number goes down by 32 and each

alpha particle reduces it by

4 so 8 alpha particles are needed. 8

alpha particles by themselves would

also reduce the atomic #

by 16, but it only ends up reduced by

10 so there are 6 protons needed.

These 6 protons come from the beta

decay where 6 neutrons turn into

4 alphas, 18 betas protons and release 6 beta particles.

An electron

A gamma ray

An alpha particle

Protons and

neutrons each

decrease by two

Protons and

neutrons each

increase by two

Protons and

neutrons remain

unchanged

need ... 1 which is a proton.

particles change.

First in the alpha decay, the atomic

mass goes down by 4 and the atomic

number goes down by 2

leaving X(atomic mass 214, atomic

number 82) then in the two beta

decays, a neutron turns into a proton

each time increasing the atomic

number by two leaving X (atomic

A

B

C

D

E

mass 214, atomic number 84).

Simply make sure everything adds up

A

B

C

D

E

to get the missing piece.

Pb (atomic mass 214, atomic number

82) X + e (atomic mass 0, atomic

number -1) For everything to add up,

we need X (atomic mass 214, atomic

A

B

C

D

E

number 83)

In a nuclear reaction, the total mass

before must be larger than the total

mass after since some of

the mass will be missing afterwards

(mass defect) in the form of released

A

B

C

D

E

energy.

In this reaction, two light elements are

artificially

fusing together and producing a heavier

produced

naturally occurring nuclear

element. This is

radioactive decay radioactive decay disintegration

nuclear fission

nuclear fusion

fusion.

The reaction is as follows p (atomic

mass 1, atomic number 1) + N (atomic

mass 14, atomic number 7) C

(atomic mass 11, atomic number 6)

+ X to make it all add up X must be

a proton

a neutron

a deuteron

an particle

a particle

an alpha.

We start with 2 neutrons and 1 proton.

In beta decay with the emission of an

electron, the process involves a neutron

turning into a proton. The resulting

nucleus would have 1 neutron and 2

protons. An atomic number of 2 is

defined as He. It is He (atomic mass 3,

the nucleus of an the nucleus of an

atomic number 2) which is an isotope of

isotope of helium isotope of lithium an alpha particle

a triton

a deuteron

He (atomic mass 4, atomic number 2).

A beta particle, like all matter, can

B. It has a charge C. It is more

exhibit wave properties. Since the

A. Its speed in a

equal and opposite penetrating than a D. It has a mass of

particle is so small, it can

vacuum is 3 x 10^8 to that of an alpha gamma ray of the about 1,840 times E. It can exhibit

more readily show these wave

m/s.

particle.

same energy.

that of a proton

wave properties.

properties than normal size matter.

Using E=mc^2 with twice the mass

since two particles are destroyed =

it cannot be

(2*9.1x10^(31))(3x10^8)^2 = 1.64x10^

determined unless (13) J 2.63x10^(13) J * (1 eV / 1.6

the frequency of

x10^(19) J) = 1.02x10^6 eV. This is

the photon is

the total energy released, and since

. 0.51 MeV

2.0 MeV

4.0 MeV

6.6 MeV

known.

there are two photons we split it in half.

30

45

90

180

must move in opposite directions.

17.nuclear.png

19.nuclear.png

20.nuclear.png

21.nuclear.png

22.nuclear.png

23.nuclear.png

29 nuclear

30 Nuclear

reactions involving Uranium (atomic mass=235, atomic number 92)?

6 neutrons are needed.

I. is Not True, for the following reason:

In fission, and U235 nucleus is broken

into fragments that make smaller

elements + neutrons

+ energy. The fragments created are

not always the same and there is a

statistical probability

of which fragments can be created. The

reaction provided in this problem is the

most probable

but other elements can be formed such

as the following U235 fission reaction:

U-235 + n Zr-94 + Te-139 + 3n +

energy. There are actually many

combinations of

fragments that can be released. Small

amounts of mass are missing as

released energy but

adding the whole numbers of the

reaction will always balance the

equation for a given reaction.

II. is TRUE. As explained above, as

small amount of the mass will be

missing in the form of

energy after the reaction completes.

This is necessary to produce the

energy from the reaction.

III. is Not True. Again as explained in

the first paragraph. There will be a

small amount of mass

missing but adding the whole numbers

before and after will always result in the

same numbers

of particles for a fission reaction.

30.nuclear.PNG

Fg

=Gmm/r2

Fe

= kqq/r2

The electric and gravitational forces

are inverse squared as

shown from the equations here.

Nuclear is not. This is fact and we dont

know why. It was one

of Einsteins last puzzles and he

considered it a great failure of his to not

solve this. It is called

grand unification theory that attempts to

combine all of the four fundamental

forces into one

unified force. It is a hot topic in modern

physics that is as of yet unsolved.

This is the definition of an isotope.

Same atomic number so same number

of protons. Different

numbers of neutrons make it an

isotope. Also a baseball team on The

Simpsons.

Some reactions conserve all of these,

others do not. Clearly the numbers of

protons is not

conserved as evidenced by beta decay.

The number of nuclei is more often

conserved but in

some reactions such as annihilation the

nuclei are disintegrated and converted

into energy. This

agrees with the law of conservation of

matter and energy, but when looking at

the total numbers

of particles before and the total

numbers of particles after, you would

say that number is not

conserved. Charge is a fundamental

conservation law and it always

conserved. Even in the

annihilation example, the net charge

before was zero and is zero after.

31 nuclear

Forces between two objects which are inversely proportional to the square of

the distance between the objects

include which of the following?

I. Gravitational force between two celestial bodies

II. Electrostatic force between two electrons

III. Nuclear force between two neutrons

C

I only

III only

I and II only

32 Nuclear

protons but a

electrons but a

neutrons but a

different number of different number of different number of neutrons as

neutrons

protons

protons

electrons

protons as

neutrons

I only

Hg (atomic

mass=210, atomic

number=80)

Po (atomic

mass=218, atomic

number=84)

33 nuclear

34 Nuclear

Quantities that are conserved in all nuclear reactions include which of the

following?

I. Electric charge

II. Number of nuclei

III. Number of protons

A negative beta particle and a gamma ray are emitted during the radioactive

decay of a nucleus of Pb (atomic mass=214, atomic number=82). Which of

the following is the resulting nucleus?

II only

Tl (atomic

mass=214, atomic

number=81)

Bi (atomic

mass=213, atomic

number=83)

Bi (atomic

mass=214, atomic

number=83)

a proton

Heavy stable

nuclei tend to have All light stable

Z < N.

nuclei have Z< N

energy equivalent

of the mass

decrease in the

energy equivalent reaction, minus the

of the mass

kinetic energy of

total energy of the decrease in the

the incident

incident neutron

reaction

neutron

a helium nucleus

(He(atomic

mass=4, atomic

a neutron

an electron

number=2))

I only

III only

I and II only

binding energy.

II only

I and II only

I, II and III

35 nuclear

Which of the following statements about the number of protons Z and the

number of neutrons N in stable nuclei is true?

36 Nuclear

absorbed and an alpha particle (

He (atomic mass=4)) emitted. If the B(atomic mass=10)

target is stationary, the kinetic energy of the reaction products is equal to the. C

37 nuclear

38 Nuclear

Waves and

1 Sound

Waves and

2 Sound

Waves and

3 Sound

Waves and

4 Sound

mass=222, atomic number=86) plus

Correct statements about the binding energy of a nucleus include which of

the following?

I. It is the energy needed to separate the nucleus into its individual protons

and neutrons.

II. It is the energy liberated when the nucleus isformed from the original

nucleons.

III. It is the energy equivalent of the apparent loss of mass of its nucleon

constituents.

Which of the following statements about the speed of waves on a string are

true?

I. The speed depends on the tension in the string

II. The speed depends on the frequency

III. The speed depends on the mass per unit length of the string.

A string is firmly attached at both ends. When a frequency of

60 Hz is applied, the string vibrates in the standing wave pattern shown.

Assume the tension in the string and its mass per unit length do not change.

Which of the following frequencies could NOT also produce a standing wave

pattern in the string?

have Z = N

kinetic energy of

the incident

neutron

nuclei have Z = N

nuclei have Z > N.

energy equivalent

of the mass

decrease in the

reaction, plus the

kinetic energy of

the incident

neutron

energy released in the reaction is equal

the equivalence of

the missing mass comparing the

products and reactants.

a deuteron ( H

(atomic mass=2,

For everything to add up we need a

atomic number=1)) helium nucleus (alpha particle).

30 Hz

40 Hz

80 Hz

100 Hz

180 Hz

Amplitude

Period

Polarization

Velocity

Wavelength

at 60 Hz. That means the fundamental

is 20Hz. The other A possible standing 2.wavesandsound.

waves should be multiples of 20

png

A fact, sound cannot be polarized since

its longitudinal

.2 s

doubles and the

speed remains

unchanged

7s

20 s

.02 s

UseT=1/f

the speed doubles the speed halves

speed halves

inverses

.25 Hz

1 Hz

2 Hz

4 Hz

8 Hz

Find the frequency with v = f

6.wavesandsound.

png

as if they never met

7.wavesandsound.

png

.625 m

.75 m

1.25 m

2.5 m

3.75 m

frequency is given by f=nv/(2L) with n=1

Waves and

9 Sound

Waves and

10 Sound

The standing wave pattern diagrammed to the right is produced in a string

fixed at both ends. The speed of waves in the string is 2 m/s. What is the

frequency of the standing wave pattern?

Two waves pulses approach each other as seen in the figure. The wave

pulses overlap at point P. Which diagram best represents the appearance of

the wave pulses as they leave point P?

If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the length of the organ pipe, open at

both ends, that can resonate at the fundamental frequency of 136 Hz, would

be:

String L and string H have the same tension and length. String L has mass m

and string H has mass 4m. If the speed of the waves in string L is v, the

speed of the waves in string H is

An observer hears a sound with frequency 400 Hz. Its wavelength is

approximately

.01 s

halves and the

speed remains

unchanged

V/2

1.4v

2v

4v

gives 12 the velocity

.85 m

1.2 m

2.75 m

13.6 m

44 m

Waves and

11 Sound

As sound travels from steel into air, both its speed and its:

wavelength

increase

wavelength

decrease

frequency

frequency increase decrease

frequency remain

unchanged

120, 125

115, 120

120, 120

115, 115

120, 115

60 Hz

80 Hz

120 Hz

480 Hz

720 Hz

waves doubles

the waves doubles waves halves

the wavelength of

the waves halves

0.34 m

0.68 m

1.36 m

Waves and

5 Sound

Waves and

6 Sound

Waves and

7 Sound

Waves and

8 Sound

Waves and

12 Sound

Waves and

13 Sound

Waves and

14 Sound

Waves and

15 Sound

When a train is at rest, both a passenger on the train and a ticket seller at the

station agree that the trains whistle

produces sound at a frequency of 120 Hz. When the train is moving away

from the station at 15 m/s, the

passenger hears a frequency of ___ Hz and the ticket seller hears a

frequency of ____ Hz.

E

A pipe that is closed at one end and open at the other resonates at a

fundamental frequency of 240 Hz. The next

lowest/highest frequency it resonates at is most nearly.

E

Assume that waves are propagating in a uniform medium. If the frequency of

the wave source doubles then

D

A natural horn (trumpet with no valves) is similar to a pipe open at both ends.

A musician plans

to create a fundamental frequency of 256 Hz (middle C) using the horn. If

sound travels at 350 m/s, what must be the length of this horn?

B

0.78 m

When sound travels into less dense

medium, its speed decreases (unlike

light) however, like

all waves when traveling between two

mediums, the frequency remains

constant. Based on

v = f , if the speed decreases and the

frequency is constant then the must

decrease also.

Doppler effect. Since the passenger is

on the train moving with the sound, the

frequency is

unaltered, but since the sound is

moving away from the station, people at

the station should hear

a lower frequency.

multiples of harmonic so next f is 3x f1

For a given medium, speed is constant.

Doubling the frequency halves the

none of the above wavelength

Using

L

f nv n 2

1.46 m

= with n = 1, solve for L

Waves and

16 Sound

A natural horn (trumpet with no valves) is similar to a pipe open at both ends.

A musician plans

to create a fundamental frequency of 256 Hz (middle C) using the horn. A

talented musician can produce a number of overtones on this natural horn.

What would be the frequency of

the fourth overtone produce when the musician is playing a middle C

fundamental?

D

512 Hz

768 Hz

1024 Hz

1280 Hz

Waves and

17 Sound

while the other speaker produces

sound with a wavelength of 0.65 m. What would be the resulting beat

frequency?

3 Hz

23 Hz

66.5 Hz

500 Hz

up then down

down then up

up, down, up

0.5 m

0.75 m

1m

2m

Cy

Cz

Ox

Oy

harmonic, 5 x the fundamental.

Determine each separate frequency

using the speed of sound as 340 and v

= f . Then subtract

the two frequencies to get the beat

11333 Hz

frequency.

Step the two pulses through each other

a little bit at a time and use

superposition to see how the

amplitudes add. At first the amplitude

jumps up rapidly, then the amplitude

moves down as the

rightmost negative pulse continues to

propagate. At the very end of their

passing the amplitude

there would be no would be all the wave down and then

motion, the pulses once they pass the point will jump back

cancel one another up to equilibrium

Cx is only of a wavelength. To make

a full wavelength you would need 4x

4m

the current length

Wavelengths of each are (dist/cycle)

4L, 4/3 L, 4/5 L, L, 2/3 L

Frequencies are f = v/ .

v/4L, 3v/4L, 5v/4L, v/L, 3v/2L Oy is

Cy , Cz, Ox, Oy

2x Cy

0.0039s

0.020s

2.55Hz

50Hz

256Hz

f = cycles / seconds

Pitch

Volume

Frequency

Wavelength

Length of tube

200s

141s

0.007s

0.002s

Waves and

18 Sound

Waves and

19 Sound

Waves and

20 Sound

Waves and

21 Sound

Waves and

22 Sound

Waves and

23 Sound

The diagram shows two transverse pulses moving along a string. One pulse

is moving to the right and the

second is moving to the left.

Both pulses reach point x at the

same instant. What would be

the resulting motion of point x

as the two pulses pass each

other?

C

The diagrams below represent 5 different standing sound waves set up inside

of a set of organ pipes 1 m long. What is the length of the longest wavelength

shown?

E

The diagrams below represent 5 different standing sound waves set up inside

of a set of organ pipes 1 m long. Which organ pipe(s) shows a standing wave

which has twice the frequency of one of the other waves shown?

D

The frequency of the tuning fork is (approximately)

E

In order to calculate the speed of sound from the graph, you would also need

to know

D

A metal bar is vibrating with a frequency of 200 Hz. The resulting period of

oscillation would be

E

Waves and

24 Sound

A tube is open at both ends with the air oscillating in the 4th harmonic. How

many displacement nodes are located within the tube?

Waves and

25 Sound

Two separate strings of the same thickness are stretched so that they

experience the same tension. String B is twice as dense as String A. String A,

of length L, is vibrated at the fundamental frequency. How long is String B if it

has the same fundamental frequency as String A?

B

1/2 L

L/(sqrt(2))

(Sqrt(2))*L

1536 Hz

To produce pipe harmonics, the ends

are always antinodes. The first

(fundamental) harmonic is

when there are two antinodes on the

end and one node in-between. To move

to each next

harmonic, add another node in the

middle and fill in the necessary

antinodes. (ex, 2nd harmonic

is ANANA So the 4th

C

harmonic would be ANANANANA and

have four nodes. Alternative

solution if you know what the

harmonics look like you can draw them

and manually count the

5

6 nodes.

The Fundamental is given by

L

nv f

n

2

= (n=1), and the velocity is given by

2L

v=sqrt(Ft/(m/t))

18.wavesandsound.

png

19.wavesandsound.

png

20.wavesandsound.

png

21.wavesandsound.

png

21.wavesandsound.

png

21.wavesandsound.

png

Waves and

26 Sound

Waves and

27 Sound

Waves and

28 Sound

Waves and

29 Sound

Waves and

30 Sound

Waves and

31 Sound

Waves and

32 Sound

Waves and

33 Sound

Waves and

34 Sound

Waves and

35 Sound

the harmonics shown below. Since the

same tuning fork is

used in each case, the frequency for all

of them is the same, and since they all

travel at the same

speed with equal frequencies, the

wavelength of each wave is also the

same (though each has a

different number of wavelengths fitting

in the tube, the wavelength of each is

same). But, the

lengths of the tubes vary using the

water to make each successive

harmonic and fit the necessary

numbers of wavelengths in each tube.

Looking at the diagrams, we can see

that each

harmonic is a wavelength longer than

the next,

regardless of which ones we are

looking at. We

dont have to know which harmonics we

are

looking at if we know the difference

between any

two of them because each harmonic

has the same

difference of . So the difference in

length

between any two consecutive

harmonics is equal to

the wavelength of the wave. L =

. Using

this relationship, we have:

(65 cm 39 cm) =

26.wavesandsound.

= 52 cm

png

A resonance occurs with a tuning fork and an air column of size 39 cm. The

next highest resonance occurs with an air column of 65 cm. What is the

frequency of the tuning fork? Assume that the speed of sound is 343 m/s.

329.8Hz

527.7Hz

659.6Hz

879.5Hz

an antinode

a node

the amplitude

the wavenumber

wavelength is

unchanged

wavelength

doubled

wavelength is

halved

4L1

2L1

L1

the harmonic

Definition of a node

Since the medium stays the same the

is unchanged while is unchanged while speed remains constant. Based on v = f

the wavelength is the wavelength is , for constant

doubled

halved

speed, f and change as inverses

Similar to problem 26, we should look

at the harmonic shapes openopen vs

openclosed. Comparing the

fundamental harmonic of the open

open pipe to the

closedopen pipe. The closedopen

pipe should be half as long asthe

openopen pipe in order to fit the

proper number of wavelengths of the

same waveform to produce the given

29.wavesandsound.

1/2L1

1/4L1

harmonic in each.

png

120Hz

60Hz

40Hz

30Hz

20Hz

apart. So 20 cm = , and the = 40

cm. Then using

L, L, L

L, L, 1/6 L

2L, L, L

4L, 2L, L

A person vibrates the end of a string sending transverse waves down the

string. If the person then doubles the rate at which he vibrates the string while

maintaining the same tension , the speed of the waves

E

at one end and open at the other end. This second tube resonates at the

same fundamental frequency as the first tube. What is the value of L2 ?

For a standing wave mode on a string fixed at both ends, adjacent antinodes

are separated by a distance of 20cm. Waves travel on this string at a speed

of 1200 cm/s. At what frequency is the string vibrated to produce this standing

wave?

What would be the wavelength of the fundamental and first two overtones

produced by an organ pipe of length L that is closed at one end and open at

the other?

A small vibrating object S moves across the surface of a ripple tank producing

the wave fronts shown above.

The wave fronts move with speed v. The object is traveling in what direction

and with what speed relative to

the speed of the wave fronts produced?

A cord of fixed length and uniform density, when held between two fixed

points under tension T, vibrates with

a fundamental frequency f. If the tension is doubled, the fundamental

frequency is

1319Hz

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

2f

(2f)

f/(2)

one wavelength

a distance directly

proportional to the

frequency of the

vibration

a distance directly

proportional to the

square root of the

air density

f/2

a distance

inversely

proportional to the

square root of the The time to make 1 cycle, is also the

pressure

time it takes the wave to travel 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

A vibrating tuning fork sends sound waves into the air surrounding it. During

the time in which the tuning fork

makes one complete vibration, the emitted wave travels

A

Two wave pulses, each of wavelength , are traveling toward each other

along a rope as shown. When both pulses are in the region between points X

and Y, which are a distance apart, the shape of the rope is

B

Doppler effect

Doubling the tension, changes the

speed to 2 v comparatively, and

makes the frequency increase by the

same amount.

each other to get the answer

32.

waves_and_sound.

png

35.

waves_and_sound.

png

Waves and

36 Sound

A train whistle has a frequency of 100 hertz as heard by the engineer on the

train. Assume that the velocity of

sound in air is 330 meters per second. If the train is approaching a stationary

listener on a windless day at a

velocity of 30 meters per second, the whistle frequency that the listener hears

is most nearly

B

90 Hz

110 Hz

120 Hz

240 Hz

300 Hz

Waves and

37 Sound

Two sinusoidal functions of time are combined to obtain the result shown in

the figure above. Which of the

following can best be explained by using this figure?

Beats

Doppler Effect

Diffraction

Polarization

Simple harmonic

motion

Waves and

38 Sound

0.4 m/s

2.5 m/s

5 m/s

10 m/s

20 m/s

1 Hz

2.5 Hz

5 Hz

7.5 Hz

10 Hz

Longitudinal

Transverse

Torsional

Electromagnetic

Polarized

I only

III only

I and II only

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

I only

III only

I and II only

f/3

f/2

2f

Waves and

39 Sound

Waves and

40 Sound

Waves and

41 Sound

Waves and

42 Sound

Sound in air can best be described as which of the following types of waves? A

In the Doppler effect for sound waves, factors that affect the frequency that

the observer hears include which of the following?

The figure above shows two wave pulses that are approaching each other.

Which of the following best shows the shape of the resultant pulse when the

centers of the pulses, points P and Q coincide?

Doppler equation

This diagram is associated with beats.

The increasing and decreasing

amplitude caused by interference

oscillates the volume up and down

which createsthe beat sound.

v=f

The diagram shows the second

harmonic in the string. Since harmonics 39.

are multiples, the first harmonic would waves_and_sound.

be half of this.

png

Fact

A fact about the Doppler effect. Can

also be seen from the Doppler

equation.

Waves and

45 Sound

Waves and

46 Sound

Two fire trucks have sirens that emit waves of the same frequency. As the fire

trucks approach a person, the person hears a higher frequency from truck X

than from truck Y. Which of the following statements about truck X can be

correctly inferred from this information:

A

I only

III only

I and II only

at all four points.

compressed so are more frequent.

Harmonics are multiples of the

fundamental so the fundamental must

3f

be f/2.

Based on the Doppler effect, only

speed matters. The faster a vehicle is

moving, the closer together the sound

waves get compressed and the higher

the frequency. Take the case of a very

fast vehicle traveling at the speed of

sound; the compressions are all right

on top of each other. So faster speed

means closer compressions and higher

frequencies. Choice I must be true

because X is a higher frequency so

must be going faster. Distance to the

person affects the volume but not the

pitch so choice II is wrong. III seems

correct but its not. It doesnt matter

whether you are speeding up or slowing

down, it only matters who is going

faster. For example, suppose truck X

was going 5 mph and speeding up

while truck Y was going 50 mph and

slowing down, this is an example of

choice III but would not meet the

requirement that X has a higher

frequency because only actual speed

matters, not what is happening to that

I, II, and III

speed.

Waves and

47 Sound

4 cm

5 cm

8 cm

10 cm

16 cm

Waves and

48 Sound

4 cm/s

25 cm/s

50 cm/s

100 cm/s

200 cm/s

Waves and

49 Sound

guitar by changing the tension in the string. Which of the following properties

of the waves on the string will change as a result of adjusting only the tension

in the string? I. Speed of the traveling wave that creates the pattern II.

Frequency of the standing wave III. Wavelength of the standing wave

C

I only

II only

I and II only

Waves and

44 Sound

41.

waves_and_sound.

png

42.

waves_and_sound.

png

waves to see the resultant.

When hitting a fixed boundary, some of

the wave is absorbed, some is reflected

inverted. The reflected wave has less

amplitude since some of the wave is

absorbed, but since the string has not 43.

changed its properties the speed of the waves_and_sound.

wave should remain unchanged.

png

generated at the other end, moves toward the wall as shown and is reflected

at the wall. Properties of the reflected pulse include which of the following?

B

A small vibrating object on the surface of a ripple tank is the source of waves

of frequency 20 Hz and speed 60 cm/s. If the source S is moving to the

right, as shown, with speed 20 cm/s, at which of the labeled points will the

frequency measured by a stationary observer be greatest?

C

The frequencies of the first two overtones (second and third harmonics) of a

vibrating string are f and 3f/2 .What is the fundamental frequency of this

string?

B

Waves and

43 Sound

37.

waves_and_sound.

png

38.

waves_and_sound.

png

By inspection.

44.

waves_and_sound.

png

46.

waves_and_sound.

png

47.

waves_and_sound.

png

47.

waves_and_sound.

png

= 5, Then use v = f .

Based on v = (Ftension/(m/l)), the

tension changes the speed. Then

based on f = nv/2L, this resulting speed

change will effect the frequency also.

But since the frequency increases in

49.

direct proportion to the speed, and v = f waves_and_sound.

, the should remain unchanged.

png

Waves and

50 Sound

A tuning fork is used to create standing waves in a tube open at the top and

partially filled with water. A resonance is heard when the water level is at a

certain height. The next resonance is heard when the water level has been

lowered by 0.5 m. If the speed of sound is equal to 340 m/s, the frequency of

the tuning fork is

C

Physical

2 Optics

In Youngs double slit experiment, the second order bright band of one light

source overlaps the third order

band of another light source. If the first light source has a wavelength of 660

nm, what is the wavelength of the

second light source?

D

A student performs an experiment similar to Youngs Double Slit Experiment.

Coherent light passes through

two narrow slits and produces a pattern of alternating bright and dark lines on

a screen. Which of the following

would cause the bright lines on the screen to be further apart?

I. Increasing the distance between the slits

II. Decreasing the distance between the slits

III. Decreasing the wavelength of the light

B

Physical

3 Optics

A diffraction grating of 1000 lines/cm has red light of wavelength 700 nm pass

through it. The distance

between the first and third principal bright spots on a screen 2 m away is

B

Physical

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slit. After passing through the slit,

it forms a diffraction pattern on a screen 1 m away. The distance between the

center maximum and the first

maximum away from the center is 3 mm. What is the thickness of the slit?

C

In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To

maintain the same fringe spacing on the

screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to

D

Monochromatic light falls on a single slit 0.01 cm wide and develops a first

order minimum (dark band) 0.59

cm from the center of the central bright band on a screen that is one meter

away. Determine the wavelength of

the light.

D

Which station broadcasts with 3.27 m radio waves?

Pioneering radio station KFKA started broadcasting 78 years ago at 1310

(1.31 MHz) on the AM dial. What is

the approximate length of its radio wave?

The length of the most effective transmitting antenna is equal to onefourth

the wavelength of the broadcast

wave. If a radio station has an antenna 4.5 meters long then what is the

broadcast frequency of the radio station?

170 Hz

226 Hz

340 Hz

680 Hz

2450 Hz

1320 nm

990 nm

495 nm

440 nm

330 nm

I only

II only

III only

14 cm

28 cm

42 cm

140 cm

280 cm

0.1 mm

0.2 mm

0.3 mm

0.4 mm

0.5 mm

D/2

D/(2)^1/2

D(2)^1/2

2D

4D

length change corresponds to a

increase in length. L = ... 0.5 =

... = 1 ... then use v = f and

solve for f.

Using m = d sin , the value of sin is

the same for both sources since the

location of the spot

is the same, but the first source is at

m=2, and the second source is at m=3.

Equating d sin for

each gives m1 1 = m2 2 (2)(660) =

3 (2) 2 = 440 nm.

Based on m = dx / L we want to

increase x. Only II does this.

1000 lines/cm gives a line spacing d =

1/1000 cm/line = 1x105 m/line. =

7x107

m=1. m = d sin (1)(7x10

m.

With diffraction gratings, we usually

assume the small angle approximation

does not work, so we

find then use the geometry with tan

or another trig function to find Y. Do this

for each spot.

7) = (1x105) sin = 4.01 tan

= o/a Y1 = 0.14 m

Repeat for m=3 Y3 = 0.43 m.

Subtract Y3 Y1 to find the distance

between = 0.29 m

Note: Since the angle here actually

came out to be small, the x/L small

angle approximation

could be used and the spacing x

between spots could be assumed to be

equal as well, so you

could simply find x for the first spot and

double it to find the spacing 1 to 3.

Single slit. With the given values, we

can see the angle is small so we can

use the small angle

approximation and apply m = dx / L.

Recall for single slits, the first maximum

off center is at

x=1.5 unlike double slits.

1.18 x10^(2) cm

5.90 x10(3) cm

1.18 x10(4) cm

5.90 x10(5) cm

1.18 x10(6) cm

91.7 MHz

92.5 MHz

98.5 MHz

102.5 MHz

106.3 MHz

Single Slit. Again based on the given

values we can see the angle is small so

we can use

m = dx / L dark spot at m=1. Note:

use L=100 cm to get an answer in cm.

Radio wave is EM and travels at light

speed. Use c = f and solve.

23m

230 m

2300 m

23000 m

3x10^(8) m

speed. Use c = f and solve.

1.4 x 10^(8) Hz

6.0 x 10^(8) Hz

1.7 x 10(7) Hz

6.7 x 10(7) Hz

3.0 x 10^(8) Hz

1.9 x 10^(10)

3.9 x 10^(10) km

7.9 x 10^(10) km

1.9 x 10^(11) km

5.4 x 1011 km

Physical

10 Optics

asteroid, is reflected, and returns to Earth

72 hours and 48 minutes later. How far from Earth is the asteroid?

Physical

11 Optics

terms of increasing wavelength.

E

travels at light speed. Use c = f and

solve.

It travels at light speed and takes half

the total time to travel the distance one

way. Use v=d/t.

Convert the time to seconds, find the

distance in meters, then convert that to

km.

changes the opposite of frequencies

(high freq = low ) based on this and

knowledge of the

EM spectrum, the answer is E.

11.physicaloptcs.png

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wavelength . See figure below. Which of the

choices for the path difference L = L1 L2 will always produce destructive

interference at point P?

Waves are produced by two point sources S and S vibrating in phase. See

the

accompanying diagram. X represents the location of the 2nd

interference minima.

The path difference SX SX is 4.5 cm. The wavelength of the waves is

approximately

A transmission diffraction grating is ruled with 5000 lines per cm. Through

what angle will the first order

maxima be deflected when light with a wavelength of 4.5 x 107 m strikes the

grating?

In an experiment to measure the wavelength of light using a double slit

apparatus, it is found that the bright

fringes are too close together to easily count them. To increase only the

spacing between the bright fringes, one

could

Two point sources in a ripple tank radiate waves in phase with a constant

wavelength of 0.02 meter. The

first-order interference maximum appears at 6 (use sin 6 = 0.1). The

separation of the sources is most nearly

equals or any odd multiple of s

for sources of

the same , there will be destructive

interference.

12.physicaloptics.png

d sin

x/L1

(x/L2)d

/2

1.5 cm

1.8 cm

2.3 cm

3.0 cm

4.5 cm

5.2

6.4

13

27

34

2nd min, we have 4.5 cm = (1.5) .

13.physicaloptics.png

5000 lines/cm gives a line spacing d =

1/5000 cm/line = 2x106 m/line.

Then use m = d sin , with m = 1 for

the first max.

width

width

separation

separation

none of these

Based on m = dx / L we want to

increase x. d is separation of slits and

less d means more x

0.001 m

0.002 m

0.06 m

0.1 m

It has equally

spaced fringes of

equal intensity.

It has a relatively

strong central

maximum.

It can be produced

only if the slit width

is less than one

wavelength.

It can be produced

only if the slit width

is exactly one

wavelength.

Decreases

Decreases

Decreases

Decreases

Increases

Increases

Increases

Decreases

Decreases

Remains the same Remains the same Increases

10^(10) Hz

10^(6) Hz

10^(8) Hz

3 x 10^(8) Hz

0.07 m

0.09 m

0.16 m

0.20 m

3.0x10^-3m

1.0m

3.0m

3.3m

disappears.

are brighter and

the dark lines are

darker.

and the dark lines

are all darker.

and the dark lines

are all brighter.

Physical

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B

For the five types of electromagnetic radiation listed above, which of the

following correctly describes the way

in which wavelength, frequency and speed, change as one goes from the left

to right on the list?

B

A radar operates at a wavelength of 3 centimeters. The frequency of these

waves is

E

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incident on two narrow slits in a box with

nonreflecting walls, as shown. At a distance of

5.0 m from the center of the slits, a first-order

maximum occurs at point P, which is 3.0 m from

the central maximum. The distance between the

slits is most nearly

A radio station broadcasts on a carrier frequency of 100 MHz. The

wavelength of this radio wave is most nearly

Physical

22 Optics

interference of light is covered with a thin filter that transmits only half the light

intensity, which of the following occurs?

E

0.2 m

Using m = d sin (1)(0.02) = d (0.1)

It can be produced

only if the slit width

is an integral

number of

wavelengths.

Fact about single slits.

Increases

Increases

Increases

18.physicaloptics.png

Radar wave is EM and travels at light

10^(10) Hz

speed. Use c = f and solve.

Since the slits are narrow, we can use

m = d sin , but since is clearly

large we cannot use the

x/L small angle approximation. From

the given diagram, the geometry shows

sin = o/h = 3/5 ..

rather than finding , we will just use

this value for sin and plug in

0.24 m

m =d sin (1) (0.12) = d (3/5)

20.physicaloptics.png

Radio waves are EM and travels at light

3.0x10^6m

speed. Use c = f and solve.

This is still a double slit pattern because

there is still light making it through both

slits. One of

the light sources has reduced its

amplitude; which means when it meets

the second light source it

will cause less interference than it

originally did. This means less

constructive interference and

The dark lines are less destructive interference also. So

brighter and the

bright spots become less bright, and

bright lines are

dark spots become

darker.

brighter.

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2 Optics

100 cm away is a series of bright spots spaced 10 cm apart. If the screen is

now placed 30 cm from the diffraction grating, the new spacingbetween

adjacent bright spots on the screen is most nearly

C

The critical angle of a material is the angle of incidence for which the angle of

refraction is:

D

An object is located 0.20 meters from a converging lens which has a focal

length of 0.15 meters. Relative to the object, the image formed by the lens will

be:

C

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Light that has a wavelength of 500nm in air has a wavelength 400nm in a

transparent material. What is the index of refraction of the material?

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the accompanying figure. What is true about the respective indices of

refraction (n1, n2, and n3)

D

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laser beam emerges from the material and hits a target. See the

accompanying figure for the position parameters of the laser and

target. The value of n is:

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right. Which segment best represents the refracted ray?

Physical

23 Optics

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Which of the following is NOT possible for the images formed by the lens in

the

accompanying figure?

A narrow beam of monochromatic light enters a lens parallel to

the optic axis, as shown in the accompanying diagram. Which

arrow best represents the direction of the light after leaving the

lens?

The accompanying diagram shows the path that a light ray takes passing

through three transparent materials. The indices of refraction in materials 1,

2, and 3 are n1, n2, and n3, respectively. Which of the following best

describes the relation between the indices of refraction?

Which diagram best represents what happens to a ray of light entering air

from water? Air is at the top in all

diagrams.

10cm

3cm

1cm

3mm

determine the angle of the first spot

using tan = o /a.

tan = 10 / 100 = 5.71. The problem

says the remaining spots are spaced

equally, which is a

rough approximation. The angles are

relatively small, but if we wanted to get

accurate results we

should find each spacing with d sin ,

but, this is just an approximation for the

first few spots.

When the screen is moved closer, the

angle of the light leaving the grating will

not change, but

the spacing on the screen will

decrease. Think about a diagram of this

setup and it is clear that

this must be true. Based on tan = o /a

with the same angle but the adjacent

side changed to 30

cm, we get a new location of the first

spot at 3 cm, so the other spots will

also approximately be

located 3 cm apart as well for relatively

small angles.

30

45

90

180

real, inverted and

larger than the

object.

real, inverted,

smaller.

real, upright, and

the same size of

the object.

real, inverted,

larger.

real, upright, and

smaller than the

object.

virtual, erect,

larger.

virtual, inverted,

and smaller than

the object.

virtual, inverted,

smaller.

virtual, upright, and

the same size as

the object.

= di / do

diffraction

real, inverted and

larger than the

object.

dispersion

real, upright, and

the same size as

the object.

interference

virtual, inverted,

and smaller than

the object.

polarization

virtual, upright, and

larger than the

object.

total internal

reflection

virtual, upright, and

smaller than the

object.

Fact about diverging lens.

1.56 Use n1 1 = n2 2

MoreLess dense bend away, Less

More dense bend towards. The more

the bend, the bigger the difference in

n1 > n2 > n3

n1 > n3 > n2

n2 > n3 > n1

n2 > n1 > n3

n3 > n1 > n2

n's.

If you look carefully you can see these

are both 345 triangles and are also

the same triangle

flipped. The hypotenuse of each is 1.5

m. Using the sides of the triangles, we

have

sin 1 = o/h = 0.8/1.5 for the bottom

triangle, and sin 2 = o/h = 1.2/1.5 for

the top triangle. Now

use n1 sin 1 = n2 sin 2 n1 (0.8/1.

5) = (1) (1.2/1.5) n1 = 1.2/0.8 = 3/2

1.4

1.5

2.1

3.5

5 =1.5

LessMore bend towards. But it cant

be E because that would only happen if

the incoming

PA

PB

PC

PD

PE

angle was also 0.

The lens shown has thick in the center

and thin on the outside which makes a

converging lens. In

converging lenses, all of the real

images are inverted and can be any

size, but the virtual images

are formed in a magnifying lens

real and smaller in real and larger in

virtual and smaller scenario and are always larger and

real and inverted

size

size

virtual and erect

in size

upright.

n1>n2>n3

n1>n3>n2

n2>n1>n3

n2 > n3 > n1

n3 > n1 > n2

0.64

0.8

same size, upright images.

Fiber optics involves reflecting light in a

fiber strand as the light carries the

signal along the fiber.

1.25

converging lens bends and converges

through the focal point.

MoreLess dense bend away, Less

More dense bend towards. The more

the bend, the bigger the

difference in ns.

Assuming total internal reflection didnt

happen, MoreLess dense bend away

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In order to produce and enlarged, upright image of an object, you could use a B

The critical angle in a transparent substance surrounded by air is 30. The

speed of light in the substance (in

multiples of 108 m/s) is most nearly

B

with air (na = 1.0) at point P. The angle of incidence is 60 as

shown in the diagram. Which ray would best indicate the beams

path after point P?

A small light bulb is placed 20 cm to the right of a converging lens of focal

length 10 cm. Which of the

following statements is NOT true about the image of the bulb formed by the

lens?

lens is then covered what will

happen to the image?

A wave moves from one medium to as second medium with a different index

of refraction. Which of the

following wave properties would NEVER change?

converging lens

more than one

focal length from

the object.

converging lens

less than one focal

length from the

object

diverging lens

more than one

focal length from

the object.

1.5

diverging lens

exactly one focal

length from the

object.

than one focal

length from the

Need a magnifying glass which is

object

choice B.

It is virtual

It is inverted

as the bulb

left of the lens

the image is

dimmer but

otherwise

unchanged

the image

becomes half as

big

frequency

wavelength

speed

angle

a boundary

between low index

of refraction and

high index of

refraction materials

6 2, then n = c / v to find v.

Generally when we go from moreless

we should always check the critical

angle first rather than

assuming the ray will refract and bend

away. Choice D might be correct, but

not until we first

check the critical angle for total internal

reflection. Use ni sin c = nr sin (90),

ni=1.5, nr=1

c = 41.8. Since our incoming angle

(60) is larger than the critical angle,

total internal reflection

16.geometricoptics.

will occur and you will get choice E.

png

on a screen

= di / do di +20 M = 1

When light from multiple locations pass

through a given part of a lens to form

an image, only a

small portion of a lens is needed to

form the image. The more of a lens, the

more light rays that

can be bent by it to each image

location. This simply makes the image

brighter. By covering

half the lens, all of the incoming rays

still bend all the same ways but there

are less total rays

being bent to given locations on the

image so it is dimmer. This can easily

be seen by looking at

a lens that has only horizontal rays

the image

approaching it. All of these rays

becomes half as

converge to the focal point;

only the top half of only the bottom

big and is inverted covering a portion of the lens still

the image is

half of the image is from its original

focuses the rays on the focal point, just

produced

produced

position.

less of them.

Geometric

20 Optics

a smooth surface

a rough surface

a boundary

between high

index of refraction

and low index of

refraction materials

Geometric

21 Optics

medium 3 as shown in the diagram. What may be

concluded about the speed of light in each medium?

v3 > v1 > v2

v1 > v2 > v3

v1 > v3 < v2

v2 > v3 > v1

Fact for refraction problems.

a boundary

between any two

transparent

substances,

regardless of index

of refraction

Fact about specular reflection.

MoreLess dense bend away, Less

More dense bend towards. The more

the bend, the bigger the

difference in ns this shows that n2 >

n1 > n3. More n means less speed so

v2 > v1 > v3

v3 > v1 > v2

Its a diverging lens so light bends away

from what the horizontal path would be

E

without the lens.

0 cm

5 cm

10 cm

20 cm

No image is

formed

0.56 v

0.75 v

1.33 v

1.78 v

3.0 v

Geometric

22 Optics

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23 Optics

light ray will most likely follow which path?

An object is placed 10 cm in front of the center of a concave curved mirror

with a radius of curvature of 10 cm.

About how far from the mirror will the real image of the object be formed?

Geometric

24 Optics

with an index of refraction of

n=2.0. If the speed of light in material Y is v, what is the speed of light in

material X?

C

math 1/f = 1/do + 1/di and di = 10

From n=c/v. n1 = c/v1 1.5 = c / vX

vX

n

= c / 1.5

2 = c/v2 2.0 = c / vY vY

The problem defines v

=c/2

Y=v

So v = c/2, c = 2v then subbing that

into the vx equation we have vX = (2v) /

1.5 = 1.33 v

21.geometricoptics.

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the figure, what is the minimum thickness of the glass that

gives the reflected light an orangish color

((air) orange light = 600nm)

length of +10 cm are located 30 cm

apart with their optical axes aligned

as shown. An object is placed 35

cm from the first lens. After the

light has passed through both lenses,

at what distance from the second

lens will the final image be formed?

C

A jeweler can distinguish between a diamond and a piece of glass by

observing the critical angle of light in each

material. Glass with an index of refraction of 1.52 has a critical angle of 41.1

while a diamond with an index

of refraction of 2.42 would have critical angle of:

D

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30 Optics

A converging lens forms a virtual image of a real object that is two times the

objects size. The converging lens

is replaced with a diverging lens having the same size focal length. What is

the magnification of the image

formed by the diverging lens?

A beam of light travels through the air and strikes the surface of

water at an angle of incidence of 45. It continues through the

water and then strikes the bottom of a glass aquarium. Which of

the following would be closest to the angle of refraction after the

beam enters the glass. The index of refraction of water is 1.3 and

that of glass is 1.5

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31 Optics

Light shines from air into a clear material. When the light makes an angle of

incidence equal to 30, the light

refracts at an angle of 15. If the light is shone from an angle of incidence of

60, what is the angle of refraction?

Geometric

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50 nm

100 nm

150 nm

200 nm

500 nm

65 cm

35 cm

27 cm

17 cm

14 cm

nfilm film (1)(600) = (1.5) glass

glass = 400 nm

As the light travels through the two

boundaries, you get a phase shift

(flip) at the first

boundary but no shift at the second

boundary. Therefore, you need to make

another of phase

difference total by traveling in the film

thickness to produce constructive

interference to reinforce

the orange wavelength. When the glass

thickness is of the in the glass, the

light will travel

up and down to make the extra

needed. So of the in the glass

gives you 100 nm

thickness needed.

Do the math twice. For the first lens. 1/f

= 1/do + 1/di di = + 14 cm (real). So

this first

preimage is formed 14 cm to the right

of the first lens, which means it is 16 cm

from the

second lens. Now redo the math using

this preimage as the object located

16 cm away from

the second lens. 1/f = 1/do + 1/di di

= + 26.67 cm.

air, so nr=1 (2.42) sin c = (1) sin

(90) c = 24.4

65.4

24.4

16.2

38.9

B) Each

wavelength of light

is refracted a

different amount

by the lens

25.8

A) Each

wavelength of light

reflects from the

surface of the lens

C) White light

waves interfere

inside the lens

D) White light

waves diffract

around the edge of

the lens

E) Chromatic

aberration occurs

with mirrors, not

lenses

A) 1

B) 2/5

C) 2/3

D) 3/2

E) 5/2

A) 55

B) 45

C) 38

D) 33

E) 28.

A) 19.5

B) 26.6

C) 30

D) 45

E) 60

An object is in front of a convex lens, at a distance less than the focal length

from the lens. Its image is

A) virtual and

larger than the

object.

C) virtual and

B) real and smaller smaller than the

than the object.

object.

than the object.

same size as the

object.

what is the minimum thickness of the soap film that gives the soap a

bluish color (air(blue) = 500 nm)?

A) 100 nm

B) 200 nm

C) 250 nm

D) 400 nm

E) 500 nm

If the frequency of a periodic wave is doubled, the period of the wave will be

A) halved

B) quartered

C) doubled

placed at a

position outside

the radius of

curvature for a

converging lens.

placed at a

position outside

the radius of

curvature for a

diverging lens.

For which of the following does one obtain an image of increased size from a

real object? Take all focus and

radius of curvature values as positive.

D

D) quadrupled

(d) The object is

(c) The object is

placed at a

placed at a

position between

position inside the the focus and

magnitude of the

radius of curvature

focus for a

for a concave

concave lens.

mirror.

E) unchanged

(e) The object is

placed at a

position between

the focus and the

radius of curvature

for a convex

mirror.

25.geometrioptics.

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26.geometricoptics.

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The magnification is M=2. Using M =

di/ do di= 2do Lets assume a value

of do= 10, then di= 20, and from 1/f =

1/do + 1/di, the focal point is 20. Now

redo the math with the focal point for

the diverging lens being negative and

the new di= 6.67, giving a new M=0.67

Use ni sin i = nr sin r, air to water and

find r. That r is the i for the second

water to glass interface. Then do ni sin

i

= nr sin r, water to glass and find r

30.geometricoptics

Use ni sin i = nr sin r, air to material

to find n of the material. Then redo the

problem with r as the unknown and

solve for r

.

A convex lens is a converging lens.

When the object is in front of the focal

point, it acts as a

magnifying glass.

Similar to question 25, except both

boundaries undergo phase shifts, so 1

full extra wavelength is

needed using the soap thickness. This

requires the thickness to be soap

giving the answer.

33.geometricoptics

Frequency are period are inverses.

up numbers and do the math for each

to see which works.

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A sound wave generated from a tuning fork of single frequency travels from

air (with speed of sound 340 m/s)

into rock (with speed of sound 1500 m/s). Which statement is true about the

wavelength and frequency of the

sound as it passes from air to rock?

When a beam of white light passes through a prism, the exiting light is seen

as a spectrum of visible colors. This

phenomenon is known as

Modern telescopes use mirrors, rather than lenses, to form images. One

advantage of mirrors over lenses is that

the images formed by mirrors are not affected by:

A) The frequency

of the sound

increases and the

wavelength

increases.

B) The frequency

of the sound

increases and the

wavelength is

unchanged.

C) The frequency

of the sound is

unchanged and

the wavelength is

decreased.

D) The frequency

of the sound is

unchanged and

the wavelength is

increased

E) The frequency

of the sound

decreases and the

wavelength is

increased.

sound behaves opposite from light. As

given in the problem

the sound travels faster in the denser

rock. When the sound speeds up, the

wavelength increases

and the frequency stays the same.

(A) diffraction

(B) dispersion

(C) interference

(D) polarization

(E) reflection

This is a fact.

destructive

interference

virtual, larger than

the object, and

upright.

constructive

interference

virtual, smaller

than the object,

and upright.

chromatic

aberration

virtual, smaller

than the object,

and inverted.

spherical

aberration

real, smaller than

the object, and

inverted.

atmospheric

refraction

real, larger than

the object, and

inverted

aberration.

Geometric

40 Optics

B

A light beam passes through the air and strikes the surface of a plastic block.

Which pair of statements correctly

describes the phase changes for the reflected wave and the transmitted

E

wave?

Geometric

41 Optics

The diagram below shows the path taken by a monochromatic light ray

traveling through three media. The

symbols v1, 1, and f1 represent the speed, wavelength, and frequency of the

light in Medium 1, respectively.

Which of the following relationships for the light in the three media is true?

E

Geometric

42 Optics

A real object is located in front of a convex lens at a distance greater than the

focal length of the lens. What type

of image is formed and what is true of the images size compared to that of

the object?

B

Geometric

43 Optics

Geometric

44 Optics

A thin film of thickness t and index of refraction 1.33 coats a glass with index

of

refraction 1.50 as shown to the right. Which of the following thicknesses t will

not

reflect light with wavelength 640 nm in air?

C

Which of the following wave properties cannot be demonstrated by all kinds

of waves?

A

160 nm

240 nm

360 nm

480 nm

640 nm

Polarization

Diffraction

Superposition

Refraction

Geometric

45 Optics

Lenses in fine quality cameras are coated to reduce the reflection from the

lenses. If the coating material has an

index of refraction between that of air and glass, what thickness of coating will

produce the least reflection?

A

wavelength in the wavelength in the

coating

coating

onehalf of the

wavelength in the

coating

Frequency

the amount of

reflection is

independent of the

one wavelength in thickness of the

the coating

coating.

Geometric

46 Optics

A beam of light from the air is incident on a transparent block of material. The

angle of incidence is 49 while

the angle of refraction is 30. What is the velocity of light in the transparent

B

material?

1.8 x 108

m/s

2.3 x 108

m/s

3.0 x 108

m/s

4.5 x 108

m/s

Geometric

47 Optics

of refraction of 1.25 at an angle of

incidence of 40. What would be the wavelength of the light in the liquid?

320 nm

400 nm

500 nm

625 nm

780 nm

Geometric

48 Optics

Light strikes three different thin films, which are in air, as shown. If t denotes

the film thickness and denotes

the wavelength of the light in the film, which films will produce constructive

interference as seen by the

observer?

I only

II only

III only

same object type no matter what.

The transmitted wave never has a

phase change, but hitting the more

dense block causes the

reflection to flip 180 degrees

MoreLess dense bend away, Less

More dense bend towards. The more

the bend, the bigger the

difference in ns this shows n2

> n1

> n3. More n means less speed, so v3

> v1

> v2 but this

is not a choice. Speed goes with

wavelength, the larger the speed the

more the , so 3

> 1

> 2

Based on various ray diagrams drawn

with the object behind the focal point,

the image is always

real but its size depends on where it is

in location to the focal point

First determine the film. n1

1

= nfilm film (1)(640) = (1.33) film

film = 481 nm.

When the wave reaches each boundary

is undergoes a phase shift at each

boundary so this

essentially cancels out the phase shift.

To not reflect any light, we want to have

destructive

interference. In order to get destructive

interference we need to get a total of

or 1 or

2 phase differences from moving

in the film thickness. These phase

differences require a

thickness equal to film , film , 5/4

film 360 nm thickness matches the

film possibility.

40.geometricoptics.

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41.geometricoptics.

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43.geometricoptics.

png

For airfilmglass of progressively

increasing index, to produce destructive

interference we need

of a wavelength in the coating. See

question 43 for the reason.

First use ni

sin i

= nr

sin r

To find nr

. Then use n = c / v to find v.

Use n1

1

= n2

2 (1)(500) = (1.25) 2

For all three diagrams, there is a

phase shift when entering the film but

no phase shift when

exiting. To produce constructive

interference, a total extra phase

different of from moving in

the film thickness is needed so odd

multiples of will produce

48.geometricoptics.

constructive interference

png

Geometric

49 Optics

Geometric

50 Optics

Geometric

51 Optics

Geometric

52 Optics

The critical angle for a transparent material in air is 30. The index of

refraction of the material is most nearly

E

An object is placed as shown in the figure above. The center of curvature C

and the focal point F of the

reflecting surface are marked. As compared with the object, the image formed

by the reflecting surface is

E

0.33

0.5

1.5

same size

converging lens to

produce a real

image of the print

mirror to produce a

virtual image of the

diverging lens to

produce a real

image of the print

ni

sin c

= nr

sin (90) ni

sin (30) = (1) ni

2 =2

inverted and

smaller

diverging lens to

produce a virtual

image of the print

They are all the

same

When one uses a magnifying glass to read fine print, one uses a

converging lens to

produce a virtual

image of the print

Blue

Green

Red

Violet

0.30 meter from

the lens on the

opposite side from

the object

Converting a plane

wave front into a

spherical wave

front

0.10 meter from

the lens on the

same side as the

object

0.10 meter from

the lens on the

same side as the

object

Forming a virtual

image of a real

object

II only

Forming a real

Forming a real

upright image of a inverted image of a Converging lenses make real images

real upright object real upright object but they are always inverted

When in front of the focal point of a

converging lens, it acts as a magnifying

glass. The other

optical instruments can never make

II and III only

I, II and III

larger images.

Using the math, 1/f = 1/do

+ 1/di

, di

= 60, since its virtual, the image is on

the same side as

the object which is why it is in the left.

30 cm to the right (E) 60 cm to the

You would look through this lens from

of the lens

right of the lens

the right side

Light would arrive Light leaving a

at Y in less time by source at Y and

taking a straight

traveling to X

A fact about refraction problems, the

line path from X to would follow the

angles going one way would be the

Y than it does

same path shown same as the angles

taking the path

above, but in

going to other way assuming total

shown above.

reverse.

internal reflection does not occur.

Converging lenses have centers that

are thick and top and bottom parts that

II, III, and IV

II, IV, and V

are thinner.

In flat (plane) mirrors, the image is

simply flipped to the other side of the

D

E

mirror.

Choice I. is true because a soap bubble

is a thin film. The colors produced are

due to the reinforcement of different

colors due to variations in the thickness

of the soap bubble. In order to see

these interference results, the thickness

of the film must be similar in magnitude

to the wavelength of the light. Since the

film is so small, this shows that light has

a very small wavelength. Choice II. also

shows light has a very small

wavelength because a diffraction

grating has very tiny slits in it and to

produce the pattern seen the

wavelength of the light has to be on a

similar scale as the size of the

openings. Choice III. is not true

because all waves regardless of their

wavelength bend and it does not reflect

II and III only

I, II, and III

on their wavelength size.

From practicing ray diagrams, this

should be known. Or a sample could be

done to determine it. Mathematically

this can be shown by using an extreme

example. Suppose do = 1000, and f =

10. Using the lens equation, di = 10.1.

Then decrease do down to 20 and di =

located at a

20. So for the range of values of do

distance between f located at a

larger than 20, the image distance will

and 2f from the

distance more than fall between 1020 which is between f

lens

f from the lens

and 2f.

Geometric

53 Optics

An illuminated object is placed 0.30 meter from a lens whose focal length is

0.15 meter. The image is

Geometric

54 Optics

with spherical surfaces?

D

0.30 meter from

the lens on the

opposite side from

the object

Converting a

spherical wave

front into a plane

wave front

Geometric

55 Optics

The image of the arrow is larger than the arrow itself in which of the following

cases?

A

I only

Geometric

56 Optics

focal length 60 centimeters. Where is the image of the stamp located?

the lens

the lens

of the lens

Geometric

57 Optics

Light leaves a source at X and travels to Y along the path shown above.

Which of the following statements is

correct?

The index of

refraction is the

same for the two

media.

in medium 2 than down at the

in medium 1.

interface.

Geometric

58 Optics

Which three of the glass lenses above, when placed in air, will cause parallel

rays of light to converge?

B

I, III, and V

I, IV, and V

Geometric

59 Optics

labeled points is the position of the image?

Geometric

60 Optics

Observations that indicate that visible light has a wavelength much shorter

than a centimeter include which of

the following?

I only

III only

I and II only

Geometric

61 Optics

If the object distance for a converging thin lens is more than twice the focal

length of the lens, the image is

object

focal point

49.geometricoptics.

png

A magnifying glass is a lens, and is

produced by a converging lens. It is

virtual.

All light waves are EM and travel at

light speed

Using the math, 1/f = 1/do

+ 1/di

, and M = di

/ do

di

= 0.10 m, M = +0.33

55.geometricoptics.

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Geometric

62 Optics

from a distant star. The distance between the mirror and the image of the star

is most nearly

B

Geometric

66 Optics

When light passes from air into water, the frequency of the light remains the

same. What happens to the speed and the wavelength of light as it crosses

the boundary in going from air into water?

A physics student places an object 6.0 cm from a converging lens of focal

length 9.0 cm. What is the magnitude of the magnification of the image

produced?

An object is placed at a distance of 1.5f from a converging lens of focal length

f, as shown. What type of image is formed and what is its size relative to the

object?

A light ray passes through substances 1, 2, and 3, as shown. The indices of

refraction for these three substances are n1, n2, and n3, respectively. Ray

segments in 1 and in 3 are parallel. From the directions of the ray, one can

conclude that

Geometric

67 Optics

refraction of about 1.5 for visible light, producing a spectrum. Initially, the

prism is in a glass aquarium filled with air, as shown above. If the aquarium is

filled with water with an index of refraction of 1.3, which of the following is

true?

E

Geometric

63 Optics

Geometric

64 Optics

Geometric

65 Optics

Geometric

68 Optics

Geometric

69 Optics

Geometric

70 Optics

Geometric

71 Optics

Geometric

72 Optics

mirror, as shown above. Which of the following shows the apparent position

and orientation of the object's image?

The spherical mirror shown has a center of curvature at point c. Which point

is nearest to the focal point?

An object is placed in front of a converging thin lens at a distance from the

center of the lens equal to half the focal length. Compared to the object, the

image is

Which of the following is characteristic of both sound and light waves?

separates two materials, each of which has

an index of refraction less than nf. A

monochromatic beam of light is incident

normally on the film, as shown above. If the

light has wavelength within the film,

maximum constructive interference between

the incident beam and the reflected beam

occurs for which of the following film

thicknesses?

0.75 m

1.0 m

2.0 m

0.6

1.5

3.6 18 then M = di / do M = 3

n3 must be the

same as n1

n2 must be less

than n1

n2 must be less

than n3

No spectrum is

produced.

A spectrum is

produced, but the

deviation of the

beam is opposite

to that in air.

The positions of

red and violet are

reversed in the

spectrum.

n1 must be equal

to 1.00

The spectrum

produced has

greater separation

between red and

violet than that

produced in air.

must be the same

The spectrum

produced has less

separation

between red and

violet than that

produced in air.

A

E

Geometric

75 Optics

Geometric

76 Optics

A large lens is used to focus an image of an object onto a screen. If the left

half of the lens is covered with a dark card, which of the following occurs

Geometric

74 Optics

0.50 m

, as shown above. The figure shows five possible subsequent paths for the

light ray. Which path is possible if medium I is air and medium II is glass?

E

A light ray R in medium I strikes a sphere of medium II with angle of incidence

, as shown above. The figure shows five possible subsequent paths for the

light ray. Which path is possible if medium I is glass and medium II is air?

A

An object is placed on the axis of a converging thin lens of focal length 2 cm,

at a distance of 8 cm from the lens.The distance between the image and the

lens is most nearly

E

Geometric

73 Optics

0.25 m

be all horizontal. Horizontal light hitting

a concave mirror will all converge at the

focal point to form an image of the star

directly on the focal point. With a radius

of curvature = 1m, the focal point is 0.5

m.

When light goes in higher indices of

refraction, itslows down. Since v = f

and f remains constant, when v

63.geometricoptics.

decreases decrease with it.

png

inverted and

upright and larger upright and smaller inverted and larger smaller

They are

They are

They travel with

They can be easily

longitudinal waves. transverse waves. the same velocity. polarized

numbers and do the math

If the angle in equals the angle out in a

3 tier medium arrangement, then the

substances on the outsides must be the

same.

The larger the difference between ns

the more the rays bend. When the

water is added, the difference between

ns is less so the amount of bending is

less.

In a flat mirror, the image can be found

by flipping the object to the other side,

basically folding it over the mirror onto

the other side.

The focal point is half the center of

curvature.

When an object is placed in front of the

focal point of a converging lens, the

lens acts as a magnifying glass.

65.geometricoptics.

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66.geometricoptics.

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69.geometricoptics.

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same size

They give rise to

interference effects All waves demonstrate interference.

/2

/4

both sides, such as soap surrounded by

air. So as the light ray hits the first

boundary it makes a phase flip, but

does not make the flip at the second

boundary. To be constructive, we need

to cover a total of extra phase shift

due to traveling in the film thickness. So

the thickness should be .

72.geometricoptics.

png

Medium I (air) is surrounding the

sphere on both sides. As it enters the

sphere, it goes lessmore so bends

towards the normal line (leaving D or E

as the possibly answers). When the ray

reaches the far edge of the sphere, it

goes from moreless so should bend

73-74.

away from the normal line.

geometricoptics.png

scenario in the last question.

0.4 cm

0.8 cm

1.6 cm

2.0 cm

2.7 cm

The image

becomes blurred

The image

becomes dimmer

No image is

formed

The left half of the the image

image disappears disappears

2.67.

When light from multiple locations pass

through a given part of a lens to form

an image, only a small portion of a lens

is needed to form the image. The more

of a lens, the more light rays that can

be bent by it to each image location.

This simply makes the image brighter.

By covering half the lens, all of the

incoming rays still bend all the same

ways but there are less total rays being

bent to given locations on the image so

it is dimmer. This can easily be seen by

looking at a lens that has only

horizontal rays approaching it. All of

these rays converge to the focal point;

covering a portion of the lens still

focuses the rays on the focal point, just

less of them.

73-74.

geometricoptics.png

Geometric

77 Optics

Which of the following statements are true for both sound waves and

electromagnetic waves?

Geometric

78 Optics

colors when it passes through a glass prism. Red light is

refracted through a smaller angle than violet light because

red light has a

slower speed in

glass than violet

light

faster speed in

glass than violet

light

slower speed in

the incident beam

than violet light

incident beam than greater intensity

violet light

than violet light

Geometric

79 Optics

as shown, is partially reflected and partially refracted. The

index of refraction n for each of the two media is given in

the figure. How do the angle of reflection and the angle of

refraction compare with the angle of incidence ?

Geometric

80 Optics

0.30 m to the left of the lens, where is the image of the

object located?

the lens

of the lens

At the lens

of the lens

of the lens

Geometric

81 Optics

Which of the following characterizes the image when the object is in the

position shown?

smaller than the

larger than the

object

object

Virtual, upright,

larger than the

and larger than the and smaller than

object

object

the object

Geometric

82 Optics

On a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s, a ship sounds its whistle. The

echo of the sound from the shore is

heard at the ship 6.0 s later. How far is the ship from the shore?

C

56.7 m

1020 m

113 m

1 Kinematics

perpendicular to face ab, as shown in the diagram. The ray enters

the prism and strikes face ac at the critical angle. What is the

index of refraction of the prism?

A car travels 30 miles at an average speed of 60 miles per hour and then 30

miles at an average speed of 30

miles per hour. The average speed the car over the 60 miles is

35 m.p.h.

40 m.p.h.

2 Kinematics

3 Kinematics

4 Kinematics

Geometric

83 Optics

5 Kinematics

6 Kinematics

The graph above shows the velocity versus time for an object moving in a

straight line. At what time after t = 0 does the object again pass through its

initial position?

C

A body moving in the positive x direction passes the origin at time t =

0. Between t = 0 and t = 1 second, the body has a constant speed of 24

meters per second. At t = 1 second, the body is given a constant

acceleration of 6 meters per second squared in the negative x direction.

The position x of the body at t = 11 seconds is

C

1/2/2013 sqrt(3/2)

2040 m

Between 0 and 1 s 1 s

Total distance = 60 miles, total time =

1.5 hours; average speed = total

45 m.p.h.

10 m.p.h.

53 m.p.h.

distance/total time

Area bounded by the curve is the

displacement By inspection of particle A

They are the same

the positive area

they are in the

distance from the

between 0 and 1s will be countered by

same location at t origin, but in

It is not possible to an equal negative area between 1 and

= 2 seconds

opposite directions determine

2s.

It is not possible to Constant non-zero acceleration would

both A and B

neither A nor B

determine

be a straight line with a non-zero slope

Area bounded by the curve is the

displacement By inspection of particle A

the positive area

between 0 and 1s will be countered by

It is not possible

an equal negative area between 1 and

both A and B

neither A nor B

to determine

2s.

Area bounded by the curve is the

displacement By inspection the

negative area between 0 and 1s

will be countered by an equal negative

Between 1 and 2 s 2 s

Between 2 and 3 s area sometime between 1 and 2s.

#ERROR!:parse

36 m

#ERROR!:parse

(2sqrt3)/3

4080 m

choices.

Bending of a wave (refraction) is due to

the speed change at an angle. The

more the speed

change, the more the bending. Hence,

the violet bends more so must have a

larger speed change

(more slowing), so the red is faster.

Additionally, we can note that since the

violet slows and

bends more, the index of refraction in

glass for a violet light is higher than the

index for a red

light.

Based on the law of reflection, the

angle of reflection must be the same as

the incoming angle.

When the light enters the ice it is going

moreless so bends away from the

normal. This means

that r is larger than i.

Using the math, 1/f = 1/do

+ 1/di

, di

= 1.2. Its virtual so its on the same

side as the object,

which puts the image on the left side of

the lens.

This is a magnifying glass, which can

be memorized or the math can be done

to prove the

answer.

The time for the sound to travel the one

way distance to the shore is half of the

total time

(6/2 =3 sec). Then use v= d /t to

determine the distance.

From the diagram, the angle at the

bottom of the small top triangle is 30

so when we draw the

normal line on that slanted interface,

the angle of incidence there is 60. We

are told this is the

critical angle which means the angle of

refraction of the scenario is 90. Now

we use

ni

sin c

= nr

sin (90) ni

sin(60) = (1)(1) ni

= 1/ sin 60 ni

1/ (root3 / 2)

75 m

99 m

seconds; d2= v0t + at2; d = d1+ d2

77.geometricoptics.

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80-81.

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80-81.

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2-4.kinematics.png

2-4.kinematics.png

5.kinematics.png

8 Kinematics

a function of time, t. The acceleration of this object must be

A

A 2-kilogram block rests at the edge of a platform that is 10 meters above

level ground. The block is launched horizontally from the edge of the platform

with an initial speed of 3 meters per second. Air resistance is negligible. The

time it will take for the block to reach the ground is most nearly

C

9 Kinematics

A diver initially moving horizontally with speed v dives off the edge of a

vertical cliff and lands in the water a

distance d from the base of the cliff. How far from the base of the cliff would

the diver have landed if the diver

initially had been moving horizontally with speed 2v?

(2d)^1/2

2d

4d

10 Kinematics

. A truck traveled 400 meters north in 80 seconds, and then it traveled 300

meters east in 70 seconds. The

magnitude of the average velocity of the truck was most nearly

1.2 m/s

3.3 m/s

4.6 m/s

6.6 m/s

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

constant, so is the velocity, therefore

the acceleration must be zero

7.kinematics.png

For a horizontal projectile, the initial

speed does not affect the time in the

air. Use v0y = 0 with

3.0 s

10 m = gt^2

The time in the air for a horizontal

projectile is dependent on the height

and independent of the

cant be

initial speed. Since the time in the air is

determined without the same at speed v and at speed 2v,

knowing the height the distance (d = vt)

of the cliff

will be twice as much at a speed of 2v

Average velocity = total

displacement/total time; magnitude of

total displacement = 500 m (3-4-5

9.3 m/s

triangle) and total time = 150 seconds 10.kinematics.png

The acceleration is constant and

negative which means the slope of the

velocity time graph must have a

constant negative slope. (Only one

choice has the correct acceleration

(E)

anyway)

11.kinematics.png

1.5 m/s2

3.0 m/s2

6.0 m/s2

10.0 m/s2

12.0 m/s2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

7 Kinematics

11 Kinematics

12 Kinematics

13 Kinematics

14 Kinematics

15 Kinematics

16 Kinematics

17 Kinematics

18 Kinematics

A projectile is fired with initial velocity v at an angle with the horizontal and

follows the trajectory shown

above. Which of the following pairs of graphs best represents the vertical

components of the velocity and

acceleration, v and a, respectively, of the projectile as functions of time t?

An object is released from rest on a planet that has no atmosphere. The

object falls freely for 3.0 meters in the

first second. What is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on the

planet?

Which of the following diagrams best shows the direction of the acceleration

of the ball at point P?

A rock of mass m is thrown horizontally off a building from a height h, as

shown above. The speed of the rock as it leaves the throwers hand at the

edge of the building is v0. How much time does it take the rock to travel from

the edge of the building to the ground?

A ball is thrown straight up in the air. When the ball reaches its highest point,

which of the following is true?

E

The graph above represents position x versus time t for an object being acted

on by a constant force. The average speed during the interval between 1 s

and 2 s is most nearly

D

An object slides off a roof 10 meters above the ground with an initial

horizontal speed of 5 meters per second as shown above. The time between

the object's leaving the roof and hitting the ground is most nearly

C

zero

zero

increasing

decreasing

0.3 s

1.0 s

1.4 s

2.0 s

(C)

(D)

It has zero

It is in equilibrium. acceleration.

It has maximum

momentum

It has maximum

kinetic energy.

2 m/s

4 m/s

5 m/s

6 m/s

8 m/s

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

(B)

car X.

same acceleration.

X.

car X.

car X.

same acceleration.

19 Kinematics

20 Kinematics

From time t = 0 to time t = 40 seconds, the areas under both curves are

equal. Therefore, which of the following is true at time t = 40 seconds?

21 Kinematics

Which of the following pairs of graphs shows the distance traveled versus

time and the speed versus time for an object uniformly accelerated from rest? E

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

22 Kinematics

distance of 1 meter during the first second. The distance traveled by the

object during the time interval from t = 1 second to t = 2 seconds is

1m

2m

3m

4m

0.05 hr

0.1 hr

1 hr

10 hr

5m

10 m

500 m

1,000 m

23 Kinematics

24 Kinematics

per hour in still water, and wish to cross a river 1 kilometer wide to a point

directly across from their starting point. If the speed of the water in the river

is 5 kilometers per hour, how much time is required for the crossing?

E

A projectile is fired from the surface of the Earth with a speed of 200 meters

per second at an angle of 30 above the horizontal. If the ground is level,

what is the maximum height reached by the projectile?

C

At the top of its path, the vertical

component of the velocity is zero, which

makes the speed at the top a minimum.

With symmetry, the projectile has the

same speed when at the same height,

whether moving up or down.

13.kinematics.png

g points down in projectile motion.

Always.

14.kinematics.png

(initial vertical component of velocity is

(E)

zero)

15.kinematics.png

At every point of a projectiles free-fall,

the acceleration is the acceleration due

None of the above to gravity

X.

car X.

equal to g

time = (8 m 2 m)/(1 second)

For a horizontal projectile; h = gt2C

(initial vertical component of velocity is

(E)

zero)

Car X is

The area under the curve is the

accelerating faster displacement. There is more area

than car Y.

under the curve for Car X.

Car X is

Area under the curve is the

accelerating faster displacement. Car Y is moving faster

than car Y.

as they reach the same point.

Uniformly accelerated means the

speed-time graph should be a stright

line with non-zero slope. The

corresponding distance-time graph

should have an increasing slope (curve

(E)

upward)

From the equation d = at2C ,

displacement is proportional to time

squared. Traveling from rest for twice

the time gives 4 times the displacement

(or 4 m). Since the object already

travelled 1 m in the first second, during

the time interval from 1 s to 2 s the

5m

object travelled the remaining 3 m

To travel straight across the river, the

upstream component of the boats

The point directly velocity must cancel the current. Since

across from the

the speed of the current is the same as

starting point

the speed of the boat, the boat must

cannot be reached head directly upstream to cancel the

under these

current, which leaves no component

conditions.

across the river

viy = 200 m/s sin 30 = 100 m/s. At

maximum height vy = 0. Use vy2 =

2,000 m

viy2C + 2gh

17.kinematics.png

18.kinematics.png

19.kinematics.png

20.kinematics.png

21.kinematics.png

25 Kinematics

26 Kinematics

27 Kinematics

28 Kinematics

29 Kinematics

30 Kinematics

31 Kinematics

32 Kinematics

33 Kinematics

34 Kinematics

35 Kinematics

36 Kinematics

37 Kinematics

38 Kinematics

represent the velocities of an object at

times t1, and t2, respectively. The average acceleration of the object between

time t1 and t2

E

A rock is dropped from the top of a 45-meter tower, and at the same time a

ball is thrown from the top of the

tower in a horizontal direction. Air resistance is negligible. The ball and the

rock hit the level ground a

distance of 30 meters apart. The horizontal velocity of the ball thrown was

most nearly

B

In the absence of air friction, an object dropped near the surface of the Earth

experiences a constant acceleration

of about 9.8 m/s2 This means that the

A 500-kilogram sports car accelerates uniformly from rest, reaching a speed

of 30 meters per second in 6

seconds. During the 6 seconds, the car has traveled a distance of

At a particular instant, a stationary observer on the ground sees a package

falling with speed v1 at an angle to

the vertical. To a pilot flying horizontally at constant speed relative to the

ground, the package appears to be

falling vertically with a speed v2 at that instant. What is the speed of the pilot

relative to the ground?

An object is shot vertically upward into the air with a positive initial velocity.

Which of the following correctly

describes the velocity and acceleration of the object at its maximum

elevation?

the same gun is pointed at an

angle of 45 from the vertical, what maximum height can now be reached by

the projectile?

A ball is thrown and follows a parabolic path, as shown above. Air friction is

negligible. Point Q is the highest

point on the path. Which of the following best indicates the direction of the

acceleration, if any, of the ball at

point Q?

The velocity of a projectile at launch has a horizontal component vh and a

vertical component vv. Air resistance

is negligible. When the projectile is at the highest point of its trajectory, which

of the following shows the

vertical and horizontal components of its velocity and the vertical component

of its acceleration?

The graph above shows the velocity v as a function of time t for an object

moving in a straight line. Which of

the following graphs shows the corresponding displacement x as a function of

time t for the same time interval?

An object is dropped from rest from the top of a 400 m cliff on Earth. If air

resistance is negligible, what is the

distance the object travels during the first 6 s of its fall?

A target T lies flat on the ground 3 m from the side of a building that is 10 m

tall, as shown above. A student

rolls a ball off the horizontal roof of the building in the direction of the target.

Air resistance is negligible. The

horizontal speed with which the ball must leave the roof if it is to strike the

target is most nearly

(A) zero

(A) 5 m/s

(B) 10 m/s

object increases

9.8 m/s during

each second

of east

of westwas

Acceleration is proportional to v. v =

v2 v1 = v2 + ( v1)

25.kinematics.png

3 seconds to strike the ground. In that

time, the ball thrown traveled 30 m. v =

d/t

(D) 20 m/s

object as it falls is

9.8 m/s.

(E) rate of change

of the

displacement with

(C) object falls 9.8 (D) object falls 9.8 respect to time for

meters during

meters during the the object equals 9.8 m/s2 can be thought of as a change

each second

first second only

9.8 m/s2

in speed of 9.8 m/s per second.

15 m

30 m

60 m

90 m

180 m

(A) v1 + v2 (

B) v1 v2

(C) v2 v1

^1/2

^1/2

vf)/2 = d/t

velocity of package relative to observer

on ground vpg = v1 =

velocity of package relative to pilot vpp

= v2 =

velocity of pilot relative to ground vpo =

Putting these together into a right

triangle yields vpg^2 + v2^2 = v1^2

h/4

h/(2*2^1/2)

h/2

h/(2^1/2)

its peak, it never stops accelerating

downward.

30.kinematics.png

Maximum height of a projectile is found

from vy = 0 at max height and vy^2 =

viy^2 + 2gh and gives hmax = viy^2/2g

= (vi sin)^2/2g. Fired straight up, the

angle = 90 and we have vi = (2gh)^1/2.

Plugging this initial velocity into the

equation for a 45 angle (sin 45 = 1/

(2^1/2)) gives hnew = ( (2gh)^1/2 * 1/

(2^1/2) )^2 /2g = h/2

Always.

thorughout the flight. g remains the

same as well.

33.kinematics.png

34.kinematics..png

30 m

60 m

120 m

180 m

360 m

The graph above shows velocity v versus time t for an object in linear motion.

Which of the following is a

possible graph of position x versus time t for this object?

A

A student is testing the kinematic equations for uniformly accelerated motion

by measuring the time it takes for

light-weight plastic balls to fall to the floor from a height of 3 m in the lab. The

student predicts the time to fall

using g as 9.80 m/s2 but finds the measured time to be 35% greater. Which

of the following is the most likely

cause of the large percent error?

D

3/10 m/s

2 m/s

3/2 m/s

3 m/s

10 (5/3) m/s

The acceleration

due to gravity is

70% greater than

9.80 m/s2 at this

location.

The acceleration

due to gravity is

70% less than 9.80

m/s2 at this

location.

Air resistance

increases the

downward

acceleration.

the plastic balls is are not truly

not uniform.

spherical.

32.kinematics.png

For a horizontal projectile, the initial

speed does not affect the time in the

air. Use v0y = 0 with 10 m = gt2 to

get 2t = For the horzontal part of the

motion; v = d/t

36.kinematics.png

A velocity-time graph represents the

slope of the displacement-time graph.

Analyzing the v-t graph shows a

constant slope, then a decreasing slope

to zero, becoming negative and

increasing, then a constant slope. Note

this is an analysis of the values of v, not

the slope of the graph itself

37.kinematics.png

unrealistic; C is wrong, air resistance

should decrease the acceleration; E is

irrelevant)

41 Kinematics

An object is thrown with velocity v from the edge of a cliff above level ground.

Neglect air resistance. In order

for the object to travel a maximum horizontal distance from the cliff before

hitting the ground, the throw should

be at an angle with respect to the horizontal of

C

Starting from rest at time t = 0, a car moves in a straight line with an

acceleration given by the accompanying

graph. What is the speed of the car at t = 3 s?

D

A flare is dropped from a plane flying over level ground at a velocity of 70 m/s

in the horizontal direction. At the instant the flare is released, the plane begins

to accelerate horizontally at 0.75 m/s2. The flare takes 4.0 s to reach the

ground. Assume air resistance is negligible. Relative to a spot directly under

the flare at release, the flare lands

D

42 Kinematics

As seen by the pilot of the plane (in question #41) and measured relative to a

spot directly under the plane when the flare lands, the flare lands

B

39 Kinematics

40 Kinematics

greater than 60

above the

horizontal

greater than 45

but less than 60

above the

horizontal

but less than 45

above the

horizontal

zero

but less than 45

below the

horizontal

1.0 m/s

2.0 m/s

6.0 m/s

10.5 m/s

12.5 m/s

directly on the

spot.

6.0 m in front of

the spot.

274 m in front of

the spot.

280 m in front of

the spot.

286 m in front of

the spot

plane.

plane.

plane.

plane.

the plane

13.7 m/s

9.8 m/s

6.3 m/s

2.8 m/s

2.4 m/s

45 Kinematics

The graph above is a plot of position versus time. For which labeled region is

the velocity positive and the acceleration negative?

E

A child left her home and started walking at a constant velocity. After a time

she stopped for a while and then continued on with a velocity greater than

she originally had. All of a sudden she turned around and walked very quickly

back home. Which of the following graphs best represents the distance

versus time graph for her walk?

B

In a rescue attempt, a hovering helicopter drops a life preserver to a swimmer

being swept downstream by a

river current of constant velocity v. The helicopter is at a height of 9.8 m. The

swimmer is 6.0 m upstream from

a point directly under the helicopter when the life preserver isreleased. It

lands 2.0 m in front of the swimmer.

How fast is the current flowing? Neglect air resistance.

D

46 Kinematics

A child tosses a ball directly upward. Its total time in the air is T. Its maximum

height is H. What is its height

after it has been in the air a time T/4? Neglect air resistance.

E

H/4

H/3

H/2

2H/3

47 Kinematics

A whiffle ball is tossed straight up, reaches a highest point, and falls back

down. Air resistance is not negligible.

Which of the following statements are true?

I only

II only

I & II only

48 Kinematics

A truck driver travels three-fourths the distance of his run at one velocity (v)

and then completes his run at one

half his original velocity (v). What was the truckers average speed for the

trip?

0.85v

0.80v

0.75v

0.70v

0.65v

49 Kinematics

Above is a graph of the distance vs. time for car moving along a road.

According the graph, at which of the

following times would the automobile have been accelerating positively?

min.

min.

to 60 min

50 Kinematics

A large beach ball is dropped from the ceiling of a school gymnasium to the

floor about 10 meters below.

Which of the following graphs would best represent its velocity as a function

oftime? (do not neglect air

resistance)

51 Kinematics

At what time would the car be moving with the greatest velocity?

0 sec

2 sec

4 sec

6 sec

8 sec

43 Kinematics

44 Kinematics

3H/4

horizontal travel to the original

elevation, but the smaller angle causes

the projectile to have a greater

horizontal component of velocity, so

given the additional time of travel allows

such a trajectory to advance a greater

horizontal distance. In other words

given enough time the smaller angle of

launch gives a parabola which will

eventual cross the parabola of the 45

launch.

39.kinematics.png

The area under the curve of an

acceleration-time graph is the change

in speed.

40.kinematics.png

the flare travelled 70 m/s 4 s = 280 m

horizontally.

In the 4 seconds to reach the ground,

the flare travelled 70 m/s 4 s = 280 m

horizontally. The plane travelled d = vit

+ at2 = (70 m/s)(4 s) + (0.5)(0.75

m/s2)(4 s)2B = 280 m + 6 m, or 6 m

ahead of the flare.

Positive velocity = positive slope.

Negative acceleration = decreasing

slope (or downward curvature

The slope of the line represents her

velocity. Beginning positive and

constant, going to zero, then positive

and larger than the initial, then negative

while the line returns to the time axis

Dropped from a height of 9.8 m, the life

preserver takes (9.8 m = gt2

); t = 1.4 seconds to reach the water. In

that 1.4 seconds the swimmer covered

(6.0 m 2.0 m) = 4.0 m meaning the

water

speed is (4.0 m)/(1.4 s)

The ball takes time T/2 to reach height

H. Using vy= 0 at maximum height and

d/t gives the initial speed as 4H/T. In

addition from the top H = g(T/2)2

=gT2/8. Plugging in a time T/4 gives d=

(4H/T)(T/4) + (g)(T/4)2= H

(gT2/8) = H

While the object momentarily stops at

its peak, it never stops accelerating

downward. Without

air resistance, symmetry dictates time

up = time down. With air resistance

considered, the ball

will have a larger average velocity on

the way up and a lower average

velocity on the way down

since it will land with a smaller speed

than it was thrown, meaning the ball

takes longer to fall.

Total distance = d. Time for first d is

t1

= (d)/v = 3d/4v. Time for second part

is t2

= ( d)/( v) = 2d/4v. Total time is then

t1+ t2= 5d/4v. Average speed = d/

(5d/4v)

Positive acceleration is an increasing

slope (including negative slope

increasing toward zero) or

upward curvature

With air resistance, the acceleration

(the slope of the curve) will decrease

toward zero as the ball

reached terminal velocity. Note: without

air resistance, choice (A) would be

correct

Since for the first 4 seconds, the car is

accelerating positively the entire time,

the car will be

moving fastest just beofre slowing down

after t = 4 seconds.

43.kinematics.png

44.kinematics.PNG

47.kinematics.PNG

48.kinematics.PNG

50.kinematics.PNG

51.kinematics.PNG

v will increase to

v will increase

some critical value v will remain

monotonically with vmax and then

constant,

.

decrease.

independent of .

the change in velocity. The car begins

from rest with an

increasing positive velocity, after 4

seconds the car begins to slow and the

area under the curve

from 4 to 8 seconds couters the

increase in velocity form 0 to 4

seconds, bringing the car to rest.

However, the car never changed

direction and was moving away from its

original starting

6 sec

8 sec

position the entire time.

52.kinematics.PNG

The ball will land with a speed given by

the equaion v2= vi2+ 2gH or v = 2gH.

Rebounding with the speed gives a

new height of vf= 0 = ( 2gH )2+ 2(g)

0.75 m

0.84 m

hnew

The velocity-time graph should

represent the slope of the position-time

graph and the

acceleration-time graph should

represent the slope of the velocity-time

D

E

graph

54.kinematics.PNG

Its a surprising result, but while both

the horizontal and vertical components

v will decrease to

change at a given

some critical value

height with varying launch angle, the

vmin and then

speed (vx2 + vy2)1/2 will be

increase.

None of the above. independent of (try it!)

5.0 m/s2

2.5 m/s2

2.0 m/s2

0.5 m/s2

0.2 m/s2

14 m

20 m

28 m

34 m

56 m

10m

20m

30m

40m

50m

0.1 m/s2

0.2 m/s2

2.0 m/s2

2.8 m/s2

5.6 m/s2

33 m

3(2^3/2) m

3 m

3m

9m

2 m/s

12 m/s

0 m/s

2 m/s

4 m/s

52 Kinematics

At what time would the car be farthest from its original starting position?

0 sec

2 sec

4 sec

53 Kinematics

A ball is dropped 1.0 m to the floor. If the speed of the ball as it rebounds

from the floor is 75% of the speed at

which it struck the floor, how high will the ball rise?

0.28 m

0.35 m

0.56 m

54 Kinematics

Position, Velocity, and

Acceleration vs. Time for a moving particle?

55 Kinematics

56 Kinematics

57 Kinematics

the horizon. At some constant height h above the launch point the speed v of

the object is measured as a function of the initial angle . Which of the

following best describes the dependence of v on ? (Assume that the height

h is achieved, and assume that there is no air resistance.)

C

A bird is flying in a straight line initially at 10 m/s. It uniformly increases its

speed to 15 m/s while covering a distance of 25 m. What is the magnitude of

the acceleration of the bird?

B

A person standing on the edge of a fire escape simultaneously launches two

apples, one straight up with a speed of 7 m/s and the other straight down at

the same speed. How far apart are the two apples 2 seconds after they were

thrown, assuming that neither has hit the ground?

C

vf2=vi2+2ad

d1 = (+7 m/s)(2 s) + 12 (10 m/s2)(2 s)

2; d1 = (7 m/s)(2 s) + 12 (10 m/s2)(2

s)2

Range of a projectile R = (vi2 sin 2)/g

and maximum range occurs at = 45o,

which gives vi = Rg . Maximum height

of a projectile is found from vy = 0 at

max height and vy2 = viy2 + 2gh

and gives hmax = viy2/2g = (vi sin )

2/2g. Maximum range occurs at 45o,

which gives h = (Rg)(sin 45)2/2g

61 Kinematics

meters on level ground. What is the highest point reached by the football if

thrown this maximum range? Ignore air friction.

A bird flying in a straight line, initially at 10 m/s, uniformly increases its speed

to 18 m/s while covering a distance of 40 m. What is the magnitude of the

acceleration of the bird?

A cockroach is crawling along the walls inside a cubical room that has an

edge length of 3 m. If the cockroach starts from the back lower left hand

corner of the cube and finishes in the front upper right hand corner, what is

the magnitude of the displacement of the cockroach?

The position vs. time graph for an object moving in a straight line is shown

below. What is the instantaneous velocity at t = 2 s?

62 Kinematics

Shown below is the velocity vs. time graph for a toy car moving along a

straight line. What is the maximum displacement from start for the toy car?

3m

5m

6.5m

7m

7.5m

63 Kinematics

A cannon fires projectiles on a flat range at a fixed speed but with variable

angle. The maximum range of the cannon is L. What is the range of the

cannon when it fires at an angle /6 above the horizontal? Ignore air.

3/2 L

1/2 L

1/3 L

1/2 L

1/3 L

0.22 m/s2

0.33 m/s2

1.0 m/s2

9.8 m/s2

30 m/s2

2h

3h

4h

h2

vf2=vi2+2ad

The diagonal of a face of the cube is 3

2 m. The diagonal across the cube itself

is the hypoteneuse of this face

diagonal and a cube edge

Instantaneous velocity is the slope of

the line at that point

Displacement is the area under the

curve. Maximum displacement is just

before the car turns D around at 2.5

seconds.

Range of a projectile R = (vi2 sin 2)/g

and maximum range occurs at = 45o,

which gives vi = A Rg .

Using=30ogivesRnew =Rsin60o

advanced question!) The time for one

bounce is found from v = v + (g)t

which gives t = 2v/g. A We are

summing the time for all bounces, while

the velocity (and hence the time)

converge in a geometric series with the

ratio vn+1/vn = r <1 to 1 1r

The acceleration is the slope of the

curve at 90 seconds.

From the equation d = 12 at2,

displacement is proportional to time

squared. Traveling from rest for twice

the time gives 4 times the displacement

(or 4 h). Since the object already

travelled h in

the first second, during the time interval

from 1 s to 2 s the object travelled the

remaining 3h

45m

60m

90m

105m

120m

d=vit+12gt2

58 Kinematics

59 Kinematics

60 Kinematics

64 Kinematics

65 Kinematics

66 Kinematics

67 Kinematics

due to the inelastic nature of the collision, such that if the speed just before

hitting the ground on a bounce is v, then the speed just after the bounce is rv,

where r < 1 is a constant. Calculate the total length of time that the ball

remains bouncing, assuming that any time associated with the actual contact

of the ball with the ground is negligible.

A

The graph shows velocity as a function of time for a car. What was the

acceleration at time t = 90 seconds?

B

An object is released from rest and falls a distance h during the first second of

time. How far will it fall during the next second of time?

C

A stone is thrown straight downward with a speed of 20 m/s from the top of a

tall building. If the stone strikes the ground 3.0 s later, about how tall is the

building? Assume air resistance is negligible.

D

61.kinematics

62.kinematics

64.kinematics

65.kinematics

68 Kinematics

A coyote can run at a speed of 20 m/s while a prairie dog can manage only

5.5 m/s. If a prairie dog is 45 m in front of a coyote, what is the maximum time

it has to reach its hole without being caught?

B

2.3 s

3.1 s

5.4 s

5.9 s

8.2 s

100 m

510 m

610 m

1020 m

1220 m

and the prairie dog is 14.5 m/s. To

cover the 45 m B distance between

them will take t = d/v = (45 m)/(14.5

m/s)

Forthefirstpartofthetrip(thethrust):d1

=vit+12at2 =0m+12(50m/s2)(2s)2

=100m For the second part, we first find

the velocity after the thrust v = at = 100

m/s and at the maximumheightvf =0,

sotofindd2 weusevf2 =vi2 +2ad2

whichgivesd2 =510m

Total displacement west = 1100 m; total

displacement south = 400 m. Use the

Pythagorean theorem

For a horizontal projectile (viy = 0 m/s)

to fall 1 m takes (using 1 m = 12 gt2)

0.45 seconds. To travel 30 m in this

time requires a speed of d/t = (30 m)/

(0.45 s)

Maximum height of a projectile is found

from vy = 0 m/s at max height and (0

m/s)2 = v2 + 2gh and gives h = v2/2g 2

2

Theheightatwhichtheprojectileismovingwithhalfthespeedisfoundfrom(12v)

=v +2(

g)d which gives d = 3v2/8g = 0.75 h

Looking at choices A, D and E

eliminates the possibility of choices B

and C (each ball increases

its speed by 9.8 m/s each second,

negating those choices anyway). Since

ball A is moving faster

than ball B at all times, it will continue to

pull away from ball B (the relative

speed between the

balls separates them).

73.kinematics

Since they all have the same horizontal

component of the shells velocity, the

shell that spends

the longest time in the air will travel the

farthest. That is the shell launched at

the largest angle

(mass is irrelevant).

74.kinematics

This is merely asking for the horizontal

range of a horizontal projectile. The

time in the air is

found from the height using h = gt^2

which gives t =^1/2(2h/g) . The range is

found using d = vt

Flying into the wind the airliners speed

relative to the ground is 500 km/h 100

km/h = 400 km/h

and a 3000 km trip will take t = d/v = 7.5

hours. Flying with the wind the airliners

speed relative

to the ground is 500 km/h + 100 km/h =

600 km/h and a 3000 km trip will take t

= d/v = 5 hours

making the total time 12.5 hours.

The horizontal component of the

velocity is 28.3 m/s cos 60 = 14.15

m/s. If the ball is in the air

for 5 seconds the horizontal

displacement is x = vxt

since (from rest) d = gt^2, distance is

proportional to time squared. An object

falling for twice

the time will fall four times the distance.

70 Kinematics

A model rocket accelerates from rest upwards at 50 m/s2 for 2.0 s before its

engine burns out. The rocket then coasts upward. What is the maximum

height that the rocket reaches? You may assume air resistance is negligible.

A hunter in a forest walks 800 m west. He then turns south and walks 400 m

before turning west again and walking a final 300 m. At the end of the walk,

what is the magnitude of the hunter's displacement from the beginning?

640 m

890 m

1170 m

1390 m

1500 m

71 Kinematics

Robin Hood aims his longbow horizontally at a target's bull's eye 30 m away.

If the arrow strikes the target exactly 1.0 m below the bull's eye, how fast did

the arrow move as it was shot from the bow? Assume air resistance is

negligible.

6 m/s

13 m/s

33 m/s

67 m/s

150 m/s

72 Kinematics

A baseball is thrown vertically into the air with a velocity v, and reaches a

maximum height h. At what height was the baseball moving with one-half its

original velocity? Assume air resistance is negligible.

.25 h

.33 h

.50 h

.67 h

.75 h

73 Kinematics

Two identical bowling balls A and B are each dropped from rest from the top

of a tall tower as shown in the

diagram below. Ball A is dropped 1.0 s before ball B is dropped but both balls

fall for some time before ball A

strikes the ground. Air resistance can be considered negligible during the fall.

After ball B is dropped but before

ball A strikes the ground, which of the following is true?

E

The distance

between the two

balls decreases.

The distance

The velocity of ball The velocity of ball between the two

A increases with

A decreases with balls remains

respect to ball (B) respect to ball (B) constant.

The distance

between the two

balls increases.

74 Kinematics

The diagram below shows four cannons firing shells with different masses at

different angles of elevation. The

horizontal component of the shell's velocity is the same in all four cases. In

which case will the shell have the

greatest range if air resistance is neglected?

cannon A

cannon B only

cannon C only

cannon D

Both cannons B

and C have the

greatest range

75 Kinematics

Relief supplies are being dropped to flood victims from an airplane flying

horizontally at a speed v. If the

airplane is at an altitude of h above the ground, what distance d in front of the

landing site should the supplies

be dropped?

E

2v^1/2(h/g)

2vh/g

2^1/2(vh/h)

2vh^2/g^2

v^1/2(2h/g)

10hr

12hr

12.5hr

13.5hr

15hr

0m

14.2m

24.5m

70.8m

122.5m

half as far

twice as far

sixteen times as

far

150m

300m

450m

600m

800m

100 m/s up

20 m/s up

20 m/s

40 m/s

100 m/s

200 m/s

400 m/s

v=(vi+vf)/2=d/t

vf = 40 m/s (negative since it is

moving down when landing). Use vf = vi

+ (g)t

For a horizontal projectile (viy = 0 m/s)

to fall 0.05 m takes (using 0.05 m =

gt^2) 0.1 seconds.

To travel 20 m in this time requires a

speed of d/t = (20 m)/(0.1 s)

270 m/s

37 m/s

27 m/s

17 m/s

10 m/s

9.8 m/s each second

69 Kinematics

76 Kinematics

77 Kinematics

78 Kinematics

79 Kinematics

80 Kinematics

81 Kinematics

82 Kinematics

An airliner flies at a speed of 500 km/hr with respect to the air. The jet stream

blows from west to east with a

speed of 100 km/hr. What is the minimum time in which the airliner could fly

3000 km due west and then back

to its original starting position?

C

A punter in a football game kicks the ball with an initial speed of 28.3 m/s at

an angle of 60 with respect to the

ground. The ball is in the air for a total of 5.00 s before hitting the ground. If

we assume that air resistance is

negligible, what would be the ball's horizontal displacement?

D

Starting from rest, object 1 falls freely for 4.0 seconds, and object 2 falls freely

for 8.0 seconds. Compared to

object 1, object 2 falls:

D

A car starts from rest and uniformly accelerates to a final speed of 20.0 m/s in

a time of 15.0 s. How far does the

car travel during this time?

A

A ball is thrown off a high cliff with no horizontal velocity. It lands 6.0 s later

with a velocity of 40 m/s. What

was the initial velocity of the ball?

B

An arrow is aimed horizontally, directly at the center of a target 20 m away.

The arrow hits 0.050 m below the

center of the target. Neglecting air resistance, what was the initial speed of

the arrow?

D

A freely falling body is found to be moving downwards at 27 m/s at one

instant. If it continues to fall, one

second later the object would be moving with a downward velocity closest to: B

0 20 m/s down

83 Kinematics

m/s2. The rocket releases an

instrument package. Immediately after release the acceleration of the

instrument package is:

84 Kinematics

20 m/s^2 up

10 m/s^2 up

A car starts from rest and accelerates at 0.80 m/s2 for 10 s. It then continues

at constant velocity. Twenty

seconds (20 s) after it began to move, the car has a

C

velocity of 8m/s

and has traveled

40m

velocity of 8m/s

and has traveled

80m

velocity of 8m/s

and has traveled

120m

velocity of 16m/s

and has traveled

160m

velocityof 16m/s

and has traveled

320m

A

A

B

B

C

C

D

D

E

E

87 Kinematics

outer surface. A graph of electric potential V as a function of position r is

shown above. Which of the following graphs best represents the magnitude of

the electric field E as a function of position r for this sphere?

C

What is the magnitude of the resultant electric field at the center of the circle? A

With the six particles held fixed, how much work would be required to bring a

seventh particle of charge + Q from very far away and place it at the center of

the circle?

D

88 Kinematics

Which vector best describes the direction of the electric field at point A ?

89 Kinematics

At which point does the electric field have the greatest magnitude?

10 micro joules

20 micro joules

30 micro joules

For the first part v = at = 8.0 m/s and d

= at2 = 40 m. In the second part of

the trip, the speed

remains at 8 m/s, and travels an

additional d = vt = 80 m

Since E = V/d, E represents the

slope of the line on the graph

which could be choice C or D.

since V 1/r the slope is

proportional to V/r = (1/r)/r =

1/r2C which is choice C

by symmetry, all the vectors cancel

W = qV = +Q(Vcenter V) =

+QVcenter where VcenterD = V =

kQ/r = 6kQ/R

E points from high potential to low

potential, perpendicular to equipotential

lines (the direction of the force on a

positive charge)

E is greatest in magnitude where V

changes most rapidly with position (the

largest gradient) which is where the

lines are closest together.

VCE = VE VCB = 10 V. The

amount of work, W = qV = 1 C 10

V = 10 C. Since the external force

must push against the negative charge

to keep it from accelerating and bring it

to rest at point E, the work done by the

external force must be negative

geometry of the capacitor will change

the capacitance, not changes to the

battery or resistor

85 Kinematics

86 Kinematics

0 10 m/s^2 down

91 Kinematics

How much net work must be done by an external force to move a 1 C point

charge from rest at point C to rest at point E ?

B

The plates of a parallelplate capacitor of cross sectional area A are

separated by a distance d, as shown above. Between the plates is a dielectric

material of constant K. The plates are connected in series with a variable

resistance R and a power supply of potential difference V. The capacitance C

of this capacitor will increase if which of the following is decreased?

D

92 Kinematics

A physics problem starts: "A solid sphere has charge distributed uniformly

throughout. . . " It may be correctly concluded that the

93 Kinematics

A uniform spherical charge distribution has radius R.. Which of the following

is true of the electric field strength due to this charge distribution at a distance

r from the center of the charge?

D

It is directly

It is greatest when It is greatest when proportional to r

r = 0.

r = R/2.

when r > R.

94 Kinematics

When a negatively charged rod is brought near, but does not touch, the

initially uncharged electroscope shown above, the leaves spring apart (I).

When the electroscope is then touched with a finger, the leaves collapse (II).

When next the finger and finally the rod are removed, the leaves spring apart

a second time (III). The charge on the leaves is

D

positive in both I

and III

negative in both I

and III

positive in I,

negative in III

95 Kinematics

height of about 2 meters, hits the floor and rebounds to its original height.

Which of the following graphs would best represent the distance above the

floor versus time for the above

bouncing ball?

(A)

(B)

(C)

96 Kinematics

height of about 2 meters, hits the floor and rebounds to its original height.

Which of the following graphs would best represent acceleration versus time

for the bouncing ball?

(A)

(B)

(C)

97 Kinematics

During which time interval would cars #2 and #3 be moving at the same

average speed?

t0 to t1

t1 to t2

t2 to t3

98 Kinematics

About what position after t0 would car #1 and car #2 have been side by side? D

0m

99 Kinematics

car #1

15 m

car #2 and car #3

had the same

average speed

26 m

Which of the three cars had the greatest average speed during these 5

seconds?

90 Kinematics

R

electric field inside

the sphere is the

electric field is zero same as the

everywhere inside electric field

the sphere

outside

K

electric potential

on the surface of

the sphere is not

constant

car #2

20 m/s^2 down

electric potential in

the center of the

sphere is not made For charge to be distributed throughout

sphere is zero

of metal

a material, it must be non-conducting

Advanced question (not exactly in the B

curriculum, but interesting). Like gravity

inside a uniform sphere of mass, the

It is directly

field is directly proportional to r when

proportional to r

It is directly

inside the sphere (and proportional to

when r < R.

proportional to r2 1/r2D when outside)

In I, charge separation occurs (negative

charges repel to the leaves). The

whole process describes charging by

induction, where the electrons leave the

electroscope to ground (the finger) and

impossible to

once contact with ground is broken, the

negative in I,

determine in either electroscope is left with a positive

positive in III

I or III

charge (III)

One could analyze the graphs based on

slope, but more simply, the graph of

position versus time

should represent the actual path

followed by the ball as seen on a

platform moving past you at

(D)

(E)

constant speed.

Other than the falling portions (a = 9.8

m/s2

) the ball should have a spike in the

acceleration B

when it bounces due to the rapid

change of velocity from downward to

(D)

(E)

upward.

The same average speed would be

indicated by the same distance

t3 to t4

t4 to t5

travelled in the time interval

At t3, car #1 is ahead of car #2 and at

t4, car #1 is behind car #2. They were

in the same position somewhere in

37 m

39 m

between

all three cars had

Average speed = (total distance)/(total

the same average

time). Cars #2 and #3 travelled the

speed

car #3

same distance.

85.kinematics.png

86.kinematics.png

87.kinematics.png

88.kinematics.png

89.kinematics.png

90.kinematics.png

91.kinematics.png

94.kinematics.png

95.kinematics.png

96.kinematics.png

97.kinematics.png

98.kinematics.png

99.kinematics.png

101 Kinematics

If car #3 continues to constantly accelerate at the same rate what will be its

position at the end of 6 seconds?

The graph represents the relationship between distance and time for an

object that is moving along a straight

line. What is the instantaneous speed of the object at t = 5.0 seconds?

102 Kinematics

103 Kinematics

100 Kinematics

104 Kinematics

105 Kinematics

106 Kinematics

0.0 m/s

0 s only

An airplane takes off and flies 300 miles at an angle of 30 north of east. It

then changes direction and flies 600

miles due west before landing. In what direction is the planes landing point

from its starting point?

If a ball is thrown directly upwards with twice the initial speed of another, how

much higher will it be at its

apex?

C

What was the average speed of the cart between 0.1 seconds and 0.3

seconds?

E

What was the acceleration of the cart during the first 0.4 seconds?

What was the instantaneous velocity of the cart at 96 centimeters from the

start?

107 Kinematics

108 Kinematics

109 Kinematics

After 12 seconds, how far is the clown from her original starting point?

E

A box falls to the ground from a delivery truck traveling at 30 m/s. After hitting

the road, it slides 45 meters to rest. How long does it take the box to come to

rest?

D

110 Kinematics

111 Kinematics

22 m

When an object falls freely in a vacuum near the surface of the earth

68 m

0.8 m/s

72 m

2.5 m/s

78 m

94 m

4.0 m/s

6.8 m/s

the object was not

accelerating at any

time

5 s to 8 s

100.kinematics.png

line at that point.

101.kinematics.png

a curve in the line

102.kinematics.png

Net displacement north = 300 miles sin

30 = 150 miles

Net displacement east = (300 miles cos

30 600 miles) = 340 miles, or 340

miles west.

14.2 north of west 66.2 north of west 23.8 north of west 75.9 north of west 37.4 north of west Angle north of west

Maximum height of a projectile is found

from vy= 0 m/s at max height and (0

m/s)2= v2+ 2gh and gives h = v2/2g. At

twice the initial speed, the height will be

8 times

2 times

4 times

2 times

22 times

4 times as much

Average speed = total distance divided 105-107.kinematics.

0.6 m/s

4.8 m/s

1.9 m/s

60 m/s

2.4 m/s

by total time = (0.48 m)/(0.2 s)

png

105-107.kinematics.

6.0 m/s^2

25 m/s^2

9.8 m/s^2

50 m/s^2

12 m/s^2

d = at^2 (use any point)

png

105-107.kinematics.

0.6 m/s

4.8 m/s

1.9 m/s

60 m/s

2.4 m/s

v = viB + at

png

Acceleration is the slope of the line

108-109.kinematics.

1.6 m/s^2

8.0 m/s^2

2.0 m/s^2

none of the above 3.4 m/s^2

segment

png

108-109.kinematics.

0m

10 m

34 m

47 m

74 m

Displacement is the area under the line png

0 s to 8 s

0.67 s

0 s to 5 s

1.5 s

the terminal

velocity will be

the velocity cannot greater than when

exceed 10 m/s

dropped in air

2.0 s

the velocity will

increase but the

acceleration will be

zero

3.0 s

6.0 s

the acceleration

will remain

constant

and henve no terminal velocity. It will

continue to accelerate.

together

the acceleration

will constantly

increase

it depends on the

elecation where

the arrows are

launched

arrow A arrives

first

arrow B arrives

first

does not go as high and will fall to the

ground first.

angle

angle

it depends on the

elevation where

the arrows land

the value of the

gravitational

acceleration

from t=3.2s to t=3.

6s, from t=4.8 to

t=5s, and from t=6.

8s to t=7.2s only

from t = 3.3 s to t =

3.7 s, from t = 4.8

s to t = 5.0 s, and

from t = 6.8 s to t =

7.2 s only

0.8 m/s2

the angle

angle

113 Kinematics

Two arrows are launched at the same time with the same speed. Arrow A at

an angle greater than 45 degrees, and arrow B at an angle less than 45

degrees. Both land at the same spot on the ground. Which arrow arrives first? B

A ball is thrown into the air at an angle as measured from the horizontal

with a velocity v. The horizontal velocity of the ball will be directly proportional

to which of the following

C

114 Kinematics

For which time interval(s) did the marble have a negative velocity?

115 Kinematics

116 Kinematics

D

E

117 Kinematics

For which time interval(s) did the marble have a positive acceleration?

What is the marbles average acceleration between t = 3.1 s and t = 3.8 s?

A car accelerates uniformly from rest for a time of 2.00 s through a distance

of 4.00 m. What was the acceleration of the car?

2s and from t=6.9s

to t=10s only

from t = 2.0 s to t =

2.5 s, from t = 5.8

from t = 3.8 s to t = s to t = 6.2 s, and

from t = 0.0 s to t = from t = 0.0 s to t = 4.8 s and t = 6.2 s from t = 8.4 s to t =

8.0 s only

3.6 only

to t = 6.8 s only

8.8 s only

2.0 m/s2

2.0 m/s2

0.0 m/s2

3.0 m/s2

0.50 m/s2

0.71 m/s2

1.00 m/s2

1.41 m/s2

2.00 m/s2

118 Kinematics

1 m/s2

0 m/s2

1 m/s2

2 m/s2

4 m/s2

119 Kinematics

What was the total displacement of the toy car for the entire 10 second

interval shown?

0 meters

6.5 meters

9 meters

10 meters

120 Kinematics

An object is thrown upwards with a velocity of 30 m/s near the surface of the

earth. After two seconds what would be the direction of the displacement,

velocity and acceleration?

up; up; up

up; down; up

121 Kinematics

object moving with a constant speed in a straight line?

Graph I only

Graphs II and V

only

Graph II only

Graphs I and IV

only

122 Kinematics

123 Kinematics

Which of the following is closest to the acceleration of the ball?

B

C

3.0 cm/s

1 cm/s2

7.0 cm/s

4 cm/s2

3.5 cm/s

2 cm/s2

12.5 cm/s

5 cm/s2

124 Kinematics

Three stones of different mass (1 m, 2m & 3m) are thrown vertically upward

with different velocities (l v, 2v &

3v respectively). The diagram indicates the mass and velocity of each stone.

Rank from high to low the

maximum height of each stone. Assume air resistance is negligible.

I, II, III

II, I, III

III, II, I

I, III, II

112 Kinematics

each time interval you should nitce a

pattern: 2 m, 6 m, 10

m, 14 m, 18 m; making the distance in

the next second 22 m.

from t=8.0s to

t=10.0s only

s only

t=10s only

vx=vicos

114.kinematics.png

curvature

Average acceleration = v/t

114.kinematics.png

114.kinematics.png

d = at2

Acceleration is the slope of the line

segment

Displacement is the area between the

line and the t-axis. Area is negative

11.5 meters

when the line is below the t-axis.

After two seconds, the object would be

above its original position, still moving

upward, but the acceleration due to

down; down; down gravity is always pointing down.

Constant speed is a constant slope on

a position-time graph, a horizontal line

All of the above

on a velocity time

graphs represent graph or a zero value on an

constant velocity

acceleration-time graph

Average speed = total distance divided

4.0 cm/s

by total time = (7 cm)/(1 s)

3 cm/s2

d = at2 (use any point)

Maximum height of a projectile is found

from vy = 0 m/s at max height and (0

m/s)2 = v2 + 2gh

and gives h = v2

C

all reach the same /2g. Mass is irrelevant. Largest initial

height

speed = highest.

118.kinematics. png

118.kinematics.png

118.kinematics.png

121.kinematics.png

122.kinematics.png

122.kinematics.png

125 Kinematics

126 Kinematics

127 Kinematics

128 Kinematics

A rubber ball bounces on the ground as shown. After each bounce, the ball

reaches one-half the height of the

bounce before it. If the time the ball was in the air between the first and

second bounce was 1 second. What

would be the time between the second and third bounce?

B.

brakes and skidding to a stop. How far

would the car have skidded if it had been traveling twice as fast?

A

A pebble is dropped from a high vertical cliff. The collision of the pebble with

the ground below is seen 1.50

seconds after the pebble is dropped. With what speed did the pebble hit the

ground? Ignore air resistance.

B.

A snail is moving along a straight line. Its initial position is x0= 5 meters and

it is moving away from the

origin and slowing down. In this coordinate system, the signs of the initial

position, initial velocity and

acceleration, respectively, are

B.

131 Kinematics

m horizontally, the arrow falls

0.2 m. In traveling the next 5 m horizontally, it will fall an additional

A

How tall is a tree if the sun is at a 53 angle above the horizon and the

shadow is 8.0 meters long?

B.

Three students were arguing about the height of a parking garage. One

student suggested that to determine the

height of the garage, they simply had to drop tennis balls from the top and

time the fall of the tennis balls. If the

time for the ball to fall was 1.4 seconds, approximately how tall is the parking

garage?

C

132 Kinematics

of 24.0 m/s. Ignoring air

resistance, what is the arrows maximum height above its launch point?

B.

133 Kinematics

A car has the velocity versus time curve shown above. Which of the following

statements regarding its motion

is INCORRECT?

D

134 Kinematics

A rock is dropped from the top of a tall tower. Half a second later another

rock, twice as massive as the first, is

dropped. Ignoring air resistance,

135 Kinematics

A cart is initially moving at 0.5 m/s along a track. The cart comes to rest after

traveling 1 m. The experiment is repeated on the same track, but now the cart

is initially moving at 1 m/s. How far does the cart travel before coming to rest? B

129 Kinematics

130 Kinematics

136 Kinematics

137 Kinematics

During an interval of time, a tennis ball is moved so that the angle between

the velocity and the acceleration of the ball is kept at a constant 120o. Which

statement is true about the tennis ball during this interval of time?

B

A dog starts from rest and runs in a straight line with a constant acceleration

of 2.5 m/s2. How much time does it take for the dog to run a distance of 10.0

m?

C

0.50 sec

0.71 sec

4 times as far

square root of 2

times as far

proportional to the time squared. 1/2

the maximum height is 1/sq root of 2

2.0 sec

times the time.

125.kinematics.png

Stopping distance is found using

Vt=0=vi^2+2ad which gives d=vi/2a

the mass of the car where stopping distance is proportional

must be known

to initial speed squared.

10 m/s

15 m/s

48.6 m/s

100.4 m/s

343 m/s

0.6 m

0.4 m

0.3 m

0.2 m

0.1 m

Vt=Vi+gt

Moving away from the origin will

maintain a negative position and

velocity. Slowing down

indicates the acceleration is opposite in

direction to the velocity.

128.kinematics.png

The arrow travels equal horizontal

distances in equal amounts of time. The

distance fallen is

proportional to time squared. The arrow

will have fallen a total of 0.8 m in the

next 5 m

horizontally, or an additional 0.6 m.

4.8 m

10.6 m

6.0 m

13.3 m

8.0 m

Tan 53 degrees=h/(8m)

4.9 m

7.0 m

9.8 m

13.8 m

19.6 m

5.9 m

11.9 m

16.9 m

d=1/2at^2

Maximum height of a projectile is found

from vy = 0 at max height and vy

2 = viy 2 + 2gh and gives hmax = viy

2/2g = (vi sin )2 B/2g

1.0 sec

1.4 sec

The car is moving at approximately

fastest at 2.0 s

5.2 s.

the distance

the acceleration is

between the rocks greater for the

increases while

more massive

both are falling.

rock.

23.8 m

The car has

The car is

negative

speeding up from t acceleration at t =

= 0 to t = 2.0 s

4.5 s.

they strike the

the speed of both ground more than

rocks is constant

half a second

while they fall.

apart.

28.8 m

The car has no

acceleration at the

instant t = 2 s.

24

they strike the

ground with the

same kinetic

energy.

1m

2m

3m

4m

Its speed

increases and it is

changing its

direction of travel.

Its speed

decreases and it is

changing its

direction of travel.

constant, but it is

changing its

direction of travel.

constant and it is

not changing its

direction of travel.

Since the first rock is always traveling

faster, the relative distance between

them is always

increasing.

Stopping distance is found using vf

= 0 = vi^2+ 2ad which gives d = vi^2/2a

where stopping B

distance is proportional to initial speed

8m

squared.

At an angle of 120, there is a

component of the acceleration

perpendicular to the velocity

Its speed

causing the direction to change and a

decreases and it is component in the opposite direction of

not changing its

the velocity, causing

direction of travel. it to slow down.

8.0 s

4.0 s

2.8s

2.0 s

1.4 s

138 Kinematics

What is the direction of the average velocity during this time interval?

The average

velocity is zero.

139 Kinematics

What is the direction of the average acceleration during this time interval?

The average

acceleration is

zero.

140 Kinematics

At which time is the car the greatest distance from the origin?

t = 10 s

t=6s

t=5s

t=3s

t=0s

141 Kinematics

What is the average speed of the car for the 10 second interval?

Consider the motion of an object given by the position vs. time graph shown.

For what time(s) is the speed of the object greatest?

The free fall trajectory of an object thrown horizontally from the top of a

building is shown as the dashed line in the figure. Which sets of arrows best

correspond to the directions of the velocity and of the acceleration for the

object at the point labeled P on the trajectory?

1.20 m/s

At all times from

=0.0st=2.0s

1.40 m/s

3.30 m/s

At time t=3.0s

At time t=4.0s

5.00 m/s

5.40 m/s

At all times from t

= 5.0 s t = 7.0 s At time t = 8.5 s

142 Kinematics

143 Kinematics

d = a^2

The displacement is directly to the left.

The average velocity is proportional to

the displacement

The velocity is initially pointing up, the

final velocity points down. The

acceleration is in the

same direction as v = vf

+ (vi)

The car is the greatest distance just

before it reverses direction at 5

seconds

Average speed = (total distance)/(total

time), the total distance is the

magnitude of the area under

the line (the area below the t-axis is

considered positive)

138.kinematics.png

138.kinematics.png

140.kinematics.png

140.kinematics.png

142.kinematics.png

acceleration (gravity) is downward.

143.kinematics.png

144 Kinematics

A toy car moves 3.0 m to the North in one second. The car then moves at 9.0

m/s due South for two seconds. What is the average speed of the car for this

three second trip?

D

145 Kinematics

from its launch point. The

projectile was in the air for a time of 4.00 seconds. If the projectile landed at

the same vertical position from

which it was launched, what was the launch speed of the projectile? Ignore

air resistance.

c

146 Kinematics

Two automobiles are 150 kilometers apart and traveling toward each other.

One automobile is moving at 60

km/h and the other is moving at 40 km/h. In how many hours will they meet?

147 Kinematics

and increasing

148 Kinematics

What does one obtain by dividing the distance of 12 Mm by the time of 4 Ts? B

149 Kinematics

150 Kinematics

151 Kinematics

152 Kinematics

decreases?

E

During a recent winter storm, bales of hay had to be dropped from an airplane

to a herd of cattle below. Assume

the airplane flew horizontally at an altitude of 180 m with a constant velocity

of 50 m/s and dropped one bale of

hay every two seconds. It is reasonable to assume that air resistance will be

negligible for this situation. As the bales are falling through the air, what will

happen to their distance of separation?

A

During a recent winter storm, bales of hay had to be dropped from an airplane

to a herd of cattle below. Assume

the airplane flew horizontally at an altitude of 180 m with a constant velocity

of 50 m/s and dropped one bale of

hay every two seconds. It is reasonable to assume that air resistance will be

negligible for this situation. About how far apart from each other will the bales

land on the ground?

D

If a boat can travel with a speed of v in still water, which of the following trips

will take the least amount of

time.

time)

To travel 120 m horizontally in 4 s gives

vx

= 30 m/s. The time to reach maximum

height was 2

seconds and vy

= 0 at the maximum height which gives

viy = 20 m/s. vi

SQRT(Vx^2+Viy^2)

22.4m/s

30.0m/s

36.1m/s

42.4m/s

50.0m/s

=v

The relative speed between the two

cars is v1 v2

= (60 km/h) (40 km/h) = 100 km/h.

They

will meet in t = d/vrelative

A

1.5

1.75

2

2.5

3 = 150 km/100 km/h

Acceleration is independent of velocity

(you can accelerate in any direction

its velocity must be its velocity must be it must be slowing it must be

none of the above while traveling in a

positive

negative

down

speeding up

must be true.

ny direction).

12/4 =3, now the units: M = 106

, T = 1012: M/T = 106

3 nm/s

3 m/s

3mm/s

3km/s

3 Gm/s

= micro ()

No, this is

Acceleration is independent of velocity

impossible

No, because if

No, because

Yes, an example

Yes, an example

(you can accelerate in any direction

because of the

acceleration is

velocity and

would be a falling would be a falling while traveling in a

way in which

decreasing the

acceleration must object near the

object in the

ny direction). If the accleration is in the

acceleration is

object will be

always be in the

surface of the

presence of air

same direction as the velocity, the

defined

slowing down

same direction

moon

resistance

object is speeding up.

4.0 m/s

5.0 m/s

6.0 m/s

7.0 m/s

12 m/s

the distance of

separation will

increase

the distance of

separation will

decrease

the distance of

separation will

remain constant

the distance of

separation will

depend on the

mass of the bales

be traveling faster than the later bales,

their relative

none of the above velocity will cause their separation to

are always true

always iincrease.

9000m

300m

180m

100m

traveling a

distance of 2d in

still water

traveling a

distance of 2d

across

(perpendicular to)

the current in a

stream

traveling a

distance d

downstream and

returning a

distance d

upstream

traveling a

distance d

upstream and

returning a

distance d

downstream

atleast 250m

atleast 83m

atleast 200m

atleast 67m

T1=T2

T1> T2

T1< T2

Tl+ T2= mg

1 Dynamics

circumference. The first car can circle the

track in 15 seconds at top speed while the second car can circle the track in

12 seconds at top speed. How much

lead does the first car need starting the last lap of the race not to lose?

A ball of mass m is suspended from two strings of unequal length as shown

above. The magnitudes of the

tensions T1 and T2 in the strings must satisfy which of the following

relations?

2 Dynamics

3 Dynamics

Which of the following diagrams best represents the gravitational force W. the

frictional force f, and the normal

force N that act on the block?

E

The magnitude of the frictional force along the plane is most nearly

C

A

2.5 N

B

5N

C

6N

D

10 N

4 Dynamics

of magnitude the tension in the

string between the blocks is

E

2F

2/3 F

1/2 F

153 Kinematics

the speed of the plane, as gravity will

not affect their

horizontal motion. D = vt = (50 m/s)(2

5m

seconds apart)

Traveling in still water will take a time t

= d/v = 2d/v. Traveling perpendicularly

across the

stream requires the boat to head at an

angle into the current, causing the

relative velocity of the

boat to the shore to be less than when

in still water and therefore take a longer

time. Since this

eliminates choice E and choices D and

all of the above will C are identical, that leaves A as the

take equal times

only single option.

When the first car starts the last lap, it

will finish the race in 15 seconds from

that point. In 15

seconds, the second car will travel (1

km/12 s) 15 s = 1250 m so the first

car must be at least

250 m ahead when starting the last lap

atleast 104m

to win the race.

As T2 is more vertical, it is supporting

more of the weight of the ball. The

horizontal

T1 T2= mg

components of T1 and T2 are equal

Normal force is perpendicular to the

incline, friction acts up, parallel to the

incline (opposite the

motion of the block), gravity acts

E

straight down.

16 N

F = ma; mgsin f = ma

The diluted force between objects is

the applied force times the ratio of the

mass behind the

rope to the total mass being pulled.

This can be derived from a = F/m(total)

and FT = m(behind the

1/3 F

rope)a

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7 Dynamics

A ball falls straight down through the air under the influence of gravity. There

is a retarding force F on the ball

with magnitude given by F = bv, where v is the speed of the ball and b is a

positive constant. The magnitude of

B

the acceleration, a of the ball at any time is equal to which of the following?

A push broom of mass m is pushed across a rough horizontal floor by a force

of magnitude T directed at angle

as shown above. The coefficient of friction between the broom and the floor is

. The frictional force on the

broom has magnitude

A

A block of weight W is pulled along a horizontal surface at constant speed v

by a force F, which acts at an angle

of with the horizontal, as shown above. The normal force exerted on the

block by the surface has magnitude

B

8 Dynamics

box of weight 100 newtons hangs

from the rope. What is the tension in the rope?

5 Dynamics

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20 Dynamics

string as shown above, the tension at

any point in the string is

An ideal spring obeys Hooke's law, F = kx. A mass of 0.50 kilogram hung

vertically from this spring

stretches the spring 0.075 meter. The value of the force constant for the

spring is most nearly

A block of mass 3m can move without friction on a horizontal table. This block

is attached to another block of

mass m by a cord that passes over a frictionless pulley, as shown above. If

the masses of the cord and the pulley

are negligible, what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the descending

block?

A plane 5 meters in length is inclined at an angle of 37, as shown above. A

block of weight 20 newtons is

placed at the top of the plane and allowed to slide down. The mass of the

block is most nearly:

A plane 5 meters in length is inclined at an angle of 37, as shown above. A

block of weight 20 newtons is

placed at the top of the plane and allowed to slide down. The magnitude of

the normal force exerted on the block by the plane is most nearly:

The forces act on an object. If the object is in translational equilibrium, which

of the following must be true? I. The vector sum of the three forces must

equal zero. II. The magnitudes of the three forces must be equal. III. All three

forces must be parallel.

Three objects can only move along a straight, level path. The graphs above

show the position d of each of the

objects plotted as a function of time t. The sum of the forces on the object is

zero in which of the cases?

g-b

g bv/m

g + bv/m

g/b

bv/m

F = ma; mg bv = ma

(mg + Tsin)

(mg Tsin)

(mg + Tcos)

(mg Tcos)

mg

Fy= 0 = (F(N) mg Tsin)

W F cos

W F sin

W + F sin

50 N throughout

the rope

75 N throughout

the rope

100 N throughout

the rope

150 N throughout

the rope

W + F cos

It varies from 100

N at the bottom of

the rope to 150 N

at the top.

2Wcos

Wcos

Wcos

W/(2cos)

W/(cos)

0.33 N/m

0.66 N/m

6.6 N/m

33 N/m

66 N/m

7.dynamics.png

The bottom of the rope supports the

box, while the top of the rope must

support the rope itself

and the box.

8.dynamics.png

The vertical components of the tension

in the rope are two equal upward

components of Tcos,

which support the weight. Fy= 0 =

2Tcos W

F = mg = kx (the negative sign merely

indicates the direction of the spring

force relative to the

displacement)

6.dynamics.png

Zero

g/4

g/3

2g/3

F(external) = m(total)a;

mg is the only force acting from outside

the system of masses so we have mg =

(4m)a

11.dynamics.png

1.0 kg

1.2 kg

1.6 kg

2.0 kg

2.5 kg

W = mg

10 N

12 N

16 N

20 N

33 N

I only

II only

II only

III only

I and II only

None of these

motions

guarantees zero

accleration.

For which of the following motions of an object must the acceleration always

be zero? I. Any motion in a straight line. II. Simple harmonic motion. III. Any

motion in a circle.

E

A rope of negligible mass supports a block that weighs 30 N, as shown

above. The breaking strength of the

rope is 50 N. The largest acceleration that can be given to the block by pulling

up on it with the rope without

breaking the rope is most nearly:

B

A horizontal, uniform board of weight 125 N and length 4 m is supported by

vertical chains at each end. A

person weighing 500 N is sitting on the board. The tension in the right chain is

250 N. What is the tension in the left chain?

B

vertical chains at each end. A

person weighing 500 N is sitting on the board. The tension in the right chain is

250 N. How far from the left end of the board is the person sitting?

B

The cart of mass 10 kg shown above moves without frictional loss on a level

table. A 10 N force pulls on the

cart horizontally to the right. At the same time, a 30 N force at an angle of 60

above the horizontal pulls on the cart to the left. What is the magnitude of the

horizontal acceleration of the cart?

A

adjacent/hypotenuse = 4/5

Three vectors add to zero if they form

the sides of a triangle, there is no

requirement they be

equal or parallel, though it is possible.

12.dynamics.png

13.dynamics.png

indicates a non-zero acceleration

15.dynamics.png

Motion in a straight line does not mean

the speed is constant. Simple harmonic

motion is a constantly changing velocity

and can only occur with an

acceleration. Motion in a circle requires

centripetal acceleration.

I only

II only

III only

not II

6 m/s^2

6.7 m/s^2

10 m/s^2

15 m/s^2

16.7 m/s^2

250 N

375 N

500 N

625 N

875 N

0.4 m

1.5 m

2m

2.5 m

3m

(the maximum possible tension) amd m

= W/g = 3 kg

17.dynamics.png

The sum of the tensions in the chains

(250 N + Tleft) must support the weight

of the board and B

the person (125 N + 500 N)

From symmetry, each chain supports

half of the weight of the board (62.5 N),

The weight of the

person is then split between the chains

with the left chain holding 375 N 62.5

N = 312.5 N

and the right chain supporting 250 N

62.5 N = 187.5 N or 3/5 of the tension

in the left chain.

This means if the person sits a distance

x from the left end, they sit a distance

(5/3)x from the

right end. This gives x + (5/3)x = 4 m

0.5 m/s^2

1.6 m/s^2

2.0 m/s^2

2.5 m/s^2

2.6 m/s^2

kg)a

20.dynamics.png

21 Dynamics

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25 Dynamics

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30 Dynamics

31 Dynamics

An object of mass m is initially at rest and free to move without friction in any

direction in the xy-plane. A

constant net force of magnitude F directed in the +x direction acts on the

object for 1 s. Immediately thereafter

a constant net force of the same magnitude F directed in the +y direction acts

on the object for 1 s. After this, no

forces act on the object. Which of the following vectors could represent the

velocity of the object at the end of

3 s, assuming the scales on the x and y axes are equal?

C

Two people are pulling on the ends of a rope. Each person pulls with a force

of 100 N. The tension in the rope

is:

C

The parabola above is a graph of speed v as a function of time t for an object.

Which of the following graphs

best represents the magnitude F of the net force exerted on the object as a

function of time t?

E

A 100-newton weight is suspended by two cords as shown above. The

tension in the slanted cord is

D

newtons to the right, as shown

above. The force that the 2-kilogram block exerts on the 3-kilogram block is

A ball initially moves horizontally with velocity vi

, as shown above. It is then struck by a stick. After leaving

the stick, the ball moves vertically with a velocity vf

, which is smaller in magnitude than vi

. Which of the

following vectors best represents the direction of the average force that the

stick exerts on the ball?

Two 0.60-kilogram objects are connected by a thread that passes over a light,

frictionless pulley, as shown

above. The objects are initially held at rest. If a third object with a mass of

0.30 kilogram is added on top of one

of the 0.60-kilogram objects as shown and the objects are released, the

magnitude of the acceleration of the

0.30-kilogram object is most nearly

Two identical massless springs are hung from a horizontal support. A block of

mass 1.2 kilograms is suspended

from the pair of springs, as shown above. When the block is in equilibrium,

each spring is stretched an

additional 0.15 meter. The force constant of each spring is most nearly

A ball is thrown and follows a parabolic path, as shown above. Air friction is

negligible. Point Q is the highest

point on the path. Which of the following best indicates the direction of the net

force on the ball at point P ?

A block of mass 5 kilograms lies on an inclined plane, as shown above. The

horizontal and vertical supports

for the plane have lengths of 4 meters and 3 meters, respectively. The

coefficient of friction between the plane

and the block is 0.3. The magnitude of the force F necessary to pull the block

up the plane with constant speed

is most nearly

What is the acceleration of the block?

0N

50 N

100 N

141 N

200 N

time in each direction, the velocity in

each direction is

the same. The vector should then point

at a 45 angle in the first quadrant.

21.dynamics.png

Consider that no part of the system is in

motion, this means at each end of the

rope, a person

pulling with 100 N offorce is reacted to

with a tension in the rope of 100 N.

As v is proportional to t2

and a is proportional to v/t, this means

a should be proportional to t

23.dynamics.png

50 N

100 N

150 N

200 N

250 N

8 newtons to the

left

8 newtons to the

right

10 newtons to the

left

12 newtons to the

right

20 newtons to the

left

Fy= 0 = Tsin 30 mg

F = ma gives 20 N = (5 kg)a or an

acceleration of 4 m/s2. The 2 kg block

is accelerating due to the contact force

from the 3 kg block Fcontact = ma = (2

kg)(4 m/s2) = 8 N. The 2 kg pushes

back on the 3 kg block with a force

equal in magnitude and opposite in

direction.

26.dynamics.png

27.dynamics.png

24.dynamics.png

25.dynamics.png

as the direction of the acceleration,

which is proportional to v = vf+ (vi)

10.0 m/s2

6.0 m/s2

3.0 m/s2

2.0 m/s2

1.0 m/s2

10m/s2) (0.60 kg 10 m/s2) = (1.5

kg)a

40 N/m

48 N/m

60 N/m

80 N/m

96 N/m

or 6 N. F = kx

28.dynamics.png

29.dynamics.png

acting parallel to the incline are F (up),

Ff

(down) and mgsin (down), which gives

F Ff mgsin = 0, where Ff= FN =

mgcos and cos = 4/5

30.dynamics.png

F = ma = Fcos f

31.dynamics.png

f = F

N where FN = mg Fsin

32.dynamics.png

B

D

30 N

F/m

42 N

(Fcos)/m

49 N

(Ff)/m

50 N

(Fcosf)/m

58 N

(Fsinmg)/m

f/mg

mg/f

(mgFcos)/f

f/(mgFcos)

f/(mgFsin)

6m) must have the largest tension.

String A is only

pulling the block of mass 3m and string

B is pulling a total mass of 5m.

33.dynamics.png

34 Dynamics

What is the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface?

E

Three blocks of masses 3m, 2m, ands are connected to strings A, B, and Cas

shown above. The blocks are

pulled along a rough surface by a force of magnitude F exerted by string C.

The coefficient of friction between

each block and the surface is the same. Which string must be the strongest in

order not to break?

C

A block of mass 3 kg, initially at rest, is pulled along a frictionless, horizontal

surface with a force shown as a

function of time t by the graph above. The acceleration of the block at t = 2 s

is

B

35 Dynamics

above. The tension in the horizontal

cord is...

At t = 2 s the force is 4 N. F = ma

34.dynamics.png

The upward component of the slanted

cord is 300 N to balance the weight of

the object. Since

the slanted cord is at an angle of 45, it

has an equal horizontal component.

The horizontal

component of the slanted cord is equal

to the tension in the horizontal cord

32 Dynamics

33 Dynamics

It is impossible to

determine without

knowing the

They must all be

coefficient of

the same strength. friction.

3/4 m/s^2

4/3 m/s^2

2 m/s^2

8 m/s^2

12 m/s^2

0N

150 N

210 N

300 N

400 N

36 Dynamics

37 Dynamics

38 Dynamics

39 Dynamics

A small box is on a ramp tilted at an angle above the horizontal. The box

may be subject to the following

forces: frictional (f ) ,gravitational (mg), pulling or pushing (FP) and normal (I).

In the following free-body

diagrams for the box, the lengths of the vectors are proportional to the

magnitudes of the forces. Which figure best represents the free-body diagram

for the box if it is accelerating up the ramp?

A small box is on a ramp tilted at an angle above the horizontal. The box

may be subject to the following

forces: frictional (f ) ,gravitational (mg), pulling or pushing (FP) and normal (I).

In the following free-body

diagrams for the box, the lengths of the vectors are proportional to the

magnitudes of the forces. Which figure best represents the free-body diagram

for the box if it is at rest on the ramp?

A small box is on a ramp tilted at an angle above the horizontal. The box

may be subject to the following

forces: frictional (f ) ,gravitational (mg), pulling or pushing (FP) and normal (I).

In the following free-body

diagrams for the box, the lengths of the vectors are proportional to the

magnitudes of the forces.

Two blocks of masses M and m, with M > m, are connected by a light string.

The string passes over a

frictionless pulley of negligible mass so that the blocks hang vertically. The

blocks are then released from rest.

What is the acceleration of the block of mass M ?

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Figure E

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Figure E

(M-m/M)g

(M+m/M)g

(M+m/M-m)g

(M-m/M+m)g

mg

mg

mg/

mg(1 - )

mg(1 + )

41 Dynamics

42 Dynamics

The block of weight mg is initially moving the right with speed v. The

coefficient of friction between the rough floor and the block is . The frictional

force acting on the block is:

E

43 Dynamics

The reaction force does not cancel the action force because:

44 Dynamics

speed by means of a force P as shown to the right. Which of the following

must be true?

2.0 kg

1.5 kg

1.0 kg

0.5 kg

1000 N

2000 N

3000 N

20000 N

30000 N

1.6 kN down

1.6 kN up

6.4 kN up

8.0 kN down

9.6 kN down

47 Dynamics

48 Dynamics

The 10.0 kg box shown in the figure to the right is sliding to the right along the

floor. A horizontal force of 10.0 N is being applied to the right. The coefficient

of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.20. The box is moving

with:

A

left.

acceleration.

constant speed

acceleration to the and constant

right.

velocity.

49 Dynamics

constant force is applied to X as shown to the right. The force exerted by X on

Y is:

D

1.5 N

6.0 N

29 N

30 N

50 Dynamics

Assume the objects in the following diagrams have equal mass and the

strings holding them in place are identical. In which case would the string be

most likely to break?

46 Dynamics

perpendicular to the surface and the

weight must point down. If

the box is at rest on the ramp, friction

acts up the ramp, opposing the

tendency to slide down

The normal force must point

perpendicular to the surface and the

weight must point down. If

the box is sliding down at constant

speed, friction acts up the ramp,

opposing the motion

36.dynamics.png

36.dynamics.png

= (M + m)a

. To keep the box from slipping, friction

up the wall must balance the weight of

the block, or Ff

= mg, where Ff

= F

N and FN

= the applied force F. This gives F =

mg

40.dynamics.png

N) = (m + 1 kg)(5 m/s^2)

41.dynamics.png

Friction opposes the motion of the block

and therefore points to the left. The

normal force is found from Fy = 0 =

mg F sin to

(mg F cos ) to (mg + F sin ) to FN mg Fsin and the force of

mg to the left.

mg to the right.

the left.

the right.

the left.

friction Ff = FN

42.dynamics.png

The reaction exists When an object exerts a force on a

The action force is The action force is

only after the

second object, the second object exerts

greater than the

less than the

They act on

They are in the

action force is

an equal and opposite force back on

reaction force.

reaction force.

different bodies.

same direction.

removed.

the first object.

Since P is at an upward angle, the

normal force is decreased as P

supports some of the weight. Since a

component of P balances the frictional

P > f and N < W.

P > f and N = W.

P = f and N > W.

P = f and N = W.

P < f and N = W.

force, P itself must be larger than f.

44.dynamics.png

Newtons 2nd law applied to an object

sliding to rest gives F = Ff = FN =

ma. On a horizontal surface, FN = mg

and we have mg = ma, or a = g.

Use this acceleration with vf^2 = vi^2 +

0.8

0.4

0.2

0.1

0.05 2ad.

3.0 kg

A block with initial velocity 4.0 m/s slides 8.0 m across a rough horizontal floor

before coming to rest. The coefficient of friction is:

D

A car whose mass is 1500 kg is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of

20 m/s in 10 s. The magnitude of the net force accelerating the car is:

C

An 800-kg elevator accelerates downward at 2.0 m/s^2. The force exerted by

the cable on the elevator is:

C

45 Dynamics

Figure E

coefficient of friction between the

block and the wall is . What value of F is necessary to keep the block from

slipping down the wall?

C

One end of a massless rope is attached to a mass m; the other end is

attached to a mass of 1.00 kg. The rope is

hung over a massless frictionless pulley asshown in the accompanying figure.

Mass m accelerates downward at

5.0 m/s2. What is m?

A

40 Dynamics

Figure A

perpendicular to the surface and the

weight must point down. In

order to accelerate up the ramp, there

must be an applied force up the ramp. If

the box is

accelerating up the ramp, friction acts

down the ramp, opposite the motion

36.dynamics.png

F = ma = mv/t

F = ma; Fcable mg = ma = m(2

m/s^2)

The force of friction = FN = 0.2 10

kg 9.8 m/s^2 = 19.6 N, which is

constant speed but greater than the applied force, which

not constant

means the object is accelerating to the

velocity.

left, or slowing down

48.dynamics.png

F = ma gives 36 N = (24 kg)a or an

acceleration of 1.5 m/s^2. The 20 kg

block is accelerating due to the contact

force from the 4 kg block Fcontact = ma

36 N

= (20 kg)(1.5 m/s^2) = 30 N.

49.dynamics.png

The upward component of the tension

is Tup = Tsin, where is the angle to

the horizontal. This gives T = Tup/sin.

Since the upward components are all

equal to one half the weight, the rope at

the smallest angle (and the smallest

value of sin) will have the greatest

E

tension, and most likely break

50.dynamics.png

52 Dynamics

A string with masses of 1.5 kg and 3.0 kg on its ends is hung over a

frictionless, massless pulley as shown to the

right. What is the approximate magnitude of the acceleration of the masses?

Two blocks of mass 1.0 kg and 3.0 kg are connected by a string which has a

tension of 2.0 N. A force F acts in

the direction shown to the right. Assuming friction is negligible, what is the

value of F?

1.0 N

2.0 N

4.0 N

6.0 N

8.0 N

53 Dynamics

N, acting on it. The magnitude of the resultant of F1 and F2 is

D

10 N

20 N

40 N

70 N

80 N

350 N

450 N

500 N

550 N

650 N

2 m/s2. For the system: F = (4 kg)(2

m/s2)

52.dynamics

For three forces in equilibrium, any one

of the forces is equal and opposite to

the resultant of the other two forces.

Elevator physics: FN represents the

scale reading. F = ma; FN mg = ma,

or FN = m(g + a). The velocity of the

elevator is irrelevant.

1/4 as great.

4 times greater

than the force of

the tractor on the

trailer.

1/2 as great.

2 times greater

than the force of

the tractor on the

trailer.

2 times greater.

4 times greater.

unchanged

m is halved, a will be doubled

of the tractor on

the trailer.

tractor on the

trailer

tractor is pulling

the trailer forward. Newtons third law

51 Dynamics

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has a downward acceleration of 1.0

m/s2 and an upward velocity of 3.0 m/s, the scale reads approximately

B

If the net force on an object were doubled while at the same time the mass of

the object was halved, then the

acceleration of the object is

D

A tractor-trailer truck is traveling down the road. The mass of the trailer is 4

times the mass of the tractor. If the

tractor accelerates forward, the force that the trailer applies on the tractor is

C

Two boxes are accelerated to the right on a frictionless horizontal surface as

shown. The larger box has a mass

of 9 kilograms and the smaller box has a mass of 3 kilograms. If a 24 newton

horizontal force pulls on the larger

box, with what force does the larger box pull on the smaller box?

B

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Shown below is the velocity vs. time graph for a toy car moving along a

straight line. What is the maximum

displacement from start for the toy car?

A cannon fires projectiles on a flat range at a fixed speed but with variable

angle. The maximum range of the

cannon is L. What is the range of the cannon when it fires at an angle /6

above the horizontal? Ignore air

resistance.

A ball is launched upward from the ground at an initial vertical speed of v0

and begins bouncing vertically.

Every time it rebounds, it loses a proportion of the magnitude of its velocity

due to the inelastic nature of the

collision, such that if the speed just before hitting the ground on a bounce is v,

then the speed just after the

bounce is rv, where r < 1 is a constant. Calculate the total length of time that

the ball remains bouncing,

assuming that any time associated with the actual contact of the ball with the

ground is negligible.

The graph shows velocity as a function of time for a car. What was the

acceleration at time t = 90 seconds?

51.dynamics.png

56.dynamics

acceleration of 2 m/s2. The 3 kg block

is accelerating due to the tension in the

rope FT = ma = (3 kg)(2 m/s2) = 6 N.

57.dynamics

250 N

400 N

2500 N

0.5 d

1.41 d

2d

4d

3m

5m

6.5 m

7m

7.5 m

Newtons 2nd law applied to an object

sliding to rest gives F = Ff = FN =

ma. On a

horizontal surface, FN = mg and we

have mg = ma, or a = g. Using this

acceleration with

vf2 = vi2 + 2ad gives d = vi2/2g. There

is no dependence on mass.

Displacement is the area under the

curve. Maximum displacement is just

before the car turns

around at 2.5 seconds.

62.dynamics.png

1/3 L

and maximum range occurs at = 45,

which gives viRg. Using = 30 gives

Rnew= R sin 60

3/2 L

1/2 L

1/3 L

1/2 L

24 N

10 m/s^2) (1.5 kg 10 m/s^2) = (4.5

kg)a

40 N

is unchanged

Inertia is mass

The normal force is mgcos. For a

horizontal surface, FN = mg. At any

more information is angle FN < mg and Ff is proportional to

required

FN

(2vo/g)*(1/1r)

(vo/g)*(r/1r)

(2vo/g)*(1r/r)

(2vo/g)*(1/1r^2)

(2vo/g)*(1/1+(1-r)

^2)

0.22 m/s^2

0.33 m/s^2

1.0 m/s^2

9.8 m/s^2

30 m/s^2

2h

3h

4h

h^2

45 m

60 m

90 m

105 m

120 m

2.3 s

3.1 s

5.4 s

5.9 s

8.2 s

67 Dynamics

An object is released from rest and falls a distance h during the first second of

time. How far will it fall during

the next second of time?

C

A stone is thrown straight downward with a speed of 20 m/s from the top of a

tall building. If the stone strikes

the ground 3.0 s later, about how tall is the building? Assume air resistance is

negligible.

D

68 Dynamics

A coyote can run at a speed of 20 m/s while a prairie dog can manage only

5.5 m/s. If a prairie dog is 45 m in

front of a coyote, what is the maximum time it has to reach its hole without

being caught?

66 Dynamics

10 m/s^2

25 N

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8N

the objects inertia

becomes 4 times

greater

6.7 m/s^2

has less frictional

force

A car of mass m slides across a patch of ice at a speed v with its brakes

locked. It then hits dry pavement and skids to a stop in a distance d. The

coefficient of kinetic friction between the tires and the dry road is . If the car

had a mass of 2m, it would have skidded a distance of

6N

the objects inertia

becomes 2 times

greater

3.3 m/s^2

is the same in both has a greater

cases

frictional force

60 Dynamics

3N

the objects inertia

becomes 2 times

greater

3.0 m/s^2

18 N

the objects inertia

becomes 8 times

greater

the frictional force

increases with

angle until the

angle is 90, then

drops to zero

E

A wooden box is first pulled across a horizontal steel plate as shown in the

diagram A. The box is then pulled

across the same steel plate while the plate is inclined as shown in diagram B.

How does the force required to

overcome friction in the inclined case (B) compare to the horizontal case (A)? C

An object near the surface of the earth with a weight of 100 newtons is

accelerated at 4 m/s2. What is the netforce on the object?

B

59 Dynamics

1.5 m/s^2

bounce is found from v = v + (g)t

which gives t = 2v/g.

We are summing the time for all

bounces, while the velocity (and hence

the time) converge in a

geometric series with the ratio

vn+1/vn = r<1 to (1/1 r)

The acceleration is the slope of the

curve at 90 seconds.

65.dynamics.png

From the equation d = at^2,

displacement is proportional to time

squared. Traveling from rest

for twice the time gives 4 times the

displacement (or 4 h). Since the object

already travelled h in

the first second, during the time interval

from 1 s to 2 s the object travelled the

remaining 3h

d = vit + gt^2

The relative speed between the coyote

and the prairie dog is 14.5 m/s. To

cover the 45 m

distance between them will take t = d/v

= (45 m)/(14.5 m/s)

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for 2.0 s before its engine burns out. The rocket then

coasts upward. What is the maximum height that the rocket reaches? You

may assume air resistance is

negligible.

A hunter in a forest walks 800 m west. He then turns south and walks 400 m

before turning west again and

walking a final 300 m. At the end of the walk, what is the magnitude of the

hunter's displacement from the

beginning?

Robin Hood aims his longbow horizontally at a target's bull's eye 30 m away.

If the arrow strikes the target

exactly 1.0 m below the bull's eye, how fast did the arrow move as it was shot

from the bow? Assume air

resistance is negligible.

A 2 kg mass and a 4 kg mass on a horizontal frictionless surface are

connected by a massless string A. They are

pulled horizontally across the surface by a second string B with a constant

acceleration of 12 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the force of string B on the

2 kg mass?

A 2 kg mass and a 4 kg mass on a horizontal frictionless surface are

connected by a massless string A. They are

pulled horizontally across the surface by a second string B with a constant

acceleration of 12 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the force of string A on the

4 kg mass?

A 2 kg mass and a 4 kg mass on a horizontal frictionless surface are

connected by a massless string A. They are

pulled horizontally across the surface by a second string B with a constant

acceleration of 12 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the net force on the 2 kg

mass?

A mass is suspended from the roof of a lift (elevator) by means of a spring

balance. The lift (elevator) is moving

upwards and the readings of the spring balance are noted as follows:

Speeding up: RU

Constant speed: RC

Slowing down: RD

Which of the following is a correct relationship between the readings?

A small box of mass m is placed on top of a larger box of mass 2m as shown

in the diagram at right. When a

force F is applied to the large box, both boxes accelerate to the right with the

same acceleration. If the

coefficient of friction between all surfaces is , what would be the force

accelerating the smaller mass?

The S.I. unit of force is named the newton in honor of Sir Isaac Newton's

contributions to physics. Which of

the following combination of units is the equivalent of a newton?

100 m

510 m

610 m

1020 m

1220 m

d1 = vit + at^2 = 0 m + (50 m/s^2)

(2 s)^2

For the second part, we first find the

velocity after the thrust v = at = 100 m/s

and at the

maximum height v

= 100 m

f = 0, so to find d2 we use vf^2 = vi^2 +

2ad2 which gives d2

= 510 m

640 m

890 m

1170 m

1390 m

1500 m

6.0 m/s

13 m/s

33 m/s

67 m/s

150 m/s

displacement south = 400 m. Use the

Pythagorean

theorem.

For a horizontal projectile (viy = 0 m/s)

to fall 1 m takes (using 1 m = gt^2)

0.45 seconds. To

travel 30 m in this time requires a

speed of d/t = (30 m)/(0.45 s)

72 N

48 N

24 N

6N

3N

(6 kg)(12 m/s2)

72.dynamics.png

72 N

48 N

24 N

6N

3N

FA = (4kg)(12 m/s2)

72.dynamics.png

72 N

48 N

24 N

6N

3N

RU > RC

RU = RD

RC = RD

RC < RD

RU < RD

Fnet = ma

Elevator physics: R represents the

scale reading. F = ma; R mg = ma,

or R = m(g + a). This

ranks the value of R from largest to

smallest as accelerating upward,

constant speed,

accelerating downward

(3m)g = (3m)a and solving for a gives

a = (F 3mg)/3m. For the top block,

Fm

= ma = m[(F 3mg)/3m]

76.dynamics.png

upward on the

block.

Kinetic friction acts Static friction acts

upward on the

No friction acts on downward on the downward on the

block

the block

block

block.

shown. The

coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.30 while the coefficient of static friction is

0.50. What is

true of the friction acting on the block after a time of 1 second?

D

A homeowner pushes a lawn mower across a horizontal patch of grass with a

constant speed by applying a

force P. The arrows in the diagram correctly indicate the directions but not

necessarily the magnitudes of the

various forces on the lawn mower. Which of the following relations among the

various force magnitudes, W, f, N, P

is CORRECT?

A

A mass, M, is at rest on a frictionless surface, connected to an ideal

horizontal spring that is unstretched. A

person extends the spring 30 cm from equilibrium and holds it at this location

by applying a 10 N force. The

spring is brought back to equilibrium and the mass connected to it is now

doubled to 2M. If the spring is

extended back 30 cm from equilibrium, what is the necessary force applied by

the person to hold the mass

stationary there?

C

72.dynamics.png

m a = kg m/s^2

77.dynamics.png

The normal force comes from the

perpendicular component of the applied

force which is Fcos

= 50 N. The maximum value of static

friction is then F

N = 25 N. The upward component of

the applied force is Fsin = 87 N. Fy

= Fup mg = 87 N 60 N > 25 N. Since

the net force on

the block is great than static friction can

hold, the block will begin moving up the

wall. Since it

is in motion, kinetic friction is acting

opposite the direction of the blocks

motion

78.dynamics.png

P < f and N = W

P = f and N > W

normal force is increased. Since a

component of P balances

the frictional force, P itself must be

none of the above larger than f.

20.0 N

14.1 N

10.0 N

7.07 N

5.00 N

the mass has no effect.

79.dynamics.png

82 Dynamics

following statements concerning this situation is CORRECT?

83 Dynamics

A crate of toys remains at rest on a sleigh as the sleigh is pulled up a hill with

an increasing speed. The crate is not fastened down to the sleigh. What force

is responsible for the crates increase in speed up the hill?

B

force the bat

exerts on the ball.

The direction of

the frictional force

Although there is

acting on the book

no friction acting

is in the same

The force of the

on the crate, there

direction as the

book on the crate must be friction

The net force

frictional force

is less than that of acting on the book acting on the book acting

crate on the book. or else it will fall.

is zero.

on the crate.

the contact force

the contact force

(normal force) of

the force of static (normal force) of

the gravitational

the ground on the friction of the

the sleigh on the

force acting on the

sleigh

sleigh on the crate crate

sleigh

84 Dynamics

elevator. When the scale reads 520 N, the elevator must be

accelerating

upward.

accelerating

downward.

moving upward at

a constant speed.

85 Dynamics

In which one of the following situations is the net force constantly zero on the

object?

E

A mass attached

to a string and

swinging like a

pendulum.

A stone falling

freely in a

gravitational field.

An astronaut

floating in the

International

Space Station.

f<M<T

M<f<T

M<T<f

crates acceleration is the force of

no force is needed friction from the sleigh

Elevator physics: FN represents the

scale reading. F = ma; FN mg = ma,

moving downward

or FN = m(g + a). When FN > mg, the

at a constant

elevator is accelerating upward (a is

speed.

at rest.

positive)

Changing direction (choices A and C

(the astronaut is still orbiting the earth!))

A snowboarder

A skydiver who

cannot occur

riding down a

has reached

with a zero net force. Choices B and D

steep hill.

terminal velocity.

represent accelerated motion.

Given that the box accelerates toward

Ted, Teds force must be greater than

Marios force plus the force of friction.

Since Marios force is of Teds force,

It cannot be

the force of frction must be less than

f=M<T

determined.

half of Teds force.

X-componentpositive 6 N Ycomponentnegative 8 N

X-componentpositive 8 N Ycomponentnegative 6 N

X-componentnegative 6 N Ycomponentpositive 8 N

X-componentnegative 8 N Ycomponentpositive 6 N

switch the nouns

The component of gravity acting down

the incline (+x) is mgsin and the

component

X-component- 0 N perpendicularly intothe incline (y) is

Y-componentmgcos. 36.9 indicates a 3-4-5

positive 10 N

triangle.

4800 N

4000 N

3200 N

800 N

400 N

k = 0.013

k = 0.394

k= 0.509

k= 0.866

k= 1.055

Fy= Fsin + FN mg = 0, which gives

FN = 170 N. The force of friction is

equal to the horizontal component of

the force applied by the student which

is Fcos = 86.6N. Ff= FN

0N

21 N

30 N

51 N

76 N

0.938 m/s2

displacement are given, as well as an

indication that the acceleration is

constant, this is merely a kinematics

problem. vf2 = vi2 + 2ad

92.dynamics.png

81 Dynamics

86 Dynamics

87 Dynamics

and hits the ball. The magnitude of

the force that the ball exerts on the bat is always

A box slides to the right across a horizontal floor. A person called Ted exerts

a force T to the right on the box. A person called Mario exerts a force M to the

left, which is half as large as the force T. Given that there is friction f and the

box accelerates to the right, rank the sizes of these three forces exerted on

the box

A

You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The Newton's third law companion force

to the force of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by which object onto

what other object?

C

93 Dynamics

acting on it from the Earth. Which of the following gives the correct

components of this gravitational force for the coordinate axes shown in the

figure? The y-axis is perpendicular to the inclines surface while the x-axis is

parallel to the inclined surface.

A spaceman of mass 80 kg is sitting in a spacecraft near the surface of the

Earth. The spacecraft is accelerating upward at five times the acceleration

due to gravity. What is the force of the spaceman on the spacecraft?

. A 22.0 kg suitcase is dragged in a straight line at a constant speed of 1.10

m/s across a level airport floor by a student on the way to Mexico. The

individual pulls with a 1.0 102 N force along a handle which makes an

upward angle of 30.0 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What is the

coefficient of kinetic friction between the suitcase and the floor?

A person pushes a block of mass M = 6.0kg with a constant speed of 5.0 m/s

straight up a flat surface inclined

30.0 above the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the

block and the surface is = 0.40.

What is the net force acting on the block?

In the figure above, a box moves with speed 5.0 m/s at the bottom of a rough,

fixed inclined plane. The box

slides with constant acceleration to the top of the incline as it is being pushed

directly to the left with a constant

force of F = 240 N. The box, of mass m = 20.0 kg, has a speed of 2.50 m/s

when it reaches the top of the

incline. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the box as it slides up

the incline?

A 20.0 kg box remains at rest on a horizontal surface while a person pushes

directly to the right on the box with

a force of 60 N. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the

surface is k = 0.20. The coefficient

of static friction between the box and the surface is s= 0.60. What is the

magnitude of the force of friction

acting on the box during the push?

94 Dynamics

Two identical blocks of weight W are placed one on top of the other as shown

in the diagram above. The upper

block is tied to the wall. The lower block is pulled to the right with a force F.

The coefficient of static friction

between all surfaces in contact is . What is the largest force F that can be

exerted before the lower block starts

to slip?

E

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zero as it is only

equal to the

the bat that exerts gravitational force

a force on the ball. acting on the ball.

12.0 m/s^2

10.0 m/s^2

force the bat

exerts on the ball.

5.88 m/s^2

1.88 m/s^2

that the bat exerts

on the ball.

Newtons third law

The Newtons

Third Law reaction

force to the weight

of the book is the

normal force from

the table

200 N

120 N

60 N

40 N

0N

3W/2

2W

5W/2

3W

must be zero. While the book and crate

are pushing each other apart, there is

friction from the table pointing inward

against each object on the table to keep

them at rest.

82.dynamics.png

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this case is sFN = 120 N. Since the

person is pushing with only 60 N of

force, the box remains at rest.

Between the lower block and the

tabletop, there is a force of friction to

the left of maximum

magnitude (2W) as both blocks are

pushing down on the tabletop. There is

also a force of

friction acting to the left on the upper

surface of the lower block due to the

upper block of

maximum magnitude W. The total

maximum static frictional force holding

the lower block in

place is therefore (2W) + W

94.dynamics.png

mg

mgcos

96 Dynamics

length L and spring constant k

inside a box as shown. The box begins accelerating upward with acceleration

a. How much closer does the equilibrium position of the

mass move to the bottom of the box?

C

(aL)/g

(gL)/a

97 Dynamics

the direction of the frictional force

on the tires?

A

backward on the

front tires and

forward on the rear

tires

forward on the

front tires and

backward on the

rear tires.

98 Dynamics

A ball of mass m is launched into the air. Ignore air resistance, but assume

that there is a wind that exerts a

constant force Fo in the x direction. In terms of Fo and the acceleration due

to gravity g, at what angle above

the positive x-axis must the ball be launched in order to come back to the

point from which it was launched?

tan-1(Fo/mg)

tan-1(mg/Fo)

m1g/(m1 + m2 +

m3)

g(m1 + m2)/(m1

+ m2 + m3)

5N

7N

found from Fy = 0 = FN mgcos F.

The force of

friction necessary to hold the block in

place is mgsin. Setting the force of

friction equal to

mgsin gives FN = mgsin = (F +

mgsin

mgsin/

mg(sin cos)/ mgcos)

In equilibrium, mg = kx and the

equilibrium position x = mg/k. In an

accelerating elevator, we

can just adjust gravity to its effective

value g(eff) = g + a, thus making the

new equilibrium

(m(g+a))/k

(m(g-a))/k

(ma)/k

position mg(eff)/k

This is a tricky one. In order to move

the car forward, the rear tires roll back

against the

ground, the force of friction pushing

forward on the rear tires. The front tires,

however, are not

trying to roll on their own, rather they

begin rolling due to the friction acting

backward on all

backward,

forward on all tires tires

zero

increasing their rate of rotation

Gravity is still the only force acting

vertically so we can find the total time in

the air from

kinematics: vy = 0 at the top = vosin

gt giving t (to the top) = v0sin/g and

the total time is

twice the time to the top, or 2vosin/g.

In this time, the ball is also accelerating

horizontally

(think of it as a sideways gravity) and

in this time, should return to its starting

location.

the angle depends

Using x = 0 = (vocos)t + at2, where

on the launch

no such angle is

a = Fo/m and t is found above, we can

sin-1(Fo/mg)

speed

possible

solve for

The external forces acting on the

system of masses are the weights of

block 1 (pulling the

system to the left), the weight of block 3

(pulling the system to the right) and the

force of

friction on block 2 (pulling the system to

the left with a magnitude FN = m2g)

g(m1 + m2 + m3)/ g(m1 m2 m3)/ g(m1 m2 m3)/ F(external) = m(total)a gives (m1g

(m1 m2 m3)

(m1 + m2 + m3)

(m1 + m2 + m3)

m2g m3g) = (m1 + m2 + m3)a

F = ma gives 30 N = (12 kg)a or an

acceleration of 2.5 m/s2. The 5 kg block

is accelerating due

to the tension in the rope FT = ma = (5

12.5 N

17.5 N

30 N

kg)(2.5 m/s2) = 12.5 N.

9.8 m/s^2

8.4 m/s^2

6.3 m/s^2

3.8 m/s^2

2.5 m/s^2

velocities are

equal

not enough

information is

provided

95 Dynamics

diagram (see above). The plane makes

an angle of with the horizontal and F is perpendicular to the plane. The

coefficient of friction between the

plane and the block is . What is the minimum force, F, necessary to keep

the block at rest?

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Given the three masses as shown in the diagram above, if the coefficient of

kinetic friction between the large

mass (m2) and the table is , what would be the upward acceleration of the

small mass (m3)? The mass and

friction of the cords and pulleys are small enough to produce a negligible

effect on the system.

Two masses 5.0 and 7.0 kg are originally at rest on a frictionless surface. The

masses are connected by a light

cord. A second cord is attached to the 7.0 kg mass and pulled with a

horizontal force of 30 N. What is the

tension in the cord that connects the two masses?

Two masses are connected by a light cord which is looped over a light

frictionless pulley. If one mass is 3.0 kg

and the second mass is 5.0 kg, what is the downward acceleration of the

heavier mass? Assume air resistance is

negligible.

Three identical laboratory carts A, B, and C are each subject to a constant

force FA, FB, and FC, respectively.

One or more of these forces may be zero. The diagram below shows the

position of each cart at each second of

an 8.0 second interval.

Which car has the greatest

average velocity during the interval?

Three identical laboratory carts A, B, and C are each subject to a constant

force FA, FB, and FC, respectively.

One or more of these forces may be zero. The diagram below shows the

position of each cart at each second of

an 8.0 second interval.

How does the magnitude of the

force acting on each car compare?

FA > FB > FC

FA = FC > FB

FA > FC = FB

forces is equal to

the ratio of the

velocities

forces is equal to

the ratio of the

velocities

opening her parachute, she falls at

a much smaller terminal velocity. How does the total upward force before she

opens her parachute compare to

the total upward force after she opens her parachute?

E

Each of the diagrams below represents two weights connected by a massless

string which passes over a

massless, frictionless pulley. In which diagram will the magnitude of the

acceleration be the largest?

A

FA = FB > FC

The upward force

the upward force

before the

with the parachute parachute will be

will depend on the greater because of

size of the

the greater

parachute

velocity.

not enough

information

95.dynamics.png

96.dynamics.png

99.dynamics.png

100.dynamics.png

10 m/s2) (3 kg 10 m/s2) = (8 kg)a

101.dynamics.png

after 8 seconds, they all have the same

average velocity

104.dynamics.png

Car A decelerates with the same

magnitude that C accelerates. Car B is

moving at constant

speed, which means FB

B

= 0.

104.dynamics.png

The upward force force of air resistance equals your

in both cases must weight, regardless of

be the same.

the speed.

For each case, Fexternal = mtotal*a

gives Mg mg = (M + m)a or a=

[(M-m)/(M+m)]g

105.dynamics.png

111 Dynamics

a frictionless lightweight pulley

with two cubes connected by a light string. If cube A has a mass of 4.0 kg and

cube B has a mass of 6.0 kg, the

system will move such that cube B accelerates downwards. What would be

the tension in the two parts of the

string between the pulley and the cubes?

If a net force F applied to an object of mass m will produce an acceleration of

a, what is the mass of a second

object which accelerates at 5a when acted upon by a net force of 2F?

A simple Atwood's machine remains motionless when equal masses M are

placed on each end of the chord.

When a small mass m is added to one side, the masses have an acceleration

a. What is M? You may neglect

friction and the mass of the cord and pulley.

Block 1 is stacked on top of block 2. Block 2 is connected by a light cord to

block 3, which is pulled along a

frictionless surface with a force F as shown in the diagram. Block 1 is

accelerated at the same rate as block 2

because of the frictional forces between the two blocks. If all three blocks

have the same mass m, what is the

minimum coefficient of static friction between block 1 and block 2?

An object originally traveling at a velocity, v0, is accelerated to a velocity, v, in

a time, t, by a constant force, F.

What would be the mass of the object?

A frictionless air puck of mass m is placed on a plane surface inclined at an

angle of 60 with respect to the

horizontal. A string of length l is attached to the puck at one end and the

upper edge of the inclined plane at the

other to constrain the movement of the puck. What would be the magnitude of

the normal force from the plane

acting on the puck?

mg(sin 60)

mg(cos 30)

mg(tan 30)

mg/(tan 60)

112 Dynamics

Three blocks (m1, m2, and m3) are sliding at a constant velocity across a

rough surface as shown in the

diagram above. The coefficient of kinetic friction between each block and the

surface is . What would be the

force of m1 on m2?

(m2 + m3)g

F (m2 m3)g

113 Dynamics

which passes tautly over a massless

frictionless pulley. The upper mass is initially held at rest on a table 50 cm

from the pulley. The coefficient of

kinetic friction between this mass and the table is 0.2. When the system is

released, its resulting acceleration is

closest to which of the following?

9.8 m/s^2

greater in

magnitude than

the frictional force

exerted on the

person by the

merry-go-round

7.8 m/s^2

opposite in

direction to the

frictional force

exerted on the

merry-go-round by

the person

4.9 m/s^2

3.9 m/s^2

One-quarter the

original speed

One-half the

original speed

original speed

speed

original speed

clockwise at 30

m/s

clockwise at 10

m/s

counterclockwise

at 30 m/s

counterclockwise

at 10 m/s

with constant

velocity

variables being constant, if r is

quadrupled, v is doubled

With acceleration south the car is at the

top (north side) of the track as the

acceleration points toward the center of

the circular track. Moving east indicates

the car is travelling clockwise. The

magnitude of the acceleration is found

from a = v2/r

3.circular.png

centripetal force (toward the center)

I only

III only

I and II only

changing speed and/or direction

points toward the center of the circular

path

106 Dynamics

107 Dynamics

108 Dynamics

109 Dynamics

110 Dynamics

1 Circular

2 Circular

3 Circular

4 Circular

5 Circular

6 Circular

TA = 47 N ; TB =

71 N

TA = 47 N ; TB =

47 N

TA = 47 N ; TB =

42 N

TA = 39 N ; TB =

59 N

TA = 39 N ; TB =

39 N

have the same tension, eliminating

choices A, C and D. If

choice E was correct, both masses

would be accelerating downward and

TA must be greater than the weight of

block A.

(2/5)m

2m

(5/2)m

5m

10m

object m = 2F/5a = 2/5(F/a) = (2/5)m

107.dynamics.png

Mg = (2M + m)a

(3m)a, or a = F/(3m). The force of

friction acting on

block 1 is the force moving block 1 and

we have mg = m(F/(3m))

2F/3mg

F/mg

3F/2mg

F/3mg

exerted on the person by the

merry-go-round is

B

A ball attached to a string is whirled around in a horizontal circle having a

radius r. If the radius of the circle is

changed to 4r and the same centripetal force is applied by the string, the new

speed of the ball is which of the

following?

D

A racing car is moving around the circular track of radius 300 meters shown

above. At the instant when the car's

velocity is directed due east, its acceleration is directed due south and has a

magnitude of 3 meters per second

squared. When viewed from above, the car is moving

The horizontal turntable shown above rotates at a constant rate. As viewed

from above, a coin on the turntable

moves counterclockwise in a circle as shown. Which of the following vectors

best represents the direction of the

frictional force exerted on the coin by the turntable when the coin is in the

position shown?

In which of the following situations would an object be accelerated?

I. It moves in a straight line at constant speed.

II. It moves with uniform circular motion.

III. It travels as a projectile in a gravitational field with negligible air resistance.

An automobile moves at constant speed down one hill and up another hill

along the smoothly curved surface

shown above. Which of the following diagrams best represents the directions

ofthe velocity and the

acceleration of the automobile at the instant that it is at the lowest position. as

shown?

2F/mg

F = ma = mv/t

106.dynamics.png

108.dynamics.png

110.dynamics.png

incline problem. The normal force on an

incline with

no other forces acting into the incline is

None of these

mgcos

11.dynamics.png

Since the system is moving at constant

velocity, m1 is pushing m2 and m3

with a force equal tothe force of friction

acting on those two blocks, which is

(FN2 + FN3

m1g (m2+ 3)g )

112.dynamics.png

Fexternal = mtotala gives (5 kg 9.8

m/s2

) Ff

= (10 kg)a, where Ff

is the force of friction acting

on the 5 kg block on the table: mg =

0.2 5 kg 9.8 m/s2

D

1.9 m/s^2

= 9.8 N

113.dynamics.png

the center of the

zero if the rate of independent of the

merry-go-round

rotation is constant person's mass

Newtons third law

4.circular.png

6.circular.png

7 Circular

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

19 Circular

20 Circular

21 Circular

22 Circular

23 Circular

24 Circular

25 Circular

26 Circular

27 Circular

28

29

30

31

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

Circular

Circular

Circular

Circular

Torque

Torque

Torque

Torque

Torque

Torque

Torque

A car initially travels north and then turns to the left along a circular curve.

This causes a package on the seat of

the car to slide toward the right side of the car. Which of the following is true

of the net force on the package

while it is sliding?

A child has a toy tied to the end of a string and whirls the toy at constant

speed in a horizontal circular path of

radius R. The toy completes each revolution of its motion in a time period T.

What is the magnitude of the

acceleration of the toy?

The force is

directed away from

the center of the

The force is

circle

directed north.

There is not

enough force

directed north to

keep the package

from sliding.

There is not

enough force

tangential to the

car's path to keep

the package from

sliding.

There is not

enough force

directed toward the

center of the circle

to keep the

package from

sliding.

toward the center of the circle is

required. While the

package slides to the right in the car, it

is actually moving in its original straight

line path while

the car turns from under it.

Zero

(4 pi^2 R)/T^2

(pi R)/T^2

2*pi*g

pi^2 r)/T^2

ball is constant

ball is consant

constant

The magnitude of

the ball's

acceleration is

constant

The acceleration of

the ball is directed

radially inwards

towards the center

changing direction means velocity

cannot be constant as

velocity is a vector

F/2

2F

4F

8F

Upward

Downward

Forward

Backward

(mv2/r) = 4F

Assuming the track is circular at the

bottom, the acceleration points toward

the center of the

circular path

A child whirls a ball at the end of a rope, in a uniform circular motion. Which

of the following statements is

NOT true?

B

An astronaut in an orbiting space craft attaches a mass m to a string and

whirls it around in uniform circular

motion. The radius of the circle is r, the speed of the mass is v, and the

tension in the string is F. If the mass,

radius, and speed were all to double the tension required to maintain uniform

circular motion would be

D

Assume the roller coaster cart rolls frictionlessly along

the curved track from point A to point C under the

influence of gravity. What would be the direction of the

cart's acceleration at point B?

A

Which car has had the lowest average speed during the race so far?

Which car at the moment of the snapshot MUST have a net force acting on

it?

A centripetal force of 5.0 newtons is applied to a rubber stopper moving at a

constant speed in a horizontal

circle. If the same force is applied, but the radius is made smaller, what

happens to the speed, v, and the

frequency, f, of the stopper?

What is the centripetal acceleration of an object (mass = 50 g) on the end of

an 80-cm string rotating at a

constant rate of 4 times a second?

What net force is necessary to keep a 1.0 kg puck moving in a circle of radius

0.5 m on a horizontal frictionless

surface with a speed of 2.0 m/s?

Car A

Car B

Car C

Car A

Car B

Car C

No acceleration

Cannot be

All three cars have determined with

had the same

information

average speed

provided

Cannot be

All three cars have determined with

net forces acting

information

on them

provided

v increases and f

increases

v decreases and f

decreases

v increases and f

decreases

v decreases and f

increases

neither changes

time). Lowest average speed is the car

that covered the least distance

22.circular.png

As all the cars are changing direction,

there must be a net force to change the

direction of their

velocity vectors

22.circular.png

F = mv2/r; v2 = rF/m, if r decreases, v

will decrease with the same applied

force. Also, v = 2rf

so 42r2f = rF/m, or f = F/(42rm) and

as r decreases, f increases.

25 m/s^2

32 m/s^2

100 m/s^2

500 m/s^2

2500 m/s^2

ON

2.0 N

4.0 N

8.0 N

16 N

is released from the horizontal

position at rest. At the moment shown in the diagram with 0 < < 90, the

total acceleration of the mass may

be directed in which of the following ways?

A

A 4.0 kg mass is attached to one end of a rope 2 m long. If the mass is swung

in a vertical circle from the free

end of the rope, what is the tension in the rope when the mass is at its

highest point if it is moving with a speed

of 5 m/s?

B

Straight upward

F = mv2/r

There is a force acting downward

(gravity) and a centripetal force acting

toward the center of

Straight along the the circle (up and to the right). Adding

connecting string these vectors cannot produce

toward point P (the resultants in the directions

Straight downward pivot)

of B, C, D or E.

5.4 N

21.6 N

50 N

10.8 N

65.4 N

mv2/r mg

21.circular.png

27.circular.png

8 Torque

9 Torque

10 Torque

11 Torque

12 Torque

To weigh a fish, a person hangs a tackle box of mass 3.5 kilograms and a

cooler of mass 5 kilograms from the ends of a uniform rigid pole that is

suspended by a rope attached to its center. The system balances when the

fish hangs at a point 1/4 of the rods length from the tackle box. What is the

mass of the fish?

Two objects, of masses 6 and 8 kilograms, are hung from the ends of a stick

that is 70 cm long and has marks every 10 cm, as shown. If the mass of the

stick is negligible, at which of the points indicated should a cord be attached if

the stick is to remain horizontal when suspended from the cord?

D

A wheel of radius R and negligible mass is mounted on a horizontal

frictionless axle so that the wheel is in a vertical plane. Three small objects

having masses m, M, and 2M, respectively, are mounted on the rim of the

wheel, as shown. If the system is in static equilibrium, what is the value of m

in terms of M?

C

A rod on a horizontal tabletop is pivoted at one end and is free to rotate

without friction about a vertical axis, as shown. A force F is applied at the

other end, at an angle to the rod. If F were to be applied perpendicular to

the rod, at what distance from the axis should it be applied in order to

produce the same torque?

A horizontal, uniform board of weight 125 N and length 4 m is supported by

vertical chains at each end. A person weighing 500 N is sitting on the board.

The tension in the right chain is 250 N.What is the tension in the left chain?

15 Torque

vertical chains at each end. A person weighing 500 N is sitting on the board.

The tension in the right chain is 250 N.How far from the left end of the board

is the person sitting?

Torque is the rotational analogue of

A square piece of plywood on a horizontal tabletop is subjected to the two

horizontal forces shown. Where should a third force of magnitude 5 newtons

be applied to put the piece of plywood into equilibrium?

16 Torque

shown by a rope that makes a 30 angle with the horizontal. The force

exerted on the bar at point O, where it is pivoted, is best represented by a

vector whose direction is which of the following?

13 Torque

14 Torque

17 Torque

18 Torque

19 Torque

20 Torque

magnitude to the torque about point X in the diagram? (All forces lie in the

plane of the paper.)

A rod of length L and of negligible mass is pivoted at a point that is off-center

with lengths shown in the figure

below. The figures show two cases in which masses are suspended from the

ends of the rod. In each case the

unknown mass m is balanced by a known mass, M1 or M2, so that the rod

remains horizontal. What is the value

of m in terms of the known masses?

A system of two wheels fixed to each other is free to rotate about a

frictionless axis through the common center of the wheels and

perpendicular to the page. Four forces are exerted tangentially to the

rims of the wheels, as shown. The magnitude of the net torque on

the system about the axis is

For the wheel-and-axle system shown, which of the following

expresses the condition required for the system to be in static

equilibrium?

1.5 kg

2 kg

3 kg

6 kg

6.5 kg

M/2

3M/2

2M

5M/2

Lsin

Lcos

Ltan

2^(1/2) L

250 N

375 N

500 N

625 N

875 N

B

D

.4 m

kinetic energy

1.5 m

linear momentum

2m

acceleration

2.5 m

force

3m

mass

Ml + M2

(Ml + M2)

Ml M2

M1M2

M1M2

rope as the pivot point. (3.5)(9.8)(L/2)

+ m(9.8)(L/4) (5)(9.8)(L/2) = 0

therefore m=3 kg

To balance the torques on each side,

we obviously need to be closer to the

heavier mass. Trying point D as a pivot

point we have:

(m1g) r1 ?=? (m2g) r2

(6kg) (40 cm) ?=? (8kg) (30 cm) and we

see it works

Applying rotational equilibrium at the

center pivot we get: +mg(R) + Mg

(Rcos60) 2Mg(R) = 0.

Using cos60 = 12 we arrive at the

answer 3M/2

Finding the torque in the current

configuration we have: (Fsin)(L) = FL

sin .

To get the same torque with F applied

perpendicular we would have to change

the L to get F (Lsin)

Simple Fnet(y) = 0

T 500 + 250 125 = 0

Apply rotational equilibrium using left

end as pivot:

Same Diagram

+ (250)(4) (125)(2) (500)(r) = 0

therefore r =1.5m

Definition of torque

To balance the forces (Fnet=0) the

answer must be A or D, to prevent

rotation, obviously A would be needed

Since the rope is a tan angle it has x

and y B components of force.

Therefore, H would have to exist to

counteract Tx. Based on net = 0

requirement, V also would have to exist

to balance W if we were to chose a

pivot

point at the right end of the bar

In the given diagram the torque is = FL.

Finding the torque of all the choices

reveals C as correct. (2Fsin60) (L) =

2F 12 L = FL

Applying rotational equilibrium to each

diagram gives

DIAGRAM 1: (mg)(L1) = (M1g)(L2), L1

= M1(L2) /m. (sub this L1) into the

Diagram 2 eqn, and solve. DIAGRAM

2: (M2g)(L1) = mg(L2), M2 (L1) = m

(L2)

8.torque.png

9.torque.png

10.torque.png

11.torque.png

15.torque.png

16.torque.png

17.torque.png

18.torque.png

zero

FR

2FR

5FR

14FR

m1 = m2

am1 = bm2

am2 = bm1

a^2m1 = b^2m^2

b^2m1 = a^2m2

2.0 Nm

8.0 Nm

10 Nm

14 Nm

16 Nm

signs and add up. + (1) (2) + (3) + (4)

+F(3R) (2F)(3R) + F(2R) +F(3R) =

2FR

19.torque.png

Simply apply rotational equilibrium

(m1g) r1 = (m2g) r2

m1a = m2b

20.torque.png

Question says meterstick has no mass,

so ignore that force.

Pivot placed at 0.60 m. Based on the

applied masses, this

meterstick would have a net torque and

rotate. Find the net

Torque as follows

net = + (m1g) r1 (m2g) r2

+ (2)(10 m/s2)(0.6 m) (1)(10 m/s2)

(0.4 m)

Am/k

(1/A)k/m

(1/A)m/k

kA2 = mv2 solve for v

Fd cos

-mgd

- mgd cos

Fcos Wfk = fkd = Fcos d

with a 2.0 kg mass hung at the 0 m

mark and a 1.0 kg mass hung at the 1.0 m mark. The meterstick is released

from rest in a horizontal position.

Immediately after release, the magnitude of the net torque on the meterstick

21 Torque

about the fulcrum is most nearly

B

A mass m attached to a horizontal massless spring with spring constant k, is

set

into simple harmonic motion. Its maximum displacement from its equilibrium

position is A. What is the masses speed as it passes through its equilibrium

1 WorkPowerEnergy

position?

B

A force F at an angle above the horizontal is used to pull a heavy suitcase

of weight mg a distance d along a

level floor at constant velocity. The coefficient of friction between the floor and

the suitcase is . The work

2 WorkPowerEnergy

done by the frictional force is:

A

0 Ak/m

Fd cos

mgh Fd cos

1.workpowerenergy.

png

If the unit for force is F, the unit for velocity V, and the unit for time T, then the

3 WorkPowerEnergy

unit for energy is:

A

A force of 10 N stretches a spring that has a spring constant of 20 N/m. The

potential energy stored in the

4 WorkPowerEnergy

spring is:

A

constant speed of 6 m/s. The

5 WorkPowerEnergy

work done on the ball during each revolution is:

E

A pendulum bob of mass m on a cord of length L is pulled sideways until the

cord makes an angle with the vertical as shown in the figure to the right.

The

6 WorkPowerEnergy

change in potential energy of the bob during the displacement is:

A

FVT

F/T

FV/T

F/T^2

FV^2/T^2

2.5 J

5.0 J

10 J

40 J

200 J

450 J

90 J

72 J

16 J

zero

mgL (1cos )

mgL (1sin )

mgL sin

mgL cos

2mgL (1sin )

units for each quantity.

Choice A FVT = (N) (m/s) (s) = Nm

which is work in joules same as energy.

Two step problem. Do F = kx, solve

for x then sub in the Usp = kx2

In a circle moving at a constant speed,

the work done is zero since the Force is

always

perpendicular to the distance moved as

you move incrementally around the

circle

The potential energy at the first position

will be the amount lost as the ball falls

and this will be the change in potential. 6.workpowerenergy.

U=mgh = mg(LLcos )

png

A force directed above the horizontal

looks like this To find the work done

by this

force we use the parallel component of

the force (Fx) x distance. = (Fcos ) d

The maximum speed would occur if all

of the potential energy was converted

to kinetic

U = K 16 = mv2

16 = (2) v2

The work done by the stopping force

equals the loss of kinetic energy.

W=K

Fd = mvf

2

mvi

2

vf = 0 F = mv2

/2d

The work done by friction equals the

loss of kinetic energy

fk d = mvf

2

mvi

2

vf = 0, plug in values to get answer

distance D across a level floor.

7 WorkPowerEnergy

The work done by the force F is

FD

FD cos

FD sin

mg sin

mgD cos

8 WorkPowerEnergy

speed it can impart to a 2 kg object?

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

A softball player catches a ball of mass m, which is moving towards her with

horizontal speed V. While bringing the ball to rest, her hand moved back a

distance d. Assuming constant deceleration, the horizontal force exerted on

9 WorkPowerEnergy

the ball by the hand is

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

opposite side and stops. Which of thefollowing might best represent graphs of

12 WorkPowerEnergy

kinetic energy (Ek), potential energy (Ep) and total mechanical energy (ET)

C

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

the v gives 4x the distance

Half way up you have gained half of the

height so you gained of potential

energy. Therefore

you must have lost of the initial

kinetic energy so E2

= (Ek/2).

Subbing into this relationship

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

mgD cos

would still possess some kinetic energy

v=(kd/m)^1/2

v2=kd/m

v=kd/mg

v2=mgd/k

v=d*(k/m)^1/2

Conservation of energy

A 3 kg block with initial speed 4 m/s slides across a rough horizontal floor

before coming to rest. The frictional force acting on the block is 3 N. How far

10 WorkPowerEnergy

does the block slide before coming to rest?

A construction laborer holds a 20 kg sheet of wallboard 3 m above the floor

for 4 seconds. During these 4 seconds how much power was expended on

11 WorkPowerEnergy

the wallboard?

across a patch of ice at a speed v with its brakes locked. It the hits dry

pavement and skids to a stop in a distance d. The coefficient of kinetic friction

13 WorkPowerEnergy

between the tires and the dry road is.

B

Problems 13 and 14 refer to the following situation: A car of mass m slides

across a patch of ice at a speed v with

its brakes locked. It the hits dry pavement and skids to a stop in a distance d.

The coefficient of kinetic friction

14 WorkPowerEnergy

between the tires and the dry road is.

E

energy Ek. When half way to the top of its flight, it has a velocity and kinetic

15 WorkPowerEnergy

energy respectively of

A football is kicked off the ground a distance of 50 yards downfield.

Neglecting air resistance, which of the

following statements would be INCORRECT when the football reaches the

16 WorkPowerEnergy

highest point?

A mass m is attached to a spring with a spring constant k. If the mass is set

into motion by a displacement d from its equilibrium position, what would be

17 WorkPowerEnergy

the speed, v, of the mass when it returns to equilibrium position?

moved, the power is zero

This is a conservative situation so the

total energy should stay same the

whole time. It should also start with max

potential and min kinetic, which only

occurs in choice C

Stopping distance is a work-energy

relationship. Work done by friction to

stop = loss of kinetic

fk d = mvi

2

k

mg = mvi

2

The mass cancelsin the relationship

above so changing mass doesnt

change the distance

18 WorkPowerEnergy

units of time, the dimensions of power would be:

C

An automobile engine delivers 24000 watts of power to a cars driving wheels.

If the car maintains a constant speed of 30 m/s, what is the magnitude of the

19 WorkPowerEnergy

retarding force acting on the car?

A

P = F d / t = (ma)d / t = (kg)(m/s2

)(m) / (s) = kg m2

/ s3

P = Fv, plug in to get the pushing force

F and since its constant speed, Fpush

= fk

Total energy is always conserved so as

the air molecules slow and lose their

kinetic energy, there

is a heat flow which increases internal

(or thermal) energy

ML/T2

ML2/T2

ML2/T3

ML/T

ML2/T

800 N

960 N

1950 N

720000 N

1560000 N

it disapears

it turns into

potential energy

enegy

energy

it turns into

electrical energy

13 J

26 J

52 J

130 J

260 J

20 N

14.1 N

10 N

7.07 N

5N

2500 J

3750 J

10000 J

25000 J

37500 J

the distance

between the rocks

increases while

both are falling.

the acceleration is

greater for the

the speed of both

more massive

rocks is constant

rock.

while they fall.

ground more than

half a second

apart.

ground with the

same kinetic

energy

0J

45 J

280 J

635 J

potential energies

are equal to each

other at all times.

potential energies

are both constant

The maximum

potential energy is

achieved when the

mass passes

through its

equilibrium

position.

2700 J

The maximum

kinetic energy

The maximum

occurs at

kinetic energy and maximum

maximum potential displacement of

energy are equal, the mass from its

but occur at

equilibrium

different times

position

gain in potential energy

10 boxes * mgh (25)(10)(1.5) of each

Eliminating obviously wrong choices

only leaves A as an option. The answer

is A because since

the first ball has a head start on the

second ball it is moving at a faster rate

of speed at all

times. When both are moving in the air

together for equal time periods the first

faster rock

will gain more distance than the slower

one which will widen the gap between

them.

All of the K = m v2

is converted to U. Simply plug in the

values

For a mass on a spring, the max U

occurs when the mass stops and has

no K while the max K

occurs when the mass is moving fast

and has no U. Since energy is

conserved it is

transferred from one to the other so

both maximums are equal

Vo^2/2g

mg/k Vo

m/k Vo

m/k Vo ^(1/2)

k/m Vo ^(1/2)

mvo^2

= k x2 solve for x

1.0 kg

1.2 kg

1.6 kg

2.0 kg

2.5 kg

10 N

12 N

16 N

20 N

33 N

The work done on the block by the gravitational force during the 5-meter slide

40 WorkPowerEnergy

down the plane is most nearly

B

20 J

60 J

80 J

100 J

130 J

A fan blows the air and gives it kinetic energy. An hour after the fan has been

20 WorkPowerEnergy

turned off, what has happened to the kinetic energy of the air?

A box of old textbooks is on the middle shelf in the bookroom 1.3 m from the

floor. If the janitor relocates the

box to a shelf that is 2.6 m from the floor, how much work does he do on the

21 WorkPowerEnergy

box? The box has a mass of 10 kg.

A mass, M, is at rest on a frictionless surface, connected to an ideal

horizontal spring that is unstretched. A person extends the spring 30 cm from

equilibrium and holds it by applying a 10 N force. The spring is brought back

to equilibrium and the mass connected to it is now doubled to 2M. If the

spring is extended back 30 cm from equilibrium, what is the necessary force

22 WorkPowerEnergy

applied by the person to hold the mass stationary there?

A deliveryman moves 10 cartons from the sidewalk, along a 10-meter ramp to

a loading dock, which is 1.5 meters above the sidewalk. If each carton has a

mass of 25 kg, what is the total work done by the deliveryman on the cartons

23 WorkPowerEnergy

to move them to the loading dock?

A rock is dropped from the top of a tall tower. Half a second later another

24 WorkPowerEnergy

rock, twice as massive as the first, is dropped. Ignoring air resistance,

A

A 60.0-kg ball of clay is tossed vertically in the air with an initial speed of 4.60

m/s. Ignoring air resistance, what is the change in its potential energy when it

25 WorkPowerEnergy

reaches its highest point?

D

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

WorkPowerEnergy

the end of an ideal spring?

D

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

A block of mass m slides on a horizontal frictionless table with an initial speed

vo. It then compresses a spring

of force constant k and is brought to rest. How much is the spring

WorkPowerEnergy

compressed from its natural length?

D

A plane 5 meters in length is inclined at an angle of 37, as shown. A block

of weight 20 newtons is placed at the top of the plane and allowed to slide

WorkPowerEnergy

down. The mass of the block is most nearly

D

The magnitude of the normal force exerted on the block by the plane is

39 WorkPowerEnergy

most nearly

in the potential energy mgh = (10)(10)

(1.3)

Based on F = k x. The mass attached

to the spring does not change the

spring constant so the

same resistive spring force will exist, so

the same stretching force would be

required

38.powerenergy.png

Fn= Fgy = mg cos . Since you are

given the incline with sides listed, cos

can be found by

using the dimensions of the incline

cos = adj / hyp = 4/5 to make math

simple. This is

a good trick to learn for physics

problems

38.powerenergy.png

As the box slides down the incline, the

gravity force is parallel to the height of

the incline the

whole time so when finding the work or

gravity you use the gravity force for F

and the

height of the incline as the parallel

distance. Work = (Fg)(d) = (20)(3)

38.powerenergy.png

force equal to their weight (Fg) in order

to lift themselves so

the lifting force F=mg. The power is

then found with P = Fd / t = (Fg)d / t

As the object oscillates its total

mechanical energy is conserved and

transfers from U to K back

and forth. The only graph that makes

sense to have an equal switch

throughout is D

To push the box at a constant speed,

the child would need to use a force

equal to friction so

F=fk

=mg. The rate of work (W/t) is the

power. Power is given by P=Fv

mgv

Two steps. I) use hookes law in the first

situation with the 3 kg mass to find the

spring constant

(k). Fsp=kx, mg=kx, k = 30/.12 =

250. II) Now do energy conservation

with the second

scenario (note that the initial height of

drop will be the same as the stretch

x).

U top = Usp bottom, mgh = k x^2,

(4)(10)(x) = (250) (x^2)

In a circular orbit, the velocity of a

satellite is given by

V= (GMe/r)^(1/2) with Me = M. Kinetic

energy of the satellite is given by K =

m v^2

. Plug in v from above to get answer

vertical rope in 10 s. The average

41 WorkPowerEnergy

power expended by the student to overcome gravity is most nearly

1.1 W

87.5 W

560 W

875 W

5600 W

displacement x for an object on the end of a spring moving back and

forth with amplitude x0. Which of the following graphs represents

42 WorkPowerEnergy

the kinetic energy Kof the object as a function of displacement x ?

speed v across a horizontal floor.

The coefficient of friction between the box and the floor is . At what rate

43 WorkPowerEnergy

does the child do work on the box?

mgv

mgv

mg/v

m^2g/v^2

mv^2

stretch 12 cm at equilibrium, as shown. The 3.0 kg block is then

replaced by a 4.0 kg block, and the new block is released from

the position shown, at which the spring is unstretched. How far

44 WorkPowerEnergy

will the 4.0 kg block fall before its direction is reversed?

9 cm

18 cm

24 cm

32 cm

48 cm

Zero

1/2 GMm/R

1/4 GMm/R

1/2 GMm/R^2

GMm/R^2

hvo^(1/2)

h/v0

hVo/g

2h/g

2h/g^(1/2)

mgh

mv^2

mv^2+mgh

mgh- mv^2

The maximum

kinetic energy is

attained as the

sphere passes

through its

equilibrium

position.

mv^2 - mgh

The minimum

gravitational

potential energy is

The maximum

attained as the

kinetic energy is

sphere passes

attained as the

through its

sphere reaches its equilibrium

point of release.

position.

The maximum

gravitational

potential energy is

attained when the

sphere reaches its

point of release.

energy is attained

only as the sphere

passes through its

equilibrium

A is true; both will be moving the fastest

position.

when they move through equilibrium.

X and Y directions are independent and

both start with the same velocity of zero

in each

direction. The same force is applied in

each direction for the same amount of

time so each

should gain the same velocity in each

E

respective direction.

Kinetic energy is not a vector and the

total resultant velocity should be used

to determine the KE.

For the 1st second the object gains

speed at a uniform rate in the x

direction and since KE is

proportional to v2 we should get a

parabola. However, when the 2nd

second starts the new

gains in velocity occur only in the y

direction and are at smaller values so

the gains

essentially start over their parabolic

E

trend as shown in graph B

400W

900W

800W

1000W

3600W

mgHT

mgH/T

mg/HT

mgT/H

Zero

What is the kinetic energy of a satellite of mass m that orbits the Earth, of

45 WorkPowerEnergy

mass M, in a circular orbit of radius R?

B

A rock of mass m is thrown horizontally off a building from a height h, as

shown above. The speed of the rock as it

leaves the throwers hand at the edge of the building is v

0. How much time does it take the rock to travel from the edge of the building

46 WorkPowerEnergy

to the ground?

E

47 WorkPowerEnergy

What is the kinetic energy of the rock just before it hits the ground?

48 WorkPowerEnergy

Which of the following is true for both spheres?

An object of mass m is initially at rest and free to move without friction in any

direction in the xy-plane. Aconstant net force of magnitude F directed in the

+x direction acts on the object for 1 s. Immediately there after a constant net

force of the same magnitude F directed in the +y direction acts on the object

for 1 s. After this, no forces act on the objectWhich of the following vectors

could represent the velocity of the object at the end of 3 s, assuming the

scales

49 WorkPowerEnergy

on the x and y axes are equal?

An object of mass m is initially at rest and free to move without friction in any

direction in the xy-plane. Aconstant net force of magnitude F directed in the

+x direction acts on the object for 1 s. Immediately there after a constant net

force of the same magnitude F directed in the +y direction acts on the object

for 1 s. After this, noforces act on the objectWhich of the following graphs

50 WorkPowerEnergy

best represents the kinetic energy K of the object as a function of time?

A constant force of 900 N pushes a

100 kg mass up the inclined plane

shown at a uniform speed of 4 m/s.

The power developed by the 900 N

51 WorkPowerEnergy

force is most nearly

52 WorkPowerEnergy

T. The power supplied by the lifting force is

Using d = viyt + at^2

we get the answer

Energy conservation Etop = Ebot,

Kt+Ut = Kb. Plug in for K top and U top

to get answer

42.workpowerenergy.

png

44.workpowerenergy.

png

46.workpowerenergy.

png

47.workpowerenergy.

png

48.workpowerenergy.

png

49.workpowerenergy.

png

50.workpowerenergy.

png

51.workpowerenergy.

Simple P = Fv

png

The force needed to lift something at a

constant speed is equal to the object

weight F=mg. The

power is then found by P = Fd / t = mgh

/t

A system consists of two objects having masses ml and m2 (ml < m2). The

objects are

connected by a massless string, hung over a pulley as shown, and then

released.

When the object of mass m2

has descended a distance h, the potential energy of the

53 WorkPowerEnergy

system has decreased by

The following graphs, all drawn to the same scale, represent the net force F

as a function of displacement x for

an object that moves along a straight line. Which graph represents the force

that will cause the greatest change

in the kinetic energy of the object from x = 0 to x = x1?

54 WorkPowerEnergy

151

From the top of a 70-meter-high building, a l-kilogram ball is thrown directly

downward with an initial speed of

10 meters per second. If the ball reaches the ground with a speed of 30

meters per second, the energy lost to

55 WorkPowerEnergy

friction is most nearly

(m2-m1)gh

M2gh

(M1+M2)gh

(ml + m2)gh

sqrt(gl)

sqrt(2gl)

.5gl

gl

2gl

over distance h and m1 gains energy

over the same

distance h but some of this energy is

converted to KE so there is a net loss of

U. Simply

0 subtract the U2 U1 to find this loss

In a force vs. displacement graph, the

area under the line gives the work done

by the force and

the work done will be the change in the

K so the largest area is the most K

change

53.workpowerenergy.

png

54.workpowerenergy.

png

A rock is lifted for a certain time by a force F that is greater in magnitude than

the rock's weight W. The change

57 WorkPowerEnergy

in kinetic energy of the rock during this time is equal to the

A

net force (F - W)

work done by F

alone

work done by W

alone

difference in

the momentum of

the rock before

and after this time.

A ball is thrown upward. At a height of 10 meters above the ground, the ball

has a potential energy of 50 joules

(with the potential energy equal to zero at ground level) and is moving upward

with a kinetic energy of 50

joules. Air friction is negligible. The maximum height reached by the ball is

58 WorkPowerEnergy

most nearly

B

10 m

20 m

30 m

40 m

The potential

energy of the

spring is at a

minimum at x = 0.

The potential

energy of the

The kinetic energy The kinetic energy

spring is at a

of the block is at a of the block is at a

minimum at x = A. minimum at x =0. maximum at x = A.

the top, to the K ( mv2 ) at the bottom

and subtract them

700J

to get the loss.

Use energy conservation, U top = K

bottom. As in problem #6 (in this

document), the initial

height is given by L Lcos , with cos 56.workpowerenergy.

2gl

60 = .5 so the initial height is L.

png

Use application of the net work energy

difference in the

theorem which says Wnet = K. The

potential energy of net work is the

the rock before

work done by the net force which gives

and after this time. you the answer

First use the given location (h=10m)

and the U there (50J) to find the mass.

U=mgh, 50=m(10)(10), so m = 0.5 kg.

The total mechanical energy is given in

the problem

as U+K = 100 J. The max height is

achieved when all of this energy is

potential. So set

50 m

100J = mgh and solve for h

The kinetic energy

of the block is

always equal to

the potential

There is no Usp at position x=0 since

energy of the

there is no x here so this is the

59.workpowerenergy.

spring.

minimum U location

png

16 N

8N

6N

4N

2N

h/4

h/2(2^1/2)

h/2

h/(2^1/2)

P = Fv

Using energy conservation in the first

situation presented K=U gives the initial

velocity as

v = (2gh)^1/2 . The gun will fire at this

velocity regardless of the angle. In the

second

scenario, the ball starts with the same

initial energy but at the top will have

both KE and PE

so will be at a lower height. The velocity

at the top will be equal to the vx

vx = vcos = ((2gh)^1/2) cos45 = (2gh)

^1/2 ((2^1/2)/2) = (gh^1/2)

at the beginning

. Now sub into the full energy

conservation problem for situation 2

and solve for h2. Kbottom = Utop +

Ktop. 1/2m ((2gh^1/2)^2)= mgh + 1/2m

((gh^1/2)^2)

Fd sin

Fd cos

Fm cos

Fm tan

Fmd sin

component of the force to the distance, 62.workpowerenergy.

this gives Fcos d

png

1000 N

allowing the circular motion which in

this case is the spring

force Fsp=kx=(100)(.03)

massless cord of length L as shown. The pendulum is drawn aside

through an angle of 60 with the vertical and released. At the low point

56 WorkPowerEnergy

of its swing, the speed of the pendulum ball is

0J

100J

300J

400J

sqrt(gl)

sqrt(2gl)

.5gl

gl

attached to a spring, as shown. The block

oscillates along the x-axis with amplitude A.

Which of the following statements about

59 WorkPowerEnergy

energy is correct?

A

During a certain time interval, a constant force delivers an average power of 4

watts to an object. If the object

has an average speed of 2 meters per second and the force acts in the

direction of motion of the object, the

60 WorkPowerEnergy

magnitude of the force is

E

the same gun is pointed at an

angle of 45 from the vertical, what maximum height can now be reached by

61 WorkPowerEnergy

the projectile?

C

A force F is exerted by a broom handle on the head of the broom, which has

a

mass m. The handle is at an angle to the horizontal, as shown. The work

done by the force on the head of the broom as it moves a distance d across a

62 WorkPowerEnergy

horizontal floor is

B

A spring has a force constant of 100 N/m and an unstretched length of 0.07

m. One

end is attached to a post that is free to rotate in the center of a smooth table,

as

shown in the top view. The other end is attached to a 1 kg disc moving in

uniform circular motion on the table, which stretches the spring by 0.03 m.

63 WorkPowerEnergy

Friction is negligible. What is the centripetal force on the disc?

B

.3 N

3N

10 N

300 N

63-64.

workpowerenergy.

png

A spring has a force constant of 100 N/m and an unstretched length of 0.07

m. One

end is attached to a post that is free to rotate in the center of a smooth table,

as

shown in the top view. The other end is attached to a 1 kg disc moving in

uniform circular motion on the table, which stretches the spring by 0.03 m.

Friction is negligible. What is the work done on the disc by the spring during

64 WorkPowerEnergy

one full circle?

0J

94 J

186 J

314 J

628 J

maximum displacement, the

potential energy of the pendulum is 10 J. What is the kinetic energy of the

pendulum when its potential energy

65 WorkPowerEnergy

is 5 J ?

3.3 J

5J

6.7 J

10 J

15 J

4 m/s

10 m/s

13 m/s

16 m/s

21 m/s

t/2

2^1/2 t

2t

4t

v(m/k)^(1/2)

v(k/m)^(1/2)

v((m+M)/k)^(1//2)

(m+M)v/(mk)^1/2

mv/((m+M)k)^1/2

.25s

.5s

1.0s

2.0s

4.0s

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

76

over a distance of 8 m by a cable in which the tension is 11,000 N. The

speed vi of the elevator at the beginning of the 8 m descent is most

WorkPowerEnergy

nearly

A

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

WorkPowerEnergy

A car of mass m, traveling at speed v, stops in time t when maximum braking

force is applied. Assuming the

braking force is independent of mass, what time would be required to stop a

momentum

car of mass 2m traveling at speed v?

D

3 momentum

to a massless spring with spring

constant k, is initially at its equilibrium position. An arrow with mass m and

velocity v is shot into the block.

The arrow sticks in the block. What is the maximum compression of the

spring?

E

How long must a 100 N net force act to produce a change in momentum of

200 kgm/s?

D

4 momentum

energy

mass

impulse

power

work

5 momentum

When the velocity of a moving object is doubled, its _____ is also doubled

acceleration

kinetic energy

mass

momentum

potential energy

2 momentum

7 momentum

Two objects, P and Q, have the same momentum. Q can have more kinetic

energy than P if it has:

C

A spring is compressed between two objects with unequal masses, m and M,

and held together. The objects are

initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. When released, which of

the following is true?

E

Kinetic energy is

the same as

before begin

released.

8 momentum

momentum

6 momentum

The same speed

P

More speed thanP at P

The speed of one

The total final

The two objects

object is equal to

kinetic energy is

have equal kinetic the speed of the

zero.

energy.

other.

change in

change in kinetic

momentum

kinetic energy

energy

more kinetic

energy than P

done is zero since the Force is always

perpendicular to the

distance moved as you move

incrementally around the circle

At the maximum displacement the K=0

so the 10J of potential energy at this

spot is equal to the

total amount of mechanical energy for

the problem. Since energy is conserved

in this

situation, the situation listed must have

U+K add up to 10J.

Using the work-energy theorem. Wnc =

ME,

WFt = U+K,

Fd = (mghf mghi) + ( mvf

^2 mvi

^2),

(11000)(8) = (0 (1000)(10)(8)) + (0

(1000)(vi

^2) solve for vi

would require twice the time for same

momentum change

Two step problem.

I) find velocity after collision with arrow.

mvi = (ma+mb) vf vf = mv / (m+M)

II)now use energy conservation Ki=U

(m+M)vf

2 = k X2, sub in vf

from I

Use J=p Ft=p (100)t=200 t=2

Definition. Impulse, just like momentum,

needs a direction and is a vector

Since p=mv, by doubling v you also

double p

Since the momentum is the same, that

means the quantity m1v1 = m2v2. This

means that the

mass and velocity change

proportionally to each other so if you

double m1 you would have

to double m2 or v2 on the other side as

well to maintain the same momentum.

Now we

consider the energy formula KE=

mv2 since the v is squared, it is the

more important term

to increase in order to make more

energy. So if you double the mass of 1,

then double the

velocity of 2, you have the same

momentum but the velocity of 2 when

squared will make a

greater energy, hence we want more

velocity in object 2 to have more

energy.

Due to momentum conservation, the

momentum of the total before is zero therefore the total

two objects is zero. after must also be zero

none of the above Definition. Jnet = p

63-64.

workpowerenergy.

png

66.workpowerenergy.

png

9 momentum

10 momentum

11 momentum

12 momentum

13 momentum

14 momentum

15 momentum

16 momentum

17 momentum

Two football players with mass 75 kg and 100 kg run directly toward each

other with speeds of 6 m/s and 8 m/s

respectively. If they grab each other as they collide, the combined speed of

the two players just after the

collision would be:

A 30 kg child who is running at 4 m/s jumps onto a stationary 10 kg

skateboard. The speed of the child and the

skateboard is approximately:

A 5000 kg freight car moving at 4 km/hr collides and couples with an 8000 kg

freight car which is initially at

rest. The approximate common final speed of these two cars is

A rubber ball is held motionless a height ho above a hard floor and released.

Assuming that the collision with

the floor is elastic, which one of the following graphs best shows the

relationship between the total energy E of

the ball and its height h above the surface.

Two carts are held together. Cart 1 is more massive than Cart 2. As they are

forced apart by a compressed

spring between them, which of the following will have the same magnitude for

both carts.

If the unit for force is F, the unit for velocity is v and the unit for time t, then

the unit for momentum is

A ball with a mass of 0.50 kg and a speed of 6 m/s collides perpendicularly

with a wall and bounces off with a

speed of 4 m/s in the opposite direction. What is the magnitude of the impulse

acting on the ball?

A cart with mass 2m has a velocity v before it strikes another cart of mass 3m

at rest. The two carts couple and

move off together with a velocity of

20 momentum

A mass m has speed v. It then collides with a stationary object of mass 2m. If

both objects stick together in a

perfectly inelastic collision, what is the final speed of the newly formed

object?

A Freight car is moving freely along a railroad track at 7 m/s and collides with

a tanker car that is at rest. After the collision, the two cars stick together and

continue to move down the track. What is the magnitude of the final velocity

of the cars if the freight car has a mass of 1200 kg and the tanker car has a

mass of 1600 kg?

A 50 kg skater at rest on a frictionless rink throws a 2 kg ball, giving the ball a

velocity of 10 m/s. Which statement describes the skaters subsequent

motion?

21 momentum

A certain particle undergoes erratic motion. At every point in its motion, the

direction of the particles momentum is ALWAYS

22 momentum

in one direction. After the throw,

the hammer moves off in one direction while the student moves off in the

other direction. Which of the

following correctly describes the above situation?

18 momentum

19 momentum

2 m/s

3.4 m/s

4.6 m/s

7.1 m/s

8 m/s

m2v2i = mtot(vf) (75)(6) + (100)(8)

= (175) vf

3m/s

4m/s

5m/s

6m/s

7m/s

(vf) (30)(4) = (40)vf

1 km/h

1.3 km/h

1.5 km/h

2.5 km/h

4 km/h

acceleration

speed

velocity

Ft

Ftv

Ft2v

Ft / v

Fv / t

(vf) ... (5000)(4) = (13000)vf

Energy is conserved during fall and

since the collision is elastic, energy is

also conserved during the collision and

always has the same total value

throughout.

12.momentum.png

To conserve momentum, the change in

momentum of each mass must be the

same so each must receive the same

impulse. Since the spring is in contact

with each mass for the same

expansion time, the applied force must

be the same to produce the same

impulse.

Momentum is equivalent to impulse

which is Ft

13 J

1 Ns

5 Ns

2 m/s

10 m/s

(0.5)(6)

v/5

2v/5

3v/5

2v/3

(2/5)1/2 v

I only

II only

III only

I and II only

(vf) ... (2m)(v) = (5m) vf

First of all, if the kinetic energies are the

same, then when brought to rest, the

non conservative work done on each

would have to be the same based on

work-energy principle. Also, since

both have the same kinetic energies we

have 12 m1v12 = 12 m2v22 ... since

the velocity is

squared an increase in mass would

need a proportionally smaller decrease

in velocity to keep

the terms the same and thus make the

quantity mv be higher for the larger

mass. This can be seen through

example: If mass m1 was double mass

m2 its velocity would be v / 2 times in

comparison to mass m2s velocity. So

you get double the mass but less than

half of the velocity which makes a

larger mv term.

17.momentum.png

v/3

v/2

2v / 3

3v / 2

(vf) ... (m)(v) = (3m) vf

0 m/s

0.4 m/s in the

same direction as

the ball.

1 m/s

0.4 m/s in the

opposite direction

of the ball

3 m/s

2 m/s in the same

direction as the

ball

6 m/s

4 m/s in the

opposite direction

of the ball

direction of its

velocity

direction of its

acceleration

4 m/s

4 m/s in the same

direction as the

ball

the same as the

the same as the

direction of the

direction of the net kinetic energy

force

vector

have the

momentum with

the greater

magnitude

have the

momentum with

the greater

magnitude

have the greater

kinetic energy

vectors, they must share the same

none of the above direction

Explosion, momentum before is zero

and after must also be zero. To have

equal momentum the

heavier student must have a much

The student and

smaller velocity and since that smaller

the hammer will

velocity is squared

have equal but

it has the effect of making the heavier

opposite amounts object have less energy than the

of kinetic energy

smaller one

have the greater

kinetic energy

(vf) ... (1200)(7) = (2800)vf

Explosion. pbefore = 0 = pafter ... 0 =

m1v1f + m2v2f ... 0 = (50)(v1f) + (2)(10)

both toy cars will

acquire equal but acquire equal

opposite momenta kinetic energies

note: since m is not given we will

plug in

Fg / g with g as 10 to be used in the

impulse equation.

1.5 s

3.8 s

15 s

(24000)(t) = (15000 / 10m/s2 ) (3612)

This is a rather involved question. First

find speed of impact using free fall or

energy. Define up

as positive and Let v1 = trampoline

impact velocity and v2 be trampoline

rebound velocity.

With that v1 = 80 and v2 = 80. Now

analyze the impact with the pad using

Jnet =p

Fnet t = mv2 mv1 At this point we

realize we need the time in order to find

the Fnet and

therefore cannot continue. If the time

was given, you could find the Fnet and

More information is then use

500 N

2000 N

required

Fnet = Fpad mg to find Fpad.

Based on momentum conservation both

carts have the same magnitude of

momentum mv but

based on K = m v2 the one with the

larger mass would have a directly

proportional smaller

velocity that then gets squared. So by

squaring the smaller velocity term it has

the effect of

making the bigger mass have less

energy. This can be shown with an

example of one object

the smaller toy car

of mass m and speed v compared to a

will experience an

second object of mass 2m and speed

the more massive acceleration of the

v/2. The larger

toy car will acquire greatest

mass ends up with less energy even

the least speed

magnitude

through the momenta are the same.

8.33 N

18.75 N

27.08 N

45.83 N

458 N

F (0.03) = (0.125)( 6.5 4.5)

0.2 kg

0.5 kg

0.8 kg

1 kg

2 kg

pafter m1v1i = m1v1f + m2v2f (0.1)(30)

= (0.1)(20)+(ma)(2)

23 momentum

The net force on a rocket with a weight of 1.5 x 104 N is 2.4 x 104 N. How

much time is needed to increase the

rockets speed from 12 m/s to 36 m/s near the surface of the Earth at takeoff? C

0.62 s

0.78 s

24 momentum

trampoline then bounces her

back upward with a speed equal to the speed at which she first struck the

trampoline. What is the average force

the trampoline applies to the gymnast.

E

50 N

200 N

28 momentum

Two toy cars with different masses originally at rest are pushed apart by a

spring between them. Which of the

following statements would NOT be true?

A bat striking a 0.125 kg baseball is in contact with the ball for a time of 0.03

seconds. The ball travels in a

straight line as it approaches and then leaves the bat. If the ball arrives at the

bat with a speed of 4.5 m/s and

leaves with a speed of 6.5 m/s in the opposite direction, what is the

magnitude of the average force acting on the

ball?

An arrow is shot through an apple. If the 0.1 kg arrow changes speed by 10

m/s during the collision (from 30

m/s to 20 m/s) and the apple goes from rest to a speed of 2 m/s during the

collisions, then the mass of the apple

must be

A railroad flatcar of mass 2,000 kilograms rolls to the right at 10 meters per

second and collides with a flatcar of

mass 3,000 kilograms that is rolling to the left at 5 meters per second. The

flatcars couple together. Their speed

after the collision is

29 momentum

25 momentum

26 momentum

27 momentum

1 m/s

2.5 m/ s

5 m/ s

Power

Work

Kinetic energy

7 m/ s

7.5 m/ s

Angular

Linear momentum momentum

2mv

2mv sin

2mv cos

31 momentum

A tennis ball of mass m rebounds from a racquet with the same speed v as it

had

initially as shown. The magnitude of the momentum change of the ball is

E

Two bodies of masses 5 and 7 kilograms are initially at rest on a horizontal

frictionless surface. A light spring is compressed between the bodies, which

are held together by a thin thread. After the spring is released by burning

through the thread, the 5 kilogram body has a speed of 0.2 m/s. The speed of

the 7 kilogram body is (in m/s)

B

1/12.

1/7.

1/sqrt(35)

1/5.

7/25.

32 momentum

v. Which of the following must be true?

I. The net force on the satellite is equal to MR and is directed toward the

center of the orbit.

II. The net work done on the satellite by gravity in one revolution is zero.

III. The angular momentum of the satellite is a constant.

D

I only

III only

I and II only

30 momentum

0 mv

m2v2i = mtot(vf) (2000)(10) + (3000)

(5) = (5000) vf

Kinetic energy has no direction and

based on K = m v2 must always be +

A 2d collision must be looked at in both

x-y directions always. Since the angle is

the same and

the v is the same, vy is the same both

before and after therefore there is no

momentum

change in the y direction. All of the

momentum change comes from the x

direction.

vix = v cos and vfx = v cos . p =

mvfx mvix mv cos mv cos

m1v1f + m2v2f ... 0 = (7)(v1f) + (5)(0.2)

In a circle at constant speed, work is

zero since the force is parallel to the

incremental distance moved during

revolution. Angular momentum is given

by mvr and since none of those

quantities are changing it is constant.

However the net force is NOT = MR, its

Mv2/R

33 momentum

Two pucks are firmly attached by a stretched spring and are initially held at

rest on a frictionless surface, as shown above. The pucks are then released

simultaneously. If puck I has three times the mass of puck II, which of the

following quantities is the same for both pucks as the spring pulls the two

pucks toward each other?

37 momentum

Momentum was

not conserved

therefore the

report is false.

different masses

If the surface was

the report could be inclined the report

true.

could be true.

Inertia

Speed

Momentum

Kinetic energy

v/2

mv/M

Mv/m

(m+M)v/m

40 momentum

vertical downpour of rain, as shown above. As the cart rolls, an appreciable

amount of rainwater accumulates in the cart. The speed of the cart will

C

A2kgobjectmovesinacircleofradius4mataconstantspeedof3m/s. Anetforceof4.

5Nactson the object. What is the angular momentum of the object with

respect to an axis perpendicular to the circle and through its center?

E

Two objects of mass 0.2 kg and 0.1 kg, respectively, move parallel to the xaxis, as shown above. The 0.2 kg object overtakes and collides with the 0.1

kg object. Immediately after the collision, the y-component of the velocity of

the 0.2 kg object is 1 m/s upward. What is the y-component of the velocity of

the 0.1 kg object immediately after the collision'?

A

41 momentum

cases?

42 momentum

The sum of the forces on the object is zero in which of the cases?

43 momentum

A ball of mass 0.4 kg is initially at rest on the ground. It is kicked and leaves

the kicker's foot with a speed of 5.0 m/s in a direction 60 above the

horizontal. The magnitude of the impulse imparted by the ball to the foot is

most nearly

38 momentum

39 momentum

The direction of

motion of the

objects that are

stuck together

depends on

whether the hit is a

head-on collision.

If potential energy

was released to

the objects during

the collision the

report could be

true.

35 momentum

A solid metal ball and a hollow plastic ball of the same external radius are

released from rest in a large vacuum chamber. When each has fallen 1m,

they both have the same

A railroad car of mass m is moving at speed v when it collides with a second

railroad car of mass M which is at rest. The two cars lock together

instantaneously and move along the track. What is the speed of the cars

immediately after the collision?

objects that are

stuck together will

be less than the

initial speed of the

less massive

object.

The collision is

elastic.

Two objects having the same mass travel toward each other on a flat surface

each with a speed of 1.0 meter per second relative to the surface. The

objects collide head-on and are reported to rebound after the collision, each

with a speed of 2.0 meters per second relative to the surface. Which of the

following assessments of this report is most accurate?

B

36 momentum

Magnitude of

momentum

kinetic energy of

the less massive

object is lost.

34 momentum

increase because

of conservation of

momentum

9Nm/kg

Velocity

Kinetic energy

Acceleration

The momentum of

the objects that are

stuck together has

a smaller

magnitude than

the initial

momentum of the

less-massive

object.

horizontal frictionless surface hits and sticks to an object of mass M > m,

which is initially at rest on the surface?

Speed

of the objects at rest, the speed after

will always be less no matter what the

masses. The increase of mass in mv

is offset by a decrease in velocity

Since the total momentum before and

after is zero, momentum conservation

is not violated, however the objects

If there was no

gain energy in the collision which is not

friction between

possible unless there was some

the objects and the energy input which could come in the

surface the report form of inputting stored potential energy

could be true.

in some way.

The plastic ball is clearly lighter so

anything involving mass is out, this

Change in

leaves speed which makes sense

potential energy

based on free-fall

mv/(m+M)

remain the same

because the

raindrops are

falling

increase because decrease because decrease because perpendicular to

of conservation of of conservation of of conservation of the direction of the

mechanical energy momentum

mechanical energy cart's motion

12m^2/s

13.5kgm^2/s^2

18Nm/kg

24kgm^2/s.

2 m/s downward

2 m/s upward

IIonly

IIIonly

IandIIonly

IandIIIonly

I,II,andIII

IIonly

IIIonly

IandIIonly

IandIIIonly

I,II,andIII

1Ns

(3)^1/2 N s

2Ns

44 momentum

Two people of unequal mass are initially standing on ice with neglibible

friction. They then simultaneously push each other horizontally. Afterward,

which of the following is true?

45 momentum

3m. The two pieces of mass m move off at right angles to each other with the

same magnitude of momentum mV, as shown in the diagram above. What

are the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the piece having mass 3m? D

4Ns

The kinetic

the speeds of the

energies of the two two people are

people are equal. equal.

2/(3)^1/2 N s

The center of

mass of the twoperson system

moves in the

The momenta of

direction of the

the two people are less massive

equal.

person.

the momentum after must also be zero.

Each mass must have equal and

opposite momentum to maintain zero

total momentum.

33.momentum.png

person has a

smaller initial

acceleration than

the more massive

person.

(vf) ... (m)(v) = (m+M) vf

As the cart moves forward it gains

mass due to the rain but in the x

direction the rain does not provide any

impulse to speed up the car so its

speed must decrease to conserve

momentum

38.momentum.png

formula L = mvr = (2)(3)(4)

2D collision. Analyze the y direction.

Before py = 0 so after py must equal 0.

0 = m1v1fy + m2v2fy 0 = (0.2)(1) +

(0.1)(V2fy)

40.momentum.png

Momentum increases if velocity

increases. In a d-t graph, III shows

increasing slope (velocity)

41.momentum.png

The net force is zero if velocity (slope)

does not change, this is graphs I and II 42.momentum.png

Since the impulse force is applied in the

same direction (60) as the velocity, we

do not need to C use components but

use the 60 inclined axis for the impulse

momentum problem. In that

direction. J=p J=mvf mvi =m(vf vi)=

(0.4)(05)

are at rest and the total momentum is

zero. After, the C total momentum must

also be zero so each man must have

equal and opposite momenta.

Since the initial object was stationary

and the total momentum was zero it

must also have zero D total momentum

after. To cancel the momentum shown

of the other two pieces, the 3m

piece would need an x component of

momentum px = mV and a y

component of momentum

py = mV giving it a total momentum of

2 mV using Pythagorean theorem.

Then set this

total momentum equal to the mass *

velocity of the 3rd particle. 2 mV =

(3m) Vm3 and solve for Vm3

45.momentum.png

46 momentum

47 momentum

48 momentum

49 momentum

A ball is thrown stright up in the air. When the ball reaches its highest point,

which of the following is true?

speed vo. Two objects are dropped vertically into the sled one at a time: first

an object of mass m and then an object of mass 2m. Afterward the sled

moves with speed vf. What would be the final speed of the sled if the objects

were dropped into it in reverse order?

C

The slope of the best fit straight line is most nearly

A

The increase in the momentum of the object between t=0 s and t=4 s is most

nearly

C

51 momentum

How does an air mattress protect a stunt person landing on the ground after a

stunt?

E

Two objects, A and B, initially at rest, are "exploded" apart by the release of a

coiled spring that was compressed between them. As they move apart, the

velocity of object A is 5 m/s and the velocity of object B is 2 m/s. The ratio

of the mass of object A to the mass object B, ma/mb is

B

52 momentum

The two blocks of masses M and 2M shown above initially travel at the same

speed v but in opposite directions. They collide and stick together. How much

mechanical energy is lost to other forms of energy during the collision?

D

50 momentum

It has zero

It is in equilibrium. acceleration.

It has maximum

momentum.

It has maximum

kinetic energy.

true.

vf /3

5 N/s

vf /2

6 N/s

vf

7 N/s

2vf

8 N/s

3vf

10 N/s

40 Ns

50 Ns

60 Ns

80 Ns

It shortens the

stopping time of

It reduces the

It reduces the

It increases the

the stunt person

kinetic energy loss momentum

momentum

and increases the

of the stunt

change of the stunt change of the stunt force applied

person.

person.

person.

during the landing.

0.16

0.4

Zero

.5mv

.75mv

1.3mv

1.5mv

v0/4

v0/2

(v02)/2

(v03)/2

v0

zero

mva

mvx0

mv(x+a)

mva/(x+a)

54 momentum

55 momentum

0 m/s

2 m/s

3 m/s

4 m/s

56 momentum

The final speed of the two 4-kilogram masses that stick together is

0 m/s

2 m/s

3 m/s

4 m/s

57 momentum

rest on a frictionless surface. The combined mass of the gun and projectile is

M2. If the kinetic energy of the projectile after firing is K, the gun will recoil

with a kinetic energy equal to

D

M2*K/M1

[(M1/M2)^2]*K

(M1*K)/(M2-M1)

58 momentum

meters per second, as shown in Figure I above. It then collides elastically with

identical ball Y which is initially at rest. After the collision, ball X moves at 6

meters per second along a path at 53 to its original direction, as shown in

Figure II above. Which of the following diagrams best represents the motion

of ball Y after the collision?

D

If one knows only the constant resultant force acting on an object and the

time during which this force acts, one can determine the

C

change in kinetic

energy of the

object

59 momentum

A

change in

momentum of the

object

100 Ns

It lengthens the

stopping time of

the stunt person

and reduces the

force applied

Basic principle of impulse. Increased

during the landing. time lessens the force of impact.

2.5

Two particles of equal mass mo, moving with equal speeds vo along paths

inclined at 60 to the x-axis as shown, collide and stick together. Their

velocity after the collision has magnitude

B

A particle of mass m moves with a constant speed v along the dashed line y

= a. When the x-coordinate of the particle is xo, the magnitude of the angular

momentum of the particle with respect to the origin of the system is

B

53 momentum

change in velocity

of the object

accelerating so is not in equilibrium, II)

Its acceleration is E 9.8 at all times, III)

Its momentum is zero because its

velocity is momentarily zero, IV) Its

kinetic energy is also zero since its

velocity is momentarily zero.

Its does not matter what order to

masses are dropped in. Adding mass

reduces momentum C proportionally.

All that matters is the total mass that

was added. This can be provided by

finding the velocity after the first drop,

then continuing to find the velocity after

the second

drop. Then repeating the problem in

reverse to find the final velocity which

will come out

the same

Stupid easy. Find slope of line

48.momentum.png

Increase in momentum is momentum

change which

49.momentum.png

6.25 m1v1f + m2v2f 0 = m1(5) + m2(2)

Perfect inelastic collision. m1v1i +

m2v2i = mtot*(vf) Mv + ( 2Mv) =

(3M)*vf gives vf = v/3.

Then to find the energy loss subtract

the total energy before the total

energy after

[ Mv+ (2M)v] (3M) (v/3) =

3/6 Mv+ 6/6 Mv 1/6 Mv

52.momentum.png

2D collision. The y momentums are

equal and opposite and will cancel out

leaving only the x momentums which

are also equal and will add together to

give a total momentum equal to twice

the x component momentum before

hand. pbefore = pafter 2m0v0cos60

= (2m0)*vf

53.momentum.png

= mva

Perfect inelastic collision. m1v1i = mtot

6 m/s

(vf) (4)(6) = (8)vf

Perfect inelastic collision. m1v1i = mtot

6 m/s

(vf) (8)(3) = (12)vf

First use the given kinetic energy of

mass M1 to determine the projectile

speed after.

K= M1v1f v1f = (2K/M1) . Now

solve the explosion problem with

pbefore=0 = pafter. Note that the mass

of the gun is M2M1 since M2 was

given as the total mass. 0 = M1v1f +

(M2M1)v2f now sub in from above

for v1f. M1((2K/M1)) = (M2M1) v2f

and find v2f v2f = M1((2K/M1)) /

(M2M1) .

Now sub this into K2 = (M2M1) v2f

K*[M1/(M2-M1)]^.5 and simplify.

Since there is no y momentum before,

there cannot be any net y momentum

after. The balls have equal masses so

you need the y velocities of each ball to

be equal after to cancel out the

momenta. By inspection, looking at the

given velocities and angles and without

doing any math, the only one that could

possibly make equal y velocities is

E

choice D

acceleration of the

mass of the object object

Definition. Jnet = p. Fnet*t = p

54.momentum.png

55.momentum.png

55.momentum.png

58.momentum.png &

58.momentumm.png

60

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

momentum

71 momentum

72 momentum

73 momentum

frictionless surface, as shown above,

when it explodes into two pieces. Subsequently, one piece of mass 2/5 m

moves with a speed vo/2 to the left.

The speed of the other piece of the object is

to a force of magnitude F in the direction of motion. A graph of F

as a function of time t is shown. What is the increase, if any, in the

velocity of the object during the time the force is applied?

A disk slides to the right on a horizontal, frictionless air table and collides with

another disk that was initially

stationary. The figures below show a top view of the initial path I of the sliding

disk and a hypothetical path H

for each disk after the collision. Which figure shows an impossible situation? B

A ball of mass m with speed v strikes a wall at an angle with the normal, as

shown. It then rebounds with the same speed and at the same angle. The

impulse delivered by the ball to the wall is

E

vo / 2

vo / 3

7vo / 5

3vo / 2

2vo

0 m/s

2.0 m/s

3.0 m/s

4.0 m/s

6.0 m/s

zero

mv sin

mv cos

2mv sin

2mv cos

1 gravitation

Each of five satellites makes a circular orbit about an object that is much

more massive than any of the

satellites. The mass and orbital radius of each satellite are given below.

Which satellite has the greatest speed?

m R

m R

mR

m 2R

2m R

2 gravitation

An asteroid moves in an elliptic orbit with the Sun at one focus as shown

above. Which of the following quantities increases as the asteroid moves

from point P in its orbit to point Q?

Speed

Angular

momentum

Total energy

Kinetic energy

Potential energy

3 gravitation

Two planets have the same size, but different masses, and no atmospheres.

Which of the following would be the same for objects with equal mass on the

surfaces of the two planets?

4 gravitation

A person weighing 800 newtons on Earth travels to another planet with twice

the mass and twice the radius of

Earth. The person's weight on this other planet is most nearly

400 N

800/2 N

800 N

8002

1,600 N

5 gravitation

Mars has a mass 1/10 that of Earth and a diameter 1/2 that of Earth. The

acceleration of a falling body near the

surface of Mars is most nearly

0.25 m/s2

0.5 m/s2

2 m/s2

4 m/s2

25 m/s2

6 gravitation

v. Which of the following must

be true?

E

pbefore = pafter mvo = mavaf + mbvbf

mvo = (2/5 m)( vo / 2) + (3/5 m)(vbf)

solve for vbf

60.momentum.png

the impulse which is equal to the

momentum change.

With the momentum change we can

find the velocity change.

J = area = 6 Then J = p = mv 6 = (2)

v v = 3 m/s

This is a 2D collision. Before the

collision, there is no y momentum, so in

the after condition the

y momenta of each disk must cancel

out. In choice B, both particles would

have Y

momentum downwards making a net Y

momentum after which is impossible.

This is the same as question 30 except

oriented vertically instead of

horizontally.

Orbital speed is found from setting

(GMm)/(r2) which gives v=(GM/r)1/2

where M is the

object being orbited. Notice that

satellite mass does not affect orbital

speed. The smallest radius

of orbit will be the fastest satellite.

As a satellite moves farther away, it

slows down, also decreasing its angular

momentum and

kinetic energy. The total energy

remains the same in the absence of

resistive or thrust forces.

The potential energy becomes less

negative, which is an increase.

With different masses, g would have a

different value, but the physical

characteristics of the

objects would not be affected.

g = GM / r2 so the acceleration due to

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 2 = g 2 and r 2 = g

4, so the net effect is the persons

weight is divided by 2

g = GM / r2 so the acceleration due to

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 10 = g 10 and r 2 = g

4, so the net effect is g 4/10

Circular orbit = constant r, combined

with constant speed gives constant

angular momentum

(mvr). As it is a circular orbit, the force

is centripetal, points toward the center

and is always

perpendicular to the displacement of

the satellite therefore does no work.

71.momentum.png

72.momentum.png

73.momentum.png

2.gravitation.png

3.gravitation.png

6.gravitation.png

(B) Velocity

D

(D) Displacement

from the center of

(C) Kinetic energy mass

the weight, and is proportional to the

mass. In the same

circular orbit, it is only the mass of the

body being orbited and the radius of the

orbit that

contributes to the orbital speed and

acceleration.

7.gravitation.png

(E) Gravitational

force

(A) zero

(A) 16W

(B)4W

(C)W

(D)4

10 gravitation

about X and Y include which of the

following?

. The two spheres pictured above have equal densities and are subject only

to their mutual gravitational attraction. Which of the following quantities must

have the same magnitude for both spheres?

The planet Mars has mass 6.4 1023 kilograms and radius 3.4 106 meters.

The acceleration of an object in free-fall near the surface of Mars is most

nearly

An object has a weight W when it is on the surface of a planet of radius R.

What will be the gravitational force on the object after it has been moved to a

distance of 4R from the center of the planet?

11 gravitation

A new planet is discovered that has twice the Earth's mass and twice the

Earth's radius. On the surface of this new planet, a person who weighs 500 N

on Earth would experience a gravitational force of

B

(A) 125N

(B) 250N

(C) 500N

12 gravitation

when set into small oscillatory motion on Earth. They are taken to Planet X,

which has the same diameter as Earth but twice the mass. Which of the

following statements is true about the periods of the two objects on Planet X

compared to their periods on

E

shorter.

same.

longer.

(D) 1000N

(D) The period of

the mass on the

spring is shorter,

that of the

pendulum is the

same.

13 gravitation

planet of mass M. What is the radius of the satellite's orbit?

(A) GM/mv

(B)Gv/mM

(C)GM/v^2

(D)GmM/v

14 gravitation

The mass of Planet X is one-tenth that of the Earth, and its diameter is onehalf that of the Earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Planet

X is most nearly

(A) 2 m/s2

(B) 4 m/s2

(C) 5 m/s2

(D) 7 m/s2

15 gravitation

.A satellite travels around the Sun in an elliptical orbit as shown above. As the

satellite travels from point X to point Y. which of the following is true about its

speed and angular momentum?

D

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16 gravitation

16. A newly discovered planet, "Cosmo," has a mass that is 4 times the mass

of the Earth. The radius of the Earth is

R . The gravitational field strength at the surface of Cosmo is equal to that at

the surface of the Earth if the e

radius of Cosmo is equal to

C

(A) .5Re

(B)Re

(C)2Re

(D) Sqrt Re

(A) 0 m/s2

(C) 5 m/s2

(D) 9 m/s2

g = GM/r^2

Force is inversely proportional to

distance between the centers squared.

(E)1/16W

R 4 = F 16

g = GM/r^2 so the acceleration due to

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the mass of the planet

and inversely proportional to the

distance from the center of the planet

squared. M 2 = g 2 and r 2 = g

4, so the net effect is the persons

(E) 2000N

weight is divided by 2

A planet of the same size and twice the

(E) The period of mass of Earth will have twice the

the pendulum is

acceleration due to gravity. The period

shorter; that of the of a mass on a spring has no

mass on the spring dependence on g, while the period of a

is the same.

pendulum is inversely proportional to g.

Orbital speed is found from setting

r

mv

r

GMm 2

2 = which gives

r

(E)GmM/v^2

v = GM

g = GM/r^2 so the acceleration due to

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 10 = g 10 and r 2 = g

(E) 10 m/s2

4, so the net effect is g 4/10

14.gravitation.png

Keplers second law (Law of areas) is

based on conservation of angular

momentum, which

remains constant. In order for angular

momentum to remain constant, as the

satellite approaches

(E)

the sun, its speed increases.

g = GM/r^2 so the acceleration due to

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 4 = g 4 and if the net

effect is g = gEarth then r must be twice

(E) Re^2

that of Earth.

g = GM/r^2 . 300 km above the surface

of the Earth is only a 5% increase in the

distance (1.05

times the distance). This will produce

(E) 11 m/s2

only a small effect on g (1.052)

a2 =4a1

a2 =2a1

a2 =a1

a2 =a1/2

a2 =a1/4

v/2

v/(2^1/2)

vo

(2v)^1/2

2vo

than F2.

greater than F2.

F1 is equal to F2.

F2 is slightly

greater than F1

F2 is much greater

than F1

Newtons third law

7 gravitation

8 gravitation

9 gravitation

17 gravitation

18 gravitation

19 gravitation

20 gravitation

(A) Acceleration

an astronaut in a perfectly circular orbit 300 kilometers above the Earth would

be most nearly

D

Two artificial satellites, 1 and 2, orbit the Earth in circular orbits having radii

R1 and R2, respectively, as shown above. If R2 = 2R1, the accelerations a2

and a1 of the two satellites are related by which of the following?

E

the center of a planet. For this satellite to move in a stable circular orbit a

distance 2R from the center of the planet, the speed of the satellite must be

If F1 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the Earth on a satellite in orbit

about the Earth and F2 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the satellite

on the Earth, then which of the following is true?

8.gravitation.png

18.Gravitation.png

Orbital speed is found from setting

GMm = mv 2 which gives v = GM

where M is the B

r2rr object being orbited. If r is doubled,

v decreases by 2

21 gravitation

22 gravitation

A newly discovered planet has twice the mass of the Earth, but the

acceleration due to gravity on the new planet's surface is exactly the same as

the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's surface. The radius of the new

planet in terms of the radius R of Earth is

C

A satellite S is in an elliptical orbit around a planet P, as shown above, with r1

and r2 being its closest and farthest distances, respectively, from the center

of the planet. If the satellite has a speed v1 at its closest distance, what is its

speed at its farthest distance?

A

12R

((2^1/2)*R)/2

(2^1/2)*R

(r1*v1)/R2

(r2*v1)/R1

(r2r2)v1

gravity (and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 2 = g 2 and if the net

effect is g = gEarth then r must be 2^

(1/2) times that of Earth

2R

((r1+r2)*v)/2

Both a constant

gravitational force

Only a decreasing Only an increasing Only a constant

that acts

gravitational force gravitational force gravitational force downward and a

that acts

that acts

that acts

decreasing force

downward

downward

downward

that acts upward

equal to the

equal to one-half

equal to one-fourth

at its maximum

acceleration at the the acceleration at the acceleration at

value for the ball's surface of the

the surface of the the surface of the

flight

asteroid

asteroid

asteroid

((r2r1)*v)/ (r2+r1) momentum v1r1= v2r2

25 gravitation

A ball is tossed straight up from the surface of a small, spherical asteroid with

no atmosphere. The ball rises to a height equal to the asteroid's radius and

then falls straight down toward the surface of the asteroid. What forces, if

any, act on the ball while it is on the way up?

A

A ball is tossed straight up from the surface of a small, spherical asteroid with

no atmosphere. The ball rises to a height equal to the asteroid's radius and

then falls straight down toward the surface of the asteroid. The acceleration of

the ball at the top of its path is:

D

A satellite of mass M moves in a circular orbit of radius R with constant speed

v. True statements about this satellite include which of the following?

I. Its angular speed is v/R.

II. Its tangential acceleration is zero.

III. The magnitude of its centripetal acceleration is constant.

E

26 gravitation

Two identical stars, a fixed distance D apart, revolve in a circle about their

mutual center of mass, as shown above. Each star has mass M and speed v.

G is the universal gravitational constant. Which of the following is a correct

relationship among these quantities?

B

27 gravitation

When the spacecraft is at position P shown, a short burst of the ship's

engines results in a small increase in its speed. The new orbit is best shown

by the solid curve in which of the following diagrams?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

28 gravitation

The escape speed for a rocket at Earth's surface is ve. What would be the

rocket's escape speed from the surface of a planet with twice Earth's mass

and the same radius as Earth?

2ve

(2)^ ve

ve

ve/(2)^

ve

29 gravitation

A hypothetical planet orbits a star with mass one-half the mass of our sun.

The planets orbital radius is the

same as the Earths. Approximately how many Earth years does it take for

the planet to complete one orbit?

1/(2)^

23 gravitation

24 gravitation

No forces act on

the ball.

Zero

I only

II only

v^2 =GM/D

v^2 =GM/2D

v^2 =GM/D^2

v^2 =MGD

v^2 =2GM^2/D

1 2^

gravity decreases due to the increasing

distance

g = GM/(r^2) At the top of its path, it

has doubled its original distance from

the center of the

asteroid

Angular speed (in radians per second)

is v/R. Since the satellite is not

changing speed, there is

no tangential acceleration and v2/r is

constant.

The radius of each orbit is D, while

the distance between them is D. This

gives

2/

2

2

D

Mv

D

GMM

An burst of the ships engine produces

an increase in the satellites energy.

Now the satellite is

moving at too large a speed for a

circular orbit. The point at which the

burst occurs must remain

part of the ships orbit, eliminating

choices A and B. The Earth is no longer

at the focus of the

ellipse in choice E.

Escape speed with the speed at which

the kinetic energy of the satellite is

exactly equal to the

negative amount of potential energy

within the satellite/mass system. That is

r

GMm

mv =

2

2

1

which gives the escape speed

r

GM

Orbital speed is found from setting

r

mv

r

GMm 2

2

= which gives

r

GM

v = where M is the

object being orbited. Also,

v

r

T

2

= . Since the mass is divided by 2, v is

2 divided by 2

22.Gravitation.png

26.Gravitation.png

27.Gravitation.png

and 27. Gravitation.

png

30 gravitation

A hypothetical planet has seven times the mass of Earth and twice the radius

of Earth. The magnitude of the

gravitational acceleration at the surface of this planet is most nearly

C

2.9 m/s^2

5.7 m/s^2

17.5 m/s^2

35 m/s^2

122 m/s^2

31 gravitation

Two artificial satellites, 1 and 2, are put into circular orbit at the same altitude

above Earthssurface. The mass

of satellite 2 is twice the mass of satellite 1. If the period of satellite 1 is T,

what is the period of satellite 2?

C

T/4

T/2

2T

4T

32 gravitation

A planet has a radius one-half that of Earth and a mass one-fifth the Earths

mass. The gravitational acceleration

at the surface of the planet is most nearly

4.0 m/s^2

8.0 m/s^2

12.5 m/s^2

25 m/s2

62.5 m/s2

33 gravitation

In the following problem, the word weight refers to the force a scale

registers. If the Earth were to stop

rotating, but not change shape,

the weight of an

object at the

equator would

increase.

the weight of an

object at the

equator would

decrease.

the weight of an

object at the north

pole would

increase.

the weight of an

object at the north all objects on Earth

pole would

would become

decrease.

weightless.

34 gravitation

Assume that the Earth attracts John Glenn with a gravitational force F at the

surface of the Earth. When he

made his famous second flight in orbit, the gravitational force on John Glenn

while he was in orbit was closest

to which of the following?

0.95F

0.50F

0.25F

0.10F

zero

35 gravitation

objects if the mass of each object is

doubled and the distance between their centers is doubled?

It is doubled

It is quadrupled

It is halved

It is reduced

fourfold

It remains the

same

36 gravitation

One object at the surface of the Moon experiences the same gravitational

force as a second object at the surface

of the Earth. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion?

fall at the same

Moon has the

acceleration

greater mass

Earth has the

greater mass

identical masses

has a greater

mass but the Earth

has a greater rate

of rotation

37 gravitation

of their extreme

distance from the

earth

the net

gravitational force

on them is zero

there is no

atmosphere in

space

does not rotate

of free fall

38 gravitation

Consider an object that has a mass, m, and a weight, W, at the surface of the

moon. If we assume the moon has a

nearly uniform density, which of the following would be closest to the objects

mass and weight at a distance

halfway between Moons center and its surface?

D

m&W

m&W

1m&1W

1m&W

1m&W

39 gravitation

setting the gravitational force on the

satellite equal to the centripetal force on the satellite. Which of the following

would NOT be required in this

calculation?

satellite

satellite's orbit

satellite's orbit

gravitational

required for this

constant

calculation

(and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 7 = g 7 and r 2 = g

4, so the net effect is g 7/4

Orbital speed is found from setting

r

mv

r

GMm 2

2

= which gives

r

GM

v = where M is the

object being orbited. Notice that

satellite mass does not affect orbital

speed or period.

g = so the acceleration due to gravity

(and the weight of an object) is

proportional to the

mass of the planet and inversely

proportional to the distance from the

center of the planet

squared. M 5 = g 5 and r 2 = g

4, so the net effect is g 4/5

Part of the gravitational force acting on

an object at the equator is providing the

necessary

centripetal force to move the object in a

circle. If the rotation of the earth were to

stop, this part

of the gravitational force is no longer

required and the full value of this force

will hold the

object to the Earth.

Standard orbital altitudes are not a

large percentage of the radius of the

Earth. The acceleration

due to gravity is only slightly smaller in

orbit compared to the surface of the

Earth.

F = . F is proportional to each mass and

inversely proportional to the distance

between

their centers squared. If each mass is

doubled, F is quadrupled. If r is doubled

F is quartered.

Since the acceleration due to gravity is

less on the surface of the moon, to

have the same

gravitational force as a second object

on the Earth requires the object on the

Moon to have a

larger mass.

Satellites in orbit are freely falling

objects with enough horizontal speed to

keep from felling

closer to the planet

The mass of an object will not change

based on its location. As one digs into a

sphere of uniform

density, the acceleration due to gravity

(and the weight of the object) varies

directly with distance

from the center of the sphere.

Combining

r

mv

r

GMm 2

2 = with

v

Tr

2 = gives the equation corresponding

to Keplers second

law. The mass of the satellite cancels in

these equations.

40 gravitation

41 gravitation

42 gravitation

As a rocket blasts away from the earth with a cargo for the international

space station, which of the following

graphs would best represent the gravitational force on the cargo versus

distance from the surface of the Earth?

E

In chronological order (earliest to latest), place the following events:

(1) Henry Cavendish's experiment

(2) Newton's work leading towards the Law of Universal Gravitation

(3) Tycho Brahe takes astronomical data

(4) Nicolaus Copernicus proposes the heliocentric theory

(5) Johannes Kepler's work on the orbit of Mars.

A

A 20 kg boulder rests on the surface of the Earth. Assume the Earth has

mass 5.98 1024 kg and g = 10 m/s2

What is the magnitude of the gravitational force that the boulder exerts on the

Earth?

E

43521

5.98x10^25 N

43 gravitation

fact that they reach the surface at

the same instant shows that

E

no gravity forces

act on a body in a

vacuum.

44 gravitation

because

there is no

gravitational force

from the Earth

acting on her.

45 gravitation

A rocket is in a circular orbit with speed v and orbital radius R around a heavy

stationary mass. An external

impulse is quickly applied to the rocket directly opposite to the velocity and

the rockets speed is slowed to v/2,

putting the rocket into an elliptical orbit. In terms of R, the size of the semimajor axis a of this new elliptical

orbit is

E

46 gravitation

Keplers Second Law about sweeping out equal areas in equal time can be

derived most directly from which

conservation law?

47 gravitation

48 gravitation

= 1

4

42135

43251

5.98x10^24N

20N

the gravitational

force from the

the acceleration

Moon on heavier

due to gravity on

objects (the

the Moon is less

hammer) is equal

than the

to the gravitational

acceleration due to force on

gravity on the

lighter objects (the

Earth

feather).

= 7

11

35421

= 8

3

energy

angular

mechanical energy momentum

mass

Three equal mass satellites A, B, and C are in coplanar orbits around a planet

as shown in the figure. The

magnitudes of the angular momenta of the satellites as measured about the

planet are LA, LB, and LC. Which of

the following statements is correct?

A

LA > LB > LC

LC > LB > LA

LB > LA > LC

What is the value of the gravitational potential energy of the two star system? D

3 2

LB > LC > LA

2

2

3 2

40.gravitation.png

but interesting to know (and a bit of

common sense if you

42351 follow the changing of the theories)

no force on the

Earth

200 N

a hammer and

feather have less

mass on the Moon

than on Earth.

at an orbit of 200

miles above the

Earth, the

the gravitational

gravitational force

pull of the Moon

she is in free fall

of the Earth on her

has canceled the along with the

is 2% less than on

pull of the Earth on Space Station and its

her.

its contents.

surface.

= 1

2

r2

GMm

F = so F is proportional to 1/r2

. Standard orbital altitudes are not a

large percentage of

the radius of the Earth. The

acceleration due to gravity is only

slightly smaller in orbit compared

to the surface of the Earth.

mg.

in the absence of

air resistance all

bodies at a given

location fall with

the same

acceleration.

absence of air resistance

no mass.

objects with enough horizontal speed to

keep from felling

closer to the planet.

= 4

7

(1/2)mv^2 + (-Gmm/r)= (1/2)m((GMm/r)

^1/2)^2 + (-GMm/r)= -GMm/2r. The

energy of

an elliptical orbit is (GMm/2a) where a

is the semimajor axis. If the speed is

cut in half we have K+U= (1/2)m(v/2)^2

+ (-Gmm/r)=(1/2)m((1/2)(GM/r)^1/2))^2

+

(-Gmm/r) = -(7GMm/8r). Setting (7

GMm/8r)= (-GMm/2a) gives a= (4/7)r

the satellite moving faster as it moves

closer to the body it

is orbiting. This is a result of

linear momentum conservation of angular momentum.

The angular momentum of each

satellite is conserved independently so

we can compare the

orbits at any location. Looking at the

common point between orbit A and B

shows that satellite

The relationship

A is moving faster at that point than

between the

satellite B, showing LA > LB. A similar

magnitudes is

analysis at the

different at various common point between B and C shows

instants in time.

LB > LC

47.gravitation.png

.

2

r

GMm

2

U =

48.gravitation.png

49 gravitation

3

3

mass, the larger mass has a radius of

orbit of d

4

1

. The

speed can be found from

4

2

)3(

2

)3(

d

vM

d

MMG

= which gives

T

d

d

GM

v

)

4

49.gravitation.png

r

GMm

r

GMm

r

GM

m

r

Gmm

mvUK

2

)(

2

2

1

)(

2

2

1

=+=+ =+

a

GMm

2

where a is the semimajor axis. If the

speed is cut in

half we have

r

GMm

r

GMm

r

GM

m

r

v

Gmm

mUK

8

7

)(

2

2

1

2

1

)(

2

22

1

=+ =+ =+

50 gravitation

Both satellites are launched in the

tangential direction. The first satellite launches correctly at a speed v

0 and enters a circular orbit. The second

satellite, however, is launched at a speed v

0.What is the minimum distance between the second satellite and

the planet over the course of its orbit?

E

1

2

1

2

1

3

1

4

1

7

Setting

a

GMm

r

GMm

82

7

= gives a = (4/7)r

The distance to the planet from this

point is r (the radius of the circular orbit

and aphelion for the

51 gravitation

Both satellites are launched in the

tangential direction. The first satellite launches correctly at a speed v

0 and enters a circular orbit. The second

satellite, however, is launched at a speed v

0.What is the minimum distance between the second satellite and

the planet over the course of its orbit?

E

When two stars are very far apart, their gravitational potential energy is zero;

when they are separated by a

distance d, the gravitational potential energy of the system is U. What is the

gravitational potential energy of the

system if the stars are separated by a distance 2d?

B

52 gravitation

14,100 ft) is 40 newtons. What would

be the approximate gravitational force on the same textbook if it were taken to

twice the elevation?

D

53 gravitation

orbit of radius r about the center of the

Earth. If the Earth has a mass of M, what would be the speed of the Space

Station around the Earth?

54 gravitation

What would be the gravitational force of attraction between the proton in the

nucleus and the electron in an

orbit of radius 5.3 1011 m in a simple hydrogen atom?

2.0 1057 N

3.7 1047 N

6.1 1028 N

8.2 108 N

2F

4F

6F

8F

50 gravitation

55 gravitation

56 gravitation

57 gravitation

58 gravitation

59 gravitation

1 oscillations

2 oscillations

3 oscillations

4 oscillations

1

2

1

3

1

4

U/4

U/2

2U

5N

10 N

20 N

40 N

attraction, F. If the spheres are moved

to one half their original separation and allowed to rust so that the mass of

each sphere increases 41%, what would be the resulting gravitational force? D

A ball which is thrown upward near the surface of the Earth with a velocity of

50 m/s will come to rest about 5

seconds later. If the ball were thrown up with the same velocity on Planet X,

after 5 seconds it would be still

moving upwards at nearly 31 m/s. The magnitude of the gravitational field

near the surface of Planet X is what

fraction of the gravitational field near the surface of the Earth?

B

An object placed on an equal arm balance requires 12 kg to balance it. When

placed on a spring scale, the scale

reads 120 N. Everything (balance, scale, set of masses, and the object) is

now transported to the moon where the

gravitational force is one-sixth that on Earth. What are the new readings of

the balance and the spring scale

(respectively)?

A

Two artificial satellites I and II have circular orbits of radii R and 2R,

respectively, about the same planet. The

orbital velocity of satellite I is v. What is the orbital velocity of satellite II?

The gravitational acceleration on the surface of the moon is 1.6 m/s^2. The

radius of the moon is 1.7 10^6 m. What is the period of a satellite placed in

a low circular orbit about the moon?

A mass m, attached to a horizontal massless spring with spring constant k, is

set into simple harmonic motion.

Its maximum displacement from its equilibrium position is A. What is the

masss speed as it passes through its

equilibrium position?

The period of a spring-mass system undergoing simple harmonic motion is T.

If the amplitude of the springmass

systems motion is doubled, the period will be:

A simple pendulum of mass m and length L has a period of oscillation T at

angular amplitude = 5 measured

from its equilibrium position. If the amplitude is changed to 10 and everything

else remains constant, the new

period of the pendulum would be approximately.

A mass m is attached to a spring with a spring constant k. If the mass is set

into simple harmonic motion by a

displacement d from its equilibrium position, what would be the speed, v, of

the mass when it returns to the

equilibrium position?

1

2

1

7

.

r

GMm

4U

U =

The top of Pikes Peak is a very small

fraction of the radius of the Earth.

Moving to twice this

elevation will barely change the value of

80 N

g

Orbital speed is found from setting

r

mv

r

GMm 2

2

= which gives

r

GM

v = where M is the

object being orbited.

.

2

r

GMm

F = . The masses of the proton and

the only force of

electron can be found in the table of

attraction would be constants (these

electrical

masses do not need to be memorized)

2

r

GMm

F = ; If r 2, F 4. If each mass is

multiplied by 1.41, F is doubled (1.41

10 F

1.41)

0.16

0.39

0.53

Setting

a

GMm

r

GMm

82

7

= gives a = (4/7)r

The distance to the planet from this

point is r (the radius of the circular orbit

and aphelion for the

elliptical orbit). The opposite side of the

ellipse is 2a away, or 8r/7, making the

distance to the

planet at perihelion 8r/7 r = r/7

m/s B

1.59 2

0.63

12 kg, 20 N

1 kg, 120 N

12 kg, 720 N

2 kg, 20 N

2 kg, 120 N

.5v

v/(sqrt(2))

(sqrt(2))v

2v

due to a change in the acceleration due

to gravity

Orbital speed is found from setting

GMm/(r^2)=mv^2/r which gives v =

(GM/r)^(1/2) where M is the

object being orbited.

1.0x10^3 s

6.5x10^3 s

1.1x10^6 s

5.0x10^6 s

7.1x10^12 s

.25T

.5T

2T

4T

A^2 = mv^2

1.oscillations.png

The period of a mass-spring is only

affected by mass and k so its stays the

same

2T

(sqrt(2))T

T/(sqrt(2))

.5T

affected by length and g so it stays

the same

d^2 = mv^2

4.oscillations.png

5 oscillations

6 oscillations

7 oscillations

8 oscillations

9 oscillations

time graph shown. Which of the following statements about its

motion is INCORRECT?

What is the period of a simple pendulum if the cord length is 67 cm and the

pendulum bob has a mass of 2.4 kg.

If the mass of a simple pendulum is doubled but its length remains constant,

its period is multiplied by a factor of

the end of an ideal spring?

The length of a simple pendulum with a period on Earth of one second is

most nearly

The mass

experiences a

maximum in the

The amplitude of

The frequency of

size of the

the oscillation is

oscillation is 0.5

acceleration at t=1. The amplitude from the graph is 0.04

0.08 m.

Hz.

5 sec

not 0.08, the rest are true

5.oscillations.png

The mass is irrelevant, only the length

.259s

1.63s

3.86s

16.3s

24.3s

matters. T is found with 2 (L/g)

Mass does not affect the period, only

0.5 1/(sqrt(2))

1 (sqrt(2))

2 the length matters

The maximum

The maximum

kinetic energy

potential energy is The maximum

occurs at

achieved when the kinetic energy and maximum

The kinetic and

mass passes

maximum potential displacement of

Energy is conserved here and switches

potential energies The kinetic and

through its

energy are equal, the mass from its between kinetic and potential which

are equal to each potential energies equilibrium

but occur at

equilibrium

have maximums at

other at all times. are both constant. position.

different times.

position

different locations

0.12m

0.25m

0.50m

1.0m

A

B

C

The mass

achieves a

maximum in speed The period of

at 1 sec.

oscillation is 2 sec.

The maximum

kinetic energy is

attained as the

sphere passes

through its

equilibrium

position

C

The minimum

gravitational

potential energy is

The maximum

attained as the

kinetic energy is

sphere passes

attained as the

through its

sphere reaches its equilibrium

point of release.

position.

Only conservative forces are acting

which means mechanical energy must

be conserved so it stays constant as

E

the mass oscillates

The box momentarily stops at x(min)

and x(max) so must have zero K at

these points. The box accelerates the

most at the ends of the oscillation since

the force is the greatest there. This

changing acceleration means that the

box gains speed quickly at first but not

as quickly as it approaches equilibrium.

This means that the KE gain starts of

rapidly from the endpoints and

gets less rapid as you approach

equilibrium where there would be a

maximum speed and maximum K, but

zero force so less gain in speed. This

E

results in the curved graph.

Pendulum is unaffected by mass.

Mass-spring system has mass causing

the T to change proportional to m so

since the mass is doubled the period is

E.

changed by 2

At T/4 the mass reaches maximum +

displacement where the restoring force

is at a maximum and pulling in the

opposite direction and hence creating a

negative acceleration. At

maximum displacement the mass stops

v = 0, a = 0

momentarily and has zero velocity

At T/4 the mass reaches maximum +

displacement where the restoring force

is at a maximum and pulling in the

opposite direction and hence creating a

negative acceleration. At

maximum displacement the mass stops

E

momentarily and has zero velocity

Positive Acceleration occurs when the

mass is at negative displacements

since the force will be acting A in the

opposite direction of the displacement

to restore equilibrium. Based on F=kx

None of the above, the

because the

most force, and therefore the most

acceleration is

acceleration occurs where the most

constant

displacement is

As the object oscillates, its total

mechanical energy is conserved and

transfers from U to K back and forth.

The only graph that makes sense to

E

have an equal switch throughout is D

The maximum

gravitational

potential energy is

attained when the

sphere reaches its

point of release.

energy is attained

only as the sphere

passes through its

equilibrium

position.

where the maximum transfer of kinetic

energy has occurred and likewise for

the pendulum the bottom equilibrium

position has the maximum transfer of

potential energy into spring energy.

L / m1g

g/m2L

m2L/g

m1g/L

and rearrange for k

18.oscillations.png

10 oscillations

Which graph can represent the total mechanical energy of the block-spring

system as a function of x ?

11 oscillations

Which graph can represent the kinetic energy of the block as a function of x ? D

12 oscillations

Another object oscillates up and down on the end of a vertical spring also with

period T. If the masses of both objects are doubled, what are the

new values for the Periods?

B

A.

B.

C.

D.

13 oscillations

as represented on the graph. The nature of the velocity v and acceleration a

of the object at time T/4 is best represented by which of the following?

D

v > 0, a > 0

v > 0, a < 0

v > 0, a = 0

v = 0, a < 0

14 oscillations

displacement from the equilibrium position. Which of the following is true of

the values of its speed and the magnitude of the restoring force?

15 oscillations

function of time t is shown in the diagram. At what time t does the particle

achieve its maximum positive acceleration?

A

1 second

2 seconds

3 seconds

4 seconds

16 oscillations

displacement x for an object on the end of a spring oscillating in simple

harmonic motion with amplitude x. Which of the following graphs represents

the kinetic energy K of the object as a function of displacement x ?

D

17 oscillations

18 oscillations

If both spheres have the same period of oscillation, which of the following is

an expression for the spring

constant

m1L/g

10.0m

10.oscillations.png

11.oscillations.png

12.oscillations.png

13.oscillations.png

14.oscillations.png

15.oscillations.png

16.oscillations.png

17.oscillations.png

19 oscillations

A block attached to the lower end of a vertical spring oscillates up and down.

If the spring obeys

Hooke's law, the period of oscillation depends on which of the following?

I. Mass of the block

II. Amplitude of the oscillation

III. Force constant of the spring

I only

II only

and spring constant (force constant)

I and II

I and III

affect the period.

The mass spring system in unaffected

because the attached mass and spring

constant are the

The period of the The period of the same. Based on g = GMp / R^2 and the

mass on the spring pendulum is

given values, g on planet X would be

is shorter; that of

shorter; that of the greater. Using

the pendulum is

mass on the spring the pendulum period formula, larger g

the same.

is the same

means smaller period.

T/4

T/2

2T

4T

III only

21 oscillations

when set into small oscillatory

motion on Earth. They are taken to Planet X, which has the same diameter as

Earth but twice the mass. Which of the

following statements is true about the periods of the two objects on Planet X

compared to their periods on Earth?

E

A simple pendulum of length l, whose bob has mass m, oscillates with a

period T. If the bob is replaced by one

of mass 4m, the period of oscillation is

C

22 oscillations

the block?

m/40

m/20

m/4

m/2

23 oscillations

/40s

/20s

/10s

/5s

/4ss

24 oscillations

A ball is dropped from a height of 10 meters onto a hard surface so that the

collision at the surface may be

assumed elastic. Under such conditions the motion of the ball is

simple harmonic

with a period of

about 1.4 s

simple harmonic

with a period of

about 2.8 s

simple harmonic

with an amplitude

of 5 m

periodic with a

period of about 2.8 motion with

s but not simple

constant

harmonic

momentum

20 oscillations

26 oscillations

Which of the following graphs shows the kinetic energy K of the particle as a

function of time t for one cycle of

motion?

Which of the following graphs shows the kinetic energy K of the particle as a

function of its displacement x ?

27 oscillations

mass is set oscillating on a spring

with an amplitude of A, the period of oscillation is proportional to

25 oscillations

pendulum

At the current location all of the energy

is gravitational potential. As the spring

stretches to its

max location all of that gravitational

potential will become spring potential

when it reaches

its lowest position. When the box

oscillates back up it will return to its

original location

converting all of its energy back to

gravitational potential and will oscillate

back and forth

between these two positions. As such

the maximum stretch bottom location

represents twice

the amplitude so simply halving that

max x will give the amplitude. Finding

the max

stretch: The initial height of the box h

and the stretch x have the same value

(h=x)

U = Usp mg(x1) = kx1

2 mg = k x1 x1 = .05 m.

This is 2A, so the amplitude is 0.025 m

or 1/40 m.

Alternatively, we could simply find the

equilibrium position measured from the

initial top

position based on the forces at

equilibrium, and this equilibrium stretch

measured from the

top will be the amplitude directly. To do

this:

Fnet = 0 Fsp = mg kx2 = mg x2 =

0.025 m, which is the amplitude

22.oscillations.png

Plug into period for mass-spring system

T = 2 (m/k)

22.oscillations.png

Based on free fall, the time to fall down

would be 1.4 seconds. Since the

collision with the

ground is elastic, all of the energy will

be returned to the ball and it will rise

back up to its

initial height completing 1 cycle in a

total time of 2.8 seconds. It will continue

doing this

oscillating up and down. However, this

is not simple harmonic because to be

simple

harmonic the force should vary directly

proportional to the displacement but

that is not the

case in this situation

Energy will never be negative. The max

kinetic occurs at zero displacement and

the kinetic

energy become zero when at the

maximum displacement

25.oscillations.png

Same reasoning as above, it must be C 26.oscillations.png

First use the initial stretch to find the

spring constant. Fsp = mg = kx k = mg

/d

Then plug that into T = 2 (m/k)

27.oscillations.png

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

oscillations

Two objects of equal mass hang from independent springs of unequal spring

constant and oscillate up and down.

The spring of greater spring constant must have the

smaller amplitude

of oscillation

oscillation

oscillation

longer period of

oscillation

oscillation

spring constant makes a smaller period

39 oscillations

a certain frequency. What is the

length of a simple pendulum that has the same frequency of oscillation?

B

mk/g

mg/k

kg/m

k/mg

g/mk

40 oscillations

shown.

The platform oscillates with a period of 3 s when the platform is pushed down

and released. What must be the mass of a block that when placed on the

platform doubles the period of oscillation to 6 s?

D

1kg

2kg

4kg

6kg

8kg

0 mg

a numerical

arrangement

pressure on a

where each

confined liquid is

number is the sum

transmitted equally of the two numbers

in all directions

above

2mg

3mg

4mg

two electrons

cannot occupy the

the same quantum

state at the same

time

the volume of a

gas is directly

reated to its

temperature

16300kg

17300kg

18300kg

19300kg

1/4.

1/2.

1 Fluids

2 Fluids

3 Fluids

4 Fluids

A cork has weight mg and density 25% of water density. A string is tied

around the cork and attached to the bottom of a water-filled container. The

cork is totally immersed. Express in terms of the cork weight mg, the tension

in the string

When submerged under water, the apparent mass of one cubic meter of pure

gold is 18300 kg. What would be its mass in air?

D

An ideal fluid flows through a long horizontal circular pipe. In one region of the

pipe, it has radius R. The pipe

then widens to radius 2R. What is the ratio of the fluids speed in the region of

radius R to the speed of the fluid

in region with radius 2R

E

periods are also the same. Set the

period for the

mass-spring system equal to the period

for the string pendulum and rearrange

for L.

Based on T = 2 (m/k), in order to

double the period, the mass would have

to be increased by

4x the original amount. Here is the

tricky part you are to increase the

mass to 4 x its

original value by adding mass the to

2kg tray. So to make the total mass

have a value of

8 kg, only 6 kg of extra mass would

need to be added to the tray.

40.oscillations.PNG

FBD has Ft pointing down Fb pointing

up and weight (mg) down. Fnet = 0 Fb

Ft

The buoyant force is given by the

weight of the displaced water. Since the

waters displaced

volume is equal to the corks displaced

volume and the water weight for the

same volume

would be 4 times heavier (based on the

given cork weight = 25% water weight)

compared to

the cork, the buoyant force is equal to 4

x the cork weight = 4mg. Using the

force equation

created initially. F

mg = 0

t = Fb mg = 4mg mg = 3mg

1.fluids.PNG

galaxy is the faster

it is receding

Definition of Pascal's principle

A 1 m3 volume cube under water

displaces 1m3 of water. This weight of

water = pVg =

1000(1)(10) = 10000 N which is

equivalent to the buoyant force. The

apparent weight in

water is mappg = 18300(10) = 183000

N. This apparent weight is lessened by

the buoyant

force pulling up with 10000 N of force.

So outside of the water, this upwards

force would

not exist and the actual weight would

be 193000 N which equal 19300 kg of

20300kg

mass.

4 R2v1 = (2R)2v2 v1 = 4 v2

5 Fluids

section would the pressure of the

fluid be a minimum

II

III

IV

same pressure

6 Fluids

Three fishing bobbers all float on top of water. They have the following

relationships:

-A,B: same mass, same density, different shapes

-B,C: same size, same shape,

mass & density C < mass & density B

Three identical weights are tied to each bob, and each is pulled completely

beneath the water. Which bob will

displace the greatest amount of water

A and B

same amount of

water.

Pascal's

Bernoulli's

Archimedes'

Huygens'

Newton's

25N

500N

10000N

40000N

It increases.

It remains

constant.

It decreases.

It may increase or

decrease,

depending on the

shape of the rock.

The iron.

same buoyant

force.

Cannot be

determined without

knowing their

densities.

8 Fluids

A hydraulic press allows large masses to be lifted with small forces as a result

of which principle?

A

A 500 N weight sits on the small piston of a hydraulic machine. The small

piston has an area of 2 cm2 . If the

large piston has an area of 40 cm2, how much weight can the large piston

support?

C

9 Fluids

As a rock sinks deeper and deeper into water of constant density, what

happens to the buoyant force on it?

7 Fluids

Bernoullis principle says that when

speed increases

pressure drops. Second, continuity

says more area means less speed

based on A1v1 = A2v2

So the smallest area would have the

largest speed and therefore most

pressure drop.

5.fluids.PNG

Since A and B have the same mass

and density, they have the same

volume. C has the same

volume as A and B since its the same

shape as B. So all three objects have

the same

volume. When submerged, they will all

displace the same amount of water and

therefore all

have the same buoyant force acting on

them. Note: if the objects were floating

instead of

submerged than the heavier ones

would have larger buoyant forces.

Pascals principle of equal pressure

transfer in a fluid allows for hydraulic

lifts to function.

10 Fluids

submerged. Which has the greater buoyant

force on it?

11 Fluids

Salt water is more dense than fresh water. A ship floats in both fresh water

and salt water. Compared to the

fresh water, the amount of water displaced in the salt water is

more.

less.

the same.

Cannot be

determined from

the information

given.

12 Fluids

357 kg/m3

643 kg/m3

1000 kg/m3

3570 kg/m3

Point A

Point B

Same at both A

and B

Cannot be

determined from

the information

given.

F2/A2 F2 = F1A2 / A1 = 500(40)/(2)

Buoyant force is equal to weight of

displaced fluid. Since the density is

constant and the volume

displaced is always the same, the

buoyant force stays constant

The wood is floating and is only partially

submerged. It does not displace a

weight of water

related to its entire volume. The iron

however is totally submerged and does

displace a

weight of water equal to its entire

volume. Since the iron displaces more

water, it has a

larger buoyant force acting on it.

For floating objects, the weight of the

displaced fluid equals the weight of the

object. For a more

dense fluid, less of that fluid needs to

be displaced to create a fluid weight

equal to the

weight of the object. Since the salt

water is more dense, it will not need as

much displaced.

Definition of specific gravity. s.g = x /

H20

This is based on two principles. 1

Bernoullis principle says that when

speed increases

pressure drops. Second, continuity

says more area means less speed

based on A1v1 = A2v2

So the smallest area would have the

largest speed and therefore most

pressure drop. Moving to more area ->

less speed -> more pressure

0.25 m/s

0.50 m/s

2 m/s

4 m/s

(1) = (0.01)^2(v2)

B1 < B2 = B3

weight of water is displaced. Since all

three are completely

submerged they all displace the same

amount of water so have equal buoyant

forces.

13 Fluids

14 Fluids

15 Fluids

Water flows through a pipe. The diameter of the pipe at point B is larger than

at point A. Where is the water

pressure greater?

B

Liquid flows through a 4 cm diameter pipe at 1.0 m/s. There is a 2 cm

diameter restriction in the line. What is

the velocity in this restriction?

D

A copper block is connected to a string and submerged in a container of

water.

Position 1: The copper is completely submerged, but just under the surface of

the water.

Position 2: The copper is completely submerged, mid-way between the water

surface and the bottom of the

container.

Position 3: The copper is completely submerged, but just above the bottom

surface of the container.

Assume that the water is incompressible. What is the ranking of the buoyant

forces (B) acting on the copper

blocks for these positions, from least to greater?

C

The wood.

B1 < B2 < B3

B3 < B2 < B1

B1 = B2 = B3

B3 < B1 = B2

16 Fluids

17 Fluids

18 Fluids

19 Fluids

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Fluids

Two objects labeled K and L have equal mass but densities 0.95Do and Do,

respectively. Each of these objects

floats after being thrown into a deep swimming pool. Which is true about the

buoyant forces acting on these

objects?

A driveway is 22.0 m long and 5.0 m wide. If the atmospheric pressure is 1.0

x 10^5 Pa, How much force does

the atmosphere exert on the driveway?

is greater on

Object K since it

has a lower

density and

displaces more

water.

is greater on

Object K since it

has lower density

and lower density

objects always

float

higher in the

fluid.

is greater on

Object L since it is

denser than K and

therefore heavier.

The buoyant

forces are equal

on the objects

since they have

equal mass.

equals the weight of the objects. Since

each object has the

same weight, they must have the same

buoyant force to counteract that weight

and make

them float. IF the equal mass objects

sunk, then the one with the smaller

Without knowing

density would have

the specific gravity a larger volume and displace more

of the objects,

water so have a larger buoyant force.

nothing can be

But that is not the

determined.

case here.

9.09 x 10^8 N

1.1 x 10^-3 N

909 N

4545 N

1.1 x 10^7 N

kg/m^2

kg/(ms)

kg/s^2

kg/(ms^2)

(ms)/kg

2.010^4 m^3

3.010^-4

m^3

5.010^-4 m^3

8.010^4 m^3

1.010^-3m^3

D

A block is connected to a light string attached to the bottom of a large

container of water. The tension in the string is 3.0 N. The gravitational

force from the earth on the block is 5.0 N. What is the blocks volume?

A cube of unknown material and uniform density floats in a container of water

with 60% of its volume

submerged. If this same cube were placed in a container of oil with density

800 kg/m,what portion of the

cubes volume would be submerged while floating?

33%

50%

58%

67%

P = F / A 1x10^5 = F / (22*5)

P = F / A = ma / A = kg (m/s^2) / m^2 =

kg / (ms^2)

19.fluids.png

75%

21.fluids.png

22.fluids.png

23.fluids.png

24.fluids.png

25.fluids.png

27.fluids.png

28.fluids.png

29 Fluids

One cubic centimeter of iron (density ~7.8 g/cm and 1 cubic centimeter of

aluminum (density ~2.7 g/cm) are dropped into a pool. Which has the largest

buoyant force on it?

C

iron

aluminum

neither has a

both are the same bouyant force on it

30 Fluids

(density ~2.7 g/cm3 are dropped into a

pool. Which has the largest buoyant force on it?

iron

aluminum

neither has a

both are the same bouyant force on it

31 Fluids

Find the approximate minimum mass needed for a spherical ball with a 40 cm

radius to sink in a liquid of

density 1.4x103 kg/m

B

37.5kg

375kg

3750kg

37500kg

357000kg

and will sink in the pool. Since both

have the same

volume, they will displace the same

amount of water and will have the same

buoyant forces.

Again both samples sink. Also, both

samples have the same mass but

different densities. For the

same mass, a smaller density must

have a larger volume, and the larger

volume displaces

more water making a larger buoyant

force. So the smaller density with the

larger volume has

a larger buoyant force.

V of this ball is 4/3 r3 = 4/3 (0.4)3 =

0.2681 m3. For the ball to just sink, it is

on the verge of

floating, meaning the weight of the ball

equals the buoyant force of the fully

submerged ball.

mg = fl Vdisp g m (10) = 1400

(0.2681) (10) m = 375 kg

This object will float, so mobjg = Fb

objVobj g = ocean Vdisp g

(0.95x103)(V)(10) = (1.1x103)(x% V)

(10)

Gives x% = 0.86 but that is the amount

submerged, so the visible about would

87% be 1 0.86

33 Fluids

What vertical percentage of a 0.25 m deep sheet of ice, whose density is 0.95

x103

kg/m3, will be visible in an ocean whose density is 1.1x103 kg/m

A

The idea that the velocity of a fluid is high when pressure is low and that the

velocity of a fluid is low when the

pressure is high embodies a principle attributed to

E

Torricelli

Pascal

Galileo

Archimedes

Bernoulli

34 Fluids

630kg

730kg

820kg

1100kg

1600kg

180N

250N

480N

1300N

4700N

principle

s.g = obj / h20 0.82 = obj / 1000

obj = 820 then = m/V 820 = m /

1.3

The apparent weight is the air weight

the upwards buoyant force. The

buoyant force is given

by Fb = fl Vdisp g = 1.25x103 (0.375)

(10) = 4687.5 N.

The apparent weight is then (600)(10)

4687.5 = 1312.5 N

0.02V

0.11V

7V

49V

(7R)2v1 = (R)2V v1 = V / 49

32 Fluids

35 Fluids

36 Fluids

liquid of density 1.25x103 kg/m3

D

A conduit of radius 7R carries a uniformly dense liquid to a spigot of radius R

at the same height, where it has a

velocity of V. What is its initial velocity

A

14%

34%

58%

71%

37 Fluids

38 Fluids

39 Fluids

40 Fluids

41 Fluids

42 Fluids

43 Fluids

44 Fluids

45 Fluids

46 Fluids

47 Fluids

1 Thermo

2 Thermo

velocity v at the inlet is P, which is y

meters lower than its outlet, which has a velocity of 2v. In these terms, what is

the final pressure?

The units of specific gravity are

The buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the water displaced

by a submerged object. This is a

principle attributed to

If the gauge pressure of a device reads 2.026x105 N/m2, the absolute

pressure it is measuring is

B

E

kg/m3

g/m3

m/s2

N/m

similar to the diagram for question #27.

Apply Bernoullis equation. P1 + gy1 +

v1

2 = P2 + gy2 + v2

2

P + 0 + v2 = P2 + gy + (2v)2

P2 = P + v2 4v2 gy = P

3/2 v2

gy

37.fluids.PNG

none of the above s.g is density / density and has no units

Torricelli

Pascal

Galileo

Archimedes

Bernoulli

1.013x10^5 N/m2

2.052x10^5 N/m2

2.026x10^5 N/m2

3.039x10^5 N/m2

experiences a

buoyant force

equal to L gV.

experiences a

buoyant force

equal to mB g

6.078x10^5 N/m2

does not

experience any

buoyant force,

because B> L

liquid of density L. The density of

the block is greater than the density of the liquid. The block

C

A river gradually deepens, from a depth of 4 m to a depth of 8 m as shown.

The width, W, of the river does not

change. At the depth of 4 m, the rivers speed is 12 m/sec. Its velocity at the 8

m depth is

C

In the open manometer shown, water occupies a part of the left arm, from a

height of y1 to a height of y2

remainder of the left arm, the bottom of the tube, and the right arm to a height

of y

. The

3 are filled with mercury.

B

Water flows in a pipe of uniform cross-sectional area A. The pipe changes

height from y1 = 2 meters to y2 = 3 meters. Since the areas are the same, we

can say v1 = v2. Which of the following is true?

A

A vertical force of 30 N is applied uniformly to a flat button with a radius of 1

cm that is lying on a table. Which

of the following is the best order of magnitude estimate for the pressure

applied to the button?

E

A ball that can float on water has mass 5.00 kg and volume 2.50 x 10^-2 m3.

What is the magnitude of the

downward force that must be applied to the ball to hold it motionless and

completely submerged in freshwater

of density 1.00 x 10^3 kg/m3?

D

Water flows through the pipe shown. At the larger end, the pipe has diameter

D and the speed of the water is v1 . What is the speed of the water at the

smaller end, where the pipe has diameter d ?

E

The maximum efficiency of a heat engine that operates between

temperatures of 1500 K in the firing chamber

and 600 K in the exhaust chamber is most nearly

C

following statements about this

gas are true EXCEPT:

experiences a

floats, because B buoyant force

> L

equal to B gV.

Pabs = Pg + Po = 2.026x10^5 + 1.01

x10^5 = 3.03x10^5 Pa

width. A1v1 = A2v2 4(W)(12) = (8)(W)

12 m/sec

24 m/sec

6 m/sec

8 m/sec

16 m/sec

v2 v2 = 6 m/s

42.fluids.png

The relevant formula here is P = Po +

gh

Answer (a) is wrong, because at y1 on

both arms, the pressure is just the

atmospheric pressure.

The pressure in the right arm at y3 is

still just atmospheric, but on the left, it is

atmospheric plus

g(y1 y3). That rules out (a). The

pressure at the bottom of the tube is

everywhere the same

(Pascals principle), which rules out (c),

and at the same time, tells us (b) is

right. At y2, we can

say P = Pbottom Hggy2 on both

sides, so the pressure is equal. Answer

(d) is wrong because at

y3, the right arm is supporting only the

atmosphere, while the left arm is

the pressure at the

supporting the

bottom of the right the pressure at a the pressure at a atmosphere plus H20

the pressure at a the pressure at a arm is greater than height y3 is less in height y1 is less in pressure.

height y3 is the

height y2 is the

at the bottom of

the left arm than in the left arm than in gh. Finally, (e) is silly because both

same in both arms. same in both arms. the left arm.

the right arm.

the right arm.

arms at height y1 are at atmospheric

43.fluids.png

Apply Bernoullis equation. P1 + gy1 +

P1=P2 + g(y2

v1^2 = P2 + gy2 + v2^2P1 =

y1)

P1=P2

P1=0

P2=0

1>2

P2 + g(y2y1)

44.fluids.png

10 Pa

10^2 Pa

10^3 Pa

10^4 Pa

10^5 Pa

20.0 N

25.0 N

30.0 N

200 N

250 N

P = F / A = 30 / r2 use 3 for

since its an estimate 30 / (3*(.01)^2)

= 100000 Pa

From a force standpoint, for the object

to be completely submerged there

would be three forces

acting. Fb up, mg down and Fpush

down. Fb = Fpush + mg Fpush = Fb

mg

Fpush = ph20 Vdisp g mg

= (1000)(2.5x102)(10) (5)(10) = 200

N

v1

dv1/D

Dv1/d

d^2v1/D^2

D^2v1/d^2

(D/2)^2v1 = (d/2)^2v2 solve for v2

33%

40%

The temperature of

the gas is

proportional to the

average

translational kinetic All of the

energy of the

molecules have

molecules

the same speed.

60%

The molecules

make elastic

collisions with the

walls of the

container.

67%

The molecules

make elastic

collisions with

each other.

100%

The average

number of

collisions per unit

time that the

molecules make

with the walls of

the container

depends on the

temperature of the

gas.

ec=(TH-TC)/TH

Kavg T, the molecules move with

a wide range of speeds

represented by the Maxwellian

distribution.

47.fluids.png

3 Thermo

Q < 0 and W = 0

Q > 0 and W = 0

4 Thermo

An ideal gas confined in a box initially has pressure p. If the absolute

temperature of the gas is doubled and the

volume of the box is quadrupled, the pressure is

W < 0 & U = 0

W = 0 & U < 0

W = 0 & U > 0

W > 0 & U = 0

p/8

p/4

p/2

universal

gravitational

constant

speed of light

mechanical

equivalent of heat

charge of an

electron

5 Thermo

6 Thermo

7 Thermo

An ideal gas in a closed container initially has volume V, pressure P. and

Kelvin temperature T. If the

temperature is changed to 3T, which of the following pairs of pressure and

volume values is possible?

the gas is expanding, W < 0 and since

the temperature is increasing, U > 0

and U = Q + W so Q > 0 (it is also true

because process XY lies above an

adiabatic expansion from point X)

Q > 0 and W > 0

3.thermo.png

For YZ, the process is isochoric,

which means no work is done (W = 0)

and since the temperature is

increasing, U > 0

W > 0 & U > 0

4.thermo.png

PV T, or P T/V and if T 2 then

P 2 and if V 4 then P 4 so

2p

the net effect is P24

James Joule did experiments on

changing the temperature of water

specific heat

through various means,

capacity of helium including by doing work on it.

3P and V

P and V

P/3 and V

3P and 3V

the gas is the

same for all three

paths.

The change in

The heat absorbed internal energy of

by the gas is the

the gas is the

same for all three same for all three

paths.

paths.

The expansion

along path IF is

adiabatic.

The expansion

along path IF is

isothermal.

PV T so to triple the

temperature, the product of P and

V must be tripled

Changes in internal energy are path

independent on a pV diagram as it

depends on the change in

temperature, which is based on the

beginning and end points of the path

and not the path taken

8.thermo.png

E/(2)

(2)E

2E

4E

Kavg T

A and 1/L

The pressure does

not change ( P =

0).

1/A and L

The internal

energy does not

change (U = 0).

No heat flows into

or out of the

system (Q = 0)

No work is done

on or by the

system (W = 0)

H = kAT/L

P and V/3

10 Thermo

If three identical samples of an ideal gas are taken from initial state I to final

state F along the paths IAF, IF, and

IBF as shown in the pV-diagram above, which of the following must be true?

If the average kinetic energy of the molecules in an ideal gas at a

temperature of 300 K is E, the average kinetic

energy at a temperature of 600 K is

A metal rod of length L and cross-sectional area A connects two thermal

reservoirs of temperatures T1 and T2.

The amount of heat transferred through the rod per unit time is directly

proportional to

11 Thermo

A and L

The temperature

does not change

(T = 0).

12 Thermo

AB

BC

CD

DE

EA

13 Thermo

16 Thermo

Gas in a chamber passes through the cycle ABCA as shown in the diagram

above. In the process AB, 12 joules of heat is added to the gas. In the

process BC, no heat is exchanged with the gas. For the complete cycle

ABCA, the work done by the gas is 8 joules. How much heat is added to or

removed from the gas during process CA?

If the gas in a container absorbs 275 joules of heat, has 125 joules of work

done on it, and then does 50 joules of work, what is the increase in the

internal energy of the gas?

In each cycle of a certain Carnot engine, 100 joules of heat is absorbed from

the high-temperature reservoir and 60 joules is exhausted to the lowtemperature reservoir. What is the efficiency of the engine?

17 Thermo

Which of the following is true of the mechanical work done on the gas?

18 Thermo

20 Thermo

A

In a certain process, 400 J of heat is added to a system and the system

simultaneously does 100 J of work. The change in internal energy of the

system is

C

An ideal gas is initially in a state that corresponds to point 1 on the graph

above, where it has pressure p1, volume V1, and temperature T1. The gas

undergoes an isothermal process represented by the curve shown, which

takes it to a final state 3 at temperature T3. If T2 and T4 are the temperatures

the gas would have at points 2 and 4, respectively, which of the following

relationships is true?

B

21 Thermo

constant volume. What effect, if any, does this have on the pressure and

density of the sample of gas?

8 Thermo

9 Thermo

14 Thermo

15 Thermo

19 Thermo

By definition

No work is done in an isochoric

process, or a process where V = 0 (a

vertical line on the pv graph)

The temperature at any point is

proportional to the product of P and V.

Point A at temperature

(T0) is at pressure volume (p0)(V0).

Point C is at 3(p0) 3(V0) = 9(T0) and

point D is at 2(p0) 4(V0) =8(T0)

12.thermo.png

12.thermo.png

20 J is removed.

4 J is removed.

4 J is added.

20 J is added.

No heat is added J so Q = U W = +8 J (8 J added).

to or removed from This means Q(AB) + Q(BC) + Q(CA) =

the gas.

+8 J = +12 J + 0 J + Q(CAB) = +8 J

14.thermo.png

100 J

200 J

350 J

400 J

450 J

150%

167%

It is the same for

processes 2 and 3 It is the same for

and less for

all three

process 1.

processes.

It is greatest for

process 1.

It is greatest for

process 3.

67%

It is the same for

processes I and 2

and less for

process 3.

It is greatest for

process 1.

It is greatest for

process 2.

It is greatest for

process 3.

(H))=((Q(H)-Q(C))/Q(H))

Work is the area under the curve, the

line bounding the greatest area

indicates the most work

done

17.thermo.png

Temperature rises as you travel up and

to the right on a pV diagram. Since

processes 1, 2 and 3

It is the same for

It is the same for

are at the same volume, the highest

processes 1 and 2. processes 1 and 3. point is at the highest temperature

17.thermo.png

500 J

400 J

300 J

-100 J

-300 J

T(1)<T(3)

T(1)<T(2)

T(1) = T(2)

T(1) = T(4)

Q = +275 J; W = + 125 J + ( 50 J) =

+75 J; U = Q + W

40%

60%

Q = +400 J; W = 100 J; U = Q + W

constant. Points to the right or above

are at higher temperatures.

20.thermo.png

P T at constant volume. If T 2,

then P 2. Since the mass and

volume are unchanged, the

21.thermo.png

density is unchanged as well

22 Thermo

23 Thermo

24 Thermo

25 Thermo

26 Thermo

27 Thermo

28 Thermo

29 Thermo

30 Thermo

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

classical model of an ideal gas?

D

A sample of an ideal gas is in a tank of constant volume. The sample absorbs

heat energy so that its temperature

changes from 300 K to 600 K. If v1 is the average speed of the gas molecules

before the absorption of heat and

v2 is their average speed after the absorption of heat, what is the ratio v2/v1? C

Two blocks of steel, the first of mass 1 kg and the second of mass 2 kg, are in

thermal equilibrium with a third

block of aluminum of mass 2 kg that has a temperature of 400 K. What are

the respective temperatures of the

first and second steel blocks?

C

An ideal gas may be taken from one state to another state with a different

pressure, volume, and temperature

along several different paths. Quantities that will always be the same for this

process, regardless of which path

is taken, include which of the following?

I. The change in internal energy of the gas

II. The heat exchanged between the gas and its surroundings

III. The work done by the gas

A

A square steel plate with sides of length 1.00 m has a hole in its center 0.100

m in diameter. If the entire plate is

heated to such a temperature that its sides become 1.01 m long, the diameter

of the hole will be

D

Which of the following will occur if the average speed of the gas molecules in

a closed rigid container is

increased?

C

In time t, an amount of heat Q flows through the solid door of area A and

thickness d represented above. The

temperatures on each side of the door are T2 and T1, respectively. Which of

the following changes would be

certain to decrease Q?

D

A gas with a fixed number of molecules does 32 J of work on its

surroundings, and 16 J of heat are transferred

from the gas to the surroundings. What happens to the internal energy of the

gas?

A

The only

appreciable forces

on the molecules

are those that

occur during

collisions.

The collisions

between

molecules are

inelastic.

would change its temperature by virtue

of the collisions

with no change in pressure or volume.

I only

II only

0.090 m

0.099 m

0.100 m

0.101 m

gas will decrease.

gas will increase.

The pressure of

the gas will

increase.

The pressure of

the gas will

decrease.

4 (1/2)

Being in thermal equilibrium means the

objects are at the same temperature.

Mass is irrelevant.

The question describes the zeroth law

None of the above of thermodynamics.

Changes in internal energy are path

independent on a pV diagram as it

depends on the change in

temperature, which is based on the

beginning and end points of the path

and not the path taken.

Different paths, with different areas

under them will do different amounts of

work and hence,

I, II, and III

different amounts of heat exchanged.

In linear expansion, every linear

dimension of an object changes by the

same fraction when

0.110 m

heated or cooled.

rigid container = constant volume. If

the speed increases, the temperature

The temperature of will increase, and if

the gas will

the temperature increases at constant

decrease.

volume, the pressure will increase.

Increasing A only

Increasing d and

Decreasing d only T2 T1 only

Decreasing A and

T2 T1 only

Increasing d, A,

and T2 T1

It increases by 16

J.

It increases by 48

J.

0.5

1 square root of 2

J.

J.

same.

H= kA(Tf-Ti)/L

color of a metal

rod.

length of a liquid

column.

at constant volume resistance.

of gas at constant

pressure.

Q = 16 J; W = 32 J; U = Q + W

Mass is independent of the state of a

gas. (color will be addressed in a later

topic, think about a

yellow vs. blue flame or a red hot

piece of metal)

2/3 p

3/2 p

2p

3p

6p

T 2 then P 2, the net effect is

P32

the molecules of

the water and

copper would have

equal average

speeds

the molecules of

the water and

copper would have

equal average

momenta

the molecules of

the water and

copper would have

equal average

kinetic energies

the water

molecules would

have twice the

average

momentum of the

copper molecules

the copper

molecules would

have twice the

average speed of

the water

molecules

both height and

both height and

width will remain

width will increase width will decrease unchanged

A change in:

E

A mass m of helium gas is in a container of constant volume V. It is initially at

pressure p and absolute (Kelvin)

temperature T. Additional helium is added, bringing the total mass of helium

gas to 3m. After this addition, the

temperature is found to be 2T. What is the gas pressure?

E

43 Thermo

A 200 gram sample of copper is submerged in 100 grams of water until both

the copper and water are at the same temperature. Which of the following

statements would be true?

A rectangular piece of metal 3 cm high by 6 cm wide has a hole cut in its

center 1cm high by 4 cm wide as shown in the diagram at right. As the metal

is warmed from 0oC to 1000C, what will happen to the dimensions of the

hole?

44 Thermo

A gas is enclosed in a cylindrical piston. When the gas is heated from 0oC to

100oC, the piston is allowed to move to maintain a constant pressure.

According to the Kinetic-Molecular Theory of Matter

A

42 Thermo

molecules is

negligible

compared with the The molecules

The molecules are volume occupied obey Newton's

in random motion. by the gas.

laws of motion.

gas will increase

the number of

molecules of gas

must increase

individual

molecules has

increased

height will

height will increase

decrease while

while width will

width will increase decrease

the molecules

continue to strike

the average speed the sides of the

of the molecules

container with the

has increased

same energy

28.thermo.png

KavgT

In linear expansion, every linear

dimension of an object changes by the

same fraction when A

heated or cooled.

42.thermo.png

Kavg T

44.thermo.png

45 Thermo

Two containers are filled with gases at the same temperature. In the

container on the left is a gas of molar mass 2M, volume 2V, and number of

moles 2n. In the container on the right is a gas of molar mass M, volume V,

and moles n. Which is most nearly the ratio of the pressure of the gas on the

left to the pressure of the gas on the right?

46 Thermo

into two equal parts. In one part is a vacuum. In the other part is an ideal gas

of temperature T and internal energy U. The membrane is punctured and the

gas rushes into the region which was a vacuum. After the system has

returned to equilibrium, which of the following is NOT true for the gas?

A

47 Thermo

48 Thermo

49 Thermo

50 Thermo

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

Thermo

A fan blows the air and gives it kinetic energy. An hour after the fan has been

turned off, what has happened to the kinetic energy of the air?

D

According to the kinetic theory of gases, when the absolute temperature of an

ideal gas doubles, the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the gas

E

When gas escapes from a pressurized cylinder, the stream of gas feels cool.

This is because

B

A monatomic ideal gas is used as the working substance for the Carnot cycle

shown in the figure. Processes A B and C D are isothermal, while

processes B C and D A are adiabatic. During process A B, there are

400 J of work done by the gas on the surroundings. How much heat is

expelled by the gas during process C D?

A

Two completely identical samples of the same ideal gas are in equal volume

containers with the same pressure and temperature in containers labeled A

and B. The gas in container A performs non-zero work W on the surroundings

during an isobaric (constant pressure) process before the pressure is reduced

isochorically (constant volume) to 12 its initial amount. The gas in container B

has its pressure reduced isochorically (constant volume) to 12 its initial value

and then the gas performs non-zero work W on the surroundings during an

isobaric (constant pressure) process.

After the processes are performed on the gases in containers A and B, which

is at the higher temperature?

E

1:01:00

8:01:00

2:01:00

There is no heat

The temperature of No work is done by exchanged by the

the gas is

the gas on the

gas with the

unchanged.

surroundings.

surroundings.

it disappears

energy

it turns into

potential energy

Since the container is insulated, no

heat is exchanged (C is true), since

there is no work done (no

force required to expand), choice B is

true. Since Q = 0 and W = 0, U and

T = 0 (A and E are

true). While entropy change does have

a heat component (and if Q = 0, the

change in entropy

There is no

The internal

may be incorrectly regarded as zero) it

entropy change of energy of the gas also has a volume component (how

the system.

is unchanged.

spread out the gas is)

This question is a bit of a paradox as

the energy form the fan giving the air

kinetic energy is

theoretically adding to the thermal

energy of the air, But as the air lowers

in temperature, this

energy will dissipate into the walls and

it turns into

it turns into thermal other outside areas of the room as

electrical energy

energy

thermal energy as well.

16:01:00

Kavg T

Gas escaping form a pressurized

cylinder is an example of an adiabatic

process. While the gas

rapidly does work (W < 0), U is

work is being done

pressurized

the gas inside the the moisture in the negative since heat does not have time

at the expense of of the convection cylinders are good cylinder is actually air condenses and to flow into the gas in a

thermal energy

inside the cylinder thermal insulators frozen

cools

rapid expansion.

quadruples

1600 J

The gas in

container A

doubles

is cut in half

800 J

400 J

200 J

The gas in

container B

work W is

necessary to

The gases have

answer this

equal temperature question.

is quartered

In a Carnot cycle

Q = and in process AB, U = 0 and

since WAB = 400 J, QAB = +400 J

100 J

and this is Qh

50.thermo.png

Since process A and B perform the

same amount of work, they must have

the same area under

The value of the

their respective lines. Since A does the

work W is

work at a higher pressure, it does not

necessary, along have to move as far

with both the initial to the right as process B, which

pressure and

performs the work at a lower

volume, in order to temperature. Since the end of

answer the

process B lies farther to the right, it is at

question.

the higher temperature.

81 Thermo

82 Thermo

83 Thermo

Timestamp

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