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Probabilistic Programming
Both A and B
C.
Stochastic Programming
D. Linear Programming
What enables us to determine the earliest and the latest times for each of the events and
activities and thereby helps in the identification of the critical path?
Both A and B
A. Programme Evaluation
C.
Review
Technique
(PERT)
B.
D. Deployment of resources
Linear Programming technique is used to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner in
problems of ?
Both A and B
A. Schedule
C.
B. Product Mix c
D. Servicing Cost
Operations Research techniques helps the directing authority in optimum allocation of various
limited resources, such as
Material and Time
A. Men and Machine
C.
B. Money
D. All of the above
Operations Research study generally involves how many phases ?
Five
A. Three
C.
B. Four
D. Two
. models involves the allocation of resources to activities in such a manner that some
measure of effectiveness is optimized.
Queuing Theory
A. Sequencin
C.
B. Allocation Models
D. Decision Theory
Allocation problems can be solved by
Both A and B
A. Linear Programming Technique
C.
B. Non Linear Programming D. None of the above
Technique
In__________ models, everything is defined and the results are certain,
Both A and B
A. Deterministic Models
C.
B. Probabilistic Models
D. None of the above
In _____ models there is risk and uncertainty
Both A and B
A. Deterministic Models
C.
Probabilistic
Models
B.
D. None of the above
_____ models are obtained by enlarging or reducing the size of the item
Symbolic Models
A. Iconic Models
C.
B. Analogue Models
D. None of the above
Operations Research attempts to find the best and __________ solution to a problem
Degenerate
A. Optimum
C.
B. Perfect
D. None of the above
The word __________ may be defined as some action that we apply to some problems or
Hypothesis
Both A and B
A. Research
C.
B. Operation
D. None of the above
The operations Research technique, specially used to determine the optimum strategy is
Game Theory
A. Decision Theory
C.
Simulation
B.
D. None of the above
The operations Research technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service costs is
Both A and B
A. Queuing Theory
C.
B. Decision Theory
D. None of the above
__________ are the representation of reality
Both A and B
A. Models
C.
B. Phases
D. None of the above
A.
B.
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The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors are called __________
Non basic Variables
A. Unit Variables
C.
B. Basic Variables
D. None of the above
Any column or raw of a simplex table is called a __________
Key Raw
A. Vector
C.
B. Key column
D. None of the above
A non degenerate basic feasible solution is the basic feasible solution which has exactly m
positive Xi (i=1,2,,m), i.e., none of the basic variable is __________
A. Infinity
C.
ZERO
B.
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ONE
D.
A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the sign of
coefficients in the __________
Both A and B
A. Constraints
C.
B. Objective Functions
D. None of the above
If in a LPP , the solution of a variable can be made infinity large without violating the constraints,
the solution is __________
Alternative
A. Infeasible
C.
Unbounded
B.
D. None of the above
In maximization cases , __________ are assigned to the artificial variables as their coefficients in
the objective function
0
A. +m
C.
B. m
D. None of the above
In simplex method , we add _____ variables in the case of =
Artificial Variable
A. Slack Variable
C.
Surplus
Variable
c
B.
D. None of the above
In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable,
should be selected
Decision variable
A. Slack variable
C.
B. Surplus variable
D. None of the above
A BFS of a LPP is said to be _____ if at least one of the basic variable is zero
Infeasible
A. Degenerate
C.
Non
degenerate
B.
D. Unbounded
In LPP, degeneracy occurs in _____ stages
Three
A. One
C.
B. Two
D. Four
Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called _____
Nonlinear programming
A. Primal
C.
Dual
B.
D. None of the above
As for maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the __________
Cost
A. Profit
C.
B. Optimization
D. None of the above
If there are more than one optimum solution for the decision variable the solution is __________
Alternative
A. Infeasible
C.
B. Unbounded
D. None of the above
Dual of the dual is __________
Alternative
A. Primal
C.
B. Dual
D. None of the above
Operations Research approach is
Initiative
A. Multi-disciplinary
C.
B. Scientific
D. All of the above
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Alfred Marsh
D. None of the above
Who invented a method of formal calculations often termed as ?
T.S. Kantorovich
A. A.V. Kantorovich
C.
B. L.V. Kantorovich
D. Alfred Marshall
Who developed Linear Programming for the purpose of scheduling the complicated
procurement activities of the United States Air Force?
George B. Dante
A. George B. Dantzig
C.
B. James B. Dantzig
D. George V. Dantzig
This method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in
which year?
1957
A. 1947
C.
B. 1988
D. 1944
What is being considered as one of the most versatile management tools?
Computer Programming
A. Electronic Computers
C.
Linear
Programming
B.
D. None of the above
LP is a major innovation since __________ in the field of business decision making, particularly
under conditions of certainty.
World War II
A. Industrial Revolution
C.
B. World War I
D. French Revolution
The world Linear means that the relationships are represented by _______
Straight lines
A. Diagonal lines
C.
Curved
lines
B.
D. Slanting lines
The world programming means taking decisions _________
Slowly
A. Systematically
C.
B. Rapidly
D. Instantly
Who originally called it Programming of interdependent activities in a linear structure but later
shortened it to Linear Programming ?
Marshall
A. Dantzig
C.
Kantorovich
B.
D. None of the above
LP can be applied in farm management problems is relates to the allocation of resources such as
___________, in such a way that is maximizes net revenue
Water supply or working capital
A. Average
C.
B. Labour
D. All of the above
LP model is based on the assumptions of ______________
Certainty
A. Proportionality
C.
Additivity
B.
D. All of the above
______________ assumption means the prior knowledge of all the coefficients in the objective
function, the coefficients of the constraints and the resource values.
Finite choices
A. Proportionality
C.
B. Certainty
D. Continuity
Simple linear programming problem with ______________ variables can be easily solved by the
graphical method.
Four decisions
A. One decision
C.
B. Three decisions
D. Two decisions
Any solution to a LPP which satisfies the non negativity restrictions of the LPP is called its
______________
Feasible solution
A. Unbounded solution
C.
B. Optimal solution
D. Both A and B
Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of the
LPP is called its ______________
B.
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Solution
A. Optimal solution
C.
B. Nonbasic variables
D. Basic feasible solution
Production flow analysis (PFA) is a method of identifying part families that uses data from
[GATE-2001]
Bill of materials
A. Engineering drawings
C.
Production
schedule
B.
D. Route sheets
Routing in production planning and control refers to the (IES-2000)
A. Balancing of load on machines
C.
Progress of work performed
B. Authorization of work to be D. Sequence of operations to be performed
performed
The routing function in a production system design is concerned with. [IES-1996]
A. Manpower utilization
C.
Quality assurance of the product
B. Machine utilization
D. Optimizing material flow through the plant
Consider the following statements: [IES 2007]
Scheduling
1. Is a general timetable of manufacturing
2. Is the time phase of loading
3. Is loading all the work in process on
4. Machines according to their capacity
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
C.
2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements: [IES-2004]
1. Preparation of master production schedule is an iterative process
2. Schedule charts are made with respect to jobs while load charts are made with respect to
machines
3. MRP is done before master production scheduling
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
C.
2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Which of the following factors are to be considered for production scheduling? [IES-1995]
1. Sales forecast 2. Component design
3. Route sheet
4. Time standards
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
C.
1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
A manufacturer's master product schedule of a product is given below:
Period Planned: Week-l Week-2 Week-3 Week-4 Week-5 Week-6
Planned Production: 50
100
100
100
150
50
Each product requires a purchased component A in its sub- assembly. Before the start of
week-1, there are 400 components of type A in stock. The lead time to procure this
component is 2 weeks and the order quantity is 400. Number of components A per product
is only one. The manufacturer should place the order for [IES-1999]
A. 400 components in week-l
C.
200 components in week-l and 200
components in week-3
B. 400 components in week-3
D. 400 components in week-5
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Which one of the following charts gives simultaneously, information about the progress of
work and machine loading? [IAS-1995]
A. Process chart
C.
Man-machine chart
B. Machine load chart
D. Gantt chart
Which one of the following is required for the preparation of the load chart machine?
[IAS-1998]
A. Process chart
C.
Route sheet of jobs
B. Sequencing of jobs on the D. Schedule of jobs for the machine
machine
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Despatching function of production planning and control refers to [IES-2001; IAS-1997, 1999]
Authorizing a production work order to be
A. A dispatch of finished goods on C.
order
launched
B. Movement of in-process material D. Dispatch of bills and invoices to the customer
from shop to shop
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Which one of the following is required for the preparation of the load chart machine? [IAS-1998]
Route sheet of jobs
A. Process chart
C.
Sequencing
of
jobs
on
the
machine
B.
D. Schedule of jobs for the machine
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B. l, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Earliest finish time can be regarded as [IES-1993]
A. EST + duration of activity
C.
LFT + duration of activity
B. EST duration of activity
D. LFT duration of activity
The essential condition for the decompression of an activity is: [IES-1992]
A. The project time should change C.
An activity could be decompressed to the
due to decompression
maximum extent of its normal time
B. After decompression the time of D. None of the above.
an activity invariably exceeds its
normal time
A PERT network has three activities on critical path with mean time 3, 8 and 6, and
standard deviation1, 2 and 3 respectively. The probability that the project will be completed
in 20 days is:
[IES-1993]
A. 0.50
C.
0.84
B. 0.66
D. 0.95
Time estimates of an activity in a PERT network are:
Optimistic time to = 9 days; pessimistic time t p= 21 days and most likely time te= 15 days.
The approximates probability of completion of this activity in 13 days is: [IES-1999]
A. 16%
C.
50%
B. 34%
D. 84%
In a PERT network, expected project duration is found to be 36 days from the start of the
project. The variance is four days. The probability that the project will be completed in 36
days is: [IES-1997]
A. Zero
C.
50%
B. 34%
D. 84%
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Assertion (A): Generally PERT is preferred over CPM for the purpose of project evaluation.
Reason (R): PERT is based on the approach of multiple time estimates for each activity.
[IES-1996]
A is true but R is false
A. Both A and R are individually true C.
and R is the correct explanation of
A
B. Both A and R are individually true D. A is false but R is true
but R is notthe correct explanation
of A
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The three time estimates of a PERT activity are: optimistic time = 8 min, most likely time =
10 min and pessimistic time = 14 min. The expected time of the activity would be: [IES2002]
A. 10.00 min
C.
10.66 min
B. 10.33 min
D. 11.00 min
Latest start time of an activity in CPM is the [IES-2001]
A. Latest occurrence time of the C.
Latest occurrence time of the successor
successor event minus the
event
duration of the activity
B. Earliest occurrence time for the D. Earliest occurrence time for the predecessor
predecessor event plus the
event
duration of the activity
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For the network shown in the given figure, the earliest expected completion time of the
project is: [IES-2001]
A. 26 days
C.
30 days
B. 27 days
D. Indeterminable
Consider the following statements regarding updating of the
network: [IES-2002]
1. For short duration project, updating is done frequently
2. For large duration project, frequency of updating is decreased as the project is
nearing completion
3. Updating is caused by overestimated or underestimated times of activities
4. The outbreak of natural calamity necessitates updating Which of the above
statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
C.
1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
The earliest time of the completion of the last event in the above network in weeks is:
[IES-2003]
A. 41
C.
43
B. 42
D. 46
Setup costs do not include [GATE-1997]
A. Labour cost of setting up C.
Maintenance cost of the machines
machines
B. Ordering cost of raw material
D. Cost of processing the work piece
In inventory planning, extra inventory is unnecessarily carried tothe end of the planning
period when, using one of the following lot size decision policies: [GATE-1998]
A. Lot-for-lot production
C.
Period Order Quantity (POQ) lot size
B. Economic
Order
Quantity D. Part Period total cost balancing
(EOQ) lot size
Market demand for springs is 8,00,000 per annum. A company purchases these springs in
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lots and sells them. The cost of making a purchase order is Rs.1,200. The cost of storage of
springs is Rs.120 per stored piece per annum. The economic order quantity is:
[GATE-2003]
A. 400
C.
4,000
B. 2,828
D. 8,000
An item can be purchased for Rs 100. The ordering cost is Rs. 200 and the inventory
carrying cost is 10% of the item cost annum. If the annual demand is 4000 units, then
economic order quantity (in units) is: [GATE-2002]
A. 50
C.
200
B. 100
D. 400
f the demand for an item is doubled and the ordering cost halved, the economic order
quantity [GATE-1995]
A. Remains unchanged
C.
Is doubled
B. Increases by a factor of 2
D. Is halved
Annual demand for window frames is 10000. Each frame costs Rs. 200 and ordering cost is
Rs. 300 per order. Inventory holding cost is Rs. 40 per frame per year. The supplier is
willing to offer 2% discount if the order quantity is 1000 or more, and 4% if order quantity
is 2000 or more. If the total cost is to be minimized, the retailer should [GATE-2010]
A. Order 200 frames every time
C.
Accept 4% discount
B. Accept 2% discount
D. Order Economic Order Quantity
A company has an annual demand of 1000 units, ordering cost of Rs. 100/ order and
carrying cost of Rs. 100/unit-year. If the stock-out costs are estimated to be nearly Rs. 400
each time the company runs out-of-stock, then safety stock justified by the carrying cost
will be: [GATE-2004]
A. 4
C.
40
B. 20
D. 100
In a machine shop, pins of 15 mm diameter are produced at a rate of1000 per month and
the same is consumed at a rate of 500 per month. The production and consumption
continue simultaneously till the maximum inventory is reached. Then inventory is allowed
to reduce to zero due to consumption. The lot size of production is 1000. If backlog is not
allowed, the maximum inventory level is: [GATE-2007]
A. 400
C.
600
B. 500
D. 700
Which of the following are the benefits of inventory control?
1. Improvement in customers relationship.
2. Economy in purchasing.
3. Elimination of the possibility of duplicate ordering.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [IES-2007]
A. 1, 2 and 3
C.
2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
In ABC analysis, A items require:
[IES-2005]
A. No safety stock
C.
Moderate safety stock
B. Low safety stock
D. High safety stock
Classifying items in A, B and C categories for selective control in inventory management is
done by arranging items in the decreasing order of: [IES-1995]
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B.
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Q-170
Q.No
.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
Correct
Choice
Option
B
D
B
C
D
A
C
A
A
D
D
C
A
C
B
C
C
D
C
D
C
B
C
B
A
B
C
C
C
D
A
B
C
A
B
A
A
B
B
A
A
C
Answer Key
Correct
Q.No
Q.No. Choice
.
Option
44
A
87
45
C
88
46
B
89
47
A
90
48
B
91
49
B
92
50
B
93
51
A
94
52
A
95
53
B
96
54
B
97
55
B
98
56
C
99
57
A
100
58
B
101
59
A
102
60
C
103
61
B
104
62
B
105
63
A
106
64
C
107
65
C
108
66
A
109
67
B
110
68
B
111
69
A
112
70
C
113
71
A
114
72
C
115
73
A
116
74
D
117
75
D
118
76
A
119
77
D
120
78
C
121
79
B
122
80
D
123
81
C
124
82
D
125
83
A
126
84
C
127
85
D
128
Correct
Choice
Option
D
A
A
B
C
C
A
A
D
D
B
D
C
A
B,C
D
D
A
B
D
B
B
D
C
A
A
A
B
D
C
B
B
D
A
C
D
C
A
D
B
D
A
Q.No
.
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
170
Correct
Choice
Option
C
B
A
C
B
A
C
A
B
A
C
A
D
C
B
C
D
A
C
C
B
A
B
C
B
A
A
B
B
B
D
B
A
D
D
B
B
B
D
B
C
43
86
129
*****