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TEMASEK JUNIOR COLLEGE


2010 Preliminary Examination
Higher 2

PHYSICS

9646/01, 9745/01
24 September 2010
1 hour 15 minutes

Paper 1 Multiple Choice


Additional Materials:

Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST


Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name and Civics group on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided.
There are forty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four
possible answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate
Answer Sheet.
Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.
Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This booklet consists of 17 printed pages.


[Turn over

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Data
speed of light in free space,

3.00 x 108 m s-1

permeability of free space,

4 x 10-7 H m-1

permittivity of free space,

8.85 x 10-12 Fm-1


(1 / (36 )) x 10-9 Fm-1

elementary charge,

1.60 x 10-19 C

the Planck constant,

6.63 x 10-34 J s

unified atomic mass constant,

1.66 x 10-27 kg

rest mass of electron,

me

9.11 x 10-31 kg

rest mass of proton,

mp

1.67 x 10-27 kg

molar gas constant,

8.31 J K-1 mol-1

NA

6.02 x 1023 mol-1

the Boltzmann constant,

1.38 x 10-23 J K-1

gravitational constant,

6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2

acceleration of free fall,

9.81 m s-2

the Avogadro constant,

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Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion,

work done on/by a gas,


hydrostatic pressure,
gravitational potential,

ut + at2

v2

u2 + 2as

pV

gh

Gm
r

displacement of particle in s.h.m.,

xo sin t

velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

vo cos t

R1 + R2 +

1/R

1/R1 + 1/R2 +

electric potential,

Q / 4or

alternating current/voltage,

xo sin t

transmission coefficient,

exp(-2kd)

where k

resistors in series,
resistors in parallel,

radioactive decay,
decay constant

(x

2
o

x2

8 2 m ( U E )
h2
xo exp (-t)
0.693
t1
2

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Which of the following list contains only scalar quantities?

mass, volume, torque, potential energy

density, electric potential, momentum, magnetic flux

acceleration, kinetic energy, area, displacement

gravitational potential, pressure, electric charge, temperature

A student measures the dimensions of a cylindrical metal rod with an uncertainty of 2 %. Its
diameter is 14.8 mm and its length is 40.2 mm. The metal rod has a resistivity of
1.5 10 8 m.
The percentage uncertainty in the value of the resistance of the rod is

4%

6%

8%

A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a cliff with a speed of 40 m s-1. Assuming that
there is no air resistance, what is its speed 3.0 s later? Take g as 10 m s2.

2%

30 m s1

40 m s1

50 m s1

60 m s1

A linear accelerator sends a charged particle along the axis of a set of coaxial hollow metal
cylinders as shown in the diagram.

track of particle
metal cylinders
The particle travels at constant speed inside each cylinder. The particle crosses the gap
between the cylinders at equal time intervals, and at each gap its kinetic energy increases
by a fixed amount. Which of the graphs best represents the way in which v, the velocity of
the particle varies with d, the distance along its track?
v

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A bore hole contains both oil and water as shown. The depth of the water is 730 m. The
pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the bore hole is 17.5 MPa. The
density of the oil is 830 kg m-3 and the density of the water is 1000 kg m-3.

730 m

What is the depth x of the oil?

907 m

1000 m

1090 m

1270 m

The figure below shows a massive column held stationary in position by a group of people
pulling at a rope.

40

The 4.0 m high column has a mass of 180 kg and its centre of gravity X is at a distance of
2.3 m from the base. The rope makes an angle of 35 to the column and the column itself
makes an angle of 40 to the horizontal. The tension T in the rope is

8.76 102 N

9.50 102 N

1.14 103 N

1.36 103 N

Two blocks, X and Y, of masses m and 2m respectively, are accelerated along a smooth
horizontal surface by a force F as shown in the diagram below.

What is the magnitude of the force exerted by block Y on block X during the acceleration?

F
6

F
3

2F
3

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5F
6

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A beaker of fluid resting on a weighing scale gives a reading X. A solid object suspended
from a Newton-metre indicates a reading Y when in air.

Newton-metre
beaker of fluid

weighing scale

The solid object is then fully immersed in the beaker of fluid. If the Newton-metre now
indicates a reading Z, what is the new weighing scale reading?

X+Z

X+Y-Z

X+Y

X+Z-Y

A small steel sphere is held just below the surface of a deep tank of water and released.
Which one of the following best illustrates the relationship between the acceleration a and the
displacement z of the sphere? (Take g = 10 m s-2 and you may neglect upthrust.)

a / m s-2

a / m s-2

10

10

D
a / m s-2

a / m s-2
10

10

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10

An object of mass 1.5 kg is sliding with a velocity of 3.0 m s-1 on a frictionless surface
towards another object which is stationary and has a mass of 2.0 kg. This head-on collision is
completely inelastic.
If the duration of the collision is 0.050 s, the average force that is exerted between the objects
during the collision is

A
11

39 N

51 N

90 N

119 N

Peter and Susan both stand at the edge of a tall building.


v (Peter)
30

building

v (Susan)

Susan throws a stone vertically downwards and, at the same time, Peter throws a
stone upwards at an angle of 30 to the horizontal. The speed v with which both stones
are thrown is the same.
Neglecting air resistance, which one of the following statements is true?

A
B
C
D

12

The stone thrown by Susan will hit the ground with a greater speed than the stone
thrown by Peter.
Both stones will hit the sea with the same speed no matter what the height of the
building.
In order to determine which stone will hit the ground with a greater speed, the height of
the building must be known.
In order to determine which stone hits the ground first, the height of the building
must be known.

The graph shows the variation with time of the velocity of a body when it is acted on by a
force.
v / m s-1

10

t/s

10

If mass of the body is 2.0 kg, the work done by the force on the body is

64 J

16 J

64 J

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80 J

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13

A bird is flying in a horizontal circular path at constant speed. Its wings are inclined at an
angle to the horizontal as shown in the diagram below.

centre of circle

What of the following shows the forces acting on the bird in the position shown?

B
Lift

Lift

centripetal
force

weight

weight

D
Lift

Lift

centrifugal
force

centripetal
force

weight

14

weight

Four planets A, B, C and D have masses and radii as given below. M is the mass and R is
the radius of Earth.
On which planet would the acceleration due to gravity at the surface be the same as that on
the surface of Earth?

A
B
C
D

Mass of planet

Radius of planet

2M

2R

1
M
2
1
M
2

1
R
2
1
R
2
1
R
2

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15
Y
X
P

M
N

P is a planet with centre O. X and M are two points of equal gravitational potential. Y and
N are two other points of equal potential. Which one of the following is NOT correct?

A
B

16

Gravitational potential at X Distance OY


=
Gravitational potential at Y Distance OX
Positive work has to be done by an external agent to move a mass from Y to X.

The work needed to move a mass from X to N is equal to the work needed to move a
mass from M to Y.

Kinetic energy of satellite orbiting at radius OX


Distance OY
=
Kinetic energy of the same satellite orbiting at radius OY Distance OX

A particle of mass 0.50 kg moves in simple harmonic motion according to the equation
x = 2.0 sin 25t where x is in metres and t is in seconds.
The maximum energy of the particle is

A
17

50 J

310 J

630 J

1300 J

A conical pendulum undergoes uniform circular motion in a horizontal plane. The radius of
the circular path is 0.700 m and the time taken to complete one revolution is 1.25 s. A lamp
shines on the pendulum bob as shown in the figure below.

lamp

screen

The shadow of the bob on the screen was observed to move back and forth along a
horizontal line with

A
B
C
D

a constant speed of 1.76 m s-1.


a constant speed of 3.52 m s-1.
a speed varying between 0 and 1.76 m s-1.
a speed varying between 0 and 3.52 m s-1.

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10

18

A solar furnace made from a concave mirror of area 0.40 m2 is used to heat water. The
radiant energy from the sun arrives at the mirrors surface at a rate of 1400 W m-2. The
specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg-1 K-1.
What is the best estimate of the least time that the furnace takes to heat 2.0 kg of water
from 20 C to 50 C?

A
19

7.5 min

230 min

450 min

An inexpansible vessel initially contains 0.020 kg of gas at 300 K. What is the mass of gas
that has escaped from the vessel if it is heated from 300 K to 400 K under constant
pressure?

A
20

3.8 min

0.0050 kg

0.0075 kg

0.012 kg

0.015 kg

A fixed mass of ideal gas undergoes changes of pressure and volume as shown below.

pressure

S
volume

When the gas is taken from state P to state R by the stages PQ and QR, 8 J of heat are
absorbed by it and 3 J of work are done by it. When the same resultant change is achieved
by stages PS and SR, 1 J of work is done by the gas. In this case,

21

12 J of heat are liberated.

10 J of heat are absorbed.

8 J of heat are absorbed.

6 J of heat are absorbed.

The intensity of a wave depends on the amplitude. It is also proportional to the square of
the frequency. The variation with time t of the displacement x of the particles in a medium
when two progressive waves P and Q pass separately through the medium are shown in
the graphs below.

The intensity of wave P is Io. What is the intensity of wave Q?


1
Io
Io
4Io
A
B
C
2

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16Io

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11

22

Monochromatic light of wavelength 4.0 x 10-7 m passes through two narrow slits and
produces light and dark fringes on a screen.
What is the separation of the slits such that the angular separation between the two first
order bright fringes is 4.00 x10-4 rad?

23

0.5 x 10-3 m

1.0 x 10-3 m

1.50 x 10-3 m

2.0 x 10-3 m

A diffraction grating ruled with 5000 lines per cm is illuminated with white light.
If the wavelength for yellow light and violet light are 600 nm and 400 nm respectively, which
one of the following statements is NOT correct?

The central image is white.

The red end of the first-order spectrum is closer to the central image than the violet
end of the first-order spectrum.

The second-order image of the yellow light coincides with the third-order image of
violet light.

There is no fourth-order image for yellow light.

24 A, B, C and D are four points on a straight line as shown. A point charge +Q is fixed at A.
+Q

I
B

I
C

I
D

When another point charge Q is moved from B to C, which one of the following quantities
will increase?

The magnitude of the electric field strength at point D.

The magnitude of the electric force between the two charges.

The electric potential energy of the system of charges.

The electric potential at point D.

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12

25

Two charges q1 and q2 are placed at two corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in the
figure. The resultant electric field at point A is directed to the left as indicated.
A

q1

q2

The charge q2 is related to charge q1 according to the equation

26

q2 = q1

q2 =

2 q1

q2 = - q1

q2 = - 2 q1

Two cells of e.m.f E1 and E2 and negligible resistance are connected with two variable
resistors as shown in the diagram.

When the galvanometer deflection is zero, the resistances of the variable resistors are P
E2
and Q. What is the value of the ratio
?
E1

27

P
Q

P
P +Q

Q
P +Q

P +Q
P

The ammeter A1 of the circuit below reads 6.0 A.

A2

A1

Assuming that both ammeters have negligible resistance, what is the reading on ammeter A2?

4.5 A

6.0 A

13.5 A

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18.0 A

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13

28

In the circuit below, R1, R2 and R3 are fixed resistors and R is a thermistor.

What happens to the currents I1 and I2 when the temperature at the thermistor increases?

29

I1 remains unchanged, I2 increases

I1 decreases, I2 increases

I1 increases, I2 decreases

I1 increases, I2 increases

A 20-turn square coil of side 8.0 mm is pivoted at the centre and placed in a magnetic field
of flux density 0.010 T such that two sides of the coil are parallel to the field and two sides
are perpendicular to the field, as shown in the figure. A current of 5.0 mA is passed through
the coil.
magnetic field
8.0 mm

axis of pivot
What is the torque created on the coil?

1.6 x 10-9 N m

3.2 x 10-8 N m

6.4 x 10-8 N m

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3.2 x 10-5 N m

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14

30

An electron is moving in air at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The diagram below
shows the path of the electron. The electron is slowing down.

Which one of the following correctly gives the direction of motion of the electron and the
direction of the magnetic field?

31

Direction of motion

Direction of magnetic field

clockwise

into plane of paper

clockwise

out of plane of paper

anti-clockwise

into plane of paper

anti-clockwise

out of plane of paper

The figure below shows a copper disc rotating steadily about its centre O in a uniform
magnetic field between two bar magnets. The magnetic field is acting perpendicularly to
the disc.

R
Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of the induced e.m.f.
between the centre O and a point R on the rim of the disc with time t?

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15

32

The diagram below shows a wire carrying a current I. The magnetic flux density due to
0 I
the straight wire is given by B =
. A straight conductor PQ is placed in the same
2r
vertical plane as the wire and is moved at constant speed v away from the wire.

v
r
Q

How will the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in PQ vary and which end will be at a higher
potential?

33

magnitude of induced e.m.f.

end at higher potential

decreases

decreases

increases

increases

A generator produces a current of 60 A r.m.s. at a voltage of 120 V r.m.s. The voltage is


stepped up to 4500 V r.m.s. by an ideal transformer and transmitted through a power line
of total resistance 1.0 .
What percentage of the power generated is lost in the transmission line?

A
34

0.024%

0.036%

0.048%

A sinusoidal current of peak value Io is passed through a resistor R with a diode


connected in series with it. The average rate of heat dissipated in R is

35

0.018%

0.25 Io2R

0.50 Io2R

0.71 Io2R

1.41 Io2R

An -particle having a de Broglie wavelength i collides with a stationary carbon nucleus.


Both particles move off in the same direction as shown below.
final direction of -particle,
de Broglie wavelength f
final direction of carbon
nucleus, de Broglie
wavelength c

initial direction of -particle,


de Broglie wavelength i
carbon
nucleus

After the collision, the de Broglie wavelengths of the -particle and the carbon nucleus are
f and c respectively. Which of the following is a true statement related to the de Broglie
wavelengths?

i > f

i < f

f = c

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i = (c

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16

36

The apparatus shown below is used to measure the stopping potential Vs for
photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface. Vs is measured for different frequencies of
light incident on the surface.
incident light

Vs

metal plate

current
detector
fo
The variation with the frequency f of the stopping potential Vs is shown above.
From the graph, it may be deduced that

37

all the photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy for a given value of f.

the maximum energy of the photoelectrons is proportional to (f - fo).

C
D

the greater the value of f, the greater is the photocurrent detected.


the slope of the graph is equal to the Planck constant.

The diagram shows two spectra for X-rays from an X-ray tube.

From the graph, it can be deduced that

A
B
C
D

the accelerating voltage to produce spectrum B is higher than spectrum A.


spectrum B has a continuous spectrum but no discrete spectrum.
the target material to produce spectrum A has a higher mass number.
the same target material is used to produce spectra A and B.

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17

38

Which one of the following does not provide evidence for the wave nature of particles?

A
B
C
D

39

Quantum tunneling
Electron diffraction
Photoelectric effect
De Broglie hypothesis

The fusion of two deuterium nuclei produces a nuclide of helium plus a neutron and
liberates 3.27 MeV of energy.
How does the mass of the two deuterium nuclei compare with the combined mass of the
helium nucleus and neutron?

A
B
C
D

40

It is 5.8 x 10-30 kg greater before fusion.


It is 5.8 x 10-30 kg greater after fusion.
It is 5.8 x 10-36 kg greater before fusion.
It is 5.8 x 10-36 kg greater after fusion.

In an experiment on the transport of nutrients in the root structure of a plant, two


radioactive nuclides X and Y were used.
Initially, the ratio

Number of nuclei of nuclide X


=is2.2.5
50
Number of nuclei of nuclide Y

Three days later, the ratio

Number of nuclei of nuclide X


=is4.5.0
20
Number of nuclei of nuclide Y

Given that nuclide Y has a half-life of 1.5 days, what is the half-life of nuclide X?

2.0 days

3.0 days

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4.5 days

6.0 days

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TEMASEK JUNIOR COLLEGE


2010 Preliminary Examination
Higher 2
CANDIDATE
NAME
CIVICS
GROUP

INDEX
NUMBER

PHYSICS

9646/02
13 September 2010
1 hour 45 minutes

Paper 2 Structured Questions


Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No Additional Materials are required.
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST
Write your Civics group, index number and name on all the work you
hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen on both sides of the paper.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section A
Answer all questions.
It is recommended that you spend about 1 hour 15 minutes on this
section.
Section B
Answer Question 8.
It is recommended that you spend about 30 minutes on this section.
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each of each
question or part question.

For Examiners Use


1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Subtotal
8
Total

This booklet consists of 20 printed pages.

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2
Data
speed of light in free space,

3.00 x 108 m s-1

permeability of free space,

4 x 10-7 H m-1

permittivity of free space,

8.85 x 10-12 Fm-1


(1 / (36 )) x 10-9 Fm-1

elementary charge,

1.60 x 10-19 C

the Planck constant,

6.63 x 10-34 J s

unified atomic mass constant,

1.66 x 10-27 kg

rest mass of electron,

me

9.11 x 10-31 kg

rest mass of proton,

mp

1.67 x 10-27 kg

molar gas constant,

8.31 J K-1 mol-1

the Avogadro constant,

NA =

6.02 x 1023 mol-1

the Boltzmann constant,

1.38 x 10-23 J K-1

gravitational constant,

6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2

acceleration of free fall,

9.81 m s-2

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3
Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion,

work done on/by a gas,


hydrostatic pressure,
gravitational potential,

ut + at2

v2

u2 + 2as

pV

gh

Gm
r

displacement of particle in s.h.m.,

xo sin t

velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

vo cos t

R 1 + R2 +

1/R

1/R1 + 1/R2 +

electric potential,

Q / 4or

alternating current/voltage,

xo sin t

transmission coefficient,

exp(-2kd)

where k

xo exp (-t)

0.693
t1

resistors in series,
resistors in parallel,

radioactive decay,
decay constant,

(x

2
o

x2

8 2 m ( U E )
h2

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4
Section A
Answer all the questions.
It is recommended that you spend about 1 hour 15 minutes on this section.

The velocity-time graph in Fig. 1.1 shows the first 1.6 s of the motion of a ball which is
thrown vertically downward at an initial speed of 6.0 m s1.
v / m s1
10

0.8

1.6

t/s

6
12

Fig. 1.1
(a)

How far does the ball travel before hitting the ground?

distance travelled =

(b)

[2]

[1]

m s 2

[1]

What is the maximum height attained by the ball after it hits the ground?

maximum height =

(c)

Calculate the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball when it is in the air.

acceleration =

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5
(d)

At what time does the ball next reach the ground?

time =

(e)

[1]

Taking upward direction to be positive, sketch on Fig. 1.2, a clearly labelled


displacement-time graph for the motion of the ball from time t = 0 up to the second
time it hits the ground.
s/m

t/s

Fig. 1.2
[2]

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6
2

(a)

Define simple harmonic motion.

[1]

(b)

Fig. 2.1 shows a mass-spring system consisting of an air track vehicle V of mass 0.60
kg. A peg attached to V is connected to two springs that are both fixed at the other
end. When V is displaced along the air track and released, it oscillates about its rest
position. The vehicle V floats on a cushion of air and there is negligible friction
between V and the air track.

Fig. 2.1
Fig. 2.2 shows how the kinetic energy EK of V varies with its displacement s from the
rest position when the initial displacement is 0.16 m.

Ek/J

Fig. 2.2

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7
(i) Draw, on Fig. 2.2, a graph showing how the potential energy of the mass-spring
system varies with displacement s.
[2]
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the oscillation.

Hz

frequency =

[2]

(iii) Calculate the maximum force acting on the air track vehicle V.

maximum force =

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[2]

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8
3

(a)

Define magnetic flux density.

[1]

(b)

A beam of electrons is generated inside an evacuated flask which is placed in a


magnetic field of flux density 6.5 x 10-4 T. The electrons are travelling at right angles to
the field, which is directed into the paper, as shown in Fig. 3.1. The arrow indicates the
initial direction of the electron beam.

magnetic field
down into paper

-200

-100

100

200 mm

Fig. 3.1

(i) The electrons are observed to travel in a circle of radius 83 mm. Calculate the
speed of the electrons.

speed =

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m s-1

[3]

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9
(ii) On Fig. 3.1, draw a possible path of the electrons.
[1]

(iii) The initial direction of the electron beam is then changed so that it makes an
angle of 80o to the magnetic field. The electrons then travel in a helical path, as
illustrated in Fig. 3.2.

Fig. 3.2
The helical path appears to be circular when viewed along the direction of the
magnetic field but the electrons have a constant velocity along the field.
Explain why the electrons follow a helical path.

[2]

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10
4

(a)

State, in words, the relation between the increase in internal energy of a gas, the work
done by the gas, and the heat supplied to the gas.

[1]

(b)

A scuba diver releases an air bubble, of diameter 3.0 cm, from a depth of 14 m below
the sea level. Assume that air behaves as an ideal gas and the temperature of water is
constant at 25 C.

(i) Given that the density of water is 1000 kg m-3 and the atmospheric pressure is
1.0 x 105 Pa, show that the pressure of the water at a depth of 14 m is 2.4 x 105
Pa.

[1]

(ii) Hence calculate the volume of the air bubble when it reaches the surface
of water.

volume of air bubble =

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m3

[3]

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11
(iii)

Sketch a clearly labeled graph in Fig. 4.1 showing the variation of pressure P
with volume V of the air bubble as it rises from the sea.
P/Pa

V/m3

Fig. 4.1
[2]

(iv)

Use the relation stated in (a) to deduce whether heat is added or removed from
the air bubble as the bubble rises.

[2]

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12
5

(a)

Use the band theory to account for the electrical properties of intrinsic semiconductors.

[3]

(b)

Fig. 5.1 shows a p-type semiconductor placed in contact with another of n-type.
depletion layer

n
Fig. 5.1

Discuss the origin of the depletion region and how it helps the p-n junction to act as a
rectifier.

[3]

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6

The following extract is taken from a science fiction magazine:


It is the distant future and Man has long since abandoned Planet Earth. Space
explorers land on the Earths surface and discover a nuclear warhead
manufactured in the 20th century. They analyse a sample of the warhead material
and find that it contains a mixture of radioactive plutonium Pu-239 and effectively
stable uranium U-235.
The results obtained for the sample are:
= 2.0 10-6 kg
mass of 239
94 Pu present

(a)

235
92 U present
of 239
94 Pu in sample

mass of

6.0 10-6 kg

activity

4.4 106 disintegrations per second

What is meant by activity of a radioactive sample?

[1]

(b)

Show that the number of

239
94 Pu

atoms in the sample is 5.0 1018.

[1]

(c)

Calculate the radioactive decay constant for

239
94 Pu .

decay constant =

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s-1

[2]

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14
(d)

Explorers assume that the material was originally pure plutonium which decayed to
produce the uranium.

(i) Show that the fraction of the original plutonium atoms that remains undecayed is
0.25.

[2]

(ii) Hence calculate, in years, how far into the future the extract is set.

time =

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years

[3]

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15

In an experiment to investigate the light emitted by a filament lamp, the light output for a
lamp rated at 12 V, 20 W was investigated when a range of potential differences was applied
across it.

(a)

When the lamp is operating normally, calculate

(i) the current in the lamp;

current =

[2]

resistance =

[1]

(ii) the resistance of the filament.

(b)

Draw a circuit diagram showing how you would connect the lamp to a 12 V battery and
a 10 rheostat such that the potential difference across the lamp can be varied
between 0 and 12 V.
Include in your diagram:
- a switch, situated so that the battery supplies no current when the switch is open;
- a voltmeter and an ammeter, which will enable the power supplied to the lamp to
be determined.

[3]

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16
(c)

The lamp drawn in (b) is now used to illuminate the LDR as shown in Fig. 7.1.
The LDR is then connected to a circuit as shown in Fig. 7.2 where it is used in
investigating the intensity of the light output of the lamp. The battery in the circuit is
assumed to have negligible internal resistance and the milliammeter has a full scale
deflection of 10 mA.

in
Fig. 7.2

LDR

Fig. 7.1

Fig. 7.2

The graph in Fig. 7.3 shows how the resistance R of the LDR varies with the incident
illumination L, which is measured in W m-2. Both resistance and illumination are
plotted using log10 scales.
5
Log10 (R/)

Fig. 7.3

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Log10 (L/Wm-2)

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17
(i) To enable maximum use of the available illumination range, a full scale
deflection of the milliammeter is required when the lamp is operating at
maximum brightness. Explain the steps you would take in order to obtain this
initial condition.

[2]

(ii) Calculate the minimum resistance of the LDR when the milliammeter is at its full
scale deflection.

minimum resistance =

[2]

(iii) Use Fig. 7.3 to show that the maximum illumination which can be measured,
using the circuit shown in Fig. 7.2, is about 1000 W m-2.

[2]

(iv) If the uncertainty of the milliammeter is 0.5 mA, determine whether there is a
detectable current when the illumination is 10 W m-2.

[3]

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18
Section B
It is recommended that you spend about 30 minutes on this section.

One type of radiation detector known as the Geiger-Muller tube is shown in Fig. 8.1.

Fig. 8.1
In order for the tube to function, a potential difference VAB has to be applied between A and B.
The Geiger-Muller tube can detect , and -radiation. The count rate of the radiation can be
measured by a suitable counter placed across A and B.
Design a laboratory experiment to investigate how the count rate due to -radiation only
depends upon the potential difference VAB. You have access to three different radioactive
sources only. Information relating to each of these sources is given in the table below.

You may assume that the following equipment is available, together with any other apparatus
that may be found in a school or college science laboratory.
Aluminium plates of different thicknesses, Ammeter, Voltmeter, Connecting wires, GeigerMller tube, Lead plates of different thicknesses, Metre rule, Oscilloscope, Datalogger,
Ratemeter, Scalar, Signal generator, Source handling tool, Variable d.c. power supply
You should draw a diagram showing the arrangement of your apparatus. In your account you
should pay particular attention to

(a) which source you would use, giving a reason for your choice,
(b) the procedure to be followed, including how the count rate would be measured,
(c) the control of variables,
(d) any safety precautions you would take.
[12]

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Diagram

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TEMASEK JUNIOR COLLEGE


2010 Preliminary Examination
Higher 2

CANDIDATE
NAME
CIVICS
GROUP

INDEX
NUMBER

PHYSICS

9646/03, 9745/03

Paper 3 Longer Structured Questions

17 September 2010
2 hours

Candidates answer on the Question Paper.


No Additional Materials are required.
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST
Write your Civics group, index number and name on all the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen on both sides of the paper.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section A
Answer all questions.

For Examiners Use

Section B
Answer any two questions.

You are advised to spend about one hour on each section.

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely


together. Circle the questions you have answered in Section B
in the grid provided.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of


each question or part question.

5
6
7
Total

This booklet consists of 23 printed pages.

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Data
speed of light in free space,

3.00 x 108 m s-1

permeability of free space,

4 x 10-7 H m-1

permittivity of free space,

8.85 x 10-12 Fm-1


(1 / (36 )) x 10-9 Fm-1

elementary charge,

1.60 x 10-19 C

the Planck constant,

6.63 x 10-34 J s

unified atomic mass constant,

1.66 x 10-27 kg

rest mass of electron,

me

9.11 x 10-31 kg

rest mass of proton,

mp

1.67 x 10-27 kg

molar gas constant,

8.31 J K-1 mol-1

the Avogadro constant,

NA =

6.02 x 1023 mol-1

the Boltzmann constant,

1.38 x 10-23 J K-1

gravitational constant,

6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2

acceleration of free fall,

9.81 m s-2

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Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion,

work done on/by a gas,


hydrostatic pressure,
gravitational potential,

ut + at2

v2

u2 + 2as

pV

gh

Gm
r

displacement of particle in s.h.m.,

xo sin t

velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

vo cos t

R 1 + R2 +

1/R

1/R1 + 1/R2 +

electric potential,

Q / 4or

alternating current/voltage,

xo sin t

transmission coefficient,

exp(-2kd)

where k

resistors in series,
resistors in parallel,

radioactive decay,
decay constant,

(x

2
o

x2

8 2 m ( U E )
h2
xo exp (-t)

0.693
t1
2

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4
Section A
Answer all the questions in this section.

In a nuclear reactor, a fast moving neutron with initial speed u1 makes a head-on elastic
collision with a stationary nucleus of carbon-12. The speed of the neutron and the carbon
nucleus after the collision are v1 and v2 respectively as shown in Fig. 1.1.
Before collision

After collision
v2

u1

neutron

v1

carbon nucleus

neutron

carbon nucleus

Fig 1.1
(a)

What is meant by head-on and elastic?

[2]

(b)

In an elastic collision, the relative speed of separation is equal to the relative speed of
approach. Write an equation in terms of the velocities given to illustrate this fact.
[1]

(c)

By considering your answer to (b), find the ratio of the final speed of the neutron v1 to its
initial speed u1.

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(d)

[3]
ratio =
Hence determine the fraction of the kinetic energy of the neutron that is transferred to
the carbon nucleus.

fraction =

(e)

[3]

If the head-on elastic collision is with a stationary neutron instead of carbon-12, how
would the answers in part (c) and (d) be different? In your explanation, state the new
ratio of the speeds and the new fraction of the kinetic energy transferred.

[3]

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(a)

Fig. 2.1 shows some of the electric field lines around a metal needle which is held at a
high positive voltage.

Fig. 2.1

(i) Draw two equipotential lines around the charged metal needle.

[1]

(ii) Suggest the effect of the electric field on a single air molecule near the needle tip
as electrical breakdown of the air occurs.

[2]

(b)

Fig. 2.2 shows a charged conducting sphere of diameter 4.0 mm which is connected
to an insulating rod. The electric field strength at the surface of the conducting sphere
is 1.13 x 107 V m-1.
insulating rod

Fig. 2.2

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(i)

Calculate
1. the magnitude of the charge on the conducting sphere.

magnitude of charge =

[2]

2. the electric potential of the charged sphere.

potential of charged sphere =

(ii)

[2]

The charged sphere is attached to a top-pan balance as shown in Fig. 2.3. A


second identically charged sphere is then clamped vertically above this sphere
such that their centres are 4.0 cm apart.

Fig. 2.3
The balance can record masses to the nearest 0.001 g. The initial reading on
the balance before the second charged sphere is clamped above the first sphere
is 8.205 g.

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1.

Assuming that the spheres behaves like point charges, determine the final
reading on the balance.

final reading on balance =


2.

[3]

State and explain whether your answer to (b)(ii)1 is an under-estimate or an


over-estimate if the assumption that the spheres behave like point charges
is not valid.

[2]

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A current-carrying solenoid XY is placed near to a small coil, as shown in Fig. 3.1.

Fig. 3.1
The small coil is connected to a sensitive voltmeter.

(a)

Explain what is meant by magnetic flux linkage through the coil.

[1]

(b)

Indicate on Fig. 3.1 the direction of the magnetic field inside the solenoid.

(c)

The resistance of the variable resistor is changed so that the current in the solenoid
increases. Using the laws of electromagnetic induction, explain why a reading is
recorded on the voltmeter.

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[1]

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10

[3]

(d)

The current in the solenoid is now made to vary as shown in Fig. 3.2.

Fig 3.2
Sketch the variation with time of the e.m.f. induced in the small coil in Fig. 3.3.

e.m.f./ V

Fig. 3.3

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[1]

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11

(a)

(i)

Explain what is meant by nuclear binding energy.

[1]

(ii)

Sketch a graph in Fig. 4.1 to show the variation of the binding energy per
nucleon with nucleon number.

[1]

Binding
energy per
nucleon

Fig. 4.1
nucleon number

(iii) By reference to your graph drawn in (a)(ii), explain how fission can be a potential
source of energy.

[2]

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12

(b)

When a uranium-235 nucleus undergoes fission, two nuclides are produced with
the release of energy as shown in the equation below.
235
92 U

1
0n

139
54 Xe

95
38 Sr

+ 2 01n

The masses of the nuclides are as follows:


Nuclide
235
92 U

Mass
235.043929 u

139
54 Xe

138.918793 u

95
38 Sr

94.919359 u

1
0n

1.008665 u

(i) Determine the energy released in one reaction.

energy released =

(ii) Singapores yearly energy consumption in 2007 was approximately 1.15 x


1017 J. Assuming an efficiency of 8.0 %, determine how long, in days, can
the energy released from the fission of 2000 kg of uranium be used to
power the city of Singapore.

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[3]

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13

time =

days

[3]

Section B
Answer two questions in this section.

(a)

Use Newtons laws of motion to explain why a body moving with uniform speed in a
circle must experience a force towards the centre of the circle.

[2]

(b)

A small mass m and a heavy mass M are connected to the ends of an inextensible
string. The string is threaded through a glass tube as shown in Fig. 5.1. The tube is
then held by a student and is whirled so that the mass m rotates with a constant radius
r at a frequency of 180 revolutions per minute. Given that m = 0.10 kg and M = 1.0 kg.

Fig. 5.1
M

(i) Calculate the tension in the string.

tension =

(ii) Calculate the resultant force acting on the mass m.

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[1]

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14

resultant force on mass m =


(iii) Hence calculate the radius r of the circle.

r=

[2]

[2]

(iv) Explain whether it is possible for the small mass m to be whirled in such a
way that the string attached to it becomes horizontal.

[2]

(c)

Write down an equation to represent Newtons Law of Gravitation, stating clearly the
symbols used.

[2]

(d)

Data for a certain planet orbiting about a star are given below:
Mass of planet
Diameter of planet
Diameter of star

= 1.20 x 1024 kg
= 7.50 x 106 m
= 7.00 x 108 m

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15
Orbital period of planet
Distance from centre
of planet to centre of star

(i)

= 3.45 x 107 s
= 2.00 x 1011 m

Calculate the mass of the star.

mass of star =

(ii)

kg

[3]

In the absence of other celestial bodies, the only force acting on the star and the
planet is the gravitational force of attraction they exert on each other. Explain
why the planet does not accelerate and crash into the star.

[2]

(iii)

Use the data given to calculate the escape velocity of a mass on the planet.
Ignore the gravitational effects of the star on the mass.

escape velocity =

(iv)

m s-1

[3]

An atmosphere is formed when gases such as nitrogen is allowed to orbit


around the planet. Given that the average speed of a molecule of nitrogen at the
surface of the planet is 3.9 x 104 m s-1, explain whether the planet has an

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16
atmosphere.

[1]

(a)

What do you understand by interference?

[1]

(b)

Fig. 6.1 shows two loudspeakers S1 and S2 connected to the same sound source such
that they emit sound waves of the same intensity and wavelength. A sound detector is
placed at point P such that S1P = S2P initially.

S1

S2
Fig. 6.1
(i)

As the loudspeaker S1 is moved slowly away from P along the line PS1 towards X,
the sound detected at P fluctuates in intensity. Explain this observation.

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17

[3]

(ii)

As the loudspeaker S1 is moved towards X through a distance of 0.082 m, the


intensity of the sound detected at P decreases from a maximum to a minimum.
Calculate the wavelength of the sound emitted by the sources.

wavelength of sound =

(iii)

[2]

If S1 remains at point X and the frequency f of the sound emitted from both
loudspeakers is now gradually changed to 4100 Hz, the sound intensity detected
at P increases from the minimum in (b)(ii) to a maximum. Estimate a value for
the speed of sound.

speed of sound =

(c)

m s-1

[3]

In a second experiment to determine the speed of sound, a long tube, fitted with a tap, is
filled with water. A tuning fork is sounded above the top of the tube as the water is
allowed to run out of the tube, as shown in Fig. 6.2.

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18

Fig. 6.2

Fig. 6.3

A loud sound is first heard when the water level is as shown in Fig. 6.2, and then again
when the water level is as shown in Fig. 6.3.
Fig. 6.2 illustrates a stationary wave produced in the tube.

(i)

Explain the formation of a stationary wave in the tube.

[2]

(ii)

Explain, by reference to resonance, why the loudness of the sound changes as the
water level changes.

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19

[3]

(iii) On Fig. 6.3, sketch the form of the stationary wave set up in the tube.
(iv)

[1]

The frequency of the fork is 512 Hz and the difference in the height of the water
level for the two positions where a loud sound is heard is 32.4 cm.
Calculate the speed of the sound in the tube.

speed of sound =

(v)

m s-1

[3]

The length of the column of air in the tube in Fig. 6.2 is 15.7 cm.
Suggest where the antinode of the stationary wave produced in the tube in
Fig. 6.2 is likely to be found.

[2]

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20

(a)

Fig. 7.1 shows a filament bulb emitting white light surrounded by a region of cooler
helium gas.
cooler
helium gas

bulb emitting
white light

Fig. 7.1

State and explain the type of helium spectrum observed from


1. point A

[2]
2. point B

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21

[2]

(b)

Fig. 7.2 shows some of the energy levels of an isolated atom of helium.

n=5
n=4

-2.18
-3.40

n=3

-6.04

n=2

-13.6

n=1

-54.4

energy in eV

Fig. 7.2

(i) An electron with kinetic energy 50 eV collides inelastically with a helium atom in
the ground state. State which transitions might take place following this collision.

[2]

(ii) Calculate the longest wavelength of the radiation that is emitted from these
transitions.

wavelength =

[2]

(iii) When helium atoms are used in a helium-neon laser, it is essential that one of its
excited states is a metastable state so that population inversion can take place.
Explain

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22

1.

how a metastable state is different from the other excited states;

2.

what is meant by population inversion.

[3]

(c)

An evacuated tube contains two plane, parallel, metal electrodes, one of which is an
emitter of electrons and the other a collector. When the emitter is illuminated with
electromagnetic radiation of photon energy 4.7 eV at a power of 3.8 mW,
photoelectrons are emitted. The potential difference V between the collector and the
emitter is adjusted, and the photocurrent I is measured. Fig. 7.3 shows the variation of
I of V.
I /10-8 A

1.0 -

0.5 -

-1

Fig. 7.3
(i) Calculate the rate at which photons are incident on the emitter.

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V/V

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23

rate of incident photons =

s-1

[2]

s-1

[2]

(ii) Calculate the maximum rate at which electrons leave the emitter.

maximum rate =

(iii) Comment on, and suggest an explanation for, any difference between your
answers to (c)(i) and (ii).

[2]

(iv) Calculate the maximum kinetic energy at which the electrons leave the emitter.

maximum kinetic energy of electons =

(v) Deduce the work function of the material of the emitter.

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[2]

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24

work function =

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[1]

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