Sunteți pe pagina 1din 24 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Time : 3 Hrs.
PRACTICE TEST
MM : 600
[ SCIENCE]
1.
The physical quantity that changes or tends to
change the state of motion of solid body is called
4. Which of the following cannot be the unit of
pressure?
(1) N/m 2
(2) pascal
(1) Mass
(2) Force
N –1 m 2
(3)
torr
(4)
(3) Speed
(4) Velocity
2.
In the shown figure, the difference between pressures
at points P 1 and P 2 of the vessel filled with a liquid
5. Four vessels with different base area shown below
are filled with water. The increasing order of pressure
exerted due to water on the base is
of density d is
[P 0 is the magnitude of
atmospheric pressure and g is acceleration due to
gravity]
2
h
h
(i)
(ii)
P 1 P 0
3A
A
2
h
h/2
3
h
(iii)
(iv)
5A
2A
2
(1)
(iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(1)
P 0 – hdg
(2)
P 0 + hdg
(2)
(iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)
P
0
(3)
(i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(3) hdg
(4)
hdg
(4)
(iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
3.
If atmospheric pressure at a place is 101325 N/m 2 ,
then the air pressure over a 10 cm 2 area is
6.
On which of the following factors friction does not
depends?
(1) 101.325 N/m 2
(1) Roughness of surfaces in contact
(2) 10.1325 × 10 –4 N/m 2
(2) Normal reaction in between the surfaces in
contact
(3) 1.01325 × 10 –4 N/m 2
(3) Area of contact in between the surfaces
(4) 101325 N/m 2
(4) Weight of the body

Space for Rough Work  1/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
7. An object about to move, comes into motion over a
rough surface by applying an increasing force on it.
Then
12. The characteristic of sound wave that decides its
shrillness is called
(1) Amplitude
(2) Speed
(1) The force of friction on the body increases
(3) Loudness
(4) Pitch
(2) The force of friction on the body decreases
(3) The force of friction remains constant
13. If loudness of a sound wave increases to 4 times its
initial value, then the amplitude becomes
times the original.
(4) The force of friction ceases to zero
(1) 16
(2)
8
8. Arrange the following types of friction forces in
increasing order.
(3) 4
(4)
2
(1) Rolling friction < sliding friction < limiting friction
(2) Rolling friction < limiting friction < sliding friction
14. A simple pendulum oscillates 10 times in
5 seconds. What is the ratio of its frequency to the
time period?
(3) Limiting friction < sliding friction < rolling friction
(1)
4
:
1
(2)
2
:
1
(3)
1
: 4
(4)
1
: 3
(4) Sliding friction < limiting friction < rolling friction
15.
9. An aeroplane gets charged while flying mainly due to
The part of human ear that vibrates when sound
enters through the canal is called
(1) Atmospheric pressure
(1) Pinna
(2) Cochlea
(2) Friction
(3)
Eardrum
(4)
Auditory canal
16.
In metals, the charge carriers are
(4) Heat of the earth
(1) Ions
(2) Electrons
10. Fluid friction acting on a submarine moving inside the
sea
(3) Atoms
(4) Molecules
17.
(1) Increases with increase in the speed of
submarine
When electric current passes through the water added
with common salt, the gas/gases released is/are
(1)
Hydrogen gas only
(2) Decreases with increase in the speed of
submarine
(2) Chlorine gas only
(3) Both hydrogen and chlorine gas
(3) Is independent of speed of submarine
(4) Neither hydrogen nor chlorine gas
(4) First increases and then decreases with the
increase in the speed of submarine
18.
The cations in the electrolysis of sodium sulphate
solution move towards
11. Find the odd one out amongst the following musical
instruments.
(1) Anode
(2) Cathode
(1) Dholak (2) Bongos
(3) Neither of the electrodes
(3) Sarod (4) Mridangam
(4) Any of the electrodes

Space for Rough Work  2/17

Practice Test (Code A)

19. When the two terminals of a battery of unknown polarity are inserted into a chopped potato then the end which turns greenish blue is identified as

 (1) Positive terminal (2) Negative terminal (3) Either positive or negative terminal (4) Neither positive nor negative terminal

20. The free ends of copper wire connected with battery is wrapped around the magnetic compass needle, shows maximum deflection if connected with

 (1) Graphite (2) Diamond (3) Germanium (4) Silicon

21. Consider the following statements,

Statement-I : Esters are the chemicals with fruity smell.

Statement-II : Terylene is also known as dacron.

Choose the correct option.

 (1) Only Statement-I is correct (2) Only statement-II is correct (3) Both the statements are correct (4) Both the statements are incorrect

22. Which of the following are the properties of Nylon?

 (i) It is a linear polymer. (ii) It is resistant to attack by moths and other insects. (iii) It is non-lustrous and easily wrinkled. (iv) It is tough, strong and water resistant. (1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

23. ‘Y’ is a polymer of ‘X’. Cotton is made up of ‘Y’. What are ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively?

(1) Glucose and glycogen

(2) Glucose and cellulose

(3) Amino acid and proteins

(4) Glucose and starch

24. Which of the following synthetic fibres is generally used to make sweaters and shawls?

(1) Orlon

(3) Terrycot (4) Nylon

(2) Dacron

25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

 (1) Teflon — Thermoplastic (2) Polystyrene — Thermocol
 (3) Bakelite — Cross-linked polymer (4) Synthetic rubber — Polyisoprene

26. Consider the following table :

 Types of Properties of Examples polymers Polymers A These are hard, rigid and brittle in nature B Branched Have comparatively low densities and low melting points C Chain D Generally have high densities and high melting point PVC

A, B, C and D respectively are

(1) Linear, Bakelite, Glycogen and Cross-linked

(2) Cross-linked, Bakelite, Glycogen and Linear

(3) Branched chain, Bakelite, Nylon and Linear

(4) Cross-linked, Glycogen, Melamine and Linear Space for Rough Work  3/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
27. ‘X’ is a biodegradable polymer which is specially
used in coating of capsules. ‘X’ is
n
32. M
ne
M
Metal
Cation
(1)
PHBV
(2) PHB
The above general equation depicts that metals are
(3)
Nylon-2-nylon-6
(4) Nylon-6,6
(1)
Electropositive
(2) Electronegative
28. Consider the given equation
(3)
Malleable (4) Ductile
Ag(s)  M(g)  N H
2
(Black )
33. Identify the products of the given chemical reaction.
Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’
Mg + H 2 O (g) 
(1)
M = CO 2
(2)
M = SO 2
(1)
Mg(OH) 2 + H 2 
(2)
Mg(OH) 2
N
= Ag 2 CO 3
N = Ag 2 S
(3)
MgO + H 2 
(4) MgO + H 2 O(l)
(3)
M = H 2 S
(4)
M = O 2
N
= Ag 2 S
N = Ag 2 O
29. Consider the metals given in the box
34. The oxide of a metal ‘M’ is amphoteric in nature,
which on reaction with NaOH produces a salt ‘P’
along with water. Metal ‘M’ is a constituent of brass.
‘M’ and ‘P’ respectively are
Cu, Ni, Hg, Pb, Zn
(1)
Al and NaAlO 2
The correct order of their decreasing reactivity is
(2)
Zn and NaZnO 2
(1)
Ni > Zn > Cu > Pb > Hg
(3)
Al and Al(OH) 3
(2)
Zn > Ni > Pb > Cu > Hg
(3)
Hg > Pb > Zn > Ni > Cu
(4)
Zn and Zn(OH) 2
(4)
Zn > Ni > Hg > Cu > Pb
35.
Which of the following reactions is not possible?
30. Which of the given metals produce H 2 gas on
reacting with dil.HNO 3 ?
(1)
Mg(s) + CuSO 4 (aq)  MgSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s)
(2)
CuSO 4 (aq) + Fe(s)  FeSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s)
(i)
Mg
(ii)
Na
(3)
FeSO 4 (aq) + Zn(s)  ZnSO 4 (aq) + Fe(s)
(iii)
Mn
(iv) Zn
(4)
Zn(s) + MgSO 4 (aq)  ZnSO 4 (aq) + Mg(s)
(1)
Only (i) and (ii)
(2)
Only (ii) and (iv)
(3)
Only (iii) and (iv)
(4)
Only (i) and (iii)
36.
Consider the given chemical equations
31. Match the following :
(i)
P 4 (s) + O 2  X
Column-I
Column-II
(ii)
X + H 2 O  Y
a. Metal + dil. acid
(i)
Allotrope of carbon
‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
b. Water
(ii)
Metal oxide
(1)
P 2 O 2 and H 3 PO 2
(2)
P 2 O 5 and H 3 PO 4
c. Diamond
(iii)
Hydride of oxygen
(3)
PO 2 and H 2 PO 2
(4)
P 2 O 5 and PO 2
d. Metal + Oxygen
(iv) Hydrogen gas
37.
The chemical composition of water gas is
Choose the correct option.
(1)
(2)
CO + H 2
(1)
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
CO 2 + H 2
(3)
a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3)
CO + H 2 O
(4)
CO 2 + H 2 O

Space for Rough Work  4/17

Practice Test (Code A)

38. Consider the given table :

 Elements Atomic Number A 9 B 19 C 11 D 15

A, B, C and D respectively are

 (1) F, K, Na and P (2) Na, F, K and P (3) Na, P, K and F (4) K, Na, F and P

39. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Na, Mg, K and Ca are essential metals required as mineral in living body

(2) Hg is used in barometers

(3) Ti and Zr are used in atomic energy and space science projects

(4) Mn is present in chlorophyll

40. Which of the given plastic is used to coat the uniform of firemen?

(1) Teflon

(3) Bakelite (4) Polyprene

(2) Melamine

41. Who discovered the microscopes

I. Which can be used to study living and unstained cells and their activities like cytoplasmic movements and cell division?

II. Which has high resolution of 0.25 Å and can be used to observe very small organelles like ribosomes? (I)
(II)
(1)
Knoll and Ruska
Janssen
(2)
Janssen
Leeuwenhoek
(3)
Zernike
Knoll and Ruska
(4)
Leeuwenhoek
Zernike

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

42. A scientist told a farmer that soil of his field is suitable for growing plantation crops. Which of the following crops can he grow in his field?

 (i) Mustard (ii) Coconut (iii) Beetroot (iv) Jute (v) Coffee (vi) Barley (1) (ii) & (v) only (2) (i), (iii) & (vi) (3) (iii) & (iv) only (4) (i), (iv) & (vi)

43. The bacterium that causes cholera is

 (1) Rod-shaped (2) Spherical-shaped (3) Spiral-shaped (4) Comma-shaped

44. Select the incorrect statement regarding rock

shelters.

 (1) These are shallow cave-like openings present in Corbett National Park (2) These are important archaeological evidences of pre-historic human life (3) Rock paintings depicting figures of animals, tools for hunting, fighting, etc. are found in these shelters (4) They give an idea of the life of primitive people

45. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.

Column-I Column-II

 a. Catla (P) Fresh water fish b. Mrigal (Q) Marine water fish c. Sardine d. Salmon e. Carp (1) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(Q) (2) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(Q), e(P) (3) a(Q), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(P) (4) a(P), b(Q), c(P), d(Q), e(Q) Space for Rough Work  5/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
46. A person was diagnosed with the deficiency of
vitamin-D. Which of the following food items should
he consume regularly?
P
50.
(1) Carrots
Q
(2) Pulses
R
(3) Fish
(4) Nuts
47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the
organism which lie on the borderline, separating living
organisms from the non-living things?
Match the different zones of a biosphere reserve
labelled as P, Q and R in the given diagram with the
following information.
X. Non-conservational activities are prohibited here.
(1) They have a cellular structure
Y. It is a legally protected area.
(2) They have either DNA or RNA as their genetic
material
Z.
Human settlement is allowed here.
(1)
X-P, Y-Q, Z-R
(2) X-Q, Y-R, Z-P
(3) They are also called obligate parasites
(3)
X-R, Y-P, Z-Q
(4)
X-P, Y-R, Z-Q
(4) They can cause several diseases like AIDS,
polio, chicken pox, etc.
51.
How many of the following is are air-borne bacterial
disease(s)?
48. A farmer was worried because of the poor growth of
his wheat crop. He saw some unwanted plants
growing in his field along with wheat plants. Which
of the following unwanted plants could be growing
along with wheat and which chemical should he use
to kill them, respectively?
Measles, Cholera, Typhoid, Tuberculosis
Polio, Chicken pox
(1)
One
(2) Three
(3)
Four
(4) Two
(1) Wild oat and methanol
52.
In an examination, the students were asked to write
the names of the cell organelles that are
(2) Rose and hydrochloric acid
(A)
Responsible for osmoregulation in cells.
(3) Mentha and DDT
(B)
Protein factories of a cell.
(4) Chenopodium and 2,4,1-MCPA
(C)
Sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.
49. Which of the following is a free-living nitrogen fixing
cyanobacteria and nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
associated with Azolla, respectively?
The students gave the following answers.
Arun : A - Vacuole, B - Nucleolus & C - RER
(1) Rhizobium and Nostoc
Bipasha : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena
Diksha
:
A
-
Vacuole, B - Ribosomes & C
-
(3) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
Mitochondrion
(4) Anabaena and Azotobacter
Firoz : A - SER, B - Chloroplast & C - Cell wall

Space for Rough Work  6/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Geetika : A - Vacuole, B
Mitochondrion
-
Ribosomes & C -
56.
Read the following paragraph and choose the correct
sequence of words to be filled in the gaps provided.
Kartik : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole
Seeds of many vegetables are not sown directly in
Lokesh : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole
Identify the students who gave the correct answers.
the field. Instead they are sown in a small seed bed
where they are allowed to grow into small
which are then transferred to the field. This process
(1)
Kartik, Lokesh and Bipasha
is called
by this process.
and
can be grown
(2)
Diksha and Geetika
(3)
Arun and Feroz
(1)
Seedling, transplantation, tomato, chilli
(4)
Arun, Lokesh, Feroz and Kartik
(2)
53. Who is known as the father of operation flood?
(3)
Plantlet, weeding, potato, banana
(1)
Norman E. Borlaug (2) M.S. Swaminathan
(4)
Seedling, lodging, strawberry, tea
(3)
Dr. V. Kurien (4) Luc Montagnier
57.
54. Statement I : Birds who cover long distances to
reach another land are called migratory birds.
Classify the following high yielding varieties of wheat,
(i)
Deccan hybrid
Statement II : Migratory birds fly to far away places
every year during a particular time because of
climatic changes.
(ii)
Sharbati Sonara
(iii)
Arjun
(iv)
Jaya
Statement III : Siberian crane that comes to
Bharatpur, Gujarat is a very good example of
migratory birds.
(v)
(vi)
Ganga-101
(1)
Only statement III is incorrect
(vii)
Sonalika
(2)
All statements are incorrect
Wheat
Maize
(3)
Statements II & III are incorrect
(1)
(ii)
& (vii)
(i),
(iv) & (v)
(iii)
only
(4)
All statements are correct
(2)
(i) & (vi)
(ii),
(iv) & (vii)
(iii)
& (v)
55. After eating roadside food, Diya suffered from
gastrointestinal trouble, nausea, vomiting and
diarrhoea. Doctor told her that she is suffering from
food poisoning. Which of the following might have
caused this?
(3)
(i),
(ii) & (iii)
(vi)
& (v)
(iv)
& (vii)
(4)
(ii), (iii) & (vii)
(i) & (vi)
(iv)
& (v)
58.
Which of the following vaccines is given to prevent
infantile paralysis?
(i)
Aspergillus (ii) Salmonella
(1)
OPV
(iii)
Bacillus (iv) Penicillium
(2)
BCG
(v)
Clostridium (vi) Xanthomonas
(1)
(i), (iii) & (v)
(2)
(iii) & (vi)
(3)
HBV
(3)
(ii), (iii) & (iv) (4)
(ii) & (v)
(4)
Hib

Space for Rough Work  7/17

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

59. The owner of a barn was worried as some sheep, goat and cattle of his farm were showing symptoms like breathing problems, loss of appetite, blood in vomiting, etc. Doctor told him that it is happening because of a bacterial disease. Which of the following diseases is most likely affecting the animals?

(1) Anthrax

(2) Foot and mouth disease

(3) Rinderpest

(4) Ranikhet disease

60. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists of  A National Park Two Wildlife (I) Sanctuaries

(II)

(III)

Identify I, II and III.

(1) I - Satpura National Park

II - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary

(2) I - Bandipur National Park

II - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

(3) I - Manas National Park

II - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary

(4) I - Gir National Park

II - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

Practice Test (Code A)

61. Mesosomes present in prokaryotic cells are functionally similar to which cell organelle of a eukaryotic cell?

 (1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Mitochondrion (4) Centrosome

62. Which of the following sets of words should be used to replace the underlined words (wherever necessary) to make the given statements correct?

 (i) A.V. Leeuwenhoek published his work in the book Micrographia. (ii) Micro-irrigation system provides water to plants drop by drop. (iii) The first virus which was discovered was pox virus. (iv) The headquarters of WWF are located in Geneva.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Rudolf Virchow
Sprinkler
Pox
Geneva
method
Robert Hooke
Micro-
Tobacco
Switzerland
irrigation
mosaic
A.V. Leeuwenhoek
Sprinkler
FMD
New York
method
Schleiden &
Drip
Human
Switzerland
Schwann
irrigation
immuno-
deficiency

63. Vishnu saw his grandmother putting papads on the roof for drying. What could be the reason(s) for this?

 (i) It increases the moisture content. (ii) It prevents spoilage. (iii) It inhibits the growth of bacteria. (iv) It enhances its taste. (1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iii) (3) (i) & (iv) (4) (iv) only Space for Rough Work  8/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
64. A student was asked to make a diagram of
bacteriophage. Identify the number of part(s)
incorrectly labelled by him.
Chromatid
67.
Centromere
Capsid
Sheath
Nucleic acid core (DNA/RNA)
(i)
The given structure is formed in the
of a cell
(ii)
during
.
(1) (i) Nucleolus, (ii) Cell division
Tail fibres
(2) (i) Cytoplasm, (ii) Cell death
(1)
One
(2) Two
(3) (i) Vacuole, (ii) Cell formation
(3)
Three
(4) Four
(4) (i) Nucleus, (ii) Cell division
65. In which of the following plants biological nitrogen
fixation would occur?
68.
Select the incorrect match.
(1)
Citrus canker
Xanthomonas citri
(i)
Gram
(ii)
Clover
(2)
Tobacco mosaic
Tobacco mosaic virus
(iii)
Cowpea
(iv) Sunflower
disease
(v)
Maize
(vi) Coffee
(3)
Rust of wheat
Acetobacter aceti
(vii)
Jute
(viii) Potato
(4)
Yellow vein mosaic
disease
Yellow vein mosaic
virus
(ix)
Bamboo
69.
All of the following can be used for weeding, except
(1)
(i), (ii) & (iii)
(2)
(ii), (iv), (vi) & (viii)
(1) Trowel
(3)
(iii), (v) & (vii)
(4)
(iii), (v), (vi) & (vii)
(2) Harrow
66. For a class project, Rajat added 2-3 table spoons of
sugar in about 500 mL of water with half a spoon of
yeast powder in the solution. He kept this solution
for 4-5 hrs. in a warm place and observed a smell
coming out of the solution. What could be the
reason for this smell?
(3)
Seed drill
(4) Combine
70.
Which of the following is not a consequence of
deforestation?
(1) Soil erosion
(1)
Evolution of oxygen
(2) Forest fire
(2)
Production of ethyl alcohol
(3)
Formation of acetic acid
(3) Lowering of ground water level
(4)
Growth of bacteria
(4) Change in water cycle

Space for Rough Work  9/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
71. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma
membrane.
76. In India, a farmer has just harvested the crop of
watermelon in the month of June. Which of the following
crop(s) now he can choose to sow in his field?
(1) It is present in both plant cells and animal cells
(i)
Wheat
(ii)
Soyabean
(2) It is thin, elastic and porous
(iii)
Cotton
(iv) Bajra
(3) It is completely permeable
(v)
Muskmelon
(vi) Mustard
(4) It is mainly formed of proteins and lipids
(1)
(i), (v) & (vi)
(2)
(i) & (vi) only
72. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
(3)
(ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4)
(iii), (v) & (vi)
(1)
Asiatic lion (2)
One-horned rhinoceros
77. Which of the following is not a fumigant?
(3)
Hyenas
(4)
Snow leopard
(1)
Ethylene dibromide (2) Malathion
73. Gobar gas is produced during
(3)
Aluminium phosphide(4) Methyl bromide
(1) Composting
(2) Formation of green manure
78. The scientists who discovered virus and nature of
viruses respectively, are
(3) Ploughing
(1)
Wendell Stanley and M. Beijerinck
(4) Fallowing
(2)
Leeuwenhoek and D.J. Ivanowski
74. Match the following columns and select the correct
(3)
M. Beijerinck and Alexander Fleming
option.
(4)
D.J. Ivanowski and Wendell Stanley
Column-I
Column-II
79.
Ribosomes
a. Bacteria
(P)
Prokaryotic cell
b. Mycoplasma
(Q) Eukaryotic cell
‘X’
Present in
c. Onion cells
eukaryotic
d. Blue green algae
cells only
‘Y’
Present in
prokaryotic cells
and mitochondria
of eukaryotic cells
e. Human cheek cells
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(1) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)
(1)
‘X’ - 80 S and ‘Y’ - 70 S
(2) a(Q), b(P), c(P), d(Q), e(P)
(2)
‘X’ - 70 S and ‘Y’ - 50 S
(3) a(P), b(Q), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)
(3)
‘X’ - 40 S and ‘Y’ - 60 S
(4) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(P)
(4)
‘X’ - 30 S and ‘Y’ - 50 S
75. Select the incorrect match.
80.
(1) Vulnerable species –
Elephant
The vector which transmits the pathogen of filariasis
is
(2) Endangered species –
Stellar’s cow
(1)
Dengue virus
(3) Critically endangered –
species
Thick billed parrot
(2)
Female Anopheles mosquito
(3)
Housefly
(4)
Extinct species
Dodo
(4)
Female Culex mosquito

Space for Rough Work  10/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
[ MATHEMATICS ]
85. A positive fraction is such that the sum of the
135
81. The greatest rational number amongst
,
,
and
259
numerator and the denominator is 10. Of all such
fractions, the number of fractions that can be
simplified further is
7
is
(1) 5
(2)
6
12
(3) 8
(4)
9
1
3
86. The minimum number of measurements required to
(1)
(2)
2
5
(1)
2
(2)
3
5
7
(3)
(4)
(3)
4
(4)
5
9
12
82. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days. If A
alone can do the same piece of work in 20 days,
then B alone can do the same piece of work in
87. Consider the kite as shown in the figure. If AB = 10
cm, BC = 17 cm and BD = 16 cm, then AC equals
B
(1)
24 days
(2) 12 days
E
A
C
(3)
30 days
(4) 36 days
83. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral as shown in the
figure, then 'x' equals
D
(1)
21 cm
(2)
24 cm
D
(3)
30 cm
(4)
36 cm
A
x
88.
40°
Out of 25 observations, it is known that 11 occurs
4 times, 15 occurs 8 times and 17 occurs 6 times.
The remaining 7 observations are unknown. The
70°
median of the data, M satisfies the relation
C
B
(1)
M < 11
(2)
11  M < 15
(3)
15  M  17
(4)
M > 17
(1) 30°
(2) 40°
1 ⎞
34
⎞⎛
89.
The cube root of
1–
2 –
2 ⎞ ⎛
3 –
⎟⎜
4 –
is
(3) 70°
(4) 80°
⎜ ⎝
⎜ ⎝
⎠⎝
3
4
56
84. The number of distinct parallelograms that can be
formed if two adjacent sides and one included angle
are given is
6
(1)
1
(2)
5
(1)
1
(2)
2
7
(3)
2
(4)
(3) 3
(4)
4
3

Space for Rough Work  11/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
90. The number of two-digit numbers that cannot be
expressed as the sum of the squares of two
consecutive natural numbers is
96. Five years ago, the father was ten times as old as
his son. Fifteen years from now, the father will be
twice as old as his son. The father’s present age is
(1) 74
(2)
81
(1) 25 years
(3)
85
(4)
87
(2) 30 years
b
b
(3) 35 years
91. If 3 a = 4 b = 24 c (a, b, c  0), then
equals
c
a
(4) 40 years
1
97. In the given figure, the value of x is
(1)
(2)
1
2
80°
(3)
(4)
2
x
3 2
130°
70°
92. The number of perfect cubes having exactly 3 digits
is
90°
85°
(1)
3
(2)
4
(1) 75°
(2) 80°
(3)
5
(4)
6
(3) 85°
(4) 90°
93. The mean and the median of 19 observations are 30
and 25 respectively. Then, the number of
observations more than 30 can be
98.
(1)
17
(2)
11
In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral with
diagonals AC and BD such that AB = 3 cm,
BC = 4 cm, AD = 4 cm and AC = 6 cm. Which of
the following additional information can help in
(3)
13
(4)
7
C
94. The sum of the squares of 3 consecutive natural
numbers when divided by 12 gives a remainder of
D
(1)
1 or 4
(2)
2 or 5
(3)
4 or 8
(4)
3, 6 or 9
B
A
1
1
(1) CAB
95. S 
If
and
S 
, then
1
2
11 19
13 17
(2) CBA
(1)
(2)
S 1 = S 2
(3) ACB
S 1 < S 2
(3)
S 1 > S 2
(4)
S 1 = 2S 2
(4) DAB

Space for Rough Work  12/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
99. Five observations a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 and a 5 are such that
a 1 < a 2 < a 3 < a 4 < a 5 and the average of a 1 and a 4
is greater than a 3 . Then, which of the following is not
true?
104. If a is a natural number such that
a 3
+
a
is
a
multiple of 10, then the last digit of a 3 – a cannot be
(1)
0
(2)
2
(3)
4
(4)
6
(1) Mean of a 2 and a 5 is greater than a 3
105. p, q, r and s are positive rational numbers such
that p – q = r – s < 0, then
If
(2) Mean of all the five observations is greater than
p
r
p
r
a 3
(1)
 when q < s
(2)
when q = s
q
s
q
s
(3) Median of all the five observations is less than
the mean of all the five observations
p
r
p
r
(3)
 when q > s
(4)
is always true
q
s
q
s
(4) Median of all the five observations is greater than
the mean of all the five observations
106. Mr. Patel has ` 5000 with him. He has 22 currency
notes of which some are of denomination ` 500,
100. The value of
while the rest are that of ` 100. The number of notes
of ` 100 is
3
3
3
3
37
37
3
3
37
7– 7 –2 7– 7 –2 7– 7 –2
1
is
(1)
5
(2)
10
(1)
1
(2)
3 5
(3)
15
(4)
20
(3)
3 6
(4)
2
107.
101. If n is a natural number such that n 2 = 1681, then
n equals
Let T n denotes the number of diagonals in a n-sided
regular polygon. If T k = kT 5 and T  = T k , then the
value of  – k is
(1)
39
(2)
41
(1)
5
(2)
13
(3)
49
(4)
51
(3) 120
(4)
133
102. Out of the numbers 1, 2, 3
,
is chosen at random. The probability that the
number selected is a perfect square is
20, one number
108.
Which of the following is not a factor of 8 3 + 9 3 +
10 3 +
+14
3 ?
2
1
(1)
3
(2)
7
(1)
(2)
5
5
(3)
11
(4)
19
7
3
109.
x and N are both natural numbers such that
(3)
(4)
20
20
111
1
1
Nx

23

x
34
9 10
x
45
x
.
If
x
>
1
and
2
2
4
⎜ ⎝
1 ⎞ ⎟ ⎠
4
103. If
x  2
and
y
x
, then the value of y is
N > 1, then the least possible value of N is
(1)
2
(2)
4
(1)
2
(2)
4
(3)
16
(4) 256
(3)
16
(4)
27

Space for Rough Work  13/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
110. If five rational numbers a, b, c, d and e are inserted
1
1
between
5 , then which of the following is
100 and
116. A train travels at 55 km/h. If the speed of the train
is increased by 5 km/h, then it takes 1 hour less to
reach the station. The original time taken to reach
the station is
always true?
(1)
10 hrs
(2)
11 hrs
1
1
(3)
12 hrs
(4)
15 hrs
(1)
20 < a + b + c + d + e <
5
117. The greatest perfect square, which is a factor of
1
1
2016 has the last digit
(2)
2000 < a + b + c + d + e <
100
(1)
2
(2)
4
1
1
(3) 6
(4)
8
(3)
2000 < a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + d 2 + e 2 <
5
118. Mr. Ajit draws a pie chart (as shown in the figure) to
1
1
(4)
2000 < a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + d 2 + e 2 <
100
depict the various expenses and savings in a month.
If x < y, then
111. The sum of the digits of a two digit number n is 11.
If the digits are reversed, then the new number
becomes N. The value of n + N equals
House rent
(1) 100
(2)
101
130°
(3)
99
(4)
121
Saving
y
112. If the sum of the interior angles of a n-sided polygon
110°
x
is 1 × 2 × 3 ×
(1) 5
×
n, then the value of n is
Education
(2)
6
(3)
7
(4)
8
1
(1)
0° < y < 60°
(2)
60° < y < 120°
113. If x is a natural number such that 9 < x +
< 16,
x
(3)
120° < y < 130°
(4)
y > 130°
then the maximum possible value of x is
(1) 9
(2)
10
1
11
⎛⎞
pqr
(3)
15
(4)
16
xxx
p q
⎛⎞
qr
⎛⎞
rp
119.
The value of
(x  0) is
⎜⎟
⎜⎟
⎜⎟
⎝⎠
qrp
⎝⎠
⎝⎠
114. The last 3 digits of 19 3 is
(1) 361
(3) 595
x
xx
(2)
163
always equal to
(4) 859
x pqr
(1)
1
(2)
1
x pq + qr + rp
x p + q + r
(3)
(4)
115. If x is a non-zero real number, then
+
–1
2
1  x  x
120.
1
1
+
equals
1
3
–3
–2
1  x  x
1  x  x
If the average of the first n natural numbers is 28,
then the average of the squares of these n natural
numbers is
(1)
1
(2)
x
(1) 55
(2)
84
1
(3)
x 2 + x 3
(4)
x – x
(3) 784
(4) 1036
Other
Expenses

Space for Rough Work  14/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
[ MENTAL
ABILITY ]
Directions (Q121 to Q123) : Choose a option which is
correct for given patterns.
128. If a
b % b
d, then
(1)
a  d
121. 216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, ?
(2)
d % a
(1) 1728
(2) 1331
(3) Results cannot be determine
(3) 2197
(4) 2744
(4)
a % d
122. 7047, 2349, 783, 261, ?
129. Which of the following equation is correct?
(1)
77
(2)
97
(1)
18 ! 3
20
`
5 # 5 = 4
(3)
87
(4)
67
(2)
18
3 ! 20 # 5
`
5 = 1
123. 81
14
1
(3)
18
20 ! 3 # 5
`
5 = 5
(1) 8484
(2) 4844
(4)
18 # 3 ! 20
5
`
5 = 6
(3) 8844
(4) 4848
130. Which of the following position of a standard dice is
not correct?
124. 6 :
36 : : 14 : 196 : : 19 : 361 : : 23 : ?
(1) 629
(2) 429
1
(2)
4
(1)
3
2
6
5
(3) 729
(4) 529
125. CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ : ?
1
(4)
3
(3)
(1)
LO
(2)
JP
5
2
6
2
(3)
IS
(4)
IP
126. ‘Barometer’ is related to ‘atmospheric pressure’ in
the same way as ‘seismograph’ is related to
131. A cube is painted on two opposite faces only. Now
it cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. How
many cubes are painted exactly on one face only?
(1)
18
(2)
9
(1) Fever
(2) Mercury
(3) 2
(4)
7
(3) Earthquakes
(4) Doctor
132. Three position of a same dice is given below :
Directions (Q127 to Q129) : If ‘ ’ means ‘+’, ‘#’ means
‘  ’, ‘ ` ’ means ‘×’, ‘%’ means ‘greater than’, ‘!’ means
‘–’ and ‘’ means ‘less than’, then answer the following
questions.
5
1
1
2
6
5
6
3
5
127.
The value of 65 # 13
4 ! 16 # 4
`
1 is
Which number is opposite to number ‘4’?
(1)
5
(2)
4
(1)
2
(2)
1
(3)
3
(4)
2
(3) 6
(4)
5

Space for Rough Work  15/17 All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Practice Test (Code A)
133. If ‘TEXT’ is coded as 5725, ‘EXIT’ is coded as 7245
and ‘AIM’ is coded as 943, then ‘IEXAM’ will be
coded as
Directions (Q139 to Q141) : Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
(1) 57429
(2) 47293
(3) 94275
(4) 34725
Jay is heavier than Vijay, who is taller than Arun. Ankit is
heavier than Ramesh and lighter than Vijay, who is taller
than Ramesh. Ankit is taller than Arun but smaller than
Ramesh.
134. If red is called green, green is called blue, blue is
called grey, grey is called yellow, then colour of
clear sky is
139. Who is tallest?
(1) Ramesh
(2) Vijay
(1) Blue
(2) Yellow
(3) Ankit
(4) Jay
(3) Grey
(4) Orange
140. Who is heaviest?
135. If A = 26, B = 25, C = 24 and so on upto Z, then
CAT = 57. Similarly HEN is equal to
(1) Jay
(2) Vijay
(3) Ramesh
(4) Ankit
(1) 54
(2)
45
141.
Who is smallest?
(3) 56
(4)
59
(1) Ramesh
(2) Ankit
136. If east is called ‘north-west’, then west is called
(3) Arun
(4) Vijay
(1) North
(2) South-west
(3) South-east
(4) North-east
Directions (Q142 to Q144) : Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
137. In the evening, Ram and Rahim are standing in a
park facing each other. If Ram is facing towards
South, then Sun shadow of Rahim is
(1)
Right of Ram
Four friends Joy, Sanjay, Veer and Ajay like colour yellow,
green, blue and white but not necessarily in order. Each
likes only one colour. Sanjay is older than Ajay and not
likes white or blue. Joy is oldest and likes green. Veer is
younger than Sanjay and older than Ajay, who likes white.
(2) Left of Ram
142.
Who is youngest?
(3) Infront of Ram
(1) Joy
(2) Ajay
(4) Behind of Ram
(3) Sanjay
(4) Veer
138. Indu and Khazan starts walking from point A.
Khazan move 14 2 m towards south-west and
reaches at point B. Indu moves 48 m towards east
and reaches at point C. From point B Khazan moves
14 m towards east and reaches at D. The distance
between point D and C is
143.
Who likes blue colour?
(1) Joy
(2) Veer
(3) Sanjay
(4) Ajay
144.
Which colour is liked by Sanjay?
(1)
49 m
(2)
48
2 m
(1) Yellow
(2) Green
(3) 50 2 m
(4)
50 m
(3) Blue
(4) White

Space for Rough Work  16/17 Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Directions (Q145 to Q147) : Find the mirror image of the
word / figure / number in the following questions.
Directions (Q148 to Q150) : Choose the correct option to
complete the given figure.
145.
WELCOME
148.
?
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)
146.
256987364
?
(1)
149.
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
147.
150.
?
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)

Space for Rough Work  17/17

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Test Date : 04-10-2015

PRACTICE TEST

1. (2)

2. (3)

3. (4)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (3)

7. (2)

8. (1)

9. (2)

10. (1)

11. (3)

12. (4)

13. (4)

14. (1)

15. (3)

16. (2)

17. (3)

18. (2)

19. (1)

20. (1)

21. (3)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (1)

25. (4)

26. (2)

27. (1)

28. (3)

29. (2)

30. (4)

31. (2)

32. (1)

33. (3)

34. (2)

35. (4)

61. (3)

62. (2)

63. (2)

64. (2)

65. (1)

91. (3)

92. (3)

93. (4)

94. (2)

95. (3) 36.
(2)
66.
(2)
96.
(2)
37.
(2)
67.
(4)
97.
(3)
38.
(1)
68.
(3)
98.
(4)
39.
(4)
69.
(4)
99.
(4)
40.
(2)
70.
(2)
100.
(1)
41.
(3)
71.
(3)
101.
(2)
42.
(1)
72.
(2)
102.
(2)
43.
(4)
73.
(1)
103.
(4)
44.
(1)
74.
(1)
104.
(2)
45.
(2)
75.
(2)
105.
(1)
46.
(3)
76.
(3)
106.
(3)
47.
(1)
77.
(2)
107.
(3)
48.
(4)
78.
(4)
108.
(1)
49.
(2)
79.
(1)
109.
(2)
50.
(2)
80.
(4)
110.
(3)
51.
(1)
81.
(2)
111.
(4)
52.
(2)
82.
(3)
112.
(2)

53. (3)

54. (1)

55. (4)

56. (1)

57. (4)

58. (1)

59. (1)

60. (1)

83. (1)

84. (1)

85. (1)

86. (4)

87. (1)

88. (3)

89. (3)

90. (3)

113. (3)

114. (4)

115. (1)

116. (3)

117. (2)

118. (2)

119. (1)

120. (4)

121. (2)

122. (3)

123. (1)

124. (4)

125. (2)

126. (3)

127. (1)

128. (4)

129. (2)

130. (3)

131. (1)

132. (4)

133. (2)

134. (3)

135. (1)

136. (3)

137. (2)

138. (4)

139. (2)

140. (1)

141. (3)

142. (2)

143. (2)

144. (1)

145. (2)

146. (3)

147. (4)

148. (2)

149. (3)

150. (4)  1/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]

1.

2.

Atmospheric pressure is independant of area.

Pressure is directly proportional to height of liquid column.

21.

22. 28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
 Loudness (L)  [Amplitude (A)] 2
36.
Let initial loudness = L
37.
Final loudness = 4L
38.
2
39.
L
⎞⎛
A
 4
⎜ ⎝
L
⎠⎝ ⎟⎜
A
'
⎠ ⎟
40.
 A 2 = 4A 2
41.
 A = 2A
Hence, amplitude becomes twice.
Phase contrast microscope is used to study living or
unstained cells and their activities like cytoplasmic
movements and cell division.
10
Frequency =
= 2Hz
5
Electron microscope has a high resolution of 0.25 Å
and can be used to observe small organelles like
ribosomes.
5
1
Time period =
=
sec
42.
10
2
Frequency
2
=
4
:
1
Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
Time Period
1
2

17.

18.

46.

47.

Viruses lie on the borderline, separating living organisms from non-living.

As graphite is a good conductor of electricity.  2/7

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

Nostoc is a free-living cyanobacteria and Anabaena is a symbiotic cyanobacteria.

P, Q, R are transition, buffer and core area, respectively.

Operation flood is also known as white revolution.

Polio is also known as infantile paralysis.

Mitochondria are sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.

Biological nitrogen fixation occurs in leguminous plants.

66.

Yeast is used for the purpose of fermentation, a process of anaerobic conversion of sugars into alcohol.

The given figure is of chromosome.

Acetobacter aceti is used for the production of vinegar.

A combine is a “combined harvester and thresher”. [ MATHEMATICS ]

Plasma membrane is selectively permeable in nature.

Stellar’s cow is an example of extinct species.

Soyabean, cotton and bajra are examples of Kharif crop.

Malathion is sprayed mechanically on the gunny bags in storage houses.

Let ‘x’ be the denominator (x 0, 10).

The median will take the least value when all the 7 unknown observations are less than 11. Then, the median (13th observation) is 15.

So, M 15

The median will take the greatest value when all the 7 unknown observations are greater than 17. Then, the median (13th observation) is 17.So M 17

Hence, 15 M 17

Then, the fraction is 10 x

x

, which can be simplified

further if x and 10 – x have common factors which is possible if x = 2, 4, 5, 6, 8

So, there are 5 such fractions possible.  3/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

90.

Consider this

1 2 + 2 2 = 5; 2 2 + 3 2 = 13; 3 2 + 4 2 = 25;

4 2 + 5 2 = 41; 5 2 + 6 2 = 61; 6 2 + 7 2 = 85;

7 2 + 8 2 = 113

So, the only two digit numbers that can be expressed as the sum of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers are 13, 25, 41, 61 and 85 i.e., 5 numbers. The remaining 2 digit numbers (90 – 5 = 85) are the numbers that cannot be expressed as the sum of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers.

95.

96.

Let son’s present age be x years.

5 years ago, father's age = 10(x – 5) years

15 years from now, father's age = 2(x + 15) years

Also, 2(x + 15) – 10(x – 5) = 20

x + 15 – 5x + 25 = 10

x = 7

1

2

So, father's present age = 10(x – 5) + 5

= 30 years Let 3 a = 4 b = 24 c = k
1
1
1
a
b
k
c
3 =
k
, 4 =
k
, 24 =
a
a
3
1
4
 a
[Given]
3
Now, 24 = 3 × 8 = 3 ×
4
2
2
a
a
a
a
1
4
2
5
1
1 1
3
a 
[∵ a 1 < a 2 and a 4 < a 5
.
3
2
2
k
c
=
k
k
2
a × b
(given)]
113
a
 a
a  a
ca
2b
1
4
2
5
a 3 + a 3 <
2
2
11
3
4a 3 < a 1 + a 2 + a 4 + a 5
ca
2b
b b
3
5a 3 < a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + a 4 + a 5
c a
2
a 3 < Mean of all the five given observations
Median < Mean
25 = Median of 19 observations = 10th observation
7 3 – 2 7 + 1 = 343 – 128 + 1 = 216 = 6 3
So, 30 > 25
3
7
3 7 –2  1 = 6
Hence, the number of observations more than 30 can
be at the most 9.
The given expression becomes
3
3
37
3
3
37
3
7– 7 –2  7– 7 –2  7–6
Case-I : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are
2k – 1, 2k and 2k + 1, then
3
=
3
37
3
3
37
7– 7 –2  7– 7 –2  1
N = (2k – 1) 2 + (2k) 2 + (2k + 1) 2

= 12k 2 + 2

Case-II : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are 2k, 2k + 1 and 2k + 2, then

N = (2k) 2 + (2k + 1) 2 + (2k + 2) 2

= 12k 2 + 12k + 5

So, if N is divided by 12, then the remainder can be 2 or 5. =
3
3
3
7
7–
7 –2 
3 7–6
3
=
3
3
7
7– 7
–2  1
=
= 1  4/7

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

x = 2 16

1

2

y x (2 )

16

1

2

= 2 8 = 256

a 3 + a is a multiple of 10. So, the last digit of a can be 0, 2, 3, 5, 7 or 8. Hence, the last digit of a 3 a can be 0 – 0, 8 – 2, 7 – 3, 5 – 5 i.e., 0, 4 or 6

 p – q = r – s < 0 p – r = q – s = k (say)

111

3 4



1

9 10

⎜ ⎝

1

9 10

1

⎠ ⎟

N

⎜ ⎝

x

2 3

11

⎞⎛

⎟⎜

⎠⎝

4 5



11

⎟ ⎠

⎞⎛



⎟⎜

⎠⎝

11

–––

=

x

x

2 3

1

2 10

1

3 4

x

5–1

10

4 5

x

2

5

=

But x and N are both natural numbers and are both

greater than 1. So,

x

1

5

= 2 x = 32

N =

(32)

2

5

= 2 2 = 4 p
r
(
pr
–) 
r
r
kr
r
110.
Now,
=
q
s
(–) 
qs
s
s
ks
s
1
1
< a, b, c, d, e <
ks rs
rk
rs
k s
(–)
r
100
5
=
sk
()
s
sk
()
s
1
1
5
5
< a + b + c + d + e <
5 
Now, s > 0, k + s = q > 0 and s – r > 0 [Given]
100 
1
p
r
< a + b + c + d + e < 1
…(i)
0
if k < 0
20
q
s
i.e., if q – s < 0
2
1
Also,
 5
<
a 2
+
b 2 +
c 2
+
d 2
+
e 2
i.e., if q < s
⎜ ⎝
100
2
1 ⎞
<
 5
⎝ ⎜
5
1
5
(5 – 3)
1
T
 5
2000 < a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + d 2 + e 2 <
5
2
5
Now, T k = kT 5 = 5k
Let the digit in the units place be x
k ( k – 3)
=
5k
Then, the digit in the ten's plane = 11 – x
2
 k – 3 = 10
n = 10(11 – x) + x = 110 – 9x
…(i)
and N = 10x + (11 – x) = 11 + 9x
…(ii)
 k = 13
n + N = 121
(13 – 3)
Again, T  = T k = T 13 =  × 13
 65
2
1 × 2 ×
3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 ×
×
n = (n – 2) × 180º
 – 3 
=
65
As 180 is a multiple of 9, so n  6.
2

  = 133

  k = 133 – 13 = 120

Also, 180 is not a multiple of 7

n < 7

Hence, n = 6 is the only possibility For n = 6,
8 3 + 9 3 + 10 3 +
+ 14 3
LHS = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720
=
(1 3 + 2 3 +
+14
3 ) – (1 3 + 2 3 +
+7 3 )
and RHS = (6 – 2) × 180° = 720°
2
2
22
14
15
7
8
=
So, n = 6.
4
4
=
(7 × 15) 2 – (7 × 4) 2 = 7 2 (15 2 – 4 2 )
=
7 2 × 11 × 19
Note : The possibility n – 2 = 7 or n = 9 makes
LHS a multiple of 81 whereas (n – 2) × 180 is not
a multiple of 81.
5/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

9 < x +

1

x House rent
130°
Saving
y
x 110°
Education
Other
Expenses

x + y + 110° + 130° = 360°

x + y = 120°

< 16

But x is a natural number.

9 x 15

So, the greatest value of x is 15.

Given expression can be written as

114.

115.

11

2 1

1

1

=

=

 1

x

x

x

x

x

3 3
11 
Since x < y, therefore, y > 60°
x
x
1
3
2
x
x
Also x > 0°
3
1
x
y < 120°
33
xx
x
 1
x
1 2 3

 n
 28
n
n ( n 1)
 28 n
2
n = 55
222
2
1
 2 3
n
n
222
2
1

2
3
55
55
56 111
=
6
=
1036
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
125.

1

323 422

CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ

521 620

917 1016

:

JP 11



1

3

x

1

3

x

x

x

Let the original time taken be ‘t’.

Then, according to the question,

55t = 60(t – 1)

5t = 60

t = 12 hrs

= 1

nn

(

1)(2

n

1)

n 6

2016 = 2 5 × 3 2 × 7 1

= (2 4 × 3 2 ) × (2 × 7)

So, the greatest perfect square which is a factor of

2016

is 2 4 × 3 2 = 16 × 9 = 144 whose last digit is 4.

216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, 1331

6 3

7 3

8 3

9 3

10 3

11 3

26

26

26

26

26

26

7047, 2349, 783, 261, 87 3
3 3 3
123.
148
481
814

a : a 2 , 6 : 36, 14 : 196, 19 : 361, 23 : 529

Barometer : Atmospheric pressure

Seismograph : Earthquakes

On putting signs, we get

65 13 + 4 – 16 4 × 1

= 5 + 4 – 4

= 5  6/7

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) a
b % b
d
a + b > b + d
 a > d, a % d

On changing the symbols with signs in option (2), we get

Shadow of Rahim is left of Ram. Ram Rahim South facing

North facing 18 + 3 – 20 5 × 5

= 21 – 20

= 1

A 48 m 2 m
14 m

14

C

In

is always 7.

standard dice sum of numbers on opposite faces 50 m
B
14 m
D
2
2
(14)  (48)  50
139.
Weight
Jay > Vijay
Ramesh < Ankit < Vijay
Jay > Vijay > Ankit > Ramesh
140.
141.
A I M,
I E X A M
142.
Joy > Sanjay > Veer > Ajay
green
yellow
blue
white
143.
144.
145.

Small cubes obtained from 2 opposite faces are only one side painted. i.e., 9 × 2 = 18 4
2
6
5
3
1
T E X T,
E X I T, Height
Vijay > Arun
Vijay > Ramesh
Ramesh > Ankit > Arun
Vijay > Ramesh > Ankit > Arun

5725 7245 943 47 293

H

+ E + N = 19 + 22 + 13

= 54

N NW
NE
(SE)W
E(NW)
SW
SE
S  