Practice Test

Practice Test (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
PRACTICE TEST
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 600
[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
2.
The physical quantity that changes or tends to

change the state of motion of solid body is called
(1) Mass
(2) Force
(3) Speed
(4) Velocity
In the shown figure, the difference between pressures

at points P1 and P2 of the vessel filled with a liquid
of density d is ______. [P0 is the magnitude of
atmospheric pressure and g is acceleration due to
gravity]
4.
5.
Which of the following cannot be the unit of

pressure?
(1) N/m2
(2) pascal
(3) torr
(4) N1m2
Four vessels with different base area shown below

are filled with water. The increasing order of pressure
exerted due to water on the base is
2h
P1 P0
(i)
(ii)
3A
2
h/2
3h
(iii)
(iv)
2A
(1) P0 hdg
(2) P0 + hdg
(3) hdg
P0
(4)
hdg
5A
2
(1) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)
3.
(3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(4) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
If atmospheric pressure at a place is 101325

then the air pressure over a 10 cm2 area is
N/m2,
6.
On which of the following factors friction does not

depends?
(1) 101.325 N/m2
(1) Roughness of surfaces in contact
(2) 10.1325 104 N/m2
(2) Normal reaction in between the surfaces in

contact
(3) 1.01325 104 N/m2

(4) 101325
N/m2
(3) Area of contact in between the surfaces

(4) Weight of the body
Space for Rough Work
1/17

7.
An object about to move, comes into motion over a

rough surface by applying an increasing force on it.
Then
(1) The force of friction on the body increases
(2) The force of friction on the body decreases
(3) The force of friction remains constant
(4) The force of friction ceases to zero
8.
Arrange the following types of friction forces in

increasing order.
(1) Rolling friction < sliding friction < limiting friction
(2) Rolling friction < limiting friction < sliding friction
9.

12. The characteristic of sound wave that decides its
shrillness is called
(1) Amplitude
(2) Speed
(3) Loudness
(4) Pitch
13. If loudness of a sound wave increases to 4 times its

initial value, then the amplitude becomes _____
times the original.
(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2
14. A simple pendulum oscillates 10 times in

5 seconds. What is the ratio of its frequency to the
time period?
(3) Limiting friction < sliding friction < rolling friction
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(4) Sliding friction < limiting friction < rolling friction
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 3
An aeroplane gets charged while flying mainly due to

(1) Atmospheric pressure
(2) Friction
(3) Solar radiation
15. The part of human ear that vibrates when sound

enters through the canal is called
(1) Pinna
(2) Cochlea
(3) Eardrum
(4) Auditory canal
16. In metals, the charge carriers are
(4) Heat of the earth

10. Fluid friction acting on a submarine moving inside the
sea
(1) Increases with increase in the speed of
submarine
(1) Ions
(2) Electrons
(3) Atoms
(4) Molecules
17. When electric current passes through the water added

with common salt, the gas/gases released is/are
(1) Hydrogen gas only
(2) Decreases with increase in the speed of

submarine
(2) Chlorine gas only
(3) Is independent of speed of submarine
(4) Neither hydrogen nor chlorine gas
(4) First increases and then decreases with the

increase in the speed of submarine
11. Find the odd one out amongst the following musical
instruments.
(3) Both hydrogen and chlorine gas

18. The cations in the electrolysis of sodium sulphate
solution move towards
(1) Anode
(2) Cathode
(1) Dholak
(2) Bongos
(3) Neither of the electrodes
(3) Sarod
(4) Mridangam
(4) Any of the electrodes

2/17
19. When the two terminals of a battery of unknown

polarity are inserted into a chopped potato then the
end which turns greenish blue is identified as
(1) Positive terminal
23. Y is a polymer of X. Cotton is made up of Y.

What are X and Y respectively?
(1) Glucose and glycogen
(2) Glucose and cellulose
(2) Negative terminal

(3) Amino acid and proteins
(3) Either positive or negative terminal
(4) Glucose and starch
(4) Neither positive nor negative terminal

20. The free ends of copper wire connected with battery
is wrapped around the magnetic compass needle,
shows maximum deflection if connected with
(1) Graphite
(2) Diamond
(3) Germanium
(4) Silicon
24. Which of the following synthetic fibres is generally

used to make sweaters and shawls?
(1) Orlon
(2) Dacron
(3) Terrycot
(4) Nylon
25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
21. Consider the following statements,

Statement-I : Esters are the chemicals with fruity
smell.
(1) Teflon
Thermoplastic
(2) Polystyrene
Thermocol
(3) Bakelite
Cross-linked polymer
(4) Synthetic rubber
Polyisoprene
Statement-II : Terylene is also known as dacron.

Choose the correct option.
26. Consider the following table :
(1) Only Statement-I is correct
Types of
polymers
(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect
22. Which of the following are the properties of Nylon?
Branched
Chain
(i) It is a linear polymer.
(ii) It is resistant to attack by moths and other

insects.
Properties of
Polymers
These are hard, rigid
and brittle in nature
Have comparatively
low densities and low
melting points
Generally have high
densities and high
melting point
Examples
B
C
PVC
(iii) It is non-lustrous and easily wrinkled.
A, B, C and D respectively are
(iv) It is tough, strong and water resistant.
(1) Linear, Bakelite, Glycogen and Cross-linked
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) Cross-linked, Bakelite, Glycogen and Linear
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) Branched chain, Bakelite, Nylon and Linear

(4) Cross-linked, Glycogen, Melamine and Linear
3/17

27. X is a biodegradable polymer which is specially
used in coating of capsules. X is
(1) PHBV
(2) PHB
(3) Nylon-2-nylon-6
(4) Nylon-6,6
N H2
(Black )
(3) M = H2S
N = Ag2S
(4) M = O2
N = Ag2S
Cation
(1) Electropositive
(2) Electronegative
(3) Malleable
(4) Ductile
Mg + H2O (g)
(2) M = SO2
N = Ag2CO3
M ne Mn
Metal
33. Identify the products of the given chemical reaction.
Identify M and N
(1) M = CO2
32.
The above general equation depicts that metals are
28. Consider the given equation

Ag(s) M(g)
(1) Mg(OH)2 + H2
(2) Mg(OH)2
(3) MgO + H2
(4) MgO + H2O(l)
34. The oxide of a metal M is amphoteric in nature,

which on reaction with NaOH produces a salt P
along with water. Metal M is a constituent of brass.
M and P respectively are
N = Ag2O
29. Consider the metals given in the box

Cu, Ni, Hg, Pb, Zn
The correct order of their decreasing reactivity is
(1) Al and NaAlO2
(1) Ni > Zn > Cu > Pb > Hg
(2) Zn and NaZnO2
(2) Zn > Ni > Pb > Cu > Hg
(3) Al and Al(OH)3
(3) Hg > Pb > Zn > Ni > Cu
(4) Zn and Zn(OH)2
(4) Zn > Ni > Hg > Cu > Pb
35. Which of the following reactions is not possible?
30. Which of the given metals produce H 2 gas on

reacting with dil.HNO3?
(1) Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

(2) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(i) Mg
(ii) Na
(iii) Mn
(iv) Zn
(3) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iv)
(4) Zn(s) + MgSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Mg(s)
(3) Only (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (i) and (iii)
36. Consider the given chemical equations

(i) P4(s) + O2 X
31. Match the following :

Column-I
(ii) X + H2O Y
Column-II
a. Metal + dil. acid
(i) Allotrope of carbon
b. Water
(ii) Metal oxide
c. Diamond
(iii) Hydride of oxygen
d. Metal + Oxygen
(iv) Hydrogen gas
X and Y respectively are

(1) P2O2 and H3PO2
(2) P2O5 and H3PO4
(3) PO2 and H2PO2
(4) P2O5 and PO2
37. The chemical composition of water gas is
Choose the correct option.

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) CO2 + H2
(2) CO + H2
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) CO + H2O
(4) CO2 + H2O
4/17
38. Consider the given table :
Elements
42. A scientist told a farmer that soil of his field is

suitable for growing plantation crops. Which of the
following crops can he grow in his field?
Atomic Number
19
11
15
A, B, C and D respectively are

(1) F, K, Na and P
(2) Na, F, K and P
(3) Na, P, K and F
(4) K, Na, F and P
39. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Na, Mg, K and Ca are essential metals required
as mineral in living body
(2) Hg is used in barometers
(3) Ti and Zr are used in atomic energy and space
science projects
(4) Mn is present in chlorophyll
40. Which of the given plastic is used to coat the
uniform of firemen?
(i) Mustard
(ii) Coconut
(iii) Beetroot
(iv) Jute
(v) Coffee
(vi) Barley
(1) (ii) & (v) only
(2) (i), (iii) & (vi)
(3) (iii) & (iv) only
(4) (i), (iv) & (vi)
43. The bacterium that causes cholera is

(1) Rod-shaped
(2) Spherical-shaped
(3) Spiral-shaped
(4) Comma-shaped
44. Select the incorrect statement regarding rock

shelters.
(1) These are shallow cave-like openings present in
Corbett National Park
(2) These are important archaeological evidences of
pre-historic human life
(1) Teflon
(2) Melamine
(3) Rock paintings depicting figures of animals,

tools for hunting, fighting, etc. are found in these
shelters
(3) Bakelite
(4) Polyprene
(4) They give an idea of the life of primitive people
41. Who discovered the microscopes

I.
II.
Which can be used to study living and

unstained cells and their activities like
cytoplasmic movements and cell division?
Which has high resolution of 0.25 and can be
used to observe very small organelles like
ribosomes?
(I)
(II)
45. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I
Column-II
a. Catla
(P) Fresh water fish
b. Mrigal
(Q) Marine water fish
c. Sardine
d. Salmon
e. Carp
(1) Knoll and Ruska Janssen
(1) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(Q)
(2) Janssen
Leeuwenhoek
(2) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(Q), e(P)
(3) Zernike
Knoll and Ruska
(3) a(Q), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(P)
(4) Leeuwenhoek
Zernike
(4) a(P), b(Q), c(P), d(Q), e(Q)

5/17
46. A person was diagnosed with the deficiency of

vitamin-D. Which of the following food items should
he consume regularly?
P
50.
(1) Carrots
(2) Pulses
(3) Fish
(4) Nuts
47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the
organism which lie on the borderline, separating living
organisms from the non-living things?
(1) They have a cellular structure
Match the different zones of a biosphere reserve

labelled as P, Q and R in the given diagram with the
following information.
X. Non-conservational activities are prohibited here.
Y. It is a legally protected area.
(2) They have either DNA or RNA as their genetic

material
(3) They are also called obligate parasites
(4) They can cause several diseases like AIDS,
polio, chicken pox, etc.
48. A farmer was worried because of the poor growth of
his wheat crop. He saw some unwanted plants
growing in his field along with wheat plants. Which
of the following unwanted plants could be growing
along with wheat and which chemical should he use
to kill them, respectively?
(1) Wild oat and methanol
Z. Human settlement is allowed here.

(1) X-P, Y-Q, Z-R
(2) X-Q, Y-R, Z-P
(3) X-R, Y-P, Z-Q
(4) X-P, Y-R, Z-Q
51. How many of the following is are air-borne bacterial

disease(s)?
Measles, Cholera, Typhoid, Tuberculosis

Polio, Chicken pox
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two
52. In an examination, the students were asked to write

the names of the cell organelles that are
(2) Rose and hydrochloric acid

(3) Mentha and DDT
(A) Responsible for osmoregulation in cells.
(4) Chenopodium and 2,4,1-MCPA
(B) Protein factories of a cell.
49. Which of the following is a free-living nitrogen fixing

cyanobacteria and nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
associated with Azolla, respectively?
(1) Rhizobium and Nostoc
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena
(C) Sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.

The students gave the following answers.
Arun : A - Vacuole, B - Nucleolus & C - RER
Bipasha : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole
(3) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
Diksha : A - Vacuole, B - Ribosomes & C Mitochondrion
(4) Anabaena and Azotobacter
Firoz : A - SER, B - Chloroplast & C - Cell wall

6/17
Geetika : A - Vacuole, B - Ribosomes & C Mitochondrion
56. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct

sequence of words to be filled in the gaps provided.
Kartik : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole
(2) Diksha and Geetika
Seeds of many vegetables are not sown directly in

the field. Instead they are sown in a small seed bed
where they are allowed to grow into small ______
which are then transferred to the field. This process
is called ______. ______ and ______ can be grown
by this process.
(3) Arun and Feroz
(1) Seedling, transplantation, tomato, chilli
(4) Arun, Lokesh, Feroz and Kartik
(2) Plantlet, sowing, paddy, maize
Lokesh : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole

Identify the students who gave the correct answers.
(1) Kartik, Lokesh and Bipasha
53. Who is known as the father of operation flood?

(1) Norman E. Borlaug
(2) M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr. V. Kurien
(4) Luc Montagnier
54. Statement I : Birds who cover long distances to

reach another land are called migratory birds.
(3) Plantlet, weeding, potato, banana

(4) Seedling, lodging, strawberry, tea
57. Classify the following high yielding varieties of wheat,
paddy and maize.
(i) Deccan hybrid
Statement II : Migratory birds fly to far away places

every year during a particular time because of
climatic changes.
(ii) Sharbati Sonara
Statement III : Siberian crane that comes to

Bharatpur, Gujarat is a very good example of
migratory birds.
(iv) Jaya
(1) Only statement III is incorrect
(iii) Arjun
(v) Padma
(vi) Ganga-101
(vii) Sonalika
(2) All statements are incorrect
Wheat
(3) Statements II & III are incorrect

(4) All statements are correct
55. After eating roadside food, Diya suffered from
gastrointestinal trouble, nausea, vomiting and
diarrhoea. Doctor told her that she is suffering from
food poisoning. Which of the following might have
caused this?
Maize
Paddy
(1) (ii) & (vii)
(i), (iv) & (v)
(2) (i) & (vi)
(ii), (iv) & (vii) (iii) & (v)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(vi) & (v)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (vii) (i) & (vi)
(iii) only
(iv) & (vii)
(iv) & (v)
58. Which of the following vaccines is given to prevent

infantile paralysis?
(i) Aspergillus
(ii) Salmonella
(iii) Bacillus
(iv) Penicillium
(1) OPV
(v) Clostridium
(vi) Xanthomonas
(2) BCG
(1) (i), (iii) & (v)
(2) (iii) & (vi)
(3) HBV
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (v)
(4) Hib
7/17

59. The owner of a barn was worried as some sheep,
goat and cattle of his farm were showing symptoms
like breathing problems, loss of appetite, blood in
vomiting, etc. Doctor told him that it is happening
because of a bacterial disease. Which of the
following diseases is most likely affecting the
animals?
61. Mesosomes present in prokaryotic cells are

functionally similar to which cell organelle of a
eukaryotic cell?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Mitochondrion
(4) Centrosome
(1) Anthrax
62. Which of the following sets of words should be used

to replace the underlined words (wherever necessary)
to make the given statements correct?
(2) Foot and mouth disease

(3) Rinderpest
(i) A.V. Leeuwenhoek published his work in the

book Micrographia.
(4) Ranikhet disease
Pachmarhi Biosphere
Reserve consists of
60.
A National Park
(I)
(ii) Micro-irrigation system provides water to plants

drop by drop.
Two Wildlife
Sanctuaries
(II)
Identify I, II and III.
(iii) The first virus which was discovered was pox

virus.
(iv) The headquarters of WWF are located in
Geneva.
(III)
(i)
III - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary

(2) I - Bandipur National Park
II - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
III - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) I - Manas National Park
II - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
III - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary
(4) I - Gir National Park
(iv)
Sprinkler Pox
method
Geneva
(2) Robert Hooke
MicroTobacco
irrigation mosaic
Switzerland
(3) A.V. Leeuwenhoek Sprinkler FMD

method
(4) Schleiden &
Schwann
New York
Drip
Human
Switzerland
irrigation immunodeficiency
63. Vishnu saw his grandmother putting papads on the

roof for drying. What could be the reason(s) for this?
(i) It increases the moisture content.
(ii) It prevents spoilage.
(iii) It inhibits the growth of bacteria.
(iv) It enhances its taste.
II - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (ii) & (iii)
III - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) (i) & (iv)
(4) (iv) only
8/17
(iii)
(1) Rudolf Virchow
(1) I - Satpura National Park

II - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary
(ii)
64. A student was asked to make a diagram of

bacteriophage. Identify the number of part(s)
incorrectly labelled by him.
67.
Capsid
Head
Chromatid
Centromere
Sheath
Nucleic acid core (DNA/RNA)
The given structure is formed in the

during (ii) .
(i)
of a cell
(1) (i) Nucleolus, (ii) Cell division
Tail fibres
(2) (i) Cytoplasm, (ii) Cell death

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) (i) Vacuole, (ii) Cell formation
(3) Three
(4) Four
(4) (i) Nucleus, (ii) Cell division
65. In which of the following plants biological nitrogen

fixation would occur?
68. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Citrus canker
Xanthomonas citri
(i) Gram
(ii) Clover
Tobacco mosaic virus
(iv) Sunflower
(2) Tobacco mosaic

disease
(iii) Cowpea
(v) Maize
(vi) Coffee
(3) Rust of wheat
Acetobacter aceti
(vii) Jute
(viii) Potato
(4) Yellow vein mosaic

disease
Yellow vein mosaic

virus
(ix) Bamboo
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (ii), (iv), (vi) & (viii)
(3) (iii), (v) & (vii)
(4) (iii), (v), (vi) & (vii)
66. For a class project, Rajat added 2-3 table spoons of

sugar in about 500 mL of water with half a spoon of
yeast powder in the solution. He kept this solution
for 4-5 hrs. in a warm place and observed a smell
coming out of the solution. What could be the
reason for this smell?
69. All of the following can be used for weeding, except

(1) Trowel
(2) Harrow
(3) Seed drill
(4) Combine
70. Which of the following is not a consequence of
deforestation?
(1) Evolution of oxygen
(1) Soil erosion
(2) Production of ethyl alcohol
(2) Forest fire
(3) Formation of acetic acid
(3) Lowering of ground water level
(4) Growth of bacteria
(4) Change in water cycle

9/17

71. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma
membrane.
(1) It is present in both plant cells and animal cells

76. In India, a farmer has just harvested the crop of
watermelon in the month of June. Which of the following
crop(s) now he can choose to sow in his field?
(2) It is thin, elastic and porous

(3) It is completely permeable
(4) It is mainly formed of proteins and lipids
72. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
(1) Asiatic lion
(2) One-horned rhinoceros
(3) Hyenas
(4) Snow leopard
(i) Wheat
(ii) Soyabean
(iii) Cotton
(iv) Bajra
(v) Muskmelon
(vi) Mustard
(1) (i), (v) & (vi)
(2) (i) & (vi) only
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (iii), (v) & (vi)
77. Which of the following is not a fumigant?

(1) Ethylene dibromide
73. Gobar gas is produced during
(2) Malathion
(3) Aluminium phosphide(4) Methyl bromide
(1) Composting
78. The scientists who discovered virus and nature of

viruses respectively, are
(2) Formation of green manure

(3) Ploughing
(1) Wendell Stanley and M. Beijerinck
(4) Fallowing
(2) Leeuwenhoek and D.J. Ivanowski

(3) M. Beijerinck and Alexander Fleming
74. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I
Column-II
(4) D.J. Ivanowski and Wendell Stanley
Ribosomes
79.
a. Bacteria
(P) Prokaryotic cell
b. Mycoplasma
(Q) Eukaryotic cell
c. Onion cells
d. Blue green algae
X
Present in
eukaryotic
cells only
e. Human cheek cells

Identify X and Y.
(1) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)
(1) X - 80 S and Y - 70 S
(2) a(Q), b(P), c(P), d(Q), e(P)
(2) X - 70 S and Y - 50 S
(3) a(P), b(Q), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)
(3) X - 40 S and Y - 60 S
(4) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(P)
(4) X - 30 S and Y - 50 S
75. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Vulnerable species
Y
Present in
prokaryotic cells
and mitochondria
of eukaryotic cells
80. The vector which transmits the pathogen of filariasis

is
Elephant
(2) Endangered species
Stellars cow
(1) Dengue virus
(3) Critically endangered

species
Thick billed parrot
(2) Female Anopheles mosquito
(4) Extinct species
Dodo
(3) Housefly
(4) Female Culex mosquito
10/17
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. The greatest rational number amongst
1 3 5
, , and
2 5 9
7
is
12
1
(1)
2
3
(2)
5
5
(3)
9
7
(4)
12
(2) 12 days
(3) 30 days
(4) 36 days
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 9
86. The minimum number of measurements required to

draw a unique quadrilateral is
82. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days. If A

alone can do the same piece of work in 20 days,
then B alone can do the same piece of work in
(1) 24 days
85. A positive fraction is such that the sum of the

numerator and the denominator is 10. Of all such
fractions, the number of fractions that can be
simplified further is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
87. Consider the kite as shown in the figure. If AB = 10

cm, BC = 17 cm and BD = 16 cm, then AC equals
B
A
83. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral as shown in the

figure, then 'x' equals
70
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 70
(4) 80
(3) 3
D
(1) 21 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 36 cm
(1) M < 11
(2) 11 M < 15
(3) 15 M 17
(4) M > 17
89. The cube root of 1 2

3
84. The number of distinct parallelograms that can be

formed if two adjacent sides and one included angle
are given is
(1) 1
88. Out of 25 observations, it is known that 11 occurs

4 times, 15 occurs 8 times and 17 occurs 6 times.
The remaining 7 observations are unknown. The
median of the data, M satisfies the relation
40
B
(1) 1
(2)
6
5
(3) 2
(4)
7
3
(2) 2
(4) 4
3
2
3 4
5
4
4
is
6
11/17

90. The number of two-digit numbers that cannot be
expressed as the sum of the squares of two
consecutive natural numbers is
(1) 74
(2) 81
(3) 85
(4) 87
91. If 3a = 4b = 24c (a, b, c 0), then
(1)
1
2
(2) 1
(3)
3
2
(4) 2

96. Five years ago, the father was ten times as old as
his son. Fifteen years from now, the father will be
twice as old as his son. The fathers present age is
(1) 25 years
(2) 30 years
b b
equals
c a
(3) 35 years
(4) 40 years
97. In the given figure, the value of x is
80
130
92. The number of perfect cubes having exactly 3 digits

is
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
93. The mean and the median of 19 observations are 30

and 25 respectively. Then, the number of
observations more than 30 can be
(1) 17
(2) 11
(3) 13
(4) 7
90
(2) 2 or 5
(3) 4 or 8
(4) 3, 6 or 9
95. If S1
1
1
and S2
, then
11 19
13 17
85
(2) 80
(3) 85
(4) 90
98. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral with

diagonals AC and BD such that AB = 3 cm,
BC = 4 cm, AD = 4 cm and AC = 6 cm. Which of
the following additional information can help in
constructing a unique quadrilateral?
C
D
A
(1) CAB
(2) CBA
(1) S1 < S2
(2) S1 = S2
(3) ACB
(3) S1 > S2
(4) S1 = 2S2
(4) DAB
12/17
70
(1) 75
94. The sum of the squares of 3 consecutive natural

numbers when divided by 12 gives a remainder of
(1) 1 or 4
99. Five observations a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 are such that
a1 < a2 < a3 < a4 < a5 and the average of a1 and a4
is greater than a3. Then, which of the following is not
true?
(1) Mean of a2 and a5 is greater than a3
(2) Mean of all the five observations is greater than
a3
(3) Median of all the five observations is less than
the mean of all the five observations
(4) Median of all the five observations is greater than
the mean of all the five observations
100. The value of
3
73 27
73 27
(2) 3 5
(3) 3 6
(4) 2
73 27 1
is
101. If n is a natural number such that n2 = 1681, then

n equals
(1) 39
(2) 41
(3) 49
(4) 51
102. Out of the numbers 1, 2, 3........., 20, one number

is chosen at random. The probability that the
number selected is a perfect square is
(3)
2
5
(2)
7
20
(4)
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6
105. If p, q, r and s are positive rational numbers such

that p q = r s < 0, then
(1)
p r
when q < s
q s
(2)
p r
when q = s
q s
(3)
p r
when q > s
q s
(4)
p r
is always true
q s
106. Mr. Patel has ` 5000 with him. He has 22 currency

notes of which some are of denomination ` 500,
while the rest are that of ` 100. The number of notes
(1) 1
(1)
104. If a is a natural number such that a 3 + a is a

multiple of 10, then the last digit of a3 a cannot be
1
5
3
20
1
1 2
of ` 100 is
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
107. Let Tn denotes the number of diagonals in a n-sided

regular polygon. If Tk = kT5 and T = Tk, then the
value of k is
(1) 5
(2) 13
(3) 120
(4) 133
108. Which of the following is not a factor of 83 + 93 +

103 + .......+143?
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 19
109. x and N are both natural numbers such that

4
103. If x 2 and y x 4 , then the value of y is
1
2
x 3
1
3
x 4
1
4
x 5
........ x 9 10 . If x > 1 and
N > 1, then the least possible value of N is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 256
(3) 16
(4) 27
13/17

110. If five rational numbers a, b, c, d and e are inserted
1
1
and , then which of the following is
100
5
always true?
between
1
1
<a+b+c+d+e<
(1)
20
5
1
1
(4)
< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <
2000
100
111. The sum of the digits of a two digit number n is 11.
If the digits are reversed, then the new number
becomes N. The value of n + N equals
(1) 100
(2) 101
(3) 99
(4) 121
112. If the sum of the interior angles of a n-sided polygon
is 1 2 3 ....... n, then the value of n is
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
115. If x is a non-zero real number, then

1
1 x1 x 3
(1) 1
(3) x2 + x3
equals
1 x 3 x 2
(2) x
1
(4) x
x
1
< 16,
x
(2) 11 hrs
(3) 12 hrs
(4) 15 hrs
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8
118. Mr. Ajit draws a pie chart (as shown in the figure) to
depict the various expenses and savings in a month.
If x < y, then
House rent
Saving y
x
110
Education
(1) 0 < y < 60
(2) 60 < y < 120
(3) 120 < y < 130
(4) y > 130

1
always equal to
(1) 1
(2) xpqr
(3) xpq + qr + rp
(4) xp + q + r
120. If the average of the first n natural numbers is 28,

then the average of the squares of these n natural
numbers is
(1) 55
(2) 84
(3) 784
(4) 1036
14/17
130
x p pq x q qr x r rp
119. The value of (x 0) is
xq
xr
xp
1
1 x
(1) 10 hrs
Ex Oth
pe e r
ns
es
1
1
(3)
< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <
2000
5
then the maximum possible value of x is

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 16
114. The last 3 digits of 193 is
(1) 361
(2) 163
(3) 595
(4) 859
116. A train travels at 55 km/h. If the speed of the train

is increased by 5 km/h, then it takes 1 hour less to
reach the station. The original time taken to reach
the station is
117. The greatest perfect square, which is a factor of

2016 has the last digit
1
1
(2)
<a+b+c+d+e<
100
2000
113. If x is a natural number such that 9 < x +
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
Directions (Q121 to Q123) : Choose a option which is
correct for given patterns.
121. 216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, ?
128. If a
b%b
d, then
(1) a d
(2) d % a
(1) 1728
(2) 1331
(3) Results cannot be determine
(3) 2197
(4) 2744
(4) a % d
122. 7047, 2349, 783, 261, ?
129. Which of the following equation is correct?

20 ` 5 # 5 = 4
(1) 77
(2) 97
(1) 18 ! 3
(3) 87
(4) 67
(2) 18
3 ! 20 # 5 ` 5 = 1
(3) 18
20 ! 3 # 5 ` 5 = 5
123. 14 __ __ 81 __ 1 __
(1) 8484
(2) 4844
(3) 8844
(4) 4848
(4) 18 # 3 ! 20
130. Which of the following position of a standard dice is

not correct?
124. 6 : 36 : : 14 : 196 : : 19 : 361 : : 23 : ?

(1) 629
(3) 729
(1)
1
3 2
(2)
4
6 5
(3)
1
5 2
(4)
3
6 2
(2) 429
(4) 529
125. CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ : ?
(1) LO
(2) JP
(3) IS
(4) IP
5 ` 5=6
126. Barometer is related to atmospheric pressure in

the same way as seismograph is related to
131. A cube is painted on two opposite faces only. Now

it cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. How
many cubes are painted exactly on one face only?
(1) Fever
(2) Mercury
(1) 18
(2) 9
(3) Earthquakes
(4) Doctor
(3) 2
(4) 7
Directions (Q127 to Q129) : If means +, # means

, ` means , % means greater than, ! means
and means less than, then answer the following
questions.
127. The value of 65 # 13
4 ! 16 # 4 ` 1 is
132. Three position of a same dice is given below :
5
2 6
1
5 6
1
3 5
Which number is opposite to number 4?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2
(3) 6
(4) 5
15/17

133. If TEXT is coded as 5725, EXIT is coded as 7245
and AIM is coded as 943, then IEXAM will be
coded as
(1) 57429
(2) 47293
(3) 94275
(4) 34725
134. If red is called green, green is called blue, blue is

called grey, grey is called yellow, then colour of
clear sky is
(1) Blue
(2) Yellow
(3) Grey
(4) Orange
(2) 45
(3) 56
(4) 59
(2) South-west
(3) South-east
(4) North-east
Jay is heavier than Vijay, who is taller than Arun. Ankit is

heavier than Ramesh and lighter than Vijay, who is taller
than Ramesh. Ankit is taller than Arun but smaller than
Ramesh.
139. Who is tallest?
(1) Ramesh
(2) Vijay
(3) Ankit
(4) Jay
(1) Jay
(2) Vijay
(3) Ramesh
(4) Ankit
141. Who is smallest?
136. If east is called north-west, then west is called

(1) North
Directions (Q139 to Q141) : Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.
140. Who is heaviest?
135. If A = 26, B = 25, C = 24 and so on upto Z, then

CAT = 57. Similarly HEN is equal to
(1) 54
(1) Ramesh
(2) Ankit
(3) Arun
(4) Vijay
Directions (Q142 to Q144) : Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.
137. In the evening, Ram and Rahim are standing in a

park facing each other. If Ram is facing towards
South, then Sun shadow of Rahim is
(2) Left of Ram
Four friends Joy, Sanjay, Veer and Ajay like colour yellow,
green, blue and white but not necessarily in order. Each
likes only one colour. Sanjay is older than Ajay and not
likes white or blue. Joy is oldest and likes green. Veer is
younger than Sanjay and older than Ajay, who likes white.
(3) Infront of Ram
142. Who is youngest?
(1) Right of Ram
(4) Behind of Ram

138. Indu and Khazan starts walking from point A.
Khazan move 14 2 m towards south-west and
reaches at point B. Indu moves 48 m towards east
and reaches at point C. From point B Khazan moves
14 m towards east and reaches at D. The distance
between point D and C is
(1) Joy
(2) Ajay
(3) Sanjay
(4) Veer
143. Who likes blue colour?

(1) Joy
(2) Veer
(3) Sanjay
(4) Ajay
144. Which colour is liked by Sanjay?
(1) 49 m
(2) 48 2 m
(1) Yellow
(2) Green
(3) 50 2 m
(4) 50 m
(3) Blue
(4) White
16/17
Directions (Q145 to Q147) : Find the mirror image of the

word / figure / number in the following questions.
Directions (Q148 to Q150) : Choose the correct option to

complete the given figure.
145. WELCOME
148.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
146. 256987364
?
149.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
147.
150.
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17/17
Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
PRACTICE TEST
Test Date : 04-10-2015
ANSWERS
1.
(2)
31.
(2)
61.
(3)
91.
(3)
121. (2)
2.
(3)
32.
(1)
62.
(2)
92.
(3)
122. (3)
3.
(4)
33.
(3)
63.
(2)
93.
(4)
123. (1)
4.
(4)
34.
(2)
64.
(2)
94.
(2)
124. (4)
5.
(1)
35.
(4)
65.
(1)
95.
(3)
125. (2)
6.
(3)
36.
(2)
66.
(2)
96.
(2)
126. (3)
7.
(2)
37.
(2)
67.
(4)
97.
(3)
127. (1)
8.
(1)
38.
(1)
68.
(3)
98.
(4)
128. (4)
9.
(2)
39.
(4)
69.
(4)
99.
(4)
129. (2)
10.
(1)
40.
(2)
70.
(2)
100. (1)
130. (3)
11.
(3)
41.
(3)
71.
(3)
101. (2)
131. (1)
12.
(4)
42.
(1)
72.
(2)
102. (2)
132. (4)
13.
(4)
43.
(4)
73.
(1)
103. (4)
133. (2)
14.
(1)
44.
(1)
74.
(1)
104. (2)
134. (3)
15.
(3)
45.
(2)
75.
(2)
105. (1)
135. (1)
16.
(2)
46.
(3)
76.
(3)
106. (3)
136. (3)
17.
(3)
47.
(1)
77.
(2)
107. (3)
137. (2)
18.
(2)
48.
(4)
78.
(4)
108. (1)
138. (4)
19.
(1)
49.
(2)
79.
(1)
109. (2)
139. (2)
20.
(1)
50.
(2)
80.
(4)
110. (3)
140. (1)
21.
(3)
51.
(1)
81.
(2)
111. (4)
141. (3)
22.
(1)
52.
(2)
82.
(3)
112. (2)
142. (2)
23.
(2)
53.
(3)
83.
(1)
113. (3)
143. (2)
24.
(1)
54.
(1)
84.
(1)
114. (4)
144. (1)
25.
(4)
55.
(4)
85.
(1)
115. (1)
145. (2)
26.
(2)
56.
(1)
86.
(4)
116. (3)
146. (3)
27.
(1)
57.
(4)
87.
(1)
117. (2)
147. (4)
28.
(3)
58.
(1)
88.
(3)
118. (2)
148. (2)
29.
(2)
59.
(1)
89.
(3)
119. (1)
149. (3)
30.
(4)
60.
(1)
90.
(3)
120. (4)
150. (4)
1/7
Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
1.
Answer (2)
21. Answer (3)
2.
Answer (3)
22. Answer (1)
3.
Answer (4)
23. Answer (2)
Atmospheric pressure is independant of area.
24. Answer (1)
4.
Answer (4)
25. Answer (4)
5.
Answer (1)
26. Answer (2)
Pressure is directly proportional to height of liquid

column.
27. Answer (1)

28. Answer (3)
6.
Answer (3)
7.
Answer (2)
8.
Answer (1)
30. Answer (4)
9.
Answer (2)
31. Answer (2)
10. Answer (1)
32. Answer (1)
11. Answer (3)
33. Answer (3)
12. Answer (4)
34. Answer (2)
13. Answer (4)
35. Answer (4)
29. Answer (2)
Loudness (L) [Amplitude (A)]2
36. Answer (2)
Let initial loudness = L
37. Answer (2)
Final loudness = 4L
38. Answer (1)
L A
4L A '

A2 = 4A2
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (2)

41. Answer (3)
A = 2A
Hence, amplitude becomes twice.
14. Answer (1)
Frequency =
Time period =
10
= 2Hz
5
5
1
=
sec
10
2
Phase contrast microscope is used to study living or

unstained cells and their activities like cytoplasmic
movements and cell division.
Electron microscope has a high resolution of 0.25
and can be used to observe small organelles like
ribosomes.
42. Answer (1)
43. Answer (4)
Frequency
2
=4:1
Time Period 1
2
15. Answer (3)
44. Answer (1)
16. Answer (2)
45. Answer (2)
17. Answer (3)
46. Answer (3)
18. Answer (2)
47. Answer (1)
19. Answer (1)

20. Answer (1)
As graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
2/7
Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
Viruses lie on the borderline, separating living

organisms from non-living.
48. Answer (4)

66. Answer (2)
49. Answer (2)

Nostoc is a free-living cyanobacteria and Anabaena
is a symbiotic cyanobacteria.
50. Answer (2)
P, Q, R are transition, buffer and core area,
respectively.
Yeast is used for the purpose of fermentation, a

process of anaerobic conversion of sugars into
alcohol.
67. Answer (4)
The given figure is of chromosome.
68. Answer (3)
51. Answer (1)
Acetobacter aceti is used for the production of

vinegar.
52. Answer (2)

53. Answer (3)
69. Answer (4)
Operation flood is also known as white revolution.
A combine is a combined harvester and thresher.
54. Answer (1)
70. Answer (2)
55. Answer (4)
71. Answer (3)
56. Answer (1)
Plasma membrane is selectively permeable in nature.

72. Answer (2)
57. Answer (4)

Polio is also known as infantile paralysis.
73. Answer (1)
58. Answer (1)
74. Answer (1)
59. Answer (1)
75. Answer (2)

Stellars cow is an example of extinct species.
60. Answer (1)
76. Answer (3)
61. Answer (3)

Mitochondria are sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.
62. Answer (2)
Soyabean, cotton and bajra are examples of Kharif

crop.
77. Answer (2)
63. Answer (2)
Malathion is sprayed mechanically on the gunny

bags in storage houses.
64. Answer (2)
78. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)

Biological nitrogen fixation occurs in leguminous
plants.
79. Answer (1)

80. Answer (4)
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Answer (2)
86. Answer (4)
82. Answer (3)
87. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1)
88. Answer (3)
84. Answer (1)

85. Answer (1)
The median will take the least value when all the 7
unknown observations are less than 11. Then, the
median (13th observation) is 15.
Let x be the denominator (x 0, 10).
So, M 15
10 x
, which can be simplified
x
further if x and 10 x have common factors which is
possible if x = 2, 4, 5, 6, 8
The median will take the greatest value when all the
7 unknown observations are greater than 17. Then,
the median (13th observation) is 17.So M 17
Then, the fraction is
So, there are 5 such fractions possible.
Hence, 15 M 17
89. Answer (3)
3/7

90. Answer (3)
95. Answer (3)
Consider this
12
42
72
22
52
= 41;
82
= 113
= 5;
96. Answer (2)
22
32
52
= 13;
62
32
= 61;
62
42
= 25;
72
= 85;
91. Answer (3)

1
ka
1
kb
,4=
1
ka
Also, 2(x + 15) 10(x 5) = 20

x + 15 5x + 25 = 10
1
2
So, father's present age = 10(x 5) + 5
x=7
= 30 years
98. Answer (4)
, 24 =
Now, 24 = 3 8 = 3
5 years ago, father's age = 10(x 5) years
97. Answer (3)
Let 3a = 4b = 24c = k
1
kc
Let sons present age be x years.

15 years from now, father's age = 2(x + 15) years
So, the only two digit numbers that can be

consecutive natural numbers are 13, 25, 41, 61 and
85 i.e., 5 numbers. The remaining 2 digit numbers
(90 5 = 85) are the numbers that cannot be
consecutive natural numbers.
3=
1 1 3

c a 2b
1 1
3

c a 2b
1
kc
3
42
99. Answer (4)
a1 a4
a3
2
a3
3 1
.
k2 b
a1 a4 a2 a5
[ a1 < a2 and a4 < a5
2
2
(given)]
a3 + a3 <
a1 a4 a2 a5
2
2
4a3 < a1 + a2 + a4 + a5
5a3 < a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5
b b 3

c a 2
92. Answer (3)
a3 < Mean of all the five given observations

Median < Mean
93. Answer (4)
100. Answer (1)
25 = Median of 19 observations = 10th observation

So, 30 > 25
Hence, the number of observations more than 30 can
be at the most 9.
94. Answer (2)
73 27 + 1 = 343 128 + 1 = 216 = 63
= 12k2 + 2
Case-II : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are 2k,
2k + 1 and 2k + 2, then
N=
(2k)2
1)2
+ (2k +
12k2
+ 12k + 5
+ (2k +
7 73 27 7 3 73 27 3 7 6
7 73 27 7 73 27 1
7 3 73 27 3 7 6
7 73 27 1
76 = 1
2)2
So, if N is divided by 12, then the remainder can be

2 or 5.
73 27 1 = 6
The given expression becomes

3
N = (2k 1)2 + (2k)2 + (2k + 1)2
Case-I : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are

2k 1, 2k and 2k + 1, then
4/7
[Given]
101. Answer (2)

102. Answer (2)
109. Answer (2)
103. Answer (4)
x = 216
1
N x 23
y x 2 (216 ) 2 = 28 = 256
=
104. Answer (2)

a3 + a is a multiple of 10. So, the last digit of a can
be 0, 2, 3, 5, 7 or 8. Hence, the last digit of a 3 a
can be 0 0, 8 2, 7 3, 5 5 i.e., 0, 4 or 6
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1
........
2 3 3 4 4 5
9 10
x
= x2
1
10
51
x 10 x 5
But x and N are both natural numbers and are both

greater than 1. So, x 5 = 2 x = 32
pq=rs<0
p r = q s = k (say)
1
1
1
.....
3 4 45
9 10
105. Answer (1)
Now,
N = (32) 5 = 22 = 4
p r (p r ) r r
kr r

=
q s (q s ) s s
k s s
ks rs rk rs k (s r )
s( k s )
s( k s )
110. Answer (3)
1
1
< a, b, c, d, e <
100
5
1
1
5 < a + b + c + d + e < 5
5
100
1
< a + b + c + d + e < 1 (i)
20
i.e., if q < s
1
Also,
5 < a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2
100
Now, s > 0, k + s = q > 0 and s r > 0 [Given]
p r
0 if k < 0
q s
i.e., if q s < 0
1
< 5
5
106. Answer (3)

107. Answer (3)
5 (5 3)
5
2
Now, Tk = kT5 = 5k
1
1
< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <
2000
5
111. Answer (4)
k (k 3)
= 5k
2
k 3 = 10
Let the digit in the units place be x

n = 10(11 x) + x = 110 9x
(i)
k = 13
and N = 10x + (11 x) = 11 + 9x
(ii)
T5
Again, T= Tk = T13 =
3
= 65
2
= 133
Then, the digit in the ten's plane = 11 x
13 (13 3)
65
2
k = 133 13 = 120
108. Answer (1)
n + N = 121
112. Answer (2)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 ... n = (n 2) 180
As 180 is a multiple of 9, so n 6.
Also, 180 is not a multiple of 7
n<7
Hence, n = 6 is the only possibility
83 + 93 + 103 + ........+ 143
For n = 6,
= (13 + 23 + ........+143) (13 + 23 + ........+73)
LHS = 1 2 3 4 5 6 = 720
142 152 72 82
=
4
4
2
= (7 15) (7 4)2 = 72 (152 42)
= 72 11 19
and RHS = (6 2) 180 = 720

So, n = 6.
Note : The possibility n 2 = 7 or n = 9 makes
LHS a multiple of 81 whereas (n 2) 180 is not
a multiple of 81.
5/7

118. Answer (2)
113. Answer (3)
1
< 16
x
9<x+
House rent
But x is a natural number.
Saving y
x
9 x 15
Ex Oth
p e er
ns
es
So, the greatest value of x is 15.

114. Answer (4)
130
110
Education
115. Answer (1)

Given expression can be written as
x + y + 110 + 130 = 360
1
1
1
3
1
1
1
1 x2 1 x x
1 3 2
x
x
x
x + y = 120
x
x 1 x
x 1 x3
x 1 x
116. Answer (3)
1 x x
Since x < y, therefore, y > 60

Also x > 0
y < 120
x 1 x
119. Answer (1)

120. Answer (4)
1 2 3 ......... n
28
n
Let the original time taken be t.
n(n 1)
28n
2
Then, according to the question,
55t = 60(t 1)
n = 55
5t = 60
12 22 32 ......... n 2 1 n(n 1)(2n 1)

=
n
6
n
t = 12 hrs
117. Answer (2)
2016 =
25
(24
32
32)
71
(2 7)
So, the greatest perfect square which is a factor of

2016 is 24 32 = 16 9 = 144 whose last digit is 4.
12 22 32 ....... 552
55
56 111
6
= 1036
=
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Answer (2)
216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, 1331

3
6
7
8
122. Answer (3)
10
11
7047, 2349, 783, 261, 87

3
3
123. Answer (1)
148 481 814
124. Answer (4)

a : a2, 6 : 36, 14 : 196, 19 : 361, 23 : 529
6/7
125. Answer (2)

323 422 521 620 917 1016
CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ : JP
26 26
26
126. Answer (3)
26
26
26
Barometer : Atmospheric pressure

Seismograph : Earthquakes
127. Answer (1)
On putting signs, we get
65 13 + 4 16 4 1
=5+44
=5
128. Answer (4)

a
137. Answer (2)
b%b
Shadow of Rahim is left of Ram.
a+b>b+d
a > d, a % d
Sun shadow of Ram
Ram
129. Answer (2)
South facing
North facing
On changing the symbols with signs in option (2),

we get
Rahim
Sun shadow of Rahim
18 + 3 20 5 5
138. Answer (4)
= 21 20
=1
48 m
130. Answer (3)
14 2 m
In standard dice sum of numbers on opposite faces

is always 7.
131. Answer (1)

Small cubes obtained from 2 opposite faces are only
one side painted. i.e., 9 2 = 18
14 m
50 m
14 m D
(14)2 (48)2 50
132. Answer (4)

139. Answer (2)
Weight
2
6
Height
Jay > Vijay
Vijay > Arun
Ramesh < Ankit < Vijay
Vijay > Ramesh
Jay > Vijay > Ankit > Ramesh Ramesh > Ankit > Arun
Vijay > Ramesh > Ankit > Arun
1
140. Answer (1)
133. Answer (2)
T E X T, E X I T, A I M, I E X A M
57 25 72 45 943 47 293
134. Answer (3)
141. Answer (3)

142. Answer (2)
Joy > Sanjay > Veer > Ajay
135. Answer (1)
green yellow
H + E + N = 19 + 22 + 13
= 54
143. Answer (2)

144. Answer (1)
136. Answer (3)
145. Answer (2)
N
NW
blue white
NE
146. Answer (3)

147. Answer (4)
(SE)W
E(NW)
SW
SE
S
148. Answer (2)

149. Answer (3)
150. Answer (4)

7/7

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Practice Test (Code A)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

The physical quantity that changes or tends to

In the shown figure, the difference between pressures

Which of the following cannot be the unit of

Four vessels with different base area shown below

(1) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

If atmospheric pressure at a place is 101325

On which of the following factors friction does not

(1) 101.325 N/m2

(1) Roughness of surfaces in contact

(2) 10.1325 104 N/m2

(2) Normal reaction in between the surfaces in

(3) 1.01325 104 N/m2

(3) Area of contact in between the surfaces

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

An object about to move, comes into motion over a

Arrange the following types of friction forces in

Practice Test (Code A)

13. If loudness of a sound wave increases to 4 times its

14. A simple pendulum oscillates 10 times in

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(4) Sliding friction < limiting friction < rolling friction

An aeroplane gets charged while flying mainly due to

15. The part of human ear that vibrates when sound

(4) Auditory canal

16. In metals, the charge carriers are

(4) Heat of the earth

17. When electric current passes through the water added

(2) Decreases with increase in the speed of

(2) Chlorine gas only

(3) Is independent of speed of submarine

(4) Neither hydrogen nor chlorine gas

(4) First increases and then decreases with the

(3) Both hydrogen and chlorine gas

(3) Neither of the electrodes

(4) Any of the electrodes

Practice Test (Code A)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

19. When the two terminals of a battery of unknown

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(2) Negative terminal

(4) Neither positive nor negative terminal

24. Which of the following synthetic fibres is generally

25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

21. Consider the following statements,

(4) Synthetic rubber

Statement-II : Terylene is also known as dacron.

26. Consider the following table :

(1) Only Statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

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(iii) It is non-lustrous and easily wrinkled.

A, B, C and D respectively are

(iv) It is tough, strong and water resistant.

(1) Linear, Bakelite, Glycogen and Cross-linked

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) Cross-linked, Bakelite, Glycogen and Linear

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)