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CPL LEVEL
QUESTIONS BANK
AR-001
Question Paper No. 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
b.
c.
d.
70
b.
140
c.
110
d.
220
b.
c.
d.
At any time
b.
c.
d.
b.
Provided its all up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at
least 40 hours of flying time.
6.
c.
d.
For the issue of Private Pilots License, the total flight time required is
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
Inside a hanger
b.
c.
In the open
d.
Landing and housing charges are pay able by private aircraft according to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Who ever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any
property shall be punishable with
a.
Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or with both.
12.
b.
c.
d.
17
b.
18
c.
19
d.
20
4
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aerodrome office
b.
DGCA
c.
Central Govt.
d.
b.
c.
d.
If PPL holder is 30 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of yrs.
a.
One
b.
10
c.
Two
d.
35
b.
30
c.
100
d.
15
An a/c flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by
a.
State Govt.
b.
Municipal Corporation
c.
d.
Cannot be sued.
b.
c.
d.
20.
A person can bring upto India human remains of a person died of plague
a.
b.
c.
d.
21.
b.
May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe
operation of the aircraft.
c.
22.
23.
Cannot fly.
b.
c.
d.
Is involved in an accident/incident
b.
c.
d.
24.
25.
One pilot
b.
Two pilots
c.
d.
b.
Fly to destination
c.
d.
Continue flying
6
26.
27.
b.
c.
d.
b.
Cannot be brought
c.
Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw
dust impregnated with carbolic powder.
d.
28.
29.
30.
FDTL for 2 crew international flights is ______ hrs and _______ landing.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is _______ hrs
a.
200
b.
900
c.
1200
d.
1000
If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PICs action is:
31.
a.
To land immediately.
b.
To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c.
To inform DGCA.
d.
Aerodrome
b.
c.
Operator.
d.
DGCA
7
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
Mathura Refinery is a
a.
Danger Area
b.
Restricted area
c.
Prohibited area
d.
Terminal area.
Populated areas
b.
c.
Europe
d.
High seas
b.
c.
d.
10
b.
c.
d.
No authorized person must be presented within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on:
a.
15
b.
30
c.
50
d.
10
Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ________ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in ______ Nm of route
38.
a.
b.
600 NM. 60 NM
c.
600 NM. 30 NM
d.
300 NM. 60 NM
The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PICs is ____
%
a.
50
8
39.
40.
b.
80
c.
60
d.
100
12
b.
24
c.
48
d.
60
An Air miss incidence report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in ______
days
41.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after
completion.
42.
a.
b.
c.
d.
43.
a.
15 km
b.
5 NM
c.
10 NM
d.
15 NM
For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers number of cabin attendants required
is _______
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
b.
c.
10
d.
14
b.
c.
d.
With in a radius of 1 NM
b.
With in a radius of 10 km
c.
With in a radius of 20 kn
d.
AUW
b.
Length of aircraft
c.
d.
No. of passengers
DGCA
b.
Govt of India
c.
CAR
d.
AIP
1000
b.
900
c.
1500
d.
500
The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in the year
a.
1934
b.
1937
10
c.
1994
d.
1954
QUESTION PAPER -2
1.
2.
In class A airspace
a.
b.
c.
d.
In class D airspace
a.
IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b.
IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of
VFR flights
3.
4.
5.
6.
c.
d.
all aircraft
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
b.
gliding in progress
c.
d.
prohibited area
2 years
b.
1 year
c.
d.
Domestic routes
b.
International routes
c.
Regional routes
d.
crossing an FIR
b.
c.
if so required by ATC
d.
Aeradio
b.
AIP
c.
Notams
d.
AIRACs
Aerodrome elevation
b.
Runway elevation
c.
d.
Threshold elevation
b.
c.
A red light visible 30 deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is
visible in all directions
d.
13.
14.
Operational Manual is
a.
b.
c.
d.
An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter
reads 12000 it. The commander will reports his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of
15.
a.
12000 Altitude
b.
F 120
c.
12000 a.g.l.
d.
12000 amsl
An aircraft is following a track of 179o (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are
16.
a.
50, 70, 90, 150, 170, 190, 210, 230, 250, 270, 290,
b.
55, 75, 95, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275, 295
c.
50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 160, 180, 200, 220, 240, 260, 280,
d.
55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
b.
Landing Prohibited
c.
Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d.
Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area.
17.
The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the DGCA
for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
18.
a.
1500
b.
1500 meters
c.
5 Nm
d.
3.7 km.
Above F 290, the minimum vertical separation between IFR flt tracks in areas other than
RVSM area is
a.
500
b.
1000
c.
2000
13
d.
19.
20.
21.
4000
DGCA
b.
Operator
c.
d.
If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for _______
a.
1 yr
b.
6 months
c.
2 yrs
d.
5 yrs.
Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks
in RVSM area is
22.
23.
24.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy
or a medium aircraft is
a.
2 minutes
b.
3 minutes
c.
5 minutes
d.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
All flights above _______ flight level are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather conditions
a.
F 280
b.
F 150
c.
F 140
d.
F 100
The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called
a.
Alerting service
b.
c.
d.
AIP
b.
AIC
c.
NOTAM
d.
AIRAC
460
b.
450
c.
440
d.
400
b.
c.
d.
A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for
endorsement on his licence
31.
a.
With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
b.
c.
Any where
d.
Cannot fly
b.
32.
c.
d.
When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
a.
15 meters
b.
30 meters
c.
43 meters
d.
45 meters
b.
c.
d.
25 hours
b.
20 hours.
c.
15 hours.
d.
10 hours.
b.
At least 30 minutes
c.
At least 15 mins
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
b.
c.
d.
A report received from an aircraft giving a position and / or met report is called
a.
Met report
b.
Position report
c.
Air report
d.
During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference, On SSR you should to set
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
ETA Destination
one hour
b.
30 minutes
c.
15 mins
d.
5 mins
White
b.
c.
d.
45.
The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
a.
2 minutes.
b.
3 minutes
c.
5 minutes
d.
not required.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Semicircular system
b.
Quadrantal system
c.
IFR levels
d.
QNH Setting
18
QUESTION PAPER - 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
DGCA
b.
AAI
c.
d.
ICAO
AIP consists of
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July, and Oct. month of each year.
c.
d.
On as required basis
b.
c.
Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the nation of the commander of the flight
d.
ICAO Regulations
Which of the following regulation is not subjected to an Aircraft flying over Indian territory
a.
The Aircraft Act: 1934, the Aircraft Rules: 1937, the Anti-Hijacking Act: 1982
b.
The India Aircraft rules: 1920, the aircraft ( Public health) rules: 1954, the Tokyo
convention Act: 1975
6.
c.
d.
A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in
possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a.
Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of
the passenger
b.
No action required
c.
d.
7.
8.
b.
00 at the horizon
c.
d.
Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India
a.
b.
Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control
areas.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
c.
d.
Which of following countries are not covered by Indian satellite Aided SAR programme
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
An Aircraft shall report long final when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy
a.
8 NMs
b.
4 NMs
c.
10 NMs
d.
2 NMs
A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported as
a.
An accident
b.
An incident
c.
Not reportable
d.
An Air Report
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
b.
c.
d.
Flight Time
b.
c.
Number of landings
d.
Same as day
b.
c.
d.
b.
PAPI Approaches
c.
Precision Approaches
d.
DGCA
b.
Controller of Aerodrome
c.
d.
Police Commissioner
Pilots only
b.
c.
d.
Dizziness
b.
Fear
c.
d.
Disorientation
21
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
AIRAC
b.
AICs
c.
AIP
d.
ICAO Annexures
AIRAC
b.
AICs
c.
AIP
d.
Notams
ATS information
b.
c.
Navigation Information
d.
Traffic Information
All aircraft
b.
c.
If C of a states so
d.
An aircraft is on a track of 0300 (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F 370. Other
aircraft at F 370 on a track of 1000 (M) can cross the same point not earlier than
25.
a.
0422 hrs
b.
c.
0427 hrs
d.
0402 hrs
An ac at F 390 is estimating to cross a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F 310. There is
reciprocal traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300 hrs maintaining F 330. By what time
the descending aircraft should reach F 310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a.
0215 hrs.
b.
0220 hrs.
c.
0225 hrs.
d.
0250 hrs.
22
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
MDA
b.
DA
c.
d.
The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a.
b.
c.
d.
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot
a.
b.
c.
should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d.
The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is belfow basic VFR
weather minimum
32.
c.
d.
runway is blocked
33.
34.
35.
b.
heavily speed
c.
develop lift
d.
taxiing
b.
c.
d.
risetow dy
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a.
b.
c.
d.
When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert
to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
36.
37.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
38.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
maneuvering the aircraft
a.
b.
39.
c.
d.
When land up behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a.
above the large aircrafts final approach path and landing beyond the large
aircraft .. down point
b.
below the large aircrafts final approach path and landing before the large aircrafts
touchdown point
c.
above there are aircrafts final approach path and landing before the large aircrafts
touch down point.
40.
41.
b.
c.
d.
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the
same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
42.
a.
b.
c.
d.
During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the
same altitude, What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
43.
a.
b.
c.
d.
During .. you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude
is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a.
The
b.
The
c.
The
is approaching head-on
d.
The
25
44.
The method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during is
to use
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night
that hours is to use
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
a.
The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b.
c.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other
aircraft
d.
47.
48.
49.
b.
c.
d.
hazy day
b.
clear day
c.
cloudy nights
d.
dark nights
After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contract ground control?
a.
b.
c.
d.
On final approach
26
50.
If constructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 09, the pilot may proceed
a.
Via taxiwess and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 09
b.
c.
Via taxiways and across runways to Runway 09, where an immediate takeoff may be in
d.
Paper -4
1.
2.
Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of
a.
800 hpa
b.
700 hpa
c.
620 hpa
d.
1000 hpa
3.
b.
c.
d.
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling, the light will be
4.
5.
a.
flashing red
b.
steady red
c.
d.
steady white
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
a.
Flashing green
b.
Steady green
c.
Flashing white
d.
Steady Red
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight
is a signal to
27
6.
a.
hold position
b.
extreme caution
c.
d.
Return to Apron
If the aircrafts radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled
airport?
a.
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the
tower
7.
8.
9.
b.
c.
Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d.
Rock wings
b.
c.
d.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a.
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b.
c.
d.
QFE
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the
altimeter?
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
QNE
10,000
b.
13,000
c.
15,000
d.
25,000
28
11.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under IFR at night for a propeller driven
aircraft?
a.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b.
Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
c.
Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly
after that for 45 minutes
d.
12.
13.
14.
15.
On as required basis
is safe
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
16.
a.
pilot in command
b.
owner or operator
c.
d.
Chief Engineer
b.
c.
d.
17.
18.
19.
Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
a.
hyperventilation
b.
aerosinusitis
c.
aerotitis
d.
hypoxia
b.
c.
d.
Lack of sleep
20.
21.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d.
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the
best way to overcome the effect is to
a.
b.
c.
consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal
breathing rate
d.
22.
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain
by various sensory organs is defined as
a.
spatial disorientation
b.
hyperventilation
c.
hypoxia
d.
stress
30
23.
24.
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
a.
shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
b.
having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
c.
leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-andlevel flight?
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
a.
b.
The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c.
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
d.
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight
a.
b.
c.
d.
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
30.
31.
c.
d.
altitude increases
b.
altitude decreases
c.
d.
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
a.
b.
c.
Duck-under syndrome
d.
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
a.
Structural failure
b.
Mechanical malfunction
c.
Human error
d.
Special disorientation
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
a.
b.
c.
Dizziness
d.
Laziness
b.
Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making
ability
38.
39.
40.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Euphoria
b.
c.
d.
Dizziness
Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b.
1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c.
Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary
d.
41.
42.
b.
c.
d.
Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance
33
a.
One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b.
One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c.
One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is
increasing in size rapidly
d.
43.
When using earths horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other aircraft
most concern would be for aircraft
44.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When making an approach on narrow than usual runway without VASI assistance, the pilot
should be aware that the approach
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow pilot
should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be
46.
47.
48.
a.
High
b.
Low
c.
Shallow
d.
Normal
b.
c.
d.
High on approach
Pitching up
b.
Pitching down
c.
Leveling off
d.
Descending
49.
50.
a.
No illusion
b.
c.
d.
Normal approach
DGCA
b.
Operator
c.
PIC
d.
Central Govt.
4 hrs.
b.
2 hrs.
c.
6 hrs.
d.
8 hrs.
Paper 5
1.
2.
3.
4.
b.
c.
d.
The visibility reqd. when flying at ( or) below 3000 in a controlled airspace
a.
5 kms
b.
8 kms
c.
10 kms
d.
3 kms
10 NMs
b.
10 mins
c.
5 mins
d.
20 Nms
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a.
Red
b.
Green
c.
Yellow
d.
ETA
b.
Met Info
c.
ATS Info
d.
Position Info
600
b.
900
c.
450
d.
300
AICs
b.
NOTAMs
c.
AIRAC
d.
AIP
1000 lts
b.
900 lts
c.
1500 lts
d.
500 lts
b.
5000 to unlimited
c.
Atleast 700
d.
If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day
a.
b.
Rocking Wings
c.
d.
11.
12.
13.
Flying low
1500 kg
b.
15000 kg.
c.
5700 kgs
d.
all ac rudder
5 mins
b.
3 mins
c.
10 mins
d.
2 mins
Night flying hours can be logged between _______ mins after sunset to ________ mins before
sunrise
14.
15.
a.
20 mins
b.
45 mins
c.
1 hrs
d.
15 mins
Truth North
b.
Compass North
c.
Magnetic North
d.
North Pole
If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat
indicates
16.
17.
Stop.
b.
Cut Engines
c.
Continue straight
d.
Turn Off
If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000 outside controlled airspace then it will fly at ______
a.
Altitude
b.
RVSM levels
c.
d.
18.
19.
20.
21.
a.
Not with standing any previous instruction, do not land for the time being
b.
Proceed to alternate
c.
Keep circling
d.
2000
b.
3000
c.
4000
d.
5000
If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a.
15 NMs
b.
15 Mins
c.
20 NMs
d.
5 Mins
Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of _____ hrs.
a.
3 hrs.
b.
24 hrs
c.
25 hrs
d.
12 hrs
The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land fails to land within _______ of estimated
time of landing
22.
23.
a.
3 mins
b.
2 mins
c.
5 mins
d.
10 mins
No smoking shall be permitted within ______ mtrs of A/C (or) fueling equipment
a.
15 mtrs
b.
10 mts
c.
30 mts.
d.
50 mts.
What is defined as A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service?
38
24.
a.
b.
Aeronautical Service
c.
d.
In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR
traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?
25.
a.
Class B
b.
Class C
c.
Class D
d.
Class E
The aerodrome reference code is referred to in Annex 14 and other ICAO documents. What is
the purpose of the code?
26.
a.
b.
c.
d.
To which of the following must the pilot of a helicopter give way if it is on a converging
course with him and there is a risk of collision?
27.
28.
29.
a.
A balloon only
b.
A glider or a ballon
c.
d.
b.
c.
A white or orange capital T land along the stem towards the crospiece
d.
An orange wedge shape in 3dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
b.
c.
d.
30.
31.
a.
White
b.
Yellow
c.
d.
What colour are (i) taxiway edge lights and (ii) runway edge lights?
a.
i) yellow
ii) white
b.
i) green
ii) white
c.
i) blue
ii) white
d.
i) green
ii) yellow
What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument
approach glideslope? Inboard means closer to the runway.
32.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How can a pilot determine from a distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory
instructions?
33.
34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?
35.
a.
b.
c.
d.
36.
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
39.
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 years
b.
Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of the state being over flown
c.
d.
Everywhere
What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspeed at a speed fo 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
40.
a.
8000 meters
b.
5000 meters
c.
1500 meters
d.
There is no min
If pilot sees the symbol X during SAR operations, how can he tell the survivor that he
understands the message?
a.
b.
Rock wings
c.
d.
climb steeply
41
41.
What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
42.
a.
1500 meters
b.
1800 meters
c.
d.
43.
44
45.
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
7000
b.
7500
c.
7600
d.
7700
To continue to destin.
b.
c.
d.
land at alternate
UTC means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Above minima
b.
47.
c.
below minima
d.
IMC prevails
a.
Flight levels
b.
AM
c.
d.
48.
49.
AGL
DM/Commissioner .
b.
DGCA
c.
Aerodrome officer
d.
ICAO
If PIC of an a/c fly red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 2700
then the action of pilot
50.
a.
Turn Right
b.
No. a
c.
Turn left
d.
Give way
Steady Red
b.
Ro
c.
Flashing Red
d.
1.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off
b.
taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance
c.
d.
3.
complete the pre-take-off check before taxing onto the runway and taking off.
The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and /or imminent danger requiring
immediate assistance is
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 hr 15 minutes
30 minutes
1 hr 20 minutes
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the Elapsed Time BOX OF
VFR flight plan?
a.
3 hrs 50 minutes
b.
3 hrs 20 minutes
c.
3 hrs 05 minutes
d.
2 hrs 35 minutes
Qus. No. 5 to 11 If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you will be
5-
6-
7-
8-
9-
10-
11-
d, c
12.
13.
a.
No risk
b.
Turn Port
c.
Turn Starboard
d.
Maintain heading
1 NM
b.
1 Mile
c.
5 NMs
d.
1 Km
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
Separation between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off
behind Medium A/C is ____ min
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
a.
02 mins
b.
5 mins
c.
3 mins
d.
1 min
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
24 hrs
b.
12 hrs
c.
48 hrs
d.
36 hrs
A&B
b.
D&E
c.
A, B, C & D
d.
D, E, F & G
No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C, while refueling is on
a.
15 mts
b.
30 mts
c.
50 mts
d.
10 mts
!0 NMs
b.
15 NMs
c.
20 NMs
45
d.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25 NMs
150 at 30 NMs.
b.
150 at 20 NMs.
c.
150 at 15 NMs.
d.
150 at 10 NMs.
1000
b.
3000
c.
2000
d.
4000
b.
c.
d.
1000
b.
2000
c.
500
d.
1.5 kms
Position report shall be made after every ______ in IMC, where no standard reporting points
exist.
25.
26.
a.
15 Mins
b.
20 Mins
c.
30 Mins
d.
60 Mins
10 mins
b.
15 mins
c.
30 mins
d.
60 mins
In India separation between 1FR and IFR are provided in ______ class of Airspace
46
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
a.
b.
A& B
c.
D&F
d.
D, E f & G
TMA means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Red
b.
Blue
c.
Green
d.
Yellow
1000 in 5 Kms
b.
2000 in 8 Kms
c.
2000 in 5 kms
d.
1500
b.
c.
ZZ
d.
NS
Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ______ NM and NAV-aid is present
with in ___ Nm of route
32.
a.
600 Nm/30 Nm
b.
c.
600 Nm/60 Nm
d.
300 Nm/60 Nm
The _____ % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC
a.
50%
b.
80%
47
33.
34.
35.
c.
60%
d.
100%
30 m
b.
45 m
c.
60 m
d.
24 m
900 m
b.
1200 to 1500 m
c.
1500 m to 2399
d.
2400 m or more
The visibility minima for take off, it the aerodrome is not equipped with radio nav aid is
___km.
36.
37.
a.
8 kms.
b.
10 kms.
c.
5 kms.
d.
3.7 kms
12 hrs
b.
24 hrs
c.
48 hrs
d.
60 hrs
A signal made by radio-telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting of the group
XXX in Morse code indicates
38.
a.
Distress
b.
urgency
c.
Radio failure
d.
Priority
White
b.
Red
c.
Blue
d.
Green
48
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
An Air-miss incident report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in ___ days
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
PPL
b.
CPL/ATLP
c.
IR
d.
b.
c.
d.
VFR Flts
b.
Domestice flights
c.
IFR Flts
d.
International Flight
Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an aircraft
indicate _______
44.
45.
a.
Urgency
b.
Priority
c.
Distress
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
a.
red flags
b.
c.
a white or yellow X
d.
QDM
b.
QDR
c.
QTE
d.
QNH
b.
c.
d.
1500 Kg
b.
5700 Kg
c.
10,000 Kg
d.
57,000 Kg
50
Regulation Paper 7
1.
If a passenger falls sick on board an A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PICs action is
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a.
To land immediately
b.
To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs before landing
c.
d.
Aerodrome officer
b.
c.
Operator
d.
DGCA
If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 2700 with its red light than PICs action is
a.
Turn right
b.
Turn left
c.
d.
Give way
An aircraft is crossing at right angle from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a.
Yellow
b.
Red
c.
Green
d.
White
If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot is
a.
Rock ailerons
b.
c.
Rock wings
d.
land
True North
b.
Compass North
c.
Magnetic North
d.
North Pole
51
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
b.
c.
d.
Survivors on ground sighted by aircraft in air will indicate the same to them by
a.
Flying low
b.
Ciraling
c.
Rocking wings
d.
Steep trun
118.6 MHz
b.
122.7 Mhz
c.
121.5 MHz
d.
127.0 MHz
Either arm or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates
a.
Slow down
b.
Cut Engine
c.
Start engine
d.
Stop
4000 AMSL
b.
4000 AGI
c.
d.
3000 AMSL
F 450
b.
F 460
c.
F 480
d.
F 490
DME separation between A C on same track same level and in same direction is
a.
10 NM
b.
20 NM
52
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
c.
15 NM
d.
5 NM
White crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at ______ angles to the route
a.
700
b.
1100
c.
900
d.
450
Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is
a.
10 mins
b.
15 mins
c.
20 mins
d.
5 mins
Separation between climbing A/C, which is one crossing track of another A/C is
a.
10 mins
b.
15 mins
c.
5 mins
d.
20 mins
ATC will inform FIC/ACC when A/C does not land within ________ minutes of ETA
a.
30 Mins
b.
10 mins
c.
5 Mins
d.
20 mins
If apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called as
a.
Distress phase
b.
Uncertainty phase
c.
Alert phase
d.
With in controlled airspace below 3000 feet visibility reqd for VFR is
a.
3000 mts
b.
5000 mts
c.
3700 mts.
d.
1500 mts
53
20.
21.
22.
Length of ac
b.
Number of passengers
c.
All up weight of ac
d.
nav-aids enroute
30 mins
b.
1 hr
c.
2 hrs.
d.
3 hrs.
On X- country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made
after every _______ min in VMC
23.
24.
25.
26.
a.
15 mins
b.
30 mins
c.
45 mins
d.
60 mins
you are descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi 13000 will be reported as ______
a.
Altitude
b.
F 130
c.
AMSL
d.
AGL
Annex 2
b.
Annex 11
c.
Annex 14
d.
Doc 4444
b.
c.
d.
ATC information
54
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
b.
Position reports
c.
Met information
d.
route information
second
b.
third
c.
first
d.
fourth
CTA
b.
CTR
c.
CTZ
d.
TMA
The visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is equipped with VOR is ______ km
a.
5 Kms.
b.
3.7 Kms.
c.
1.5 Kms.
d.
3 Kms.
Danger Area
b.
Restricted Area
c.
Prohibited Area
d.
Terminal
An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for straight in approach Because of low
ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the
vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
32.
a.
of the pilot
b.
c.
d.
The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering
them to
a.
go out of control
55
33.
34.
b.
c.
d.
before rotation
b.
with rotation
c.
d.
b.
The size of the helicopter has little bearing on the intensity of the vortices
c.
Helicopter vortices are less intense than the vortices of an aeroplane of the same
weight.
d.
35.
36.
b.
c.
d.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
37.
38.
a.
b.
c.
d.
climb
b.
descend
c.
d.
Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is
the
a.
39.
b.
c.
d.
A pilot receives the following ATC clearance CLEARED TO LAND TURN RIGHT AT THE
FIRST INTERSECTION The pilot should
a.
land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely
accomplish the turn.
40.
b.
c.
land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety
d.
land and do a 1800 and taxi back to clear the runway at the required.
What should be including along with the call sign of the aircraft and time to indicate
cancellation of a distress message?
a.
41.
b.
c.
d.
When filling a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered
is the total
42.
a.
elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.
b.
elapsed time for all legs, plus the intermediate stop, plus 45 minutes.
c.
d.
An ATC clearance
a.
b.
43.
c.
d.
b.
c.
acknowledge the clearance and read back only the acceptable parts
57
d.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown at
a.
b.
c.
d.
a Control Zone
b.
c.
d.
an airway.
ON THE GROUND
a.
b.
stop
c.
d.
stop
ON THE GROUND
a.
cleared to land
cleared to taxi
b.
cleared to taxi
c.
d.
cleared to land
VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000 msl and below 10,000 MSL
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
50.
Inside a hanger
b.
c.
In the open
d.
PAPER NO. 8
1.
2.
3.
4.
17 yrs.
b.
18 yrs.
c.
19 yrs.
d.
20 yrs.
If CPL holder is 40 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of
a.
One yrs
b.
5 yrs
c.
Two yrs.
d.
3 yrs.
b.
c.
d.
b.
May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe
operation of the aircraft.
5.
c.
d.
An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the
way of the other aircraft by:
a.
b.
6.
c.
d.
A special VFR flight may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone, provided the
aircraft is equipped with a functional radio receiver and the pilot has agreed to guard the
appropriate frequency, when the ground visibility is not less than:
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
a.
5 kms.
b.
3 kms.
c.
1.5 kms
d.
1.87 kms.
One pilot
b.
Two pilots
c.
d.
Area control
b.
Aerodrome Control.
c.
Approach Control.
d.
2000 ft.
b.
1000 ft.
c.
4000 ft.
d.
3000 ft.
1500 kg.
b.
5700 kg.
c.
10000 kg.
d.
14,000 kg.
200 hrs.
b.
900 hrs.
c.
1200 hrs.
d.
1000 hrs.
60
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270 with its red light then PICs action is
a.
Turn right
b.
Turn left
c.
d.
Give way
Either arm or hand level with shoulder, had across throat, palm down ward indicates:
a.
Slow down
b.
Cut engines
c.
Start engines
d.
Stop.
While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _ angles to the route
a.
700
b.
1100
c.
900
d.
450
If annrehension exists as to the safety of a/c and its occupants then it called as
a.
Distress phase
b.
uncertainty phase
c.
Alert phase
d.
100
b.
200
c.
150
d.
300
Populated areas
b.
c.
Europe
d.
High seas
14 days
b.
7 days
61
19.
20.
21.
c.
8 days
d.
9 days
A& B
b.
D&E
c.
A, B, C, & D
d.
D, E, F, & G
140.
b.
10.
c.
150.
d.
290.
Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in _______ Nm of route
22.
23.
24.
a.
b.
c.
d.
White
b.
Red
c.
Blue
d.
Green
Minimum vertical separation in mountainous area for aircraft flying IFR flights is
a.
b.
1500 AGL
c.
d.
none of these
15 km
b.
5 NM
c.
10 NM
62
d.
25.
26.
15 NM
b.
c.
Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months, or with fine upto Rs. 1000 or both
d.
A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136.
The number of flight attendants required is
27.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
When approaching an airfield within a TMA ( Terminal Control Area) the altimeter setting to
be used, having passed through the transition altitude is
28.
29.
30.
a.
Airfield QNH
b.
Airfield QFE
c.
Regional QNH
d.
Regional QFE
b.
c.
1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d.
1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
31.
An aircraft may be cleared to land on a runway before the preceding aircraft has cleared,
provided
A.
That it is daylight
b.
That it is daylight and the preceding aircraft is clearly visible throughout the landing
period
c.
It is in VMC
d.
There is a reasonable assurance the runway will be clear by the time landing
threshold is crossed
32.
A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure
airfield are satisfactory
33.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the
purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
b.
c.
The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one
and a half hours
d.
34.
35.
36.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
72 hours
b.
12 hours
64
37.
c.
24 hours
d.
48 hours
Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR &
VFR flights
b.
c.
Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic
Advisory service and VFR flight receive flight information service
d.
38.
39.
b.
c.
d.
What is the minimum visibility requirement in India under special VFR operation in Class D
airspace below 10000 feet
40.
41.
a.
-Day- 2 Km
b.
-Day- 3 Km
c.
d.
-Day- 1 Km
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
a.
b.
c.
d.
The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and
assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b.
c.
d.
42.
b.
the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of
wake turbulence.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
c.
d.
before rotation
b.
following take-off
c.
d.
What colour navigation light would a pilot see on an aircraft which he is overtaking at night
a.
Red.
b.
yellow.
c.
Green.
d.
White.
Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?
a.
At all times
b.
c.
d.
Never
What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
If a marshaller holds his hand down and waves is right arm continually upwards and
backwards, what does he want the pilot to do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66
8.
The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
collision, Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?
49.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following air traffic services require the pilot to obey ATC instructions if he is
receiving the service?
50.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ICAO Annex 2 lists the Rules of the Air. Where do they apply?
a.
b.
Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of State being over flown
c.
d.
PAPER NO. 9
1.
During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous
wing tip vortices will
2.
a.
dissipate completely
b.
Dissipate rapidly
c.
Dissipate slowly
d.
before rotation
b.
following take-off
c.
d.
67
3.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that had just taken off?
4.
5.
a.
could one vortex to remain over the runway for some time
b.
c.
d.
09
b.
90
c.
27
d.
270
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
6.
7.
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
to replace
b.
c.
d.
A pilot flying a heading of 2700 receives the following message from ATC, Traffic 2O
clock , t miles eastbound This information indicates the traffic is
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit ATC
will then
a.
10.
b.
c.
d.
11.
a.
5 hrs 50 minutes.
b.
5 hrs 20 minutes.
c.
5 hrs 05 minutes
d.
4 hrs 35 minutes.
How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?
a.
b.
Same as any VFR flight plan if the intermediate time does not exceed 30 minutes at
each point.
c.
By representing the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the Route
column.
d.
12.
An ATC clearance is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding
in accordance with a clearance or instruction.
13.
a.
b.
the responsibility for traffic separation is divided between ATC and the pilot.
c.
d.
b.
may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their
path.
69
C.
Who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180 deg turn
and backtrack to the hold position.
d.
14.
15.
16.
b.
c.
d.
When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at least
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
ON THE GROUND
a.
stop
b.
c.
d.
stop
A VFR flt takes off from Jaipur at 1040 hrs for Ahmedabad. Sunset time at Ahmedabad is
1232 hrs. What is the maximum flying time available to the p-i-c to land at Ahmedabad?
18.
19.
a.
1 hr and 52 mins
b.
1 hr and 22 mins
c.
2 hrs 02 mins
d.
b.
c.
d.
At any time.
b.
c.
d.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Series of Red flashes from control tower when aircraft is in flight means
a.
Aerodrome is closed.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks
a.
b.
C.
d.
35 mtrs.
b.
30 m.
c.
100 mtrs.
d.
43 m.
A person can bring unto India human remains of a person who may have died of plague
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
b.
c.
d.
71
26.
The letter C displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the location
of the
27.
a.
Control Tower.
b.
c.
d.
b.
28.
29.
30.
31.
c.
d.
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of the aircraft.
b.
c.
d.
Horizontal separation of aircraft as same cruising level and in same track by time is
a.
30 min.
b.
20 min.
c.
10 min.
d.
15 min.
Domestic Routes.
b.
International Routes.
c.
d.
QDM.
b.
QDR.
c.
QTE.
d.
QFE.
72
32.
33.
b.
Blue
c.
d.
Green.
If a passenger fall sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PICs
action is
34.
35.
36.
37.
A.
TO land immediately.
b.
To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c.
To inform DGCA.
d.
An Aircraft is crossing at right angle left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a.
Yellow.
b.
Red.
c.
Green.
d.
White.
4000 AMSL.
b.
4000 AGL.
c.
d.
3000 AMSL.
Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is
a.
10 mins.
b.
15 mins.
c.
20 mins.
d.
5 mins.
8000 mts.
b.
5000 mts.
c.
3700 mts.
d.
1500 mts.
73
38.
On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made
every ______ min in IMC.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
a.
60 mins.
b.
30 mins.
c.
15 mins.
d.
45 mins.
ATC information.
b.
Position Report.
c.
Met information.
d.
Operational Information.
Aerodrome officer
b.
c.
An Aircraft
d.
Unidirectional green
b.
c.
Unidirectional red.
d.
Unidirectional amber
b.
c.
d.
10.
5 mins
b.
10 mins
c.
3 mins
d.
2 mins.
Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off behind
medium a/c is
a.
02 mins.
74
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
b.
5 mins.
c.
3 mins.
d.
1 mins.
No unauthorized person must be within ________ mtr of a/c while refueling is going on
a.
15 mts.
b.
30 mts.
c.
50 mts.
d.
10 mts.
10 mins
b.
15 mins.
c.
30 mins.
d.
60 mins.
The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC is
a.
50%
b.
80%
c.
60%
d.
100%
2 days
b.
4 days
c.
7 days
d.
10 days
b.
c.
d.
For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants
required is
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
75
PAPER NO. 10
1.
A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance
cannot be compiled with should
a.
b.
c.
comply as best as possible under the circumstances to carry out the clearance and need
not say anything to ATC
d.
comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advice ATC as soon as
possible.
2.
After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot complied with, a pilot
should
3.
4.
5.
a.
take any immediate action required and advice ATC as soon as possible
b.
comply as best as possible under the circumstances and say nothing to ATC.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
ON THE GROUND
a.
Cleared to land
cleared to taxi
b.
c.
cleared to taxi
d.
cleared to land
A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
a.
stop
b.
c.
cleared to taxi
76
d.
6.
7.
8.
b.
c.
d.
70 Degrees.
b.
140 Degrees.
c.
110 Degrees.
d.
220 Degrees.
b.
Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at
least 40 hours of flying time.
9.
10.
11.
c.
d.
For the issue of Private Pilots License, the total flight time required is
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
77
12.
Whoever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any
property shall be punishable with
a.
Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or with both.
13.
14.
15.
b.
c.
d.
Aerodrome office.
b.
DGCA.
c.
Central Govt.
d.
Defence Ministry
A PPL holder can fly an aircraft with passengers on board at night provided he has completed
a.
b.
c.
d.
When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding collision,
rests with
16.
a.
Heavier a/c
b.
Lighter a/c
c.
d.
The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH
setting while crossing
17.
a.
Transition altitude
b.
Transition level
c.
d.
An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by
a.
State Govt.
b.
Municiple Corporation.
c.
d.
Cannot be sued.
78
18.
19.
b.
c.
d.
When flying in IMC outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the
appropriate ATS unit.
20.
21.
22.
a.
Every 30 mts.
b.
c.
d.
0.3 mts.
b.
0.6 mts.
c.
0.45 mts.
d.
0.9 mts.
Cannot fly
b.
c.
d.
b.
Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.
c.
Aircraft are required to land/ take off on runway only but may use grass area for
taxing.
d.
23.
Aerodrome closed.
An aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it
becomes in advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
b.
Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by an
aircraft.
c.
d.
An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended
landing.
24.
Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during
broad day light, when aircraft are flown
25.
a.
At or above F150
b.
c.
At or above F 200
d.
Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during
broad day light, when aircraft are flown
26.
a.
In class C airspace.
b.
c.
In class A airspace
d.
Is involved in an accident/incident.
b.
c.
d.
27.
While flying over high terrain or in mourtainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a level
which is at least.
a.
2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
b.
1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
c.
1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
d.
2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position
of the aircraft.
28.
b.
Fly to destination.
80
29.
c.
d.
Continue flying.
b.
Cannot be brought.
c.
Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed
shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc line box, filled with
saw dust impregnated with carbolic powder.
d.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
3 hrs.
b.
4 hrs.
c.
5 hrs.
d.
6 hrs.
2 min
b.
3 min
c.
5 min
d.
4 min
FDTL for 2 crew international flight is _____ hrs and _______ landing.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aerodrome
b.
c.
Operator
d.
DGCA
Emergency frequency is
a.
121.5 MHz.
b.
256.0 MHz.
c.
243.0 MHz.
d.
127.0 MHz.
81
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction
A.
10 NM.
b.
20 NM.
c.
15 NM.
d.
5 NM.
10 mins.
b.
15 mins.
c.
5 mins.
d.
20 mins.
Length of a/c
b.
Number of passengers.
c.
d.
Annex 2
b.
Annex 11
c.
Annex 44
d.
Doc 4444.
F 200
b.
F 150
c.
F 290
d.
F 10
Danger Area
b.
Restricted area
c.
Prohibited area
d.
An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in
a.
Flight Levels
b.
AMSL
c.
Altitudes.
82
d.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
AGL
If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by
a.
b.
Rocking wings.
c.
d.
Flying low
The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the
a.
Flight Engineer
b.
Co-pilot
c.
Radio officer
d.
Pilot-in-command
10 mins.
b.
15 mins.
c.
05 mins
d.
20 mins.
1000
b.
3000
c.
2000
d.
4000
Rashtrapati Bhawan is a
a.
Danger Area
b.
Restricted Area
c.
Prohibited Area
d.
12 hrs.
b.
24 hrs.
c.
48 hrs.
d.
60 hrs.
VFR Flights
b.
Domestic Flights
83
49.
c.
IFR flights
d.
International Flights.
Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after
completion.
50.
a.
1 yr.
b.
3 yrs.
c.
5 yrs.
d.
2 yrs.
7 days
b.
5 days
c.
10 days
d.
14 days
PAPER NO. 11
1.
2.
b.
c.
d.
is absolute
Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the
following on the transponder
3.
4.
a.
Mode A 7700
b.
Mode A 7500
c.
Mode C 2000
d.
Mode A 7600
When two aircraft are approaching head on the rules of the air require that
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 months
84
5.
b.
13 months.
c.
12 months.
d.
2 years
While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees
from him. You should see his
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft
requires a wake vortex separation of
7.
8.
9.
10.
a.
2 minutes
b.
8 minutes
c.
3 nm
d.
3 minutes.
b.
c.
Is expected to land
d.
Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be
a.
2000 ft.
b.
1000 ft.
c.
1000 ft or 2000 ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace
d.
4000 ft.
b.
c.
Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft
d.
3 nm
b.
5 nm
c.
10 nm
85
d.
11.
12.
8 nm
b.
c.
d.
If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts, he/she should not fly
within
13.
14.
a.
12 hours
b.
36 hours
c.
24 hours
d.
48 hours
A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The
right of way belongs to the aircraft.
a.
b.
at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
c.
That is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or
overtake othe other aircraft
15.
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at
6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
16.
a.
b.
c.
Class E
b.
Class F
c.
Class G
d.
Class A
86
17.
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to
land?
a.
If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jets
touchdown point.
18.
b.
c.
At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 Hpa. The pressure altitude
would be approx.
19.
20.
21.
a.
7500 feet.
b.
6000 feet.
c.
7000 feet.
d.
8000 feet.
dissipates immediately.
b.
dissipates rapidly.
c.
d.
persists indefinitely.
b.
c.
d.
While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the
following levels.
22.
a.
80
b.
95
c.
85
d.
70
b.
c.
d.
23.
The marshalling signal arms extended overhead, palms facing inwads, arms swung from
the extended position inwards means
24.
25.
26.
27.
a.
Stop
b.
Chokes
c.
Brakes applied
d.
Cut Engines
b.
Dual controls.
c.
d.
Which one of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct
a.
b.
c.
d.
Controlled airspace is
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
After completion of the turn on to final approach and not more than 4 nm from
the runway
d.
28.
At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAP Is pilot should see
a.
b.
c.
d.
88
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or Gairspace below F 100 is
a.
250KTS IAS
b.
250Kts TAS
c.
280Kts IAS
d.
150Kts IAS
b.
c.
d.
None
b.
c.
Impaired mental agility below 5000 feet and night vision below 8000 feet
d.
Impaired night vision below 5000 feet and mental agility below 8000 feet
The blood
b.
c.
The Stomach
d.
The intestines
Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control area and ATS routes where IFR
traffic is provided Air Traffic Services.
b.
c.
Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured.
34.
Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The of way belongs to the aircraft
a.
b.
at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
89
c.
That is more maneuverable. That the aircraft may with caution move in front of or over
take aircraft.
35.
36.
Sunrise to Sunset
b.
c.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time
37.
38.
39.
a.
Direct headwind
b.
Direct tailwind
c.
Sea level
b.
c.
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after is set to
a.
b.
29.92
c.
d.
During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous
wing tip vortices will
40.
a.
dissipate completely
b.
dissipate rapidly
c.
dissipate slowly
d.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that had just taken off
a.
could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime.
b.
c.
d.
90
41.
LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599 mts. Pair of touchdown zone markings for this
runway will be
42.
43.
44.
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
yellow
b.
Red
c.
Orange or white
d.
White
b.
c.
d.
12
White
b.
Red
c.
Green
d.
Yellow
Aircraft A on F 95 crosses LLK VOR at 1105 UTC and tracks out on radial 100 deg Aircraft
B takes off From Lucknow at 1110UTC and tracks out on radial 110 deg and is climbing to
F95. The longitudinal separation required shall be
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aircraft a Crosses DPN VOR at 1000 UTC and is on a radial 270 deg at o2NMS when aircraft
B reports established on radial 285 deg at 18 NMS. The aircraft are
a.
Not separated
b.
Longitudinally separated
c.
Laterally separated
d.
47.
Ac A maintaining F 250 and reports over DPN at 1100 UTC. B wants to climb on same
track from F 210 to F 270 and estimates to reach F 270 at 1105 UTC His ETA DPN is 1106
UTC. Which of following statement is true
a.
b.
48.
c.
d.
49.
50.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
When both are in visual contact and confirm crossing each other
d.
Heavy
b.
Light
c.
Medium
d.
92
PAPER NO. 12
1.
2.
AIRAC
b.
AIP
c.
NOTAM
d.
AIC
If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of large
aircraft, the pilot should
3.
a.
take off immediately otherwise the trailing vortices will descend into the flight path.
b.
taxi to position on the runway and wait until it is considered safe to take-off.
c.
decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.
d.
wait for 2 minutes after the large aircraft has passed then take-off.
b.
the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of
wake turbulence.
4.
c.
d.
The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the
approach to land
5.
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
before rotation
b.
with rotation
c.
d.
Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active
runway 1000 m of length should normally hold.
a.
7.
b.
c.
d.
Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude
a.
A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft.
b.
An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power driven heavier than
aircraft
c.
An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the
left.
d.
8.
When two power driven heavier than airaircraft are converging at approximately the same
altitude.
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
19.
b.
Turn right
c.
Turn left
d.
Take no action
b.
He can climb/ descend remaining in VMC and maintaining his own separation
c.
d.
5 kms.
b.
1.5 kms.
c.
3 kms.
d.
8 kms
94
20.
21.
22.
F 95
b.
F 120
c.
F 170
d.
F 180
b.
c.
d.
Ac A is maintaining a TAS of 450 kts and Ac B 400 kts. B is following A on the same
track and on same level. Min separation required is
23.
a.
15 mins
b.
10 mins
c.
5 mins
d.
3 mins
A is crossing track of B at same level. There are two VORs one at 300 NMs E and second at
350 NM W of the position of ac. Minimum separation required shall be
24.
a.
20 NMs
b.
15 mins
c.
10 NMs
d.
10 mins
A is 05 NMs inbound to LLK. B is 05 NMs outbound from LLK on same track and
maintaining same TAS Separation required is
25.
a.
b.
c.
d.
30 mins
b.
60 mins
c.
45 mins
d.
90 mins
95
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Annex 2
b.
Annex 6
c.
Annex 11
d.
Annex 14
Aerodromes
b.
Notarns
c.
AIRACs
d.
AICs
Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than
a.
300
b.
250
c.
450
d.
600
Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than
a.
60 m
b.
75 m
c.
30 m
d.
50 m
b.
c.
a sense of fear
d.
What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
32.
a.
8000 metres.
b.
5000 metres.
c.
1500 metres.
d.
There is no minimum
What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace in
India?
a.
180 knots
96
33.
b.
250 knots
c.
350 knots
d.
There is no limit
What is the minimum height outside congested areas at which ICAO standards permit normal
flight to take place under VFR?
34.
a.
b.
c.
500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure, but no minimum height
d.
What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR ( over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by
ICAO?
35.
36.
37.
38.
a.
1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
b.
1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position
c.
1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position
d.
1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
7000
b.
7500
c.
7600
d.
7700
If a military aeroplane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?
a.
Follow it
b.
c.
d.
What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?
a.
Go-around
b.
c.
d.
What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Place his crossed fhands in front of his face then uncross them
Landing prohibited
b.
c.
Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass
d.
Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.
What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?
a.
b.
c.
d.
In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?
a.
b.
c.
Landing prohibited
d.
What is defined as Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface?
44.
a.
An aircraft
b.
A flying machine
c.
An airship
d.
An aeroplane
b.
An airway
c.
A Control Zone
d.
CTA
98
45.
What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no
advice as to the correct action to take to avoid?
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all other
traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter the
airspace?
47.
48.
a.
Class B
b.
Class C
c.
Class D
d.
Class E
ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is defined as A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far
as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans.?
49.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is going
to land at a nearby field. It will be a
50.
a.
Alert phase
b.
Uncertainty phase
c.
Distress phase
d.
6000
b.
2000
c.
5000
99
d.
1000
Fuel required on board the propeller driven aircraft to an isolated aerodrome and there is no
suitable alternate available
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a.
b.
Fly to dest, + 45 mins + 15% flt time or Dest + 2 hrs, Whichever is less
c.
d.
Dest + 2 hrs.
The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000 in a controlled airspace
a.
5 kms
b.
8 kms
c.
10 kms
d.
3 kms
2000 AMSL
b.
3000 AMSL
c.
4000 AMSL
d.
5000 AMSL
left
b.
right
c.
d.
DGCA
b.
Govt. of India
c.
CAR
d.
AIP
Notams
b.
AIRAC
100
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
c.
AIP
d.
AIC
b.
c.
3000 AMSL
d.
Green
b.
Blue
c.
White
d.
Red
Red
b.
Green
c.
Yellow
d.
IFR flight shall not be commenced if the weather at destination and alternate is
a.
Above minima
b.
CAVOK
c.
below minima
d.
IMC prevails
ADC is exempted for A/C flying within ______ of the aerodrome and below
a.
10 NMS, 5000
b.
5 NMS, 1000
c.
5 NMS, 4000
d.
5 NMS, 3000
Blue
b.
White
c.
Red
d.
Amber
101
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
600
b.
900
c.
450
d.
300
An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a.
Flight Levels
b.
AMSL
c.
Altitude
d.
AGL
AICs
b.
NOTAMs
c.
AIRAC
d.
AIP
b.
DGCA
c.
Aerodrome officer
d.
ICAO
Populated Areas
b.
c.
Europe
d.
High Seas
1000 lts
b.
900 lts
c.
1500 lts
d.
500 lts
The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in year
a.
1934
b.
1937
c.
1994
102
d.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
1954
Inform Operator
b.
c.
d.
Inform DGCA
b.
c.
d.
10
AUW
b.
Length of aircraft
c.
d.
No. of passengers
b.
5000 to unlimited
c.
Atleast 700
d.
If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by
a.
b.
Rocking Wings
c.
d.
Flying low
If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
action of pilot
26.
a.
Turn Right
b.
No action
c.
Turn left
d.
Give way
1500 kg
103
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
b.
15000 kg.
c.
5700 kg.
d.
all ac
5 mins
b.
3 mins
c.
10 mins
d.
2 mins
b.
45 mins
c.
1 hr.
d.
15 mins
True North
b.
Compass North
c.
Magnetic North
d.
North Pole
An A/C flying a track of 1800 will fly at _____ level on a IFR plan
a.
F 260
b.
F 185
c.
F 90
d.
F 170
If the marshaller has either arm placed level with chest and moved laterally indicates
a.
Stop
b.
Cut Engines
c.
Continue Straight
d.
Turn Off
If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000 outside controlled airspace then it will fly at _______ levels
a.
b.
On QNH
c.
On QNE
d.
On quadrantal level
104
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
NDB separation is
a.
150 at 15 NMs.
b.
300 at 15 NMs.
c.
450 at 15 NMs.
d.
150 at 30 NMs.
Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
b.
Proceed to alternate
c.
keep circling
d.
The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the
a.
Flight Engineer
b.
Co-pilot
c.
Radio officer
d.
Pilot in command
b.
Green
c.
Red
d.
Steady Red
b.
Rotating Red
c.
Flashing Red
d.
If an A/C flying at F 290 is descending and its altimeter reads 12000 ft then the pilot will
report its height as
39.
a.
Altitude
b.
Flight level
c.
On QNH
d.
On QFE
F 230
b.
F 240
105
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
c.
F 250
d.
F 255
If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a.
15 NMs
b.
15 Mins
c.
20 NMs
d.
5 Mins
Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of ______ hrs
a.
3 hrs.
b.
24 hrs.
c.
25 hrs
d.
12 hrs.
3% & 5 kts
b.
5% & 10 kts
c.
d.
3 kts
3 mins
b.
2 mins
c.
5 mins
d.
10 mins
No smoking shall be permitted within ________ mtrs. Of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.
a.
15 mtrs
b.
10 mts
c.
30 mts
d.
50 mts.
The controller suggests a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
a.
b.
c.
106
46.
47.
dissipates immediately
b.
dissipates rapidly
c.
d.
persists indefinitely.
To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a large aircraft, the pilot should
a.
remain in ground effect until past the rotation point of the large aircraft.
b.
c.
taxi until past the rotation point of the large aircraft, then take off and remain below its
climb path.
d.
become airborne before the rotation point of the large aircraft and stay above its
departure path or request a turn to avoid the departure path.
48.
49.
b.
c.
d.
No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an controlled airport used for the movement
of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
50.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
d.
the aircraft that has other on its left shall give way
107
PAPER NO. 14
1.
Which of the following is defined as The length of the take-off run available plus the length
of the stop way, if provided
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
To save lives
Who is responsible for providing search and rescue facilities over land?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ICAO
If a pilot sees the following 2.5 meter symbol on the ground what does it mean? X
a.
b.
c.
Affirmative
d.
Negative
Which symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?
a.
b.
c.
d.
If pilot sees the following 2.5 metre symbol on the ground, what does it mean? V
a.
b.
The survivors
c.
d.
Negative
108
7.
8.
If you fly into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain
a.
Constant Airspeed
b.
c.
d.
Amber light from 3000 to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
b.
Alternative Red and white light from 3000ft to 100 fr and then Red light to the
end.
9.
c.
d.
Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system
a.
Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
b.
Blue light covering from the center line of R/Way to the center line of taxiway.
c.
Alternate green & white light covering from center line of Runway to the center
line of taxiway.
D.
10.
11.
Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.
b.
c.
Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.
d.
En route Altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of Terrain
clearance with in a width of
12.
a.
5 Nms
b.
10 Kms
c.
15 Nms
d.
20 Nms
b.
c.
d.
13.
14.
15.
16.
3 hrs.
b.
4 hrs.
c.
6 hrs.
d.
8 hrs.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Flt Crew on Domestic Flt. The Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of
landing restrictions is
17.
a.
b.
c.
d.
All a/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS
______ mts prior to entry.
18.
a.
60
b.
20
c.
10
d.
30.
Fixing
b.
Turing
c.
Motion Reversal
d.
110
19.
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated inst.
conditions can cause.
20.
21.
a.
Pilot Disorientation
b.
False Horizon
c.
d.
Drowsiness or haziness
b.
c.
so that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line
d.
Take off Alternate Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more than
a distance equal to the Flt of ___ with one engine inoperative cruise speed.
22.
23.
24.
a.
1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng A/c
b.
30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hour for more than 3 Eng A/c
c.
d.
F 40
b.
F 50
c.
F 45
d.
F 55
F 430
b.
F 450
c.
F 470
d.
F 490
A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c inlast 29 cosecutive days. He can fly ______ on 30th day
a.
6 hrs. as p-i-c
b.
6 hrs as co-pilot
c.
d.
111
25.
26.
b.
Military aircraft
c.
d.
While force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is killed on ground
P-in-C can be prosecuted for
27.
28.
a.
murder
b.
culpable homicide
c.
negligenced
d.
cannot be prosecuted
b.
c.
Both a & b
d.
Insturment Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. Flt time.
For landing minima considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken
into account.
29.
30.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing
c.
From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after switch off.
d.
55 yrs.
b.
60 yrs.
c.
65 yrs.
d.
70 yrs.
112
31.
32.
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
34.
35.
36.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
In case of an accident in the vicinity of aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by
a.
Control Tower
b.
App. Cont
c.
Area Control
d.
FIC
b.
c.
A scheduled aircraft
d.
b.
c.
d.
Irrespective of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being
used
113
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
STAR is a
a.
b.
c.
d.
A vehicle parked close to runway holding position is a ________ for taxiing aircraft
a.
Aerodrome Traffic
b.
c.
Essential Traffic
d.
Annex 2
b.
Annex 6
c.
Annex 14
d.
Annex 17
Significant differences between national regulations and ICAO procedures are published in
a.
AIRAC
b.
AIP
c.
NOTAMs
d.
AICs.
Pavement type
b.
Pavement subgrade
c.
Evaluation Method
d.
Tyre Pressure
If PIC of an a/c flying sees the green navigation light of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
then the action of Pilot
43.
a.
Turn Right
b.
c.
Turn left
d.
Give way
b.
7
114
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
c.
d.
10
All aircraft after take off are to turn ________ for a circuit pattern
a.
Right
b.
c.
left
d.
A& B
b.
D&E
c.
A,B,C, & D
d.
D, E, F, & G
09
b.
90
c.
27
d.
270
0.3 mts.
b.
0.6 mts.
c.
0.45 mts.
d.
0.9 mts.
b.
c.
d.
At F 120
b.
At transonic speed
c.
d.
50.
10 kms
b.
10 NMs
c.
20 kms
d.
20 NMs.
116