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Colegio Gimnasio

Campestre San
Sebastin
SCIENCE 8TH GRADE
REVIEW EXERCISES
MAKE OVER EXAM
NAME: ______________________________ DATE: __________ GROUP: _____
1. These branching structures carry information toward the cell body of a neuron.
A. Synapes
B. Axons
C. Dendrites
D. Nodes of Ranvier
2. The neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine (ACh) are stored within the
A. Tips of the dendrites
B. Cell body
C. Postsynaptic receptors
D. Axon terminals
3. What is the name of the space between the axon of one of the neuron and the dendrite of a
second neuron?
A. Vesicle
B. Cell body
C. Synapse
D. Node of Ranvier
4. What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine?
A. Dopamine
B. ACh
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Norepinephrine
5. What term describes the hopping of the action potential (nerve impulse) along the axon from
one node (of Ranvier) to the next?
A. Myelination
B. Depolarization
C. Saltatory conduction
D. Repolarization
6. The primary somatosensory area and the primary motor area are seperated by

A. Broca's area
B. The cecntral sulcus
C. The pia mater
D. The longitudinal fissure
7. There are four major areas of the brain: the cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, and the
A. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Limbic system
D. Cerebellum
8. The frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes form the
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Reticular formation
9. Which word best describes the precentralgyrus?
A. Olfactory
B. Visual
C. Motor
D. Language
10. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are referred to as the
A. Diencephalons
B. Brain stem
C. Limbic system
D. Emotional brain
11. Excessive opioids (narcotics) depress the medulla oblongata and therefore cause
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Blindness
C. Respiratory depression
D. Hypertension
12. Endorphins
A. Natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being
B. Energy sources much like ATP
C. Secreted by the choroi plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space
D. Waste products generated by depolarizing neurons
13. The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these
speed bumps are called
A. Fissures
B. Sulci
C. Foramen
D. Convultions, or gyri
14. The depression between the convolutions of the cerebrum is called a
A. Pons

B. Gyrus
C. Sulces
D. Corpus callosum

15. The medulla oblongata descends as the


A. Diencephalons
B. Hpothalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Spinal cord
16. The pituitary gland sits beneath the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Brain stem
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
17. Which of the following best describes the arachnoid mater?
A. Limbic system
B. Meninges
C. Blood-brain barrier
D. Cranium
18. The corpus callosum
A. Connects the right and left hemispheres
B. Connects the hypothalumus to the posterior pituitary gland
C. Lines the cerebral ventricles
D. Connects the brain stem to the cerebellum
19. In which cerebral lobe is Broca's area located?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Frontal
D. Temporal
20. Which of the following structures is most asssociated with "wake up"?
A. Broca's area
B. Cerebellum
C. Reticular activating system
D. Thalamus
21. The temporal lobe
A. Is a brain stem structure
B. Is a cerebellar structure
C. Contains the primary auditory cortex
D. Is a large mass of white matter that joins the right and left cerebral hemispheres
22. The occipital lobe
A. Is a brain stem structure
B. Performs the "executive" functions

C. Is called the vital center


D. Contains the primary visual cortex
23. The nodes of Ranier
A. Are located along the postsynaptic membrane
B. Increase the speed of the action potential
C. Synthesize the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
D. Store ACh in tiny vesicles
24. Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space?
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Cytoplasm
25. What is the function of the ependymal cell (choroid plexus)?
A. Synthesize neurotransmitters such as ACh
B. Form cerebrospinal fluid
C. Phagocytose debris
D. Secrete myelin
26. Which of the following is the type of nervous tissue that conducts a nerve impulse?
A. Astrocyte
B. Neuroglia
C. Neuron
D. Ependymal cell
27. The astrocytes
A. Support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood-brain barrier
B. Secrete myelin
C. Secrete cerebrospinal fluid
D. Are concentrated within the choroid process
28. What is the name of clusters of cell bodies that are located outside the central nervous
system?
A. Glia
B. Nodes of Ranvier
C. Nuclei
D. Ganglia
29. What is the fatty insulating material that surrounds the axons?
A. Glia
B. Choroid plexus
C. Myelin sheath
D. Sarcolemma
30. Which of the following is most related to "saltory conduction"
A. Dendrites
B. Choroid plexus
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Astrocytes

31. Which of the following structures brings information toward the cell body?
A. Dendrites
B. Axons
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Axon terminals
32. What makes white matter "white"?
A. Cell bodies
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Synapses
D. Myelin sheath
33. The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative; this electrical charge is due to the
outward leak of potassium and is called
A. Depolarization
B. The action potential
C. The resting membrane potential
D. The refracory period
34. What is the name of the first phase of the action potential that is caused by the inward
movement of sodium?
A. Repolarization
B. Refractory period
C. Depolarization
D. Saltatory conduction
35. What is the term applied to the inability of a neuron to accept a stimulus while the neuron is
still depolarized?
A. Repolarization
B. Threshold potential
C. Resting membrane potential
D. Refractory period
36. The repolarizing phase of the action potential
A. Means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive
B. Is due to the movement of sodium (Na+) into the cell
C. Is due to the movement of potassium (K+) out of the cell
D. Is due to the Na+/K+ pump located in the membrane
37. Which ofthe following is the convultion located on the frontal lobe anterior to the central
sulcas?
A. Broca's area
B. Primary motor area
C. Somatosensory area
D. Visual cortex
38. What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
A. The brain stem
B. The pons
C. Broca's area
D. The diencephalon

39. Which structure is also called the "emotional brain"?


A. Cerebellum
B. Basil ganglia
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Limbic system
40. The purpose of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the neuronal membrane is to
A. Depolarize the membrane
B. Repolarize
C. Establish the Na+ and K+ gradiemts necessary for the development of an action potential
D. Secrete myelin
41. This structure is part of the diencephalon; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water
balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system
A. Cerebellum
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Hypothalamus
42. This structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional and behaivoral
expression; carries out the "executive" functions
A. Cerebellum
B. Frontal lobe
C. Basal ganglia
D. Medulla oblongata
43. Injury to the occipital lobe is most likely to cause
A. Hearing loss
B. Paralysis
C. Loss of vision
D. Disturbances in gait
44. Which structure is called the lateral, third, and fourth?
A. Meninges
B. Ventricles
C. Cerebral lobes
D. Parts of the brain stem
45. Which of the following contans cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Central sulcas
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Broca's area
D. Subarachnoid space
46. Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges and looks like a spiderweb?
A. Dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Pia mater
D. Reticular formation
47. The corpus callosum

A. Connects to the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord


B. Is a band of gray mater that lines the ventricles
C. Is the point at which all motor fibers decussate
D. Connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres
48. Parkinson's Disease
A. Is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal ganglia
B. Refers to any increase in intracranial pressure
C. Is a demyelinating disease
D. Is caused by a slow cerebral bleeding episode
49. The medulla oblongata descends into the vertebral cavity through the
A. Corpus callosum
B. Obturator foramen
C. Central canal
D. Foramen magnum
50. The postcentral gyrus
A. Is the primary visual cortex
B. Is located in the parietal lobe
C. Contains the primary motor cortex
D. Performs the "executive" functions
51. The precentral gyrus
A. Is the primary motor area
B. Is located in the parietal lobe
C. Is called the vital center
D. Contains the medulla oblongata
52. Broca's area
A. Is concerned with motor speech
B. Allows the person to hear and interpret sound
C. Is located in the temporal lobe
D. Coordinates eye movements as in scanning a page in a book
53. Frontal eye fields
A. Perform a motor role regarding the eyes
B. Receive sensory information from the optic nerve
C. Allow the person to interpret visual information
D. Determine the color of the eyes
54. Which of the following actually kills invading microbes?
A) lysozymes
B) stomach acid
C) intestinal enzymes
D) all of the above
55. The inflammatory response includes all of the following except
A) vessel constriction
B) temperature increase

C) increased blood flow


D) phagocyte attack
56 .The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides
A) cell-mediated immunity
B) passive immunity
C) humoral immunity
D) permanent immunity
57. The immunoglobulin found in a mother's milk is
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
58. Erythroblastosis fetalis can result if
A) the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is RhB) the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is RhC) the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is Rh+
D) the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is Rh+
59. AIDS is such a deadly disease because the AIDS virus attacks and destroys
A) CD4+ T cells
B) B cells
C) CD8+ T cells
D) macrophages
E) memory cells
60. Which of the following statements about AIDS is true?
A) The disease is highly infectious.
B) The fatality rate is low if the disease is detected in its early stages.
C) Most people who get AIDS die of pneumonia.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
61. Which of the following are autoimmune diseases
A) heart disease
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) erythroblastosis fetalis
D) systemic lupus erythematosus
E) both b and d
62. The proteins secreted by plasma cells are called
A) MHC
B) complement
C) antigens
D) cytokines
E) antibodies
63. A person with anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood has what blood type?
A) type A

B) type B
C) type AB
D) type O
64. Precursors of macrophages are called
A) T cells
B) killer cells
C) B cells
D) plasma cells
E) monocytes
65. The immune response is terminated or decreased by
A) suppressor B cells
B) suppressor T cells
C) both of the above
D) none of the above; the immune response can only be stimulated, not terminated
66. Which type of T cell lyses cells that have been infected with viruses?
A) inducer T cells
B) helper T cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) none of the above
67. When a B cell encounters antigen to which it is targeted, it divides rapidly and produces
A) more antigen
B) plasma cells
C) T cells
D) killer cells
E) interferons
68. All of the following cells are phagocytic except for
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) eosinophils
E) all of the above are phagocytic
69. Your body has millions of different antibodies for detecting millions of different antigens
because
A) you have millions of different antibody genes
B) antibody genes undergo somatic rearrangement and somatic mutation
C) antibody genes undergo antigen shifting
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
70. Helper T cells and inducer T cells are also called _______________ cells because of the
coreceptor they both have.
A) CD4+ T
B) CD8+ T
C) CD16+ T

D) CD12+ T
71. Which type of surface marker is present on every nucleated cell in your body?
A) B receptor
B) T receptor
C) MHC-I
D) MHC-II
E) all of the above
72. MHC proteins are also called
A) ABC
B) HIV
C) Ig
D) HLA
E) hybridomas
73. Activated helper T cells release regulatory molecules called
A) histamines
B) antibodies
C) pus
D) lymphokines
E) complement
74. Memory cells
A) produce cyclosporine
B) are responsible for passive immunity
C) prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
D) provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
E) all of the above
75. What holds together the four polypeptide chains of an antibody?
A) disulfide bonds
B) light chains
C) heavy chains
D) complement proteins
E) MHC proteins
76. Of the five classes of antibody heavy chains, which one's function is still partially unclear?
A) IgE
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgA
E) IgD
77. Diseases in which a person's immune system attacks the person's own normal tissue are
called
A) secondary immune diseases
B) autoimmune diseases
C) antigen shifting diseases
D) primary immune diseases
E) clonal selection diseases

78. The cells that you see when you look at your skin were produced in the
A) dermis
B) psoriasis layer
C) subcutaneous tissue
D) stratum basale
E) stratum corneum
79. Which of the following cells participate in nonspecific defense responses when your body is
invaded by microbes?
A) natural killer cells
B) macrophages
C) neutrophils
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
80. Cytotoxic T cells are called into action by the:
A) presence of interleukin-1
B) presence of interleukin-2
C) presence of neutrophils
D) decrease in the number of B cells
E) decrease in the number of antibodies
81. Complement and antibody are similar in that both:
A) are produced by mast cells.
B) may make bacteria more attractive to phagocytes.
C) have two identical antigen-binding sites.
D) are activated in an inflammatory cascade.
82. The AIDS virus:
A) is also know as HTLV.
B) has a high affinity for CD8 bearing T cells.
C) may become dormant in cells.
D) is a DNA virus.
83. Hypersensitivity reactions:
A) are sometimes mediated by IgE.
B) may involve immune complexes.
C) may involve complement, histamine, neutrophils or IgG.
D) all of the above.
84. Which cell is correctly matched with its secretion or function?
A) T-lymphocyte -- IL-1
B) mast cells -- histamine
C) macrophage -- IgA
D) eosinophil -- clotting
85. All of the following are part of our antigen specific defense mechanisms except:
A) acute inflammation.
B) lymphocytes.
C) antibody production.

D) macrophages.
86. Echinoderms have immune systems similar to bony fish in that they possess T and B
lymphocytes
A) True
B) False
87. Immunoglobulins have two light chains and two heavy chains.
A) True
B) False
88. IgE is an interleukin involved in allergies.
A) True
B) False
89. T cytotoxic cells produce cytokinins which cause the lysis of other target cells.
A) True
B) False
90. Hemolytic disease of the newborn typically results from immunization of an RH- mother with
Rh+ blood from her first pregnancy, the antibodies reacting against the fetus in a later
pregnancy.
A) True
B) False
91. Choose the statement about steroid hormones that is incorrect.
A) Steroids are lipids with complex ring structures.
B) Steroids can pass through their target cell membrane and interact with receptors in the
nucleus.
C) Steroids employ first and second messengers that amplify the cellular response.
D) The estrogens and testosterone are examples of steroid hormones.
92. Prostaglandins are ___________ substances that regulate neighboring cells.
A) endocrine
B) paracrine
C) eccrine
D) glycoprotein
93. Cyclic AMP functions as a(n) _______________ for _______________ hormones.
A) binding site; nonsteroid
B) membrane receptor; steroid
C) activity site; G protein
D) second messenger; nonsteroid
94. Which of these is not a method the body uses to regulate its hormonal releases?
A) negative feedback
B) direct nervous stimulation
C) release of tropic hormones
D) degradation of the endocrine gland
95. Where are the posterior pituitary hormones manufactured?
A) in neurosecretory cells that originate in the hypothalamus

B) in the posterior pituitary


C) in the anterior pituitary
D) in the brain stem
96. There are several types of cells in the anterior pituitary. Which ones secrete growth
hormone?
A) mammatropes
B) gonadotropes
C) corticotropes
D) somatotropes
97. Which one of these anterior pituitary hormones shows increased secretion in response to
stress?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) luteinizing hormone
D) prolactin
98. Drinking alcoholic beverages on hot days is not safe because alcohol inhibits the release of
____________ which normally helps to conserve water during dehydration.
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) oxytocin
C) thyroxine
D) triiodothyronine
99. The thyroid hormones are responsible for regulating metabolic rate and calcium and
phosphate ion concentration in the blood. Which thyroid hormone lowers calcium and phosphate
ion concentration in the blood?
A) thyroxine
B) triiodothyronine
C) calcitonin
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone
100. Hypothyroidism in infants can result in _______________.
A) Grave's disease
B) cretinism
C) Hashimoto's disease
D) myxedema