O EngLanguage P2 2007tojun2014

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS
General Certificate of Education Ordinary Level
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Comprehension
1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
May/June 2007
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST
This insert contains the passage for comprehension.
2
(When he was a young man, the writer travelled across Spain. The passage describes a journey he
made from the port of Vigo to the town of Zamora during his first few days in that country.)
1
It was early and still dark when we reached the harbour and the soothingly rhythmic rocking
of the ship stopped. I was awakened by the noise of the rattling anchor going over the side.
I didnt want to move at first, because I had enjoyed the voyage, my very first experience
of the sea. So I lay for a while in the silence of Vigo harbour and listened to the first faint
sounds of Spain a howling dog and the sharp cry of a cockerel. I had at last reached
my destination, and so I went up onto the deck and for the first time in my life I saw,
looped round the bay like a sparkling necklace, the shape of a foreign city. There was no
movement among the houses, but lights were coming on and twinkling as people got up for
the new day.
I was in Spain and a new life was beginning. I had a few coins in my pocket and no return
ticket; I had a rucksack, a tent, some spare clothes, a blanket, a violin and only enough
words to ask for a glass of water. The sun rose, and people started appearing on the street.
I cut my last connection with home by changing my coins into local currency, bought some
bread and fruit and headed straight for the open country.
10
I spent the rest of the day on the long, arduous climb up from the coast, and then decided
to put up my tent for the night on a craggy hilltop. A primitive instinct had forced me to leave
the road and climb to this rocky tower, which gave me an eagles view of the distant harbour
I had recently left. I could see where Id been that day and much of the country still to come,
which rolled desolately away, wild and silent. Faced with its alien magnificence, I felt a pang
of homesickness, but nevertheless a twinge of excitement.
15
Night fell quickly and the valleys filled with heavy shadows which took on strange and eerie
shapes. The jagged coastline looked menacing, like fragments of broken glass. As the sun
went down, Vigo became cold and dim, smothered in the blue dusk. I couldnt help but feel
abandoned, even though it was foolish of me, when I saw the small white ship on which
I had arrived sail off in the gloom. I sat on the hilltop, my teeth chattering as the night
wind rose. I found a little hollow out of the wind, ate some bread and fruit and put up my
small tent. Because I had only a bed of stones to lie on, sleep eluded me. Moreover, I was
troubled by wild dogs which howled in the distance. Not until dawn did their yelping and
snarling stop, and I fell asleep at last.
When I woke next morning it was already light; I looked at my watch and saw that it was six
oclock. Realising that I was uncomfortably drenched in dew, I wriggled out of my blanket
and lay in the rising sun, inhaling the pleasant smell of drying bushes and wild herbs. I felt
the warm earth beneath my stiff limbs and forgot the dew and the wild dogs of the night.
I felt it was for this that I had come: to wake at dawn on a hillside and look out on a new
world, alone and without a plan, in a place that was totally unfamiliar to me.
The next day I followed the track through the hills, giving in to a feeling of loneliness when
I saw occasional signs of life sometimes a shepherds hut, or a boy with a flock of goats.
The track climbed higher into the clear, cold air, and I followed it, frequently convinced that
I had lost my way. That night I took shelter in a ruined castle. The remains of fires and the
skeleton of a sheep, propped in one corner, sent shivers of apprehension down my spine.
This place was, I thought, an obvious refuge for bandits. But I slept well enough, in spite
of the rustlings in the walls and the sighing of the mountain wind. On the following day, I
finished my bread and fruit, and was glad to find some wild grapes to eat. After that, all I
remember about those days is a steadily sharpening hunger, which made me lose all track
of time. I was aware of nothing but a shifting pattern of sun and shadow, hunger and sleep.
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20
25
30
35
40
45
3
7
I came down at last to the rich plain around the town of Zamora, where crops grew in
abundance in the Spanish summer. My head thumped in the blindingly bright light and I
screwed up my eyes, which in itself was painful because my face had been burned by the
sun. I stood there, covered in road dust, and looked at Zamora somewhat decrepit now,
but still retaining something of its splendid past. The nearby river was like a leathery arm
of wrinkled mud, with a vein down the middle of green, stagnant water. I padded into the
town square and sat down under a tree. After the long days walk my back was soaked with
sweat. I slipped my bag to the ground; it had felt like a load of stones and I was glad to be
free of it.
As I sat wondering where I would spend the night, I heard music coming from a nearby
street. Two young men with violins like mine who, judging by their speech, were foreigners
too, were giving a concert in the midst of a crowd of wide-eyed children. These musicians
were doing well people threw coins from windows or tossed them over the childrens
heads and I shouted my congratulations to one of the violin players, a tall young man
with feverish blue eyes, as he caught the coins in his hat. I was cheered up by the sight,
as this was how I, too, hoped to earn my living in Spain. After the concert we all sat on the
pavement chattering. Artur, the tall young man, talked with vitality, but his speech was often
broken by jagged rasps of coughing.
Now for more music! he cried, and we made our way to the crumbling warehouse where
they were to hold their next concert. When we stepped on the floorboards, little clouds of
peppery dust rose into the air. Soon an audience of young men and women had gathered
there; they stood, enthralled, as the music from Arturs violin soared above them. After the
concert, Artur leant exhausted against the wall, bathed in sweat, before we went out into
the starlit street. As soon as the cool air met us, Arturs coughing began, and we went up
through the silent town to the restaurant where supper was waiting. After supper we carried
Artur like a corpse to the dark room upstairs. We lit a candle and laid him down, took off
his boots and wiped his forehead. Nobody spoke or even whispered, although probably we
shared the same thought. I lay sleepless for a while in the darkness, my first and last night
in Zamora, listening to the choking rattle of Arturs breath, and the sound of his friends
weeping.
Adapted from As I Walked Out One Midsummer Morning by Laurie Lee
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1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2007
1 hour 30 minutes
*7888514999*
Additional Materials:
Answer Booklet/Paper

If you have been given an Answer Booklet, follow the instructions on the front cover of the Booklet.
Write your Centre number, candidate number and name on all the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Answer all questions.
Leave a space of one line between answers to each part of a question, e.g. between 4(a) and 4(b).
Leave a space of at least three lines after your completed answer to each whole question.
The insert contains the passage for comprehension.
Mistakes in spelling, punctuation and grammar may be penalised in any part of the Paper.
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.
2
Read the passage in the insert and then answer all the questions which follow below.
You are recommended to answer the questions in the order set.
From paragraph 1
1
(a) What woke the writer from his sleep?
[1]
(b) The writer was reluctant to move at first. Why did he then get up and go on deck?
[1]
(c) In what two ways did Vigo resemble a sparkling necklace? Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 2
2
(a) Apart from a shortage of money, what other evidence is there to suggest that the writer might
have difficulty settling in this new country?
[1]
(b) The writer cut the last connection with home when he changed his coins into local currency.
What other piece of evidence suggests that he does not intend going back home?
[1]
From paragraph 3
3
A primitive instinct had forced the writer to put up his tent on a hilltop. Explain in your own words
what is meant by primitive instinct.
[2]
From paragraph 4
4
(a) The writer felt abandoned when his ship sailed off. Explain why he might have felt like this.
[1]
(b) The writer says that it was foolish to feel abandoned when he saw the ship sail off. Why does
he describe his feelings as foolish?
[1]
From paragraph 6
5
The writer slept well enough. Give two reasons, apart from the rustlings in the walls and the
sighing of the wind, why this is surprising. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 7
6
(a) In what two ways does the writer suggest that not much rain fell around Zamora? Number
your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
(b) In your own words, explain what contrast the writer sees between Zamora as it is now and
as it was in the past.
[2]
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1120/02/M/J/07
3
From paragraph 8
7
(a) The writer saw that the two young men were foreigners like him. What else did he have in
common with them?
[1]
(b) What two pieces of evidence suggest that Artur is ill? Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 9
8
Why is Arturs friend weeping?
[1]
From the whole passage

9
Choose five of the following words or phrases. For each of them give one word or short phrase
(of not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word or phrase has in the
passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
soothingly (line 1)
faint (line 4)
gloom (line 25)
at last (line 29)
5.
6.
7.
8.
refuge (line 41)

cheered up (line 60)
vitality (line 62)
enthralled (line 67)
[5]
10 Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the difficulties experienced by the
writer on his journey from Vigo to Zamora.
USE ONLY THE MATERIAL FROM LINE 15 TO LINE 54.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must not be longer than 160
words, including the 10 words given below.
Begin your summary as follows:
At the start of his long journey he had to
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Mark Scheme
GCE O LEVEL May/June 2007
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
(a) 'woken from

his sleep
the noise of the (rattling) anchor/the anchor going over the side
[1]
Accept the lift, in whole or in part, of line 2 (I was awakened.....over the
side) even though agent is incorrect. Excess denies.
Mere reference to anchor (alone) =0
Reference to rocking of the ship = 0(N)
(b) get up and

go on deck
he had reached/was curious about/wanted to see his destination/Spain/Vigo

[1]
Accept the lift, in whole or in part, of lines 5 7 (I had at last.......foreign city)
even though agent is incorrect. Excess denies.
Any reference to enjoyed the voyage or first experience of Spain or first
faint sounds of Spain = 0 (N)
(c) sparkling
necklace
Key ideas are (i). SHAPE and (ii). LIGHT

(i) it/Vigo/was looped round the bay//was circular/curved//went round the
bay/coast/land/sea
[1]
shape of foreign city =0(N)
(ii). the lights were bright/twinkling/sparkling/coming on//flashing/shining//
shiny
OR it/Vigo was bright/lit up/illuminated/bright
[1]
Under (i) accept the lift of line 7 (looped round the bay (like a sparkling
necklace)) Excess denies.
Under (ii) accept the lift, in whole or in part of lines 8 9 (lights
were.........the new day) Excess denies.
Any reference to movement =O(W)
Label as (i) and (ii) OR A and B for 1 mark each. If candidate has not
numbered limbs, mark the first two only but
be generous with the candidates division.
[From paragraph 1] 4 marks (1+1+2)
(a) difficulty
settling in
he could not (sic)/could hardly speak the language/didnt speak the language
well
[1]
Accept lift of lines 1112 (only enough words to ask for a glass of water)
But had enough words to ask for a glass of water =0. This doesnt answer
the question.
Any reference to money is neutral gloss, as it is the limb of the question. But
any reference to ticket, rucksack, tent, clothes, blanket, violin =0(W)
(b) cut
connection
with home
he had no return ticket

[1]
Do not accept lift of lines 1011 (I had a few coins..... and no return ticket),
but accept I had no return ticket
Any reference to rucksack, tent, clothes, blanket, violin =0(W) But any
reference to money =0(N)
[From paragraph 2] 2 marks (1 + 1)
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Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
'primitive
instinct
Note that this is an own words question. Key words are A. PRIMITIVE and B.
INSTINCT. Look for respective synonyms but be generous with grammatical
form
A. PRIMITIVE
basic/fundamental/primal/primeval/primordial/subconscious/inherent/innate/
inborn/inbred/elemental/natural/
[1]
old/traditional/ancient/antique/simple/old-fashioned =0(N)
B. INSTINCT
urge/impulse/without thought/intuition/spontaneity/without reason/hunch/

reflex (action)/involuntary (action)/(sixth) sense/(gut) feeling/drive/need
[1]
habit/idea/thinking/want/desire = 0(N)
[From paragraph 3] 2 marks
4
(a) 'felt
abandoned
he was in a new/strange/foreign/unfamiliar country/place//he was alone/

didnt know anyone//he had severed his last link with home//something
familiar had gone//he was in inhospitable surroundings
[1]
Any reference to darkness, gloom, shadows, jagged coastline, sunset = 0(N)
(b) foolish to feel he had wanted to go there/he had reached his destination/he had not been
abandoned
abandoned/he had got what he wanted/nobody had forced him to go
there/he knew it was going to happen/he knew the ship would go
[1]
5
slept well
(i) (he was in a) ruined castle
[1]
(ii) (there was/he was near) the skeleton of a sheep/animal
[1]
(iii) (The place/it was) an (obvious) refuge for bandits
[1]
Accept any two of three, for 1 mark each. Label answers either as (i), (ii) and
(iii) OR A, B and C.
Under (i). accept the lift of line 39 (That night I took shelter in a ruined
castle) Excess denies
Under (ii). accept the lift of lines 3940 (the skeleton ....down my spine)
Excess denies
Under (iii). accept the lift of line 41 (This place was...bandits.) Excess denies
Reference to fires (alone) = o(N) in answers which are not lifted.
[From paragraph 6] 2 marks
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(a) not much

rain
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Key ideas are DUST and DRIED-UP RIVER

(i) the writer/he was covered in (road) dust/the roads were/the road was
covered in dust/dusty
[1]
Insist on correct agents, except in lifted answers
(ii) the river was dried up/nearly dried up/was mud//the river water was
stagnant
[1]
Under (i) accept the lift, in whole or in part, of the lift of line 49 (I stood there,
covered in road dust, and looked at Zamora), even although the agent is
incorrect. Excess denies.
Under (ii) accept the lift, in whole or in part, of lines 5051 (The nearby
river......stagnant water.) Excess denies.
Label answers (i) and (ii) OR A and B and mark for 1 mark each. If candidate
has not numbered limbs, mark the first two only, but be generous with the
candidates division.
(b) Zamora now

and in the
past
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are DECREPIT and
SPLENDID. Look for respective synonyms but ignore grammatical form. Do
not insist on re-casting of retaining
A. DECREPIT ageing/run-down/dilapidated/rotting/crumbling/worn/shabby/decayed/
decaying/falling down
[1]
ruined/spoiled/old/aged/dirty/polluted/deteriorating = o(N)
B. SPLENDID grand/beautiful/sublime/lovely/handsome/very attractive/very charming/
glorious/exquisite/glamorous/smart/elegant/chic/wonderful/marvellous/great/
magnificent/magestic
[1]
pretty/attractive/charming/enchanting/picturesque/rich/prosperous =0
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(a) what they

had in
common
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
he / they had violins / musical instruments

OR he/they wanted to earn a living through music/concerts/performance/
entertainment
[1]
Lift of line 56 (Two young men with violins like mine) =0. Candidates must
distil the answer.
Lift of line 61 (this was how I too hoped to earn my living in Spain) =0.
Candidates must distil the answer.
Any reference to foreigners =)(N) as this merely repeats the question.
They had no homes/were nomadic = 0(N)
(b) Artur is ill
Look for FEVER and COUGH

(i) he had a fever/feverish (blue) eyes
[1]
(ii) he was coughing (a lot)/his speech was broken by coughing
[1]
Under (i) accept the lift of lines 59 - 60 (a tall young man.... eyes) Excess
denies.
Under (ii) accept the lift of lines 62 63 (his speech ..... rasps of coughing).
Excess denies
Label (i) and (ii) OR A and B for 1 mark each. If candidate has not numbered
limbs, mark the first two only but be generous with the candidates division.
friend weeping
(he knew) his friend/Artur was going to die/was dying//would not live long/
much longer//was mortally/fatally ill
[1]
He had a cough/fever/was ill//was seriously/very/critically ill =0(N). A more
serious inference is required.
[From paragraph 9] 1 mark
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Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Mark only the first FIVE words attempted.

If more than FIVE are offered, cross out the excess and write RUBRIC.
For each word attempted, mark the first answer only when more than one answer is
offered. A comma or the word 'or' indicates a second attempt.
For two answers joined by 'and', allow one correct answer if the other answer is not wholly
wrong but neutral, e.g. 'thrilled and happy for 'enchanted'.
For a short phrase answer, mark the first seven words only (RUBRIC). Credit a correct
element within this limit.
Ignore mis-spelling if the word is phonetically recognisable.
Ignore errors of tense and grammatical form but only if the meaning is correct.
If answers are numbered and the question-word has been given as well, credit a correct
answer even if the numbering does not agree.
(See words and equivalents overleaf.)

1 mark
0 mark
Regard as 0[N] unless indicated as 0[W]
1. soothingly
(line 1)
comfortingly/calmingly/restfully/
pacifyingly/gently/peacefully/relaxingly/
softly/comfortably
supporting/flatter/quietly/relieved/
smoothly/blissfully/ pleasingly/pleasantly
faint
(line 4)
low/soft/weak/distant/dim/small/little/tiny/
minute/minimum/feeble/delicate/slight/
far away
quiet/microscopic/unsteady/fading/
indistinct/unclear/unconscious (W)
gloom
(line 25)
dark(ness)/dimness/dusk/gloaming/
twilight/shadows/obscurity
night/sunset/blackness/haze/dullness
at last
(line 29)
eventually/in the end/finally/ultimately/

after (all) this/after that
as a result/consequently/deeply/
by and by/soundly/in conclusion (W)/
after a long time/afterwards
refuge
(line 41)
hiding place/hideout/retreat/escape/
sanctuary/asylum/retreat/bolthole/den/
lair/shelter/haunt/resting place/haven
resort/habitat/residence/home camp/
lodging/meeting place protection/
safeguard/place to stay/place to live/
outpost
cheered
up
(line 60)
made to) feel better/good//happy/

happier/optimistic/in a good mood/
congenial/lighthearted/contented/elated/
exhilarated/bright/brightened/
encouraged/pleased/heartened/
comforted/delighted
made to feel cheerful/hopeful/amused

excited/motivated/entertained/helped/
enlightened/smiled/laughed/
applauded (W)
vitality
(line 62)
liveliness/energy/life/animation/vigour/
spirit
happiness/lightheartedness/
hopefulness/merriment/amusement/
strength/joy confidence/strength/
enthusiasm/health/power
enthralled
(line 67)
fascinated/mesmerised/enraptured/
captivated/charmed/spellbound/
under a spell/thrilled/fixated/
entranced/engrossed/hypnotized/
absorbed/riveted
happy/enthusiastic/captured/interested/
entertained/excited/joyful/surprised/
astonished/elated/amazed/impressed
5 marks ( 5 x 1)
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10 MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 OUT OF 20 FOR POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 10 MARKS

FOR STYLE (See pages 910 for the Style marking method.)
NOTES:
1.
Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated on the next page.
2.
Introductory Words
No penalty for omission; no penalty for any errors made in them or for incompleteness, but
take into account any punctuation or grammatical error immediately following them when
assessing Style.
3.
Length
Draw a double line where the introductory words end, or should end.
Count to 150 the number of words used by the candidate after the double line and write
down this number at the bottom left of the candidate's answer.
DO NOT use the candidate's word-total without checking it.
STOP at 150 and cross out excess words.
(N.B. This maximum takes into account the ten introductory words to tally with Rubric of
question, i.e. 160 words.)
4.
Marking Technique
(i) Indicate by numbered tick the point rewarded, e.g. 3
(ii) Assign the mark-scheme number to points rewarded on all scripts.
(iii) Assess qualities of Style separately. Add the Style Mark to the Content Mark and show
as a ringed total in the right-hand margin.
5.
For answers shorter than the 150 words, assess Style in the normal way, but apply the
following maxima:
025 (0); 2650 (2); 5175 (4); 76100 (6); 101125 (8). So in 121 words, with OW10 and
UE10, Style mark =8
If the candidate uses noteform throughout the answer, give 0 for the Style mark but allow
the points where they are clearly made.
7.
Sequence errors
In general, only withhold the mark for a point if it is wildly out of sequence or totally
unsupported. Do not penalise the point that then follows. Avoid the double penalty.
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Mark Scheme
Syllabus
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02
EACH POINT SCORES 1 MARK
Line No.
At the start of his long journey he had to..........

1.
climb (from the coast/to a hilltop/to a rocky tower)
2.
the country ahead of him/still to come was desolate/wild/silent/alien (magnificent =0)
3.
he was homesick
4.
there were heavy/eerie/strange shadows (in the valley)
5.
the coastline looked/was menacing//frightening/frightened him
6.
he felt abandoned/sad/lonely/upset/isolated/alone when he saw the ship leave/when the

ship left
2325
7.
he was cold//it was cold and/or windy//Vigo became cold and dim)
2526
8.
he (only) had (a bed of) stones to lie on/he was lying on (a bed of) stones (ground=0) //
uncomfortable sleeping conditions
27
he was troubled by/there were (wild) dogs
28
9.
15
1819
20
2122
22
10. he was drenched in / soaked / wet / damp with dew (felt warm earth beneath stiff limbs
=0)
31
11. his limbs/legs/arms were stiff/sore/uncomfortable
33
12. he felt lonely when he saw signs of life/other people/a shepherds hut/a boy with goats
3637
13. he (frequently) thought that he had lost his way/was lost (he was lost =0)
3839
14. the skeleton of a sheep frightened him/gave him shivers of apprehension (down his
spine)
3940
15. he was in an (obvious) refuge for bandits/robbers/thieves//(he thought) bandits/robbers/

thieves might be nearby
41
16. he was hungry//he finished his bread and fruit/food//he had no/little food/
only had grapes/wild fruit
4243
17. his head thumped /ached//bright light hurt his eyes

18. his face was burnt by the sun/was sunburnt//he was sunburt
19. he was covered in (road) dust
47
4849
49
20. his back was soaked with sweat//he was/had been sweating
21. he was/had been carrying a heavy bag/weight//his bag was heavy
5253
53
Rubric suggests third person summary. If candidate writes throughout in first person, do not penalise,
but penalise in the normal way under use of English every person change which occurs.
25 MARKS (15 +10)
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02
SUMMARY QUESTION: STYLE ASSESSMENT

The mark for Style incorporates TWO categories of writing, namely OWN WORDS and USE OF
ENGLISH. The table which follows on the next page provides descriptors of the mark levels assigned
to these TWO categories.
In assessing the overall mark for Style, first of all assign the script to a mark level under the category
of OWN WORDS. Then arrive at the mark level for USE OF ENGLISH. Before deciding the mark for
this level, take the accuracy of the writing into account, in particular the absence or frequency of
serious and minor errors. Underline only serious errors.
Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two. Raise any
half marks to the nearest whole number. Add this mark to the Content mark and show as a
total in the right-hand margin.
THE NOTES BELOW SET OUT TYPES OF SERIOUS AND MINOR ERRORS
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Serious tense errors.
Serious errors of sentence structure, especially in setting up subordination.
Omission or obvious misuse of prepositions.
Wholesale misunderstanding over the meanings of words used.
Serious errors of agreement.
Ingrained weakness of punctuation, i.e. the habitual comma replacing the necessary full stop.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Misspellings of a minor nature. Count as a serious error when the form of the word is severely
mangled.
Obvious slips of repetition or omission.
Minor errors of punctuation, i.e. the failure to complete pairs of commas in parenthetical
phrases/clauses, omissions of stops after introductory words like 'however'.
Indicate how you arrived at your mark for OW and UE, either by a short comment at the end of
the script or by use of left hand margin.
Note 1: Scripts placed in the last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score the middle box for UE as this
is the best fit.
Note 2: For answers written in wholesale or sustained irrelevance, ignore OW assessment and give
4 marks max. for Style, depending on number of errors. Such scripts will be rare, and should not be
confused with recognisable OW limited by irrelevance. (5/6 box)
Note 3: For answers where relevance is oblique, or written in a mangled or nonsensical fashion, the
best fit box will probably be the middle one. (5/6)
UCLES 2007
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
SUMMARY STYLE DESCRIPTORS

Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
10-9
Candidates make a sustained attempt

to re-phrase the text language.
Allow phrases from the text which are
difficult to substitute.
10-9
8-7
There is a noticeable attempt to rephrase the text.

The summary is free from stretches of
concentrated lifting.
8-7
6-5
There are recognisable but limited

attempts to re-phrase the text detail.
Attempt may be limited by irrelevance
or by oblique or mangled relevance.
Groups of text expression are
interlaced with own words.
The expression may not always be
secure, but the attempt to substitute
the text will gain credit.
6-5
4-3
Wholesale copying of large areas of

the text, but not a complete transcript,
Attempts to substitute own language
will be limited to single word
expression.
Irrelevant sections of the text will be
more frequent at this level and below.
4-3
2-0
Pretty well a complete transcript of

the text expression.
Originality is barely noticeable.
There will also be random transcription
of irrelevant sections of the text.
2-0
UCLES 2007
USE OF ENGLISH
Apart from very occasional slips, the
language is accurate.
Any occasional errors are either slips
or minor errors. Sentence structure is
varied and there is a marked ability
to use original complex syntax
outside text structures.
Punctuation is accurate and helpful
to the reader.
Spelling is secure across the full
range of vocabulary used.
The language is almost always
accurate. Serious errors will be so
isolated as to be almost unnoticeable.
Sentences show some variation,
including original complex syntax.
Punctuation is accurate and
generally helpful.
Spelling is nearly always secure.
The language is largely accurate.
Simple structures tend to dominate
and serious errors are not frequent,
although they are noticeable.
Where sentences show some variety
and complexity, they will generally be
lifted from the text.
Serious errors may occur when more
sophisticated structures are
attempted.
Punctuation is generally accurate.
Spelling is mostly accurate.
Meaning is not in doubt but serious
errors are becoming more
frequent.
Some simple structures will be
accurate, although this accuracy is
not sustained for long.
Simple punctuation will usually be
correct, with occasional errors of
sentence separation.
Spelling is largely accurate.
Heavy frequency of serious errors,
impeding the reading in many places.
Fractured syntax is much more
pronounced at this level.
Errors of sentence separation are
liable to be frequent.
1123 English Language June 2007
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper was another narrative topic and seemed to be accessible to most candidates. Overall, the
passage seemed to engage their interest and be well matched to their understanding.
The performance of candidates showed that, in general, they had been well prepared by their teachers and
understood the nature of the examination. Almost the entire range of marks, from 1 to 48, was seen.
Examiners reported very few rubric infringements.
As in previous years, candidates seemed to be familiar with the layout of the paper and, in the main, the
types of questions likely to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper, and more
candidates than in previous years managed to offer both a rough draft and a fair copy in response to the
summary question. The paper followed the usual pattern. Twenty five marks were allocated to the testing of
literal comprehension, inferential comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers
craft. A further twenty five marks were allocated to the summary question, these marks being divided
between assessment of ability to select content points from the text, and assessment of ability to express
these points fluently and in own words. As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were the
questions which required candidates to answer in their own words; some candidates seemed to ignore this
rubric or, even when they identified the key words for recasting, or indeed the key words were identified for
them by the question, found it impossible to find synonyms. There was a particular problem with this paper
in the second of the two own-words questions, where the majority of candidates were unable to isolate the
words to be re-cast into own words, and instead often referred to an irrelevant section of the text.
A small number of candidates numbered every word in the summary, placing the number above the word,
thus making the summary a very crowded marking area, and hindering the task of the Examiner. Examiners
reported a higher number of candidates than in the past writing in excess of the 160 words prescribed by the
rubric. Where candidates made alterations to their summaries, this was not always done neatly, or was
sometimes done in pencil; candidates must understand that such untidy or pencil alterations make it difficult
for Examiners to check the accuracy of the number of words used in the summary. Furthermore, untidy or
pencil elimination of extra words and phrases, in an attempt to reduce the number of words used, sometimes
resulted in crossing out key points or key verbs or articles, producing nonsense and denying marks both for
content and for style of writing.
Again, some Examiners were concerned about Centres which gave candidates examination booklets of eight
or twelve pages, resulting in waste of paper and unnecessary postage expenses.
Many Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and handwriting, the fact that spelling and punctuation
were generally very good and the overall impressive standard of written English.
Comments on specific questions

As is customary, Question 1(a) was designed, as the opening question, to ease candidates into the
examination with a fairly accessible question, and, indeed, the majority of candidates scored the mark for
writing that the noise of the rattling anchor awoke the writer. Similarly, most candidates scored the mark in
Question 1(b) for the correct answer that the writer went up on deck because he had reached his
destination, or because he wanted to see Spain, or Vigo, or the port; if the candidate also made reference to
the cry of the cockerel, the howling of the dog, his enjoyment of the voyage or his first experience of Spain,
then these were regarded an neutral extensions and did not deny the mark. Candidates who failed to score
the mark here usually did so because they copied the irrelevant sections of the text about cockerel, dog, etc.
without also making reference to the fact that he had reached his destination. Very many candidates scored
at least one of the two available marks in Question 1(c), where the answers required a reference to shape
for the first mark and to light for the second mark. Where candidates scored only one mark, it tended to be
for the light answer rather than the shape answer. Thus the candidate who wrote that Vigo resembled a
sparkling necklace because it was looped or curved around the bay and that the lights were twinkling scored
two marks. Some candidates referred only to the shape of the city, without stating what that shape was, and
thus were denied the mark for that limb of the answer. Candidates who also made reference to the fact that
there was no movement among the houses were denied the mark for the limb in which the reference was
made, as such an answer was sufficiently wrong to be regarded as spoiling an otherwise correct answer
rather than being simply a neutral extension. Once a candidate referred to lack of movement, he/she failed
to show understanding of the question.
Candidates fared reasonably well with Question 2(a), where the mark was awarded for writing that the
evidence which suggested that the writer might have difficulty settling in the new country was that he did not
speak the language, or that he only had enough words to ask for as glass of water. Where candidates failed
to score this mark, it was generally because they spoiled a correct answer by also making reference to the
writers rucksack, ticket, tent etc. such answers lacked the precision required in the questions asking for
what other evidence. Other candidates failed to score here because they gave the lack of return ticket as
the evidence, whereas the reference to the lack of return ticket was the answer to Question 2(b). Likewise,
in Question 2(b), candidates who failed to gain the mark did so because of lack of precision; the other piece
of evidence required was that the writer had no return ticket, and extraneous reference to the rucksack, tent
etc. once again was imprecise enough to deny the mark. Many candidates offered the wrong answer that
the writer headed for the open country, while others lost the focus of the answer by writing that he could not
afford a return ticket. Questions 2 (a) and (b) were relatively easy to answer, but candidates needed to
focus on the correct answer rather than haul into their responses extraneous information as a kind of
insurance policy against failure. To award such answers would be unfair to those candidates who tackled
the questions with the necessary degree of close attention and precision.
Question 3 was the first of the three questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words. It was more straightforward than the type of own-words question which requires candidates to
isolate the key words for re-casting before they can properly begin to answer the question; in this case, the
key words primitive and instinct were set out before the candidate, where acceptable synonyms for
primitive were, among others, basic, natural, inbuilt or subconscious, and acceptable synonyms for
instinct were urge, feeling, intuition or inclination. Candidates scored badly here; where a mark was
scored, it was for giving a synonym for instinct rather than one for primitive. Many candidates made
reference to ancient history, or primitive man, without formally defining the key words; there was a general
knowledge rather than language precision shown. Other candidates thought that the key words referred to
people, e.g. policemen, vigilantes, security guards or government officials; others clearly understood that
something ancient was involved, but were unable to express it.
Question 4(a) was an inferential question, which was indicated to candidates by the conditional tense used
in the question; the mark could be scored for writing that the writer felt abandoned because he was alone, or
because there was now no way he could go back home or because he was in a new or unfamiliar country.
Very many candidates made a sensible inference here, although a popular wrong answer was merely to
paraphrase the question and write that he felt left behind, or an equivalent. In Question 4(b), the mark was
awarded to candidates who wrote that the writer felt foolish because he had wanted to go to Spain, or it had
been his own idea, or simply that he was not in fact abandoned; again, many candidates were successful
here. Popular wrong answers included the feeling of a personal relationship with the ship, his lack of return
ticket and the idea that the ship left without waiting for the writer to make up his mind about whether he really
wanted to stay in Spain.
Question 5 carried two marks, which could be scored for giving any two of three possible correct answers.
The first of these was that the writer was sleeping in a ruined castle, the inference being that sleeping in any
ruined building would not be conducive to sleep. The second possible correct answer was that he was
sleeping near to the skeleton of a sheep, and the third possible correct answer was that there might be
bandits nearby. Mere reference to the remains of fires did not score a mark; candidates had to infer the
reason for the fires, namely that they had been lit by the bandits. Candidates fared generally well with this
question, although some candidates misread the question and wrote an answer which explained why the
writer needed to sleep - for example, to be out of the wind or away from the dogs - rather than why it was
surprising that he did in fact sleep.
Question 6 proved to be the most challenging questions on the paper, with many candidates scoring only
one or even no mark; full marks were extremely rare, and so this proved to be a discerning question which
differentiated candidates. In Question 6(a), a mark could be scored for writing that it could be seen that not
much rain fell around Zamora because the roads were, or the writer was, covered in dust. Lifting line 49
scored the mark I stood there, covered in road dust, although the agent in fact was the first person rather
than the third person. The second piece of evidence, which scored the second mark, was that the river was
dried up. Lifting at lines 50-51 scored the mark here the nearby river was like a leathery arm of wrinkled
mud, with a vein down the middle of green, stagnant water. In each case, although lifting was acceptable,
the correct agent had to be given, namely the writer (or I in the case of lifted answers) or the road or the
river; mere reference to dust or lack of water was insufficient. Where candidates scored only one of the two
available marks, it tended to be for the reference to the river; the reference to dusty conditions was beyond
the grasp of most candidates. Many wrote wrongly that the bright sunlight or the abundant crops was the
evidence that not much rain fell; this was surprising as surely lack of rain would lead to less, rather than
more, abundant harvest.
Question 6(b) was the second of the questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words. This was more challenging than Question 3 because candidates had first to isolate the key
words, namely decrepit and splendid. It had been intended that candidates be led to these key words by
the trigger words in the text: now and past. Thus the candidates should have made the link between the
text at lines 49-50 (somewhat decrepit now but still retaining something of its splendid past) and the
question, which asked candidates what contrast the writer saw between Zamora as it is now and as it was in
the past, i.e. it used to be splendid but now it is decrepit. Acceptable synonyms for decrepit were words like
ageing, crumbling, worn, shabby and decaying, while acceptable synonyms for splendid were words
like beautiful, grand, great and magnificent. Very many candidates came nowhere near the key words,
let alone acceptable synonyms, because they focused on an irrelevant section of the text at lines 46-47, and
wrote wrongly that Zamora used to be a fertile area but was no longer thus. Perhaps they failed to realise
that Zamora was a place although that information was given in the introduction to the text and therefore
they focused wrongly on climate and agriculture rather than on the isolation of the key words. Some gave an
appropriate synonym for splendid, but lost the mark by wrongly linking it to the countryside rather than the
town.
Candidates scored generally well in Question 7. The majority of them made the correct point in Question
7(a) that what the writer and the young men had in common was that they all had violins, or that they all
intended to earn their living through playing music. The two marks available in Question 7(b) were awarded
for writing that evidence of Arturs illness was, firstly, his cough and, secondly, his fever; these were relatively
easy points to make and could in fact be scored by lifting at line 60 (feverish blue eyes) and line 63 (rasps
of coughing). A popular wrong answer was to write that Artur talked with vitality, a lift which was,
presumably, not understood by the candidates who made this mistake.
Question 8 was an inferential question, the answer to which had to be the fact that Artur was fatally ill or
near to death. Weak answers such as ill or even seriously ill were not sufficient to score the available
mark; there was sufficient evidence in the text, in the references to Artur being carried like a corpse, the fact
that nobody spoke and the persistent coughing, to suggest imminent death. A popular wrong answer was to
write that Artur was already dead, or that his friend was weeping from exhaustion or because their income
would be depleted by Arturs not being able to play.
Question 9 was the customary vocabulary question, in which candidates were required to show their
understanding in context, not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words or expressions from a choice of
eight. Examiners reported marks ranging from 0 to 5 here. Most candidates who attempted finally scored
the mark for synonyms such as at last, although a popular wrong answer was after a long time. A
reasonable degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered darkness or dimness for
gloom and hiding place or shelter for refuge (although some candidates confused the word refuge with
refugee any suggestion that the word meant a person failed to score). Candidates scored a mark for
writing low or soft for faint, and for offering gently or relaxingly for soothingly. A popular wrong answer
for faint was unconscious, thus showing the need to read the word in its context rather than blindly offer a
synonym. The least popular choices were probably vitality, meaning energy or liveliness, and enthralled,
meaning captivated or charmed. Because understanding only is being tested in the vocabulary question,
grammatical form is not insisted upon, and therefore, although synonyms such as made happy were
preferable as answers to cheered up, answers such as merely happy were acceptable, as well as words
like contented and pleased. Examiners reported, as in previous years, some candidates giving the
question word in a sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning, but there were many fewer cases of
this than in previous years. As ever, there were some candidates who offered two or three synonyms for
each word; such candidates must realise that only the first word offered will be credited. Another
8
misconception among a few candidates was that all of the words would need to be tackled, or perhaps that
the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must understand that only the first five attempts will
be looked at by the Examiner.
The final question on the paper was, as is customary, the summary question, carrying half the total marks for
the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise the difficulties experienced by the writer on his journey
from Vigo to Zamora. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just more than
half of the original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of
160 words, the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There
were twenty-one content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen
points carrying one mark each. The most common fault was the failure to select and focus exclusively on the
writers difficulties. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the summary question.
However, there continued to be the incidence reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft,
thus failing to make it clear to the Examiner which version was to be marked. A very small number of
candidates forfeited their Style mark by writing their summary in note form rather than continuous prose.
There were three content points available in paragraph three. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that the writer had to climb
up from the coast, or to a hilltop. Merely writing that the writer put up his tent was not sufficient to score, as
there was no obvious difficulty in such an action; the difficulty, according to the text, lay in the climb. The
paragraph went on to explain that the country ahead of the writer was desolate, wild or silent and that the
writer was homesick.
In paragraph four, another six content points were available. Very few candidates made the points that there
were eerie shadows in the valley or that the coastline looked menacing. More candidates made the points
that the writer felt abandoned or alone when the ship sailed off, that he, or Vigo, became cold, that he had
only stones to lie upon and that he was troubled by wild dogs.
A further two marks were awarded in paragraph five to candidates who wrote that the writer was drenched in
dew and that his limbs were stiff. Many candidates scored the first of these two points, but very few scored
the second.
In paragraph six, a mark was awarded to candidates who wrote that the writer felt lonely when he saw signs
of life; many candidates wrote in random sections of their summary that he was lonely, but scored a mark
only when they linked his loneliness to the ship sailing off in paragraph four and to his seeing signs of life in
paragraph six. The next content point was that the writer frequently thought that he was lost; many
candidates lost the mark for writing that he was in fact lost. The remaining three content points in paragraph
six were that the skeleton of the sheep frightened him (not merely the presence of the skeleton, which was
sufficient to score in Question 5), that the place was an obvious hideout for bandits, and that he was hungry
or that his food had run out, a point which the majority of candidates made.
Paragraph seven contained a further five content points. The sunlight gave the writer a sore head, or sore
eyes, his face was burnt by the sun, or he had sunburn, he was covered in dust, he was sweating and he
had been carrying a heavy load.
As is customary, ten marks were allocated to the style of writing in the summary question, where style was
assessed according to how well the candidates were able to use their own words and the extent to which
they were able to write error-free, continuous prose, using a variety of sentence structures. Examiners
reported that ability to break away from the words of the original text varied from candidate to candidate and
even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates were skilful at recasting the original text in their
own words. There was a much lower incidence of random, mindless copying than in the past. However,
some weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for
use of own words, but in so doing they gained several marks for content points. It seemed that some
candidates had been taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter strategy and, indeed, it may be a good
course of action for candidates who are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English. However, only
those candidates who were competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and
re-casting it in original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style. Examiners
reported a higher than usual incidence of candidates attempting to select content points from irrelevant
sections of the text or from paragraphs outside the parameters of the summary as specified by the rubric. In
addition, Examiners reported candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being
clearly proficient in English, because their summaries were far too generalised and lacking in the precision
required to make content points; such candidates made oblique references rather than specific points.
Common errors reported were the usual failures of agreement in singular and plural, misplaced or omitted
prepositions, omission of definite and indefinite articles, use of articles where none were in fact required, and
inconsistent and illogical verb tenses. As already indicated, spelling and punctuation were generally very
good, and handwriting clear.
10

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02, 1125/02
October/November 2007
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
2
Grandfathers Party
1
Yusuf! he exclaimed. It is you, isnt it? There was no mistaking my cousin Ali, standing there
in the shopping mall. He was older, certainly, but he retained the cheeky grin of his childhood.
We hadnt seen each other for years, as his family had emigrated to Australia when he was
ten years old. This had pleased me enormously, because the very mention of his name was
a source of embarrassment to me. Recently I had heard that he was back, as a teacher in
my home town. Yes, its me, I stammered, trying to regain my composure. However, standing
face to face with Ali, my cheeks burned with shame because, since I had last seen Ali, the
events of Grandfathers eightieth birthday party had, in my mind, replayed like an old, familiar
movie
Grandfather lived in our house and rarely left it, preferring instead to sit quietly in a chair 10
looking out of the window always the same chair watching family members come and go,
listening to their conversations but seldom volunteering to join in. He was a quiet, contented
old man, whose habits never varied. He had deep lines on his face which, he often told me,
were signs of experience and wisdom. When my mother announced that she would give a
15
party to celebrate his forthcoming eightieth birthday, he seemed quite pleased.
The big day arrived. Beads of perspiration stood on my mothers brow as she busied herself
energetically in the kitchen, putting the final touches to her preparations for the occasion.
Back and forth she went, carrying serving dishes to the table, stirring the contents of cooking
pots, and taking from the cupboards the huge supply of plates and glasses needed. The pots
20
on the stove simmered and bubbled, sending clouds of hot steam around the kitchen.
Suddenly, our house was full of people, as guests arrived at the appointed time. Greetings
were exchanged and people embraced, eager to catch up on news. Elderly aunts and uncles
chatted to children, who were terribly bored by the routine exclamations about how much
taller they had become. My cousin Ali arrived with his mother, who dashed into the kitchen to
offer her services to my mother, while he boasted to me about his new sandals as he stepped 25
out of them on the doorstep.
Ali never lost an opportunity to show what he perceived as his superiority over me. Smirking,
he boasted, Ive got a new bicycle. I bet its much better than yours. We went outside together,
where Ali inspected my bicycle. He hooted with laughter. That little blue bag on the saddle
looks so silly! he screamed. Because I was trying to compensate for my inferior bicycle, I 30
blurted out, Well, Ive got a watch now, and you havent. Pleased to see the envious glint in
Alis eyes, I led him to my room, took my watch from the drawer and handed it to him. Then I
snatched it back and returned it to its place, feeling extremely self-satisfied. Thats just a kids
watch, he said.
It was time that rude boy learned a lesson, I thought. As soon as I was sure that Ali had gone, I 35
took the watch out of the drawer again. Clutching it carefully, I sneaked outside without or so
I thought at the time drawing attention to myself. By now, the house was packed, the noise
levels were rising, and my mother and the other women were clattering about in the kitchen.
The party was in full swing, and this was a good time for revenge. I found Alis new sandals
among the pile lying outside the door glad that he had already pointed them out to me so 40
that they were easily recognisable and hid the watch under them. Trying to look relaxed and
innocent, I skipped past Grandfathers chair and, almost as if I were trying to convince myself
that the lie I was about to tell was true, I returned to my room. Opening the drawer, I saw that,
indeed, the watch was not there. My heart racing, I shot from my room to raise the alarm, this
time hoping to be conspicuous. I was pleased at the way things were turning out and silently 45
congratulated myself on my cleverness. Mother! I wept, dashing into the kitchen. My watch is
missing. The last person to touch it was Ali. He must have stolen it!
UCLES 2007
1120/02/INSERT/O/N/07
3
7
My mother went outside, where Ali, unaware of the accusations I had made, was cheerfully
riding my bicycle at great speed, demonstrating his skills to my two brothers, who were clearly
impressed. When my mother explained to them that my watch was missing, my brothers 50
rushed to my room to begin the search; I think they were glad to escape from Alis showing
off, and an opportunity to please their mother was no doubt a welcome diversion for them.
Meanwhile, my aunt had come from the kitchen and, taking Ali roughly by the arm, led him
back to the house. He looked so confused by events that I almost felt sorry for him. But there
55
was no turning back, I told myself, and, after all, Ali deserved to be humiliated.
By the time I got back to my room, my brothers had emptied out the contents of my drawers;
shirts and trousers made an untidy pile in the centre of the floor. My brothers looked through
the cupboard and even shook my school books, in case the watch had slipped inside one of
them. My mother arrived on the scene and joined in the search, looking under my bed and
my pillow, and further adding to the chaos in the small room. Gradually we became aware of 60
a smell wafting in our direction, not the appetising aromas which had greeted our guests on
their arrival, but the unmistakeable smell of burning food. Simultaneously, in the room next
door, my baby sister awoke. Troubled by the noise coming from my room, the banging of
cupboard doors and things being thrown on the floor, she started to cry, a whimper at first but
65
soon a pathetic wailing sound.
What exactly happened next I cant remember probably remorse and apprehension have
combined to blot it from my memory. But what I do remember is this. When I went back to
the party, Grandfather quietly called me over to his chair. Your mother told me your story,
Yusuf. But I wonder if your watch has really been stolen. He got up slowly from his chair, took
my hand and led me outside. Stooping down, he took my watch from under Alis sandal. We 70
were alone outside; from inside the house, we were aware of loud conversation, the smell of
burning, the screaming of the baby, the raised voices of my mother and brothers. My eyes met
Grandfathers and I knew that he knew the truth. Without saying a word, he put my watch into
the little blue saddlebag of my bicycle.
10 Then he whispered in my ear: Now I think you should put a stop to all the trouble youre 75
causing for Ali. Yes, he is quite annoying but, like you, hes only a child. Running indoors, I told
my mother that my watch had been found and that I had forgotten putting it into the saddlebag
of my bicycle. Both Ali and his mother glared at me, but this was Grandfathers birthday and
enough damage had been done; I knew that nothing more would be said.
11 I realised at the time that Grandfather wanted me to confess my lie but I had neither the 80
courage nor the humility to do so. However, Ali and I were only kids then, and now, fifteen
years later, here we were, two young adults, more experienced and, I hope, wiser. Yes, its
me, I repeated. And I have something to tell you. It was impossible not to think of Grandfather.
Smiling, I resolved to look in the mirror later for at least the beginnings of lines of experience
85
and wisdom.
UCLES 2007
1120/02/INSERT/O/N/07

1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02, 1125/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1 hour 30 minutes
*0353529847*

Write in dark blue or black pen.
2
From paragraph 1:
1
(a) Whom did Yusuf meet at the shopping mall?
[1]
(b) Yusuf was embarrassed and tried to regain his composure. In what two ways can we tell that
he was embarrassed?
[2]
(c) Yusuf tells us that, in his mind, the events of Grandfathers birthday replayed like an old,
familiar movie. What does this show about his memory of that day?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) Give one piece of evidence from the paragraph which shows that Grandfathers habits never
varied.
[1]
(b) Explain in your own words what, according to Grandfather, the lines on his face showed. [2]
From paragraph 3:
3
(a) Give two reasons why the mother had beads of perspiration on her brow as she set the table
and prepared the food. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
(b) Which one detail of the mothers preparation shows that she was expecting a large number of
guests that day?
[1]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) Why did the arrival of the guests happen suddenly?
[1]
(b) The children were bored when they were told how much taller they had become. Pick out and
write down the single word which tells us why they were bored.
[1]
From paragraph 5:
5
(a) Explain in your own words why Yusuf decided to tell Ali about his watch.
[2]
(b) Explain fully why Yusuf was extremely self-satisfied after he showed Ali his watch.
[2]
UCLES 2007
1120/02/O/N/07
3
From paragraph 6:
6
The writer says that the women were clattering about in the kitchen. What effect is created by this
expression that would not have been created by the word moving?
[1]
From paragraph 7:
7
Ali was cheerful because he did not know that he had been accused of stealing. What other
reason does the writer suggest to explain why Ali was cheerful as he rode Yusufs bicycle at great
speed?
[1]
From paragraph 9:
8
Grandfather knew the truth. What is the truth that he knew?
[1]
From paragraph 11:

9
And I have something to tell you. What does Yusuf have to tell Ali?
[1]
10 From the whole passage:

passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
enormously (line 4)
volunteering (line 12)
eager (line 22)
perceived (line 27)
5.
6.
7.
8.
in full swing (line 39)

shot (line 44)
chaos (line 60)
simultaneously (line 62)
[5]
11 Yusuf was angry with Ali and wanted to punish him.

Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of what Yusuf did in his attempt to
punish Ali, the search which followed and how the search ended.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must be no longer than 160
Yusuf wanted to teach Ali a lesson and so he
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1120/02/O/N/07
[25]
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Mark Scheme
GCE O LEVEL October/November 2007
Syllabus
1123
Paper
2
(a) who did Yusuf meet

[1]
Ali / his cousin / his cousin Ali

Accept lift, in whole or in part, of lines 12 (There was no mistaking my cousin Ali,
standing there in the shopping mall), even though first person rather than third person is
used. Excess denies.
(b) he was embarrassed
A. he stammered / stuttered / stumbled over his words // couldnt speak properly/ clearly /
sensibly
[1]
Accept lift, in whole or in part, of line 6 (Yes, its me..., composure), even though first
person is used. Excess denies.
B. his face was red/ flushed / his cheeks were red / flushed // he was blushing
[1]
Accept lift, in whole or in part, of line 7 (standing face to face with Ali, my cheeks burned
with shame) even though first person is used. Excess denies.
he had lost / tried to regain his composure = 0
(c) replayed like an old, familiar movie
Answer can focus on idea of replayed or of familiar
he remembered it well / vividly/ clearly // he thought of it often / a lot // he would never
forget it / he kept thinking about it / remembered it as if it were yesterday / remembered
everything about it // it was unforgettable / he cannot forget it / could not forget it / he
would always remember it
[1]
he will not / would not forget it // he still remembered it = 0

[From paragraph 1] 4 marks (1 + 2 + 1)
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2
(a) habits never varied

A. he always sat in the same chair
[1]
OR B. he rarely left the house

Under A accept lift of line 11 (always the same chair)
Under B accept lift, in whole or in part, of line 10 (Grandfather lived in our house and
rarely left it). Excess denies
Under A. preferring to sit quietly in a chair = 0(N)
Any reference to watching people come and go, or to listening to conversations, or to
being quiet, contented or old denies the mark in an otherwise correct answer. Question
asks for one piece of evidence.
(b) lines on his face showed
Note that this is an own words question. Key words are EXPERIENCE and WISDOM.
Look for required synonyms and be generous with grammatical form.
EXPERIENCE he had lived a long time / he had done many things / he had lived through
many events / he had had an eventful life / he had seen a lot // he had
learned from life / the past
[1]
skill / good fortune / intelligence / old / mature = 0(N)

WISDOM
knowledge / understanding, intelligence / cleverness // he knew a lot / he

had good judgment / perspicacity/ / was sage / sensible / enlightenment /
astuteness / insight / discernment / wit
[1]
alertness / awareness / old / mature = 0(N)

3
(a) beads of perspiration

(i) she was working hard / was using a lot of energy / going back and forth / was busy
Accept lift in whole or in part, of lines 1617 (Beads of perspiration....occasion).
Excess denies.
[1]
she was carrying serving dishes / stirring the contents of cooking pots/ taking plates
and glasses from the cupboard = 0(N)
(ii) the kitchen / pots / pans / stove was hot / there was steam in the kitchen / pots / pans /
stove
Accept lift, in whole or in part, of lines 1920 (The pots....around the kitchen).
Excess denies
But do not accept the pots on the stove simmered and bubbled (alone).
(b) expecting a large number of guests
(she needed) a huge supply / many / loads of plates/ glasses
Accept lift of line 19 (and taking plates and glasses needed). Excess denies.
[1]
[1]

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2
(a) guests arrived suddenly

they had been told to come at a particular time // they came on time / punctually / at the
appointed time / it would have been rude to come at any other time
Accept the lift of line 21 (Suddenly...appointed time). Excess denies.
[1]
They came at the same time / at once = 0

(b) the children were bored
routine
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a sentence
or expression provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
5
(a) Note that this is an own words question. Key words are COMPENSATE and INFERIOR.
Look for required synonyms and be generous with grammatical form.
COMPENSATE make up / make amends / pay back / atone / rectify (the situation) / put
things right / cover up / redress the balance / get back / get revenge /
defend himself / hide his embarrassment
[1]
give money = 0
INFERIOR
less impressive / not so good / worse / bad / second rate / not making the
grade / cheaper / poorer /
OR Alis bicycle was better / superior // Ali was boasting about his bicycle /
criticising / laughing at Alis bicycle
(Accept either positive or comparative)
[1]
subordinate / silly / small = 0, Yusuf was trying to make Ali jealous

(b) extremely self-satisfied
A. Ali was jealous / envious / (of Yusuf) / covetous / Yusuf had got his own back / turned
the tables
Accept, in whole or in part, lift of lines 3132 (pleased to see the envious glint in Alis
eyes)
B. because Ali didnt have a watch / because Yusuf had a watch and he / Ali didnt / Ali
wished that he had a watch / he had something that Ali didnt have
Note that this second limb cannot be scored by lifting
[1]
[1]
Do not insist on agents throughout, but any suggestion that it is Yusuf who is envious or
who has no watch denies the mark for the limb in which it occurs. But avoid the double
penalty.
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2
clattering
(they were making a lot of) noise / din / racket // everyone could hear them // there was sound /
noise as well as movement
[1]
talking = 0 (N)
7
Ali was cheerful

he was showing off (to Yusufs brothers) // Yusufs brothers were impressed / over-awed // he
had an audience // he was the centre of attention // people were watching him / thought he
was great / clever/ talented/ good at riding a bicycle
[1]
Lift of lines 4850 (My mother....clearly impressed) = 0. Candidates must distil one reason
But lift of line 4950 (demonstrating his skills (to my two brothers who were clearly impressed)) = 1
8
Grandfather knew the truth

that Yusuf had hidden the watch // that Ali had not stolen the watch // that Yusuf had been
trying to get Ali into trouble / to get revenge // that Yusuf had told a lie // that the watch had not
been stolen
[1]

9
I have something to tell you

that he had told a lie about Ali // that he had said that Ali had stolen his watch // that he had
tried to get Ali into trouble // that he had treated Ali badly
the truth (about the watch / what happened at the party)
[1]
Do not insist on Ali and Yusuf being mentioned by name, as the question wording allows for
sensible use of pronouns, but withhold the mark if agents are wrongly used.
He had been angry with Ali = 0
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Mark Scheme
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Paper
2
Mark only the first FIVE words attempted

For two answers joined by 'and', allow one correct answer if the other answer is not
wholly wrong but neutral, e.g. 'shared and simple for 'common'.
If answers are numbered and the question-word has been given as well, credit a
correct answer even if the numbering does not agree.

1 mark
Regard as 0(N) unless indicated

as 0(W)
enormously
(line 4)
greatly / very much / a lot /

tremendously / hugely / a great
deal / immensely / intensely
/considerably / colossally
/mightily/ prodigiously / vastly /
really /massively / highly /
extremely / so much / loads / in a
large amount
largely / fully / completely /

considerably / entirely / mostly /
excessively
volunteering
(line 12)
offering // doing it willingly / by

choice /readily/ unprompted /
unsolicited // without being forced
/ coerced / asked // willing /
deciding himself / of his own
volition
wanting / desiring / helping/

spontaneously / freely/
participating
eager
(line 22)
anxious/ keen / avid/ agog /

raring / yearning / enthusiastic /
impatient / happy / pleased / glad
/ delighted / longing / intent / cant
wait / desperate / looking
forward(to) / excited
ready / volunteering /interested/

willing / curious / wanting to /
desiring
perceived
(line 27)
saw / recognised / understood /

knew / thought / considered /
viewed / was aware of /
visualised / discerned /
apprehended / imagined /
believed / assumed /felt / took as
detected / found out / examined /

inspected / guessed /
estimated/measured
in full swing
(line 39)
underway / in progress / had

begun / lively / buzzing //
everyone was happy / enjoying
themselves / having a great time
// on the go / in top gear / rocking
/ going on
hanging / moving / dangling /

swinging / at its peak / starting / in
the middle
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shot
(line 44)
dashed / rushed / sped / hurried /

flew / hurtled / whizzed / zoomed
scurried //went quickly / fast /
speedily / rapidly / swiftly /
promptly /hastily / without delay /
expeditiously / immediately /
promptly // sprinted / ran /
exploded / raced / tore / burst /
erupted
banged / plunged / went
chaos
(line 60)
disorder / muddle / mayhem /

disharmony / discord / unruliness
/ mess / jumble / shambles / mix
up / bedlam / disarray /
confusion/ lack of order /
pandemonium / uproar /
commotion / turmoil / tumult
anarchy / untidiness / war / fight /

neglect / rebellion / noise /
revolution / trouble / destruction /
catastrophe / lack of control /
racket / riot
simultaneously
(line 63)
at the same time // at that

moment / time / point // coinciding
(with) / concurrently /
contemporaneously / meanwhile
similarly / contemporary /
together / in chorus / in unison /
suddenly / continuously / side by
side
5 marks (5 x 1)
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2
11 MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 OUT OF 19 FOR POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 10

MARKS FOR STYLE (See pages 1011 for the Style marking method.)
NOTES:
1.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
4.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
5.
Marking Technique
Indicate by numbered tick the point rewarded, e.g. 3
Assign the mark-scheme number to points rewarded on all scripts.
Assess qualities of Style separately. Add the Style Mark to the Content Mark and
show as a ringed total in the right-hand margin.
For answers shorter than the 150 words apply the following maxima for the Style mark:
0-25 (0); 26-50 (2); 51-75 (4); 76-100 (6); 101-125 (8)
If the candidate uses note-form throughout the answer, give 0 for the Style mark but allow
7.
Sequence errors
unsupported. Do not penalise the point that then follows.
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2
Line No.
Yusuf wanted to teach Ali a lesson and so he

1.
took the watch out of the drawer
36
2.
and took it outside / he went outside
36
3.
he hid / put the watch under Alis sandals
41
4.
he returned to his room
43
5.
he checked / saw that his watch was not in the drawer / looked for the watch
4344
6.
he shot from his room // went to the kitchen // went (to tell) his mother
4447
7.
he told his mother that his watch was missing / that Ali had stolen his watch // he raised the
alarm
8.
9.
47
his mother told his brothers that the watch was missing (asked brothers to look for he watch
=0)
51
his brothers went to his room (to look for the watch) (but need context of search)
52
10. his brothers emptied (out the contents) of his drawers
57
11. they looked through the cupboard

OR 10A they searched everywhere / thoroughly = 1
5859
if there is no 10,11 or 12
12. they shook /looked in /through his (school) books
12A they caused chaos/ turned room upside down/ made a mess/ threw things on floor
60,64
13. his mother came to search // looked under the bed / the pillow
60
14. he returned to the party
6869
15. Grandfather called Yusuf (over to him)
69
16. Grandfather told him he had heard that / wondered if his watch was missing // knew Yusuf was
lying // knew the truth
69-70
17. Grandfather led took Yusuf outside
71
18. Grandfather found the watch under Alis sandal // took the watch from (under) Alis sandal
71
19. Grandfather put the watch into the saddlebag (of his bicycle)
75
(Rubric calls for third person. Penalise confusion of persons as single errors for each switch, and
assess as normal under UE.)
25 marks (15 + 10)
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SUMMARY QUESTION 1120-1125/02 & 1115/02: STYLE ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH. The table which follows on the next page provides descriptors of the mark levels
assigned to these TWO categories.
In assessing the overall mark for Style, first of all assign the script to a mark level under the
category of OWN WORDS. Then arrive at the mark level for USE OF ENGLISH. Before
deciding the mark for this level, take the accuracy of the writing into account, in particular the
absence or frequency of serious errors. Underline only serious errors.
Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two.
Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number. Add this mark to the Content mark
and show as a total in the right-hand margin.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Serious tense errors
Serious errors of sentence structure, especially in setting up subordination
Omission or obvious misuse of prepositions
Wholesale misunderstanding over the meanings of words used
Serious errors of agreement
Ingrained weakness of punctuation, i.e. the habitual comma replacing the necessary full stop
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Mis-spellings of a minor nature. Count as a serious error when the form of the word is
severely mangled.
Indicate how you arrived at your mark for OW and UE, either by a short comment at the
end of the script or by use of left margin.
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2

Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
USE OF ENGLISH
109

109

Any occasional errors are either slips or
minor errors. Sentence structure is varied
and there is a marked ability to use original
complex syntax outside text structures.
Punctuation is accurate and helpful to the
reader.
Spelling is secure across the full range of
vocabulary used.

87

87
The language is almost always accurate.

Serious errors will be so isolated as to be
almost unnoticeable.
Sentences show variation, including original
complex syntax.
Punctuation is accurate and generally
helpful.
65

Attempt may be limited by patches of
irrelevance or by oblique or
generalised relevance.
65

Simple structures tend to dominate and
serious errors are not frequent, although they
are noticeable.
Where sentences show some variety and
complexity, they will generally be lifted from
the text.
sophisticated structures are attempted.
Punctuation is generally accurate. Spelling
is mostly secure.

43

the text, but not a complete transcript,
will be limited to single word expression.
Mangled or nonsensical relevance,
often a patchwork of the text
43
Meaning is not in doubt but serious errors

are becoming more frequent.
Some simple structures will be accurate,
although this accuracy is not sustained for
long.
Simple punctuation will usually be correct,
with occasional errors of sentence
separation. Spelling is largely accurate,
20

There will also be random transcription
of irrelevant sections of the text.
20

Fractured syntax is much more pronounced
at this level.
Errors of sentence separation are liable to be
frequent.
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2
Note 1: Scripts placed in last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score middle box for
UE as this is the best fit box.
Note 2: Relevance and irrelevance:
(i)
wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4

max for Style. Use incidence of errors to assess mark out of 4. Such scripts are rare.
(ii) recognisable OW limited by some irrelevance :5/6 for OW. Mark UE as normal.
(iii) Oblique or generalised relevance: 5/6 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
(iv) Mangled or nonsensical relevance: 3/4 or 1/2 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
UCLES 2007
1123 English Language November 2007
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
As with last year, this Paper offered a narrative topic which seemed to be accessible to most candidates and
to engage their interest. It was felt that a family setting was appropriate and within the understanding and
experience of most candidates. The majority attempted all questions and completed a summary of the
required length.
understood the nature of the examination. Almost the entire range of marks was seen. Examiners reported
very few rubric infringements.
Candidates seemed to be familiar with the layout of the paper and, in the main, the types of questions likely
to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper, although not all managed to offer
both a rough draft and a fair copy of their response to the summary question. Some candidates who did
manage to produce both a rough and a fair copy did not delete the rough copy, suggesting that it was the
rough copy they wished to have marked; such candidates jeopardised their chance of success and gave
extra work to Examiners.
The paper followed the usual pattern. Twenty five marks were allocated to the testing of literal
comprehension, inferential comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers craft.
A further twenty five marks were allocated to the summary question, these marks being divided between
assessment of ability to select content points from the text and assessment of the ability to express these
points fluently and in own words. As in previous years, the type of question giving most difficulty was the
question which required candidates to answer in their own words; some candidates seemed to ignore this
rubric or, even when they identified the key words for recasting, found it impossible to find synonyms.
However, Examiners continue to report a pleasing reduction in the number of candidates simply ignoring the
rubric instruction to use their own words.
A few candidates wasted time by copying out each question before answering it, or by copying out the entire
stem of the question in their answer. A few candidates wrote in the margin of the paper: this made marking
and correct totalling of marks difficult for Examiners.
Many Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and handwriting, and the fact that spelling and
punctuation were generally very good.

Question 1(a) was designed, as the opening question, to ease candidates into the examination with a fairly
accessible test; the vast majority of candidates scored this easy opening mark by writing that Yusuf met Ali,
or his cousin, at the shopping mall.
Two marks were available in Question 1(b), one mark for the answer that Yusuf stammered and one mark
for the answer that he blushed. The question did not specify that the two pieces of information should be
numbered, but most candidates sensibly numbered them, or at least indicated the separation by the syntax
of their answer. This question proved to be a remarkably good discriminator so early in the paper, since,
although it was perfectly straightforward for able candidates, who gained both marks, many weaker students
were completely baffled by it. Answers offered by such candidates included He retained the cheeky grin of
his childhood, the very mention of his name was a source of embarrassment, reference to his familys
emigration to Australia and the fact that Ali was now a teacher. Some candidates offered suggestions as to
why Yusuf was embarrassed rather than how it was clear that he was.
The mark for Question 1(c) was scored by candidates who picked up the nuance of old, familiar movie and
wrote that Yusufs memory of the day was unforgettable, or that he remembered it well; correct answers had
to focus on the memory and not merely the event. Thus answers such as he remembered the event were
not sufficient as they only repeated the question rather than answered it: a response to the quality of the
memory was needed. Weaker candidates did not understand the image at all.
Many candidates failed to score the mark for Question 2(a) because they ignored the rubric instruction to
give one piece of evidence which showed that Grandfathers habits never varied; many candidates spoiled
an otherwise correct answer by offering more than one piece of evidence, sometimes through unwise lifting
from the passage and sometimes through what was probably some instinct to play safe with their answers.
There were two possible options in correctly answering this question; one was to write that Grandfather
rarely left the house, and the other was to write that he always sat in the same chair. For the first option,
candidates could lift from line 10 (Grandfather lived in our house and rarely left it) but, if they strayed into a
reference from the following section of the passage, the mark was denied. If the candidate correctly wrote
that Grandfather always sat in the same chair, and then copied watching family members come and go or
listening to their conversations, the mark was not withheld, but if they presented watching family members
or looking out of the window as separate answers, (e.g. he always sat on the same chair and he watched
family members come and go) then the mark was withheld. Similarly, the mark was denied to candidates
who wrote that Grandfather seldom left the house and always sat in the same chair; although both of these
answers were correct, the rubric asked for one piece of evidence, not two.
Question 2(b) was the first of the two questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words. It presented the original difficulty that the candidates were required to isolate the key words for
re-casting, namely experience and wisdom. Many candidates were successful with wisdom offering
correct synonyms such as knowledge, understanding or intelligence. However, experience proved more
difficult and correct synonyms such as he had done many things or what he had done in life were less
commonly seen; the main difficulty with re-casting this word was that there were few single word answers;
instead, using phrases was the best method to adopt. A common wrong answer was old; although
experience may accompany old age, the two terms are not synonymous.
Two marks were available in Question 3(a), one for each correct limb. The first reason why the mother had
beads of perspiration on her brow was because she was working hard, or using up a lot of energy. The mark
could be scored by lifting, in whole or in part, from the passage at lines 16-17 (Beads of perspiration stood
on my mothers brow as she busied herself energetically in the kitchen, putting the final touches to her
preparations for the big occasion), but straying outside those parameters denied the mark. Very many
candidates were successful here, but far fewer scored the mark for the second limb. This mark was scored
for the correct answer that the mothers perspiration was caused by the steam or heat in the kitchen or
coming from the pots or the food. The mark could be scored by lifting from the passage at lines 19-20 (The
pots on the stove simmered and bubbled, sending clouds of hot steam around the kitchen) but straying
outside this lifted section denied the mark. Some candidates answered wrongly in this question that the
mothers perspiration was caused by stress or anxiety, or by the fact that she had no-one to help her;
however, there was no evidence in the text to support such assertions and they consequently were not
awarded. Most candidates scored the mark in the relatively straightforward Question 3(b) by writing that it
was possible to tell that a large number of guests were expected because the mother was taking a huge
supply of plates and glasses from the cupboards; some spoiled their answer by writing that she took huge
plates and glasses from the cupboard.
Very many candidates gave a correct answer to Question 4(a), namely that the arrival of the guests
happened suddenly because they were punctual or on time or, as the passage said, that they arrived at the
appointed time. Those who wrote that they arrived at the same time were not rewarded, although this was
not enough to deny the mark in an otherwise correct answer. The mark for Question 4(b) was awarded to
candidates who offered the single word routine; some candidates spoiled their answer by writing routine
exclamations, which was a rubric infringement and could not be rewarded. Other wrong answers were
taller and chatted; others offered terribly, which showed how much the children were bored rather than
why they were bored, which was the question asked. Other candidates who did score the mark wasted time
by couching their answer in an elaborate sentence which copied out the stem of the question.
Question 5 was the most difficult question on the Paper and successfully fulfilled its purpose of
differentiating candidates. Question 5(a) was the second of the questions on the Paper which required
candidates to answer in their own words. The trigger to understanding why Yusuf decided to tell Ali about
his watch was the word because at line 30, which in turn was designed to lead the candidates to the
answer: he was trying to compensate for his inferior bicycle. Thus the key words for re-casting were
compensate, with synonyms such as make up for, redress the balance or pay back, and inferior , with
synonyms such as cheaper, not so good, or second-rate. Wide and generous interpretations of the key
words were allowed here, such as get revenge for compensate; the idea of inferior could be re-cast either
by focusing on Yusufs bicycle (it was less impressive etc.) or Alis bicycle (it was better etc.) and the idea
could be expressed in either comparative or superlative form. (Alis bicycle was better or Alis bicycle was
best etc.) Candidates fared better with synonyms for inferior than they did with synonyms for compensate.
Some failed to score because they concentrated on the generally provocative attitude and behaviour of Ali,
trying to put into their own words the opening sentence of paragraph 5: Ali never lost an opportunity to show
what he perceived as his superiority over me. They thus concentrated on the idea of general superiority
rather than the idea of owning better possessions. Others gave answers concerned with Alis jealousy and
the fact that he had no watch, which would have merited two marks had they been offered as an answer to
Question 5(b).
Question 5(b) was also a discerning question designed to differentiate candidates, and this is what it
succeeded in doing. Candidates were required to focus on the watch and not the bicycle, whereas in
Question 5(a) they were required to focus on the bicycle and not the watch. The word fully in the question,
combined with the allocation of two marks, suggested two limbs to the answer. The first limb could be
scored by lifting: Yusuf was self-satisfied because he saw the envious glint in Alis eyes, although clearly an
own words interpretation was acceptable, such as Ali was jealous. The second limb was that Ali did not
have a watch: this point had to be inferred and the mark could not be scored by lifting. Consequently, the
first mark (for the reference to envy) was scored more often than the second. Some candidates came close
to the second mark by writing that Yusuf had a better watch than Ali, whereas the accurate answer was that
Yusuf had a watch and Ali did not.
Question 6 was a question testing both vocabulary and appreciation of the writers craft. Candidates had to
know or to infer that the extra effect created by the word clattering was related to sound or noise.
Consequently, the mark could be scored by merely making a reference to noise; however, this noise was not
the sound of talking or conversation - perhaps some candidates confused clattering with chattering.
Candidates who referred to talking did not score the mark, but the mark was not withheld in an otherwise
correct answer. Popular wrong answers were moving about busily and moving in all directions.
Question 7 proved to be within the grasp of the vast majority of candidates and was a straightforward test
between the difficult Question 5 and the challenges of the summary question. The mark could be gained by
writing that Ali was cheerful because he was showing off to Yusufs brothers, or merely that he was showing
off; the mark could also be scored by lifting at line 49: demonstrating his skills. Where candidates failed to
score the mark here, it tended to be because they wrote that Ali was better at riding a bicycle than Yusufs
brothers; this did not score the mark because it could not be substantiated by the text.
The mark could be scored in Question 8 in a variety of ways. The truth that Grandfather knew was that
Yusuf was lying, or that the watch had not been stolen or that Yusuf was trying to frame Ali or get him into
trouble. The question was generally well answered. Weak or vague responses such as he knew what was
going on were not accurate enough to score the mark. Similarly, answers such as he knew that Ali had
been accused of theft did not score because, although this fact was true, it was not a truth specific to
Grandfather.
Similarly, Question 9 could be answered in a variety of acceptable ways. The mark could be gained by
writing that Yusuf wanted to tell Ali the truth, or to tell him that he lied about him, or that he had tried to get Ali
into trouble. As with Question 8, there was several vague answers which could not score, such as Yusuf
had caused the problem or Yusuf wanted to say he was sorry, without specifying the crucial details
concerning the truth. Answers such as he had accused Ali of stealing could not be rewarded, because this
information was not new to Ali. Weakest of all were those answers which betrayed incomprehension by
simply lifting from the passage, e.g. It was impossible not to think of Grandfather or I realised at the time
that Grandfather wanted me to confess my lie but I had neither the courage nor the humility to do so.
eight. Examiners reported a reasonable spread among the words and phrases chosen by the candidates. A
reasonable degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered: greatly or immensely or
even a lot for enormously; dashed or hurried or even ran for shot; and at the same time for
simultaneously. A popular wrong answer for enormously was largely; this is an attractive answer, but
means mostly rather than greatly and is therefore incorrect. The least popular choices were probably
volunteering, meaning offering or doing it willingly, and perceived, meaning saw or knew. Popular
wrong answers for volunteering were wanting or wishing. Candidates scored reasonably well by offering
synonyms such as confusion or havoc for chaos, and synonyms such as impatient or anxious for
eager. The mark for in full swing could most easily be scored by writing another phrase rather than a
single synonym everyone was enjoying themselves or everyone was having a good time; popular wrong
answers here were busy or crowded or at its peak. Examiners reported a full range of marks in this
question. They also reported, as usual, some candidates giving the question word in a sentence rather than
trying to explain its meaning, but such cases were very few. As ever, there were some candidates who
offered two or three synonyms for each word; such candidates must realise that only the first word offered
will be credited. Another misconception among a few candidates was that all of the words would need to be
tackled, or perhaps that the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must understand that only
the first five attempts will be looked at by the Examiner.
The final question on the paper, Question 11, was, as is customary, the summary question, carrying half the
total marks for the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise what Yusuf did in his attempt to punish Ali,
the search which followed and how the search ended. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base
their summary on just more than half of the original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their
own words, using a maximum of 160 words, the first ten of which were given. They were to write in
continuous prose, not note form. They were to draw material from lines 33 to 74, which was paragraphs six
to nine inclusive; many candidates ignored this rubric and used irrelevant material from paragraph ten.
There were twenty content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen
points carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the summary
question, often with a rough draft and a fair draft. However, as indicated earlier, there continued to be the
incidence reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft, thus failing to make it clear to the
Examiner which version was to be marked. A very small number of candidates forfeited their Style mark by
writing their summary in note form rather than continuous prose.
There were seven content points available in paragraph six. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that Yusuf took his watch
out of the drawer. The paragraph went on to explain that Yusuf took his watch outside, hid it under Alis
sandal, returned to his room, checked that his watch was not in the drawer, went to the kitchen and told his
mother that Ali had stolen his watch. Better candidates fared well here in that they successfully altered the
first person narrative of the original text to third person, and also changed some direct speech into reported
speech.
In paragraph seven, another two content points were available. Yusufs mother told his brothers that the
watch was missing and they went to Yusufs room to look for it. Many candidates wasted words here by
giving irrelevant information about Ali riding Yusufs bicycle or Alis mother taking him roughly by the arm
none of this was related to the rubric need to describe the search, and was therefore not relevant. Many
candidates wrote that Yusufs mother told his brothers to search the room, which was inaccurate and
therefore did nit score a mark.
A further five marks were awarded in paragraph eight to candidates who wrote that Yusufs brothers emptied
out his drawers, searched through his cupboard and searched through his books, that they caused chaos
and that they were joined in their search by their mother, or that their mother looked under the bed or the
pillow. Candidates attempts to summarise the search sometimes meant that Yusufs mothers search and
that of his brothers were treated as simultaneous and identical, rather than differentiated A mark was
awarded as an alternative to candidates who chose to summarise the details of the search by writing that the
brothers made a thorough search, or that they searched everywhere, rather than the specific details about
the drawer, the cupboard or the books.
In paragraph nine, six marks were awarded to candidates who wrote that Yusuf returned to the party, that
Grandfather called him over, that Grandfather told him he had heard that his watch was missing or,
alternatively, that Grandfather knew the truth, that Grandfather led Yusuf outside, that he took the watch from
under Alis sandal and that he put it into the saddlebag of Yusufs bicycle. Many candidates missed a mark
in this area because they wrote that Grandfather told Yusuf that he knew the truth; this was incorrect and an
attempt at the information in paragraph ten in any case.
reported that ability to use own words, rather than those of the original text, varied from candidate to
candidate and even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates are becoming more skilful at
recasting the original text in their own words. Many managed to amass a good score for content points
without resorting to inordinate lifting, and with good basic expression and reasonably successful handling of
their own reconstruction of the relevant material. Nevertheless, many candidates wasted words on irrelevant
material such as Alis showing-off on the bicycle, his mothers punishment of him, and the references to the
burning food and the awakening baby sister. There was a much lower incidence of copying than in the past.
However, there were still some very weak candidates who lifted almost indiscriminately from the text,
producing little more than a random transcript which scored badly on use of own words and, inevitably, did
little to pick up relevant content points. Some other weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily
on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for use of own words, but in so doing they gained several marks
for content points. It seemed that some candidates had been taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter
strategy and, as has been reported in previous years, it may be a good course of action for candidates who
are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English. However, only those candidates who were competent
and confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original complex
sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style.
Some candidates wrote a generalised account of the narrative, stressing the relative characteristics of Yusuf
and Ali, for example, or giving the morale of the story boasting never pays, or boasting needs to be tackled
etc. rather than confining themselves to the rubric. Such generalisation results in few content points being
scored, as content points are quite specific. It seems that such generalised relevance is often found in
substantial numbers of scripts from the same Centres.
prepositions, omission of definite and indefinite articles, and inconsistent and illogical verb tenses. As
already indicated, spelling and punctuation were generally very good, and handwriting clear, although
Examiners again reported a few problems with some handwriting being so small as to be almost illegible.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
May/June 2008
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
2
Dolphins
1
Dolphins are very much in vogue these days. Along with rainbows, they have become a
symbol of a new age of love, peace and harmony. Although, like human beings, they are
mammals, they have adapted surprisingly well to an environment completely different from
our own. There is no doubt that people love these aquatic creatures, considering them to be
both intelligent and beautiful.
This fascination with dolphins is not a novelty; they have delighted people for centuries and they
occupy a special place in folklore around the world. For example, the ancient Mediterranean
cultures believed that the dolphin represented the vital power of the sea, and early Greek
mythology describes many encounters between their gods and dolphins. Dolphins graced
many forms of art in ancient societies. Killing a dolphin was punished by the death penalty. 10
Around the world, many cultures believed that any intentional harm done to a dolphin could
cause ill-fortune or mortal sickness.
Dolphins are able to make sounds in the form of little clicks, through which they communicate
with each other. Many dolphins are able to leap high out of the water, sometimes to indicate
the presence of fish to their companions, and sometimes simply out of exuberance. As well 15
as making clicking sounds, they make other sounds which damage the balance of their prey,
making it easier to capture. They are also able to work out where their prey is by listening to
the echoes of the sounds which their prey makes. This special ability is called echolocation,
and it enables dolphins to explore their environment over a wider distance than eyesight
allows, and to find their prey in a dark, watery world where sight is often of little use.
20
Modern, efficient methods have been introduced that allow fishermen to bring in record
catches. However, these methods make no distinction between fish and dolphins, so that the
latter then often become the victims of these environmentally destructive fishing methods.
In some parts of the world, fishermen have noticed that particularly large tuna fish swim
underneath dolphins. Realising, therefore, that financially rewarding catches of tuna fish await 25
those willing to take advantage of the tuna-dolphin bond, the fishermen deliberately net these
dolphins in order to catch the tuna swimming below them.
Modern fishing nets, unlike those in even the recent past, are made of very strong materials
which dolphins can neither detect nor break and, in some places, local fishermen use these
nets with the specific intention of catching dolphins for food. It is difficult not to have some 30
sympathy for these fishermen. In many fishing communities, fish stocks on which people
have always depended are dwindling. The sea provides their best food, but local people
are unable to compete with the huge fishing vessels which have recently been sent into
their waters by large international companies. As a result, they have to turn to whatever food
sources remain, simply in order to survive, and the only available food is often dolphins.
35
It is not only sea dolphins that are under threat; river dolphins are also in danger of extinction
because of human behaviour. They frequently become entangled in fishing nets used by local
people whose overriding concern is feeding their families. Other dolphins are accidentally
caught on large fishing hooks strung in lines along river beds. It is perfectly understandable
that people respond to the need to provide food for their families by fishing in local rivers, but 40
their fishing equipment is a major hazard for dolphins. Pesticides, which are used to boost
crop production in agricultural areas, pollute the nearby rivers, and the dolphins living there
stand no chance against these powerful poisons. When rivers flow through areas where there
are a lot of factories, these beautiful creatures can be poisoned by factory waste, which is
often dumped in rivers; this waste may be hidden, but it is still present and highly dangerous. 45
UCLES 2008
1120/02/INSERT/M/J/08
3
7
In many parts of the world, dams are constructed either to provide water to irrigate crops
or to produce hydro-electric power. However, the benefits brought about by these dams are
offset by the damage done to dolphins, which are prevented from swimming upstream to
breed, as are the small, migratory fish on which they feed. Thus an important food source
for dolphins is seriously depleted. In some countries, the construction of dams has led to the 50
extinction of many species of river dolphin. Dams restrict the flow of fresh water in nearby
rivers, and the lack of fresh water deprives dolphins of oxygen. In addition, dams separate
dolphins into small, isolated groups that cannot interbreed. The threat to river dolphins means
that government organisations need to consider holding workshops to deliberate on what can
be done to save river dolphins.
55
In some countries, the meat of river dolphins is considered to have medicinal properties,
and consequently they are killed in large uncontrolled numbers. But, as with sea dolphins,
the majority of deaths are caused inadvertently. Many river dolphins have been found with
appalling injuries after collisions with boats and, as the volume of boat traffic in many parts of
the world is likely to grow, the probability of such encounters is bound to increase. The noise 60
caused by boats interferes with the dolphins hearing, reducing their ability to locate food.
Furthermore, there is plenty of evidence to suggest that the turbulence caused by dense river
traffic reduces the ability of these sensitive creatures to navigate their territory.
However, there are signs of changing attitudes towards the plight of river dolphins. In China,
they have been officially recognised as a protected species, along with the giant panda and 65
other critically threatened creatures. The Chinese government has taken extensive and
surprising measures to educate local people through films, posters and even postage stamps.
All of this has been greeted with interest by local people. More importantly, associations have
been set up, run by local volunteers, to educate fishermen in fishing methods designed to stop
the harm which is often done to river dolphins, however unintentionally. These associations 70
are often delighted at how quickly ordinary people understand the importance of urgent action
to conserve river dolphins. One association has raised public awareness by persuading a
nearby factory to use the river dolphin as its trademark, and other companies have rushed
to follow their example, with a dolphin hotel, a dolphin department store, dolphin shoes
the public imagination has been caught! Not surprisingly, the river dolphin is becoming a 75
household name and its survival problems are well known.
10 In one part of China, a nature reserve has been built to protect river dolphins. Funded by
government money and public donations, this reserve provides a protected breeding area
for river dolphins, which, it is hoped, will result in an increase in the dolphin population. Local
support for this project is considerable, since it is likely to provide new jobs and has a great 80
potential as a tourist attraction. A hospital has also been constructed where injured dolphins
are treated until they are well enough to be returned to the river.
11 We should be heartened by such conservation stories. Nevertheless, through our arrogance
and ignorance we have already managed to cause tremendous harm to our environment.
Dolphins are in the unfortunate position of acting as living indicators of the effects of this 85
damage. They are symbolic not only of love, peace and harmony, but of what we have done,
and are still doing, to our planet.
UCLES 2008
1120/02/INSERT/M/J/08

1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2008
1 hour 30 minutes
*5102046320*

This document consists of 3 printed pages, 1 blank page and 1 insert.
2
From paragraph 1:
1
Give one reason why, according to the writer, people love dolphins.
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) How can we tell that in some cultures dolphins were considered to be as important as human
beings?
[1]
(b) What did people in many cultures believe could be the result of intentionally harming a
dolphin? Answer in your own words.
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
(a) In what two ways do dolphins use their ability to make sounds? Number your answers (i) and
(ii).
[2]
(b) Give two reasons to explain why dolphins leap high out of the water. Answer in your own
words.
[2]
(c) What single feature of the dolphins environment means that their eyesight is often of little
use in catching their prey?
[1]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) According to the writer, what benefit do fishermen derive from the modern fishing methods?
[1]
(b) In what way are modern fishing methods environmentally destructive?
[1]
(c) Explain fully the benefits gained by fishermen who take advantage of the tuna-dolphin bond.
[2]
From paragraph 5:
5
(a) Why, even in the recent past, were fishermen less likely to be able to catch dolphins than
fishermen today?
[1]
(b) Explain fully why in the past local fishermen did not need to kill dolphins for food.
UCLES 2008
1120/02/M/J/08
[2]
3
From paragraph 8:
6
Why is it unlikely that there will be a reduction in the number of dolphins killed in collisions with
boats?
[1]
From paragraph 9:
7
What does the writer suggest by adding the word even in line 67?
[1]
From paragraph 11:

8
In your own words, explain why, according to the writer, we have caused tremendous harm to
our environment.
[2]
From the whole passage:

passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
in vogue (line 1)
delighted (line 6)
distinction (line 22)
overriding (line 38)
5.
6.
7.
8.
deliberate (line 54)

inadvertently (line 58)
appalling (line 59)
heartened (line 83)
[5]
10 The passage describes the ways in which both sea dolphins and river dolphins are under threat in
modern times.
Using your own words as far as possible, summarise the difficulties and dangers encountered
by river dolphins and the steps taken to protect them.
River dolphins are under threat from many human activities because
UCLES 2008
1120/02/M/J/08
[25]
Page 2
'people love
dolphins
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
they are intelligent/beautiful
[1]
Accept lift of lines 45 (There is no doubt....beautiful), even though it includes

two characteristics. Excess denies.
Aquatic/mammals/symbols of new age etc. = 0(N) but mark first answer only,
e.g. they are intelligent and they are symbols of a new age/they are intelligent
mammals = 1 BUT they are mammals and are intelligent = 0
(From paragraph 1) [1 mark]
2
(a) as important
as human
beings
killing dolphins carried the death penalty/killers of dolphins were put to death/
executed
[1]
Accept lift of line 10 (Killing a dolphin was punished by the death penalty).
Excess denies.
Any reference to dolphins gracing art, having a place in folklore, representing
the power of the sea, = 0(W) and denies the mark in an otherwise correct
answer.
(b) result of
harming a
dolphin
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are ILL-FORTUNE
and MORTAL.
A. ILL-FORTUNE bad luck/trouble//bad/nasty/undesirable/unwanted things
could happen
[1]
B. MORTAL
deadly/fatal//leading to/causing death/extinction//making

you/one die/perish/expire
[1]
Do not insist on synonyms for sickness. Be generous with grammatical form.

Label answers A. and B.
From paragraph 2 [3 marks (1 + 2)]
3
(a) 'ability to
make
sounds
(i)
to communicate//pass/send/messages
sounds = 0
[1]
Accept lift, in whole or in part, of lines 1314 (Dolphins are able...each

other). Excess denies.
(ii) to damage the balance of their prey/fish/food they want (to catch)
[1]
Accept lift, in whole or in part, of lines 1517 (As well as making.....to

capture) Excess denies.
Any reference to leap high indicate fish or exuberance = 0(W) ,
denying mark in an otherwise correct limb.
UCLES 2008
Page 3
(b) dolphins leap

...out of the
water
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are INDICATE
and EXUBERANCE
A. INDICATE show/point out/demonstrate/mark/intimate/signify/signal//
give a sign of/communicate (sic)
[1]
suggest/hint/warn = 0
B. EXUBERANCE
happiness/joy/high spirits/glee/gaiety/excitement
high =0
[1]
Do not insist on synonyms for the presence of fish or simply. Be

generous with grammatical form.
Label answers A and B.
(c) single feature
...environment
darkness/(it is) dark/there is no light

watery = 0
they cant see = 0. Answer must be a feature of the environment.
Lift of line 20 (to find their prey in a dark, watery world) = 0.
If more than one feature is offered, give 0.
[1]
From paragraph 3 [5 marks (2 + 2 + 1)]

4
(a) 'benefit fishermen (they bring in) record catches (of fish)//more/a lot of fish (confusion
derive...fishing
between fish and dolphins = 0(W)
methods
efficient (sic)/efficiency/better results
[1]
Accept lift of line 2122 (Modern...record catches). Run-on into However,
these methods..... denies the mark.
(b) environmentally
destructive
they catch/trap/kill dolphins/other creatures (apart from fish)//they dont

just/only catch/trap/kill fish
[1]
Accept lift of lines 2223 (However, these methods make no
distinction.....destructive fishing methods), even although syntax is
inaccurate. Excess denies.
(c) tuna-dolphin
bond
(they make/get/obtain)
rewards
money/cash/financial
benefits/financial
[1]
Lift of lines 2526 (Realising, therefore......tuna-dolphin bond) = 0.

But they realise that financial....bond = 1
B
(they catch/get/obtain) big/large fish/tuna

Accept positive, comparative or superlative
[1]
Lift of lines 24-25 (fishermen have noticed etc.) = 0 This is an

observation only and does not answer the question.
Mark the first two reasons only, but be generous with the candidates
division.
From paragraph 4 [4 marks (1 + 1 + 2)]
UCLES 2008
Page 4
(a) fishermen less

likelyto catch
dolphins
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
their nets were not strong (enough)/as strong as nets today/modern nets//
their nets were not made of strong material/were not made of material as
strong as material used today
OR dolphins/they could see/detect/discover/find out/the nets (of
fishermen in the past)//
dolphins/they could break/destroy the nets (of fishermen in the past) [1]
Lift of lines 2829 (Modern fishing nets....detect nor break) = 0. Focus of
question is fishermen in the past
(b) fishermen did not A they had enough fish/food//fish stocks were not dwindling (as they are
today)
[1]
need to kill
dolphins for food
Lift of lines 3132 (In many....dwindling) = 0. Question calls for a
response about the past.
B
they did not have to compete with large/huge fishing

vessels/international companies (sent into their waters)//there was no
competition
[1]
Lift of lines 3234 (The sea provides.....companies) = 0. Question calls for

a response about the past.
Mark the first two reasons only, but be generous with the candidates
division.
From paragraph 5 [3 marks (1 + 2)]
6
reduction in the
number of dolphins
there will be more/an increase in the number of boats
[1]
Accept, in whole or in part, the lift of lines 5960 (as the volume of boat
traffic.... is bound to increase). Excess denies.
From paragraph 8 [1 mark]
7
adding the word

even
postage stamps are a very/extremely surprising//the most surprising (way

to educate people)
[1]
surprising (alone) = 0 . All the methods are surprising, according to the
text.
Lift of lines 6667, in whole or in part (The Chinese governmentpostage
stamps) = 0 (N)
UCLES 2008
Page 5
tremendous
harm
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are

ARROGANCE and IGNORANCE
A
ARROGANCE pride/disdain/pomposity/smugness/thinking we are

superior//thinking we know a lot/more than we
do/everything
[1]
IGNORANCE lack of/no/little knowledge/education/understanding

/comprehension//not knowing (enough)/blindness/ [1]
Be generous with grammatical form.

9
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

For each word attempted, mark the first answer only when more than one answer is offered.
A comma or the word 'or' indicates a second attempt.
wrong but neutral, e.g. 'shared and simple for 'common'.
Ignore errors of tense and grammatical form, but only if the meaning is clearly understood.
(See words and equivalents.)

1 mark
[Regard as 0(N) unless

indicated as 0(W)]
in vogue
(line 1)
fashionable/modern / popular/
favoured/stylish/all the rage/
modern/trendy
correct
delighted
(line 6)
pleased/thrilled/satisfied/
made happy/glad/ecstatic//
given pleasure/happiness/joy//charmed/
amused
fascinated
distinction
(line 22)
difference/separation/differentiation/
division/distinguishing/discrimination/
disparity/discrepancy
award (W)/prize (W)/clear/
overriding
(line 38)
main/principal/overarching/supreme/
very/really/extremely/most important/
vaulting/greatest/paramount
best/highest
UCLES 2008
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
deliberate
(line 54)
discuss/talk about/through//consider/
weigh up/reflect/mull over/think about/
reason
intentional (W) planned (W)/

meant (W)
inadvertently
(line 58)
unintentionally/accidentally/unplanned/
not meaning to/not purposely//
without calculation/design/intending to
foolishly
appalling
(line 59)
dreadful/horrific/horrifying/shocking/
distressing/ghastly
unpleasant/annoying/
bad/disagreeable
heartened *
(line 83)
cheered (up)/encouraged/elated/
charmed/amused
strengthened//made happy/pleased//optimistic/
hopeful//delighted
* some but not all synonyms for delighted are acceptable
[5 marks (5 x 1)]
MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 OUT OF 21 FOR POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 10 MARKS

FOR STYLE (See subsequent pages for the Style marking method.)
NOTES:
1.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
Count to 150 the number of words used by the candidate after the double line and write down
this number at the bottom left of the candidate's answer.
4.
Marking Technique
(ii) Assign the mark scheme number to points rewarded on all scripts.
UCLES 2008
Page 7
5.
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
For answers shorter than the 150 words, award the Style mark in the normal way, but apply
the following maxima:
0-25 (0); 26-50 (2); 51-75 (4); 76-100 (6); 101-125 (8) [e.g. for sustained own words with
error-free original complex structures, award 9 or 10 for Style for answer of 126 words, but
only 8 for answer of 125 words. There is no need to do proportional calculation]
If the candidate uses note-form throughout the answer, give 0 for the Style mark but allow the
points where they are clearly made.
7.
Sequence errors
unsupported. Do not penalise the point that then follows.
Line No.
River dolphins are under threat from many human activities because...
1.
they become entangled/caught/trapped in fishing nets
37
2.
and caught/trapped on fishing hooks (strung along river beds)
39
3.
pesticides (used in agriculture pollute rivers and) poison dolphins
4143
4.
factory waste poisons them
4344
5.
dams prevent dolphins from swimming upstream to breed
4849
6.
dams prevent fish on which dolphins feed from swimming upstream (to breed)//dams mean
dolphins have less food
4950
7.
dams deprive dolphins of fresh water/oxygen (dams reduce fresh water (alone) = 0)
5152
8.
dams separate dolphins (into small/isolated groups) so that they cannot (inter)breed
5253
9.
dolphins are killed for (use in) medicine
5657
10. dolphins are injured/killed in collisions with boats/by boats
5859
11. noise from boats interferes with/damages dolphins hearing
6061
12. noise from boats reduces dolphins ability to find food
61
13. turbulence caused by boats reduces dolphins ability/makes it difficult for dolphins to navigate
(their territory)
6263
14. (in China) dolphins have been made/recognised as a protected species
6465
15. local people educated/government have educated local people (through newspapers, films,
posters stamps)
6667
16. associations have been set up to educate fishermen
6869
17. one factory (persuaded by an association) uses dolphin as its trademark
7273
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Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
18. other companies have followed//there is now a dolphin hotel/a store/shoes

19. nature reserve has been built to protect dolphins
7374
77
20. hospital (has been built) for injured dolphins//hospital keeps dolphins until they can be
returned to the river
8182
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Mis-spellings of a minor nature. Count as a serious error when the form of the word is severely
mangled.
UCLES 2008
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

Mark
109
OWN WORDS
Mark
Candidates make a sustained 109
attempt to re-phrase the text
language.
Allow phrases from the text which
are difficult to substitute.
USE OF ENGLISH
minor errors. Sentence structure is varied
and there is a marked ability to use
original complex syntax outside text
structures.
Punctuation is accurate and helpful to
the reader.
Spelling is secure across the full range of
vocabulary used.
87

The summary is free from stretches
of concentrated lifting.
87

Sentences
show
some
variation,
helpful.
65

Attempt may be limited by
mangled relevance.
65

serious errors are not frequent, although
they are noticeable.
complexity, they will generally be lifted
from the text.
43
Wholesale copying of large areas

of the text, but not a complete
transcript,
more frequent at this level and
below.
43

errors are becoming more frequent.
long.
Simple punctuation will usually be correct,
with occasional errors of sentence
separation.
20

There will also be random
transcription of irrelevant sections of
the text.
20

Fractured
syntax
is
much
more
Errors of sentence separation are liable to
be frequent.
UCLES 2008
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Note 1: Scripts placed in last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two boxes, as
originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score middle box for UE as this is the
best fit box.
(i) wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4 max
for Style. Use incidence of errors to assess mark out of 4. Such scripts are rare.
(ii) recognisable OW limited by some irrelevance:5/6 for OW. Mark UE as normal.
UCLES 2008
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
This paper departed from the pattern of the last few papers by offering a discursive rather than a narrative
passage. Nevertheless, it seemed to be accessible to most candidates and to engage their interest. This
interest was borne out in Question 8, where very many candidates failed to score the available marks
because they ignored the rubric and delivered impassioned pleas about ecology in general and the fate of
dolphins in particular, presumably because they were moved by the topic. The majority of candidates
attempted all questions and completed a summary of the required length.
both a rough draft and a fair copy of their response to the summary question.
points fluently and in own words. The type of question giving most difficulty was the question which required
candidates to answer in their own words; some candidates seemed to ignore this rubric or, even when they
identified the key words for recasting, found it impossible to find synonyms. However, Examiners reported
greater success than in previous years with the first and second of the three own-words questions on the
paper. Examiners continue to report a pleasing reduction in the number of candidates simply ignoring the
rubric instruction to use their own words. The other questions with which candidates found difficulty were the
questions requiring an inferential answer and the question on the writers craft.
Examiners reported that, where misinterpretations of the rubric occurred, these tended to be the result of
careless reading of the questions rather than of any obscurity in the questions. Many Examiners reported an
improvement in the methodology adopted by candidates in their tackling of the summary question.
stem of the question in their answer. A few candidates wrote in the margin of the paper: this made marking
and correct totalling of marks difficult for Examiners.
Examiners continue to comment on the fact that many Centres still issue examination booklets containing
many more pages than is required by candidates, and this results in waste not only of paper but of postage
costs too.
As in previous examinations, many Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and handwriting, and the
fact that spelling and punctuation were generally very good.
UCLES 2008

Question 1 was the usual relatively easy opening question designed to ease candidates into the
examination. The answer was a reference either to the beauty or the intelligence of dolphins although, if
candidates infringed the rubric by offering both reasons, there was no penalty. This was fortunate for very
many candidates who, surprisingly, ignored the rubric and offered both intelligence and beauty as their
answer. However, if the candidate offered several other reasons for dolphins popularity, e.g. their being a
symbol of peace, then the mark was withheld if the incorrect answer was the first one written.
A similar rubric penalty was in place in Question 2(a). Dolphins were as important as human beings
because killing a dolphin was punishable by the death penalty; if the candidate spoiled this correct answer by
bringing in extraneous information, such as a reference to dolphins have a special place in folklore, then the
mark was withheld. The majority of candidates scored the mark here.
Question 2(b) was the first of the three questions on the paper where candidates were required to answer in
their own words. The key words were flagged up by reference to intentional harm in the text; thus the words
to be re-cast were ill-fortune and mortal. Synonyms such as bad luck or trouble were awarded for illfortune, while mortal had to be re-cast with words such as deadly or terminal. Some candidates confused
mortal with moral and offered incorrect words such as spiritual; others confused mortal with mental and
gave a wrong answer based on intelligence. A few candidates confused the meaning of fortune here with
the idea of money. More candidates scored the mark for ill-fortune than for mortal.
Question 3(a) was generally well done. The first use which dolphins make of their ability to make sounds is
to communicate with each other, and the second is that they disturb the balance of their prey. Some
candidates spoiled an otherwise correct second mark here by writing that clicking sounds disturb the balance
of their prey, which was incorrect; the clicking sounds refer only to the first use dolphins make of their ability
to make sounds. Others made reference to echolocation, which was also incorrect, although regarded as a
neutral answer and not enough to destroy an otherwise correct answer.
Question 3(b) was the second of the three questions on the paper where candidates were required to
answer in their own words, and it was generally well done. The question wording highlighted the trigger to
the answer by putting leap high out of the water into quotation marks, and thus led candidates to the key
words for re-casting, which were indicate and exuberance. There were many acceptable synonyms for
each of these words, e.g. show or point out for indicate, and fun, happiness or excitement for
exuberance. A few candidates spoiled an otherwise correct answer for indicate by making a wrong link,
e.g. by writing to show that they are there; although a synonym for presence of fish was not insisted on, the
link had to be sensible if it was offered. More candidates scored the mark for indicate than for exuberance.
Popular wrong answers for exuberance were boredom or to take a breath.
Question 3(c) was intended to be a discerning question, and proved to be so. It asked for a single feature
of the dolphins environment; very many candidates ignored, or misunderstood, the idea of environment
and offered echolocation as their answer, which is a biological rather than an environmental feature. The
correct answer was a reference to darkness or lack of light. Some candidates who seemed to understand
the question spoiled their answer by writing more than one feature of the environment, most usually dark,
watery world; such rubric infringements did not score the available mark.
Question 4(a) was a relatively easy one where the majority of candidates scored the mark for making
reference to the fishermen catching many fish, or simply by lifting from the passage bringing in record
catches. Some candidates clearly misunderstood the word record, reading it as a verb rather than an
adjective, and failed to score because they wrote that fishermen were able to record catches, which made it
seem as if an audio or written account was being kept, and was clearly incorrect.
Question 4(b) was similarly a relatively straightforward one, where the answer could be scored by lifting
these methods make no distinction between fish and dolphins. Where candidates failed to score here, it
was usually because they wrote something that suggested that fishermen were intentionally netting dolphins
for food, which was incorrect at this point in the passage.
Question 4(c) carried two marks, the first given for making reference to the monetary rewards of the tunadolphin bond, and the second for making reference to the fact that the tuna-dolphin bond catches large tuna.
Lifting of the text at line 24 (financially rewarding catches of tuna fish await those willing to take advantage of
the tuna-dolphin bond) could score the mark, but candidates who extended the lift and included realising
therefore that were denied the mark because such a lift did not answer the question but was rather merely
an observation. Similarly, the lift of line 24 (particularly large tuna fish swim underneath dolphins) was
UCLES 2008
sufficient to score the second mark but the inclusion of fishermen have noticed that denied the mark as the
answer then became merely an observation. Most candidates scored the mark for reference to monetary
gain, but the more discerning mark for reference to the large tuna swimming under the dolphins was scored
much less often. Some candidates lost the mark here because they wrote that large catches of tuna, rather
than large tuna, was the benefit to fisherman, which is a distortion of the text. Others spoiled their answer by
writing that the financial benefit came from selling dolphins as well as tuna, which is also inaccurate.
The level of difficulty was deliberately stepped up in Question 5. This was an inferential question in that
each element in the question required candidates to make inferences by producing a mirror image of the
text. The answer to Question 5(a) was that in the past fishermen did not have strong nets, or that in the
past dolphins were able to detect the nets of fishermen. Weaker candidates merely copied from the passage
that modern fishing nets are made of strong materials, or that modern nets are made of material which
dolphins can neither detect nor break. This did not answer the question, the focus of which was the past and
not the present.
Likewise, in Question 5(b) candidates were required to make the points that in the past there was an ample
supply of fish and that in the past fishermen did not have to compete with huge fishing vessels or
international companies. Each of these answers was awarded one mark. Weaker candidates merely made
reference to the present rather than the past by writing that nowadays fishermen are faced with dwindling
supplies of fish and that they have to cope with competition from international companies. It was clear that
many candidates did not know the meaning of dwindling and were unable to work it out from its context.
The answer to Question 6 was that the number of injuries sustained by dolphins after collisions with boats
was unlikely to decrease because the number of boats was on the increase. Many candidates scored this
relatively easy mark but then forfeited it by added excess information from lines 60-61 about the noise from
boats interfering with dolphins hearing. Candidates who choose to answer a question by lifting from the
passage must understand that the inclusion of lifted material which does not actually answer the question will
deny an otherwise correct answer. The negative dimension to this question, in that it asked why the number
of injuries was unlikely to decrease, rather than likely to increase, proved difficult for weak candidates.
Question 7 was a question on the writers craft, and proved to be a discerning question which was answered
correctly by only the more able candidates. The writers use of the word even showed that the use of
postage stamps to promote dolphins was very surprising. It was not sufficient to write that it was surprising,
as the text made it clear that all the education methods listed were surprising; the key to answering this
question correctly lay in the extremity of the surprise element. The mark could be scored for writing that the
Chinese government was doing all it could do, or that they were imaginative, or by making a reference to the
pervasive nature of dolphin education. Correct answers had to refer to the measures being taken and not to
the issue itself; hence answers such as they think education about dolphins is important were not rewarded.
Popular wrong answers here were merely a repetition of extensive measures from the text, or the idea that
postage stamps are also used as a means of education.
Question 8 was the third of the three questions on the paper where candidates were required to answer in
their own words and proved to be probably the most difficult question on the paper, which was appropriate at
this stage. The question contained the trigger words tremendous harm to our environment which focused
the better candidates on the key words: arrogance and ignorance. Acceptable synonyms for arrogance
were pride, or conceit, and synonyms for ignorance were expressions like lack of knowledge or being
badly informed. Popular wrong answers for arrogance were selfishness and thoughtlessness.
Ignorance was sometimes taken to be not paying attention rather than lack of knowledge. As indicated
earlier, very many candidates missed the point of the question by giving a general warning about ecology or
preservation of the environment, a kind of mini-essay on green issues; such answers were inadmissible
because the question told candidates that the answer was in paragraph 11. Furthermore, the question
asked for the reasons given by the writer for the harm caused to the environment, which was designed as a
warning against giving their own ideas, and a reminder that this was not an inferential question. Candidates
who misjudged the nature of this question wrote about how we have shamefully treated the environment
rather than outlining the reasons why, namely arrogance and ignorance. Many of these answers were
unnecessarily long and consequently took up time that could have been more profitably used to answer
other questions.
eight. A reasonable degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered pleased or made
happy for delighted, difference or differentiation for distinction, and accidentally or unintentionally for
inadvertently. Popular wrong answers for delighted were impressed and fascinated, and for distinction
UCLES 2008
the idea of high achievement. A popular wrong answer for deliberate was intentional, suggesting
candidates offering a synonym without checking the word in its context; correct answers here had to be
words such are discuss or talk about. In vogue could be recast by many correct synonyms, e.g. popular
and fashionable; famous was a popular wrong answer here. The least popular choices were probably
appalling, meaning horrific or terrible, and overriding, meaning main or principal. Few candidates who
chose heartened offered a correct synonym; most misunderstood the context and wrote something like sad
or unhappy, whereas the correct answer was something like encouraged or cheered up. Another popular
wrong answer here sprang from an understanding of heart as the seat of the emotions, with words such as
heartfelt being offered; touched and moved were other popular wrong answers. Examiners reported a full
range of marks in this question, but that in general it was less well tackled than the equivalent question in
other papers. They also reported, as usual, a small number of candidates giving the question word in a
sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning. As ever, there were some candidates who offered two or
three synonyms for each word; such candidates must realise that only the first word offered will be credited.
Another misconception among a very small number of candidates was that all of the words would need to be
tackled, or perhaps that the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must understand that only
the first five attempts will be looked at by the Examiner.
Question 10 was the final question on the paper and was, as is customary, the summary question, carrying
half the total marks for the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise the difficulties and dangers
encountered by river dolphins, and the steps taken to protect them. A few candidates misread the rubric and
wrote about the steps that should be taken to protect dolphins rather than the steps that have already been
taken. Others dealt with the topic in a generalised way rather than outline detailed points about dolphin
problems and conservation. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just more
than half of the original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a
maximum of 160 words, the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note
form. There were twenty content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of
fifteen points carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the
summary question, often with a rough draft and a fair draft. However, there continued to be the incidence
reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft, thus failing to make it clear to the Examiner which
version was to be marked.
There were four content points available in paragraph six. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that dolphins become
trapped in the nets of fishermen; the paragraph went on to explain that they are often caught on fishing
hooks. If the candidate chose to give the more general idea that fishing equipment is dangerous for
dolphins, without specifying the points about fishing nets and hooks, one mark could be scored. The
paragraph went on to explain that dolphins are poisoned by pesticides used in agriculture and by factory
waste; many candidates lost the available marks here by writing that pesticides and factory waste pollute
rivers, without going on to make the link to the harm this pollution does to dolphins.
Another four content points were available in paragraph seven, the focus of which was the construction of
dams. Dams prevent dolphins from swimming upstream to breed, they deprive them of food, they deprive
them of fresh water and /or oxygen, and they isolate them into groups which cannot interbreed. There were
varying degrees of success with these points; marks were denied to candidates who made the point that
dams cause a lack of fresh water or oxygen without linking that to a problem for dolphins.
A further five marks were awarded in paragraph eight to candidates who wrote that dolphins are killed
because their meat has medicinal properties, that they are killed or injured after collisions with boats, that the
noise of boats interferes with their hearing and with their ability to find food, and that the turbulence from
boats reduces their ability to navigate their territory. Although many candidates successfully made the points
about dolphins being killed for medicinal purposes and in collisions with boats, there was less success with
the points related to the noise and turbulence caused by boats. Other candidates lost a possible mark by
writing that dolphin meat has medicinal purposes, without making the link to the resultant killing of dolphins,
which was the focus of the rubric.
In paragraph nine, the focus of the summary moved from the difficulties and dangers encountered by
dolphins to the steps that are taken to protect them. Marks were awarded to candidates who wrote that
China has recognised dolphins as a protected species, that people have been educated through films/
posters/ stamps about the plight of dolphins, that fishermen have also been educated, that one factory now
uses the dolphin as its trademark and that other companies have followed by using dolphins as their
trademark, or by the creation of dolphin shoes, hotel etc. There was considerable confusion about the fact
that a single factory is referred to in the passage but several companies; Examiners were precise about
number here, and many marks were lost through lack of necessary precision.
10
UCLES 2008
Paragraph ten contained a further two content points: a nature reserve and a hospital have been built for
dolphins. These were relatively easy points to score, and the main difficulty for some candidates lay either in
not being able to cover these points in the number of words available, or in using plurals instead of singulars.
Again, precision in number was necessary.
reported a full range of marks in the ability to break away from the words of the original text, varying from
candidate to candidate and even from Centre to Centre. However, there were still some very weak
candidates who lifted almost indiscriminately from the text, producing little more than a random transcript
which scored badly on use of own words and, inevitably, did little to pick up relevant content points. Some
other weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for
use of own words, but in so doing they gained several marks for content points; these candidates stripped
the passage down to essential details whilst rearranging phrases from it into a changed syntactical shape,
and this proved to be a sensible tactic from the point of view of gaining marks. As in the past, it seemed that
some candidates had been taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter strategy and, indeed, it may be a good
course of action for candidates who are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English. Candidates with a
weaker grasp of the language lost marks through syntactical failure or inclusion of parts of the original text
which were not relevant to the question. Only those candidates who were competent and confident enough
to recast the original text, re-shaping it in original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks
for style.
prepositions, omission of definite and indefinite articles, and inconsistent and illogical verb tenses. Examples
of common errors in the use of prepositions were killed by so small a reason, deprived from feeding, and
dolphins lacking in food. Common spelling errors were accidently for accidentally, awarness for
awareness, goverment for government, seperate for separate, and suprised for surprised, Common
agreement errors were construction of dams have led to instead of has led to, and an important food
source for dolphins are depleted instead of is depleted. As already indicated, spelling and punctuation
were generally very good, and handwriting clear, although Examiners also reported problems with some
handwriting being so small as to be almost illegible, and crossing out in the first draft causing problems with
legibility in cases where the candidate had not written a second draft. One regrettable feature of some
candidates work was crossing-out in order to pare down the summary to the required length. This did not
facilitate the marking process and sometimes removed words crucial to the sense.
11
UCLES 2008

1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02, 1125/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1 hour 30 minutes
*3675700314*

Dictionaries are not permitted.
2
From paragraph 1:
1
Give two reasons why Benjamin was reluctant to get out of bed that morning. Number your
answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 2:
2
Benjamin had a passion for literature. Give two other reasons for his decision to become a
teacher of literature. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
(a) Benjamin realised his preconceptions of the job were different from its reality. Explain in
your own words what this means.
[2]
(b) Give two reasons why it might be surprising that Benjamins poetry lesson had been a
disaster. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) Ahmed was the entertainer and the classroom was his theatre. Pick out and write down the
single word used later in the paragraph which continues this idea.
[1]
(b) Explain in your own words why Benjamin was unwilling to involve the school Principal in
disciplining Ahmed.
[2]
(c) What would be the result, in Benjamins opinion, if he succeeded in improving Ahmeds
behaviour?
[1]
From paragraph 5:
5
One of Benjamins difficulties in his job was caused by Ahmed and the senior class. But there was
another problem. Explain fully what it was.
[2]
From paragraph 6:
6
(a) What effect do you think Miss Siti intended when she reminded Benjamin of his days as a
student at the school?
[1]
(b) What is meant by describing Benjamin as the backbone of the school debating society? [1]
(c) Benjamins laughter at Miss Sitis stories was hollow. What does this show us about his true
feelings at this point?
[1]
UCLES 2008
1120/02/O/N/08
3
From paragraph 8:
7
Benjamin was rooted to the spot. Pick out and write down the single word in the sentence which
reinforces this idea.
[1]
From paragraph 9:
8
Ahmed was shaking in terror. Give one other piece of evidence which shows that Ahmed was
frightened.
[1]
From paragraph 12:

9
Tomorrow will be the first day of the rest of my life. What does Benjamin mean by this?
[1]

10 Choose five of the following words or phrases. For each of them give one word or short phrase
passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
logical (line 5)
strategy (line 21)
crucial (line 22)
reminisce (line 37)
5.
6.
7.
8.
imperceptible (line 45)

gauge (line 47)
in a flash (line 71)
thwart (line 74)
[5]
11 Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary in which you explain how it became
increasingly clear to Benjamin that there was a snake in the classroom, how the students reacted
to the snake, and the actions that Benjamin took to solve the problem.
USE ONLY THE MATERIAL FROM LINE 44 TO LINE 85
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form) must not be longer than 160
Walking over to the bin, Benjamin was surprised to see...
UCLES 2008
1120/02/O/N/08
[25]
Page 2
1
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
reluctant to get out of bed [From paragraph 1]

(i) he had been enjoying a dream / been having a pleasant dream / he wanted to snuggle back
into the pleasant dream (he had been enjoying) / he wanted to return to the dream he had
been enjoying
[1]
lift of lines 12 (Benjamin resisted....been enjoying) = 0 Candidates must distil the answer
(ii) he had a / another days teaching (ahead of him) / he didnt want to go to work
[1]
Accept lift of lines 23 (He experienced...ahead of him) or line 3 (he thought of....ahead of
him) Excess denies.
2
decision...teacher of literature [From paragraph 2]

(i) his grandmother had been a literature teacher / he was following his grandmothers example
[1]
Accept lift of lines 56 (It had seemed...grandmother had been) or lift of lines 57 (It had
seemed.....tales of wonderful students). Excess denies, i.e. run on into sacrifices had been
made...
(ii) he had (a series of / many) excellent / very good / good teachers
[1]
Accept lift of lines 78 (He had a passion...excellent teachers)

3
(a) preconceptionsreality
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are PRECONCEPTIONS and
REALITY.
A. PRECONCEPTIONS
previous / first / initial / early ideas // ideas before(hand) //

what he thought it would be like / imagined /perceived/
Dreamed / believed / assumed / anticipated / expected
Accept noun forms e.g. beliefs / assumptions etc.
[1]
B. REALITY
what (actually / really (sic) ) happened / what it was ( actually /

really (sic) ) like // actuality / experience/ truth
[1]
Do not insist on synonyms for job or different Be generous with attempts to recast these
words.
Label answers A. and B
UCLES 2008
Page 3
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
(b) poetry lesson a disaster

(i) he had spent hours / a long time worked hard preparing // making / organising the
worksheets
[1]
Lift of lines 1112 (How confident...the worksheets = 0). Candidates must distil the
answer.
He had made / he had worksheets (alone) = 0. This is too weak.
(ii) he thought / was sure that his love of poetry would win them over / guarantee success
/ make the lesson go well
[1]
Accept lift of line 1213 (His own love...he had been sure of that), but lift of lines 12
13 (his own love of poetry could not fail to win over the students (alone)) = 0, as his
love of poetry DID fail.
4
(a) classroom his theatre [From paragraph 4]

show
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase or
sentence provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(b) disciplining Ahmed
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are ADMISSION and FAILURE
ADMISSION
acknowledgement / confession / sign / demonstration / owning up / it showed

/ suggested / said / would be thought/ declaration / disclosure / acceptance/
proof / indication / concession
[1]
FAILURE
he hadnt behaved properly / well / as he should // he had got it wrong / he

had behaved / dealt with Ahmed
inappropriately / badly / foolishly / stupidly / he wasnt a good teacher / was
incompetent
[1]
Do not insist on synonyms for in his mind. Be generous with attempts to recast this
expression
(c) result if he succeededbehviour
the class / the other students / the others would / might behave better / would / might
copy Ahmed / him / the behaviour of the other students would / might improve / get better
Lift of lines 2223 (Clearly...if he behaved well) = 1
They might do likewise (alone) = 0
UCLES 2008
[1]
Page 4
5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
another problem [From paragraph 5]

A. he had accepted a job / was working / teaching / a teacher in his former / old school
[1]
Lift of lines 2526 (Just because...in his former school) = 0. It does not answer the question.
B. the staff / teachers / Mr Tullen and / or Mr Hemu treated him like a student // didnt treat him
as a colleague / teacher / professional
[1]
Lift of lines 2930 = 0 (these men were...as a colleague). But some reshaping, e.g. Mr Tullen
was just one of the teachers...rather than a colleague = 1
6
(a) effect Miss Siti intended [From paragraph 6]

to make him feel welcome / happy / important / flattered / appreciated/ proud / liked // to show
affection for him
[1]
Do not accept negative ideas, e.g. embarrassed / uncomfortable / unhappy / awkward
(b) backbone of debating society
(he was) central / very important / the main person // the debating society / it could not cope /
would fail / collapse without him // he supported it
[1]
(c) hollow laughter...true feelings
(he felt / was) unhappy / awkward / embarrassed / miserable /sad /depressed / distressed /
uncomfortable / uneasy
Accept negative feelings e.g. he did not think it was funny / he didnt see the joke
Accept the idea of pretence e.g. // he was pretending to be amused / to think it was funny / to
be entertained
[1]
rooted to the spot [From paragraph 8]

fascinated
[1]
horror = 0 fascinated horror = 0

Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase or sentence, provided that it is underlined or
otherwise highlighted.
8
shaking in terror [From paragraph 9]

he was stammering / stuttering // couldnt speak properly / clearly
he couldnt speak (alone) = 0
he was not smirking = 0 (W)
Accept lift of line 60 (Sir, sirin there) = 1 Excess denies.
But lift of line 59 (Here was a transformed...smirking now) = 0 (N)
UCLES 2008
[1]
Page 5
9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
tomorrow will be the first day [From paragraph 12]

Look for a sensible inference about Benjamins improved state of mind, attitude, working life,
etc.
his job will be easier now // he can put his bad experience (with the senior class / teaching / his
job) behind him / he is looking forward to the future // he will be able to start again (with the
senior class / Ahmed)
[1]
10 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

wrong but neutral, e.g. 'shared and simple for 'common'.
(See words and equivalents below.)

(5 x 1)
[5]
1 mark
[Regard as 0 (N) unless indicated

as 0 (W)]
1.
logical (line 5)
obvious / clear / expected / sound /

reasonable / rational / sensible / natural /
common sense
thoughtful / normal / sure /

certain / true / right / apparent
2.
strategy (line 21)
plan / system / campaign / way / tactic /

method / procedure / technique /
process / masterminding /scheme / move
routine / policy
war / skill / talent / idea/ path /

ruse / trick/ decision
3.
crucial (line 22)
vital / very important /of utmost /

great(est) importance / fundamental /
basic / critical / pivotal / essential /
the heart of the matter / central
good / important /decisive/

pressing / urgent / necessary /
difficult
4.
reminisce
(line 37)
remember / recollect / reflect / recall /

flashback / see in the minds eye / talk /
think about the past
memorise / remind /
commemorate / look / think / talk
5.
imperceptible
(line 45)
unseen / unnoticeable / unnoticed /

undiscernible / invisible hidden /
concealed/ faint
dim / vague / unbelievable /

minute / unclear / incredible
6.
gauge (line 47)
judge / ascertain/ find out / work out /

deduce / calculate / measure /estimate /
survey / size up / evaluate / determine /
weigh (up) / appraise
know / see / understand / look

watch / notice / observe
UCLES 2008
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
7.
in a flash
(line 71)
quickly / suddenly / immediately / there

and then / without hesitation / instantly /
straight away / in a second / in the
twinkling of an eye
illuminated / lit up / in a rush / in a

hurry
8.
thwart (line 74)
spoil / damage / upset / obstruct / get in

the way of / frustrate / hinder / impede /
block / stop / stall / hamper / ruin / destroy
/ wreck / restrict/ crush/ outwit / foil
break / confuse / disturb / change

/ cancel

NOTES:
1.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
4.
Marking Technique
5.
For answers shorter than the 150 words, award the Style mark in the normal way, but apply
the following maxima:
0-25 (0); 26-50 (2); 51-75 (4); 76-100 (6); 101-125 (8) [e.g. for sustained own words with
error-free original complex structures, award 9 or 10 for Style for answer of 126 words, but
only 8 for answer of 125 words. [There is no need to do proportional calculation]
UCLES 2008
Page 7
7.
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Sequence errors
unsupported. Do not penalize the point that then follows.
[Total: 15 + 10 = 25]

Line No.
Walking over to the bin, Benjamin was surprised to see.......
1. a movement of / among the paper(s) (inside) / something moved among the paper(s) (inside)
4445
2. the paper(s) lifted (upwards)
46
3. a hissing (sound came from the bin)
48
4. he saw (the snakes) eyes // (the snakes) eyes looked at him
4950
5. he saw the snakes / a head / the snakes / a head darted from the paper / could be seen
53
6. he saw the snakes / a tongue / the snakes / a tongue shot out / could be seen
56
7. Ahmed was pointing at the bin
59
8. Ahmed / said / told Benjamin there was a snake (in the classroom)
60
9. the other students rose to their feet / stood / jumped up
6162
10. Ahmed was shaking (in terror)
6263
11. Benjamin told the class to sit down and be silent
64
12. he explained that they must not infuriate the snake / their guest
65
13. he explained that they must not make loud noises / sudden movements
14. he removed the worksheets from the box / emptied the worksheet box
6768
73
15. he crept / went to the bin with the box / took the box to the bin
7475
16. he covered the bin with the box
7778
17. he picked up / took the bin (with his right / one hand)
79
18. he held the lid in place (with his left / the other hand)
80
19. he indicated / nodded to Ahmed to open the (classroom) door [ told =o]
8081
20. he carried the snake / bin along the corridor / to the exit (Accept visitor and home)
8283
21. he took / left the snake / bin outside / in the playground
8384
22. (and went to) notified / asked / told the caretaker (to remove deal with / the snake / problem)
8485
UCLES 2008
Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
SUMMARY QUESTION 1120-1125/02 & 1115/02: STYLE ASSESSMENT

of OWN WORDS. Then arrive at the mark level for USE OF ENGLISH. Before deciding the mark
for this level, take the accuracy of the writing into account, in particular the absence or
frequency of serious and minor errors. Underline only serious errors.
Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two. Raise
any half marks to the nearest whole number. Add this mark to the Content mark and show
as a total in the right-hand margin.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
mangled.
Note 1: Scripts placed in the last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score the middle box for UE as this
is the best fit.
Note 2: For answers written in wholesale or sustained irrelevance, ignore OW assessment and give
4 marks max. for Style, depending on number of errors. Such scripts will be rare, and should not be
confused with recognisable OW limited by irrelevance. (5/6 box)
Note 3: For answers where relevance is oblique, or written in a mangled or nonsensical fashion,
the best fit box will probably be the middle one. (5/6) as recognisable but limited.
UCLES 2008
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

Mark
109
OWN WORDS
Mark
109
Candidates make a sustained

language.
USE OF ENGLISH
minor errors. Sentence structure is
varied and there is a marked ability to
use original complex syntax outside
text structures.
the reader.
Spelling is secure across the full range
of vocabulary used.
87
There is a noticeable attempt to

re-phrase the text.
The summary is free from
stretches of concentrated lifting.
87

helpful.
65
There are recognisable but

limited attempts to re-phrase the
text detail. Attempt may be limited
by irrelevance or by oblique or
mangled relevance.
secure, but the attempt to
substitute the text will gain credit.
65

serious errors are not frequent,
43

transcript,
Attempts to substitute own
language will be limited to single
word expression.
Irrelevant sections of the text will
be more frequent at this level and
below.
43

although this accuracy is not sustained
for long.
20
Pretty well a complete transcript

of the text expression.
transcription of irrelevant sections
of the text.
20

Errors of sentence separation are liable
to be frequent.
UCLES 2008
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
The narrative topic of the passage seemed to be accessible to most candidates and to engage their interest;
the school setting was chosen as being a fairly universal one for the candidates, appropriate and within their
understanding and experience. The majority of candidates attempted all questions and completed a
summary of the required length, although, as usual, there were some examples of brief or over-lengthy
summaries.
both a rough draft and a fair copy of their response to the summary question. Some candidates who did
manage to produce both a rough and a fair copy did not delete the rough copy; the importance of
remembering to do so has to be stressed.
Some Examiners reported candidates who wrote their answers, particularly the summary, through the right
hand margin, making annotation of marks difficult. Some Examiners reported centres where pages were
stapled together, sometimes through the candidates writing.
The excellent setting out of answers numbering answers and leaving spaces between them was
remarked upon by many Examiners.
points fluently and in own words. As in previous years, the type of question giving most difficulty was the
question which required candidates to answer in their own words; some candidates seemed to ignore this
rubric or, even when they identified the key words for recasting, found it impossible to find synonyms.
However, Examiners continue to report a pleasing reduction in the number of candidates simply ignoring the
rubric instruction to use their own words.
stem of the question in their answer.
Many Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and handwriting, and the fact that spelling and
punctuation were generally very good.
Please note that this syllabus will be revised with effect from the June and November 2011
examinations see syllabus and specimen papers for further details.

Question 1 was designed, as the opening question, to ease candidates into the examination with a fairly
accessible test; however, this was not as straightforward as many opening questions in previous papers.
The first mark was scored for writing that Benjamin was reluctant to get out of bed because he was enjoying
a pleasant dream, and the second mark was scored for writing that he had to go to work, or that he had a
days teaching ahead of him. The difficulty lay in the fact that the first mark could not be scored by lifting
UCLES 2008
lines 1-2 (Benjamin resisted the temptation to switch it off and snuggle back into the pleasant dream he had
been enjoying), as this did not answer the question. However, the second mark could in fact be scored by
lifting lines 2-3 (He experienced the familiar feeling of anxiety as he thought of another days teaching ahead
of him), as this did answer the question. Some candidates failed to score here because they wrote that it
was nearly the end of the working week. Perhaps some candidates did not understand the meaning of
reluctant.
Two marks were available in Question 2, one mark for the answer that Benjamins grandmother had been a
teacher of literature, and one mark for a reference to his own excellent teachers. Most candidates scored
the easier, first mark here, but fewer were successful with the second point, writing instead that his parents
had made sacrifices to ensure his education. In fact, any reference to his parents sacrifices denied an
otherwise correct answer in the limb in which it was offered. Many candidates lifted lines 6-7 (She had filled
his boyhood imagination with tales of wonderful candidates), which was wrong on two counts: firstly, the
agent was vague, and, secondly, it did not address the issue of the question, which was why he had decided
to become a literature teacher, not just a teacher.
Question 3(a) was the first of the two questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words. It was easier than some questions of this nature in that the candidates were not required to
isolate the key words for re-casting, but were given them, namely preconception and reality. Many
candidates were successful with preconception offering correct synonyms such as perception,
assumptions or what he thought. However, reality proved more difficult and correct synonyms such as
actuality, truth, or what happened were less commonly seen; the main difficulty with re-casting this word
was that there were few single word answers; instead, using phrases was often the best method to adopt.
The mark scheme took this into account by allowing marks for answers where the contrast was seen in the
sentence structure: for example, answers such as he thought the job would be easy but it was not scored
both available marks.
Two marks were available in Question 3(b), one for each correct limb. The first reason why it might be
surprising that Benjamins poetry lesson had been a disaster was that he had spent a long time in
preparation. This could not be scored by lifting at lines 11 -12 (How confident he had been, remembering
the hours of preparation that had produced the worksheets) as this did not answer the question some
distillation of the text was required. The second mark proved to be more elusive for candidates. It was
scored for the correct answer that Benjamin had been sure that his love of poetry could not fail to win over
the candidates. The mark could be scored by lifting from the passage at lines 12-13 (His own love of poetry
could not fail to win over the candidates, he had been sure of that) but failure to include he had been sure of
that denied the mark, as such a response failed to answer the question. Many candidates lost marks here
because they failed to read the question properly; the question asked why it was surprising that Benjamins
poetry lesson was a disaster, not why the lesson was a disaster.
Question 4(a) was intended to be a discriminating question, and thus it proved to be, with many fewer that
half of the candidates giving the correct answer, namely show. The difficulty lay in the fact that, firstly,
candidates had to understand the metaphorical idea of theatre and, secondly, read through several lines of
text to isolate the single word which extended the metaphor The image of stealing the show is also a difficult
one. Popular wrong answers here were exaggerated, model and lead. Question 4(b) was the second of
the questions on the Paper which required candidates to answer in their own words. Candidates had to
isolate the key words for re-casting in their own words, thus making this question more difficult than
Question 3(a).The key words were admission, with synonyms such as sign, acknowledgement or
suggestion, and failure , with synonyms such as shortcoming or incompetence; phrase or clause
answers were acceptable here too, such as that he was not a good teacher or that he had not behaved
properly. Some candidates ignored the admission of failure idea, writing instead about the general
pointlessness of involving the Principal, or that Benjamin did not want Ahmed to be too severely punished.
Question 4(c) proved to be a discriminating question, too. The answer was that, if Benjamin succeeded in
improving Ahmeds behaviour, the behaviour of the rest of the class would also improve. However, many
candidates merely copied line 23 (they might do likewise); this answer was incorrect because it was
ambiguous, with connotations that the class would improve Ahmeds behaviour. Similarly, the lift of lines 22 23 (if they took a lead from him in poor behaviour, they might do likewise if he behaved well) was insufficient
to score, as the agent in this question, namely the class, had to be spelt out as it was not implicit in the
question wording. The lift of lines 22-23, with the inclusion of he was the classs role model did score the
mark as it in fact answered the question.
Question 5 was a question which asked candidates to explain fully what was Benjamins other problem with
his job. The answer was that he was working as a teacher in the School that he himself attended as a
candidate, and that his former teachers did not treat him as a colleague because of this. The second of
UCLES 2008
these marks, for writing that Benjamin was not treated as a colleague, was scored by the majority of
candidates, but the mark could not be scored by mere lifting at lines 29-30 (now these men were just some
of the teachers who treated Benjamin as an over-grown candidate rather than as a colleague) although
some re-casting of the lift which included Mr Tullen or Mr Hemu, or the generic agent the teachers, could
score the mark because it did in fact answer the question. The first mark was more difficult to score, as it
involved making the inference drawn from lines 25-30 that he was working in his former School, and lifting of
lines 25 26 (Just because he had happy memories of his former teachers did not mean it was a good idea
to accept a teaching post in his former School) did not supply the correct answer. Thus, many fewer
candidates scored the first available mark than the second; two marks were rarely seen and the question
proved to be a discriminating one.
As intended, the level of difficulty was stepped up at Question 6, and indeed very weak candidates were
baffled by the entire question. Question 6(a) was a question testing the candidates ability to make a
sensible inference about Miss Sitis intention, namely that she intended to make Benjamin happy, welcome,
proud or any one of a number of possible positive outcomes. One of the difficulties here was that weaker
candidates were unable to distil the appropriate information from had the opposite effect from the one
intended at line 33. Many candidates opted for an incorrect answer which described actions by Miss Siti,
rather than the intended effect of these actions. A popular wrong answer was a mere lift of line 32 (there
was no doubting her fondness for Benjamin), but re-casting the lift as to show her fondness for Benjamin
scored the mark because it answered the question. Other wrong answers were that she was in love with him
which, although a colourful interpretation of the text, could not be supported by it. Question 6(b) was a
question on the writers craft, and required candidates to decode the image of backbone as the supporting,
or main, or very important part of the human body. Thus answers such as very important, main support or
the debating society could not cope without him scored the mark. Popular wrong answers, such as the
head or the leader, showed comprehension of meaning but failed to decode the image. This was a
question on the writers craft, not a mere vocabulary question. In Question 6(c), candidates had to
appreciate that hollow laughter indicates pretence, or failure to be amused. Thus answers such as
Benjamin did not find it funny or Benjamin was only pretending to laugh scored the mark. Alternatively, the
mark was awarded to candidates who gave an appropriate negative feeling, by writing, for example, that
Benjamin felt embarrassed, or unhappy, or stressed. Popular wrong answers here were that Benjamin did
not like Miss Siti, or that he was just trying to keep her happy. However, many more candidates scored the
mark for Question 6(c) than for either of the other parts of Question 6.
Question 7 proved to be within the grasp of few candidates and was another discriminating question. The
answer was fascinated, the only word which conveyed the sense of rooted to the spot. Popular wrong
answers were horror froze and rooted itself.
The mark could be scored in Question 8 only by writing that Ahmed was stammering, or that he could not
speak properly. It was incorrect to write that Ahmed was no longer smirking, or that he was transformed, and
such answers denied the mark in an otherwise correct answer because the question made it quite clear that
only one piece of evidence was called for.
Question 9 could be answered in a variety of acceptable ways by giving a sensible inference which showed
Benjamins improved state of mind, or his optimism, about the future or about his job. Candidates were
required here to make a general observation derived from a particular point and the majority of them
managed to do so. Unacceptable answers were those which merely re-cast the question, for example his
new life would begin the next day, or answers which were based merely on chronology, for example
tomorrow is the weekend or tomorrow is another day.
eight. As in previous papers, Examiners reported a reasonable spread among the words and phrases
chosen by the candidates, although in a flash was the most popular choice and the mark was generally
scored by candidates who chose it and offered synonyms such as quickly or suddenly. A reasonable
degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered obvious or reasonable for logical;
plan or system for strategy; unseen or unnoticed for imperceptible; and spoil or ruin for thwart. In
fact, such is the richness of the language that there was found to be around fifty acceptable synonyms for
thwart. The least popular choices, and the worst scoring when they were attempted, were probably crucial,
meaning essential or critical, and gauge, meaning judge or estimate. A popular wrong answer for
crucial was important although very important was acceptable, it was felt that important was not
forceful enough. A popular wrong answer for gauge was see or look at. Candidates scored reasonably
well by offering synonyms such as remember or recall for reminisce. Examiners reported a full range of
marks in this question, with very many candidates scoring three marks. They also reported, as usual, some
UCLES 2008
candidates giving the question word in a sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning, but such cases
were very few. As ever, there were some candidates who offered two or three synonyms for each word;
such candidates must realise that only the first word offered will be credited. Another misconception among
a few candidates was that all of the words would need to be tackled, or perhaps that the best five of eight
would be credited; such candidates must understand that only the first five attempts will be looked at by the
Examiner.
total marks for the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise how it became increasingly clear to
Benjamin that there was a snake in the classroom, how the candidates reacted to the snake, and the actions
that Benjamin took to solve the problem. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary
on just more than half of the original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words,
using a maximum of 160 words, the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose,
not note form. They were to draw material from lines 44 to 85, which was paragraphs eight to eleven
inclusive. There were twenty two content points, of which candidates could identify any combination up to a
maximum of fifteen points carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed
the summary question, often with a rough draft and a fair draft. Almost no candidates forfeited their Style
mark by writing their summary in note form rather than continuous prose.
There were six content points available in paragraph eight. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that Benjamin saw the
papers in the bin move. The paragraph went on to explain that the papers lifted, that there was a hissing
sound, and that Benjamin saw the snakes eyes, then its head, then its tongue. These were relatively
straightforward points to make, and most candidates fared well in this area of the summary. In addition,
there was no penalty for the details of the snake being reported out of sequence, which eased the level of
difficulty even further.
In paragraph nine, another four content points were available, moving on to the second part of the rubric,
namely how the candidates reacted. Ahmed pointed at the bin and told Benjamin there was snake, the other
candidates stood up in alarm, and Ahmed was trembling. These points were not as straightforward as some
candidates clearly thought; as ever, careful reading was required and many candidates failed to score here
because they wrote that Ahmed was pointing at the snake, not the bin. The passage suggested that,
although he had seen the snake, it was no longer visible by this time; otherwise the idea of the candidates
picking up Ahmeds mood is rather weak. Likewise, precision was required to make the point that Ahmed
told Benjamin, not his classmates, about the presence of the snake. There was some confusion too about
the meaning of rose to their feet; many candidates forfeited the mark here by writing that the candidates
lifted their feet up rather than that they stood up.
A further three marks were awarded in paragraph ten to candidates who wrote that Benjamin told the class to
sit down and be silent, that they must not infuriate the snake, and that they must not make sudden
movements or loud noises. To their credit, most candidates coped here with turning the direct speech into
reported speech. However, they often lost a mark by referring to being silent without the idea of sitting down
to do so, or by not understanding the meaning of infuriate, or by blending the point about not infuriating the
snake with the point about sudden movements or loud noises thus, there was often an unsatisfactory blend
here which scored neither of the two available marks.
Paragraph eleven moved onto the third part of the rubric, namely what Benjamin did to solve the problem,
and contained nine content points. Benjamin removed the worksheets from the box, crept over to the bin
with box, and covered the bin with the box. Then he picked up the bin, holding the lid in place, indicated to
Ahmed that he should open the door, carried the bin into the playground, where he left it in order to go to
report the matter to the caretaker. As with paragraph nine, the content points here were not as simple as
many candidates thought and required careful reading in order to extrapolate the appropriate detail. Many
candidates wrote incorrectly that Benjamin held the lid, not the lid in place, or that he released the snake in
the playground, or that he asked the caretaker to remove the snake. There was also much confusion about
the respective functions of the bin and the box, again the result of careless reading of the text. Many
candidates verbalised the command to Ahmed to open the door, and lost the available mark here.
reported that ability to use own words, rather than those of the original text, varied from candidate to
candidate and even from Centre to Centre. Many candidates scored well on content points without resorting
to inordinate lifting, and with good basic expression and reasonably successful handling of their own
UCLES 2008
reconstruction of the relevant material. Examiners reported a reduction in the number of very weak
candidates who lifted almost indiscriminately from the text, producing little more than a random transcript
which scored badly on use of own words and, inevitably, did little to pick up relevant content points. Some
weak candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for use of
own words, but in so doing they gained several marks for content points. It seemed that some candidates
had been taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter strategy and, as has been reported in previous years, it
may be a good course of action for candidates who are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English.
Sometimes the ultra-cautious transcriber did better than the ambitious, but not technically perfect, re-phraser.
However, only those candidates who were competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text,
re-shaping and re-casting it in original complex sentences, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style.
prepositions, and insecure and illogical verb tenses.
Spelling and punctuation were generally very good, and handwriting clear.
In parts of the world where French is spoken, there was some confusion over masculine and feminine nouns
and possessive adjectives with, for example, her grandmother copied over grammatically but incorrectly
from French into English from sa grandmere. There was also confusion between French and English
vocabulary, for example to make a dream from French faire une reve whereas English is have a dream;
ancient teachers from French ancien meaning former. There was also confusion over articles. For
example, English requires a definite article before professions, whereas French does not, so some
candidates wrote he became teacher rather than he became a teacher. Conversely, English does not
require a definite article before an abstract noun, whereas French does, so some candidates wrote there
was a chaos in the classroom rather than there was chaos in the classroom.
UCLES 2008

1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2009
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
This document consists of 3 printed pages and 1 blank page.
A Frightening Experience
1
Would you believe that giant snakes live underground, and that it is their movements which
create earthquakes? Maybe you wouldnt, but your ancestors did. Ancient peoples had many
fanciful explanations for earthquakes, usually involving something large living beneath the
earths surface. The geography teachers voice droned on as Reena, distracted, looked
5
longingly out of the classroom window, thinking of the long holiday stretching before her and
the luxury of no school for several weeks. By the seventeenth century, descriptions of the
effects of earthquakes were being published around the world, although these early accounts
often exaggerated or distorted the damage done by earthquakes. The teacher pursued the
topic relentlessly, while Reena impatiently watched the second hand on the clock tick-tock its
10
way towards the final bell of the school day.
She dawdled home from school. What kept you, Reena? her mother asked angrily. I have to
go shopping and need you to keep an eye on your brothers. Ill take the baby with me. Then,
to Reenas annoyance, her mother left without a word of gratitude. Reena surprised herself by
managing to complete her homework, a short worksheet on earthquakes. Her brothers had a
tendency to bicker and argue, particularly when their mother was out; it would have been too 15
much to expect this day to be any different. That night Reena went to bed and fell asleep in a
state of extreme irritability.
She drifted into consciousness with the gradual realisation that the house seemed to be
swaying from side to side. Dismissing this as the last remnant of a dream she had been
having, she lay for a few seconds in the half-light of dawn. But the sound of the dishes rattling 20
loudly in the kitchen made her sit bolt upright in bed. What was her mother doing in the kitchen
so early in the morning? And why was she making so much noise? Suddenly, the framed
photograph of her family, taken at a cousins wedding, tumbled from its hook on the bedroom
wall; her mothers smiling expression, captured in a moment that day by the photographer,
seemed somewhat inappropriate at this time. The house started to shake violently, so that 25
Reena had to hold onto the sides of the bed to prevent herself from falling out. She was so
scared she could not summon the energy even to yell for her parents.
Now the sound of broken crockery was reverberating through the house, as cups, plates and
glasses crashed to the kitchen floor, shattering into hundreds of miniscule fragments. Reena
looked on in horror as the chest of drawers in her bedroom started to move inch by inch 30
across the floor, as if the furniture had been willed into life, or as if she were witnessing some
bizarre magic trick. She put her head under the pillow, willing these strange events to be
really no more than a nightmare. But no, now her bed was shifting a foot across the floor, as if
anxious to catch up with the chest of drawers. This was no dream this was terrifying reality.
At this point, her mother appeared in the doorway, clutching her baby sister. Reena realised 35
that her mother was leaning on the door frame to steady herself against the movement of
the floor. Quickly, Reena! she said. Get downstairs into the yard! Her feigned calmness did
little to disguise her obvious sense of impending danger. Reena followed her mother, not a
moment too soon. The house began to rock even more violently, and the wall near which
Reenas mother had so recently stood collapsed, burying the bedrooms runaway furniture 40
under a mountain of broken concrete. Reena had been trying to delude herself that what was
happening was a series of strange coincidences but, as she choked under a huge volume of
dust, she realised that this was the earthquake of her geography lessons.
UCLES 2009
1120/02/INSERT/M/J/09
3
6
Reenas father had already brought her two brothers out into the yard, and the re-united family
members embraced each other gratefully. But there was work to be done, and Reenas father 45
was already turning his attention to looking after his family. He organised a makeshift fireplace
in the yard by digging a hole in the dirt and placing bricks around it, putting a piece of tin over
the bricks to act as a stove top. He broke what branches he could from the tree in the yard;
soon a pile of firewood had accumulated. Meanwhile, Reenas mother, concerned particularly
about keeping the baby warm, was gathering sacks that were lying around the yard, in order 50
to make a kind of tent; some shelter, however primitive, would be needed if the family had to
spend the following night outside, which seemed increasingly likely. By now, every door of
every house as far as the eye could see was spewing out a stream of human beings.
Reenas father risked making several trips back into the stricken house, emerging triumphantly
each time with foodstuffs and utensils from the kitchen, while Reena and her brothers held 55
their breath in anxiety, lest another tremor might cause their father to become trapped inside.
Only the baby was unconcerned; she crawled around the yard, gurgling with happiness,
delighted at the novelty of having all her family in such proximity. By now a long queue of
neighbours was starting to wind around the block to fetch water from the pump at the end of
their street. Reena and her brothers were sent with small containers to join the queue and 60
bring back enough water to fill the large barrel in the yard. When this time-consuming task had
been completed, the scorching sun was already shimmering blood-red through the shroud of
dust enveloping the village, and the baby slept in the shade their mother had created for
her by propping a sheet of cardboard on piles of concrete. What stamina her mother was
demonstrating throughout this ordeal, thought Reena. But when, in the afternoon, Reenas 65
grandparents arrived on foot carrying a supply of blankets from their own damaged home,
her mother finally broke down in tears as she hugged her parents. Your clever grandfather
even remembered to salvage a box of candles and matches before we left, laughed Reenas
grandmother. But Im sure well all be back home in a day or two.
However, her optimism was misplaced. No sooner had Reenas grandmothers words 70
been uttered than a loud explosion could be heard as a gas pipe, fractured by one of the
earthquakes tremors, ignited. A thick cloud of smoke rose above Reenas street, further
proof of this new danger. Throughout that night, the roaring of leaping flames could be heard
for miles around. Reena spent a sleepless night, frantic with worry, in the familys makeshift
accommodation in the yard. Would there be further tremors? The wailing of ambulance and 75
fire-engine sirens would at other times have sent shivers of apprehension down her spine;
tonight, however, there was a kind of comfort in them.
The next morning, when Reena and her father went out to collect more water, they had their
first sight of the structural damage caused by the fire. A three-storey building was ablaze;
some residents sat on the pavement nearby, dazed at the displacement of all that was familiar 80
in their lives, as flames continued to creep up the staircase. A few paltry bags of rescued
possessions by their side gave pathetic witness to the fact that many of them had risked their
lives by returning to their burning homes. Others were being urged by relatives to evacuate
the area; the building was clearly unstable and they were in grave danger. But rumours of
potential looting were circulating and they refused to move.
85
10 It was to be over a week before Reenas family returned to their home, and much, much
longer before they recovered from the havoc created by the earthquake. Reena went back to
school more willing to listen to her teachers, particularly in geography lessons showing the
contrast between the power of nature and the frailty of Man.
UCLES 2009
1120/02/INSERT/M/J/09

1115/02, 1120/02
1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2009
1 hour 30 minutes
*3188642318*

Dictionaries are not permitted in this examination.
2
From paragraph 1:
1
(a) According to the beliefs of ancient peoples, what caused earthquakes to happen?
[1]
(b) Pick out and write down the single word which shows that the teacher did not believe that
ancient peoples understood what caused earthquakes.
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) Explain fully why Reenas mother was angry when Reena came in from school.
[2]
(b) Give two reasons why Reena went to bed that night in a state of extreme irritability. Number
your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
Why might Reenas mothers smiling expression in the photograph be described as inappropriate
at this time?
[1]
From paragraph 5:
4
Explain in your own words the contrast between the way Reenas mother was pretending to feel
and the way she really felt.
[2]
From paragraph 7:
5
(a) Explain in your own words why the baby was gurgling with happiness.
[2]
(b) Give two reasons why the task given to Reena and her brothers was time-consuming.
Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 8:
6
(a) Give two reasons why, apart from the makeshift nature of their accommodation, Reena spent
a sleepless night, frantic with worry. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
(b) Why would Reena now feel a kind of comfort in the sound of sirens?
UCLES 2009
1120/02/M/J/09
[1]
3
From paragraph 9:
7
(a) Many people risked their lives by returning to their burning homes. Why does the writer
describe this as pathetic?
[1]
(b) Some people were being urged to evacuate the area. Apart from the danger of being burned,
in what other way might they have been hurt?
[1]
From paragraph 10:

8
When Reena returned to school, in which kind of geography lessons did she pay particular
attention? Answer in your own words.
[2]

Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of not more
than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
relentlessly (line 9)
summon (line 27)
bizarre (line 32)
stricken (line 54)
5.
6.
7.
8.
stamina (line 64)

urged (line 83)
looting (line 85)
havoc (line 87)
[5]
10 Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary in which you explain how it gradually
became clear to Reena that an earthquake was happening, and what the various members of the
family did to survive after it.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must be no longer than 160
In the morning when Reena woke up, she realised that.
UCLES 2009
1120/02/M/J/09
[25]
Page 2
(a) what caused

earthquakes
Mark Scheme: Teachers version

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
giant snakes (living / moving) underground

Lift of line1 giant snakes live underground (and it is their movements which
create earthquakes)
OR lift of lines 34 (something large living beneath the earths surface) = 1.
Excess denies.
[1]
But lift of lines 12 (Would you believe.earthquakes?) = 0
(b) teacher did

not believe
fanciful
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in
a phrase or a sentence provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(From paragraph 1) [2 marks (1 + 1)]
(a) Reenas
mother was
angry
A. Reena was late / (had) dawdled (coming home from school)

[1]
Lift of line 11 (She dawdled home from school) = 1 even though agent is
ambiguous.
B. She needed Reena / her (sic) to look after her brothers / babysit (while
she went shopping)
[1]
Lift of lines 1112 (I have to go shoppingyour brothers) = 0, unless
person of the verb is changed from first to third.
Any reference to baby (sister) = 0 (N)
(b) state of
extreme
irritability
(i)
Her mother was not grateful / (for her help / for what she did) // did not
appreciate her help / what she did // did not thank her (for her help / for
what she did)
[1]
Lift of lines1213 (Then to Reenas annoyance, her mother left without a
word of gratitude) = 1. Excess denies.
But without a word of gratitude (alone) = 0.
(ii) Her brothers bickered / argued / fought (when their mother was out /
when Reena was looking after them / when she was doing her
homework / worksheet)
[1]
Lift of lines 1415 (Her brothers had a tendency to bicker and argue) = 0.
This is too weak.
Lift of lines 1416 (Her brothers had a tendency...this day to be any
different) = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.
Reference to homework / worksheet = 0 (N)
If more than one answer is given in a single limb, mark the first only but
be generous with candidates division.
UCLES 2009
Page 3
smiling
expression

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Award answers which note the incongruity between smiling expression and
seriousness of the situation, e.g. the situation was serious (sic) / frightening /
terrifying // this was no smiling/ laughing matter// people / they / she/ Reena /
the mother / the family might die / be hurt // an earthquake was happening //
the house was swaying
[1]
The house started to shake / was shaking = 0. Sequence is wrong.
(From paragraph 3) [1 mark]
pretending to
feel and really
felt
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are CALMNESS and
IMPENDING DANGER.
Look for respective synonyms but ignore
grammatical form. Under A, do not insist on synonym for feigned as it is
included in the question wording. Under B, do not insist on a synonym for
obvious sense as it is included in the question wording. Also under B, look
for idea of both impending and danger do not award half-marks.
Double underline use of key words or their derivatives, but otherwise ignore.
A. CALMNESS
lack of concern // ability to cope / be relaxed /

unworried // taking things in her stride
[1]
B. IMPENDING DANGER
something terrible / horrible / nasty was close /

about to happen / around the corner
OR accept a word which describes her reaction to the impending danger, e.g.
she was frightened / terrified / fearful
[1]
(From paragraph 5) [2 marks]
5
(a) baby
gurgling with
happiness
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are NOVELTY and
PROXIMITY. Look for respective synonyms but ignore grammatical form.
Double underline use of key words or their derivatives, but otherwise ignore.
Ignore attempts at delighted as this idea is included in the question wording.
Do not insist on synonym for family but link must be sensible.
A. NOVELTY
new / unexpected / unusual (event)
B. PROXIMITY
close (by) / near (by) / at hand / beside her / right there /

there (sic)
[1]
Accept negative ideas, e.g. not far away / not distant

UCLES 2009
[1]
Page 4
(b) task was

timeconsuming

(i)
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
there was a long queue / many / a lot of people (waiting to get water/ at
the pump) // people wound round the block
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 5860(By now.at the end of their
street) = 1. Excess denies.
(ii) their containers were small // they had to go back and forth / make many
journeys
Lift of line 60 (Reena and her brothers were sent with small containers)
= 1. Excess denies, including run- on into to join the queuebarrel in
the yard. Some distilling of the text is required.
OR the water barrel was big / would take a lot a water / a lot of filling // it
would take a long time to fill a big barrel
[1]
Block lift of lines 5860 (By now a long queuesmall containers) = 0 as
answer to either (i) or (ii). But if correct lifts are divided into (i) and (ii)
award both marks.
6
(a) frantic with

worry
(i)
there was a fire // there was / had been an explosion // a gas pipe had
been fractured / (had) ignited
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 7174 (a loud explosionnew danger)
= 1. Excess denies.
Lift of lines 7375, in whole or in part, (Throughout that nightin the
yard) = 1. Excess denies.
(ii) there might be further / more / another tremor(s) / earthquake(s)
[1]
Lifting will not work.

If more than one answer is given in a single limb, mark the first only but
be generous with candidates division.
(b) kind of
comfort
it showed that help was at hand / nearby // they were not alone
[1]
UCLES 2009
Page 5
(a) pathetic

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
they has so little // so few possessions // their possessions were paltry / they
were prepared to risk their lives for a few things
OR It was sad / upsetting that they had so little
[1]
It was sad / upsetting (alone) = 0

(b) they might
have been
hurt
the building would / might collapse (on them)
[1]
Lift of line 84 (the building was unstable) = 0. Candidates must distil the
answer
Any reference to fire = 0 (N) BUT any reference to looters = 0 (W)
what geography
lessons
Note that this as OWN WORDS question.

Key words are CONTRAST (1 mark) and POWER / FRAILTY (1 mark
together). There are no half marks. Do not insist on synonyms for nature or
Man. Be generous with grammatical form. Double underline use of key
words or their derivatives, but otherwise ignore.
A. CONTRAST
difference / disparity / diversity / opposing / opposite

(sides etc.) / dissimilarity / divergence / discrepancy
[1]
B. POWER
strength / force / ability to destroy / energy / potency /

might
[1]
FRAILTY
weakness / powerlessness (sic) / puniness
Under A, award mark to candidates who do not give a synonym for contrast,
but who imply it by the conjunctions or adverbs they use in their answer, e.g.
but, however, nevertheless, on the other hand, although. Do not accept
and, moreover or furthermore as acceptable signs of CONTRAST. See
examples below.
Under B, look for understanding and re-casting of the ideas of power and
frailty, but do not insist on synonyms for each word. Award the mark to
candidates who imply the meaning of one of the words by their definition of
the other. See examples below.
(lessons showing) the difference between the strength of nature and the weakness of Man = 2 marks
(lessons showing) that nature is strong = 0 (no attempt at contrast, and only one of power /
frailty attempted. No half marks)
(lessons showing) that nature is strong and Man is not. = 1 mark (for power and frailty alone)
(lessons showing) that nature is strong but Man is not. = 2 marks
(lessons showing) that nature is mighty. However, Man is puny. = 2 marks
(lessons showing) that Man is weak. Moreover, nature is powerful = 0. (no contrast and,
although frailty is re-cast, power is merely repeated.)
(From paragraph 10) [2 marks]
UCLES 2009
Page 6
9
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

wrong but neutral, e.g. 'thrilled and happy for 'enchanted'.
(See words and equivalents.)

1 mark
Regard as 0[N] unless indicated as 0[W]
1 relentlessly
(line 9)
insistently / persistently / mercilessly //

without stopping / abating //
without giving up / in / over //
resolutely / determinedly / tenaciously /
non-stop / doggedly / on and on /
continuously
unforgivingly / pitilessly / desperately

for a long time / repeatedly /
over and over
2 summon
(line 27)
gather / work up/ collect / muster /

rouse / exert / generate /call up /
call upon
call / shout / assemble / compile /

order / round up / command / develop /
realise
3 bizarre
(line 32)
strange / odd / funny / queer

fantastic / unusual / abnormal /
freakish / ludicrous / eccentric /
absurd / curious / surreal
unnatural / supernatural / incredible /

frightening / new / amazing / uncommon /
outrageous / mad / shocking /
4 stricken
(line 54)
damaged / destroyed / afflicted /

unfortunate /
wounded / unhappy / worried
5 stamina
(line 64)
energy / strength / endurance /

perseverance / tenacity /
tirelessness / indefatigability / willpower
courage / bravery /determination /

power
6 urged
(line 83)
encouraged / persuaded / coaxed /

cajoled / pressed / driven / impelled /
pushed / advised / pressurized /
instinct / forced / bullied
7 looting
(line 85)
stealing / robbing / pilfering / plundering /

thieving / nicking /raiding / burglary
poaching / piracy / swindling / cheating
8 havoc
(line 87)
confusion / chaos / catastrophe /

disorder / bedlam / mayhem / turmoil /
tumult/ pandemonium / shambles /
wreckage/ devastation
untidiness / anarchy/ war / noise /

trouble / riot / panic
[5 marks (5 x 1)]
UCLES 2009
Page 7
10

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

NOTES:
1.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
4.
Marking Technique
5.
following maxima:
0-25 (0); 26-50 (2); 51-75 (4); 76-100 (6); 101-125 (8). So in 121 words, with OW10 and
UE10, Style mark = 8
6.
Sequence errors
unsupported. Do not penalize the point that then follows. Avoid the double penalty.
UCLES 2009
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Line No
In the morning when Reena woke up, she realised that...

1.
The house was / seemed to be swaying / moving (from side to side)
1819
2.
The dishes rattled (in the kitchen)
3.
The (family) photograph fell (from its hook) from the wall
4.
The house started to shake / rock (violently)
5.
Crockery / cups/ plates / glasses broke // noise of breaking crockery could be heard
6.
The (chest of) drawers started to move / moved across the floor
30
7.
Reenas bed moved across the floor
33
20
2324
25
2829
7A furniture moved (only if neither P6 nor P7 is scored)

8.
Mother (leaned on door frame to) steady herself (against the movement of the floor)
9.
The house began to rock even more violently / again // another / a more violent
tremor occurred
3637
39
10. the wall collapsed
3940
11. the (bedroom) furniture was buried under concrete
4041
12. Reena was choking because of the dust // there was a lot of dust
4243
13. Family assembled in yard // father brought brothers into yard / Mother told Reena
to go into yard
3745
14. Father made a (makeshift) oven / fireplace / a fireplace was made
4647
15. Father gathered firewood / firewood was gathered (broke branches = 0)
4849
16. Mother gathered sacks to make a tent / shelter / a tent / shelter was made
4951
17. Father brought food /utensils out of the house / food / utensils were brought out of
the house
5455
18. Reena and her brothers fetched water / water was fetched
5861
19. Mother made a shaded area / shelter from the sun for the baby / shade was made
for the baby
6365
20. grandparents brought blankets
6566
21. grandparents brought candles and matches
6768
(Note that in points 1219 inclusive, passive form is acceptable but if agents are used they must
be correct)
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
UCLES 2009
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

serious errors. Underline only serious errors.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms
Breakdown of sense
MINOR ERRORS
mangled.
Obvious slips of repetition or omission
the script or by use of left margin.
UCLES 2009
Page 10

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

Mark
109
OWN WORDS
Mark
109

language.
USE OF ENGLISH
minor errors. Sentence structure is
text structures.
the reader.
Spelling is secure across the full range
of vocabulary used.
87

re-phrase the text.
87

Sentences show variation, including
original complex syntax.
helpful.
65

by patches of irrelevance or by
oblique or generalised
relevance.
65

serious errors are not frequent, although
they are noticeable.
Spelling is mostly secure.

43

transcript,
word expression.
Mangled or nonsensical
relevance, often a patchwork of
the text
43

although this accuracy is not sustained
for long.
sentence separation. Spelling is largely
accurate,
20

of the text.
20

Errors of sentence separation are liable
to be frequent.
UCLES 2009
Page 11

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score middle box for UE
as this is the best fit box.
(i) wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4
max for Style. Use incidence of errors to assess mark out of 4. Such scripts are rare.
(ii) recognisable OW limited by some irrelevance: 5/6 for OW. Mark UE as normal.
(ii) Oblique or generalised relevance: 5/6 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
(iv) Mangled or nonsensical relevance: 3/4 or 1/ 2 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
UCLES 2009
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper was based on a narrative topic. The passage seemed to engage the interest of candidates
and be well matched to their understanding. A wide range of marks was achieved, with a substantial number
of candidates scoring very highly indeed. Overall, the paper seemed to succeed in discriminating between
candidates and enabled the more able to show what they were capable of, while allowing the less able to
score appropriately.
Despite the ease of understanding presented by the passage, there were a few questions which many
candidates found challenging. In Question 5(a), for example, very few recognised the novelty of the
situation, and in Question 7(a) many candidates opted for the philosophical point that life was more
important than material possessions, rather than recognising the pathos of the poor quality of goods for
which people were prepared to risk their lives. Question 8 was another example of a discriminator where
candidates failed to pay sufficiently close attention to the wording of the passage, preferring to offer more
creative responses of their own.
Examiners continued to report that the performance of candidates showed that, in general, they had been
well prepared by their teachers and understood the nature of the examination. Examiners reported very few
rubric infringements.
types of questions likely to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper, and many
of them managed to offer both a rough draft and a fair copy in response to the summary question. The
paper followed the usual pattern. Twenty five marks were allocated to the testing of literal comprehension,
inferential comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers craft. A further twenty
five marks were allocated to the summary question, these marks being divided between assessment of
ability to select content points from the text, and assessment of ability to express these points fluently and in
own words. As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were the questions which required
identified the key words for recasting, found it impossible to find synonyms.
In the summary question, Question 10, many candidates wasted words by including detail which was
irrelevant to the rubric, e.g. reference to Reenas inability to call for her parents, to her realisation that an
earthquake was happening and to intricate detail about the construction of the fireplace.
Other Examiners were concerned about candidates who wrote right across the page and into the margin,
making the positioning and subsequent addition of marks difficult. Other Examiners were concerned about
almost microscopic handwriting in some scripts, again detracting from ease of marking.
Many Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and (generally) handwriting, the fact that spelling and
punctuation were often very good and the overall impressive standard of written English.
UCLES 2009

As is customary, Question 1(a) was designed, as the opening question, to ease candidates into the
examination with a fairly accessible test, and indeed the majority of candidates scored the mark for writing
that earthquakes were caused by giant snakes, or large creatures, underground; both the ideas of large and
underground were needed here, and lifting of lines 12 (giant snakes live underground, and it is their
movements which cause earthquakes) or lines 34 (something large living beneath the earths surface)
scored the mark. Very many candidates scored the mark in Question 1(b) for the correct answer fanciful,
the single word that explained the teachers scepticism about the beliefs of ancient peoples. Popular wrong
answers here were relentlessly, droned, exaggerated and distracted. Some candidates spoiled their
answer with fanciful explanations, which was an unfortunate rubric infringement.
Candidates fared reasonably well with Question 2(a), where one mark was awarded for writing that Reenas
mother was angry with her because she was late, and the other for writing that she needed Reena to look
after her brothers. Sometimes only one of the two available marks was scored, perhaps because candidates
did not pick up on the word fully in the question, or on the fact that two marks were offered, which
suggested a two-part answer. Perhaps some candidates did not appreciate the meaning of dawdled. In
Question 2(b), one mark was available for the point that Reenas mother showed no gratitude to Reena for
looking after her brothers, and this could be scored by lifting at line 13 (her mother left without a word of
gratitude). However, the second mark proved to be more elusive for very many candidates. It was available
for writing that Reenas brothers bickered and/or argued while their mother was out; this mark could not be
scored by mere lifting of lines 1415 (her bothers had a tendency to bicker and argue when their mother was
out) as this was merely a general statement about normal behaviour rather than a clear point about the
brothers behaviour on that specific occasion; candidates who failed to gain the mark did so because of lack
of precision. This question asked candidates to give two reasons; in the case of any answer under either (i)
or (ii) which offered two reasons, only the first answer was marked, because such questions are designed to
encourage economy of language and precision of understanding.
Question 3 was correctly answered by candidates who spotted the inconsistency in the fact that Reenas
mother was smiling in the photograph and yet an earthquake was occurring. Candidates who merely wrote
that Reenas mothers smile was inappropriate because the house was shaking failed to gain the mark
because such a statement was out of sequence with actual events in the text, but the mark was scored for
making a general reference to the earthquake, or to the fact that Reena was afraid, or the fact that this was
no laughing/smiling matter. Most candidates were successful with this question, although weak candidates
perhaps did not know the meaning of inappropriate.
own words; in this case, the key words which had to be isolated by the candidate were calm and impending
danger. Acceptable synonyms for calm were, among others, relaxed, unworried, tranquil or taking
things in her stride and for impending danger something terrible about to happen, catastrophe
approaching, trouble looming or destruction imminent. Alternatively, in the case of impending danger a
mark was awarded to candidates who wrote how Reenas mother was feeling, e.g. frightened or terrified.
The wording of the question included pretending to feel and the way she really felt and so there were no
marks awarded for attempting to re-cast feigned or disguised. Surprisingly, many candidates chose not to
attempt to re-cast calm, perhaps thinking that it was too simple a word to require re-casting.
Question 5(a) was another question requiring candidates to answer in their own words, and proved to be the
most taxing on the Paper. The key words were novelty, with acceptable synonyms such as new,
unexpected or rare, and proximity, with acceptable synonyms such as close, near or surrounded by.
Some candidates mentioned the family being together, without spelling out the necessary closeness to the
baby which the idea of proximity required. Very many candidates wrote that the baby was gurgling with
happiness because she did not understand the situation; such an answer did not deny an otherwise correct
answer, but it did not answer the question either. The reference to the babys lack of comprehension was an
incidental reference in the text; the wording of the text, and the wording of the question, each directed
candidates to gurgling with happiness, delighted at the novelty of having all her family in such proximity. Of
candidates who did score in this area, attempts at proximity were much more common, with attempts at
rare occurring in only around one in fifty scripts. In some cases candidates suggested that the baby was
happy for the most inappropriate reasons: that her family were rushing around terrified; that they were in
great danger; that her father might have been trapped and killed. In Question 5(b), the first mark was
awarded to candidates who referred to the fact that there was a long queue, or many people, waiting to get
water. The question could be answered by lifting at lines 5860 (by now a long queue of neighbours was
stating to wind around the block to fetch water from the pump at the end of their street, although merely
writing that the pump was at the end of the street was insufficient to score as the text did not support the idea
UCLES 2009
that the end of the street was far away. The second mark in this question was given for making reference
either to the small size of the containers used, or to the large size of the barrel to be filled. Again, lifting
could score (Reena and her brothers were sent with small containers), but a run-on into to join the queue
denied the mark, as the answer then lacked precision. As with Question 2(b), in the case of any answer
under either (i) or (ii) which offered two reasons, only the first answer was marked.
In Question 6(a), the first mark was awarded to candidates who referred either to the explosion or the fire
that followed the earthquake; lifting at lines 7173 (a loud explosion could be heard as a gas pipe, fractured
by one of the earthquakes tremors, ignited) or by lifting at lines 7375 ('throughout that night, the roaring of
leaping flames could be heard for miles around.) Mere reference to smoke was insufficient to score,
although it did not deny the mark in an otherwise correct answer. The second mark in the question was
awarded to candidates who distilled the text at line 75 (Would there be further tremors?) by referring to the
possibility or worry that there would be more tremors or another earthquake. As with Question 2(b), in the
case of any answer under either (i) or (ii) which offered two reasons, only the first answer was marked. Any
reference to Reena being afraid of the noise of sirens denied the mark in an otherwise correct answer, as it
is clear from the text that Reena was pleased by, rather than afraid of, the sirens, and indeed a mark was
available in the next question for making such a point. Question 6(b) required the idea of practical support
in order to gain the available mark, with many acceptable answers such as it showed help was at hand or
injured people would be taken to hospital.
Question 7(a), which tested candidates understanding of writers craft, proved to be a difficult question as
most candidates treated it as a question on vocabulary, thus offering mere synonyms for pathetic such as
sad rather than distilling the idea that the pathos of the situation stemmed from the fact that people were
prepared to risk their lives for so little. Many candidates seemed to be familiar only with the more colloquial
meaning of pathetic as silly, which is incorrect in any case. Candidates generally fared better in Question
7(a), where a mark could be scored for writing that the building could collapse or crush people; any reference
to looting was wrong and denied the mark in an otherwise correct answer. Weak candidates failed to score
the mark because they merely lifted the building was unstable without explaining the danger which that fact
represented.
Question 8 was the third of the questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their own
words. This was a difficult question, designed to bring about differentiation, and in this respect it was very
successful. Candidates were in fact directed to the key words, namely contrast, power and frailty.
Acceptable synonyms for contrast were words like difference, discrepancy, comparison, distinction and
disparity; acceptable synonyms for power were words like strength, force, ability to destroy and might,
and acceptable synonyms for frailty were words like weakness, helplessness, feebleness and fragility.
As no half marks are ever available in this Paper, candidates had to offer correct synonyms for both power
and frailty in order to score the second mark. Many candidates did nothing to isolate the words, preferring
rather to make a generalised statement about the natural world, or Reenas desire to find out more about
earthquakes once she had experienced one.
eight. Examiners reported marks ranging from 0 to 5 here, with all words being chosen more or less in equal
measure. Most candidates who attempted bizarre scored the mark for synonyms such as strange or odd
and a reasonable degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered strength or energy for
stamina and stealing or robbing for looting. Many candidates scored a mark for writing damaged or
destroyed for stricken, and for offering chaos or devastation for havoc. Broken was a popular wrong
answer for stricken; damage was a popular wrong answer for havoc, being too weak, although great
damage was acceptable, while other popular wrong answers here were danger and mess. A popular
wrong answer for urged was forced; correct synonyms were gentler words such as persuaded, advised
or encouraged. The worst attempted words were probably summon, meaning gather or collect, and
relentlessly, meaning without stopping or continuously. Because understanding only was being tested in
the vocabulary question, grammatical form was not insisted upon. Examiners reported, as in previous years,
some candidates giving the question word in a sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning, but such
cases were very rare indeed. As ever, there were some candidates who offered two or three synonyms for
the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must understand that only the first five attempts will
be looked at by the Examiner. However, such cases are becoming increasingly rare.
UCLES 2009
Question 10 was the final question on the paper and was, as is customary, the summary question, carrying
half the total marks for the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise how it became increasingly clear to
Reena that an earthquake was happening, and what the various members of the family did to survive after it.
The material for the first part of the rubric came from paragraphs three to five inclusive, and the material for
the second part of the rubric came from paragraphs six and seven. As is normal, the rubric asked
candidates to base their summary on just more than half of the original text, expressing content points as far
as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160 words, the first ten of which were given. They were
to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were twenty-one content points, of which they could
identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen points carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that
almost all candidates completed the summary question. However, there continued to be the incidence
reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft, thus failing to make it clear to the Examiner which
version was to be marked. A very small number of candidates forfeited their style mark by writing their
summary in note form rather than continuous prose.
There were four content points available in paragraph three. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that the house seemed to
be swaying. The paragraph went on to explain that the dishes rattled in the kitchen, the photograph fell
down and then the house started shaking. Some candidates got off to a bad start by writing initially that the
house was shaking; in order to obtain all the marks available for describing the effects of the earthquake, it
was essential to chart the gradual changes for which the rubric asked. The house swayed, then rocked, then
rocked more violently, and although it was possible, indeed desirable according to the rubric, to give an own
words explanation, it was nevertheless necessary to chart the gradual nature of the movement.
In paragraph four, another three content points were available. The sound of breaking crockery could be
heard, the chest of drawers moved, and the bed moved. For candidates who failed to make either of these
specific points about the chest of drawers or the bed, an alternative mark was available for writing simply that
the furniture moved. Most candidates had a fair degree of success here, although some confused the
rattling of dishes in paragraph three with the breaking of dishes in paragraph four, and lost marks because of
confused sequence of events.
A further five points were available in paragraph five for writing that Reenas mother had to steady herself
against the movement of the floor, that the house started to rock even more violently, that the bedroom wall
collapsed, that the furniture was buried and that there was a lot of dust. Very few candidates picked up on
the point about the buried furniture.
In paragraph six, candidates were to move on to the second part of the rubric, namely what the family
members did to survive the earthquake, and there were four available points. Firstly, the family assembled in
the yard, or Reenas father brought the brothers outside. This point could alternatively have been scored in
the previous paragraph for writing that Reenas mother brought her out in to the yard or told her to go there.
Then the further points to be made were that the father made a stove or fireplace, that he also gathered
firewood, and that the mother made a tent or shelter. It was not necessary to specify agents here, although
the majority of candidates did. The passive voice was acceptable (firewood was gathered etc.), but where
agents wee used, they had to be correct.
In paragraph seven, the further five points to be made were that the father brought food or essential items
out of the house, that the children fetched water, and that the mother made a shade for the baby. The final
two points concerned the grandparents, who brought blankets, and also matches and candles; correct
agents were necessary here.
even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates are aware of the need to try to recast the original
text in their own words, and that many of them in fact are skilful at doing so. There continues to be a much
lower incidence of random, mindless copying than in the past. However, some weaker candidates played
safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for use of own words, but in so doing
they gained several marks for content points. It continues to be the case that some candidates had been
taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter strategy and, indeed, as has been reported in the past, it may be a
good course of action for candidates who are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English. However,
only those candidates who were competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text, reshaping and re-casting it in original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style. In
addition, Examiners reported candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being
UCLES 2009
required to make content points; such candidates made oblique references rather than specific points. Some
candidates demonstrated a pleasingly thorough command of structure, excellent vocabulary, clear
understanding and skilful synthesising of the original material.
inconsistent and illogical verb tenses. As already indicated, spelling and punctuation were generally very
good, and handwriting generally clear.
10
UCLES 2009

1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
2
The Olympic Games
There can be few people who have not heard of the Olympic Games. Originating almost
three thousand years ago in Ancient Greece, the Games are a test of physical excellence,
and, amazingly, they are as famous today as they were all that time ago. They took place on
Olympia, the holy mountain on which was situated a temple built in honour of the Greek gods.
Sports such as running and wrestling played a key part in the education of Greek boys in a
society which believed that developing the body was as important as exercising the mind. In
addition, the Greeks honoured their gods through athletic competition. For the inhabitants of
the Greek islands, Olympia, situated as it was near the coast, became the venue for the most
important of these athletic competitions.
The original Olympic Games took place every four years; men and boys participated, and 10
running was the only event. A promise not to engage in fighting, called a truce, was made
among the Greeks for one month before the Games to allow competitors to reach Olympia
safely. The tension mounted as the venue filled up with participants all eager to win. The
judges had the authority to fine cities or ban their athletes from the competition if the truce
was broken. There were no cash prizes, but a winner was treated as a celebrity when he went 15
home, having so greatly enhanced the reputation of his city.
Before the Games began, oaths were sworn by competitors that they would not cheat and that
they had been in training at home for ten months. Some young men arrived and, intimidated
by their opponents, left even before the Games started; fines were introduced to prevent this
from happening. Fines were also imposed for not attending the further obligatory training 20
period at Olympia. Most spectators slept under the stars, although the wealthy among them
erected elaborate tents and pavilions. Merchants, craftsmen and food vendors arrived to sell
their wares. The busy schedule included poetry recitals, parades and victory celebrations.
For various reasons, the Olympic Games eventually died out, and the ancient site fell into
an inevitable state of disrepair. However, there was a flurry of excitement when its ruins 25
were uncovered by archaeologists in the nineteenth century. Many wondered whether this
would be a good time to revive the ancient Games, but no action would have been taken
without the enthusiasm of Frenchman Pierre de Coubertin. He believed that giving young
people the opportunity to compete against one another in sport would instil in them a spirit of
solidarity which would ultimately contribute to the development of a more peaceful world. He 30
campaigned tirelessly for the revival of the Games, and his dream was realised with the 1896
Olympics. These took place, appropriately, in Greece, and have been followed by Games
every four years since, with fierce competition to be the country to host them.
Despite their fascinating history, the Olympic Games have their critics today, who claim that
the Games are more of a curse than a blessing for the host country. Huge sums of money 35
are needed to build the new facilities swimming pools, sports arenas, athletics tracks
required for the various competitions. There will almost certainly not be enough of these
facilities across the country, although the capital city might be more fortunate. Often there is a
huge discrepancy between the estimated and the actual costs of these new massive building
projects. Many people argue that the government money involved would have been better 40
spent on other things, such as education and housing. Such expenditure, they say, could
have been spread more evenly over the country; one criticism of hosting the Olympic Games
is that, although benefits are derived, this happens only in the cities where the sporting events
take place, notably the capital. In some countries, not only government money but also money
from national charities has been spent on the Olympic Games; critics argue that it is wrong to 45
divert money from needy charities to something which may be considered a luxury.
UCLES 2009
1123/02/INSERT/O/N/09
3
6
Apart from the provision of facilities, there are other less obvious expenses involved in hosting
the Games. Regrettably, tensions exist in the world today, and there are huge financial
implications in keeping competitors and spectators safe. Airport security is only the tip of the
iceberg; inner-city safety as well as security on all transport becomes a major problem. 50
Preparing to host the Olympic Games can place severe pressure on government officials to
meet targets, particularly when their costs spiral upwards. Modern technology means that the
Games can be televised and watched by millions of people all over the world. However, being
in the world spotlight can become a source of expensive anxiety as well as national pride,
because competition sometimes arises between host countries to stage increasingly lavish 55
opening and closing ceremonies.
But enthusiasts of the Olympic Games would argue that the benefits of hosting the Games far
outweigh any perceived disadvantages. The huge influx of people to the host country during
the Games means that existing transport systems within the country for example, railways
may be improved. In the cities where the main sporting events are to take place, new transport 60
facilities may be created, such as monorail or underground systems. It is clearly important that
the disruption caused by the Games to the lives of local residents is kept to a minimum, and
one way to do that is through new public transport. Attention must also be given to airports
is the country able to cope with the arrival from all over the world of competitors, spectators
and journalists? New or enlarged airports may be the result; indeed, one of the first Olympic 65
targets set by China when it was appointed as host country for 2008 was the building of a
brand new, modern airport in Beijing. For any host country, the benefits of better airports will
be felt by its tourist industry long after the Games are over.
Accommodation is required for visitors to the Games; consequently, hotels are built, which
creates employment for architects and builders, as well as for the local people who will 70
secure permanent jobs. Furthermore, the building of these hotels will be of great benefit
to the tourist industry in the years ahead. Similar employment advantages will be created
by the construction of accommodation for competitors, and these Olympic villages, as they
are called, can be converted after the Games into new homes for local residents. Thus the
75
Olympic Games bring with them opportunities for urban regeneration.
The new sports facilities built for the Olympic Games act as more than monuments to the
Games the new sports arenas, swimming pools and athletics tracks provide a means of
keeping fit for thousands of local people when the Games have come to an end. Media attention
on the Games makes ordinary people more aware of the importance of physical exercise. This
is of particular significance in industrialised countries where being overweight has become a 80
major issue and, in some cases, a national obsession. The Olympic competitors, especially
the winners, provide role models for teenagers; young people can be inspired by their heroes
determination and so reach their own potential, not only in sport.
10 For most people, the Olympic Games are a pageant of athletic skill and competitive spirit,
bringing together people of diverse cultures and fostering a spirit of global cooperation. In 85
the 2008 Olympics in Beijing, around 200 countries competed in around 300 events. Over
16,000 journalists were there, and almost 4 billion people were television spectators. In the
face of such astounding statistics, can we deny the importance of the Olympic Games and
their capacity to influence the entire planet?
UCLES 2009
1123/02/INSERT/O/N/09

1123/02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1 hour 30 minutes
*0584857972*

2
From paragraph 1:
1
(a) What is it about the Olympic Games that the writer finds amazing?
[1]
(b) Why did sports play a key part in the education of Greek boys?
[1]
(c) The Greeks honoured their gods through athletic competition. What was the other connection
between the Greek gods and the Olympic Games?
[1]
(d) Why do you think it was convenient that Olympia was situated near the coast?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) The Greeks made a truce to allow competitors to reach Olympia safely. How can we tell that
the Greeks thought that the truce was important?
[1]
(b) Explain in your own words why an Olympic winner was treated as a celebrity when he went
home.
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
Explain fully how the organisers ensured that competitors were fit enough to take part in the
Games.
[2]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) The ancient Olympic Games eventually died out. For what two reasons did interest in reviving
the Games grow? Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
(b) Pierre de Coubertin believed that the spirit of solidarity fostered in young people by the
Olympic Games would contribute to a peaceful world. Without copying from the passage,
explain what this means.
[2]
(c) Why was it appropriate that the 1896 Olympic Games took place in Greece?
[1]
From paragraph 5:
5
Why do the sporting events of the Olympic Games take place mainly in capital cities?
[1]
From paragraph 6:
6
Airport security is described as the tip of the iceberg. What does this tell us about security
arrangements at the Olympic Games?
[1]
UCLES 2009
1123/02/O/N/09
3
From paragraph 7:
7
Pick out and write down two consecutive words which tell us that the Olympic Games attract a
lot of visitors.
[1]
From paragraph 9:
8
What is it about Olympic competitors which inspires young people, and what is the result?
Answer in your own words.
[2]
From paragraph 10:

9
What is the writers purpose in giving us such astounding statistics?
[1]

10 Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of not more
1.
2.
3.
4.
key (line 5)
mounted (line 13)
elaborate (line 22)
schedule (line 23)
5.
6.
7.
8.
regrettably (line 48)

stage (line 55)
regeneration (line 75)
obsession (line 81)
[5]
11 According to the passage, a country which hosts the Olympic Games encounters both
disadvantages and advantages.
Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the disadvantages and advantages
of hosting the Olympic Games.
USE ONLY THE MATERIAL FROM LINE 35 TO LINE 83
A serious disadvantage of being the host country is that
UCLES 2009
1123/02/O/N/09
[25]
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Question 1: from paragraph 1

(a) 'the writer finds amazing
they are as famous now as they were three thousand years ago / a long time ago / in Ancient
Greece / times OR they have been famous for a long time / for (almost) three thousand years [1]
Lift of line 3 (they are as famous today as they were all that time ago) = 0. Candidates must
distil the answer
They have existed for three thousand years = 0(N)
They are famous (alone) = 0(N)
They are as famous as they were in the past / then / when they started = 0(N)
Any reference to test of physical excellence = 0(N)
(b) key part in education
their society / parents / families / the Greeks / they (sic) believed that (developing) the body /
physical activity was as important as (developing) the mind / brain / mental capacity
[1]
Lift of lines 5-6 (Sports such asthe mind) = 1. Excess denies
Any reference to honouring gods = 0(W)
Any suggestion that sport develops the mind = 0(W)
(c) connection between gods and Games
the Games / they (sic) took place near a temple (built in honour of the gods)
OR the Games / they (sic) took place on a holy mountain (called Olympia)
[1]
Lift of lines 3-4 (They took placeGreek gods) = 1. Excess denies

Reference to near the coast = 0(N)
(d) situated near the coast
it was easy to get to / accessible / people / competitors / spectators could get there by boat /
by sea / from islands
[1]
The Greeks lived on islands (alone) / they wouldnt have to travel inland / it was convenient
for travel = 0(N)
Olympia became the venue for the Games = 0(N)
[4 marks (4 1)]
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

(a) truce was important
the judges could fine cities / ban athletes who broke the truce / it
Accept passive form, e.g. cities could be fined / athletes could be banned, but insist on
correct punishment linked to appropriate recipient if agents are given
[1]
Lift of lines 13-15 (The judgesif the truce was broken) = 1. Excess denies.
Fines / bans (alone) = 0 Must have reference to athletes / cities and to breaking the truce.
(b) treated as a celebrity
Note: that this is an own words question. Key words are ENHANCED and
REPUTATION. Be generous with grammatical form. Double underline use of key words or
their derivatives but otherwise ignore.
A. ENHANCED: improved / made better / increased / developed / lifted / ameliorated /
progressed / made attractive / augmented / built up / raised / lifted /
heightened / boosted / more / better / greater
[1]
changed / transformed / transfigured / maintained = 0(N)
B. REPUTATION: name / opinion / impression / esteem / estimation / prestige / respectability /
status / image / position / popularity
[1]
fame / honour / glory / splendour / beauty / importance / admiration /
pride= 0(N)
[3 marks (1 + 2)]
competitiors were fit
(i) the competitors / they had to swear / take an oath that they had been training at home /
beforehand for ten months
[1]
Lift of lines 17-18 (Before the Games beganfor ten months) = 0. Candidates must distil the
answer.
(ii) the competitors / they had to attend training / train at Olympia / the venue // there was
obligatory training for the competitors / them at Olympia / the venue
Lift of lines 20-21 (Fines were also imposedtraining periods at Olympia) = 1. Excess
denies.
[1]
Any reference to competitors leaving / fines for competitors leaving = minus 1. Ignore
references to cheating / spectators / merchants etc. Do not invoke minus 1 penalty if answer
is scoring no mark anyway.
[2 marks]
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

(a) interest in reviving the Games
(i) ruins of Olympia were / Olympia was / site of the Games was uncovered / discovered (by
archaeologists)
[1]
Lift of lines 25-26 (However, there was a flurry of excitementnineteenth century) = 0.
But lift with insertion of ruins / the site of the Games = 1. Lift of lines 24-26 (the ancient
sitecentury) = 1
(ii) Pierre de Courbertin / a Frenchman worked / campaigned / fought to revive / bring back
the Games
[1]
Lift of lines 26-28 (Many wonderedPierre de Coubertin) = 0. Candidates must distil the
answer.
Lift of lines 28-30 (He believed thatmore peaceful world) = 0. Action rather than belief is
required.
(b) spirit of solidarity
This is not a conventional own words question, with two words to be re-cast exactly, but the
words SOLIDARITY and PEACEFUL are the key to marking answers. Accept answers such
as:
SOLIDARITY: If people feel at one with each other / unity / do same things / like brothers and
sisters / as if they have same desire / friendship / brotherhood / sharing / fellowship
[1]
compete / come together / play sport together = 0
PEACEFUL: then they will be less likely to fight with one another / start wars / more likely to
live in harmony / without violence /disagreement / tension
[1]
the world will be a better / happier place = 0
Double underline peaceful and solidarity, or their derivatives, if they appear in the answer,
but otherwise ignore.
(c) Games took place in Greece
the first Games took place in Greece / there / the Games / they were returning to their roots
origins / where they started / the Greeks invented the Games
[1]
[5 marks (2 + 2 + 1)]
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
02

events take place in capital cities
the capitals / capital cities / they may / will have (more / better / appropriate) facilities / swimming
pools / sports arenas / athletic tracks OR there is / will be less / no need to build (new) facilities /
swimming pools / sports arenas / athletic tracks ( there / in capital cities)
[1]
Any answer which merely defines capital, e.g. the capital city is the main city = 0(N)
Lift of lines 37-38 (There will almost certainlymight be more fortunate) = 0. Candidates must
distil the answer.
[1 mark]
tip of the iceberg
Acceptable answers must show appreciation of the figurative language of the expression and the
relative proportions of airport and other security, e.g there is more for the security forces to work
on / worry about / do / concentrate on (than airport security) / airport security / it is only a section
/ part / fraction of (necessary) security.
[1]
[1 mark]
two consecutive words
huge influx
[1]
Give 0 if only one word or more than two words are offered. Accept the use of the correct words
in a sentence or expression, provided that they are underlined or otherwise highlighted.
[1 mark]
competitors inspire young people
Note: that this is an own words question. Key words are DETERMINATION and POTENTIAL. Be
generous with grammatical form. Double underline use of key words or their derivatives but
otherwise ignore. Ignore attempts to gloss role models, as this is implied in the question
wording.
A: DETERMINATION: persistence / single-mindedness / perseverance / decisiveness / resolve /
purposefulness / resolution / steadfastness / strong-mindedness / tenacity /
focus / doggedness / will / willpower/ dedication / drive / focus
[1]
obstinacy / desperation / tirelessness / obsession / enthusiasm / addiction /
hard work / zeal = 0(N)
B: POTENTIAL:
full development / all / everything they can be / possibility / the best of

their ability / their true / real / ability / do their best
[1]
power / might / ability (alone) / goals / aims / success / being the best = 0(N)
Label answers A and B

[2 marks]
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
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02

astounding statistics
An acceptable answer must make a general point out of particular information. Accept any
sensible reference to the scale of the Games, e.g. to show / stress / point out what a huge /
massive / event the Games are / to show / stress / point out how important / influential the Games
are / to show / stress point out that the Games have the capacity / ability to influence the planet /
world.
[1]
Lift of lines 87-89 (In the face of the entire planet?) = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.
Any answer which merely reshapes one or all of the statistics = 0(N), e.g. to show there were
a lot of journalists / that a lot of people watched the Games.
[1 mark]
UCLES 2009
Page 7

Question 10
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
[5 marks total]

wrong but neutral, e.g. 'central and favourable for 'key'.
(See words and equivalents)
1 mark
1. key
(line 5)
2. mounted
(line 13)
3. elaborate
(line 22)
4. schedule
(line 23)
central / vital / main / crucial / basic

important / leading / principal / chief
essential / influential / critical / necessary
significant / major / pivotal / primary / very
big
decisive / fundamental
increased / rose / grew / went up / built up
/ developed / heightened / spiraled /
swelled / intensified / accumulated /
multiplied / piled up
fancy / decorated / ornamental /
embellished / beautified / adorned /
lavish / rich / extravagant / ornate /
ostentatious / showy / luxurious /
detailed / decorative
timetable / programme / plan / scheme /
running order / order of events /
agenda / list of events / calendar
5. regrettably
(line 48)
unfortunately / sadly / lamentably / it is

a pity / shame / unhappily /
disappointingly / alas
6. stage
(line 55)
provide / put on / mount / provide /

produce / lay on / hold /perform /
present / set up / deliver / showcase
renewal / re-growth / rebirth /
renaissance / renovation /
development / rejuvenation / revival /
reinvigoration / rebuild / remake /
reconstruction
thinking / worrying / talking a lot / all the
time / constantly / thinking / worrying /
talking of little / nothing else /
preoccupation / hang up / fixation / really
into / thinking so much / consumed (by)
7. regeneration
(line 75)
8. obsession
(line 81)
[Regard as 0[N] unless indicated

as 0[W]
favourable / good / extreme
big
climbed advanced / progressed /

ascended / gathered / arose
graceful / stylish / big / give

details enlarged / delicate /
intricate / expensive /
complicated / beautiful
proposal / suggestion / list / time /
things to do / session / task / job
arrangements / timings / events /
routine / procedure / business
sorrowfully / worryingly / anxiously
/ regretfully / remorsefully /
unluckily / ruefully / painfully /
unacceptably / pitifully / shamefully
show / reveal / invent / portray / host
display / level / arrange /
accommodate / organize / handle
restoration / change / amendment /
reproduction / modernisation /
restart / revamp / makeover /
rehabilitation / improvement /
upgrade / growth
phobia / desperation / addiction /
craze / desire / passion / stress /
concentration
[5 marks (5 1)]
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
Question 11
Paper
02
[Total 20 marks]
Mark to a maximum of 15 out of 20 for points. Award a maximum of 10 marks for style (See
pages 1011 for the Style marking method.)
Notes:
1
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
Length
Count to 150 the number of words used by the candidate after the double line and write down
this number at the bottom left of the candidate's answer.
Marking Technique
following maxima:
0-25 (0); 26-50 (2); 51-75 (4); 76-100 (6); 101-125 (8). So in 121 words with OW10 and
UE10, Style mark = 8.
Sequence errors
unsupported. Do not penalize the point that then follows. Avoid the double penalty.
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
Each point scores 1 mark

A serious disadvantage of being the host country is that
1
It is expensive to build new facilities / swimming pools / sports arenas / running tracks
35-36
There will not be enough facilities (across the country) / facilities will be unevenly spread
37-38
There is discrepancy between the estimated and the actual cost (of building new facilities)
38-39
Other projects / education / housing suffer / money could be spent on better / other things /
education / housing
40-41
Only a few / capital cities benefit / benefits are not evenly spread over the country
42-44
Money is taken from charities (to pay for the Games)
44-46
Security / keeping people safe is expensive / costs money / financial implications in

keeping people safe
48-49
Governments (officials) are under pressure to meet targets / it is difficult for governments
to meet targets
51-52
Competition between host countries over / pressure to have (opening/closing) ceremonies
55-56
8
9
10 (Existing) transport / railways may be / is improved
59-60
11 New transport facilities / monorail / undergrounds might be / are built
60-61
12 New / enlarged / better / modern airports may be / are built / airports may be / are enlarged /
improved
65
13 New / enlarged / better / modern airports lead to more (money from) tourism
67-68
14 Building hotels will create employment (for architects / builders / local people)
69-71
15 Hotels improve tourism after the Games / in the years ahead
71-72
16 (Building) accommodation for competitors / Olympic villages will create employment
72-73
16A Building creates employment (if neither P14 nor P16 is made)
17 Olympic villages can be converted into houses (for local people)
73-74
18 New / Olympic facilities provide means of keeping fit (for local people)
77-78
19 Importance of physical exercise is highlighted

20 Competitors create role models for (young) people / help (young) people reach their potential
81-83
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
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Syllabus
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02

absence or frequency of serious errors. Underline only serious errors.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Mis-spellings of a minor nature count as a serious error when the form of the word is
severely mangled.
Indicate how you arrived at your mark for OW and UE, either by a short comment at the end
of the script or by use of left margin.
UCLES 2009
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Syllabus
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Paper
02

Mark
109
OWN WORDS
Mark
109
87

87
65

Attempt may be limited by patches of
Groups of text expression are interlaced
with own words.
secure, but the attempt to substitute the
text will gain credit.
65
43
Wholesale copying of large areas of the 43

text, but not a complete transcript.
Attempts to substitute own language will
be limited to single word expression.
often a patchwork of the text.
20
Pretty well a complete transcript of the 20

text expression.
There will also be random transcription of
irrelevant sections of the text.
UCLES 2009
USE OF ENGLISH
text structures.
to the reader.
helpful.
accurate, although this accuracy is not
sustained for long.
sentence separation. Spelling is
largely accurate.
Page 12

Syllabus
1123
Paper
02
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score middle box for UE as
this is the best fit box.
(i) wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4 max
UCLES 2009

Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/02
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper was the first discursive, non-fiction topic for some time. It seemed to engage the interest of
the candidates, while at the same time being able to test the most able candidates. It stretched and
discriminated the candidates a true test of comprehension reflected in the wide range of scores. In the
summary, there were sufficient nuances even amongst the most successfully attempted content points to tax
the candidates and to engage their thought processes rather than their ability to copy the text.
understood the nature of the examination. The Paper seemed to be deceptively hard for some candidates,
probably because there was less possibility than in many previous papers to score by fortuitous lifting.
Examiners reported very few rubric infringements.
types of questions likely to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper, and some,
though not many managed to offer both a rough draft and a fair copy in response to the summary question.
assessment of ability to select content points from the text, and assessment of ability to express these points
fluently and in own words. As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were the questions
which required candidates to answer in their own words; some candidates seemed to ignore this rubric or,
even when they identified the key words for re-casting, found it impossible to find synonyms.
Examiners continued to report some candidates writing in excess of the 160 words prescribed by the rubric
for the summary. They also reported fewer candidates than usual scoring full marks for content points in the
summary. Where candidates made alterations to their summaries, this was not always done neatly, or was
sometimes done in pencil; candidates must understand that such untidy or pencil alterations make it difficult
for Examiners to check the accuracy of the number of words used in the summary. Some, though very few,
candidates made the Examiners task more difficult by writing in very pale ink, or in minute handwriting.
Question 1 (a) was designed, as the opening question, to ease candidates into the examination with a fairly
straightforward test. However, this proved to be a challenging opening question because the answer, which
was that the Olympic Games are amazing because they have been famous for a long time, or for thousands
of years, could not be made by lifting from the text. Many candidates failed to score the mark here because
they lifted from the text at line 3, writing that the Games are as famous now as they were all that time ago,
which makes little real sense; some distillation of the text was required. Others wrote, wrongly, that the
Olympic Games are a test of physical excellence which, although a true statement, did not answer the
question.

Candidates fared better with Question 1(b), offering the correct answer that the Greeks believed that
exercising the body was as important as exercising the mind; those who failed to score the mark usually
wrote that the Greeks believed that sport exercised the mind. The answer could be made by lifting from the
text at line 6 (a society which believed that developing the body was as important as exercising the mind)
and this in fact is how very many candidates chose to answer the question.
The mark for Question 1(c) was awarded for writing that the connection between the Greek gods and
athletic competition was that the Games took place on a holy mountain, or that they took place near a
temple; the mention of a religious term, i.e. holy or temple, was the key to the correct answer. Some
candidates made the religious link but failed to score the mark because they did not write that the Games
took place at or near that place of religious significance. Some wrote, wrongly, that the connection was that
Olympia was near the coast.
Question 1(d) was an inferential question which proved to be challenging for many candidates. The
inference to be made was that spectators or competitors could access the Games from the sea or by boat or
from the islands. Some wrong inferences made reference to water sports, playing games on the beach,
swimming or even sun-bathing; colourful as these ideas were, they could not score the mark. Some
candidates merely copied the final sentence of the paragraph, which clearly did not score the available mark.
The answer to Question 2(a) could be scored by lifting from the text at lines 13-15, and writing that the
evidence that the Greeks thought the truce was important was either that they fined cities or banned athletes
who broke the truce. Very many candidates were successful in scoring this mark, although some failed to
score because they explained why the truce was important (it stopped fighting) rather than answering the
question (how we can tell that they thought it was important). Others merely defined a truce without
attempting to answer the question.
Question 2(b) was the first of the two questions on the paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words. Candidates were required to make the link between the trigger in the question, treated as a
celebrity, with the key words enhanced and reputation. Acceptable synonyms for enhanced were, among
others, improved, increased, developed or built up and, for reputation, name, popularity, esteem or
prestige. The mark for enhanced could also be scored for the mention of a simple term like more; thus,
he made his city more popular scored two marks. Candidates who failed to gain the second mark often did
so because they offered fame or honour for reputation, which were attractive but nevertheless wrong
answers. Many candidates had the wrong focus here and centred their answer on the lack of cash prizes
and missed the key words altogether. Sometimes marks were lost because the candidate focused on the
reputation of the competitor rather on that of his city or country.
Question 3 proved to be a difficult question for a large number of candidates because they failed to see that
its focus was the organisers and not the competitors. The answer was that the organisers ensured that
competitors were fit by making them swear oaths that they had been in training at home for ten months, and
by fining them if they did not attend the training sessions at the venue. The key to scoring in each of the
limbs of the question was mentioning the element of compulsion. Many candidates missed the point and
wrote that competitors swore oaths that they had been in training at home for ten months, without specifying
that the organisers made them swear these oaths. Likewise, some candidates referred to training at the
venue without specifying that this training was obligatory or that competitors would be fined for not attending
it. Another problem with the first limb of this question was that there were in fact three details which had to
be picked up, namely the compulsion of the oath, the training at home, and the timescale of this training.
Question 4(a) was another question which candidates found difficult, where injudicious, random or
thoughtless copying abounded, and therefore no marks were scored. The first reason why interest in
reviving the Games grew was the fact that the ruins of the site, or of Olympia, were discovered. Some
candidates merely copied at lines 25- 26 (its ruins were uncovered by archaeologists); this could not score
the available mark because of the vagueness of the mere mention of ruins, with no indication of what these
were the ruins of. Likewise in the second limb of the question, the answer was that the campaigning of
Pierre de Coubertin brought about interest in revival of the Games. Many candidates merely copied again,
this time at line 28 (without the enthusiasm of Frenchman Pierre de Coubertin); this could not score the
available mark because the link had to be made with the subsequent reference in the text to the
campaigning of Pierre de Coubertin action was required, not mere enthusiasm or interest. A surprising
number of candidates gave the answer to Question 4(b) here instead.

Question 4(b) was not a conventional own words question, where candidates were directed towards, or had
to isolate, two key words. Here there were two key ideas which had to be dealt with. The first of these was
the spirit of solidarity and the second was a peaceful world. For spirit of solidarity, there was a range of
acceptable answers, such as young people felt at one with each other or like brothers and sister or had
common goals or desires or co-operated with one another. Some candidates thought, wrongly, that
solidarity was related to soldiers. Acceptable re-castings of peaceful were harmonious or without war or
without violence. There was a reasonable degree of success with this fairly difficult question, particularly
with the second limb, although some candidates ignored the rubric instruction to use own words and merely
lifted from the text. Some candidates saw the meaning of peaceful but failed to score the mark because
they linked it specifically to the Games - the athletes would not fight with each other - and not to the wider,
global picture.
Question 4(c) was a relatively straightforward question at this stage of the Paper. The mark could be
scored for making the point that it was appropriate that the revived Games took place in Greece because it
was in Greece that the first Olympic Games took place, or that the Olympics originated in Greece. The idea
of first or origins was essential here, not merely that the old Games took place in Greece. Some
candidates merely wrote that the games took place very four years; although a correct statement it did not
answer the question. Perhaps some candidates did not know the meaning of appropriate in the question.
The mark for Question 5 was scored for writing that the Games took place mainly in capital cities because
the capital cites had more, better or enough facilities. This was an inference which had to be made from
lines 37-38: There will certainly not be enough of these facilities across the country although the capital city
might be more fortunate. There was a reasonable degree of success here, although popular wrong answers
were that capital cities had more money to spend. Another common wrong answer was merely to lift capital
cities might be more fortunate, which in itself did not answer the question. It seemed that some candidates
confused capital, as used in reference to capital city, with the idea of capital as money. Some candidates
offered their own suggestions rather than text-based ones.
Question 6, as a question on the writers craft, was intended to be a differentiating question, and thus it
proved to be. In order to score the mark, candidates were required to de-code the iceberg image by
discerning the relative sizes of the visible iceberg (the tip) and the unseen, submerged part of the iceberg,
and then relating this to the security at the Olympic Games. Thus acceptable correct answers were that
airport security is only a part of the entire security required, or that there is more for security staff to worry
about than simply airport security, or that total security is more important than only airport security. Few
candidates answered this question correctly. Many candidates offered the incorrect answer that airport
security was tight or that it was expensive; these were true statements but did not attempt to de-code the
image being tested.
Candidates scored generally well in Question 7 for picking out the correct two consecutive words which
showed that the Olympic Games attract a lot of visitors, namely huge influx. Some candidates unfortunately
spoilt their answer by adding of people to a correct answer. In addition, it seemed that some candidates did
not know the meaning of consecutive.
Question 8 was the second of the own words questions, and proved to be the differentiating question which
it was intended to be at this stage of the Paper. The trigger in the question was inspires young people,
which was meant to direct candidates to the text at line 82: young people can be inspired and in turn by
their heroes determination and so reach their own potential. Thus the key words to be re-cast were
determination and potential. Acceptable synonyms for determination were, among others, persistence,
perseverance, will power and dedication, while acceptable synonyms for potential were, among others,
possibility, capability, the best of their ability and doing their best. Although it seemed as if many
candidates were able to isolate the correct key words, or at least the second of them, there was much
difficulty with correct synonyms. A popular wrong answer for determination was hard work, while popular
wrong answers for potential were goals, dreams and aims. Few candidates scored a mark for a correct
synonym for determination, and many ignored it altogether.
In order to score the available mark for answering Question 9, candidates were required to make a general
observation out of the particular information contained in the statistics given in the paragraph about the
Olympic Games. Thus, acceptable answers were that the writer wanted to show, point out or demonstrate
the importance of the Games, or their power to influence the planet. Where candidates failed to score the
mark, it was often because they overlooked the focus of the question, which was the writers purpose; thus,
answers which merely stated that the Games influence the planet, or are important, did not answer the
question. Others failed to score the mark here because they merely repeated or re-cast one or more of the
statistics, again not answering the question.

eight. Examiners reported fewer candidates scoring full marks than in previous papers. Most candidates
who attempted key scored the mark for synonyms such as important or main; likewise, very many
candidates scored the mark for mounted by offering correct synonyms such as increased or grew,
although some lost the mark or writing arose instead of rose, which changed the meaning and therefore
could not be rewarded. A reasonable degree of success was gained by candidates who correctly offered
renovation or development for regeneration and provide or present for stage (although some
candidates incorrectly offered level, thus showing the need to examine the word in its context.) Candidates
scored a mark for writing unfortunately or sadly for regrettably and for offering timetable or order of
events for schedule. Obsession was rarely attempted and, when it was, it rarely scored; correct synonyms
were words like preoccupation or fascination. Some candidates ignored the context and offered answers
such as addiction which did not fit the sense here. Similarly, few candidates attempted elaborate, where
correct synonyms were words like fancy and decorated. Again, some candidates who made an attempt
here overlooked the context, confusing adjective with verb, and wrote, incorrectly, to give details.
Examiners reported, as in previous years, some candidates giving the question word in a sentence rather
than trying to explain its meaning, but there were very few cases of this. As ever, there were some
candidates who offered two or three synonyms for each word; such candidates must realise that only the first
word offered will be credited. Another misconception among a few candidates was that all of the words
would need to be tackled, or perhaps that the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must
understand that only the first five attempts will be looked at by the Examiner.
the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise the disadvantages and advantages of hosting the Olympic
Games. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just over half of the original
text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160 words, the first
ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were twenty content
points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen points carrying one mark
each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the summary question. However, there
continued to be the incidence reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft, thus failing to make
it clear to the Examiner which version was to be marked. A very small number of candidates forfeited their
Style mark by writing their summary in note form rather than continuous prose. Some candidates confused
information given as advantages in the text and suggested such information were disadvantages, by writing,
for example, that host countries had to build better airports or spend money improving roads. In such rubric
infringements the mark had to be withheld.
The first two paragraphs of the area for summary search, namely paragraphs five and six, dealt with the
disadvantages of hosting the Olympic Games. There were six content points available in paragraph five.
The opening ten words were designed to ease candidates into the summary by leading them to the first
content point, which was that it is expensive to build new facilities required to host the Games; most
candidates started off well by making this point. Facilities could be given, or an example of these facilities,
such as swimming pools or running tracks. The paragraph went on to explain that there will not be enough
facilities across the country, that there is a discrepancy between the estimated and the actual cost, and that
the money spent on the Olympic Games could have been spent on other things, or on education and
housing. Most candidates were successful with this latter point, although the other two were much less
frequently made. Further points rendered by this paragraph were that only a few cities benefit form the
expenditure, (a point overlooked by most candidates) and that money is often diverted from charity to pay for
the Games (a point scored by the majority of candidates, showing altruism, at least.)
In paragraph six, another three content points were available. Many candidates successfully made the point
that security is expensive. The other two possible points to be made were that governments are under
pressure, firstly to meet targets, and secondly to host lavish ceremonies; these latter two points were rarely
made.
Paragraph seven moved onto the advantages of hosting the Olympic Games, and there were four content
points in this paragraph, all concerned with transport. Railways and roads will be improved and new
transport facilities will be created. The term infrastructure was an acceptable synonym here, although some
candidates lost marks in other areas of the summary for writing infrastructure as a synonym for facilities. A
further two marks were awarded in paragraph seven to candidates who wrote that new, improved or
enlarged airports may be built, and that this in turn will increase tourism.

There were four content points in paragraph eight. Marks were awarded to candidates who wrote that the
building of hotels will cause employment, that these hotels will improve tourism after the Games, that
accommodation for competitors will create employment, and that these Olympic villages can be converted
into homes for locals. The marks were withheld if mere reference to hotels or accommodation for
competitors was made without the link of employment, which is the real advantage. Similarly, the mark was
withheld from the candidate who wrote that hotels improve tourism, without reference to that advantage
happening when the Games are over. There were many missed marks here because of points being only
partially, and therefore unsuccessfully, made.
Paragraph nine contained a further three content points. The Olympic facilities provide a means of keeping
fit for local people, the importance of physical exercise is highlighted, and the competitors are an inspiration
to people.
even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates were skilful at re-casting the original text in their
own words. Random, mindless copying did not occur as much as it has done in the past. However, some
weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for use of
own words, but in so doing they gained several marks for content points. It seemed that some candidates
had been taught, or had decided, to adopt this latter strategy and, indeed, it may be a good course of action
for candidates who are lacking in skill or confidence in the use of English. However, only those candidates
who were competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in
original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style. As has happened in the past,
Examiners reported candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being clearly
proficient in English, because their summaries were far too generalised and lacking in the precision required
to make content points; however, the incidence of this was lower than in some previous Papers.
inconsistent and illogical verb tenses. Spelling and punctuation were generally very good, and handwriting
was generally clear.
In parts of the world where French is spoken, there was some confusion between French and English
grammar and vocabulary, e.g. assist for attend, envy for want, recommand for recommend, to lose
time for to waste time, confusion of make and do, confusion between his her and its, and problems
with plural nouns of uncountable items, such as transports for transport.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
INSERT

1123/21
May/June 2010
1 hour 30 minutes
Music
1
Music is a universal form of communication, cutting across all periods of history and all regions
of the planet. Human beings were probably inspired to produce music by the sounds they
heard in the world of nature, like birdsong and animal cries, which formed the background
of their daily existence. Even in primitive times, music played an important part in the social
5
life of the community events like birth, marriage and death had their own individual and
appropriate music. The earliest written representations of musical sound are found in India,
providing a beginning for a study of the history of music, and instruments such as flutes and
various types of stringed instruments have been recovered from archaeological sites there.
Because it has the power to touch individuals according to the moods and situations in which
10
they find themselves, people have also always found music to be useful on a personal level.
A particularly poignant story which demonstrates the power of music is told about the 24th of
December 1914. Many European countries had been engaged for four months in a war which
was to continue for almost another four years, but the soldiers in one part of the battlefield,
remembering that this was the night before Christmas, turned their thoughts away from war
towards a celebration of this important Christian festival. Imagine the astonishment of the 15
British soldiers when the sound of Christmas songs being sung by enemy German soldiers
drifted towards them on the clear night air. Moved by the music, although fearful at first, men
who had earlier in the day been fighting against each other stepped from their hiding places.
The language barrier was somehow broken down, enabling limited conversations to take
place. The soldiers spontaneously put down their weapons, exchanging food gifts and even 20
playing football together. The Christmas Truce, as it came to be called, has come to represent
the endurance of human beings in the face of adversity, and music played an important role.
Perhaps the most important turning point in the history of music was the invention of recorded
sound. In 1877 Thomas Edison invented the phonograph, and this was the beginning of the
recording industry as we know it today. The phonograph a machine which played back 25
sounds was hailed as a great scientific breakthrough and there was a chaotic rush to invent
other recording devices. These inventions often overlapped. It is hard to imagine the interest
which was aroused in improving the recording of sound, and Edison was seen as one of the
great scientific figures of the century. Inventors were frequently involved in angry disputes to
be acknowledged as the official inventor of some improvement or other. Nowadays, a mere 30
one hundred and fifty years or so after its invention, recorded music affects millions of people
and involves vast amounts of money per year. It employs thousands of people, including
musicians, sound engineers and salespeople. Thomas Edison began a technology boom
which he could not even have begun to imagine.
Recorded sound brings a wide range of music to ordinary people who, in the past, would have 35
been confined to the one or two sorts of music which characterised their tribe or their region.
Recorded music crosses boundaries and cultures if you want to investigate the music of,
say, Sri Lanka or Kenya, it is easy to do so by a trip to your music shop or even by surfing
the internet. Moreover, air travel has become more frequent and its inexpensiveness means
that people can attend cultural shows in far-flung holiday destinations and buy recordings of 40
the music of the countries they visit. Before the invention of recorded music, people might
have played or listened to live music in their own homes, but in families without either musical
instruments or the skill to play them, this would clearly not have been possible. However,
access to recordings enables ordinary people nowadays to hear music as often as they like,
without needing to own or be able to play an instrument. The fact that buying recorded music 45
is generally cheaper than attending live performances is another attraction.
UCLES 2010
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/10
3
5
As far as musicians themselves are concerned, recorded music has brought about a revolution.
In the past, musicians played only in live performances, where wrong notes might be played,
but now that recordings can be corrected a perfect version of the original can be achieved.
Furthermore, although members of a live audience may spoil a performance with, say, a fit 50
of uncontrollable coughing or their mobile phone ringing, this cannot happen in a recording
studio. In cultures where music was not written down, it could be forgotten and consequently
lost, along with its capacity to give pleasure to many people. Now a recording captures it for
ever; moreover, the efficiency of recording studios means that this can be done in a single
afternoon.
55
However, Thomas Edison, were he to come back to our planet as a time traveller, might not
agree that the invention of recorded sound has brought nothing but good to music. It could be
argued that people have become so used to listening to recorded sound in the privacy of their
own homes that they have no motivation to attend concerts of live music. Why should you buy
a concert ticket and trudge out in the rain to the venue when you can listen to a perfect version 60
of your favourite music in your own living room? When people do attend live performances,
they are so used to the flick of a switch approach to music that they have lost any sense of
wonder at its creation. At many concerts of popular music, the audience wanders in and out
of the auditorium, returning at times to listen to a favourite song or instrumental piece. The
easy availability of high-quality recorded music may also discourage some people, especially 65
the young, from learning to play musical instruments. Is it not likely that potential talent will be
left undiscovered because of the invention of recorded music?
Often, when music is recorded, the focus becomes the musician and not the music. This is
particularly true of popular music aimed at young audiences. When disproportionate attention
is directed towards the musician, this can result in pop stars commanding outrageously 70
high incomes. Because the world of pop music is usually more about image than talent,
recording stars are not necessarily the best musicians, although the young people who buy
their recorded music might be deluded into thinking that they are. How many times are we
bombarded by images of glamorous pop idols staring at us from magazines or the pages of
national newspapers? Their spouses, their holidays, their homes, their clothes, their hairstyles 75
greedy editors decide that we have to be told about these, whether we like it or not. And
often we dont! Young people are frequently under pressure to purchase not only recordings
of their music, but expensive merchandise such as posters, DVDs and T-shirts. In addition,
sometimes these pop stars have a negative effect on their young audiences by being poor role
models for them in the kind of lives that they lead, often at odds with the lifestyles advocated 80
by the young peoples parents.
Throughout history, music has had many functions, ranging from providing aesthetic pleasure
to religious or ceremonial purposes. In our own time, the advent of the internet has transformed
our experience of music, because it affords us both increased access and increased choice.
Think of such diverse activities as primitive man sounding a horn while hunting his prey, a 85
mother soothing her baby with a lullaby, or the school orchestra at the end-of-term concert,
and you have a glimpse of the importance of music down through the ages.
UCLES 2010
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/10

1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2010
1 hour 30 minutes
*6489630642*

2
From paragraph 1:
1
(a) Why, according to the writer, is music a universal form of communication?
[1]
(b) According to the writer, what probably inspired human beings to produce music?
[1]
(c) What feature of early Indian music provides a beginning for a study of the history of music?
[1]
(d) Apart from the role that music has played in the social life of the community, what is the other
important function of music?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) Why would the soldiers be fearful at first?
[1]
(b) Why would the conversations between the soldiers be limited?
[1]
(c) Pick out and write down the single word which shows that the Christmas Truce was not
planned.
[1]
(d) What, according to the writer, has the Christmas truce come to represent? Answer in your
own words.
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
(a) Why did the phonograph mark the beginning of the recording industry?
[1]
(b) In what two ways was the rush to invent other recording devices chaotic? Number your
answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
(c) Recorded music affects millions of people a mere one hundred and fifty years or so after
its invention. What does the use of the word mere suggest about the writers attitude to the
effects of recorded music?
[1]
From paragraph 4:
4
Why are ordinary people able to visit far-flung holiday destinations?
[1]
From paragraph 6:
5
What, according to the writer, is the result when young people are discouraged from playing
musical instruments?
[1]
UCLES 2010
1123/21/M/J/10
3
From paragraph 7:
6
(a) Explain in your own words why pop stars are not necessarily the best musicians.
[2]
(b) What, according to the writer, do editors hope to gain by publishing information about pop
stars?
[1]
From paragraph 8:
7
Explain in your own words the ways in which the internet has transformed our experience of
music.
[2]

Choose five of the following words or phrases. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of
not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
individual (line 5)
moods (line 9)
hailed (line 26)
investigate (line 37)
5.
6.
7.
8.
aimed at (line 69)

outrageously (line 70)
negative (line 79)
advent (line 83)
[5]
Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the advantages and disadvantages
of recorded music, as identified by the writer of the passage.
Recorded music means that people can choose to listen to
[25]
UCLES 2010
1123/21/M/J/10
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Question 1 from paragraph 1

(a) universal communication
it cuts across / affects all periods of history / time
OR it cuts across all regions (of the planet) / places / countries / areas
Award either idea of time or idea of place or both
[1]
Lift of lines 12 (Musicthe planet) = 0. Some minor reshaping or distillation is required.

(b) human beings to produce music
the sounds of (the world of) nature // birdsong // animal cries
Accept the lift, in whole or in part, of lines 24 (Human beingsdaily existence). Excess
denies.
[1]
But lift of the background of their daily existence (alone) = 0
(c) Indian music
it was written (down)
[1]
Lift of lines 67 (The earliest writtenhistory of music) = 0. Question asks for a feature of
Indian music
(d) other important function of music
personal (listening) // it touches the individual
[1]
Accept lift of lines 910 (Because it has the power on a personal level). Excess denies.
Accept lift of line 10 (People have always...personal level)
Accept lift of lines 910 (It has the power to touch individuals (according to the moods and
situations in which they find themselves). Excess denies, including because. Some distilling
is required.
(a) soldiers fearful
the music came from / they could hear / they were approaching enemies / enemy soldiers //
they had been fighting them / the enemy earlier (that day) // the German / enemy soldiers
might attack them // it might be a trap // they didnt trust the enemy
[1]
They had been fighting // they were at war = 0 (N)
They could hear music / they were moved by the music = 0 (W)
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 1718 (Men who had earlierhiding places) = 0 (N). But
sensible re-shaping, e.g. it came from men who had earlier in the day been fighting against
them = 1
UCLES 2010
Page 3

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(b) limited conversations

they spoke different languages / didnt speak the same language // there was a language
barrier
[1]
Lift of line 19 (The language barrier was somehow broken down) = 0. Answer must be
distilled.
(c) unplanned
spontaneously
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase or a
(d) Christmas Truce
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are ENDURANCE and ADVERSITY
A. ENDURANCE
perseverance / bravery / staying power / putting up with / tolerance / patience // ability to
cope / bear / stand / withstand / undergo strain / stick it out // stamina / willpower
[1]
durability / strength / bravery / persistence = 0 (N)
B. ADVERSITY
difficulty / trouble / suffering / hardship / problems / misfortune / struggles / trials / affliction /
bad times / sorrow / disaster / catastrophe / distress / calamity / woe
[1]
enemy / unhappiness / danger = 0 (N)
Do not insist on synonym for human beings or in the face of. Double underline penal words
or their derivatives. Mark correct answers where they occur, i.e. not just the first two
synonyms offered.
(a) 'phonographindustry
it played (back) sound(s)
[1]
It recorded sound = 0
Accept lift of lines 2526 (The phonograph machine which plays back sounds). Excess
denies.
Lift of lines 2425 (In 1877, Thomas Edisonas we know it today) = 0 (N). This merely
repeats the question.
Lift of lines 2526 (The phonographscientific breakthrough) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
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(b) chaotic rush

(i) the inventions / they (often) overlapped / happened at the same time / had shared
characteristics / were alike / there was (often) more than one invention happening at the
same time
[1]
Accept lift of line 27 (These inventions often overlapped). Excess denies, i.e. run on into
It is hard to imagine
(ii) inventors were (frequently) involved in disputes / battles / to be acknowledged as the
inventor / for an improvement
[1]
Accept lift of lines 2930 (Inventors were frequently involvedsome improvement or
other). Excess denies.
Any reference in either limb to the interest aroused in improving recording / Edison being
seen as a great inventor = 0 (W) in an otherwise correct answer.
(c) mere
surprise / amazement (that the effects could be so great / that so many people could be
affected by music / that the effects could happen in so short a time)
OR he / she thinks that this is a short time (for all this to happen / considering what has
happened)
OR he / she wants to stress that this happened in a short period of time / quickly
[1]

(a) 'far-flung destinations
air travel has become / is inexpensive / cheap / doesnt cost much / affordable / cheaper
[1]
Lift of lines 3940 (Air travel has been more frequentholiday destinations) = 0
Lift of line 39 (its inexpensiveness meansholiday destinations) = 0, unless agent is
supplied.
Any reference to frequency of air travel = 0 (N)
Any reference to buying recordings of music of countries visited = 0 (N)
young people discouraged
(potential) talent / skill / ability will be undiscovered / not found / go to waste / not be used
OR young people / they will not know they have talent / skill / ability
Lift of lines 6667 (Is it not likelyrecorded music?) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
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(a) pop stars not best musicians
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are IMAGE and TALENT
A. IMAGE
appearance / look(s) / presentation / visual impact / face value / impression // how / what they
seem / portrayal // how they sell themselves
[1]
likeness / performance / identity / fame / glamour = 0
B. TALENT
skill / ability / giftedness / aptitude / proficiency / competence / mastery / prowess / forte /
accomplishment / art / technique / specialism / bent / flair / knack / genius // producing good /
quality music
[1]
Double underline penal words or their derivatives. Ignore grammatical form. Mark correct
answers where they occur, i.e. not just the first two synonyms offered.
(b) editors
money / cash / payment // big / bigger / increased sales (of newspapers / magazines)
Greed / they are greedy = 0. This does not answer the question.
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internetexperience
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are INCREASED ACCESS and
INCREASED CHOICE
A. INCREASED ACCESS
more / greater / easier opportunity / chance / availability / possibility / entry / ability (to hear / listen
to) // more ways of getting / finding / obtaining // get music from more places / everywhere
[1]
approach / reception / at all times = 0
B. INCREASED CHOICE
more / greater selection / options // (music to) pick from / alternatives / to discriminate among //
greater variation / range / mixture / types / genre // all sorts
[1]
possibility = 0
Insist on synonym for INCREASED, but it need not occur in both limbs, e.g. more opportunity and
selection = 2
If correct synonyms are offered for ACCESS and CHOICE with no attempt at INCREASED,
award 1 mark, e.g. opportunity and selection = 1
If only one correct synonym is offered for either ACCESS or CHOICE, with no attempt at
INCREASED, give 0 marks, e.g. reception and selection = 0
Do not insist on synonym for music. Double underline penal words or their derivatives. Mark
correct answers where they occur, i.e. not just the first two synonyms offered.
8
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

A comma or the word or indicates a second attempt.
For two answers joined by and, allow one correct answer if the other answer is not wholly
wrong but neutral, e.g. emotions and situations for moods.
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1 mark
Regard as 0[N] unless indicated as 0(W)
1. individual
(line 5)
characteristic / personal / belonging to

them / separate / particular / special /
unique / singular / idiosyncratic /
distinctive / peculiar /specific / private
appropriate / different / single
2. moods
(line 9)
emotions / feelings / temper /

temperament / mental state / frame of
mind / disposition
situations / anger / sullenness / condition /

depression
3. hailed
(line 26)
greeted / acclaimed / praised /

congratulated / applauded / appreciated /
welcomed / complimented / commended /
well-received / acknowledged / cheered /
saluted
cried / shouted / accepted
4. investigate
(line 37)
research / find out (about) / discover /

examine / scrutinize / check / explore
look for / search / test
5. aimed at
(line 69)
directed (at) / meant / designed / written /

created (for) / targeted (at) // (whose)
purpose / intention // objective (is) /
focused on / produced
shot / aspired to
6.
outrageously
(line 70)
extremely / ridiculously / obscenely /

excessively / grossly / immoderately /
atrociously / shamefully / disgracefully /
scandalously / shockingly / exorbitantly
very / quite / reasonably / surprisingly /

notoriously / exceedingly
7. negative
(line 79)
bad / harmful / damaging / hurtful /

disastrous / poor / disadvantageous /
downside / adverse
opposite / odd / strange / wrong /

unwanted
8. advent
(line 83)
arrival / coming / invention / appearance /

debut / introduction
approach / entrance / return / progress /

growth / onset / occurrence
[5 marks (5 1)]
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NOTES:
1.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
DO NOT use the candidates word-total without checking it.
4.
Marking Technique
5.
following maxima:
025 (0); 2650 (2); 5175 (4); 76100 (6); 101125 (8). So in 121 words, with OW10 and
UE10, Style mark = 8
6.
Sequence errors
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Recorded music means ordinary people can choose to listen to
1.
(people can listen to) a wide range / many / any / all types of music
2.
recorded music crossed boundaries / cultures // people can listen to / buy music of different /
other cultures
3.
people can buy music of holiday destinations / countries visited
4.
people can hear music as often as / whenever they like // dont need to own / be able to play
instrument
5.
recorded music is cheaper than live performances / concerts
6.
musicians can record perfect versions of music // dont worry about wrong notes
7.
no need to worry about audiences spoiling the music / performance // live performances are
flawed by audiences
8.
music is captured for ever // cannot be lost
9.
music can be recorded in an afternoon / quickly
10. people dont go to live performances / concerts

11. people lose a sense of the wonder of (the creation of) music
12. people dont know how to behave at concerts // wander in and out of the auditorium at
concerts
13. (young) people are / might be discouraged from playing / have no motivation to play a
musical instrument
14. talent might not be discovered / might be wasted
15. focus becomes the musician (and not the music)
16. pop stars get too high salaries
17. pop stars are not (necessarily) the best musicians
18. people are bombarded with images of pop stars / musicians
19. (young) people are under pressure to buy merchandise / posters / DVDs
20. pop stars / musicians are often poor role models / examples
21. pop stars / values at odds with parental values
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
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SUMMARY QUESTION : STYLE ASSESSMENT

SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
mangled.
phrases/clauses, omissions of stops after introductory words like however.
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Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
USE OF ENGLISH
109

language.
109

to the reader.
87

87

isolated as to be almost
unnoticeable.
generally helpful.
65

mangled relevance.
65

and serious errors are not
frequent, although they are
noticeable.
attempted.
43

transcript.
expression.
below.
43

frequent.
20

the text.
20

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Note 1:
Scripts placed in the last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two
boxes, as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score the middle box for
UE as this is the best fit box.
Note 2:
Relevance and irrelevance:

(i) Wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4 max
(ii) Recognisable OW limited by some irrelevance: 5/6 for OW. Mark UE as normal.
UCLES 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper, on the theme of Music, seemed to engage the interest of the candidates, while at the
same time testing the most able. It stretched and discriminated among the candidates a true measure of
comprehension reflected in the wide range of scores. There were sufficient nuances in the summary to tax
the candidates and to engage their thought processes rather than their ability to copy from the text.
The performance of the candidates showed that, in general, they had been well prepared by their teachers
and understood the nature of the examination. The paper seemed to be deceptively hard for some
candidates who were unable to score by fortuitous lifting from the text. Examiners reported very few rubric
infringements.
types of questions likely to be asked. Most candidates completed the paper and some, though not many,
managed to offer both a rough draft and a fair copy in response to the summary question. The paper
followed the usual pattern. Twenty-five marks were allocated to the testing of literal comprehension,
inferential comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers craft. A further twentyfive marks were allocated to the summary question, these marks being divided between assessment of
own words. As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were those which required the
identified the key words for re-casting, found it impossible to find synonyms.
Examiners continued to report some candidates writing in excess of the 160 words prescribed by the rubric
for the summary. There was also an increase in the number of candidates writing fewer than 160 words and
a number who failed to address the task by providing their own reflections on recorded music.

Question 1(a) was designed to ease the candidates into the examination with a fairly straightforward test,
asking why, according to the writer, music is a universal form of communication. Many candidates
successfully reproduced the first sentence of the extract to score a mark, referring to its affecting the idea of
either time or place. Some distillation of the text was required and the simple statement (from a small
number of candidates) that music has existed throughout history was not rewarded. Any further copying
from the text past the first sentence denied some candidates a mark as did the misreading of religions for
regions.
Question 1(b) proved to be an unproblematic question for most candidates who were able to identify that the
sounds of nature or animal cries had inspired human beings to produce music. Many chose to answer by
accurate reproduction of the text, starting with Human beings in line 2 and ending with of their daily
existence in line 4. Any verbatim excess denied the mark to only a handful of candidates.
In Question 1(c) successful candidates were able to identify that the feature of Indian music which provided
a beginning for the study of music was the written representations. Correct and succinct answers indicated
that it/music was written down. Many, however, wrongly stated that the feature was the discovery of flutes
and instruments, and candidates who added this to an otherwise correct answer were denied a mark.

Question 1(d) was a straightforward question and the answer could be lifted from the passage (lines 910),
stating that music touched the individual, playing its part on a personal/individual level.
Question 2(a) asked why the soldiers would be fearful at first, referring to their reaction to the sound of
Christmas songs being sung by the enemy German soldiers. Many candidates understood their suspicions
that the singing could be a trap to ambush them and others recognised the incongruity of such music coming
from enemy soldiers. Some candidates did not score a mark because they stated simply that the soldiers
were at war or because they had been fighting. Such answers were regarded as too general a reference by
not referring to the proximity of the enemy/Germans or that they had been fighting them (earlier). A number
of candidates failed to reshape the lift of lines 1718 (Men who had earlier in the day been fighting against
each other stepped from their hiding places) and thereby were denied the mark by not addressing the
question.
Question 2(b) asked why the conversations between the soldiers would be limited and many stated correctly
that the Germans and the British spoke different languages, that there was a language barrier, that they did
not understand each others language. However, a significant number of candidates chose to lift line 19
(The language barrier was somehow broken down) which did not address the question and which was, in
fact, incorrect, suggesting that there was not a language problem at all. Some candidates also focused,
incorrectly, on not wishing to reveal information to the enemy as a reason for limited conversation.
Question 2(c) required the candidates to identify a single word from the passage which showed that the
Christmas truce was unplanned. This word was spontaneously and a great number of the candidates
recognised this. Those who did not score offered astonishment, which related to the reaction to the sound
of the Christmas songs.
Question 2(d) was the first of the own words questions and proved to be a good discriminator. Candidates
were asked to identify what the Christmas truce had come to represent, leading them to find synonyms for
endurance and adversity. A few candidates recognised that endurance suggested perseverance,
stamina, willpower and a refusal to give in rather than the simpler, more general and hence unrewarded
ideas of bravery, strength or persistence. Slightly more candidates were successful with synonyms for
adversity, offering words such as struggle, trouble, bad times, problems and suffering. Any references
to being at war or to the enemy suggested a more specific context rather than a general state of affairs and
these were not rewarded.
Question 3(a) The phonograph marked the beginning of the recording industry because it played back
sounds/music and this was recognised by many of the candidates. Those who did not answer correctly
rephrased the question by stating that the phonograph recorded sound. Other unsuccessful attempts lifted
the reference to Thomas Edison or extended the quotation by reference to the phonograph as a scientific
breakthrough and therefore failed to distil their answer.
In Question 3(b), both parts of the question were successfully answered by the majority of candidates by
selecting the appropriate lines from the text. Most spotted the two ways in which the rush to invent recording
devices were chaotic by noting that (i) inventions often overlapped and (ii) inventors were often in dispute to
be acknowledged as the inventor. Little reshaping was necessary but a minority of candidates omitted to
mention that the inventors were involved in disputes.
Question 3(c) on the writers craft asked what the word mere suggested about his attitude to the effects of
recorded music and proved to be a good discriminator since few candidates recognised that the writer was
amazed or that he thought that so little time had passed for such effects to take place.
In Question 4, most candidates recognised that people were able to visit far-flung destinations because air
travel had become cheaper. Unsuccessful attempts usually did not mention air travel and simply provided a
general answer: it had become cheaper or referred to the destinations being cheaper.
Question 5 was well answered by the majority of candidates who understood that talent would be wasted or
undiscovered if children were discouraged from playing musical instruments. However, the answer did
require some reshaping of the text and credit is due to the many who were able to do this. Those who were
unsuccessful either did not address the question because they quoted directly from the text (Is it not likely
that (lines 6667)), or because they used a double negative, thus producing a wrong answer: It is not
likely that talent will remain undiscovered.

Question 6(a) was the second of the own words questions and asked candidates to explain why pop stars
are not necessarily the best musicians thus prompting a rephrase of image and talent. This question
proved taxing for many. Synonyms for image such as appearance, looks, were more common than those
for talent for which only a few were able to offer correct alternatives such as skill, gift and producing good
music. Most candidates simply offered the lifted words talent and image.
In Question 6(b), Examiners found that a number of candidates focused on the information that editors
could gain from pop stars. Successful candidates suggested that editors hoped to gain money, wealth and
riches or more sales/readers of their publications.
Question 7, the final own words question, was challenging for many candidates who did not explain why the
internet had transformed our experience of music by reshaping increased accessibility and increased
choice. Many reproduced the lifted words or failed to produce synonyms for increased. Although many
understood that choice meant options, selection, variety or types they did not add a comparative such
as more and since they did not appear to understand the meaning of or provide a synonym for
accessibility failed even to gain the one mark available for two synonyms without a comparative.
eight. On the whole candidates generally selected wisely. For individual separate, specific and
personal were common correct answers and a person a common incorrect one. Feelings and emotions
were frequently offered correctly for moods and praised was the usual synonym for hailed. For
investigate candidates frequently provided research, find out and know more as synonyms along with
investigate, examine and look into. Commonly used but unacceptable synonyms for investigate were
look for, study, find, search and know. Targeted, directed towards and made for were popular
choices for aimed at. Outrageously engaged the imagination of many candidates and demonstrated the
breadth of the English language. Incorrect answers usually resulted from the use of bland expressions
referring to pop stars outrageous salaries as being high (salaries) or very/quite high (salaries). Correct
responses included too high, extremely, obscenely, unbelievably, ridiculously in fact, adverbs which
implied some degree of incredulity or condemnation or disgust. Bad and poor often scored a mark for
negative whereas wrong did not. The most difficult word in the vocabulary, section but certainly not
ignored by the candidates, was advent. Candidates generally suggested arrival and invention as correct
synonyms although few chose the simpler coming. It was agreed that beginning and approach were not
acceptable choices.
Question 9 was the customary summary question, carrying half the total marks for the paper. Candidates
were asked to summarise the advantages and disadvantages of recorded music, as identified by the writer of
the passage. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just more than half of the
original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160 words,
the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were twenty
one content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen points carrying
one mark each. Examiners reported that most of the candidates completed the summary questions but that
there were, as usual, a number of candidates exceeding the word limit. Also, it was noted that there were
more candidates than usual writing fewer than 160 words and thereby limiting their opportunity to score as
many content points as possible. There were also fewer candidates gaining maximum content points on this
paper. A very small number of candidates forfeited their style marks by writing in note form rather than in
continuous prose. There were also a number of candidates who did not address the question and preferred
to offer their own thoughts on the advantages and disadvantages of recorded music, thus limiting their total
of content points through irrelevance or oblique relevance.
The first two paragraphs of the area for summary search, namely paragraphs four and five, dealt with the
advantages of recorded music. The opening ten words were designed to ease the candidates into the
summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that people can listen to a wide range of
music; most candidates started off well by making this point. Many or any types or a variety of music
were acceptable but candidates who suggested different did not gain a mark. Paragraph four continued by
suggesting that music crossed boundaries and that people could listen to music from all over the world as
often as they liked without the need to own an instrument. These points were well made as was the fact that
recorded music was cheaper than going to a concert. Some candidates simply said that recorded music was
cheap and this on its own was an inadequate response. Less frequently awarded was the point that people
can buy music from the countries they have visited.
Paragraph five concentrated on the quality of recorded music whereby musicians could record perfect
versions without worrying about errors or without their performance being spoiled by an audience. These

points along with the statements that music would not be lost and can be recorded quickly were frequently
made.
Paragraph six focused on the disadvantages of recorded music and most candidates recognised that people
do not go to concerts, that they have little motivation to play an instrument and that this leads to
undiscovered talent. On the other hand, the point that was made by only a minority of candidates was that
people had lost their sense of wonder at the creation of music. Also the general point about poor behaviour
at concerts was rarely made, although its more specific alternative concerning the public walking in and out
of the auditorium did make the occasional appearance.
Paragraph seven carried seven marks. Firstly, it was recognised that the focus today was on the musicians
and that pop stars are not necessarily the best. These points were commonly made. Candidates referred to
pop stars high salaries but often failed to score the mark since to indicate a disadvantage a qualifier was
required such as too high or outrageously. Points which were frequently awarded were references to the
pressure to buy merchandise and the poor example set by pop stars. It was unusual to see a mention of the
values of pop stars and parents being at odds with each other and that people were bombarded with images
of pop stars.
Ten marks were allocated to the style of writing in the summary question, where style was assessed
according to how well the candidates were able to use their own words and the extent to which they were
able to write error-free, continuous prose, using a variety of sentence structures. Examiners reported that
ability to break away from the words of the original text varied from candidate to candidate and even from
centre to centre, but that in general candidates were skilful at re-casting the text in their own words. There
was little evidence of random, mindless copying although some weaker candidates played safe by relying
fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring too highly for use of own words, but in so doing they
gained several marks for content points. It seemed that some candidates had been taught or had decided to
adopt this strategy and, indeed, it may be a good course of action for candidates who are lacking in skill or
confidence in the use of English. It is not without its own skill in that the candidate must be able to
demonstrate his/her understanding by careful editing and selecting the content points from across the
chosen paragraphs. However, only those candidates who were competent and confident enough to grapple
with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original complex structures and sentences, were able to
gain many, or full, marks for style.
Common errors reported were the usual features of agreement in singular and plural, misplaced or omitted
prepositions, the omission of the definite or indefinite articles and inconsistent and illogical verb tenses.
Spelling and punctuation were generally very good and handwriting clear.

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2010
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes

A Nightmare Journey
1
Come on, Rose, relax! laughed Jameela to her room-mate. Im only going out for two hours.
You cant study all the time! But Rose was not to be dissuaded; with only one week until the
university examinations, the proposed cinema trip, like all Jameelas recent diversions, was
out of the question. In any case, although Roses parents never referred to the sacrifices
they were making to allow her to attend university, how could they ever be far from her mind?
Jameelas typically unrealistic attitude towards time was demonstrated by her return four
hours later, just as Rose was packing up her books and preparing for bed.
As the girls went to their classes the next morning, Jameela took Roses arm affectionately.
Its great that our parents are paying for us to have a trip home after the exams, she said.
Ive been thinking about plane and train timetables and I suggest you leave the arrangements 10
to me. Its too difficult for you. Rose fought against her annoyance at Jameelas insult and
decided to ignore it. Shes probably right, she mused, and, anyway, why should I make work
for myself?
That evening Roses head was buried in her notes as the door of the room was thrown open
and Jameela made her usual dramatic entrance. She was carrying a large shopping basket, 15
from which peeped the provisions she had earlier promised to buy for their evening meal.
From the doorway she kicked her sandals across the room in a flamboyant gesture. Well,
thats that! she exclaimed happily, brandishing a fistful of tickets, before flopping into the
rooms only armchair. Theres nothing left to do except pass the exams, and were off!
The ensuing fortnight passed in a whirlwind of studying and examinations. Jameelas friend, 20
Nizam, arrived to take the girls to the airport in his car, which spluttered and wheezed, as if
it were not even certain itself that it was capable of such a task. Please, climb in, ladies, he
said, untying the piece of string which held the cars back door in place. Cool luggage, he
continued, nodding towards Jameelas decrepit and battered orange rucksack; its straps were
so frayed that they were held together with tape, and several sweaters bulged from its top. At 25
the same time he cast a disparaging eye over Roses little suitcase, bought especially for this
journey home. After a bumpy ride to the airport, the girls had a smooth flight, and were set to
begin the next stage of their journey, which was to make their way to Central Station in the city
centre to catch the express train to their home town.
As soon as the girls got off the plane at Terminal One, Rose pointed to a sign indicating that 30
buses for Central Station left, not from this part of the airport, but from Terminal Two; they
began to move as quickly as they could, a brisk walk at first and then a comfortable jog. A
notice at the bus stop informed them that buses departed only every thirty minutes. A glance
at their watches told them that a bus had just left in fact, they could see its brake lights as
it negotiated the corner. Not to worry, said Jameela cheerfully. The local train station is just 35
downstairs and we can travel from there to Central Station. I much prefer trains to buses.
At least there wasnt a queue for the automatic ticket machine, thought Rose, as she and
Jameela unzipped their bags to find money for the fare, before discovering that the machine
accepted only credit cards and not cash. Smiling in order to conceal their embarrassment, the
girls turned away. A long queue of people snaked in front of them, and they realised that this 40
was the queue for the ticket office.
UCLES 2010
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/10
3
6
Eventually, clutching their tickets, the girls hurled themselves onto the elderly little train which
would take them to Central Station. Sitting beside the door, her luggage at her side, Rose felt
some of her tension leave her. Why not look on the journey as an adventure? Why couldnt
she be more like Jameela? These soothing thoughts were interrupted by disturbing ones that 45
the train had already made several stops; in fact, it seemed to be stopping every kilometre
or so. She had to remind herself that this was no express train; this was a train merely to
serve the local community. Furthermore, the train was becoming increasingly busy; crowds
got on, but nobody left; the girls faces were pressed into the backs of standing passengers
as the train crawled along the track. Apprehensively, the girls held onto their luggage; they 50
had heard stories of pickpockets and thieves on busy local transport. Hunger pangs made
Roses stomach rumble; despite Jameelas confidence in her own organisational skills, she
had forgotten to include a lunch break in their travel plans. Rose, said Jameela awkwardly,
Im beginning to think we might miss the connecting train home. The train leaves Central
Station at 7.07pm. I completely underestimated how long it would take us to transfer from the 55
airport . Her voice tailed off into embarrassment.
Rose surprised them both by taking the initiative. The next stop is North Station. If we stay
until Central, well definitely miss the train, and its the last one home today. Lets get off at
North and take a taxi. Jameela stared at her in amazement; they both knew that poor students
could not afford taxis. But Jameela was in no position to argue; her credibility lay in tatters. 60
Carried by the crowd surging up the station steps, the girls followed the exit signs. It was
6.45pm. But their chosen exit brought them out at the back of the station, where there was no
taxi rank. It was then that the frayed straps of Jameelas cool rucksack snapped. Pedestrians
jostled past, as the rucksacks contents spread all over the ground. Quickly! shouted Rose,
removing a plastic bag from her suitcase. Shove everything in here! They then had to dash to 65
the front of the station. It was 6.49pm. Can you get us to Central Station in fifteen minutes?
gasped Jameela. The driver indicated by an arrogant toss of his head that such a task would
be no problem to a city gent like him. Who were these provincial girls anyway, with their outof-town accents?
He accelerated violently away from the kerb. The girls closed their eyes as he recklessly wove 70
through traffic, narrowly avoiding parked vehicles and pedestrians; he occasionally glanced
at the girls to see if they were impressed by his driving prowess. When his mobile phone
rang, he conducted an animated conversation with the caller, laughing uproariously at his
own jokes and arranging a meeting for the following evening. Thats if he lives until tomorrow,
thought Rose grimly.
75
At 7.02pm, the taxi stopped at Central Station, the driver smug that they had arrived with two
minutes to spare. Luckily, the girls train was leaving from Platform 3, which was near the main
entrance. They ran at great speed down the platform. Rose followed some metres behind
Jameela, aware that they were attracting a lot of attention, not only from passengers on the
train but also from those on other platforms. But why was Jameela suddenly running back 80
down the platform towards her? At that point, with sickening clarity, Rose realised that access
to the train was on the other side; the carriage doors on this side were locked! A further frantic
sprint down the correct side of the platform followed, but they made it with seconds to spare.
10 At the start of the train journey, Rose showed her exasperation with her friend by being
uncommunicative. Furthermore, when Jameela spoke to her she avoided eye contact, but 85
then she began to see the funny side. Little flashbacks from the nightmare journey replayed
in her memory the train packed to capacity, the jaunty rucksack no longer fit for purpose,
Jameelas fists thumping on the wrong side of the carriage. And suddenly she was doubled
up with laughter. She read fear in Jameelas eyes. What would Rose tell Nizam about the
rucksack? What would she tell Jameelas parents about her work rate that year?
90
Dont worry, Jameela. Weve been friends for so long. Lets keep it that way, Rose smiled.
UCLES 2010
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/10

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
May/June 2010
1 hour 30 minutes
*3243908847*

2
From paragraph 1:
1
(a) Where was Jameela going that evening?
[1]
(b) What was Rose going to do that evening?
[1]
(c) Give two reasons why Rose was not to be dissuaded. Number your answers (i) and (ii). [2]
(d) Jameela returned four hours later. In what way did that show her unrealistic attitude towards
time?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) Explain what Jameelas insult was.
[1]
(b) Rose thought that Jameela was probably right. Why else did she decide to ignore the insult?
[1]
From paragraph 3:
3
Why was Jameela happy?
[1]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) Give two reasons why it seemed as if Nizams car might not be capable of taking the girls to
the airport. Number your reasons (i) and (ii).
[2]
(b) Pick out and write down the single word in the paragraph which shows that Nizam disapproved
of Roses luggage.
[1]
From paragraph 5:
5
Before they looked for the ticket office, the girls were smiling. Explain in your own words why
they were smiling.
[2]
From paragraph 6:
6
The girls hurled themselves onto the waiting train. What effect does the writer create here that
would not have been created by the word boarded?
[1]
UCLES 2010
1123/22/M/J/10
3
From paragraph 8:
7
Explain fully what Rose thought might happen to the taxi driver, and why.
[2]
From paragraph 10:

8
(a) Explain in your own words how Rose showed her exasperation with her friend.
[2]
(b) Rose read fear in Jameelas eyes. Explain exactly what two things Jameela was afraid Rose
would do. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]

9
Choose five of the following words or phrases. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of
not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
diversions (line 3)
mused (line 12)
tension (line 44)
soothing (line 45)
5.
6.
7.
8.
tailed off (line 56)

initiative (line 57)
narrowly (line 71)
smug (line 76)
[5]
10 The girls had a nightmare journey from the airport to the express train.
Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the difficulties and anxieties the
girls encountered from the time they reached the airport until the time they got onto the express
train at Central Station in the city centre.
When the girls reached Terminal One they soon realised that...
UCLES 2010
1123/22/M/J/10
[25]
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

(a) 'Jameela was going
(to the) cinema
[1]
Accept lift of line 3 (proposed) cinema trip). Excess denies. i.e. run on into like all Jameelas
recent
(b) Rose going to do
study (for the examinations) // prepare / revise learn for the examinations
[1]
(c) Rose not to be dissuaded

(i) there was (only) one week until examinations / examinations were (only) a week away /
next week / soon
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 24 (But Rose was not to be dissuadedout of the
question) = 1. Excess denies.
(ii) her parents had made / were making sacrifices for her to study / go to university
sensible inference related to parents and studying, e.g. she didnt want to let her parents
down
[1]
Lift of lines 45 (Although Roses parentsfrom her mind?) = 0. Answer must be
distilled.
(d) unrealistic attitude
she said she was going out for two hours (but stayed out for four hours / longer) // she stayed
out longer than she said she would
[1]
Lift of line 1 (Im only going out for two hours) = 0. Some distillation is required.
But accept some re-shaping, e.g. Im only going out for two hours, she said.
She stayed out for four hours (alone) = 0. This is question wording only.
She stayed out for a long time // she was (two hours) late = 0 (N)
(a) Jameelas insult
(Jameela / she said that) arranging the trip home / making travel arrangements was (too)
difficult for Rose // that Rose couldnt make travel arrangements
[1]
Lift of lines 1011, in whole or in part, (I suggest you leavedifficult for you) = 0 (N)
But accept some reshaping, e.g. I suggest you leave the travel arrangements to me, she /
Jameela said.
(b) ignore the insult
she didnt want to give herself work / make things difficult for herself // she wanted to make
things easy for herself
[1]
Lift of lines 1213 (Shes probably rightmake work for myself?) = 0
But accept some re-shaping, e.g. She mused Why should I make work for myself?
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Syllabus
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Jameela happy
she had bought the tickets for the trip / to go home // she had arranged the trip (home)
[1]
Any answer which suggests cause of happiness as making dramatic entrance / carrying shopping
basket / buying provisions / kicking off sandals/ flopping into armchair / passing exams = 0 (W)
they were going home / she was brandishing tickets = 0 (N)
(a) Nizams car
(i) it made strange / odd / unusual noises // spluttered / wheezed
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 2022 (Jameelas friendsuch a task) = 0. Answer

must be distilled.
Lift of lines 2122 (spluttered and wheezedsuch a task) = 0 as there is no agent.
But accept some re-shaping, e.g. the insertion of suitable agent the car or it (sic).
Excess denies.
(ii) the (back) door was held in place / shut / attached / tied with string
[1]
(pieces) of string (alone) = 0

Accept lift of line 23 (the pieces of string which held the cars back door in place)
But lift of lines 2223 (Please climb inback door in place) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
(b) Nizam disapproved
disparaging
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a sentence or
expression provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
girls were smiling
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are CONCEAL and EMBARRASSMENT.
A. CONCEAL
hide / cover (up) / pretend not (to be) / disguise / keep secret / camouflage / mask / not show
[1]
evade / prevent / overcome = 0

B. EMBARRASSMENT
awkwardness / humiliation / confusion / disconcertedness // feeling silly / stupid / foolish / out of
place / daft // shame / blushes
[1]
annoyance / inconvenience / adversity / difficulty / problem / guilt / mistake / stupidity (alone) /
silliness (alone) = 0
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Syllabus
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22

effect of hurled
Look for the idea of either speed or effort / energy
the girls / they were rushing / hurrying / going at (great) speed
OR they were pushing themselves (to the limit) / desperate (to catch the train)
[1]
Answers which merely re-cast meaning rather than give effect = 0 (N), e.g. they threw themselves
They were clumsy / undignified / ungainly = 0 (N)
happen to taxi driver
(i) he would be killed / would die (in a road accident / accident in his taxi)
[1]
(ii) as a result of careless / bad / dangerous driving
[1]
Wild / violent / rash / furious / bad/ poor / crazy / fast = 0 (N)

Do not insist on reference to his own driving, but answers which suggest accident
caused by someone elses driving = 0 (W)
Any reference to recklessly weaving through traffic / arranging meetings / mobile phone
call = 0 (N)
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22

(a) Rose showed exasperation
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are UNCOMMUNICATIVE and
AVOIDED CONTACT.
Do not insist on synonym for eye.
A. UNCOMMUNICATIVE (Rose / she) wouldnt / didnt / refused to talk / speak / say a word
to // converse with (Jameela / her (sic)) // was
silent / mute / quiet // didnt speak much / tried not to speak
[1]
made no contact with / ignored = 0
B. AVOIDED (EYE) CONTACT (Rose / she) didnt / wouldnt / tried not to look at Jameela /
her // would look her in the eye / meet her gaze
[1]
(b) what Rose would do
(i) (Rose / she would) tell Nizam that the rucksack had burst / broken // wasnt cool / as
good as he had thought // about the disaster with the rucksack
[1]
Lift of lines 8990 (What would Rose tellrucksack?) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
Lift of line 88 (Rucksack no longer fit for purpose) = 0
(ii) (Rose / she would) tell Jameelas parents that Jameela had not been studying / working
// had been lazy
[1]
Lift of line 90 (What would she tell Jameelas parentsthat year?) = 0. Answer must be
distilled.
Any addition of extra information, e.g. She was doubled up with laughter / she
remembered the train packed to capacity = 0 (W) and denies the mark in whatever limb
it occurs.
9
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

wrong but neutral, e.g. thought and wondered for mused.
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
1 mark
Regard as 0 (N) unless indicated as 0(W)
1. diversions
(line 3)
distractions / entertainment / amusement

/ pleasure / delight / recreation / play / fun
/ sport / excuses / avoidances
difference / disagreement / tasks

digressions / hobbies / plans / activities /
things to do / festivity / merriment / revels
/ attractions
2. mused
(line 12)
thought / pondered / contemplated /

meditated / reasoned / speculated /
reflected / ruminated / considered / said
to herself
wondered / studied / said / knew /

believed / dreamed / concentrated /
whispered / realised
3. tension
(line 44)
stress / anxiety / nervousness / strain /

worry / agitation / unease / pressure
fear / timidity / dread / stretch / pull /

concerns / feelings / anger /
apprehension / problem / troubles /
frustration / burdens / depression
4. soothing
(line 45)
comforting / calming / tranquillising /

composing / relieving / cheering / relaxing
/ heartening / alleviating / assuring /
reassuring / encouraging / healing /
chilling
better / soft / sweet / comfortable / happy

/ amusing / rejuvenating / pleasant
5. tailed off
(line 56)
faded / petered out / failed / faltered /

subsided / died (away) / receded /
diminished
decreased / lessened / shrank / fell /

slowed down / calmed / followed /
continued / changed / disappeared /
stopped / ended / weakened / quietened
6. initiative
(line 57)
lead // first / starting / opening / beginning

(step / idea)
main / principal / chief (idea) / plan action

/ the next move / control / choice /
decision / took the offensive
7. narrowly
(line 71)
just // by a fraction / inch / (very) little / not

much // (missing) and no more / barely /
hardly / by a short distance/ with little
space
only / closely / thin / slim / nearly / almost

/ slightly / sparingly
8. smug
(line 76)
pleased with himself / proud / (self)

satisfied / complacent / self-important /
puffed up / swollen headed / bumptious
arrogant / selfish / told / showing off /

important / boastful / bragging / pleased /
happy
[5 marks (5 1)]
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Syllabus
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Paper
22

NOTES:
1.
Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated on the next page. Award one mark for
each content point accurately made.
2.
Introductory Words
assessing Style.
3.
Length
DO NOT use the candidates word-total without checking it.
4.
Marking Technique

(ii) Assign the mark scheme number to points rewarded on all scripts.
(iii) Assess qualities of Style separately. Add the Style Mark to the Content Mark and show as a
ringed total in the right-hand margin.
5.
For answers shorter than the 150 words apply the following maxima for the Style mark:
025 (0); 2650 (2); 5175 (4); 76100 (6); 101125 (8). So in 121 words, with OW10
and UE10, style mark = 8
6.
Sequence errors
UCLES 2010
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

When the girls reached Terminal One they soon realised that
1.
buses left from Terminal Two / elsewhere // didnt leave from there // they were at wrong
Terminal for buses
2.
buses left (only) every half hour // they would have to wait half an hour [needs bus context]
3.
they had (just) missed a / the bus // a / the bus was (just) leaving / had (just) left
4.
(train) ticket machine didnt take cash // only took (credit) cards // they had no (credit) card for
the ticket machine [needs ticket context]
5.
there was a (long) queue / many people waiting at the ticket office / for tickets
6.
train stopped at every station / was not an express / fast train // was slow / crawled // stopped
every km / several times
7.
train became / was (increasingly) busy / crowded / full / cramped
7A. girls faces pressed into passengers backs / girls squashed

8.
the girls / they were worried / afraid of // there might be / were pickpockets / thieves
9.
Rose / the girls / they were hungry // Jameela / they hadnt planned for lunch / meals
10. Jameela underestimated timescale / journey length // they might miss connection / train // not
reach station in time
11. the girls (thought they) couldnt afford a taxi // taxis were / are expensive
12. the girls / they couldnt find a taxi (rank) // took wrong exit for taxis
13. Jameelas / the rucksack / bag (straps) broke
14. contents of rucksack / bag spread all over (the ground) / fell out
15. Jameela / the girls / they (had to) put contents of rucksack into (plastic) bag
16. the girls / they (had to) run to the front of the station
17. taxi / driver drove (too) fast / accelerated violently
18. taxi / driver drove recklessly / wildly / violently etc. // almost hit (parked) cars / pedestrians
19. (taxi) driver using (mobile) phone
20. the girls / they had to run down the platform // they had (only) two minutes to spare // they ran
to catch the train
21. they ran / went down were on wrong (side of ) platform / side of train // entrance to train was
on other (side of) platform / doors of train on that side were locked
22. they (had to) run / went down correct / other (side of ) platform
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
UCLES 2010
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Syllabus
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22

serious errors. Underline only serious errors.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms
Breakdown of sense
MINOR ERRORS
mangled.
Minor errors of punctuation, i.e. the failure to complete pairs of commas in parenthetical phrases /
clauses, omissions of stops after introductory words like however.
the script or by use of left margin.
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Syllabus
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Paper
22

Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
USE OF ENGLISH
109

language.
109

to the reader.
87

87

isolated as to be almost
unnoticeable.
generally helpful.
65

Attempt may be limited by patches
of irrelevance or by oblique or
65

attempted.
43

the text, but not a complete
transcript.
expression.
often a patchwork of the text.
43

frequent.
sentence separation. Spelling is
largely accurate.
20

the text.
20

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Syllabus
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22
Note 1:
Scripts placed in last two boxes for OW cannot receive a UE mark from the top two boxes,
as originality does not apply. But accurate copying must score middle box for UE as this is
the best fit box.
Note 2:
Relevance and irrelevance:

UCLES 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper was a narrative topic which seemed to be accessible to most candidates, engaging their
interest and for the most part matching their understanding.
types of questions likely to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper. The paper
followed the usual pattern. Twenty-five marks were allocated to the testing of literal comprehension,
inferential comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers craft. A further twentyfive marks were allocated to the summary question, these marks being divided between assessment of
own words. As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were the questions which required
candidates to answer in their own words.
A small number of candidates bracketed sections of their summary, placing small crosses on either side of
the brackets but making no deletions within these brackets. Whether or not the bracketed section was
intended to be part of the summary was unclear and led to problems for Examiners. As usual, Examiners
reported a number of candidates writing in excess in the summary. Candidates sometimes made untidy
alterations to their summaries, sometimes in pencil; candidates must understand that such alterations make
it difficult for Examiners to check the accuracy of the number of words used in the summary. Furthermore,
untidy or pencil elimination of extra words and phrases, in an attempt to reduce the number of words used,
sometimes resulted in crossing out key points or key verbs or articles, producing nonsense and denying
marks both for content and for style of writing. Some Examiners reported very small handwriting making
work almost illegible, and confusion arising because some candidates wrote in the margins. Many
Examiners noted the neatness of presentation and handwriting, the fact that spelling and punctuation were
generally very good and the overall impressive standard of written English.

Question 1(a) and Question 1(b) were designed, as the opening questions, to ease candidates into the
examination with fairly accessible tests, and indeed the majority of candidates scored the marks for writing in
Question 1(a) that Jameela was going to the cinema that night, and for writing in Question 1(b) that Rose
was going to study, although some candidates wrote, wrongly, that Rose was packing up her books to go to
bed. Candidates fared reasonably well with Question 1(c), where the marks were awarded for writing,
firstly, that the university examinations were a week away, or near, or soon, and, secondly, that Roses
parents had made sacrifices to allow Rose to attend university. Where the mark was lost in the first limb, it
tended to be because the candidate used a wrong preposition, thus suggesting that the university
examinations were in progress, e.g. there was one week left in the examinations. If the mark was not
scored for the second limb, it tended to be because candidates made reference to the sacrifices of Roses
parents, without the purpose of the sacrifice, namely her education. Many candidates scored the mark for
Question 1(d), the answer to which was that Jameelas unrealistic attitude towards time could be seen in the
fact that she said she would stay out for two hours (although she stayed out for four), or that she stayed out
two hours longer than she said she would. The question here was about Jameelas lack of realism, not
punctuality, and so answers which merely stated that Jameela was late, or that she stayed out for a long
time, or that she did not value time and wasted it, or that she did not bother about time keeping, were not
sufficient to score; the difference between Jameelas intention and actual behaviour had to be spelled out
here.

In Question 2(a), the mark was awarded to candidates who wrote that Jameela insulted Rose by suggesting
that she was incapable of organising the trip; many candidates failed to score the mark because they
referred, imprecisely, to organisation but did not specify what had to be organised, namely, the trip. Others
thought the insult was directed at Roses parents difficulty in affording her fare home; some lost the mark
because they did not distinguish sufficiently who was telling whom that travel arrangements were difficult.
Others seemed not to know the meaning of insult. The answer to Question 2(b) was that Rose ignored the
insult because she did not want to make work for herself, or that she wanted to study instead; candidates
had to reshape the question in the text at lines 1213, as merely lifting the question would not answer the
question. A popular wrong answer was the somewhat mangled she did not want to work for herself.
The mark for Question 3 was awarded to candidates who wrote that Jameela was happy because she had
the tickets for the trip, or that she had arranged the trip. Many candidates spoiled a correct answer by
adding incorrect detail, such as a reference to the shopping bag, the kicking off of the sandals, or, more
commonly, the need to pass the examinations; precision was required here, and a careful reading of the
entire third paragraph which showed that there was only one reason why Jameela was happy. Some offered
inadequate answers that Jameela was happy because she had the tickets, without specifying what these
tickets were for; as in Question 2(a) this imprecise answer did not score. Other candidates wrote,
imprecisely, that Jameela was happy to be going home, with no mention of the tickets.
Most candidates did well with Question 4, and full marks were common. The answer to Question 4(a) was,
firstly, that the car made strange noises, or that it spluttered, or wheezed and, secondly, that the back door
was held in place by a piece of string. Lifting was possible here, but an agent had to be supplied, namely
the car or it, so that the lift of spluttered (alone) was insufficient as it did not answer the question.
Likewise, including untying in the lift of the piece of string which held the cars back door in place denied
the mark as it did not answer the question. A few candidates confused the state of the car with that of the
rucksack, referring to its frayed straps or even to sweaters on top. The answer to Question 4(b) was the
single word disparaging; candidates did very well here, showing either skill in vocabulary or in deducing
meaning from written text, both skills being laudable. Where the mark was lost, it tended to be for offering as
the answer cool, nodding or decrepit; some candidates spoiled their answer by writing two words,
disparaging eye, which was an unfortunate way to lose a mark when the knowledge of the answer was
there.
own words, with the key words being conceal and embarrassment. Acceptable synonyms for conceal
were, among others, hide, cover, disguise or not show, and, for embarrassment, awkwardness,
humiliation, confusion or not to show. Many candidates scored the mark for conceal but there was much
less success with embarrassment, with many candidates merely copying over the word, presumably
because they could not come up with a synonym. Shame was accepted here too; although it does not
mean exactly the same as embarrassment, it was seen as a way to open up the answer to a difficult
question. Many candidates wasted time here by giving unnecessarily long answers explaining the
background to the girls smiling, namely the problem with the automatic ticket machine.
In Question 6, candidates were being tested on response to the writers craft. The difference between
boarded and hurled lay in the idea either of speed or of effort, so acceptable answers were that the girls
hurried, or that they were desperate. The idea of difficulty was not accepted, although it did not deny an
otherwise correct answer; likewise, if the candidate wrote that the girls had to push themselves onto the train
because it was crowded, this did not score the mark, as there is nothing in the text to support that the train
was busy, and in fact quite the opposite seems to be the case. A few candidates thought that boarding
referred only to planes and not trains, and gave an explanation of this, which was unfortunately incorrect.
Question 7 carried two marks. The first of these was scored for writing that Rose thought that the taxi driver
would or might die, the inference being drawn from lines 7475, concerning Roses thoughts. The second
possible correct mark was scored for reference to the drivers careless, or reckless, or dangerous driving; an
inference had to be drawn here, so that mere reference to weaving in and out of traffic, or accelerating
violently, or speed, or talking on the mobile phone, were not sufficient to score. Many candidates offered a
weak answer for the first limb, writing the driver might be in an accident, rather than a fatal one, and many
candidates did not score the mark for the second limb because they merely offered one of the symptoms of
the dangerous driving, for example the weaving in and out of traffic, or because they offered imprecise
synonyms for dangerous/careless/reckless, for example crazy or violent.
Question 8 was, perhaps, the most difficult question on the paper, with some candidates scoring only one or
even no mark; the achievement of full marks was rare, and so this proved to be a discerning question which

differentiated candidates. Question 8(a) was the second of the questions on the paper which required
candidates to answer in their own words, the key words being uncommunicative and avoided contact.
Acceptable synonyms for uncommunicative were words like not speaking, being silent, or even the
weaker did not speak much, while acceptable synonyms for avoided contact tended to be short
expressions rather than single words, expressions like did not meet her gaze, did not look at her or even
did not look her in the eye there was no need to re-cast the word eye. Many candidates failed to score
the second mark because they copied over avoided in their answer, and this was one of the key words
being tested; some candidates offered ignored for either the first or the second limb, but this was not
rewarded as it was considered to be too imprecise. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the
distinction between to look at and to see. In Question 8(b), some candidates, wrongly, merely copied the
text in its question form at lines 8990, thinking that this question was a matter of two easy marks for two
straight lifts; many other candidates managed to re-cast the questions into statements, but imprecise
statements, which were that she was worried that Rose would tell Nizam about the rucksack and that she
was worried that Rose would tell Jameelas parents about her work rate. However, given that the question
asked candidates to explain exactly what Jameela was afraid of, these answers were incomplete and
imprecise, the correct answers being that Jameela would tell Nizam that the rucksack had fallen apart and
that she would tell Jameelas parents that her work rate had been poor that year.
eight. Examiners reported marks ranging from 0 to 5 here, with a clustering at only 2 or 3. Most candidates
who attempted mused scored the mark for synonyms such as thought, and those who attempted tension
found many acceptable synonyms, such as anxiety, pressure or stress. Whispered and murmured were
popular wrong answers for mused. Candidates scored a mark for writing comforting or relaxing for
soothing, and for offering distractions or entertainment for diversions. The few candidates who offered a
synonym for smug, where acceptable synonyms were proud or self-satisfied, often spoiled their answer
by the suggestion that speaking was involved, by writing for example he spoke proudly; there was nothing in
the text to suggest that his response was vocal, and therefore the mark was withheld. Narrowly was a
popular choice, but unfortunately rarely scoring because candidates tended to offer words such as closely
or nearly rather than the correct barely or just. Few candidates were successful with tailed off, where
ended, rather than faded or receded, was offered as an incorrect answer. The least popular choice was
probably initiative, meaning lead or first move; some candidates confused this with ideas of control or
organisation. Examiners reported, as in previous years, some candidates giving the question word in a
sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning, but these cases were few. As ever, there were some
candidates who offered two or three synonyms for each word; such candidates must realise that only the first
word offered will be credited. Another misconception among a few candidates was that all of the words
would need to be tackled, or perhaps that the best five of eight would be credited; such candidates must
understand that only the first five attempts will be looked at by the Examiner.
total marks for the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise the difficulties and anxieties experienced by
the girls from the time they reached the airport to the time they got on the express train at Central Station in
the city centre. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just more than half of the
original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160 words,
the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were twentytwo content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen points carrying
one mark each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the summary question. However,
there continued to be the incidence reported of candidates failing to cross out their rough draft, thus not
making it clear to the Examiner which version was to be marked. As reported above, a small number of
candidates bracketed sections of their summary, placing small crosses on either side of the brackets but
making no deletions within these brackets. Whether or not the bracketed section was intended to be part of
the summary was unclear and led to problems for Examiners. A very small number of candidates forfeited
their Style mark by writing their summary in note form rather than continuous prose. A small number used
irrelevant material from outside the area of summary search as prescribed by the rubric, namely paragraphs
1 to 4, and paragraph 10.
There were five content points available in paragraph five. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that buses left from
Terminal Two, or from somewhere else. Then the text went on to say that the buses came only every half
hour, and that one had just left. The candidates were then expected to focus on the train ticket problems,
firstly that the ticket machine did not accept cash, and that there was a queue for the ticket office. Many
candidates wasted words in this area by bringing in irrelevant detail of Jameela preferring trains to buses, or

the trip downstairs to the station, or their embarrassment on realising that the ticket machine accepted only
credit cards.
In paragraph six, another six content points were available, and all of these focused on the train journey.
The train made many stops and became crowded and very many candidates made these points correctly
the girls were squashed by other passengers, they were afraid of thieves and pickpockets, they were hungry,
and they realised either that they had underestimated how long the journey would take or they were going to
be late for the connecting train.
A further six marks were awarded in paragraph seven to candidates who wrote that the girls could not afford
a taxi, and that there was no taxi rank at their chosen exit in any case. The next three points concerned the
rucksack; it split open, its contents were scattered on the ground, and they had to pick everything up and put
it in a bag. There was much imprecision of language in this area, where understanding was clear but poorly
expressed, thus denying marks. The final point in the paragraph was that the girls then had to run to the
front of the station to get a taxi.
In paragraph eight, three content points were available, all of them about the taxi driver. He drove too fast,
he drove dangerously, and he conducted a conversation on his mobile phone. Here a mark was awarded for
writing that his driving was crazy, or violent, or that he wove through traffic, or any of the other imprecise
ideas which were not accepted as answers to Question 7; the rationale here was to avoid a double penalty,
which is always part of the rationale in this Paper.
Paragraph nine contained a further three content points. The girls had to run down the platform, or they had
only two minutes to spare; the access to the train was on the other side of the platform, or the doors on that
side of the train were locked; and they had to run down the correct side of the platform. There was much
confusion here and all three points were scored only by those candidates who could grasp the visual effect
of what was being described in this final and fairly difficult section of the text.
even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates are skilful at recasting the original text in their own
words; the majority of candidates made an attempt to avoid wholesale lifting, and the best demonstrated
considerable fluency in using their own words. There was a low incidence of random, mindless copying.
Some weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for
re-casting it in original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style. As is normal,
Examiners reported candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being clearly
proficient in English, because their summaries were far too generalised and lacking in the precision required
to make content points; such candidates made oblique references rather than specific points.
Common errors reported were the usual failures of agreement in singular and plural, and misplaced or
omitted prepositions, for example travel through train instead of travel by train, and buses left after thirty
minutes instead of buses left every thirty minutes. Weaker candidates often slipped into the present tense,
after beginning in the past tense. There was a high incidence in some time zones of the omission of definite
and indefinite articles, and the spelling of they as the. Luggage was sometimes written as luggages, and
crowdy instead of crowded was surprisingly ubiquitous. Fastly for fast was often seen, as well as
Americanisms such as gotten, gonna and wanna. There were some problems with irregular verbs,
producing, for example, goed and wented. Inconsistent and illogical verb tenses were reported. As
already indicated, spelling and punctuation were generally very good, and handwriting clear.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1123/21
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
2
Advertising
The advertising industry is universal, spending vast sums of money, employing many very
talented people and operating throughout the world; unfortunately, when we experience its
activities we tend to accept them without question, instead of examining them closely.
A nave view of advertisements might be to regard them just as ways of relaying necessary
information: a sign simply reading Golden Lion Caf open 9 a.m. to midnight is no more
5
sinister than a Road Closed notice to alert us to impending road-works. However, the owner
of the caf might be tempted to add Full three-course lunch only five dollars. Full and threecourse suggest we will get a lot to eat, and the phrase only five dollars seems to assure us
of good value. We have entered the persuasive world of advertising a dangerous world for
us because many advertisers are both potent and ruthless.
10
A dictionary will tell us that to advertise means to turn someone towards something; the
intention is to encourage us to do something, usually to buy a product or a service. Advertising
methods employed range from the obvious to the very subtle, but they are surprisingly similar
in all parts of the world, although names and details may vary from place to place.
At times we seem to receive a direct instruction. Travelling ice-cream sellers for many years 15
cycled along with their loads and paraded a peremptory notice Stop me and buy one!
Similarly, we are often urged Dont miss this bargain; the almost bullying tone may well
be continued by huge notices at the side of the road, often in vivid colours and with striking
images, all demanding that we buy, buy, buy Advertisements on many television channels
are broadcast at a higher volume than the entertainment programmes themselves, again 20
seeking to exert pressure on the prospective customer.
The actual name of the product being advertised may have a quite subtle effect upon us. A
new perfume marketed under the name Irresistible or Flirtation conveys an image, indeed
almost a promise, not necessarily closely related to the actual contents of the bottle or spray.
In various ways the product may be made memorable: a catchy saying or tune may stick in 25
the mind and continually bring back a recollection of the article advertised; vivid, unusual
packaging may make an item instantly recognisable and difficult to forget; an exciting or
romantic location associated with the product may enhance its appeal. An important weapon
in the advertisers armoury is humour. If it is true that we tend to be drawn towards, and to like,
humorous people, is it not very likely that we shall react in a similar way to products presented 30
to us in an amusing fashion?
To convince the public that what is offered is credible and effective, a mock-scientific approach
will often be used. We are assured that the yoghurt containing a specific ingredient will ensure
that we are protected against all common stomach complaints; of course the vital additive
has a long, scientific name and the claim is supported by an array of seemingly irrefutable 35
evidence. The inclusion of an effective but invariably natural component in a shampoo will
guarantee soft, silky hair. An impressive-sounding chemical resulting from months of research
will, when added to our engine oil, allow years of trouble-free motoring. Thus we sometimes
allow ourselves to be blinded by supposed statistics, and a cunning advertiser will offer a
persuasive comparison between the article offered and similar products from competitors; not 40
surprisingly the competing items are presented as poorer in quality and higher in price. How
gullible we are!
All advertising seeks to leave us with a favourable image of the product on offer, and one of
the most effective ways of achieving this is by the use of famous people or celebrities. There
are advantages and disadvantages in this strategy.
45
UCLES 2010
1123/21/INSERT/O/N/10
3
9
Successful advertisers will often manage to establish a link, however weak, between the
product and an appropriate celebrity. A famous athlete may well be a convincing ally in selling
sportswear; a beautiful female film star may prove to be an effective advocate for various
cosmetic products. The advertiser will also benefit from establishing a celebrity as an expert.
It is reasonable to assume that a famous racing-car driver will be able to distinguish a good 50
car from inferior models, and buyers are likely to be convinced by an apparently well-informed
judgement. Moreover, advertisers take advantage of the fact that ordinary people are likely
to admire celebrities and wish to emulate them, if only by wearing or using the same items.
Sometimes it is young people who are particularly impressed by celebrities, and advertisers
often target them in order to boost sales. By some illogical mental process, the young footballer 55
may, for example, be convinced that wearing the same boots as his celebrity hero will make
him a star on the pitch. Fashion is rarely an accident, much more a carefully orchestrated
sequence controlled by clever men and women, and advertisers also realise that the link
with the celebrity may encourage the notion that a garment or an action is cool a powerful
recommendation among young people. Thus we can see at work our celebrity culture, the 60
insatiable appetite we seem to have for connection with famous people, through a vast range
of media outlets.
10 Using a celebrity in an advertisement is merely the beginning of a process which gathers its
own momentum. Once the link is established between a celebrity and a product, advertisers
use every appearance or comment by the famous person to trigger an image of the product, 65
perhaps long after the release of the original advertisement. This development can be
enhanced by simple devices like emblazoning the manufacturers name on items worn or
used by the celebrity, such as T-shirts, cricket bats and tennis-racquets. Often advertisers set
up appearances of famous people at, say, theatres or football matches, in order to remind
the public of the clothes they wear or the bags they carry. Sometimes celebrities children 70
are drawn into this strategy too; they can be seen wearing smaller versions of their parents
clothes, thus increasing sales. There are drawbacks, however.
11 What happens if the celebrity falls from favour, for example by losing his or her place in the
team or producing a number of unsuccessful music albums? The product is then linked with
failure and the effect on sales is entirely predictable. Even worse, the celebrity may be 75
involved in some social or moral disaster gross rudeness to a vulnerable bystander or a
scandalous broken relationship. The celebritys sponsorship then might work against, rather
than in favour of, the product advertised.
12 Celebrities often have an inflated sense of their own value or importance and so they may
demand vast fees for being linked with particular products; after all they are often accustomed 80
to large financial rewards. Also they are frequently by nature volatile and unreliable. A knockon effect of this characteristic is that celebrities are often difficult to work with and not always
capable of amicable business relationships. Is there not the additional danger that many
celebrities will prove more interested in enhancing their own images than in promoting the
85
items for sale?
13 Advertising is clearly a difficult, complex and often subtle process; it can also become quite
threatening. A fairly recent development often called subliminal advertising involves
repeatedly flashing a message onto, say, a television screen, apparently too fast to be
perceived by the human eye. However, there is research evidence to show that the message
does reach the human brain, and so the viewer is being unconsciously persuaded to buy or 90
act a frightening thought. The process is, understandably, illegal in many countries.
UCLES 2010
1123/21/INSERT/O/N/10

1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1 hour 30 minutes
*8161713717*

2
From paragraph 1:
1
The writer calls the advertising industry universal. What phrase is used later in the paragraph to
echo this idea?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
(a) How do we realise early in the paragraph that the writer does not regard advertisements as
simply ways of relaying necessary information?
[1]
(b) The caf owner might be tempted to add to his advertisement. What does he hope to achieve
by doing this?
[1]
(c) Explain in your own words why the writer feels that the world of advertising is such a
dangerous place for ordinary people.
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
Why do you think that the writer finds it surprising that advertising methods are similar throughout
the world?
[1]
From paragraph 4:
4
Explain in your own words why, according to the writer, television advertisements are broadcast
at a higher volume than the actual programmes.
[2]
From paragraph 5:
5
Explain fully what promise is implicit in the naming of the perfume Irresistible.
[2]
From paragraph 6:
6
(a) The writer calls humour an important weapon in the advertisers armoury.
What does this choice of words suggest about the advertisers attitude to the public?
[1]
(b) Explain fully how, according to the writer, humorous advertisements increase sales.
[2]
UCLES 2010
1123/21/O/N/10
3
From paragraph 7:
7
(a) What is the writer asserting by calling the advertisers approaches mock-scientific?
[2]
(b) What does the writer mean by seemingly irrefutable evidence?
[2]
From paragraph 13:

8
(a) Explain in your own words what the author finds frightening about subliminal advertising. [2]
(b) What does the word understandably tell us about the writers attitude to subliminal advertising?
[1]

9
Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of not more
1.
2.
3.
4.
impending (line 6)
assure (line 8)
paraded (line 16)
necessarily (line 24)
5.
6.
7.
8.
continually (line 26)

complaints (line 34)
cunning (line 39)
appetite (line 61)
[5]
10 Using your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the ways in which advertisers use
celebrities to sell products, and the disadvantages of these strategies.
In order to increase the sales of products, successful advertisers...
UCLES 2010
1123/21/O/N/10
[25]
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

universal
Operating throughout the world
OR throughout the world
[1]
Give 0 if excess is offered. Accept the use of the correct answer in a longer phrase or a sentence
provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(a) necessary information
He refers to this idea as nave / innocent // people are innocent / nave/ gullible.
Lift of lines 45 (A nave view.information) = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.
simple = 0, as it is contained in the question.
[1]
(b) Caf owner

To persuade us / people / customers to buy // to bring about / make a sale/ money // tell /
persuade people they will get a lot to eat / get good value // to get / increase customers.
Lift of line 8 (suggest we will get a lot to eat) = 1. Excess denies, i.e. run-on into and the
phrase.
Lift of lines 89 (assure us of good value) = 1. Excess denies, i e. inclusion of and the
phrase.
[1]
(c) dangerous place
This is an OWN WORDS question. Accept any two of three. Do not insist on synonym for
advertisers but some place sensible link must be made. Double underline use of key words
or their derivatives, but otherwise ignore. Do not insist on correct grammatical form. Label
answers A, B or C as appropriate to maximum of 2 marks.
A. POTENT
powerful / influential / mighty / forceful
[1]
strong / capable / commanding / persuasive / convincing = 0

B. RUTHLESS
cruel / uncaring / unscrupulous / pitiless / unsparing / heartless /

merciless / callous / hard-hearted / stop at nothing
[1]
bad / wicked / hard / harsh / cunning / malicious / brutal / fierce = 0
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Syllabus
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surprising that advertising methods
Reward ideas of either size or diversity.
The world is large / huge / extensive // there are many / different cultures / types of people (in the
world).
[1]
Any reference to methods range from obvious to subtle or to names and details vary from place to
place = 0 (W)
higher volume
This is an OWN WORDS question. Double underline use of key words or their derivatives, but
otherwise ignore. Do not insist on correct grammatical form. Do not insist on synonym for exert.
Under B, insist on conditional idea of potential as well as purchasing idea of customer. Do not
award half marks. Label answers A and B.
A. PRESSURE
force / make/ compel / push (into) / persuade / influence
[1]
urge / ask / request / command / dictate / inspire = 0

B. PROSPECTIVE CUSTOMER
someone who might / is likely to / would / could / possibly /

potentially buy / purchase // inclined to buy / would be-buyers
[1]
probable / intending / expecting to buy = 0

Irresistible
If someone uses the perfume
[1]
he / she is // they are sure / guaranteed to attract members of the opposite sex / men / women //
men / women / people / members of the opposite sex will be attracted to him / her / them.
[1]
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Syllabus
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(a) advertisers armoury
(he is) ruthless / aggressive / relentless (in his pursuit of a sale).
Accept other metaphorical answers in response to the image, e.g. he fights / wins battles (for
sales) / conquers / overcomes customers.
[1]
(b) humorous advertisements
A. because we are drawn to / are attracted by / like humorous / funny / amusing people
[1]
B. we will be drawn towards / attracted by / like / want to buy products presented /

advertised in a humorous / funny / amusing way
[1]
Lift of lines 2931 (If it is true that...in an amusing fashion?) = 0. Some distilling is required.
(a) mock scientific
The candidate must demonstrate understanding of both aspects i.e. mock and scientific
A. (Advertisers say their approach is) logical / demonstrable / can be proved / has been
tested / trialed // the product has been made / tested in a laboratory // researched
[1]
B. They are only pretending / this is not actually true // their research is fake / a joke /
made-up / didnt happen
[1]
riddle / incomprehensible /stupid / easy / superficial = 0

(b) seemingly irrefutable
The candidate must demonstrate understanding of both aspects i.e. seemingly and
irrefutable
A. apparently / superficially // looks like / as if // appears to be // at first glance / on the
surface
[1]
B. incapable of being / cannot be disproved / contradicted / contested / wrong // must be

right / correct // proof / absolutely / completely true
[1]
great / much / important / convincing / plausible //difficult to reject = 0
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Syllabus
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(a) subliminal advertising
This is an OWN WORDS question. Double underline use of key words or their derivatives,
but otherwise ignore. Do not insist on correct grammatical form.
A. UNCONSCIOUSLY
without knowing / realising / being aware / sensible / thinking (it

is happening)
[1]
unfeeling / unseen = 0
B. PERSUADED
encouraged / coaxed / pushed / advised / pressurised / driven /

spurred (on) / egged (on) / cajoled / pressed
[1]
forced / asked / begged / tempted / warned = 0
(b) understandably
he / she believes / thinks it is dangerous / a bad thing /undesirable / damaging // he /she
agrees with it being illegal / against the law / banned // that it is a bad thing // he is against it /
doesnt like it
[1]
Focus is writer and not advertising. Weaker answers such as subliminal advertising / it (sic)
is dangerous / bad thing = 0 (N) // he knows / is sure / recognises it is a bad thing = 0 (N).
Question 9
1.
2.
3.
For each word attempted, mark the first answer only when more than one answer is offered. A
comma or the word 'or' indicates a second attempt.
4.
For two answers joined by 'and', allow one correct answer if the other answer is not wholly wrong
but neutral, e.g. 'approaching and possible for 'imminent'.
5.
For a short phrase answer, mark the first seven words only (RUBRIC). Credit a correct element
within this limit.
6.
7.
8.
If answers are numbered and the question-word has been given as well, credit a correct answer
even if the numbering does not agree.
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Syllabus
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21
1 mark
[Regard as 0[N] unless indicated as 0[W]
1. impending
(line 6 )
coming up / approaching / looming //

about to happen / appear / be / soon /
imminent / prospective / forthcoming /
upcoming / in the pipeline / on the
horizon
threatening / probable / possible / near /

current / ahead / future
2. assure
(line 8)
guarantee /convince/ make (us) certain

/ validate / promise/ affirm / attest /
certify / confirm / pledge
recommend / persuade / ask / insure /

ensure / comfort / swear / vow
3. paraded
(line 16)
displayed / showed (off / flaunted /

demonstrated / presented /exhibited /
brandished
advertised / marched / walked with / held /

saw / processed / swaggered / strutted
4. necessarily
(line 24)
certainly / positively / definitely /

inevitably / unavoidably / assuredly
(sic) // without doubt / as a requirement
// a must / as a matter of course /
perforce / needed / essentially
needed / especially / fully / really
5. continually
(line 26)
repeatedly / time after time / time and

again persistently / insistently/ again
and again / over and over
continuously / without stopping /always /

incessantly / constantly / infinitely / all the
time / endlessly / eternally / for ever
6. complaints
(line 34)
illnesses / ailments / sicknesses /

diseases / bugs/ germs / bacteria /
pains / upsets / maladies / afflictions /
disorders
moans / injuries / dissatisfactions /

problems / disagreements / arguments /
discomforts/ worries/ faults
7. cunning
(line 39)
crafty / wily / foxy /sly / artful / sneaky /

subtle / resourceful / tricky / astute /
shrewd / smart / shifty/ guileful/ canny
cheating / intelligent / mischievous / bad /

clever / perceptive/ ingenious / skilful
8. appetite
(line 61)
desire / wish / craving / want / passion /

yearning / longing / eagerness / hunger
/ relish/ lust/ strong interest
taste / greed / need / demand / liking //

tendency / urge / interest
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Syllabus
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Question 10
NOTES:
1
Introductory Words
No penalty for omission; no penalty for any errors made in them or for incompleteness, but take
into account any punctuation or grammatical error immediately following them when assessing
Style.
Length
Count to 150 the number of words used by the candidate after the double line and write down this
number at the bottom left of the candidate's answer.
(N.B. This maximum takes into account the ten introductory words to tally with Rubric of question,
i.e. 160 words.)
Marking Technique
For answers shorter than the 150 words, award the Style mark in the normal way, but apply the
following maxima:
025 (0); 2650 (2); 5175 (4); 76100 (6); 101125 (8) [e.g. for sustained own words with
error-free original complex structures, award 9 or 10 for Style for answer of 126 words, but only 8
for answer of 125 words. There is no need to do proportional calculation].
Sequence errors
In general, only withhold the mark for a point if it is wildly out of sequence or totally unsupported.
Do not penalise the point that then follows.
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Syllabus
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EACH POINTS SCORES 1 MARK

1
Establish a link between product and celebrity/ with a celebrity//accept example of actress
promoting beauty products or athlete promoting sportswear.
Establish the celebrity as an expert (example of motor racing driver (alone) = 0).
Take advantage of fact that people admire / wish to emulate celebrities// that celebrities are role
models.
Target young people.
Link clothes / fashion to celebrity.
5A Encourage idea that garment is cool by linking it to celebrity / product becomes fashionable.
6
Use appearances / comments by celebrities (to trigger an image of the product).
Put manufacturers name on items worn used by celebrity (accept t-shirt / cricket bat / racquet for
items).
Set up appearances of celebrity (to remind people about their clothes / bags / products used).
Use celebritys children through clothes worn (to advertise).
10 Celebrity might fall from favour / lose fame / lose place in team / produce unsuccessful music
album(s).
11 Product is linked / associated with failure.
12 Sales go down (effect on sales predictable = 0).
13 Celebrity involved in social / moral disaster / rudeness to bystander / broken relationship/scandal.
14 Celebritys sponsorship might work against / might not work for product.
15 Celebrity often demands high fees (for being linked to product).
16 Celebrities are (often) volatile / unpredictable / unreliable.
17 Celebrities are (often) difficult to work with / incapable of amicable business relationships.
18 Celebrities are (often / sometimes) more interested in their own image (than in promoting the
product) (is there not for sale? = 0).
(Accept singular or plural at any point for celebrity / celebrities).
[25 marks (15 + 10)]
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SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Misspellings of a minor nature. Count as a serious error when the form of the word is severely
mangled.
Minor errors of punctuation, i.e. the failure to complete pairs of commas in parenthetical phrases /
clauses, omissions of stops after introductory words like 'however'.
UCLES 2010
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Syllabus
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Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
USE OF ENGLISH
109

language.
109

to the reader.
87

87

helpful.
65

irrelevance or by oblique or mangled
relevance.
65

attempted.
43

the text, but not a complete transcript.
expression.
43

sustained for long.
20

the text.
20

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Syllabus
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21
G.A.R / H.T.
best fit box.
Note 2: Relevance and irrelevance.
(i) wholesale or sustained irrelevance: ignore OW assessment and mark out of 4 max for
Style. Use incidence of errors to assess mark out of 4. Such scripts are rare.
(iii) oblique or generalised relevance: 5/6 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
(iv) mangled or nonsensical relevance: 3/4 or 1/2 box for OW. Mark UE as normal.
UCLES 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Comprehension
General Comments
The performance of the candidates showed that, in general, they had been well prepared by their teachers
and understood the nature of the examination. A number of candidates did not read the questions carefully
and lost marks as a result. At the beginning of the summary question there were some lengthy explanations
of comparatively simple points. On the positive side there was evidence of synthesis from most candidates
in the second half of the summary question.
Candidates seemed in general to be familiar with the layout of the paper and, largely, the types of questions
likely to be asked. Most candidates completed the paper but surprisingly few opted to attempt a rough draft
of the summary or a list of points before presenting the final copy.
In the paper, twenty five marks were allocated to the testing of literal comprehension, inferential
comprehension, vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of the writers craft. A further twenty five
marks were awarded to the summary question; these marks being divided between assessment of ability to
select content points from the text and assessment of ability to express these points fluently and without
lifting.
As in previous years, the questions giving most difficulty were those which required the candidates to answer
in their own words; some ignored this rubric or found it difficult to find synonyms. There was a welcome
decrease in the number of candidates writing in excess of 160 words for the summary question. It was
noticed that candidates had heeded their teachers advice to address the rubric of the summary and there
were fewer instances of total irrelevance or of candidates providing their personal reflections on advertising.
It was also pleasing to note the neatness of presentation and legibility of handwriting. Spelling and
punctuation were generally good and, even if there was a lack of originality in the summary, the overall
standard of written English was impressive.

Question 1 was designed to ease the candidates into the examination with a fairly straightforward test. The
writer called the advertising industry universal and the candidates were asked to provide a single phrase
which echoed this idea later in the paragraph. Many candidates correctly offered throughout the world or
operating throughout the world. Incorrect responses usually involved excess copying from the passage. If
the candidate presents the single phrase or single word within a longer sentence he needs to identify it within
quotation marks or by underlining or by making clear in his expression exactly which single word or phrase
he is offering. The best way to answer such a question is to simply offer the word or phrase alone.
Question 2 (a) proved to be well answered on the whole. It asked how we realised that the writer did not
regard advertisements as simply ways of relaying information and successful candidates told us that he
referred to these ideas as being nave. Nave on its own was an acceptable answer. Few candidates
offered an own words alternative such as innocent or gullible. Some unsuccessful answers wrongly
attributed the naivety to the writer; other incorrect answers usually centred on copying the appropriate
reference from the text without relating it to the question.
Question 2 (b) proved to be an easy question for most candidates who understood what the caf owner
might achieve by adding to his advertisement. They correctly suggested that it would persuade more
customers to come, that they would get a lot to eat or value for money and that he would make money. Any
of these points scored the mark.

Question 2 (c) was the first of the own words questions, asking why the writer felt that the world of
advertising was such a dangerous place for ordinary people and leading candidates to find synonyms for
potent and ruthless. Most correctly focused their answers on the seller and not the buyer but the penal
words were often repeated or misunderstood. Some candidates suggested correctly that potent meant
powerful, forceful or influential; synonyms such as strong, persuasive and convincing were deemed too
weak. Rather more candidates understood that ruthless suggested that the sellers were heartless,
merciless or unfeeling, and that they would stop at nothing; weaker or incorrect synonyms commonly
offered were bad and brutal.
Question 3 proved to be one of the most difficult questions on the paper and correct answers were rare
indeed. Candidates were asked why they thought it surprising that advertising methods were similar
throughout the world. A simple and correct answer would refer to the idea of size (because the world is
large) or diversity (there are many different cultures or types of people). A correct response could not be
lifted directly from the text and the majority of candidates simply copied irrelevant references to methods
ranging from the obvious to the subtle or to names and details varying from place to place. Successful
candidates had drawn their own conclusions from the text and ensured that they had addressed the
question.
Question 4 was the second of the own words questions asking why, according to the writer, television
advertisements are broadcast at a higher volume than the actual programmes by offering synonyms for
pressure and prospective customer. Many candidates understood that pressure meant that people were
being persuaded or being forced to buy; answers which suggested that possible buyers were being urged,
attracted or lured were regarded as being too weak and went unrewarded. Prospective customer proved
too difficult to substitute for most candidates. Some were able to offer buyer for customer but most were
unable to state that they were potential or would be buyers, and both elements were required for the mark.
Question 5 asked the candidates to explain fully what promise was implicit in naming the perfume
Irresistible; therefore, they were expected to state that by using, or spraying on the perfume (one mark)
other people would be attracted to or could not keep away from the wearer (one mark). A number of
candidates achieved the first mark but most either simply reproduced the word irresistible or copied out
irrelevant parts of the text.
Question 6 (a) proved challenging and those who were successful were able to decode the metaphor of
humour as an important weapon by stating that the writer was ruthless in his pursuit of a sale. Some
candidates, but not many, responded with their own metaphors, suggesting that the writer fought for his
sales, won over or battled for his customers and these candidates were awarded a mark. However, the idea
of the customer as an enemy or victim was not acceptable - nor was the incorrect image of having the
customer as a target.
Question 6 (b) was more successfully answered, especially the first part. A good answer explained that, in
the writers opinion, advertisements increased sales because we are drawn towards or like funny people
(one mark) and that we like or want to buy products that are advertised in an amusing way (one mark).
Many candidates were able to manipulate the text, distil their answers and thereby achieve at least one
mark; strong candidates address such questions by studying the rubric and explaining fully without blindly
copying from the text. Those who went unrewarded in this question stated that people are attracted to
humour and this, alone, was insufficient.
In Question 7 (a) candidates were invited to explain what the writer meant by calling the advertisers
approaches mock-scientific. Two marks were available and good answers indicated that the products had
been researched, tested or proved and this defined the scientific element (one mark). Quoting from the text
that the approach was credible and effective did not address the question, suggesting the results of
research rather than the scientific testing itself. A minority of candidates stated correctly that mockscientific intimated that the research was fake or that it had not taken place, that the advertisers were lying,
pretending or fooling us that it had.
Question 7 (b) asked the candidates to define the meaning of seemingly irrefutable evidence. Two marks
were available but few candidates could define seemingly and many offered the wrong words in their
answers. Those who did achieve marks were able to tell us that the evidence looked like, or appeared to be,
(one mark) completely true or the proof (one mark). Others were correct in stating, in various ways, that the
evidence could not be contradicted. Weaker and unrewarded answers for irrefutable suggested the
evidence was convincing, right or correct.

Question 8 (a) was another own words question which invited the candidates to find alternatives to
unconsciously and persuaded to explain what the author found frightening about subliminal advertising. A
number of candidates understood that people were being urged, pushed, driven or pressurised (not forced)
to buy (one mark) against their will, or without their knowing or noticing, (one mark). A substantial number of
candidates simply repeated the penal words.
In Question 8(b), by referring to the writers attitude to subliminal advertising, many candidates simply and
correctly stated that the author did not like this kind of advertising or that he was against it. Such candidates
demonstrate the value of studying the rubric and ensuring that their answers have addressed the question.
Those candidates who were unsuccessful commonly stated that the writer was aware of the illegality of such
advertising or that he knew that it was a bad thing but these answers did not tell us about his attitude
towards it.
Question 9 was the usual vocabulary question in which candidates were required to show their
understanding, in context but not necessarily in direct synonyms, of 5 words from a choice of 8. On the
whole, the group of words proved to be more taxing than in some previous papers. Common correct
answers for impending were coming up and approaching; waiting or current were frequently offered
unrewarded answers. For assure many candidates correctly suggested convince, promise, guarantee
and make (us) certain, whereas ensure and insure were contextually inappropriate. Paraded illustrated
the need for candidates to study the words in context; here it clearly meant showed or displayed and many
candidates recognised this. Those offering marched or carried had not applied their synonym to the text
and consequently did not score. Necessarily proved to be a tricky word to define; common correct answers
were certainly, a must, needed, whereas common unacceptable synonyms were exactly, actually and
really. Continually was well understood in general and successful synonyms were repeatedly, time after
time, again and again and over and over; some candidates were incorrect in offering continuously or
constantly. The importance of trying out the alternatives in the text was emphasised in the answers given to
complaints which, in context, clearly refers to physical disorders and this was understood by many
candidates who gave us illnesses, diseases, aches, pains and upsets; synonyms which referred to
moans and dissatisfactions were contextually inaccurate. Common correct answers for cunning included
crafty, sly, tricky and wily; references to cheating or deceit went unrewarded as did the bland offerings
of clever and intelligent. Many candidates rightly saw appetite as referring to the desire, wish or hunger
to have a connection with famous people; urge, need, liking and interest were considered inappropriate
and therefore scored no marks.
Question 10 was the usual summary question, carrying half the total marks for the paper. Candidates were
asked to summarise the ways in which advertisers use celebrities to sell products and the disadvantages of
these strategies. The summary had to be based on approximately half of the original text, expressing
content points, as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160 words, the first ten of which
were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were 19 content points of which
they could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points carrying one mark each.
Examiners reported that most of the candidates completed the summary question with only a small number
grossly exceeding the maximum word limit but also a number writing fewer than the word limit and thereby
reducing their ability to score as many content points as possible. It was rare to see the maximum number of
content points awarded. It was noted that only a small percentage of candidates had written out a rough
draft. Many candidates need at least to make a list of content points to mention in their fair copy in order to
avoid lengthy repetition and unnecessary irrelevance and to ensure that they have addressed all the
requirements of the rubric. Most candidates completed the paper suggesting that time was not a problem.
Candidates are advised to remember the benefits of concise and precise answers and it was noted that this
advice when followed, particularly in paragraphs 11 and 12, resulted in an accumulation of content points. It
was pleasing to see that almost all of the candidates had addressed the question and the text and there
were few instances of complete irrelevance or personal reflections.
The first two paragraphs of the area for summary search, namely paragraphs 9 and 10, dealt with the ways
in which advertisers sell products. The opening ten words led candidates to the first content point which was
that successful advertisers established a link with a celebrity. Most candidates started off well by making this
point or by providing the examples of an actress promoting cosmetics or an athlete promoting sportswear
which were acceptable alternatives. A large number of candidates expanded upon this point by extensive
paraphrasing of the text, thereby needlessly eating into the word limit. This is a useful illustration of how
candidates could benefit by making an initial rough list to eliminate such repetition and, sometimes,
irrelevance. The writer stated that advertisers used celebrities as experts and some candidates provided the
example of the use of the racing car driver without explaining his function. Many candidates recognised that
advertisers took advantage of the fact that people admire celebrities and that they targeted the young in

particular. The notion that a garment became cool by linking it to a celebrity was mentioned by some
candidates.
In paragraph 10 we learnt that advertisers use appearances or comments by celebrities (to trigger an image
of the product) and that they put the manufacturers names on the items worn or used by the celebrity; the
examples of a t-shirt, tennis racquet or cricket bat were acceptable but some candidates misread the
passage, stating that the celebritys name was put on the item. Advertisers also set up appearances of the
celebrity and this was recognised by many candidates. However, when candidates pointed out that the
celebrities children were used by advertisers many forgot to set this point, either directly or indirectly, in the
context of clothing.
Candidates proved to be more concise and skilful when editing the disadvantages from paragraphs 11 and
12. Firstly, as most recognised, celebrities might fall from favour, causing the product to be linked with
failure, resulting in a drop in sales of the product. Candidates also were aware that if a celebrity were
involved in a social or moral disaster then his sponsorship might not work for the product.
Candidates scored well in paragraph 12 by stating that celebrities often demanded high fees and that they
could be unreliable and difficult to work with. The final point was less well made when candidates failed to
make the comparison of being more interested in their own image.
Ten marks were allocated to the style of writing in the summary question where style was assessed
according to how well the candidates were able to use their own words and the extent to which they were
able to write error free, continuous prose, using a variety of sentence structures.
The ability of the candidates to break away from the original text was more limited with this passage than in
some previous papers. There was, however, little evidence of mindless copying and stretches of irrelevance
even though many candidates relied upon the wording of the text. In spite of the absence of originality in
vocabulary or syntax there was some pleasing synthesis. Candidates would be well advised to consider the
importance of the use of own words and some original complex structures, especially if linked to the
synthesis of points. Overall, the standard of written English was commendable.
Common errors reported were the usual features of the omission of the definite and indefinite articles and
inconsistent or illogical verb tenses. Spelling and punctuation were generally very good and handwriting
clear.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1123/22
INSERT
1 hour 30 minutes
2
The First Day
Emma climbed into the car beside her mother with an unusual reluctance. She was on the
brink of a frightening experience: she was that day, aged only 15, starting at a new school.
During the long school holiday her father had been moved 200 km to a larger branch of the
bank for which he worked and, obviously, that meant that the whole family her father, her
mother, Emma and her baby sister, Maria had to re-locate. From the beginning Emmas
feelings had been mixed: she was delighted that her father had been promoted, but she was
far from sure that she could re-capture the blissful existence she had known for the past
15 years.
What a rush had ensued! There had been a hasty weekend trip to find a new house, and
then a succession of crises as they prepared for the move, with nostalgic trips to treasured 10
places and, finally, tearful farewells, the latter accompanied by promises to write and to visit,
undertakings sincerely made but already seeming possibilities rather than probabilities.
Very soon, they were casting a last look back at their former home and, in the family car,
following the vast furniture lorry which held most of their possessions. Mother maintained a
fixed smile; Emma allowed the tears to run down her cheeks; Maria simply howled to indicate 15
that she was hungry; father indulged in the tuneless whistling he reserved for those unhappy
occasions when he needed to show that he was a tough male unaffected by emotion.
The journey seemed endless; at times Emma felt they were all actors in some science-fiction
film, suspended in their time capsule forever, on a journey to some distant planet. Eventually,
however, they arrived at the town which was to be their new home; it was set on the floor of a 20
steep-sided valley, with a small river gently meandering towards the distant sea.
The first few weeks of novelty were pleasant enough. The local schools were still on holiday;
there was a certain excitement in discovering new places and strange faces. The hills on both
sides of the valley were at times extremely beautiful, especially at the end of the day when
25
trees and fields assumed a reddish-golden hue.
An important advantage over their previous location was the multiplicity of shops, most of them
quite small and specialised. The whole family oddly enough, even Maria was enthralled
by one such shop, a store-house of wonder and delight run by an elderly man who seemed to
love his books far too much to contemplate selling them. He would chatter happily about his
stock he appeared to have read all the books and there was a childrens section where 30
young people could browse as long as they wished, without being expected to buy.
Several times Emma and her family walked past a big, featureless building in the town centre
and outside there was a large, simple sign: The Valley Secondary School. Mother had written
to the Headteacher and been told just to bring Emma to the General Office on the first day of
the new term. An eerie stillness and silence enveloped the buildings, though the flower-beds 35
were well tended and the green, carefully mown playing-fields leading down to the river looked
very inviting. The gates, however, remained forbiddingly closed, understandably perhaps, but
Emma felt neither welcome nor comfortable. She was full of questions, but neither she nor
her mother had any answers; they must wait for the first day of term, a somewhat daunting
40
prospect.
Now that day had arrived. All too soon they were in the car and then in the School Office;
a grey-haired middle-aged secretary dismissed Emmas mother who gave her daughter
a guilty hug as she left and then led the new pupil, without giving her a backward glance,
through a maze of corridors before introducing her to her new class teacher and then departing
45
briskly.
UCLES 2010
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/10
3
10 The teacher, Miss Nassam, greeted the new pupil with a warm, friendly smile. Emma guessed
that she was quite inexperienced, but she did not know then that her teacher was also new
to the school that day. She introduced Emma to the class and asked everyone to make her
welcome.
11 Inevitably, the first part of the morning was devoted to administration, marking attendance 50
registers, issuing timetables and reminding everyone about school procedures all very dull
and routine but Emma was grateful for the careful, individual explanation to her of details
obviously already familiar to the rest of the class. The teachers little joke about there being
two new girls in the class that morning made her feel less isolated.
12 Morning break came and her momentary feeling of insecurity and uncertainty was dispelled 55
by a dark-haired girl called Tanya, who offered quite casually to show her to the outdoor
recreation area. This was a very pleasant stretch of grass and paved sections, with seats and
flower-beds interspersed. Her companion sat with her and asked her about her family and her
previous school; she seemed genuinely interested.
13 After the break, normal lessons began, and she faced the ordeal of meeting the various 60
specialist teachers, beginning with the science teacher. However, Emma felt his enthusiasm
for the subject dispel her tension; he was a tall stooping man who peered short-sightedly
through rimless spectacles, as if endlessly scanning some test tube full of chemicals in
fascinating interaction. Furthermore, his lesson was on global warming, a subject close to her
heart, so that, for the time being at least, Emma forgot her anxiety about being a new student 65
at the school.
14 After science came a potential social minefield lunch always a difficult time for the lonely
and unattached, but she found herself swept along by her classmates and she was soon
sitting among them with her chosen food and drink. The talk focused on holiday activities;
someone asked her about her holidays, whether in real or simulated interest she knew not, 70
but at least she was not ignored.
15 The next lesson was drama, in a hall rather like a small, informal theatre; she felt nervous
because this was a subject not taught in her previous school, but the teacher gently introduced
her to the class activity. This turned out to be role-playing and Emma was surprised at how
much she enjoyed imagining herself in various situations and reacting appropriately. Moreover, 75
this challenging activity had the added advantage of distracting Emma from her own perceived
problems as a newcomer.
16 For the last lesson of the day, the class returned to Miss Nassam, for English. They read some
poetry about tigers beautiful, graceful but, of course, dangerous creatures and Emma was
particularly intrigued by one short poem focused on the imminent extinction of tigers in many 80
parts of the world. She mentioned that near her former home the species had once been
abundant, but was no longer, owing to ever-encroaching human activities. This provoked a
lively discussion which inevitably focused on Emma, since she had largely instigated it. She
told herself that she was beginning to belong.
17 On her way out to the car park to meet her mother, Emma once again met the grey-haired 85
secretary from the school office. Well, how did you get on then? she beamed. Reeling from
the shock, Emma collapsed into the car beside her mother, who asked hesitantly, How was
your first day then? Emma smiled quietly and replied, Quite good, I think
UCLES 2010
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/10

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1 hour 30 minutes
*7437446524*

2
From paragraph 1:
1
What rather frightening prospect made Emma unwilling to get into her mothers car?
[1]
From paragraph 2:
2
What two events had made Emmas feelings mixed? Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 3:
3
(a) Why do you think the trips to treasured places are described as nostalgic?
[1]
(b) Explain in your own words what misgivings the family and their friends already had about
their promises to write and visit.
[2]
From paragraph 4:
4
(a) Why do you think Emmas mother was maintaining a fixed smile?
[1]
(b) Explain fully in your own words what Emmas father was seeking to make clear by his
tuneless whistling.
[2]
From paragraph 5:
5
What two features of the journey in the car made Emma imagine she was in a time capsule in
some science fiction film? Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
From paragraph 6:
6
Why do you think the hills took on a reddish-golden hue at the end of the day?
[1]
From paragraph 7:
7
(a) What does the writer mean by a specialised shop?
[1]
(b) Give, from your own experience, one example of a specialised shop.
[1]
(c) At first sight, the shop owner appeared to be not a very good businessman. Give two pieces
of evidence from the text to support this view. Number your answers (i) and (ii).
[2]
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1123/22/O/N/10
3
From paragraph 8:
8
(a) Pick out and write down the single word used by the writer to suggest that the school building
was rather anonymous.
[1]
(b) Why does the writer add understandably perhaps?
[1]
From paragraph 9:
9
What does the word dismissed suggest about the secretarys attitude towards Emmas mother?
[1]
From paragraph 17:

10 Why does Emmas mother ask her question hesitantly?
[1]

1.
2.
3.
4.
meandering (line 21)

multiplicity (line 26)
enthralled (line 27)
devoted (line 50)
5.
6.
7.
8.
procedures (line 51)

casually (line 56)
focused (line 69)
imminent (line 80)
[5]
12 Emma is very worried about starting her new school, and at first her fears seem justified. Using
your own words as far as possible, write a summary of the actions and events which by the end
of the day made her feel much happier.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form) must not be longer than 160
words, including the 10 words below.
After the school secretary introduced Emma to her class teacher ...
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1123/22/O/N/10
[25]
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

frightening prospect
She was starting a new school (that day)
She was on the brink of a frightening experience = 0
Lift of lines 12 (She was on the brink..starting a new school) = 1
two events
Look for two events
(i)
her father had been promoted / got a better job

Lift of line 6 (her father had been promoted) = 1
Excess denies, i.e. run-on into but she was far from sure
Lift of lines 67 (she was delighted that her father had been promoted) = 0
[1]
(ii) She / the family had to re-locate / move house / move away / move to another place / town.
OR
She had to give up her old / happy way of life // her old / happy way of life was coming to an end /
stopping
[1]
Lifting will not work under (ii)
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Syllabus
1123
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22

(a) nostalgic
(She / they / the family were) sad to leave (the places / them) // might never see the places /
them again // be there again // wished to remember the places / them // they reminded them
of happy / past times // held memories.
[1]
(b) promises to write and visit
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question.
Do not insist on synonyms for idea of keeping / breaking promises, but there must be some
link to writing/ visiting/promising, however vague. Any reference to undertakings sincerely
made = 0(N) Label answers A and B.
A. POSSIBILITIES
They might / could / intended / meant / had potential // there was a

chance (they would write / visit / keep promises).
[1]
They wondered /werent sure / were uncertain/ doubted (they would
write / visit / keep promises) = 0
B. PROBABILITIES
It was unlikely / implausible / not likely // there was no evidence to

suggest / no guarantee // they almost certainly would not (write/ visit
/ keep their promises)
[1]
it was impossible // there was no chance // they certainly would not
(write / visit / keep promises) = 0

(a) fixed smile
To avoid crying / bursting into tears /// to keep control (of herself / her tears) // hide her
feelings / unhappiness.
OR
(she was) trying to appear / seem to be happy (in front of family / husband / children) / to
encourage family.
[1]
(b) tuneless whistling
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question.
A. TOUGH MALE
(he was) a strong / brave / real / hard // not a

weak man / (very) masculine / macho
[1]
B. UNAFFECTED BY EMOTION
(he could) cope with depressing events / control /

hide / not show / didnt have feelings
[1]
Accept specific emotions appropriate to the context, e.g. he didnt get / feel sadness /
nostalgia
He didnt feel worry / anxiety / fear / happiness etc. = 0 // he was pretending not to be sad = 0
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Syllabus
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22

time capsule and science fiction film
Look for ideas of time and distance.
(i)
The journey / it took a long time
[1]
Lift of line 18 (The journey seemed endless ) = 1. Excess denies

The journey was endless = 0
(ii) It / their destination was // they travelled a long way / distance
[1]
Lift of line 1819 (they were...on a journey to some distant planet) = 0

It was as if they wereon a journey to a distant planet = 1
Accept as 0(N) any metaphorical reference to time capsule or science fiction film but any literal
reference (e.g. they were in a time capsule) = 0(W) and denies the mark in an otherwise correct
answer.
reddish-golden
(It was) sunset
[1]
Lift of line 24 (the end of the day) =) 0(N) // sun had set = 0(W)
(a) specialised
(It / the shop) sells (only) one item / one sort of goods / narrow range of goods / a certain
type of good.
[1]
(It / the shop) doesnt sell much // sells similar / special goods = 0
(b) own experience
Accept any valid example e.g. a grocers shop / book shop (sic)
Be generous with local / unknown examples, unless answer to 7(a) is incorrect
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Syllabus
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22
(c) not a good businessman.

(i) he didnt (seem to) want to sell (his books)
[1]
Lift of lines 2829 (an elderly man whoselling them) = 1. Excess denies.
(ii) he allowed (young) people / customers to browse / look / read the books without
expecting them to buy / trying to make a sale
[1]
Lift of lines 3031 (and there was a childrens sectionexpected to buy) = 1. Excess
denies.
Any reference to storehouse of delight / he loved his books (alone) / he appeared to
have read all the books = 0(W) and denies the mark in an otherwise correct limb.
(a) anonymous
Featureless
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a sentence or
expression provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(b) understandably
The school was closed / on holiday / it was the holidays.
Accept inferences linked to closing the gates, e.g. they were afraid of / to prevent trespassers /
burglars
[1]
Any answer which merely picks up idea of forbiddingly, e.g. to stop people getting in / to
keep people out = 0(N)
dismissed
(She treats Emmas mother with) a lack of respect / treats her like a child // she was rude /
unwelcoming / cold / unfriendly // doesnt care about her // thinks she is in the way // wants rid of her [1]
angry / cruel / strict / harsh / bossy / firm = 0
Any answer which focuses on the guilty hug = 0(W) (sequence), e.g. she thought Emmas mother
was overprotective.
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Syllabus
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22
Question 10
hesitantly
She is dreading / afraid of the answer she may get.
[1]
Accept specific example like: she is afraid / worried Anna will burst into tears / be upset / has had a
bad day / worried about how her first day went = 1
Insist on negative idea. She is uncertain / wants to know how her day went = 0
Question 11
1.
2.
3.
or each word attempted, mark the first answer only when more than one answer is offered. A
4.
but neutral, e.g. 'twisting and moving for 'meandering'.
5.
within this limit.
6.
7.
8.
(See words and equivalents on next page.)
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
1 mark
[Regard as 0[N] unless indicated as 0[W]
1. meandering
(line 21)
twisting / turning / winding / weaving /

wandering / zigzagging / bending /
(going in a) haphazard (way) / right and
left / here and there / this way and that /
in all directions / threading / wending /
looping / snaking / curving / in an S
shape / serpentine / sinuous
moving / proceeding / going / flowing /

running / not straight / rambling / indirect
2. multiplicity
(line 26)
multitude / large numbers / many / a lot /

plenty / abundance / plethora /profusion /
loads of / myriad / numerous /
proliferation
variety / combination / majority

too many
3. enthralled
(line 27)
fascinated / enchanted / bewitched /

captivated / spellbound / entranced /
charmed / mesmerised / hypnotized /
enraptured / beguiled
pleased / interested / surprised /

engrossed / attracted / excited / delighted /
dazzled / amazed / influenced / thrilled /
astonished / besotted / fixated / intrigued /
impressed / riveted / gripped
4. devoted
(line 50)
given (to) / dedicated (to) / allocated (to) /

concentrated (on) / focused (on) /
assigned to / reserved for / set aside for /
kept for
loving (W) / loyalty (W) / attached / spent

on / taken up by / specialised / sacrificed
(W)
5. procedures
(line 51)
methods / ways / conventions / modes /

approaches / routines / processes /
steps / rules / regulations / customs /
formalities / systems / practices
plans / styles / organizations / policies /

tactics / plans / laws / habits / directions /
timetables / programmes / work /
conditions
6. casually
(line 56)
without a fuss / informally / off-hand

(way) / unceremoniously / relaxed /
naturally / nonchalantly / easy-going /
ordinary / normally / laid back
accidentally / unexpectedly / simply /

surprisingly / willingly / politely / carelessly /
gently
7. focused
(line 69)
concentrated / centred / fix / zero in /

was all / mostly about / devoted to / was
based on targeted / gave full / more
attention / homed in
see / notice / gave attention / aimed / was

about /emphasized / stressed
8. imminent
(line 80)
impending / about to happen / around

the corner / soon / shortly / approaching /
looming / about to be / coming up /
forthcoming / near / oncoming / close / in
prospect / at hand / on the horizon
threatening / probable / possible /

inevitable / unavoidable / expected /
advancing / early / bound to happen /
immediate
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Syllabus
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22
Question 12
NOTES:
1
Introductory Words
No penalty for omission; no penalty for any errors made in them or for incompleteness, but take
into account any punctuation or grammatical error immediately following them when assessing
Style.
Length
Count to 150 the number of words used by the candidate after the double line and write down this
number at the bottom left of the candidate's answer.
(N.B. This maximum takes into account the ten introductory words to tally with Rubric of question,
i.e. 160 words.)
Marking Technique
For answers shorter than the 150 words, award the Style mark in the normal way, but apply the
following maxima:
025 (0); 2650 (2); 5175 (4); 76100 (6); 101125 (8) [e.g. for sustained own words with
error-free original complex structures, award 9 or 10 for Style for answer of 126 words, but only 8
for answer of 125 words. (There is no need to do proportional calculation).
Sequence errors
In general, only withhold the mark for a point if it is wildly out of sequence or totally unsupported.
Do not penalise the point that then follows.
UCLES 2010
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

1
The teacher / she smiled (warmly) at her // she received a (warm) smile (from the teacher).
The teacher / she introduced her to class(mates) / everyone // asked class to make her welcome
// she was introduced to class.
The teacher explained to Emma individually the routine // explained the routine in detail / carefully
to Emma. (Accept passive).
The teachers joke about there being two new girls (made Emma feel less alone) // the teacher
was (also) new.
A student / a girl / Tanya (volunteered to) show her the recreation / outdoor area.
Tanya seemed (genuinely) interested in Emma (and her family) // asked / talked about Emma /
her family / previous school.
The science teachers enthusiasm (made her less nervous).
Emma interested in / enjoyed lesson on global warming // global warming was / the science
lesson was on favourite / known topic.
8A Emma forgot her anxiety (about being new) Need context of science class
9
At lunch-time her classmates included her // she sat / was with her classmates.
They talked / chatted / asked her questions (about her holidays) // seemed / were interested in
her holidays.
10 The drama teacher introduced her to the (class) activity / subject / role-play (gently).
11 She enjoyed / was good at imagining herself in various situations / reacting appropriately/ roleplay (drama / acting = 0).
12 She enjoyed / was good at imagining herself in various situations / reacting appropriately/ roleplay (drama / acting = 0).
13 She was distracted from her problems / forgot she was a newcomer) Need context of drama class
14 She enjoyed / was interested in / was intrigued by the poetry (about tigers in English).
15 She was able to contribute to / start the discussion (about the poetry / tigers) // she talked about
tigers.
16 She became the centre of the discussion / of attention.
17 (She told herself she was starting to belong) Need context of discussion
18 The (school) secretary was friendly / beamed at her / asked about her day.
UCLES 2010
Page 10

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
SUMMARY QUESTION STYLE ASSESSMENT

SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
mangled.
Indicate how you arrived at your mark for OW and UE, either by a short comment at the end of the
script or by use of left hand margin.
UCLES 2010
Page 11

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
OWN WORDS
Mark
USE OF ENGLISH
109

language.
109

the reader.
87

87

helpful.
65

mangled relevance.
65

attempted.
43

transcript.
expression.
below.
43

sustained for long.
20

the text.
20

UCLES 2010
Page 12

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
G.A.R / H.T.
best fit box.
Note 2: Relevance and irrelevance.
UCLES 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Comprehension
General comments
This years paper had a narrative topic which seemed to engage the interest of candidates. The
performance of candidates showed that, in general, they had been well prepared by their teachers and
understood the nature of the examination. Examiners reported very few incomplete scripts and very few
rubric infringements, although more Examiners than usual reported over-long summaries, where excess
words meant that points could not be rewarded because they appeared after the word limit of 160 words,
including the ten opening words provided.
types of questions likely to be asked. Almost without exception, candidates completed the paper. In the
paper, twenty five marks were allocated to the testing of literal comprehension, inferential comprehension,
vocabulary, use of own words and appreciation of writers craft. A further twenty five marks were allocated to
the summary question, these marks being divided between assessment of ability to select content points
from the text, and assessment of ability to express these points fluently and in own words. As in previous
years, the questions giving most difficulty were the questions which required candidates to answer in their
own words.
In the summary, some candidates completed a first draft and then crossed out random words to get the word
count correct, spoiling grammar and content points in so doing. Some summaries were little more than
patchworks of obviously misunderstood text.
Many Examiners remarked on the neatness of presentation and handwriting, the fact that spelling and
punctuation were generally very good, and the overall impressive standard of written English.

The opening question, Question 1 was designed to ease candidates into the examination with a fairly
accessible test in a reassuring opening and indeed the majority of candidates scored the available mark for
writing that Emma was starting at a new School. On the rare occasions when the mark was withheld it was
because the candidate had merely reiterated the question by writing that Emma had a frightening prospect
before her, and no more.
Question 2 proved to be difficult for candidates because it asked them to detail two events: firstly, that
Emmas father had been promoted; and, secondly, that the family had to move away or re-locate. Many
candidates responded to the reference in the question to mixed feelings, focusing on Emmas delight that
her father had been promoted and her concern about re-locating; this approach was accepted by Examiners
as long as the feelings were linked to appropriate events. Thus she was delighted that her father had been
promoted scored the available mark. Some candidates missed out the promotion element of the answer,
writing only that father had got another job, or that he had been moved to a different branch of the bank.
However, many candidates merely lifted, for the second strand, she was far from sure that she could
recapture the blissful existence she had known; this failed to score the mark because it neither gave an
appropriate emotion nor the needed event. Thus many candidates scored the first, but not the second,
available mark here.
The mark for Question 3 (a) was awarded to candidates who showed understanding of the word nostalgic,
with answers focusing on the familys sadness about leaving, or the fact that they might never see the places
again, or the fact that the places held memories for them. Popular wrong answers here were a reference to
the speed of the move or the difficulty in finding a house in the new location. It seemed that many
candidates did not know the meaning of nostalgic or misgivings. Question 3 (b) was probably the most
difficult question on the Paper, or at least the question with which most candidates seemed to wrestle, with

very few candidates scoring both available marks, and around a third of candidates scoring only one mark.
Some candidates did not even attempt to answer it. Candidates were required to home in on the words
possibilities and probabilities in the text, as the gap between what the family and their friends thought
would happen and the reality of what did happen. Synonyms for possibilities were they meant to or there
was a chance (that they would keep their promises), or even they might (keep their promises) and
synonyms for probabilities were expression such as it was unlikely (that they would keep their promises) or
even they almost certainly would not (keep their promises.)
The answer to Question 4 (a) was that the mother was pretending to be happy, or that she was hiding her
unhappiness, or that she was trying to encourage her family, or that she was trying not to cry. Many
candidates scored this mark; where the point was not made, it was often because candidates referred merely
to the furniture van or to leaving the house. Question 4 (b) was the second of the questions requiring
candidates to answer in their own words and, like Question 3 (b), turned out to be difficult for candidates.
The first mark was scored for offering synonyms for tough male; both elements had to be dealt with, and so
Examiners were looking for words such as strong or brave teamed with man, although the mark could be
scored by single synonyms such as macho or masculine. The second available mark was scored for
writing synonyms for unaffected by emotion, such as could cope with, could control or simply did not
have as synonyms for unaffected, and for writing words such as feelings, or specific appropriate words
such as sadness or unhappiness, as synonyms for emotion. The mark could even be scored by single
word synonyms, such as sentimental or sensitive. There was much copying over of the key words here,
particularly of unaffected by emotion. Many candidates offered a synonym for tough but failed to score the
mark because thy either copied over male of failed to address it at all; there were no half marks here and so
half an answer scored zero.
In Question 5 two marks were awarded to candidates who wrote that the journey took a long time and that it
was to a distant place. If they chose to refer to the image in the text about the distant planet, they needed to
make it clear that they understood it was an image by partially decoding it, writing that the journey seemed to
be endless, or that it was as if it were endless, and that it seemed to be to a distant planet, or that it was as if
it were to a distant planet; merely writing that the journey was endless or that it was to a distant planet scored
no marks. Most candidates scored the first available mark, for a reference to the length of the journey,
though sometimes perhaps by the fortuitous lift of the journey seemed endless, but there was much less
success with the second mark for the reference to the distance of the destination. The answer long could
refer to either time or distance and Examiners were instructed here to be as generous as possible, awarding
the mark for long as either time or distance to accommodate the second limb of the answer offered by the
candidate.
In Question 6, candidates were being tested on response to writers craft. Candidates had to infer from the
language of the text at trees and fields assumed a reddish-golden hue that the sun was setting; very many
candidates were able to make this inference and so scored the mark. Weaker candidates mentioned that it
was the end of the day, a mere lift from the question, or referred only to the beauty of the trees or the
landscape. Some picked up on the idea of reddish-golden, but missed the reference to the end of the day,
writing, wrongly, that dawn was being described.
Question 7 carried four marks, and produced marks ranging from nought to four, with many candidates
scoring full marks, and so in this respect the question seemed to discriminate well. It was possible to score
the mark for Question 7 (a) without scoring the mark for Question 7 (b) and vice versa. The first of these
marks was scored for writing that a specialist shop was one selling only one type of item. Popular wrong
answer here referred to services or variety of goods or merely lifted the wrong idea of special; others
wrote that the shop was unique, or had specialised or trained staff. The second mark was scored for offering
an example from knowledge or experience of a specialist shop, with a wide range of possible correct
answers, such as bakers shop, shoe shop, spices shop, electronics shop. In the case of local or unknown
(to the Examiner) examples, Examiners were instructed to be generous in marking of Question 7 (b) as long
as the answer to Question 7 (a) was correct; otherwise the benefit of the doubt could not be given. Popular
wrong answers here were convenience store, supermarket or mall. In parts of the world where French is
spoken, some candidates wrote, wrongly, library as a supposed English version of the French libraire or
bookshop. Perhaps surprisingly, some candidates gave a clearly correct answer for Question 7 (b), e.g. a
shoe shop, having written something incorrect for Question 7 (a). There were two marks available in
Question 7 (c), and very many candidates scored both of these; the first was scored by making reference to
the shop owners reluctance to sell his book, and the second was scored by making reference to the fact that
people could browse as long as liked without being expected to buy. It was possible to score these relatively
easy marks by lifting at lines 28-29 and 30-31 respectively.

The answer to Question 8 (a) was the single word featureless; about half of all candidates gained the
available mark here. The most popular wrong answer was eerie; some candidates spoiled what would have
been a correct answer by adding building to featureless. In Question 8 (b), the mark was awarded to
candidates who showed they understood why it was understandable that the gates were closed, i.e. because
it was the holidays, or because the term had not started yet. The mark could also be gained for focusing on
the idea of keeping out intruders or trespassers. Weaker candidates merely gave a synonym for
understandably offering answers such as Emma, or the writer, knew that the gates were closed, or even
that the writer knew why they were shut, without offering the reason why. Only about a quarter of candidates
answered this question correctly.
Candidates performed more strongly with Question 9, the answer to which could be made in a variety of
ways, such as by reference to rudeness, offhandedness, coldness, unkindness or arrogance; strictness or
anger were considered inappropriate and did not score the mark.
Question 10 required the idea of negativity, rather than simple curiosity, in order to score. Thus, marks were
awarded to candidates who wrote that the mother was worried, or afraid, or thought that Emma had had a
bad day; answers such as she wondered if Emma had had a bad day or she was uncertain whether Emma
had had a bad day were insufficient to score as they focused merely on the meaning of questioned rather
than that of hesitantly. Other possible correct answers were those such as she did not know if she should
have asked the question or she was dreading the answer she might get. About half of all candidates
scored this mark. References to Emma collapsing into the car, or to the secretary, did not score the mark,
but were regarded as neutral extensions to correct answers if they did appear.
eight. Some candidates found this a challenging set of words. Examiners reported marks ranging from 0 to
5 here, with some bunching at 2 or 3. Most candidates who attempted procedures scored the mark for
synonyms such as rules, regulations and routines and those who attempted focused found many
acceptable synonyms, such as concentrated or based on. Many and lots of were correct answers for
multiplicity, but various was commonly, and incorrectly, given. Correct synonyms for devoted were words
such as given to or assigned to, and correct synonyms for casually were informally, naturally or even
normally. Candidates who attempted meandering were almost invariably wrong, choosing to write flowed
ratter than the correct twisted or turning. Similarly, there were few correct attempts at enthralled, where
the mark was given to synonyms such as fascinated or captivated; wrong answers here were usually
interested or amazed. Likewise, there were very few correct attempts at imminent, where correct
synonym were impending or about to happen; many candidates were confused here between imminent
and inevitable, writing, wrongly, bound to happen or unavoidable. There were a few rubric problems here,
with some candidates writing the word in a sentence, with no attempt to re-cast it, and others opting to offer a
synonym for all eight words, when only the first five attempt are looked at by the Examiner.
the paper. Candidates were asked to summarise the actions and events which by the end of the day made
Emma feel happier. As is normal, the rubric asked candidates to base their summary on just more than half
of the original text, expressing content points as far as possible in their own words, using a maximum of 160
words, the first ten of which were given. They were to write in continuous prose, not note form. There were
nineteen content points, of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen points
carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that almost all candidates completed the summary question. A
very small number of candidates forfeited their Style mark by writing their summary in note form rather than
in continuous prose. This proved to be a more difficult summary than might have appeared at first glance; a
mere recounting of the School day was insufficient to score, as the rubric asked for actions and events that
made Emma feel happier, not just events that she experienced or endured.
There were two content points available in paragraph ten. The opening ten words were designed to ease
candidates into the summary by leading them to the first content point, which was that the teacher greeted
Emma with a smile, and that she asked the class to make her welcome. Many candidates wrote, wrongly,
that the class welcomed Emma, information not supported by the text.
In paragraph eleven, another two content points were available, which were the teacher explained the
School routine individually to Emma, and either that she made a joke about there being two new girls in the
class, or that she herself was new. The first of these points was often insufficiently made because one of the
elements required was omitted perhaps the reference to School procedures, or perhaps the individual
attention given to Emma.

A further two marks were awarded in paragraph twelve to candidates who wrote that a girl, or that Tanya,
showed Emma the outdoor area, and that she spoke to her about herself, her family or her previous School;
if the subject matter of the discussion was omitted, the mark was withheld.
In paragraph thirteen, three content points were available, all of them about the science lesson. Any
reference to the teachers enthusiasm scored a mark, followed by the fact the lesson was on a favourite
topic, or on global warming, and the fact that all of this made Emma forget her anxiety.
Paragraph fourteen contained a further two content points. Emma sat with some classmates at lunch time,
and they talked together; here the topic of the discussion did not have to be included, but the context of
lunch time was necessary.
In paragraph fifteen, three marks were available to candidates who wrote that the drama teacher explained
the activity to Emma, that Emma enjoyed Role play, and that she was distracted from her problems as a
newcomer.
Paragraph sixteen centred on the English lesson and yielded four content points. Emma was interested in a
poem about tigers, she contributed to, or started, a discussion about tigers, and she became the centre of
attention. This resulted in her feeling she was starting to belong.
There was one available content point in paragraph seventeen, which was that the secretary beamed at
Emma, or that she asked her about her day.
even from Centre to Centre, but that in general candidates are skilful at recasting the original text in their own
words; the majority of candidates made an attempt to avoid wholesale lifting, and the best demonstrated
considerable fluency in using their own words. There was a low incidence of random, mindless copying.
Some weaker candidates played safe by relying fairly heavily on the text wording, thus not scoring highly for
re-casting it in original complex sentence, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style, and indeed the
best candidates wrote stylishly, succinctly and with ambitious vocabulary. As is normal, Examiners reported
candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being clearly proficient in English,
because their summaries were far too generalised and lacking in the precision required to make content
points; such candidates made oblique references rather than specific points. Others gave a chronological
account of Emmas day, without focusing on the rubric, namely the events and actions which made Emma
feel better by the end of the day.
Common errors reported were common failures of agreement in singular and plural, and misplaced or
omitted prepositions. There was some misunderstanding and misconceptions of agents matched to verbs.
There was much weakness in verb form, e.g. the widespread use of the Present Tense where Past Tense
was required, e.g. Emma forget her anxiety and her companion ask Emma. Weaker candidates often
slipped into the present tense, after beginning in the past tense. There was a high incidence in some parts
of the world of the omission of definite and indefinite articles.
In parts of the world where French is spoken, there was confusion between journey (journee) and day, and
between remarquer (remarquer) and notice. Some candidates wrongly used the construction faire plus a
verb, e.g. Tanya made Emma go to the outdoor recreation area.

1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2011
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
This insert contains the two reading passages.
Passage 1 Pirates
1
Piracy has been around for as long as people have used the oceans as trade routes, and
there is a probably universal stereotype of the pirate as a ruthless villain, brandishing a sword.
He is in possession of a large fortune, some of it buried on a desert island, to be unearthed in
his old age. In the popular imagination, pirates were rebellious and clever, operating outside
the restrictive bureaucracy of the law. In reality, few became fabulously wealthy and many
died young.
There are many reasons why piracy flourished in former times. Pirates sometimes captured
the inhabitants of other lands, particularly children, and sold them as slaves. Taking hostage a
powerful leader or public figure was a lucrative business, as huge sums of money could then
be demanded as ransom. The famous Roman leader Julius Caesar was captured by pirates 10
and a certain sum of ransom money was demanded; Caesar thought he was worth more and
persuaded his captors to increase their demands! Pirate raids were often used to capture
foreign territory; the Vikings were particularly successful in this regard.
When sailors were marooned because they were on the losing side in a war, they set up small
gangs near river estuaries, initially to protect themselves. Soon they realised that they could 15
plunder ships carrying expensive cargo, like silks and spices. In some parts of the world,
continuous war demanded frequent supplies of fresh horses, imported on sea routes from
Africa; this trade was subjected to frequent raids by thriving bands of pirates based in coastal
cities. In other areas, it was not uncommon for people to consider piracy a legitimate response
to the fact that they could make no money from their poor land, and that piracy was therefore 20
their main source of income.
Not all piracy was illegal. Sometimes privately owned ships called privateers were authorised
by a countrys government to attack and rob foreign vessels during wartime. Privateering was
a form of state-sponsored piracy, where the ship, and not just the cargo, could be stolen.
Privateering was encouraged by governments; it saved them money that they might otherwise 25
have had to spend on building battleships. Because privateers were often thugs who exploited
every opportunity to steal, they sometimes continued to plunder ships in peacetime.
However, piracy is not confined to history books; it continues to be a problem in modern

times. Some modern pirates are content to make relatively limited amounts of money by
boarding small ships and taking cash belonging to the crew; they also steal inexpensive 30
goods which might be on board. Other pirates, working in organised syndicates, attack with
more sophistication and planning, driven by the possibility of large cargoes, for example oil.
The skill and planning of these syndicates mean that they are often able to make vast sums
of money by capturing members of the crew and demanding ransom money for their release.
There have been several recent high profile cases of pirates whose intention is not monetary, 35
but rather the desire to achieve publicity for a political point of view. The worldwide media
coverage which such cases provoke suggests that this type of piracy is effective.
Modern piracy is a growing and successful phenomenon because more and more international
trade takes place via shipping, particularly as the cost of air travel increases. This means
that often ships have to decrease their speed in order to avoid collision in busy shipping 40
lanes, thus increasing the chances of pirate attack. Modern ships tend to have smaller crews
as technology replaces manpower, thus making it easier for pirates to overpower what crew
members there are. Modern technology also works in pirates favour because they are able
to utilise it to discover the location of ships suitable for attack. In former times, what popular
pirate areas, such as the Strait of Malacca, had in common was that they were narrow bodies 45
of water; modern shipping routes also take ships through narrow passages which are more
susceptible to having pirates lying in wait ready to attack them.
Pirates have been around for a long, long time, both in real life and in our personal and
cultural imaginations, and it seems that the situation is unlikely to change.
UCLES 2011
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/11
Passage 2 Victory
1
Lore had it that my father once wrestled a bear, a claim he never denied. If the story had been
about anyone else, it would have been dismissed as exaggeration, which in my country was
almost a national affliction. But no-one ever doubted the veracity of any story about my father.
He was a towering force of nature; when all six foot of him thundered into the room, people
behaved like sunflowers turning towards the sun. With me, Amir, as the glaring exception,
my father moulded the world around him to his liking. He was also a man whose word was
always respected.
My mother had died giving birth to me and the truth was that I always felt my father hated me a
little. And why not? Had I not killed his beloved wife? The least I could do was to turn out a little
more like him. Was having a son who preferred poetry to sport what my father had envisaged? 10
I was a pathetic, blundering liability to my football team, always unwittingly obstructing the
other team members. When it became abundantly clear that I hadnt inherited a shred of my
fathers athletic talents, he settled for trying to turn me into a passionate spectator. I faked
interest for as long as I could, but my father sensed my lack of genuine interest and resigned
himself to the bleak fact that his son was never going either to play or to watch football.
15
Every winter, each district held a kite-fighting tournament, the winner of which was the child
whose kite was the last one flying. This tournament was undeniably the highlight of the cold
season. During the contest, participants tried to cut the strings of all their opponents kites.
On the day of any tournament, the streets filled with kite fighters, jerking and pulling on their
strings, squinting up at the sky, trying to gain position to cut an opponents string. I used to 20
build my own kite from bamboo, glue and paper. Then came the crucial part: I had to make my
own string a long, sharp, and colourful line. It was at one of these tournaments that I sensed
my opportunity to make my father love me.
Already streets and rooftops were jammed with spectators, including my father. I held my kite
high over my head, like an Olympic athlete showing off his gold medal, and tossed it into 25
the air. Within a minute it was rocketing into the sky, making a sound like a bird flapping its
wings. At least two dozen kites already hung in the sky, like roaming paper sharks. Within an
hour the number doubled; soon the cutting started and the first of the defeated kites whirled
out of control and fell from the sky like a shooting star. Soon, kites were coming down all
over the place. I sliced a bright yellow kite, the string also cutting a gash on my index finger. 30
Within another hour, the number of kites flying dwindled from maybe fifty to a dozen. By late
afternoon, shadows started to lengthen. We were down to six kites and mine was still flying.
With each defeated kite, hope grew in my heart.
My eyes kept returning to a blue kite which had been wreaking havoc for the last hour. Then
what had seemed like a fantasy that morning had suddenly become feasible; there was just 35
me and the owner of the blue kite left. The tension in the air was as taut as the glass string
I was tugging with my bloody hands. People were stamping their feet, clapping, whistling,
chanting. All I saw was the blue kite. All I smelled was victory. A gust of wind enabled me
to loop my kite on top of the blue one, the owner of which desperately tried to manoeuvre it
away. I loosened my grip on the string, and saw the blue kite falling from the sky. Perhaps now 40
I had achieved the redemption I had craved all my life.
It happened just the way Id hoped. My father had already returned to his study and I stepped
tentatively in. His head turned and a smile played on his lips. I put my kite down happily and
walked into his thick hairy arms. I buried my face in the warmth of his chest and wept. My
father held me close to him, rocking me back and forth.
45
UCLES 2011
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/11

* 2 6 1 6 5 7 1 1 1 2 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2011
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.
Answer all questions in both Section 1 and Section 2.
The insert contains the two reading passages.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the beginning or end of each question or part question.
For Examiners Use
2
Section 1: Reading for Ideas
Read Passage 1 in the insert and answer all the questions below in the order set.
1
(a) Notes [15 marks]

Identify and write down the reasons for piracy, and the actions of pirates, in former
times and in the present day.
USE ONLY THE MATERIAL FROM PARAGRAPH 2 TO PARAGRAPH 6 INCLUSIVE.
At this stage, you need NOT use your own words. To help you get started, the first point
in each section of notes is done for you. You will be awarded up to 15 marks for content
points.
MAIN POINTS
Reasons for piracy, and the actions of pirates, in former times
They captured people to sell as slaves
Reasons for piracy, and the actions of pirates, in the present day
Modern pirates are content to make relatively little money from small ships
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
3
(b) Summary [5 marks]
Now use your notes to write a summary of the reasons for piracy, and the actions of
pirates, both in former times and in modern times.
For
Examiners
Use
This time, you will be awarded up to 5 marks for using your own words wherever
possible and for accurate use of language.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must be no longer
than 160 words, including the 10 words given below. Begin your summary as follows:
Many years ago, pirates could make a living when they ...................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
[Turn over
From paragraph 1, select and write down one fact about pirates and one opinion about
pirates.
One fact is ................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
One opinion is ..........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Based on your reading of paragraph 2, what do you think is the writers attitude towards the
famous Roman leader, Julius Caesar?
The writer thinks .................................................................................................................. [1]
Pirates have been around for a long, long time, both in real life and in our personal and
cultural imaginations.
From your own knowledge or experience, give two examples of piracy. You may take your
examples from personal or cultural imagination, or from real life, or from both. Do not refer
to specific examples from the passage in your answer.
One example is ........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Another example is ..................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Total for Section 1 [25]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
5
Section 2: Reading for Meaning
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What story was told about Amirs father?

..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Give two reasons why people tended to believe the story about Amirs father.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) Give two reasons why, according to Amir, his father hated him.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
(b) Explain in your own words why Amir was a blundering liability to his football team.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Pick out and write down the single word which tells you that eventually Amirs father
realised that his son would never be interested in football.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
7
(a) Explain fully how the winner of the kite-fighting competition was decided.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) What single feature of the kites string was crucial in winning the competition?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 4
8
(a) Why do you think Amir felt like an Olympic athlete showing off his gold medal even
before the tournament began?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain fully why the writer describes the kites as roaming paper sharks.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 5
9
(a) Explain in your own words the contrast between the way Amir feels at the start of the
tournament and his feelings just before he won it.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Why do you think Amirs hands were bloody?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) What is the redemption Amir refers to?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 6
For
Examiners
Use
10 Give two reasons why Amir was happy.

(a)
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
[2]

11 Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of not
more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the passage.
(a) affliction (line 3)
(e) undeniably (line 17)
(b) glaring (line 5)
(f)
(c) moulded (line 6)
(g) havoc (line 34)
(d) shred (line 12)
(h) tentatively (line 43)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
highlight (line 17)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/M/J/11
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
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21
MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 FOR CONTENT POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 5 MARKS FOR

STYLE (See pages 3-4 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by tick the point
rewarded. Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form. Points 1 and 11 are
already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Captured people to sell as slaves

Took hostages // demanded ransom money
Captured (foreign) territory
Plundered / stole ships cargoes
Stole horses
(thought they had to) steal because they were / their land was poor
Privateers / pirates were authorized (to rob / attack / plunder foreign / enemy) ships in
wartime
Privateers stole the ship
Privateers were encouraged by governments.
Privateers were allowed to = 0
Privateers plundered / robbed / attacked ships in peacetime (too)
Modern piracy is carried out to make (relatively little) money / to find cash belonging to
the crew
And goods
Syndicates / pirates steal attack / plunder / rob whole / large cargoes
And hold crew members to ransom // take crew members hostage
(Some pirates) want to make a political statement
(There is) more trade via shipping
Ships have to decrease their speed
(There are) fewer / smaller crew members on board (because of technology)
Pirates use technology to locate ships (to plunder)
Ships sail through narrow bodies / passages of water
1 (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
If script is entirely verbatim lift give 0 for content.

If point is made in the wrong box, do not award mark.
If more than one content point appears under a single bullet point, award each content
point if clearly made.
If content point depends on information contained in another bullet point, withhold
mark unless clear contextual link is made between two adjacent points.
[15]
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Syllabus
1123
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21
(b) Summary Writing and Style
[5]
Candidates have now fleshed out their notes into a piece of formal, continuous prose.
The mark for Style incorporates TWO categories of writing, namely OWN WORDS and USE
OF ENGLISH. The table which follows on the next page provides descriptors of the mark
levels assigned to these TWO categories.
deciding the mark for this level, take the accuracy of the writing into account, in
particular the absence or frequency of serious and minor errors, and the ability to use
original complex sentence structures. Underline all serious errors.
Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by
two. Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number. Add this mark to the
Content mark and show as a total in the right-hand margin.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
severely mangled.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
phrases / clauses, omissions of stops after introductory words like 'however'
NB For short answers, mark in the usual way, but note that mark is unlikely to be more
than OW3 and UE3
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Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
Mark
5
USE OF ENGLISH



mangled relevance.

transcript,

the text.

or minor errors. There is a marked
ability to use original complex
syntax outside text structures.
to the reader.
accurate. Serious errors will be
isolated.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
attempted.
frequent.
correct.
impeding the reading.
Page 5

Syllabus
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21

(one fact and one opinion)
Facts
Piracy has been around for a long time / for as long as people have used the oceans as trade
routes
Few pirates became wealthy / many pirates were poor
Many pirates died young / few pirates lived to an old age
Pirates operated outside the law
[1]
Lift of line 1 piracy trade routes = 1 (Excess denies)
Opinions
Pirates were (ruthless) villains
Pirates had swords
Pirates were rich
Pirates were rebellious
Pirates were clever
Pirates buried treasure (on desert islands)
Any reference to universal stereotype invalidates the answer
If more than one answer is given in either limb mark the first answer only
[1]

(writers attitude to Julius Caesar)
He was proud / conceited / had a high opinion of himself / egocentric / arrogant / self-centred
He thought he was silly / foolish / selfish / worth more than the pirates were asking = 0
[1]
Question 4 from knowledge or experience

(two examples of piracy, from imagination or reality)
Do not accept examples from the passage, but be generous with candidates interpretation.
Look for ideas such as:
Imagination: Captain Hook, Jack Sparrow, games they played as children
Reality: kidnapping oil tankers (e.g. off coast of Somalia) // kidnapping boating enthusiasts (and
demanding ransom) // pirate cds / videos / dvds / films etc // hijacking planes / lorries // identity
theft. Be generous here .Exact historical detail is not important, but rather the response to the
text.
Selling cds / dvds etc. (alone) = 0(n)
[2 1]
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Syllabus
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Paper
21
Passage 2
(a) story about Amirs father
he had (once) wrestled / fought with a bear
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of line 1 (Lore had itnever denied) = 1. Excess denies.
(b) people believed it
(i) he never denied it / the claim // (people knew) he was truthful / never lied // his
word was respected / he was respected
[1]
Lift of line 1 (Lore had ithe never denied) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
Lift of line 1 (a claim he never denied) = 0. Answer must be reshaped, e.g. he
never denied the claim = 1
(ii) he was strong / tall / powerful / huge / six foot
[1]
Lift of line 4 (He was a towering force of nature) = 1 Excess denies.

Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 45 (When all ..towards the sun) = 0.
Answer must be distilled.
If more than one answer is offered in either limb mark the first one only
(a) father hated him
(i) his mother died giving birth to him / when he was born // (he thought) he had killed
his mother / wife (sic)
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 89 (My mother ..a little) = 1. Pronouns are
incorrect but can be accepted as according to Amir in the question.
Lift of line 9 (Had I not killedwife?) = 0
(ii) Amir / he preferred poetry to sport / football // didnt like sport / football // he wasnt
good at football / sports // he hadnt turned out like his father
Lift of line 10 (Was having a sonenvisaged?) = 0
Lift of lines 1213 (I hadnt inherited .talents) = 1. Excess denies. Pronouns are
incorrect but can be accepted as according to Amir in the question.
[1]
Page 7

Syllabus
1123
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21
(b) blundering liability

Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are UNWITTINGLY and
OBSTRUCTING. Do not insist on synonyms for team members but a sensible context
is required.
A. UNWITTINGLY unknowingly / unconsciously / without meaning to /
unintentionally
unaware / ignorantly / without realizing / inadvertently /
unsuspectingly
[1]
without wanting to / involuntarily / without comprehension /

accidentally / innocently = 0
B. OBSTRUCTING blocking / getting in the way of / hindering / keeping back /
deterring / impeding / hampering / holding up / holding back
[1]
limiting / annoying / interfering / interrupting = 0

(c) father realised
resigned
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase
or a sentence provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(a) winner decided
A. the winner / he / she had to cut the (kite) strings
[1]
Lift of line 18 (participants triedopponents kites) = 0. But some re-shaping, e.g.

participants had to cut / participants cut = 1
B. until only his / her kite was flying / was left
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 1617 (Every winter.last one flying) = 0. Distilling
is required.
The winner had to cut the strings of all the opponents = 2
The winner had to cut all the strings of the opponents = 1
(b) kites string
sharpness / it was sharp
More than one feature, i.e. reference to length or colour = 0(W)
[1]
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
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21

(a) Olympic athlete
he was proud of his kite / his kite would help him to win // be a winner / champion // he
was confident he would win
Reference to father watching = 0(n)
[1]
(b) roaming sharks

Look for ideas of roaming and sharks
A. They were wandering / moving around / going in different directions
[1]
Flying (alone) = 0. Moving (alone) = 0. Image must be decoded. But accept

Comparisons such as kites flying were like sharks swimming
B. predatory / looking for opponents / trying to defeat (opponents) / about to attack /
looking for victims
[1]
about to kill looking for prey / about to bite = 0

Reference to paper = 0
(a) contrasting feelings
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are FANTASY and FEASIBLE.
Do not insist on synonyms for team members but a sensible context is required.
A. FANTASY
dream / illusion / pipedream / impossibility / imaginary / fancy /

something which could not / was unlikely to happen
[1]
hallucination / mirage / improbability = 0

B. FEASIBLE possible / accessible / potential / viable // could be done // could
happen // he was going to win // achievable / attainable / realizable /
there was a chance he would win
[1]
likely / probable / real / reality = 0

(b) bloody hands
Sensible inference must be made at lines 3637 (glass string I was tugging)
Amir / he had cut his hands / himself on the (kite) string (which was sharp / made of
glass) // the (kite) string had cut his hands
the (kite) string was sharp / made of glass = 0(n)
[1]
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(c) Amirs redemption

to make his father / his father would love / be proud of / respect / approve of him //
forgive him (for not being good at football / the son he wanted) // forgive him for his
mothers death
[1]
The redemption he had craved all his life = 0

To make his father happy = 0
Amir was happy
(i) he had won he tournament / cut the strings of all his opponents kites
[1]
Lift of lines 43 (I put down my kite happily) = 0.

(ii) he had won his fathers love / admiration / affection / approval / respect / Pride /
forgiveness // his father smiled // he had made his father happy / his father was happy
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of line 43 (His head..his lips) = 0. But award mark if correct
agent is substituted for ambiguous agent, i.e. father
Question 11 from the whole passage
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

wrong but neutral, e.g. 'illness and problem for 'affliction'.
[5]
Page 10

Syllabus
1123
1 mark
Paper
21
0 mark
1.affliction
(line 3)
Illness / disease / disability / weakness /

handicap / sickness / complaint / curse /
scourge
problem / worry / concern suffering

/ evil / trial / trouble / pain / upset
2.glaring
(line 5)
obvious / outstanding / distinct / clear /

conspicuous / prominent / visible / blatant /
flagrant / manifest / patent
looking / peering / gross /

outrageous / rank / bright /
ridiculous / staring
3.moulded
(line 6)
shaped / fashioned / made / structured /

formed / styled / tailored / framed /
modelled / manipulated
designed / carved / created /

influenced combined
4. shred
(line 12)
Trace / scrap / iota // whit / tad / bit / grain /

fraction / modicum / fragment / bit / jot //
one / single / small section
section / piece / rag / sliver /

snippet / a little
5.undeniably
(line 17)
definitely / doubtlessly / without question /

certainly / unequivocally / undisputedly /
assuredly / incontrovertibly / really /
obviously / clearly / evidently / surely /
manifestly / patently / unquestionably / truly
unbelievably
6.highlight
(line 17)
pinnacle / apex / climax / peak / height /

zenith / best part / star event
brightness / best // main / most /

important / popular / remarkable /
exciting
7.havoc
(line 34)
chaos / disorder / disaster / bedlam /

disarray / ructions / destruction /
devastation / confusion / mayhem /
disruption / tumult
Bother / trouble / damage / wreck /

ravage / slaughter / shambles /
commotion
8.tentatively
(line 43)
cautiously / nervously / carefully / warily /

hesitantly / cagily / diffidently / uncertainly
secretly / deliberately / discreetly /

slowly / timidly / shyly / fearfully /
reluctantly / speculatively /
provisionally / apprehensively
Page 11

Syllabus
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21
Appendix
There are many reasons why piracy flourished in former times. Pirates sometimes captured the
inhabitants of other lands, particularly children, and sold them as slaves. Taking hostage a
powerful leader or public figure was a lucrative business, as huge sums of money could then be
demanded as ransom. The famous Roman leader Julius Caesar was captured by pirates and a
certain sum of ransom money was demanded; Caesar thought he was worth more and persuaded his
captors to increase their demands! Pirate raids were often used to capture foreign territory; the
Vikings were particularly successful in this regard.
When sailors were marooned because they were on the losing side in a war, they set up small gangs
near river estuaries, initially to protect themselves. Soon they realised that they could plunder ships
carrying expensive cargo, like silks and spices. In some parts of the world, continuous war
demanded frequent supplies of fresh horses, imported on sea routes from Africa; this trade
was subjected to frequent raids by thriving bands of pirates based in coastal cities. In other
areas, it was not uncommon for people to consider piracy a legitimate response to the fact that
they could make no money from their poor land, and that piracy was therefore their main source
of income.
Not all piracy was illegal. Sometimes privately owned ships - called privateers - were authorised
by a countrys government to attack and rob foreign vessels during wartime. Privateering was a
form of state-sponsored piracy, where the ship, and not just the cargo, could be stolen.
Privateering was encouraged by governments; it saved them money that they might otherwise
have had to spend on building battleships. Because privateers were often thugs who exploited every
opportunity to steal, they sometimes continued to plunder ships in peacetime.
However, piracy is not confined to history books; it continues to be a problem in modern times. Some
modern pirates are content to make relatively limited amounts of money by boarding small
ships and taking cash belonging to the crew; they also steal inexpensive goods which might be
on board. Other pirates, working in organised syndicates, attack with more sophistication and
planning, driven by the possibility of large cargoes, for example oil. The skill and planning of
these syndicates mean that they are often able to make vast sums of money by capturing
members of the crew and demanding ransom money for their release. There have been several
recent high profile cases of pirates whose intention is not monetary, but rather the desire to
achieve publicity for a political point of view. The worldwide media coverage which such cases
provoke suggests that this type of piracy is effective.
Modern piracy is a growing and successful phenomenon because more and more international
trade takes place via shipping, particularly as the cost of air travel increases. This means that often
ships have to decrease their speed in order to avoid collision in busy shipping lanes, thus
increasing the chances of pirate attack. Modern ships tend to have smaller crews as technology
replaces manpower, thus making it easier for pirates to overpower what crew members there are.
Modern technology also works in pirates favour because they are able to utilise it to discover
the location of ships suitable for attack. In former times, what popular pirate areas, such as the
Strait of Malacca, had in common was that they were narrow bodies of water; modern shipping
routes also take ships through narrow passages which are more susceptible to having pirates
lying in wait ready to attack them.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Comprehension
Key messages
Candidates should develop greater skills in answering those questions which require them to answer in their
own words, first learning how to identify key words in such questions. They should learn how to give
answers which require some distillation of the text, as well as the decoding of figurative language. They
should focus on looking beyond the literal in inferential comprehension, while at the same time drawing their
inferences from a sensible context linked to the text.
General Comments
Candidates for this years paper followed the revised structure of the examination, now with questions based
on two shorter passages, Piracy and Victory, completed in a common answer booklet.
Most candidates completed the paper and appeared to have been well prepared by their teachers, showing
themselves to be familiar with the types of questions likely to be asked. They adapted well to the new layout
of the answer booklets.
Candidates engaged in an interested way with the passages, with strong candidates taking the opportunity to
show their ability; weaker candidates also managed to engage with the materials, although at a lower level.
The first passage, Piracy, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas and the second, Victory, tested
their reading for meaning. 40% of the marks were available for the summary question, with 15 marks being
awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of Pirates, and 5
marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in their own words. Further
questions afforded candidates the opportunity to exercise their personal observations or imaginative
responses to the text.
The second passage, Victory, tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
understanding of vocabulary, use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft.
The questions which proved most challenging were those which required candidates to answer in their own
words, or answers which required some distillation of the text, decoding of images or inferential
comprehension.
The revised format of the summary question, (both Questions 1 (a) and Question 1 (b), largely prevented
candidates from writing to excess, copying verbatim at length or from producing both fair and rough copies.
There was very little irrelevance noted or evidence of candidates diverging wildly from the rubric. Indeed,
candidates are to be congratulated on the neatness of presentation and on the legibility of their handwriting.
Originality in Question 1 (b) was not always in evidence but wholesale copying of the text was generally
avoided and both spelling and punctuation were good. The overall standard of written English was
impressive for the level.
Section 1: Reading for ideas
Question 1 (a) was the first part of the summary question, carrying 30% of the total marks for the paper.
Candidates were asked to identify and write down the reasons for piracy, and the actions of pirates, in
former times and in the present day. The summary had to be based on the bulk of the text, Pirates, and
this year candidates were encouraged to write their answers in note form, not necessarily in their own words.

There were eighteen content points of which they could identify any combination up to a maximum of fifteen
points, carrying one mark each. Examiners reported that most of the candidates expressed the points either
in note form or in short sentences and that few presented a verbatim copy of the text in continuous prose.
They also reported hardly any infringements of the rubric or any instances of complete irrelevance or
personal reflections.
Paragraphs Two, Three and Four referred to piracy in former times and there were nine points (excluding the
first which was given) which the candidates could make. Most recognised that hostages were taken by
pirates, that they captured foreign territory and stole ships cargoes. Many alluded to the pirates who stole
horses, but this point was at times hidden amongst more general comments about plundering ships.
Candidates were only allowed a mark for stating that piracy was a main source of income if they mentioned
the reason i.e. that they were poor or that their land was poor.
A large number of candidates failed to make a distinction between pirates and privateers. It was essential to
note that privateers were authorised by governments in wartime, that it was the privateers who stole the
ships in wartime and that it was the privateers who were encouraged to do so, according to the text. It was
also the privateers and not the pirates in general who continued to rob and plunder in peacetime.
Candidates who did not mention wartime were not awarded the mark. Similarly the pronoun they often
failed to distinguish between pirates and privateers. When writing in note form candidates should not
sacrifice detail and precision for the sake of being short and concise. Each individual response to the rubric
should demonstrate a candidates full understanding.
There were a number of candidates who lost marks by using examples of modern piracy (paragraphs Five
and Six) in the first section relating to former times (paragraphs Two, Three and Four) and vice versa. The
lesson here is to follow the rubric.
There were a further nine points available concerning present day piracy. Many recognised that pirates stole
inexpensive goods from on board ships, that they also attacked large cargoes and often held crews to
ransom. Some lost the mark because they made a general reference to taking hostages (wrong era), rather
than taking the crew members hostage (modern era). Many recognised that some pirates operated for
political reasons, that piracy was successful because there was more trading via shipping and that, because
of the traffic, ships had to slow down. Candidates also noted that pirates used technology to find the location
of ships to plunder and that ships sailing through narrow passages of water afforded opportunities for attack.
There was a small number of candidates who were awarded maximum points and a large number scoring
half marks and above. Some candidates wasted the space available by reproducing the points in each
section which were given. Examiners felt that candidates would be best served by producing a list of notes
or short sentences in bullet point form (many did), rather than in continuous prose. However, points should
be fully made with appropriate agents. On the whole, the response to the revised format for the summary
was most encouraging.
In Question 1 (b), candidates were asked to use their notes to write a summary, in their own words, of the
reasons for piracy, and the actions of pirates in former and modern times. They were asked to write no more
than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), preferably within the space available in the answer
booklet.
Examiners reported that most candidates completed the exercise and that most were able to do so
comfortably within the given space. Some, not many, presented a draft on a separate sheet of paper without
acknowledging whether it represented a fair or rough copy. The feeling is that Question 1 (a) provided the
notes as a basis for writing the summary in Question 1 (b) and that the rough drafts would be unnecessary.
There were a number of candidates who used their own words in a sustained manner and in a style which
was always accurate, containing original complex structures. However, the general use of own words was
less noticeable this year and many candidates selected from, edited and restructured the text well, without
being innovative or original in their use of English, and there were some who copied wholesale from the text.
Encouragingly, nearly all candidates attempted the question and adhered to the rubric. However, candidates
should be aware that very short answers cannot justify a high mark, since they cannot demonstrate a
sustained use of own words or completely accurate use of English.
10

Question 2 simply asked candidates to write down one fact and one opinion about pirates, contained in
Paragraph 1. Most were able to quote from the text that piracy had been around for a long time, that few
pirates were wealthy or that many died young; they were also cognisant of the opinion that they buried
treasure or were rich and ruthless villains. Only a few candidates muddled their facts and opinions and this
proved to be a relatively accessible introduction to the comprehension questions.
Question 3 Most candidates understood that the writer thought that Julius Caesar was proud and arrogant.
Many referred to him correctly as being self-centred or full of himself. However, a few thought that he was
selfish or rubbish and these were clearly incorrect.
Question 4 asked candidates to use their own knowledge or experience to provide two examples of piracy
from personal or cultural imagination or from real life. Many candidates infringed the rubric by reproducing
specific examples from the passage; others simply defined piracy; some gave examples of simple robbery
and theft. The best answers referred to modern piracy by detailing specific events or places, such as the
recent activities in Somalia. Answers referring to characters in literature or film such as Captain Hook,
Blackbeard and Jack Sparrow were rewarded. A number of candidates referred to pirated CDs and DVDs or
to identity theft and the hijacking of aeroplanes and these were all acceptable responses.
Section 2 Reading for meaning
Question 5 (a) eased candidates into the second passage, Victory, by asking what story was told about
Amirs father and most were able to say that he had once wrestled a bear.
Question 5 (b) was equally well answered with candidates recognising that people tended to believe the
story about Amirs father because (i) he was a big man and (ii) he was respected or that he had never
denied the stories. Only a few candidates lifted too much from the text without distilling the answer.
In Question 6 (a), the responses were equally successful when candidates stated that Amir thought that his
father hated him because (i) his wife had died giving birth to Amir and (ii) because he was not like his father
and preferred poetry to sport.
Question 6 (b) was the first of the own words questions, asking candidates to say why Amir was a
blundering liability to his football team by redefining the idea that he unwittingly obstructed them. Better
candidates were able to state that Amir got in the way or blocked his team members, but many repeated
obstructed or simply reported that he was rubbish at football. Recasting unwittingly was a rare
occurrence, but a few candidates did note that Amir had got in the way unknowingly or unintentionally.
Question 6 (c) asked for the single word telling us that Amirs father realised that Amir would never be
interested in football. Whilst many candidates understood the rubric and provided the one word, resigned,
many others incorrectly chose bleak or sensed.
Question 7 (a) asked candidates to explain how the winner of the competition was decided and many knew
that the winner was the person with the last kite flying. However, many did not write, for the second mark,
that the opponents strings had to be cut. Those who stated that participants tried to cut the strings were
not rewarded with a mark.
In Question 7 (b), many candidates failed to adhere to the rubric of the question which asked for a single
feature of the string, crucial to winning the competition. The simple answer was that the string should be
sharp. Many said that the string should be sharp, long and colourful, thereby infringing the rubric; such
imprecision was not rewarded.
Question 8 (a) asked why Amir felt like an Olympic athlete. Many referred to the presence of spectators and
especially that of his father. Better candidates correctly referred to how proud he was of his kite or to his
confidence about winning the competition.
Question 8 (b) wanted candidates to decode the image of kites roaming like sharks. This question proved
to be accessible only to the better candidates, who referred to their movement in all directions (one mark)
and to their predatory qualities, looking for and about to attack opponents (one mark).

Question 9 (a) was the second of the own words questions, requiring candidates to recast fantasy and
feasible with reference to the contrast between how Amir felt at the start of the tournament and his feelings
just before he won it. Most candidates found this question very difficult, but it did uncover the better ones
who were able to tell us that he originally felt victory was just a dream, impossible or unlikely to happen,
whereas, as the contest is coming to a conclusion, he begins to feel that victory is possible, that there is a
chance he could win the tournament. Candidates were more successful with the idea of feasibility than that
of fantasy, but some erred in stating that victory was probable when it was only possible, or that it was a
reality when it had not yet been attained. A number gave the answer the wrong way round, stating that Amir
was confident at the beginning but tense at the end.
Question 9 (b) asked why we thought Amirs hands were bloody and many candidates knew the answer, but
did not fully provide the reason - that his hand had been cut by the string. Two key elements cut and
string- were required, but many candidates provided only one, either that the string was sharp or that his
hands had been cut. Candidates should provide full explanations to show they understand and not expect
the Examiner to work out the reasoning.
In Question 9 (c), many candidates understood that Amirs redemption was to make his father love him.
In Question 10, many candidates knew that Amir was happy because he had won the competition and
because his father now loved him and was happy and proud of him. Marks were lost by vague and general
statements such as things had turned out just as he had hoped. Candidates need to remember that each
question is an independent entity, however close the link to a previous question, and should be answered
fully.
Question 11 was the vocabulary question in which candidates were required to show their understanding, in
context but not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words from a choice of eight. Most candidates
attempted five words and most adhered to the rubric by providing a single synonym or short explanatory
phrase. The answer box helped the candidate from infringing the rubric by giving more than five examples.
Affliction meaning sickness or a curse was not commonly or successfully attempted. Synonyms such as
problem or trouble were offered but were considered too weak or general for a mark. Glaring meaning, in
context, obvious or clear was a common and successful choice, although some candidates wrongly thought
it meant staring. This illustrates the need to study the word in the context of the passage and not to define it
in isolation. Moulded was a popular choice and candidates recognised that it meant made, shaped or
formed. Some suggested that it referred to change or transformation but such synonyms were regarded as
being too extreme. Shred was also a popular choice and candidates who provided such diverse synonyms
as bit, fraction, a tad, an iota, a small part or section were awarded a mark but those offering little, part, piece
(alone) were not, since such definitions were regarded as inadequate. Common correct answers for
undeniably included definitely, without question, obviously, truly and certainly. Highlight in context referred
to the best part, the star event, the peak, but not the main event or the best (on its own). Havoc
represented chaos, confusion and mayhem and many candidates understood this and were awarded a mark
despite some bizarre spellings of chaos. The final word tentatively was understood correctly by a number to
mean carefully or hesitantly, but not slyly or timidly.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/22
May/June 2011
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 Time For Tea

1
After water, tea is the most widely consumed beverage in the world and, by the time you
have read this passage, hundreds of thousands of cups of tea will have been drunk globally.
But how many of us ever stop to consider the origins of tea or the reasons for its continuing
popularity down through the ages?
There is plenty of evidence to show that tea was popular thousands of years ago in China
5
because it was drunk for its medicinal properties. There were many myths surrounding the
origins of tea and, as these myths spread, the popularity of tea increased. For example, one
influential myth concerns Emperor Shennong: taking a sip from a bowl of boiling water into
which some leaves from a nearby bush had been blown, he was pleasantly surprised by its
flavour. This delicious drink began to be drunk as a stimulant because of its restorative powers; 10
theres no better pick-me-up than a good cup of tea. Use of tea for this purpose was supported
by another myth about a prince who developed the habit of chewing leaves from the tea shrub
in order to keep himself awake for prayer. Tea drinking spread when tea leaves were formed
into the shape of bricks because they were easy to trade and transport; they were even used as
a form of currency instead of metal coins. A book entitled The Tea Classic, written by scholar 15
Lu Yu, was the single greatest influence in developing the popularity of tea in China. The Tea
Classic is fascinating to read, describing the weather conditions in which tea should be picked
and even the best water to be used to make the drink.
By the 6th century, tea had spread to Japan, where at first it was the drink of the aristocracy,
before becoming widely accessible to ordinary people when production grew. Tea in Japan 20
took on religious significance with the Tea Ceremony, in which the making of tea expresses
the quest for greatness in the smallest details of life. Thus, the link in Japan between tea
and religious observance increased the importance and popularity of tea. Through time, tea
drinking extended to other Asian countries, for example Vietnam, Korea and Taiwan.
It was not until the 17th century that tea reached the West, when Dutch traders imported it 25
from China. In addition, British merchants had been exporting goods to the East, but their
ships returned empty; thus began a vigorous campaign in Britain to popularise tea among the
ordinary people there to develop it as a profitable return cargo. In order to evade taxes, it was
frequently smuggled into Britain; smuggled tea was cheaper than its legitimately imported
equivalent, and its popularity increased.
30
There are many reasons for the continuing popularity of tea. The ability of tea plants to
replenish their leaves every week during the growing season means that there is always plenty
available, which helps keep down the cost to the consumer. In addition, tea is highly receptive
to absorbing the aromas of other plants. This may cause problems with transportation and
storage, with the true flavour of the tea being adversely affected by other goods, but the 35
advantage of the ability of tea leaves to absorb other aromas allows for an almost endless
range of scented and flavoured teas, such as vanilla and caramel. Moreover, the development
of mixing different types of tea, called blending, makes it possible to obtain better tasting tea
at lower prices. Then came the invention of tea bags, which led to the quick cuppa. Although
connoisseurs of tea complain that tea bags contain merely the waste products of high quality 40
tea, and that their small size does not allow the leaves to diffuse properly, it cannot be denied
that tea bags have made tea accessible and cheap.
As well as being a stimulant because of its caffeine content, a cup of tea is considered by millions
to be wonderfully relaxing. Perhaps the best explanation of this paradox is that the very act of
making tea has a soothing effect on us. Modern medical studies support the claim that tea has 45
a beneficial effect on health, reducing our chances of heart disease, and providing immunity
against certain intestinal disorders. Furthermore, because it contains fluoride, tea even prevents
dental decay. Such scientific data was beyond the knowledge of Emperor Shennong, but it seems
that he was right to have been impressed by what he stumbled upon all those centuries ago.
UCLES 2011
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/11
Passage 2 Betrayal
(A young boy, Amir, has betrayed the trust of Hassan, who is his friend and one of his fathers
servants.)
1
For a week after I had betrayed him, I barely saw Hassan. I woke up to find tea, toast and a
boiled egg already on the kitchen table. My clothes for the day were ironed and folded, left on
the seat where Hassan usually did his ironing. He used to wait for me to sit at the breakfast
table before he started ironing that way we could talk. How I had enjoyed that! Now only the
folded clothes greeted me. That, and a breakfast I didnt finish any more.
Hassan milled about uncertainly on the periphery of my life. I made sure our paths crossed
as little as possible, planning my day that way because, when he was around, the oxygen
seeped out of the room. My chest tightened and Id stand there gasping in my own little bubble
of atmosphere. But even when he wasnt around, he was. He was there in the ironed clothes
on the chair and in the warm slippers left outside my door at night. Everywhere I turned, I saw 10
signs of his unwavering loyalty.
One day, while my father and I were planting tulips in the garden, I saw a solution to my
problem. My father was digging the soil and planting the bulbs I handed to him. He was telling
me how most people thought it was best to plant tulips in the autumn and how that wasnt
true. Father, I said, have you ever thought about getting new servants? My father dropped 15
the tulip bulb and stared at me angrily. My heart started racing. Why would I ever want to do
that? he asked. I was already sorry Id said it. You wouldnt, I guess. It was just a question, I
said, my voice fading away to a murmur. Im sorry, Father.
I was relieved when school started the next week. Most of the boys walked to school and my
fathers limousine drew more than one envious look. I should have been beaming with pride 20
when he dropped me off, but all I could muster was embarrassment. That and emptiness.
However, school gave me an excuse to stay in my room for long hours. I preoccupied myself
with school work instead of thinking about Hassan and how I had betrayed him.
The summer of that year I turned thirteen and my father threw a party for me. For days, the
house teemed with my fathers hired help. I guess, in the ways that parties are judged, mine 25
was a great success. In the yard, guests mingled under the glow of blue, green and red
lights winking in the trees, their faces illuminated by the light of kerosene torches propped
everywhere. The house was inundated with people; guests stood or sat where they found
space. I had to greet each of the guests personally. I hugged dozens of total strangers, my
face aching from the strain of my fixed smile. Fireworks lit up the sky; all the guests stood in 30
the yard, looking up, cheering every time flares sizzled and exploded into bouquets of fire. In
one of these brief bursts of light I saw Hassan serving drinks to some of the guests. Then,
mercifully, darkness.
Sitting in my room the next morning, I ripped open box after box of presents, giving them a
perfunctory glance and pitching them into a corner of the room. The pile was growing there: 35
a radio, a camera, a watch and several sealed envelopes containing cash. My mind was
elsewhere. It had become clear to me: one of us had to go.
The next morning, I waited in my room until I saw Hassan leaving to go grocery shopping. Then
I took a couple of the envelopes of cash and tiptoed out. I paused before my fathers study
and listened; I heard him speaking in an animated way on the telephone about a shipment 40
of rugs due to arrive the following week. I went downstairs and entered Hassans living
quarters. I lifted his mattress and planted the envelopes of money under it. I waited another
thirty minutes. Then I knocked on the door of my fathers study and told him a shameful lie,
wondering how and when Id become capable of causing this kind of anguish.
UCLES 2011
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/11

* 1 7 3 9 7 3 6 3 1 2 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2011

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

For Examiners Use
2
1

Identify and write down the reasons for the initial popularity of tea and the spread of
tea drinking, and the reasons for the continuing popularity of tea.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Reasons for the initial popularity of tea and the spread of tea drinking
It was used as a medicine
Reasons for the continuing popularity of tea

Tea plants ability to replenish themselves makes it plentiful / keeps the cost down
UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
3
Now use your notes to write a summary of the reasons for the initial popularity of tea
and the spread of tea drinking, and the reasons for the continuing popularity of tea.
For
Examiners
Use
Thousands of years ago in China, tea became popular because.....................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 2, select and write down two opinions.

One opinion is ..........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Another opinion is ....................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
From your reading of paragraph 5 and paragraph 6, decide whether each of the following
statements is true or false, and tick the box you have chosen.
T
Tea plants grow all year round.

The best quality tea is used to produce tea bags.
Caffeine has a soothing effect on us.
[3]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
4
(a) Before Amirs betrayal of Hassan, what two things did Hassan do for him every
morning?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
(b) Explain fully how, after Amirs betrayal, Hassans behaviour changed.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 2
5
(a) When Hassan was around, the oxygen seeped out of the room. Explain what is
happening here, and why.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Pick out and write down the single word which shows that Hassan and Amir were no
longer as closely involved with each other as they had been before.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) According to Amir, what did the ironed clothes and the warm slippers indicate? Answer
in your own words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
6
(a) What solution to his problem did Amir see?

..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Amirs father was sure about the right time to plant tulips. What does this suggest about
his personality?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Apart from what he says, in what two ways does Amir show he regrets asking his father
the question?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
From paragraph 4
7
Explain in your own words how Amir felt when his father dropped him off at school.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 5
8
(a) The house teemed with the fathers hired help. Pick out and write down the single word
which continues the idea of teemed.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What does the word fixed tell you about Amirs feelings at this point?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
7
(c) Why is it appropriate to describe the fireworks as bouquets of fire?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(d) Why do you think Amir thought of the darkness as merciful?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 7
9
Amir told a shameful lie. What do you think this lie was?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(a) barely (line 1)
(e) bursts (line 32)
(b) beaming (line 20)
(f)
(c) preoccupied (line 22)
(g) animated (line 40)
(d) mingled (line 26)
(h) anguish (line 44)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
perfunctory (line 35)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]

UCLES 2011
1123/22/M/J/11
For
Examiners
Use
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 FOR CONTENT POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 5 MARKS

FOR STYLE (See page 4 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by tick the point
rewarded. Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form. Points 1 and 12
are already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Used as a medicine
myths about origins of tea (increased its popularity)
Drunk as a stimulant / restorative
Tea bricks made it easier to trade / transport
Lu Yus book / The Tea Classic (a book / a book by a scholar = 0)
Tea spread to Japan / became accessible to people in Japan / was drunk by aristocracy
in Japan
Religious significance of tea in Japan (increased popularity)
Spread to other Eastern / Asian countries / Vietnam / Korea / Taiwan
Dutch brought tea to the West // Dutch imported tea
In Britain, trade was encouraged (so that ships didnt return empty) // campaign in Britain
Smuggled tea was cheaper (and therefore became popular)
Tea plants ability to replenish themselves makes it plentiful / easily available / cheaper
Variety of tea / tea such as vanilla and caramel achieved through absorption of flavours /
aromas
Blending produced better taste / lower prices
Tea bags reduce time
Tea bags reduce cost / are cheaper
Tea is a stimulant (but only award if P3 is not scored)
Tea / making tea calms / soothes / relaxes (people) (link to caffeine spoils)
Beneficial effect on health // prevents heart disease / intestinal disorder
Prevents dental decay (because it contains fluoride)
(i) If script is entirely verbatim lift give 0 for content.

(ii) If point is made in the wrong box, do not award mark.
(iii) If more than one content point appears under a single bullet point, award each content
(iv) If content point being made depends on information contained in another bullet point,
withhold mark unless clear contextual link is made between two adjacent points.
[15]
Page 3

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
[5]
absence or frequency of serious and minor errors, and the ability to use original complex
sentence structures. Underline all serious errors.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
severely mangled.
Breakdown of sense.
NB For short answers, mark in the usual way, but note that mark is unlikely to be more than
OW3 and UE3
Page 4

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
Mark
5
USE OF ENGLISH



mangled relevance.

transcript,
expression.

the text.

to the reader.
isolated.
helpful.
attempted.
sustained for long.
correct.
impeding the reading.
If script is entirely irrelevant give 0 for OW and mark for UE in normal way, then halve.
Page 5

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

(two opinions)
(i) tea is delicious / theres no better pick-me-up than a good cup of tea. Excess denies.
Lift of line 9 (This delicious drink) = 0. Some re-shaping is required
[1]
Lift of lines 910 (this delicious drink powers) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
(ii) The Tea Classic / Lu Yus book is fascinating (to read)
[1]
Accept run on, in whole or in part, of describing used to make it

The Tea Classic was the single greatest influence = 0
If more than one answer is offered in either limb, mark the first only.
(true or false)
Statement 1 is False
Two boxes ticked, = 0 for that statement.
[1]
[1]
[1]
Page 6

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 2
(a) 'two things Hassan did
(i) he made him his breakfast // made him tea, toast and a (boiled) egg
[1]
Lift of line 1 (tea / toast and a (boiled) egg) = 0. But made him tea etc. = 1
Lift of lines 12 (I woke up to find. table) = 0. This is answer to 4(b).
He waited for him to sit at the breakfast table / talked to him = 0 (N)
(ii) he laid out / left him / ironed his clothes (for the day) / did his ironing
[1]
My clothes for the day were ironed and folded = 1

Folded his clothes = 0(N)
talked to him (as he ironed) / talked to him as he ironed his clothes= 0(N)
Accept in any order.
If more than one answer is offered in either limb, mark the first only.
(b) 'Hassans behaviour changed
A. he made Amirs breakfast / ironed Amirs clothes / organised his things (sic) / did his
tasks beforehand / earlier / before Amir appeared / got up // when he was not around [1]
Lift of lines 12 (I woke up to find.table) = 0
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 23 (My clothes.did his ironing) = 0
Block lift of lines 1 3(I woke up.did his ironing) = 0.
Only the folded clothes greeted me = 0
He didnt wait for Amir to sit at the breakfast table before he started ironing = 1
B. he stopped talking to Amir / was no longer there to talk to Amir
He avoided Amir = 0 He was angry with Amir = 0
This point is inferential and cannot be made by lifting
Mark what you see, as long as correct answer isnt spoiled.
[1]
Page 7

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

(a) oxygen out of room
A. Amir cant / can hardly breathe // needs oxygen // feels / is suffocated
[1]
has no oxygen (alone) / he was gasping / had no air = 0

Lift of lines 89 (my chest tightenedbubble of atmosphere) = 0. Some distilling is
required.
B. because he feels guilty / awkward / embarrassed / upset / uncomfortable /
ashamed / uneasy / stressed (when Hassan is around) // he doesnt want Hassan
to be near him / he doesnt want to be near Hassan
[1]
Nervous / scared / edgy = 0

(b) no longer involved
periphery
[1]
(c) clothes and slippers
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are UNWAVERING and
LOYALTY. Do not insist on synonyms for indicate as it is included in the question. Do
not insist on grammatical form.
A. UNWAVERING not stopping / for ever / continual / continuous / eternal / always /
unswerving / unfaltering / everlasting / unvarying / unchanged /
unchanging / unmoved / unmoving / still / went on / not lessening
[1]
unconditional / unaffected = 0
B. LOYALTY
trustworthiness / fidelity / dedication faithfulness / allegiance / not

let (him) down
Service / friendship / liking / trust / obedience / kindness /
sympathy / helpfulness / sincerity / love / care / honesty = 0
Accept answer in negative form, e.g. He would never betray him
=2
Do not insist on agents, but penalise if clearly wrong, e.g. Amir
would never betray Hassan.
Highlight penal words.
[1]
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

(a) Amirs solution
to persuade / ask his father to get new servants / to replace Hassan // sack / get rid of
Hassan // get new servants
[1]
ask his father if he has thought of getting new servants (alone) = 0

(b) fathers personality
he is confident // doesnt care about peoples opinions // values his own opinion (more
than other peoples) // arrogant // goes his own way // isnt afraid to be different / to
stand out from the crowd
[1]
he enjoys / knows about gardening / tulips / flowers = 0 (N)

he was confident about gardening = 0
(c) regrets question
(i) his heart started racing / beating fast / he was having palpitations
[1]
Lift of line 16 (My heart started racing = 0). Some distilling is required.
(ii) his voice faded (away) / he could hardly speak / had difficulty speaking / didnt
want to speak / his voice became low / dropped / quietened / became faint
[1]
couldnt speak / was murmuring / says he is sorry = 0 (N) my voice fading away to
a murmur = 0
if more than one answer is offered in either limb mark first only
dropped off at school
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are EMBARRASSMENT and
EMPTINESS. Do not insist on synonyms for muster. Be generous with grammatical form.
A. EMBARRASSMENT
awkwardness
/
self
consciousness
/
confusion
/
disconcertedness // feeling silly / stupid // humiliation / shame /
uneasiness / uncomfortable / abashed
[1]
worry / fear / shyness / bashful / guilt / sadness = 0

B. EMPTINESS
his life was over / not worth living / he had nothing to live for //
Hassan / something / someone was missing from his life /
hollowness / incompleteness
blankness / loneliness / vacant / numbness = 0
Highlight penal words
[1]
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

(a) teemed
Inundated
[1]
(b) fixed smile
he was unhappy / sad / miserable // he wasnt happy / enjoying himself // he was
pretending to be happy // he didnt feel like smiling // he didnt want to smile
[1]
embarrassed / afraid / bored / awkward / strained = 0

His smile was fake = 0. Question asks for a feeling.
(c) fireworks as bouquets
they were pretty / colourful / vivid / bunched together
[1]
Accept they were shaped like bunches of flowers / bouquets = 1 They looked like /
were like flowers / bouquets / patterned = 0
Answers which do not decode the image = 0, e.g. they were bright / lit up the sky
(d) merciful darkness
he didnt want to see / face Hassan // he didnt want Hassan to see him // it hid Hassan
// seeing Hassan reminded him of what hed done / of his betrayal // reminded him that
their friendship was over / had changed / he and Hassan didnt see one another
[1]

shameful lie
that Hassan had stolen (some envelopes of) cash from him / his money / money that he had
been given
Hassan stole money = 0
If more than one answer is given, mark the first only.
[1]
Page 10


1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
[5]

but neutral, e.g. 'smiling and laughing for 'beaming'.
within this limit.
Page 11
Word

1 mark
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
0 mark
1. barely (line 1)
hardly / rarely / scarcely / once in a

while / occasionally / seldom / very
little / infrequently / not often / very few
times / almost never / once in a while /
once in a blue moon
Sometimes / usually /
slightly / not a lot / almost
not / negligibly / as little as
possible
2. beaming (line 20)
smiling / grinning / smirking
shining / celebrating /
laughing / rejoicing / glowing
3. preoccupied (line 22)
(kept) busy / distracted / concentrated

(on) / filled (ones) time / focused (on)
/ engrossed / diverted / involved /
engaged / absorbed / immersed /
concerned / threw himself into / gave
himself something to do
amused / forgot
4. mingled (line 26)
interwove / went from group to group /

interacted / mixed / circulated /
socialized
merged / amalgamated /
hung around / got together /
met / grouped / gathered /
walked around / moved
around / combined / got to
know / hung out with
5. bursts (line 32)
Flashes / explosion / flares / splashes

/ emissions / eruptions
breaks / ray / shaft / glints /

sparkles / shows
6. perfunctory (line 35)
casual / fleeting / half-hearted /

careless / offhand / disinterested /
cursory / brief / short / quick / passing
/ minimal / not thorough / skimming
occasional / unhappy /
uninterested
7. animated (line 40)
lively / enthusiastic / excited /

vivacious / spirited / dramatic / eager
emotional / enthralled /
unreal / made up / cheerful /
exaggerated / eager / noisy
8. anguish (line 44)
pain / hurt / grief / suffering / agony /

torment / sorrow / misery / woe / very
unhappy / despair
upset / trouble / bother /

cruelty / hatred / problem /
chaos / worry / nastiness
Page 12

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Appendix
There is plenty of evidence to show that tea was popular thousands of years ago in China because it
was drunk for its medicinal properties. There were many myths surrounding the origins of tea
and, as these myths spread, the popularity of tea increased. For example, one influential myth
concerns Emperor Shennong: taking a sip from a bowl of boiling water into which some leaves from a
nearby bush were blown, he was pleasantly surprised by its flavour. This delicious drink began to be
drunk as a stimulant because of its restorative powers. Use of tea for this purpose was supported by
another myth about a prince who developed the habit of chewing leaves from the tea shrub in order to
keep himself awake for prayer. Tea drinking spread when tea leaves were formed into the shape of
bricks because they were easy to trade and transport; they were even used as a form of currency
instead of metal coins. A fascinating book entitled The Tea Classic, written by scholar Lu Yu, was
the single greatest influence in developing the popularity of tea in China. The book describes the
weather conditions in which tea should be picked and even the best water to be used to make it.
By the 6th century AD, tea had spread to Japan, where at first it was the drink of the aristocracy,
before becoming widely accessible to ordinary people when production grew. Tea in Japan took on
religious significance with The Tea Ceremony, in which the making of tea expresses the quest for
greatness in the smallest details of life. Thus, the link in Japan between tea and religious observance
increased the importance and popularity of tea. Through time, tea drinking extended to other Asian
countries, for example Vietnam, Korea and Taiwan.
It was not until the 17th century that tea reached the West, when Dutch traders imported it from
China. In addition, British merchants had been exporting goods to the East, but their ships returned
empty; thus began a vigorous campaign in Britain to popularise tea among the ordinary
people there to develop it as a profitable return cargo. In order to evade taxes, it was frequently
smuggled into Britain; smuggled tea was cheaper than its legitimately imported equivalent, and its
popularity increased.
There are many reasons for the continuing popularity of tea. The ability of tea plants to replenish
their leaves every week during the growing season means that there is always plenty
available, which helps keep down the cost to the consumer. In addition, tea is highly receptive to
absorbing the aromas of other plants. This may cause problems with transportation and storage, with
the true flavour of the tea being adversely affected by other goods, but the advantage of the ability of
tea leaves to absorb other aromas allows for an almost endless range of scented and
flavoured teas, such as vanilla and caramel. Moreover, the development of mixing different types of
tea, called blending, makes it possible to obtain better-tasting tea at lower prices. Then came
the invention of tea bags, which led to the quick cuppa. Although connoisseurs of tea complain
that tea bags contain merely the waste products of high quality tea, and that their small size does not
allow the leaves to diffuse properly, it cannot be denied that tea bags have made tea accessible
and cheap.
As well as being a stimulant because of its caffeine content, a cup of tea is considered by millions
to be wonderfully relaxing. Perhaps the best explanation of this paradox is that the very act of
making tea has a soothing effect on us. Modern medical studies support the claim that tea has a
beneficial effect on health, reducing our chances of heart disease, and providing immunity against
certain intestinal disorders. Furthermore, because it contains fluoride, tea even prevents dental
decay. Such scientific data was beyond the knowledge of Emperor Shennong, but it seems that he
was right to have been impressed by what he stumbled upon all those centuries ago.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Comprehension
Key messages
Candidates should develop greater skills in answering those questions which require them to answer in their
own words, first learning how to identify key words in such questions. They should learn how to give
answers which require some distillation of the text, as well as the decoding of figurative language. They
should focus on looking beyond the literal in inferential comprehension, while at the same time drawing their
General Comments
Candidates for this years paper followed the revised structure of the examination, now with questions based
on two shorter passages, the first being non-fiction and the second being fiction, with answers written in a
common answer booklet.
themselves to be familiar with the types of questions likely to be asked. They adapted well to the new layout
of the answer booklets.
Candidates engaged in an interested way with the passages, with strong candidates taking the opportunity to
show their ability; weaker candidates also managed to engage with the materials, although at a lower level.
The first passage explored the candidates ability to read for ideas and the second tested their reading for
meaning. Twenty marks were available for the summary question, with fifteen of these marks being awarded
for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of Time For Tea and five
questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas, in this case to distinguish fact from opinion and to
distinguish true statements from false ones.
The second passage, Betrayal tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
The revised format of the summary question, both Question 1 (a) and Question 1 (b), largely prevented
candidates from writing to excess, copying verbatim at length or producing both fair and rough copies. There
was very little irrelevance noted or evidence of candidates diverging wildly from the rubric. Indeed,
candidates are to be congratulated on the neatness of presentation and on the legibility of their handwriting.
Originality in Question 1 (b), where candidates were to write up their note form content points in formal,
continuous prose, was not always in evidence. Both spelling and punctuation were good. The overall
standard of written English was impressive. Common errors overall were use of the present tense instead of
the past where required, and prepositions caused some problems. There was also the problem of noun-verb
agreement, as in tea have good effects on health. The most common error was the omission/incorrect
insertion of articles, even by the best candidates. References to the tea were ubiquitous. There was also
sometimes an absence of agreement between the article and noun (especially in Question 6a), where the
phrase a new servants was encountered many times.
Some candidates wrote the content points in Question 1 (a) in pencil, before writing over the pencil in pen.
This often led to writing which was difficult to read and is a practice which is probably best discontinued.
Some candidates lost marks in Question 1 (a) because they put content points in the wrong boxes.

Section 1
Candidates were asked to identify the reasons for the initial popularity of tea and the spread of tea drinking,
and the reasons for the continuing popularity of tea. The summary had to be based on all but the first, brief
and introductory paragraph of the text, and this year, for the first time, candidates were to write their answers
in note form, where they were free to use either the words of the text or their own words. One content point
under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration, although these given points were not
rewarded with a mark.
Excluding these provided content points, which were not rewarded with marks, there were eighteen content
points, of which candidates could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points, carrying one mark
each. Most of the candidates expressed the points either in note form or in short sentences; some, however,
presented long, verbatim copies of the text for each content point, although there is little evidence to suggest
that such a strategy yielded more marks. Candidates were not instructed to use bullet points, although the
sample points given to assist them used bullets; however, it might help candidates to focus more clearly on
identifying content points if they were presented under bullets.
Paragraphs Two, Three and Four referred to the reasons for the initial popularity of tea and reasons for its
increasing popularity and there were ten points (excluding the first, which was given) which the candidates
could make. In paragraph 2, there were four content points, (excluding the provided first point) all linked to
China by the introductory ten words, which provided a Chinese context. There were myths surrounding the
origins of tea, it was a stimulant or restorative, it was formed into the shape of bricks because it was thus
easier to trade or transport. Furthermore, Lu Yus book, or The Tea Classic was influential; mere reference
to a book or to a scholar was insufficient to score here. In paragraph three, another three points were
available: tea then spread to Japan, or was the drink of the aristocracy in Japan, and it took on religious
significance there, and it then spread to other Asian counties. Paragraph four yielded three content points:
tea was brought to the West by the Dutch, the British campaigned to increase its popularity and smuggled
tea was cheaper.
The second section of the rubric asked for the reasons for the continuing popularity of tea, and there were
eight available content points, (excluding the first, which was given.) In Paragraph 5, candidates could make
four points (excluding the provided first point): teas ability to absorb aromas of other plants allows a variety
of flavours, (both the ideas of absorbing other flavours and variety were necessary here), mixing, or
blending tea, made it better or cheaper, and the invention of tea bags made tea both quicker and cheaper to
make. If the point had not already been made from paragraph two that tea is a stimulant, it could be made
from paragraph six, as well as the fact that making tea is soothing or relaxing. Finally, tea has a beneficial
effect on health, and prevents dental decay.
There was a small number of candidates who were awarded maximum points and a large number scoring
half marks and above. Some candidates wasted the space available by reproducing the given content
points. Although points could be made by producing a list of notes or short sentences in bullet point form, as
indicated above, rather than in continuous prose, these points nevertheless need to be fully made with
appropriate agents. On the whole the response to the revised format for the summary was most
encouraging.
In Question 1 (b) candidates were asked to use their notes to write a summary, in their own words, of the
reasons for the initial popularity of tea and the spread of tea drinking, and the reasons for the continuing
popularity of tea. They were asked to write no more than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within
the space available in the answer booklet.
Most candidates completed the exercise and most were able to do so comfortably within the given space.
was always accurate, containing original complex structures. However, the general use of own words was
less noticeable this year and many candidates selected from, edited and restructured the text well, without
being innovative or original in their use of English, and there were some who copied wholesale from the text.
Encouragingly, nearly all candidates attempted the question and adhered to the rubric. Candidates should
be aware that very short answers cannot justify a high mark, since they cannot demonstrate a sustained use
of own words or completely accurate use of English.

Although the number of marks allocated to this task has been halved compared to previous years, the
method of assessment remains unchanged. Furthermore, Examiners were not checking the number of
content points in Question 1 (a) against the number produced in Question 1 (b). But if many fewer points
were made in Question 1 (b) than in Question 1 (a), this would be reflected in the language mark in any
case. Writing only, for example, six content points would be unlikely to be described as sustained use of
own words, whereas, conversely, writing fifteen content points might be sustained use of own words, though
not necessarily. However, only those candidates who were competent and confident enough to grapple with
the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original ways, were able to gain many, or full, marks for style.
Unfortunately, Examiners reported candidates who scored only a few marks for content points, despite being
required to make content points; such candidates made oblique references rather than specific points.
Common errors reported were failures of agreement in singular and plural forms, and misplaced or omitted
prepositions. There was a high incidence of the omission of definite and indefinite articles.
Question 2 and Question 3 were the questions testing the new assessment objective in the revised
syllabus, Assessment Objective 4, Reading for Ideas, where candidates are being tested on their ability to
respond to the ideas of the whole text or a section of it. This section in general was well done. Question 2
asked for two opinions from paragraph 2. Candidates had to focus on the trigger words which heralded the
idea of subjectivity rather than objectivity and these words were delicious and fascinating. Delicious
supplied the answer to the first limb, namely that tea is delicious, or that there is no better pick me up than a
cup of tea. Mere lifting of this delicious drink was not sufficient to score as it lacked an agent. The answer
to the second limb was that Lu Yus book, or The Tea Classic is fascinating to read; this could be scored by
lifting, and there was no penalty for going on to lift describing the weather conditions in which tea should be
picked and even the best water to be used to make it, although any other excess quoting would deny the
mark. Candidates were free to use their own words equivalent, and to present their answers in either order.
All the answers in Question 3 were false. Very few candidates scored full marks here, and where only two
marks were scored it tended to be the first two, leading to the conclusion that some candidates had written
that the third statement was true against their better judgment, because they felt that not all of the three
statements could be false. Statement 1 was false because the text referred to the growing season,
suggesting that tea plants do not grow throughout the year. Statement two was false because the text
referred to the fact that inferior tea is used to produce tea bags. Statement three was false because the text
established a clear link between caffeine and stimulants, with the soothing effects of tea, not of caffeine,
being separately made.
Section 2
Some candidates appeared to struggle with Question 4 (a) and Question 4 (b). Question 4 (a) asked
candidates to write the two things which Hassan did for Amir every morning. Bearing in mind that Hassan
was a servant, they were to see that Hassan made Amirs breakfast and ironed his clothes. Many
candidates here wrote that Hassan waited for him to sit down to breakfast, or that he talked to him. Such
answers were additions to correct answers; they scored the mark, but if they departed from the focus of the
question the mark was denied. Candidates are reminded to read the question carefully to ascertain exactly
what is being asked even in what may appear to be straightforward questions.
Question 4 (b) asked for a full explanation of how Hassans behaviour changed, the word fully being an
indication that there was some depth or possibly two limbs to the answer, which was, firstly, that Hassan did
Amirs chores or ironing before Amir got up, or before he appeared in the morning, and, secondly, that he
stopped talking to him. Answers such as he avoided Amir failed to score under either limb. Candidates
need to work on distinguishing past events from present ones, and to avoid the temptation to think that a
literal rephrasing of the text will always gain the mark.
In Question 5 (a), candidates had to explain the idea contained in the oxygen seeped out of the room,
namely that Amir could hardly breathe, or that he felt suffocated, or uncomfortable. Candidates should learn
to move beyond the more literal interpretation of language to appreciating its more figurative applications.
Then candidates had to explain the reason for Amirs discomfort: his embarrassment, or guilt, at his betrayal
of Hassan, or his wish not to be in the same room as, or near, Hassan.
15

Question 5 (b) proved challenging and only about one in five candidates scored the mark for the correct
word, which was periphery. Common wrong answers were milled, uncertainly and unwavering. In this
type of question, candidates should work on linking the key word in the question, in this case involved, with
all the key vocabulary in the area of the question, trying to make an appropriate match.
Question 5 (c) was the first of the question s where candidates had to answer in their own words, after first
inferring that the warm slippers were signs of Hassans unwavering loyalty. Acceptable synonyms for
unwavering were constant, unceasing, never-ending; the mark could also be awarded for simple words
or phrases like still or continued to be. Acceptable synonyms for loyalty were faithfulness, devotion and
dedication. Candidates should learn to home in on the words being tested, rather than writing, for example,
merely that the slippers showed that Hassan was still around. The word still did not score as a synonym for
unwavering here, as it was in the wrong context.
Question 6 (a) was accessible to the majority of candidates. Amir saw that the solution to his problem was
to get rid of Hassan, or simply to get a new servant. The lift of the text, or even a version of the lift where
appropriate pronouns were used, i.e. he asked his father if he had ever thought of getting new servants
were too vague to score the available mark. Candidates should appreciate that sometimes lifting the text
sometimes only seems to answer the question; in cases where the text is written in first person but the
question is written in third person, it is unlikely that lifting verbatim will provide an accurate answer.
Question 6 (b) asked candidates to make a link between Amirs fathers attitude to planting the tulips and his
personality. Reasonable inferences were that he was confident, or that he did not care what people thought
of him, or that he valued his own opinion over those of others. Many candidates wrote that he was kind, or
calm, or intelligent, claims which could not be supported by the text. Very many others wrote that he loved or
was knowledgeable about gardening. Other candidates inferred the idea of confidence, but linked it to being
confident about when to plant tulips, which was much too narrow a focus. In this type of question,
candidates should make sensible inferences, avoiding general or bland personality adjectives they might
have learned in other contexts.
In Question 6 (c) very many candidates scored both available marks for writing that Amir showed his regret
when his heart started racing and when his voice faded away to a murmur. Candidates who did not score
either or both of these marks usually did so either because, as with Question 6 (a), verbatim lifting will not
answer a question written in third person if the text is written in first person, or because they did not
appreciate the wording of the question which asked for apart from what he said, which excluded his apology
as an answer. Candidates are reminded of the importance of reading and re-reading each question
carefully.
Question 7 was the second of the questions on the Paper which required candidates to answer in their own
words. They were to respond to the question that when Amir was dropped off by his father he felt
embarrassment and emptiness, and then re-cast those words into their own. Acceptable synonyms for
embarrassment were awkwardness and shame, and acceptable synonyms for emptiness were
hollowness, or phrases such as feeling that life was not worth living. In this type of question, candidates
should focus on selecting the correct word to be re-cast, and avoiding the temptation to merely repeat the
key word without attempting to re-cast it. Perhaps because the word empty was in a different sentence,
many candidates failed to pick it out as a word to be re-cast at all. Others offered an acceptable synonym for
embarrassment but failed to score the mark because they linked the feeling to embarrassment about Amirs
treatment of Hassan rather than embarrassment about his fathers luxury car. Candidates should focus on
responding to the entire context of these difficult own words questions, not just on the vocabulary and
meaning of isolated words.
As with Question 5 (b), Question 8 (a) asked candidates to find a single word in the paragraph, this time
from paragraph 5, which meant the same as teemed. Mingled was a popular incorrect answer here. As in
Question 5 (b), candidates should work on linking the key word in the question, in this case teemed, with all
the key vocabulary in the area of the question, trying to make an appropriate match.
Most candidates were successful with Question 8 (b), where they had to make a sensible link between
Amirs fixed smile and his feelings; he was feeling sad or unhappy, or he was pretending to be happy.
Where candidates did not score the mark it tended to be because they wrote a statement about Amirs smile
rather than his appearance. Thus he was pretending to smile was incorrect. A few candidates missed the
focus of fixed, writing, wrongly, that Amir was happy. Candidates should learn to read the question
carefully, focusing on key words, which in this particular question was feelings.

Question 8 (c) was the customary question on writers craft, and invited candidates to decode the image in
comparing fireworks to bouquets. The answer lay in making a link either with colour (fire) or with shape or
beauty (bouquets of flowers). This type of question generally proves to be difficult and candidates should
learn that, in order to decode an image, it is not sufficient merely to repeat the image. Thus answers such as
fireworks were like flowers merely re-states the image and does not explain it.
The answer to Question 8 (d) was that the darkness was merciful because it hid Hassan, or because it
meant that Amir did not have to see Hassan; this question was generally well-answered. Where the mark
was not scored it was usually because candidates had merely referred to the fact that Hassan was serving
drinks, or had made a mistaken link between the event being described and the meaning of mercy offering
responses such as he felt sorry for Hassan or he wanted to apologise to Hassan.
The wording of Question 9 was designed to show candidates that this was an inferential question.
Candidates should read such questions carefully in order to make a judgement based on the text. Here,
Amir has taken his own money and planted it in Hassans room. A context has already been established that
Amir wanted rid of Hassan. Thus the most sensible inference is that Amir lied to his father by telling him that
Hassan had stolen his (i.e. Amirs) money.
eight. Marks ranged from 0 to 5 here. Most candidates who attempted barely scored the mark for
synonyms such as rarely, although a popular wrong answer was sometimes. Marks were gained by
candidates who correctly offered busied or focused on for preoccupied and pain or sorrow for anguish.
Candidates scored a mark for writing lively or enthusiastic for animated, (where a popular incorrect answer
as artificial or cartoon) and for offering quick or casual for perfunctory. There was little success with
beaming, meaning smiling or grinning, (with shining or glowing being popular incorrect answers) bursts
meaning explosions and with mingled, meaning mixed or socialised with. Because understanding only is
being tested in the vocabulary question, grammatical form was not insisted upon. As in previous years,
some candidates gave the question word in a sentence rather than trying to explain its meaning, but there
were very few cases of this. As ever, there were some candidates who offered two or three synonyms for
the best five of eight would be credited; candidates are reminded that only the first five attempts will be
looked at by the Examiner.

1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 Mobile Phones

1
One of the most obvious results of our exciting technological age has been the invention of
the mobile phone. Many people even children as young as seven or eight have one. But
are mobile phones necessarily beneficial to society?
Mobiles can be seen as a way for young people to keep in touch with their parents if they are
out with friends and, as newspapers make increasing reports of violence, particularly in inner
5
city areas, this must be an advantage. If students are on a school outing and have to be met
by parents on their return to school, they can phone at short notice from, say, the bus to give
details of exact timings. Mobiles encourage friendships and some students speak to their
friends several times a day. Parents may be happy that their children are not using the house
telephone and incurring charges which they, as parents, have to meet an issue which, in the 10
past, was often a source of family conflict. Most young people have pay as you go mobiles,
and this encourages budgeting, surely a useful skill to have in later life.
Because a mobile is the personal property of its owner, direct contact can be made, and there
is less risk of disturbing an entire household engaged in some family activity, such as having
dinner. Another obvious advantage is that people can be contacted wherever they are, clearly 15
a benefit if a friend or spouse wishes to communicate that he is stuck in traffic, or that the
train is running late. In situations where it is impossible for either the caller or the recipient
to speak, mobiles can be used to send short text messages, which are both convenient and
relatively cheap. Many mobiles are also able to take photographs; this multi-tasking means
that there is no need to purchase a camera, and thus a saving is made. Sophisticated mobiles 20
even allow their owners to send and receive e-mails, thus providing an alternative means of
communication. Small businesses flourish because of mobile phones. A plumber, for example,
can receive bookings for future work while he is working on another job; there is no need to sit
at home waiting for phone calls or to employ a secretary in an office.
However, there are downsides to mobile phones. People are discouraged from planning 25
ahead. It is a rather pathetic sight to see a wife phoning from the supermarket to ask her
husband what he would like for dinner. People might also stop making simple decisions for
themselves with, say, a teenager phoning his mother to ask if he may take a drink out of the
fridge. Then there is the general disturbance which can be caused: there is nothing worse than
people on public transport conducting loud and animated conversations on their mobiles with 30
scant regard for their fellow passengers. Some countries, for example France, have tackled
this problem by insisting that mobiles are switched off on trains; all countries should follow this
example. Unfortunately, owning a mobile phone prevents some people from concentrating on
the present moment. Picture the scene: a young couple are dining in a fine restaurant but,
instead of being absorbed in each others company, each of them is speaking to someone 35
else via a mobile phone.
In schools, there can be regrettable competition among students to have the most up-todate mobile. Some students are distracted into texting friends in class, which clearly hinders
their education. In cases where mobiles are confiscated because of such misuse, there are
security issues for teachers who is responsible for this expensive equipment once it has 40
been confiscated? And, of course, teachers complain vociferously about text message spelling
and grammar which, they say, encourage sloppy use of language: CU is enough to raise the
blood pressure of an English teacher to dangerous levels. Furthermore, they complain that
mobile phones, along with e-mails, have destroyed the art of letter writing. Parents complain
that their children contact their friends with whom they have been all day in school several 45
times during the evening via text or call instead of doing their homework. What do they have
to talk about? is the perceived mystery.
Is the mobile phone a blessing or a curse? Perhaps there is no clear cut answer to this and,
as with many issues, moderation is essential.
UCLES 2011
1123/21/INSERT/O/N/11
Passage 2 An Otter in the Air

(The writer describes his experience of taking an animal with him on a plane in the days when this
was permitted.)
1
The plane was waiting to take off; as I rushed through the airport, carrying the box which was
Mijs temporary home, my mind boggled at the thought of the next few hours. I was trying to
hold down the lid of the box with one hand and, with the other, to force back the screw into the
splintered wood.
The other passengers stared at me inquisitively as I struggled onto the plane with my
5
horrifyingly vocal box. I was anxious to see who would be my immediate neighbour and was
dismayed to find an elegantly dressed middle-aged woman. Such a person, I thought, would
have little tolerance and certainly no sympathy for the scruffy otter cub that would so soon
be her travelling companion. For the moment the lid held, and there was a brief silence from
within the box.
10
Worried about how I would keep Mij under control throughout the flight, I had brought a bottle
of water and a parcel of fish, and with these scant resources I prepared to withstand a siege.
Aware of the fact that I could not keep Mijs presence a secret for long, and of the need to keep
the fish in a cool place, I spoke to the stewardess; I daresay I was not too coherent but she took
it all in her graceful stride and received the mundane parcel of fish as though I were travelling 15
royalty depositing a jewel case into her safe keeping. When the stewardess suggested I remove
my pet from its box and have it on my knee, my neighbour, surprisingly, had no objection.
For the first hour or so Mij slept in my lap. However, otters are extremely bad at doing nothing.
There is, I am convinced, something positively provoking to an otter about order in any form
and, the greater the state of confusion they can create, the more contented they feel. A room 20
is not properly habitable until they have turned everything in it upside down. One of these
moods descended on Mij. It began comparatively innocuously when he jumped down from
my lap inertia was not for him. Then he turned his attention to the box, which was on the
floor, filled with wood shavings for him to sleep on. He put his head into the box and began
to throw the wood shavings out backwards at enormous speed; then he got in bodily and lay 25
on his back, using all four feet in a pedalling motion to hoist out the remainder. With his teeth,
he yanked back the zip on my neighbours bag and was in head first, throwing out all the
personal paraphernalia of air travel. But there was worse to come.
With a rebellious and eel-like wriggle, Mij disappeared at high speed. I could follow his progress
by the wave of disturbance down the passageway. There were squawks and shrieks; then a 30
woman halfway down the plane stood up on her seat screaming, A rat! A rat! The stewardess
reached her and, within a matter of seconds, the woman was seated again, smiling benignly.
That goddess, I believe, could have controlled a panic-stricken crowd single-handedly.
By now I was in the passageway myself and, catching sight of Mijs tail disappearing beneath the
legs of a portly gentleman, I tried a flying tackle, landing flat on my face. I missed Mijs tail, but 35
found myself grasping the foot of the gentlemans female companion. The gentleman gave me
a long silent stare. I staggered up, babbling my apology; the man was so utterly expressionless
that even in my hypersensitive mood I could deduce no meaning from him whatsoever.
The stewardess came to my assistance once again. Perhaps, she said with her charming
smile, you should return to your seat and I will bring the animal to you. I heard the ripple 40
of flight and pursuit passing up and down the body of the plane, but I could see little. I was
craning my neck trying to follow the hunt when suddenly I heard from my feet a distressed
chitter of recognition and welcome. In all the strange world of the aircraft I was the only familiar
thing to be found, and in that spontaneous return was sown the seed of the absolute trust that
Mij accorded me for the rest of his life.
45
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* 0 4 0 6 3 5 0 6 6 5 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1 hour 45 minutes

Insert

For Examiners Use
2
1

Identify and write down the advantages and disadvantages of mobile phones, as
described in the passage.
At this stage, you need NOT use your own words. To help you get started, the first point in
each section of notes is done for you. You will be awarded up to 15 marks for content points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages
Young people can keep in touch with their parents
Disadvantages
People dont plan ahead
UCLES 2011
1123/21/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
3
Now use your notes to write a summary of the advantages and disadvantages of
mobile phones, as described in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
It is clear that mobile phones are useful devices because ...............................................
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No. of words
UCLES 2011
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[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use

One opinion is ..........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Another opinion is ....................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
From the whole passage, which of the following statements is correct? Tick the box you have
chosen.
The writer is totally against mobile phones.
The writer thinks mobile phones can be useful.
The writer is in favour of mobile phones.
[1]
From your own knowledge or experience, suggest two advantages of mobile phones OR two
disadvantages, OR one advantage and one disadvantage. Do not refer to specific examples
from the passage in your answer.
One advantage/disadvantage is ...............................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
One advantage/disadvantage is ...............................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/O/N/11
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) Why did the writer rush through the airport?

..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Why do you think the writer was trying to hold down the lid of the box?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) Give two reasons why, according to the writer, Mij would not be considered an attractive
travelling companion.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
(b) What, according to the writer, would be the womans attitude to Mij? Answer in your
own words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 3
7
(a) The writer spoke to the stewardess. Explain what he told her and what he asked her to
do.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Without using the words of the passage, explain fully what was unusual about the
way the stewardess reacted to the writers request.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/O/N/11
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 4
8
(a) Otters are extremely bad at doing nothing. Pick out and write down the single word
used later in the paragraph which continues the idea of doing nothing.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) One of these moods descended on Mij. What kind of mood was this?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Why did Mij climb into the box?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 5
9
(a) There was a wave of disturbance down the passageway. Explain fully what was
happening here.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Why does the writer describe the stewardess as a goddess?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 6
10 Give two reasons why the writer could deduce no meaning from the gentleman who stared
at him.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
From paragraph 7
11 (a) How was the writer eventually re-united with Mij?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) How did his re-union with Mij affect the writers relationship with him in the future?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(a) inquisitively (line 5)
(e) order (line 19)
(b) scant (line 12)
(f)
(c) coherent (line 14)
(g) paraphernalia (line 28)
(d) provoking (line 19)
(h) craning (line 42)
Word chosen
hoist (line 26)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2011
1123/21/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

STYLE (See pages 34 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Notes
[15]
Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by numbered tick the
point rewarded. Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form. Points 1 and 12
are already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Young people can keep in touch with their parents

Young people (They) can give a precise time to be picked up
Friendships are encouraged
House phone not being used saves money/ means there are no surprise bills for parents
Encourages young people to budget
Direct contact means other people / family / others arent disturbed
Contact can be made wherever you are
Text messages are convenient / cheap / can be sent
Photographs can be taken // there is no need to buy a camera
E-mails can be sent / are convenient / cheap
Help to small businesses // small businesses dont need an office / secretary
People dont plan ahead
People cant make decisions for themselves / cant make simple decisions
Antisocial / Cause general disturbance on public transport
Prevent people living in / concentrating on the present moment
Competition among students to have the most modern phone
Students texting in class hinders education / students are distracted into texting in class
Security issues for teachers when phones are confiscated
Text / email language spelling / grammar is sloppy
(Art of) letter writing has been destroyed (by texting / mobiles)
Children text / call friends instead of doing homework.

(ii) If point is made in the wrong box, do not award the mark.
(iii) If more than one content point appears under a single bullet point award each content
point if correctly made.
withhold the mark unless clear contextual link is made between two adjacent points, for
example, because / so / etc.
Page 3

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
[5]
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
severely mangled.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Page 4

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
OWN WORDS
Mark

language.
USE OF ENGLISH


re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

transcript,
word expression.
below.

of the text.
Apart from very occasional slips,

the language is accurate.
Any occasional errors are either
slips or minor errors. There is a
marked ability to use original
complex syntax outside text
structures.
helpful to the reader.
isolated.
including original complex
syntax.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
Where sentences show some
variety and complexity, they will
generally be lifted from the text.
Serious errors may occur when
more sophisticated structures are
attempted.
frequent.
correct.
Heavy frequency of serious
errors, impeding the reading.
Page 5

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
[2]
(two opinions)
Reward any two of three below:
It is a rather pathetic sight to see a wife phoning from a supermarket to ask her husband what he
would like or dinner (lines 2627).
Accept this lift or own words attempt, but in case of lifting excess denies.
There is nothing worse than people on public transport conducting loud and animated conversations
on their mobiles (with scant regard for their fellow passengers) (lines 2931).
Accept this lift or own words attempt, but in case of lifting excess denies.
All countries should ban the use of mobiles on public transport.
Lift of lines 3133 (Some countries example) = 0 Candidates must distil the answer.
Lifting will not work here.
[1]
(one correct statement)

The writer thinks mobile phones can be useful.
Any more than one box ticked = 0
[2]
(two advantages OR two disadvantages OR one of each)

Do not accept examples from the passage, but be generous with candidates interpretation. What one
candidate perceives as an advantage might reasonably be perceived as a disadvantage by another.
Look for ideas such as:
Advantages: you can google information for your homework / you can phone the emergency
services.
Disadvantages: you can waste money you could spend on better things /photographs can be
taken against your wishes, e.g. in school.
NB: insist on advantage / disadvantage of mobile phones and not the telephone in general e.g.
Mobiles give fast communication = 0.
Page 6

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Passage 2
(a) rush through the airport
the plane was about to take off / leave /depart // he was late for the plane
[1]
Lift of line 1 (the plane was waiting to take off) = 1. Excess denies.
He was late (alone) = 0
He had missed the plane = 0 (W)
Any reference to carrying the box = 0 (N)
(b) 'hold lid
so that Mij / the otter / his pet would not escape / get out // Mij / the otter/ was trying to
escape // the contents (of the box) would not fall out
[1]
the lid was loose / the screw had come out (alone) / so that the otter would not fall out / so
that it would not open = 0
(a) travelling companion
(i) he was noisy / vocal / squealing
[1]
Lift of line 6 (horrifying vocal) = 1. Excess denies, including horrifyingly vocal box.
Speaking / singing = 0
(ii) he was scruffy / unkempt / untidy (looking)
[1]
Lift of line 8 (scruffy otter cub) = 1. Excess denies.

Ugly / horrible / frightening / dirty = 0
(b) womans attitude
[2]
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are TOLERANCE and SYMPATHY.
Do not insist on synonyms for little and no but a sensible context is required.
TOLERANCE acceptance / putting up with / endurance / leniency / patience / indulgence /
impatience / forbearance / time (for) / accommodation
[1]
SYMPATHY
understanding / compassion / pity / being on his side / care / feeling
[1]
All the following = 0 (N) in either limb: liking / disliking / hatred / empathy / anger / irritation /
hostility / cruelty / approval / disapproval
Page 7

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

(a) spoke to stewardess
A. (he told her that) he had an otter / animal / pet with him / he told her about Mij / he had
Mij with him
[1]
He had fish with him / fish for his pet = 0 (N)
B. (he asked her to) to put the fish / food in a cool / cold place / fridge
[1]
Lift of lines 13-14 (the need to keep the fish in a cool place) = 0. Answer must be
distilled.
Any reference to water = 0 (N)
(b) unusual reaction
This is not a conventional own words question, but look for general recasting of graceful
stride and royalty depositing a jewel case into her safe keeping.
A. she reacted calmly // was calm / collected / compose / unruffled / didnt make a fuss
[1]
willing to do it / did not refuse to do it = 0 (N)

Lift of line 15 (she took it all in her graceful stride) = 0
Graceful / elegant / friendly / understanding / helpful / enthusiastic = 0 (N)
B.
she took / treated the fish / parcel as if it were valuable / precious / special / worth a lot
[1]
She treated him as if he were a VIP / prince / king / nobleman
[1]
OR
References to stride / royalty / jewel case = 0 (N) [penal words]

(a) doing nothing
Inertia
[1]
(b) one of those moods
to make a mess / make things untidy / turn thing upside down / throw things around
active / destructive = 0 (N) Any reference to confusion = 0 (N)
[1]
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(c) climb into the box

to throw / get out the wood shavings (in the box) / to empty the contents
[1]
Lift of lines 25 (to throw at enormous speed). Excess denies.

To make a mess (alone) = 0
(a) wave of disturbance
Look for idea of disturbance as either movement or causing fear, and idea of wave as the
serial effect this disturbance was having.
A. Mij / the otter was moving / wriggling /escaping down / through the plane / passageway //
frightening / scaring passengers // passengers were being frightened by / afraid of Mij [1]
Reference to squawking and shrieking = 0
B. one by one / in turn / as he went / in sequence / group by group / seat by seat
[1]
(b) goddess
she was good-natured / kind / perfect // comforted / calmed the woman / passengers / people
// saved him from disaster // could perform miracles / she helped people
[1]
she was beautiful / nice / generous // he worshipped her = 0 (N)
She helped him find Mij = 0 (W)
Any reference to controlling a panic-stricken crowd = 0 (N)
deduce no meaning
Look for ideas of speechless and expressionless
(i) he didnt speak
[1]
Lift of lines 3637 (The gentleman.silent stare) = 0. Answer must be distilled.

Lift of long silent stare (alone) = 0.
But some re-shaping e.g. He gave him a long silent stare = 1
(ii) he had a blank expression / was expressionless / showed no reaction in his face
He stared at him = 0 (N)
Lift of line 37 (The man was so utterly expressionless) = 1. Excess denies.
[1]
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

(a) eventually reunited
Mij came back (of his own accord)
[1]
He heard Mij / Mij came back to his feet = 0 (N)

He heard a chitter of recognition at his feet = 0 (N)
Any suggestion that the stewardess brought him back = 0 (W)
Lift of lines 4344 (I was the only familiar thing to be found) = 0 (N)
(b) relationship in the future
Mij trusted him always / for the rest of his life // trusted him absolutely / completely / implicitly [1]
Lift of line 44 (absolute trust) = 1. Excess denies.
He trusted Mij / they trusted each other = 0 (N)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
[5]

but neutral, e.g. 'in wonder and curiously for 'inquisitively'.
within this limit.
Page 10

1 mark
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
0 mark
1. inquisitively
(line 5)
curiously / interestedly / wonderingly /

questioningly / nosily / searchingly/
wanting to know
in wonder
2. scant
(line 12)
few / almost none / meagre / little /

slight / limited / sparse / measly /
scarce / minimum
none / less/ reduced/ small /

inadequate/ not enough
3. coherent
(line 14)
clear / making sense / intelligible /

comprehensible / lucid / articulate
intelligent / smart / logical / rational
4. provoking
(line 19)
annoying / irritating / frustrating /

disturbing / maddening / agitating
bothering / taunting / teasing
5. order
(line 19)
tidiness / neatness / organization /

system / perfection
rules / laws / command / sequence /

classification / calm / control / silence /
peace / class / booking / request
6. hoist
(line 26)
lift / lever / heave / move up / pull up /

raise / elevate
throw / pull / move / pick up / remove /

manoeuvre / winch
7. paraphernalia
(line 28)
belongings / property / accessories /

requirements / odds and ends / gear
rubbish / junk / equipment / things
8. craning
(line 42)
stretching / twisting /lifting / elongating

/ straining
pulling / turning / bending
Page 11

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Appendix
Mobiles can be seen as a way for young people to keep in touch with their parents if they are out
with friends and, as newspapers make increasing reports of violence, particularly in inner city areas,
this must be an advantage. If students are on a school outing and have to be met by parents on their
return to school, they can phone at short notice from, say, the bus to give details of exact
timings. Mobiles encourage friendships and some students speak to their friends several times a
day. Parents may be happy that their children are not using the house telephone and incurring
charges which they, as parents, have to meet an issue which, in the past, was often a source of
family conflict. Most young people have pay as you go mobiles, and this encourages budgeting,
surely a useful skill to have in later life.
Because a mobile is the personal property of its owner, direct contact can be made, and there is
less risk of disturbing an entire household engaged in some family activity, such as having dinner.
Another obvious advantage is that people can be contacted wherever they are, clearly a benefit if a
friend or spouse wishes to communicate that he is stuck in traffic, or that the train is running late. In
situations where it is impossible for either the caller or the recipient to speak, mobiles can be used to
send short text messages, which are both convenient and relatively cheap. Many mobiles are also
able to take photographs; this multi-tasking means that there is no need to purchase a camera, and
thus a saving is made. Sophisticated mobiles even allow their owners to send and receive e-mails,
thus providing an alternative means of communication. Small businesses flourish because of
mobile phones. A plumber, for example, can receive bookings for future work while he is working on
another job; there is no need to sit at home waiting for phone calls or employing a secretary in an
office.
However, there are downsides to mobile phones. People are discouraged from planning ahead. It
is a rather pathetic sight to see a wife phoning from the supermarket to ask her husband what he
would like for dinner. People might also stop making simple decisions for themselves with, say,
a teenager phoning his mother to ask if he may take a drink out of the fridge. Then there is the
general disturbance which can be caused: there is nothing worse than people on public transport
conducting loud and animated conversations on their mobiles with scant regard for their
fellow passengers. Some countries, for example France, have tackled this problem by insisting that
mobiles are switched off on trains; all countries should follow this example. Unfortunately, owning a
mobile phone prevents some people from concentrating on the present moment. Picture the
scene: a young couple are dining in a fine restaurant but, instead of being absorbed in each others
company, each of them is speaking to someone else via a mobile phone.
In schools, there can be regrettable competition among students to have the most up-to-date
mobile. Some students are distracted into texting friends in class, which clearly hinders their
education. In cases where mobiles are confiscated because of such misuse, there are security
issues for teachers who is responsible for this expensive equipment once it has been confiscated?
And, of course, teachers complain vociferously about text message spelling and grammar which, they
say, encourage sloppy use of language: CU is enough to raise the blood pressure of an English
teacher to dangerous levels. Furthermore, they complain that mobile phones, along with e-mails, have
destroyed the art of letter writing. Parents complain that their children contact their friends with
whom they have been all day in school several times during the evening via text or call
instead of doing their homework. What do they have to talk about? is the perceived mystery.

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
2
Passage 1 Orangutans
1
Many people know that orangutans are the biggest tree-dwelling animals in the world, and
uncannily like our own human species hence their name, which means forest people. But
what is perhaps less well known is the alarming fact that the global population of orangutans
has halved in the past two decades. How has this come about?
5
There are laws governing the cutting down of trees, but sometimes trees are axed by people
who are part of an illegal market in wood, and this illegal logging destroys the natural habitat of
orangutans. Additional damage is caused to their habitat by people who burn down extensive
areas of forest in a bid to create more land for agriculture. The displaced orangutans are left
hungry by the destruction of their food source and, ironically, they are often branded as pests
by farmers whose crops then become their only food option. Mindful of potential loss of profits, 10
farmers carry out vicious extermination programmes of orangutans. The knock-on effect of
this is that frequently money is offered for killing orangutans; it is possible to understand such
misguided behaviour, as the reward will certainly be more than a weeks salary. Sometimes
the mothers are killed for food, and their killing is rarely humane: they can be beaten to death
15
or doused in petrol and set on fire. On other occasions the babies are captured as pets.
But the biggest threat to orangutans today comes from the clearing of their habitat for palm
oil plantations, which unfortunately flourish best in the lowland forest areas favoured by
orangutans. It is estimated that, in some parts of the world, a staggering one in ten products
on sale in supermarkets contains palm oil, items ranging from soap and lipstick to margarine
and detergent. Because food made with palm oil is low in the fatty acids associated with heart 20
disease, more and more areas inhabited by orangutans are cleared. Healthy food may be
provided, but orangutans suffer. Furthermore, in a laudable desire to combat carbon emissions,
palm oil is produced on a grand scale to satisfy the demand for biofuels manufactured from it,
again at the expense of orangutans.
The world has become aware of the plight of orangutans, albeit dangerously late. Many 25
governments are becoming pro-active in their attempt to halt the extinction of these beautiful
creatures by raising public awareness. Individual palm oil companies are being asked to
consider more than mere profit, and to ensure that their products come from sources which are
not detrimental to orangutans. Some national parks which are already homes to orangutans
are being increased in size to extend them even greater hospitality, and better training and 30
equipment are being offered to park rangers there to help in the conservation programme.
Organisations dedicated to looking after orangutans e.g. the World Wildlife Fund and the
Orangutan Foundation International are increasing in number, and many such organisations
are involved in planting new trees in the already ravaged rainforests formerly favoured by
orangutans.
35
Ordinary people are invited to participate in conservation schemes by working voluntarily

in an orangutan habitat even as short a period as three weeks can make a difference. In
some areas, orangutan rescue centres have been established in desperate and often lastditch attempts to save lives. Unsurprisingly, the cost of caring for even one infant orangutan
is very high; the fact that a single care centre rescues dozens of babies a year means that 40
the bill is often staggering. To make some inroads into these costs, funding organisations
encourage people to adopt an orangutan, in return for which they might receive such items
as a photograph of the adoptee or a certificate of adoption. School students are invited to be
responsible for a particular day in a parks calendar: they instigate a fund-raising programme
to protect the park for that day by paying for police officers to guard against hunters or to 45
patrol rivers in boats.
Such news is encouraging, but we must ensure that it is not a case of too little, too late.
Perhaps the extent of humanitys concern for the plight of the orangutan is a measure of the
extent of humanitys concern for the beautiful planet we inhabit.
UCLES 2011
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/11
3
Passage 2 The Chinese Money-Lender
1
Peter stood on the balcony of his sons apartment and sighed contentedly. Peter and his wife
had been concerned when their son, Christopher, had announced his intention to emigrate but,
Peter reflected, it had been the right decision after all, despite his parents original misgivings.
This country offered unsurpassed employment opportunities. Christophers apartment was
situated in a lively and increasingly popular location where accommodation was relatively
inexpensive, there was an excellent public transport service and new restaurants and cafes
were springing up all around.
Soon Peter and his wife, Marian, were on the bus for yet another trip to the market
recommended by the guide books as a priority for tourists. Stalls selling fabrics in a plethora
of sizes and colours were interspersed with food stalls, their tantalising aromas wafting in 10
all directions. Peter bought an impressive warrior carved out of dark wood from a stallholder
who assured him that the purchase was an opportunity not to be missed. At another stall, he
purchased a tiny green tortoise which, the stallholder claimed, was made of genuine jade.
Marian hid her impatience; she did not share her husbands love of shopping and, besides,
15
she was less inclined to be swept away by smooth sales talk.
As they strolled on, Peters attention was suddenly drawn by an antiques shop, crowded in
amongst hardware stalls and food outlets. A glint of metal caught his eye and he quickly entered
the shop, discovering that the source of his curiosity was a somewhat mysterious-looking
ornament, the figure of a man, no more than three inches high, seated at a solid-looking desk.
Peter peered intently at it. Its a Chinese money-lender, said the young shop assistant who, it 20
seemed, had eagerly appeared out of nowhere. Closer inspection showed the money-lenders
desk to be stamped on the front and the base with indecipherable inscriptions. There was an
over-laden moneybag at one end, its contents spilling over the desk, and an abacus balanced
on the money-lenders knee. The gilded figure, hunched over the desk, with palms upturned
as if beseeching yet more money, glittered in the shop lights. One look at his face spectacles 25
shining on his nose, mouth agape, trembling beard revealed the satisfaction of a deal well
concluded, and the desire for more money. He cried out to become another purchase.
The shop assistant turned his full attention towards the bewitched Peter. Simultaneously he
positioned himself so that Peter could not see Marians furrowed brow, her silent rebuke to
Peter that enough money had already been spent that day. I will charge you a fair price for this 30
money-lender, promised the shop assistant. Peter, its time we were heading back for lunch,
warned Marian. Whoever buys him will never have ill-fortune, promised the shop assistant.
The money-lender had cast his spell, and within minutes Peter left the shop carrying his
purchase, as the smiling shop assistant waved a cheerful farewell.
On the way back, Marian eventually saw the humour in the situation. Her awkward silence 35
was short-lived and she soon linked her arm affectionately through her husbands, her free
hand holding the jade tortoise and the wooden warrior, while Peter clutched the Chinese
money-lender. You were really talked into that! she laughed. Ah, but its a unique work of art,
replied Peter, and who knows what it will bring?
A few days later, their holiday over, it was their own house they were entering, dropping their 40
bulging suitcases gratefully to the floor. Peter quickly unpacked the tortoise, the wooden warrior
and, of course, the Chinese money-lender, while Marian took up the more mundane task of
opening the pile of mail which had accumulated since their departure. In the living room, Peter,
with the utmost care, was tenderly positioning the Chinese money-lender on a shelf. Now what
was the best angle at which to display him for maximum aesthetic effect? He heard the rustling 45
of paper and the ripping open of envelopes. Reluctantly he dragged his attention away from his
new friend as he heard Marians voice from the hallway: Peter, I can hardly believe this. Ive won
the top cash prize in that competition I entered before we went away I can hardly believe it!
Smiling, Peter adjusted the position of the Chinese money-lender yet again by a fraction of an
inch. Oh, but I can believe it, he said.
50
UCLES 2011
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/11

* 4 6 6 0 9 4 3 4 0 8 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1 hour 45 minutes

Insert

For Examiners Use
2
1
(a) Notes (15 marks)

Identify and write down the reasons why orangutans are an endangered species, and
the steps that are being taken to protect them.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Reasons why orangutans are an endangered species
Illegal logging destroys their habitat
Steps that are being taken to protect orangutans
Governments raise public awareness
UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
3
(b) Summary (5 marks)
Now use your notes to write a summary, in which you explain the reasons why
orangutans are an endangered species, and the steps that are being taken to protect
them.
For
Examiners
Use
Orangutans are an endangered species because of illegal logging which .......................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
[Turn over
The writer refers to humanitys concern for the beautiful planet we inhabit. (line 49) From
your own knowledge or experience, give one example of such a concern. Then give an
example of how that concern is being dealt with. Do not refer to orangutans in your answer.
One concern is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
One way of dealing with this concern is ...................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
From your reading of the whole passage, decide whether each of the following statements is
true or false and tick the appropriate box.
T
The writer approves of farmers who kill orangutans.

The writer is in favour of reducing carbon emissions.
The writer thinks that it is too late to save orangutans from extinction.
[3]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
4
(a) How did Christophers parents react to his announcement that he intended to emigrate?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What, according to the passage, is the advantage of the country to which Christopher
had emigrated? Answer in your own words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) What evidence is given to suggest that the location of Christophers apartment was lively?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 2
5
(a) Peter and Marian went on yet another trip to the market. What effect does the writer
achieve by the use of the word yet?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) The stallholder claimed that the tortoise was made of genuine jade. What effect does
the word claimed have that would not be achieved by said?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) What two aspects of Peters character caused Marians impatience?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
6
(a) The Chinese money-lender was somewhat mysterious. What single feature of the
ornament was most mysterious?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What do you think the shopkeeper was eager to do?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Why did the Chinese money-lender glitter in the shop lights?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 4
7
(a) Peter was bewitched. Pick out and write down the single word which continues the
idea of bewitched?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) In what two ways did Marian try to indicate to Peter that he had already spent enough
money that day?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
(c) Explain in your own words the two reasons why Peter was persuaded by the shop
assistant to buy the Chinese money-lender.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
[2]
UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 5
8
For
Examiners
Use
On the way back, how did Marian show that she was still annoyed with Peter?
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
From paragraph 6
9
(a) Peter quickly unpacked the Chinese money-lender. Explain fully the other ways in which
his behaviour indicated the importance to him of the Chinese money-lender.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) But I can believe it. What exactly did Peter believe?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(a) priority (line 9)
(e) intently (line 20)
(b) plethora (line 9)
(f)
(c) tantalising (line 10)
(g) unique (line 38)
(d) wafting (line 10)
(h) mundane (line 42)
Word chosen
simultaneously (line 28)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]

UCLES 2011
1123/22/O/N/11
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

STYLE (See pages 34 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Notes
[15]
Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by ticking the point
already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Illegal logging destroys their habitat

Fires to clear land / forest for agriculture (destroys / damages their habitat)
(They are hungry because) Their food (source) is destroyed // they have no / less food
They are hunted because they eat / destroy crops
And rewards / money / weeks salary are / is offered for killing them
Mothers / females are killed for food
Babies are captured / kept as pets
Their habitat is cleared for palm oil plantations / palm oil trees
(Food manufacturers want more and more) palm oil to make healthy food
(World wide desire for) Biofuels made from palm oil
Governments raise public awareness
(Individual) Companies (asked to / should) ensure palm oil comes from orangutanfriendly sources / places where there are no orangutans
Increased size of national /natural parks (parks = 0)
Better training / equipment for rangers in (national) parks
More organisations for / dedicated to saving orangutans
(New) Trees planted in damaged habitats / ravaged rainforests formerly favoured by
orangutans
(People invited to do) Voluntary / unpaid work with orangutans
Rescue centres (set up)
(People are encouraged to / can) adopt an orangutan
Young people / schools (encouraged) to fund a day / fundraise

(ii) If point is made in the wrong box, do not award the mark.
(iii) If more than one content point appears under a single bullet point, award each content
withhold mark unless clear contextual link word (e.g. and, therefore, because) is
made between two adjacent points.
Page 3

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
[5]
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
severely mangled.
Breakdown of sense.
MINOR ERRORS
Page 4

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
OWN WORDS
Mark

language.
USE OF ENGLISH


re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

transcript,
word expression.
below.

of the text.
Apart from very occasional slips,

the language is accurate.
structures.
isolated.
syntax.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
attempted.
frequent.
correct.
errors, impeding the reading.
Page 5

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
[2]
(one concern, one way of dealing with that concern)

Reward only real concerns, do not reward generic concerns, for example, environmental problems /
we need to protect the planet from destruction
In the first limb award only concerns, not solutions
In the second limb reward only solutions not results.
Candidates can score the second point without the first. For example, concern is environmental
problems = 0. We need to stop cutting down trees = 1.
Do not reward generic solutions. For example, we need to care for the planet = 0.
Must be related to the planet, therefore poverty / famine / etc. = 0
Be generous with the candidates knowledge and experience.
(true or false)
Accept any correct indication, do not insist on ticks.
Box 1:
Box 2:
Box 3:
False
True
False
[1]
Page 6

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 2
(a) 'parents react
(they had been) worried / concerned / upset /anxious /skeptical / had misgivings / unhappy /
sad / they were against it / disapproved / thought he was wrong
[1]
shocked / surprised / uncertain = 0
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 12 (Peter and his wife his intention to emigrate) = 1.
Excess denies.
Any reference to being contented / sighed contentedly / right decision = 0 W
(b) advantage of country
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are UNSURPASSED and
EMPLOYMENT. Do not insist on synonym for offered or opportunities but a sensible
context is required. Ignore references to public transport/ cafes / restaurants.
UNSURPASSED unbeaten / unrivalled // couldnt be bettered/ beaten / improved // better
than anywhere else / best / perfect / excellent / unequalled / unparalleled / unmatched
[1]
good / amazing / better / many / extra / unique / unlimited = 0
EMPLOYMENT
work / a job / earning a living
(c) lively location

(there were) new cafes / restaurants /eating places // restaurants / cafes were springing up
[1]
[1]
Lift of lines 67 (new cafes and restaurants were springing up (all around) = 1. Excess
denies.
Any reference to accommodation / public transport = 0 (W)
Many cafes/restaurants = 0 (N)
Many cafes springing up = 1
Reference to increasingly popular = 0 (N)
(a) yet another
They had already done a lot of shopping there // they had visited the market / it often / many
times before // they had gone on a lot of / several trips
[1]
They had been to the market before // it was not the first time // they were going again // they
usually went to the market = 0
Page 7

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) genuine jade tortoise

Answer can focus on either the tortoise or the stallholder.
the tortoise wasnt made of jade // was a fake / phoney / a trick / con
OR
the stallholder was lying / exaggerating / saying anything that would get a sale/ a conman /
trickster
[1]
ACCEPT conditionals, for example, the tortoise may not have been made of jade / perhaps
wasnt made of jade
assured / guaranteed / convinced = 0
(c) Peters character
Peters character NOTE: focus is Peter, not Marian
[2]
(i) he loved shopping / buying things / spending money // his / her husbands love of
shopping
[1]
Lift of line 14 (her husbands love of shopping) = 1. Excess denies
She did not share her husbands love of shopping = 0
He stopped at every / many stalls = 0 (N)
He liked markets (alone) = 0
(ii) He was gullible // easily taken in / convinced / influenced // could be conned / didnt spot
tricksters / believe everything he heard
[1]
Lift of line 15 inclined to be swept away by smooth / sales talk = 1. Excess denies.
She was less inclined to be swept away by smooth / sales talk = 0
(a) mysterious money-lender
the inscriptions on it / the front / the base / him were indecipherable / couldnt be read /
worked out / fathomed
[1]
blurred / unclear / difficult / strange = 0
Lift, in whole or in part, of lines 2122 (Closer inspection inscriptions) = 1. Excess denies.
Any reference to glint of metal / three inches high/ being seated / moneybag / abacus = 0 (W)
and destroys otherwise correct answer.
(b) eager shopkeeper
make a sale //sell (something / anything / the money lender / it) // Persuade Peter to buy
(something / anything / the money lender)
[1]
Lift of line 21 (eagerly appeared out of nowhere) = 0
He wanted Peter to buy it / something etc. = 0 (shopkeepers action is required)
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) money-lender glittered

it / he was made of gold / was gilt / gilded / golden
[1]
Made of metal // spectacles were shining = 0

Mere synonyms for glitter = 0 (N) e.g. shiny / sparkling / twinkling
It was made of shiny metal = 0
Lift of the gilded figure = 0 but the figure was gilded = 1
If more than one answer is given, mark first only.
(a) bewitched
spell
[1]
(b) Marian indicated
(i) she furrowed her brow / frowned
[1]
Lift of line 29 (her furrowed brow) = 1. Lift of her furrowed brow, her silent rebuke that
day = 1
Lift of line 29 (silent rebuke) = 0 (N)
Grimaced / pulled a face = 0 (W)
(ii) She told / warned / reminded him it was time (to go) for lunch // made excuses it was
time (to go) for lunch
[1]
Lift of lines 3132(Peter, its time warned / said Marian) = 1. Excess denies.
But Peter, its time lunch = 0
NB If more than one answer is offered in any one limb, mark the first answer only.
(c) Peter was persuaded
Note that this is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are FAIR and ILL-FORTUNE. Do not
insist on synonyms for price or never, but a sensible context is required.
FAIR
reasonable / just / not excessive / good (sic) / without exploitation / a right

price / acceptable // he wouldnt overcharge
[1]
Cheap / cheaper / bargain / reduced / discounted /affordable = 0 (N)
ILL-FORTUNE
bad luck / be unlucky // would have (good) luck / be lucky

Rich / poor = 0 (W) Unhappy / bad things happening = 0 (N)
[1]
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Marian still annoyed
she was silent / didnt speak (to Peter)
[1]
Lift of line 35 (her awkward silence) = 1 Excess denies.

Any reference to seeing the humour / linking arms = 0 (W) and destroys an otherwise correct answer.
(a) importance of a money-lender
Award 1 mark each for any 2 of A, B or C below.
A. He tenderly / carefully positioned him / it on a shelf
[1]
Lift of lines 4344 (In the living room, Peter, with the utmost care on a shelf) = 1.
Excess denies.
B. He was reluctant to drag his attention away (from it)
OR
He dragged his attention away from it reluctantly = 1
Lift of line 46 reluctantly he dragged his attention away from it = 0. Answer must be
distilled.
C. He adjusted the position / him / it many / several times / kept adjusting the position / him /
it
[1]
Lift of lines 49-50 (Peter adjusted by a fraction of an inch) = 0. Answer must be distilled.
(b) what Peter believed
the (Chinese) money-lender had brought / was able to bring Marian / them / him good luck //
had caused Marian / her to win the competition / cash / prize // was a bringer of luck
[1]
She had won the prize // It brought luck = 0 Mention must be made of the Chinese moneylender
It will / would bring luck etc. (future tense) = 0
Page 10

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
[5]

but neutral, e.g. 'must and routine for 'priority'.
within this limit.
(See words and equivalents below.)

1 mark
0 mark
1. priority
(line 9)
must / first/ very important / urgent /

focus / main / most important / top
need / necessity / essential / vital /
prime concern
routine / law /rule / preference /

compulsory / important
2. plethora
(line (9)
wide / great variety // wide/ great

range // abundance / many / a lot /
multitude / great number / array / a
load
surfeit / too much / more / excess /

pile / various / increasing number
3. tantalising
(line 10)
tempting / attractive / enticing / mouthwatering / teasing / alluring / seducing

/ seductive / appealing / promising
annoying / delicious / tasty / wonderful
4. wafting
(line 10)
drifting / floating / being carried / borne

/ blowing / spreading / carrying /
diffusing
moving / flying / going / flowing /

swinging / coming out
5. intently
(line 20)
closely / avidly / with concentration /

fixedly / purposefully / attentively /
assiduously / lots of interest / with
attention / carefully / focused
knowingly / accidentally /
enthusiastically / interestedly / willingly
/ seriously/purposely / curiously /
deliberately
6. simultaneously
(line 28)
at the same time / concurrently /

coincidentally
later / as a result / at once / instantly /

quickly / continuously / together
7. unique
(line 38)
one of(f) / nothing like it / original /

singular / unmatched
unusual / different / strange / special /

eccentric / quirky / new / rare /
excellent / uncommon /
8. mundane
(line 42)
ordinary / day-to-day / plain / usual /

uninteresting / run of the mill /
everyday / commonplace / habitual /
dull / boring / tedious / monotonous /
unexciting / lacklustre
normal / exciting / specious / mediocre
Page 11

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Appendix
There are laws governing the cutting down of trees, but sometimes trees are axed by people who are
part of an illegal market in wood, and this illegal logging destroys the natural habitat of
orangutans. Additional damage is caused to their habitat by people who burn down extensive
areas of forest in a bid to create more land for agriculture. The displaced orangutans are left
hungry by the destruction of their food source and, ironically, they are often branded as pests by
farmers whose crops then become their only food option. Mindful of potential loss of profits, farmers
carry out vicious extermination programmes of orangutans. The knock-on effect of this is that
frequently money is offered for killing orangutans; it is possible to understand such misguided
behaviour, as the reward will certainly be more than a weeks salary. Sometimes the mothers are
killed for food, and their killing is rarely humane: they can be beaten to death or doused in petrol and
set on fire. On other occasions the babies are captured as pets.
But the biggest threat to orangutans today comes from the clearing of their habitat for palm oil
plantations, which unfortunately flourish best in the lowland forest areas favoured by orangutans. It is
estimated that, in some parts of the world, a staggering one in ten products on sale in supermarkets
contains palm oil, items ranging from soap and lipstick to margarine and detergent. Because food
made with palm oil is low in the fatty acids associated with heart disease, more and more
areas inhabited by orangutans are cleared. Healthy food may be provided, but orangutans suffer.
Furthermore, in a laudable desire to combat carbon emissions, palm oil is produced on a grand
scale to satisfy the demand for biofuels manufactured from it, again at the expense of
orangutans.
The world has become aware of the plight of orangutans, albeit dangerously late. Many governments
are becoming pro-active in their attempt to halt the extinction of these beautiful creatures by raising
public awareness. Individual palm oil companies are being asked to consider more than mere
profit, and to ensure that their products come from sources which are not detrimental to
orangutans. Some national parks which are already homes to orangutans are being increased
in size to extend them even greater hospitality, and better training and equipment are being
offered to park rangers there to help in the conservation programme. Organisations dedicated to
looking after orangutans e.g. the World Wildlife Fund and the Orangutan Foundation
International are increasing in number, and many such organisations are involved in planting
new trees in the already ravaged rainforests formerly favoured by orangutans.
Ordinary people are invited to participate in conservation schemes by working voluntarily in an
orangutan habitat even as short a period as three weeks can make a difference. In some areas,
orangutan rescue centres have been established in desperate and often last-ditch attempts to
save lives. Unsurprisingly, the cost of caring for even one infant orangutan is very high; the fact that a
single care centre rescues dozens of babies a year means that the bill is often staggering. To make
some inroads into these costs, funding organisations encourage people to adopt an orangutan, in
return for which they might receive such items as a photograph of the adoptee or a certificate of
adoption. School students are invited to be responsible for a particular day in a parks calendar:
they instigate a fund-raising programme to protect the park for that day by paying for police
officers to guard against hunters or to patrol rivers in boats.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/21
May/June 2012
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 Theatre
1
Theatre began in ancient Greece, where myths and legends were told in story form, rather
than acted out, by a group of people called the chorus, who chanted their lines to enthralled
audiences. Then came the idea of making the dramatic impersonation of someone other than
yourself, in other words acting, and an actor was introduced into the performance. Through
time, plots became more complicated with the introduction of a second or third actor, although
5
the scope for stylish acting was limited by the fact that the actors wore masks to represent the
characters. The popularity of Greek plays increased as they were performed during the major
spring festival, and people flocked to the open-air, hillside amphitheatres to be entertained
by the plays. At first, only tragedies were performed, but the introduction of comedy, with its
often cruel satire of contemporary society, appealed to the ordinary people, thus increasing 10
the popularity of drama. Sometimes, competitions were held to see who could write the best
play in honour of the gods. The link between religion and drama made it an important part of
Greek life.
Later, drama became popular in Rome, and the development of a secondary story, or subplot, came about, which made plays more sophisticated by enabling audiences to look at the 15
lives of more than one set of characters. In addition to theatre-going, the Romans attended
hugely popular shows with gladiators and animals in massive, purpose-built arenas.
In Europe, groups of street actors, often accompanied by acrobats and animals, moved from
town to town, appearing to a succession of appreciative audiences; towns were enlivened
at the news of approaching players, and a great buzz ensued. The Christian church used 20
plays during religious festivals because they were a way of communicating bible stories in
dramatic form to illiterate people who could not read them. Through time, permanent buildings
for the production of plays were established, bringing audiences to the theatre rather than
vice versa, and this development increased the popularity of plays in Europe. It is estimated
that in sixteenth century London, for example, one in eight adults went to the theatre every 25
week. Around the world, various forms of theatre evolved, like the Japanese Noh theatre, in
which actors sing and dance scenes from legends with an immense slowness and solemnity
which is particularly moving.
Today, theatre continues to attract people all over the world. Because plays are performed
live, every performance is different, and actors bring something fresh to each performance. 30
This dynamic nature of theatre means that live performances are always better than films.
Being gripped by the unfolding story of a play can be an excellent form of relaxation, and
the experience of being transported into another setting or someone elses life what is
sometimes described as suspending disbelief can be fascinating. Moreover, theatre lovers
enjoy marvelling at the skill of the actors as much as did the ancient Greeks so long ago, which 35
is why theatre acting is much more challenging than acting in front of a camera. Empathising
with the characters stories can make audiences relate them to their own lives and use them to
make decisions or even to solve problems. The cleansing emotional experience or catharsis
brought about by watching drama can be good for mental health.
A trip to the theatre can bring families together, for example during national holidays 40
or celebrations, giving family members the opportunity to enjoy a common experience.
Technological advances in recent times for example in lighting and special effects
can make theatre a spectacle as well as a play. In addition, theatre sometimes offers the
opportunity of being part of a tradition. An example of this is a play called The Mousetrap,
the longest running play in the world, where the attraction is not just the drama itself, but also 45
being part of a large, world-wide, secret group who share the knowledge of the identity of the
villain. And of course, theatre audiences, often unwittingly, are part of an even longer tradition,
one going back to the Greeks, thousands of years ago.
UCLES 2012
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/12
Passage 2 Octavia
1
The summer wore away, and autumn set in, with rain, damp and an unseasonal frost at night.
When I put gloves on the baby she chewed them and had to sit in her pram with cold, wet
hands. I did not mind for myself, but I did not know how to keep her warm. She dribbled too
and her chest was always damp. She resisted for some time but in the end she caught a cold.
I did not know what to do with her, as I hated going to the doctor. I had thought I would be
5
finished with doctors at her birth, though I subsequently discovered there was an unending
succession of inspections and vaccinations yet to be endured. Now, hearing Octavias heavy
spluttering, I knew I would have to take her, much as I would hate it. I felt I was bothering the
busy doctor unnecessarily. But it was not a simple choice between comfort and duty, and
moreover it was not even my own health that was in question, but Octavias, and so I tried 10
to dismiss the thought of sitting in a freezing cold waiting room with her. Had it been my own
health, I would never have gone.
After I had made up my mind to see the doctor, I consulted my friend Lydia, who suggested
that I should ring up the doctor and ask him to come and see me at home, instead of going to
him; I immediately thought how nice it would be if only I dare. Of course you dare, said Lydia. 15
You cant take a sick baby out in weather like this. Then, with sudden illumination, she said,
Anyway, look how flushed she is! Why dont you take her temperature?
Astounded, I stared at her, for truly the thought of doing such a thing had never crossed
my mind. Looking back, after months with the thermometer as necessary as a spoon or a
saucepan, I can hardly believe this to be possible, but so it was; my life had not yet changed 20
for ever. I took Octavias temperature and it was high enough to justify ringing for the doctor.
To my surprise, the doctors secretary did not sound at all annoyed when I asked if he could
call: I think I had half expected a lecture on my indolence.
When the doctor arrived, he took Octavias pulse and temperature, and told me it was nothing
serious, in fact nothing at all. Then he said he ought to listen to her chest; I pulled up her vest 25
and she smiled and wriggled with delight as he put the stethoscope on her fat ribs. He listened
for a long time and I, who was beginning to think that perhaps I should not have bothered him
after all, sat there absently aware of how innocent she was, how sweet she looked and that
her vest could do with a wash. Had I known, I would have enjoyed that moment more, or
perhaps I mean that I did enjoy that moment but have enjoyed none since. For he said, Well, 30
I dont think theres anything very much to worry about there. I could see that he had not
finished, and did not mean what he said. Just the same, he added, perhaps I ought to book
you an appointment to take her along to the hospital.
I suppose most people would have asked him what was wrong, but I was too frightened. I
think that the truth was the last thing I wanted to hear. When I heard his voice coming at me, 35
saying that the hospital appointment would probably be for the next Thursday, I was relieved a
little; he could not be expecting her to die before next Thursday. I even mustered the strength
to ask what I should do about her cold, and he said, Nothing, nothing at all.
When he had gone, I went back and picked Octavia up and sat her on my knee and gazed at
her, paralysed by fear, aware that my happy state had changed in ten minutes to undefined 40
anguish. I wept, and Octavia put her fingers in my tears as they rolled down my cheek,
as though they were raindrops on a window pane. It seemed that, in comparison with this
moment, the whole of my former life had been a summer afternoon.
UCLES 2012
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/12

* 5 9 8 2 7 9 8 9 2 1 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2012

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

For Examiners Use
This document consists of 8 printed pages and 1 insert.
2
1

Identify and write down the information in the passage which describes the stages
in the development, and rise in popularity, of theatre, and the reasons for its continuing
popularity.
USE THE MATERIAL FROM THE WHOLE PASSAGE.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Stages in the development, and rise in popularity, of theatre
In ancient Greece myths / legends told in story form by chorus / chanting
Reasons for the continuing popularity of theatre
Every performance is different / dynamic
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
3
(b) Summary
Now use your notes to write a summary of the stages in the development, and rise in
popularity, of theatre, and the reasons for its continuing popularity.
For
Examiners
Use
The beginnings of theatre can be traced to ancient Greece ............................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
[5]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
[Turn over
4
2
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide which one of the following statements is true and
tick the box you have chosen.
All Greek plays had complicated plots.
The audiences did not enjoy performances by the chorus.
Religion played an important part in Greek society.
[1]

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
Another opinion is ...................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From your own knowledge or experience, give two examples of common experiences
which families can enjoy during national holidays. Do not refer to specific examples in the
passage in your answer.
One example is .......................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
Another example is .................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What one feature of the weather was unusual for the time of year?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Apart from the bad weather, what were the two reasons why the baby caught a cold?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) The writer hated going to the doctor. Pick out and write down the other single word
used in the paragraph which reinforces this idea.
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What two aspects of going to the doctor did the writer expect to hate?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(c) What eventually made the writer decide to take the spluttering baby to the doctor,
despite her initial reluctance to do so?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
7
For what two reasons did Lydia recommend that the doctor should be asked to come to the
writers house?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 4
8
(a) According to the writer, how had her life changed for ever?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) The doctors secretary did not sound at all annoyed when the writer asked the doctor to
call. Explain in your own words what the writer expected to happen.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 5
9
(a) What did the baby do which showed how innocent she was?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain fully why the writer says that the doctor did not mean what he said.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 6
For
Examiners
Use
10 (a) The writer was frightened. Explain exactly what she was frightened of.
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) The writer says that the doctors voice was coming at her. What effect is created by the
expression coming at?
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 7
11 (a) The writer says that her happy state had changed in ten minutes. Explain in your own
words what this change was.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) The writer says that the whole of her former life had been a summer afternoon. Explain
what she means by this.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/M/J/12
[Turn over
8
12 Choose five of the following words or phrases. For each of them give one word or short
phrase (of not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word or phrase
has in the passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
resisted (line 4)
subsequently (line 6)
in question (line 10)
illumination (line 16)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
5.
6.
7.
8.
astounded (line 18)

absently (line 28)
mustered (line 37)
paralysed (line 40)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
For
Examiners
Use
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

STYLE (See page 5 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by a tick the point
already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
(In ancient Greece) myths / legends told in story form (by chorus/ chanting)
Actor(s) /acting (introduced to chorus) // dramatic impersonation (of someone else)
Plots / plays / theatre / it became more complicated by second (or third) / more /
(an)other actor(s) / character(s)
Plays / theatre performed during major / Spring festival(s)
[It/ Their as agent = 0]
Comedy (introduced and appealed to ordinary people)
Competitions were held to see who could write best plays (in honour of the gods)
[stories = 0]
Drama became linked to religion
Sub-plots / second(ary) story introduced by the Romans (made plays more
sophisticated)
In Europe, travelling actors (entertained) // In Europe street actors moved from town to
town
(Christian) churches used plays to communicate bible stories (in dramatic form)
Permanent theatres / buildings for plays (were established / built)
[arenas = 0]
Various forms of theatre developed worldwide / in other countries [example (alone) = 0]
Every performance is different / dynamic
Plays / theatre / it offer(s) relaxation
Suspending disbelief / being transported into other life / the story / setting can be / is
fascinating
Theatre lovers / audience(s) / people enjoy skill of the actor(s)
[accept passive form but not they as agent]
Audiences / theatre lovers / people empathise with / relate characters (stories) to their
own lives // use characters stories to solve problems / make decisions
[accept passive but not they as agent unless link established with p16]
Emotional experience / catharsis is good for mental health / well-being
Brings families together
Technological advances / lighting / special effects make theatre a spectacle (as well as a
play)
Offers opportunity to be part of a tradition
[do not accept the example]
1 (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
If answer is entirely verbatim lift, give 0.

If content point is made in the wrong box, do not award the mark.
point separately if clearly made.
If content point being made depends on information contained in another bullet point,
withhold the mark unless a clear link is made between the two points.
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Syllabus
1123
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21
[5]
OF ENGLISH. The table which follows on a later page provides descriptors of the mark
category of OWN WORDS. Then arrive at the mark level for USE OF ENGLISH.
Under OWN WORDS, key pointers are: sustained, noticeable, recognisable but limited,
wholesale copying and complete transcript. The difference between wholesale copying
and complete transcript is that, whereas in wholesale copying there is nothing / little that is
original, the copying has been selective and directed at the question, but with a complete
transcript the candidate has started copying and continued writing with little sense of a link to
the question. Complete transcripts are rare.
Under USE OF ENGLISH, take into consideration the accuracy of the writing, and the ability
to use original complex sentence structures.
Write marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH separately in comments box beneath
the question. Access this comments box by clicking on the speech bubble on Scoris Task
Bar. Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two.
Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number e.g. OW 3, UE 2, giving 3 to be entered in
Scoris marks column.
HOW TO ANNOTATE Q1(b)
Use margin (either left or right) to indicate OWN WORDS assessment, and the body of the
script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use either T (text) or
O (own words). Where the candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has
substituted an odd word here and there (single word substitution) indicate these single words
with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of OW.
Under USE OF ENGLISH, use the body of the script for annotations. For accuracy
assessment, use either cross or carat as appropriate for errors (over the errors). You may
use cross for omission instead of carat. Indicate only serious errors. If the same error is
made more than once, e.g. omission of definite article, indicate it each time it is made. Below
follows a list of serious errors:
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Using a comma to replace the necessary full stop.
Mis-spellings of simple, basic words, e.g. were / where // to / too // their / there.
Breakdown of sense.
Serious omissions, or serious intrusions e.g. of definite article. Ignore what are clearly slips.
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Syllabus
1123
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21
For sentence structure merit, use ticks where appropriate, in the body of the script. Tick only
instances where the sentence structure is both complex and original, i.e. belonging to the two
top boxes in the Use of English column on the MS. Ticks, therefore, tend to be over relative
pronouns, present participles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken into
consideration under assessment of OW.
Irrelevance: Put a cross in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of irrelevance. If script is
entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and UE, then add
together and halve) and give 2 max for style. Note that such scripts are extremely rare.
Wrong or invented material: Put a cross in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of
wrong or invented material. This might count as oblique or limited own words when you come
to assess OW.
THE PRACTICE SCRIPTS WILL PROVIDE EXAMPLES OF HOW SCRIPTS SHOULD BE
ANNOTATED.
Short answers
While examiners are not asked to count words, candidates have been asked to write 150
words. There is no penalty for long answers but, if a script is OBVIOUSLY short, please
count the words, mark as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and UE, then add together
and halve) and award marks to the following maxima:
20 35 = 1 mark max for style
36 50 = 2 marks max for style
0 20 = 0 marks for style. No assessment of OW and UE is necessary
Additional Objects: If there is an Additional Object on a script, indicate that you have seen it
with a cross. Do not use ticks as sometimes these can be included in the Scoris total at the
top of the scripts and the wrong mark keyed in by the examiner.
Page 5

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
USE OF ENGLISH
Mark
5



mangled relevance.

transcript.
word expression.
below.

the text.
Complete transcript.

to the reader.
isolated.
helpful.
attempted.
[8+ errors as a guide]
sustained for long.
correct.
sometimes impeding reading.
Heavy frequency of serious errors
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 6

Syllabus
1123
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21

2
Religion played an important part in Greek society.
[1]
[If more than one box is ticked = 0]

[Accept other notations, e.g. X, *, shading of correct box]
3
Opinion 1:
(This dynamic nature of theatre means that) live performances are better than films
[1]
Opinion 2:
Theatre lovers enjoy marvelling at the skill of actors as much as did the ancient Greeks
[1]
Opinion 3:
Theatre acting is (much) more challenging than acting in front of a camera
[1]
[block lift of lines 346 (theatre lovers camera) = 0]

[Accept any 2 of 3. Accept in any order. Accept own words versions.]
4
Accept any reasonable examples, such as dining out together / dining in together / trips to parks /
excursions etc.
[2 1]
[Answer must focus on an activity rather than the outcome of an activity.
e.g. Families learn about their culture = 0
Families go to a museum to learn about their culture = 1]
[Two correct answers in any one limb = 1 mark max.]
Page 7

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Passage 2
(a) frost // it was frosty (at night)
[1]
[Any reference to cold, rain or dampness = 0(W)]

(b) (i) she chewed her gloves and got cold / wet hands // her hands were cold because she
chewed her gloves
[1]
[She had to sit in her pram with cold hands = 0(N) // The mother didnt know how to keep
her warm = 0 (N)]
[Lift of When I put gloves cold hands = 0(N). Change must be made from first to third
person.]
(ii) she dribbled and her chest was / clothes were (always) damp
[1]
[Lift of She dribbled (too) and her chest was always damp = 1
Allow run on into she resisted cold but excess denies]
(a) endured
[1]
[Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase or
sentence provided it is underlined or otherwise highlighted. Ignore mis-spelling.]
(b) (i) she did not want to bother the doctor (unnecessarily)
[1]
[Lift of I felt I was bothering the busy doctor = 0. Need change from 1st to 3rd person.]
(ii) she did not want to wait / sit in a freezing / cold waiting room // the waiting room would
be freezing / cold
[1]
[She dismissed the thought of sitting in a cold / freezing waiting room = 0 Answer must
be distilled.]
[Any reference to choice between comfort and duty or not my own health in question =
0(N)]
(c) it was not her (own) health (in question) // it was not she who was sick // it was the baby /
Octavia who was sick, (not her) // it was her duty
[1]
[Lift of Had it been never have gone or 3rd person equivalent = 0(N)]
[Lift of It was not even my own health = 0]
Page 8

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

7
(i) The weather was (too) bad / cold /damp // unsuitable to take a sick baby out in
[1]
[Lift of you cant take like this = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.]
[weather like this/that (alone) = 0]
(ii) the baby was flushed / hot // the baby had / seemed to have a (high) temperature
[1]
[Allow she as subject]

[Lift of look how flushed she is! = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.]
(a) she would (later / soon) have to take Octavias temperature regularly / often // the
thermometer would become as necessary as a spoon / saucepan // the thermometer would
become part of her life / important for Octavia / her
[1]
[Answer may be given in any tense]
(b) This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are LECTURE and INDOLENCE
LECTURE: row / telling off / talking to / ticking off / sermon / speech / homily / scolding /
reprimand / remonstrated / rebuked / criticised
[1]
[yell / shout / talk / get angry = 0]
INDOLENCE: laziness / idleness / sloth
[1]
[carelessness / inconsiderateness / lethargy = 0]

[indolence linked to looking after the baby = 0(N)]
(a) she smiled / wriggled with delight when the doctor examined her / put the stethoscope on her
ribs / body / her
[1]
[Needs action by baby]
[Any reference to her vest needing a wash / being pulled up // looking sweet // fat ribs = 0(N)]
(b) (i) (it was clear / she could see that) he had not finished (speaking) / that he had something
else / important to say // he paused / hesitated // she could see / tell by the look on his
face
[1]
[Lift of I could see that he had not finished = 0 Change from 1st to 3rd person needed]
(ii) he wanted to / told the writer he would make a hospital appointment for the baby
[Lift of perhaps I ought to...the hospital = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.]
[1]
Page 9

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

(a) that (the doctor would tell her) the baby was very ill / might die // there was something very
wrong with the baby
[1]
[The truth / diagnosis (alone) = 0(N)]
(b) Look for sensible reference either to the state of mind of the writer, or the information that
the doctor was imparting.
The writer was / felt stunned / dazed / confused / frightened / helpless / vulnerable // The
doctor was telling her something unpleasant / that she did not want to hear // she was trying
not to hear what he was saying
[1]
[Any idea of attack / worry = 0(N)]
(a) This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are UNDEFINED and ANGUISH.
UNDEFINED: unspecified / cause unknown / inexplicable / unexplained
[1]
ANGUISH: sorrow / torment / pain / heartbreak / misery / sadness
[1]
[horror / fear / worry / concern / disappointment / shock = 0]

(b) (her former life) had been happy / enjoyable / pleasant / carefree / nice / lovely / relaxing /
unworried
[1]
[Accept sensible opposites which describe her current life, e.g. she is now unhappy /
miserable / under a black cloud]
[easy / straightforward / simple = 0(N)]
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

but neutral, e.g. vacantly and unknowingly for 'absently'.
within this limit.
Page 10

Syllabus
1123
1 mark
Paper
21
0 mark
1. resisted
(line 4)
fought (against) / held out / struggled

(against) / kept at bay / opposed // did not
give in / yield / surrender
denied / refused / controlled /

stayed healthy
2.
subsequently
(line 6)
later / afterwards / following (that) /

(there)after / in the future
next / then
3. in
question
(line 10)
at stake / the problem / in doubt /

the matter / the issue / what it was about /
uncertain / the subject / the concern /
the consideration / thought about
at risk /
in danger / on the line /
asked / talked about / queried
4.
illumination
(line 16)
inspiration / brainwave / perceptiveness /

perception / consciousness / insight /
realisation / dawning / enlightenment /
revelation
knowledge / intelligence /
light
5. astounded
(line 18)
amazed / astonished / very surprised /

stunned / shocked
bemused / puzzled
6. absently
(line 28)
vacantly / without thinking /

abstractedly / without concentrating /
distractedly / not paying attention /
her mind was elsewhere / blankly
unknowingly /
sub / unconsciously
unaware
7. mustered
(line 37)
gathered / summoned //
called up / upon // got together /
conjured / dredged (up) / roused /
raised
built / brought /
gained / demanded /
collected / pulled
8. paralysed
(line 40)
immobilized / unable to move /

numbed / petrified / turned to stone /
frozen / immobile / crippled
motionless / stationary /
still / affected / stunned /
stricken
Page 11

Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Appendix
Theatre began in ancient Greece, where myths and legends were told in story form, rather than
acted out, by a group of people called the chorus, who chanted their lines to enthralled audiences.
Then came the idea of making the dramatic impersonation of someone other than yourself, in
other words acting, and an actor was introduced into the performance. Through time, plots became
more complicated with the introduction of a second or third actor, although the scope for stylish
acting was limited by the fact that the actors wore masks to represent the characters. The popularity
of Greek plays increased as they were performed during the major spring festival, and people
flocked to the open-air, hillside amphitheatres to be entertained by the plays. At first, only tragedies
were performed, but the introduction of comedy, with its often cruel satire of contemporary
society, appealed to the ordinary people, thus increasing the popularity of drama. Sometimes,
competitions were held to see who could write the best play in honour of the gods. The link
between religion and drama made it an important part of Greek life.
Later, drama became popular in Rome, and the development of a secondary story, or sub-plot,
came about, which made plays more sophisticated by enabling audiences to look at the lives of more
than one set of characters. In addition to theatre-going, the Romans attended hugely popular shows
with gladiators and animals in massive, purpose-built arenas.
In Europe, groups of street actors, often accompanied by acrobats and animals, moved from
town to town, appearing to a succession of appreciative audiences; towns were enlivened at the
news of approaching players, and a great buzz ensued. The Christian church used plays during
religious festivals because they were a way of communicating bible stories in dramatic form to
illiterate people who could not read them. Through time, permanent buildings for the production of
plays were established, bringing audiences to the theatre rather than vice versa, and this
development increased the popularity of plays in Europe. It is estimated that in sixteenth century
London, for example, one in eight adults went to the theatre every week. Around the world, various
forms of theatre evolved, like the Japanese Noh theatre, in which actors sing and dance scenes
from legends with an immense slowness and solemnity which is particularly moving.
Today, theatre continues to attract people all over the world. Because plays are performed live, every
performance is different, and actors bring something fresh to each performance. This dynamic
nature of theatre means that live performances are always better than films. Being gripped by the
unfolding story of a play can be an excellent form of relaxation, and the experience of being
transported into another setting or someone elses life what is sometimes described as suspending
disbelief can be fascinating. Moreover, theatre lovers enjoy marvelling at the skill of the
actors as much as did the ancient Greeks so long ago, which is why theatre acting is much more
challenging than acting in front of a camera. Empathising with the characters stories can make
audiences relate them to their own lives and use them to make decisions or even to solve
problems. The cleansing emotional experience or catharsis brought about by watching
drama can be good for mental health.
A trip to the theatre can bring families together, for example during national holidays or
celebrations, giving family members the opportunity to enjoy a common experience. Technological
advances in recent times for example in lighting and special effects can make theatre a
spectacle as well as a play. In addition, theatre sometimes offers the opportunity of being part of
a tradition. An example of this is a play called The Mousetrap, the longest running play in the world,
where the attraction is not just the drama itself, but also being part of a large, world-wide, secret
group who share the knowledge of the identity of the villain. And of course, theatre audiences, often
unwittingly, are part of an even longer tradition, one going back to the Greeks, thousands of years
ago.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Comprehension
Key messages
In those questions which require candidates to answer in their own words, many showed an ability to identify
the key words in such questions. There remains a need for candidates to develop greater skills in
substituting these key words with their own.
They need to learn how to provide answers which require some distillation of the text; that is, answers which
are derived or extracted from the ideas in the text. To deal with a passage written as a first person narrative,
candidates need to practise answering questions in the third person. Some questions on the writers craft
require that candidates learn how to decode figurative language. They should focus on looking beyond the
literal in inferential questions, drawing their inferences from a sensible context linked to the text in order to
demonstrate their comprehension. For the summary, Question 1, candidates are advised to practise
differentiation between note style and continuous writing, as suggested by the wording of the instructions;
this will enable them to focus on and fulfil the requirement of each rubric.
General Comments
We are now into the second year of the revised paper structure for the examination, and candidates appear
to have been well prepared by their teachers for questions based on two different passages, and for the
types of questions which might be asked. The majority responded neatly and carefully, within the guiding
parameters of the answer booklet. A minority continued answers outside these parameters, or used
separate sheets instead of, or in addition to, the booklets; this can result in parts of a response not being
seen by the Examiner. The practice - especially in Questions 1(a) and 1(b) - of writing draft answers in
pencil, before going over them in pen, is one which can cause problems with legibility and is best avoided.
Most candidates attempted all the questions and completed the paper without any issue with time. The
variety offered by a non-fiction and a fiction passage provided the opportunity for questions which stretched
and discriminated amongst candidates, allowing the best responses to demonstrate an ability to deal with the
familiar as well as the unfamiliar. This was reflected in a wide range of scores.
The first passage, Theatre, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas; the second, Octavia, tested
their reading for meaning. 20 marks were available for the summary question, with 15 of these marks being
awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of Theatre and 5
questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas; in this case to distinguish fact from opinion and a true
statement from false ones. The last question in Section 1 gave the opportunity to offer a personal response
to a theme in the text.
The second passage, Octavia, tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
The answer booklets writing frame format for the summary question, both Question 1(a) and Question
1(b), largely prevented candidates from writing to excess or copying verbatim at length. Little irrelevance
was noted, nor was there much evidence of candidates diverging from the rubric.
In Question 1(a) most responses used a bullet point format, following the style of the first (given) point in
each answer box and the result was a clear list of selected ideas. Others had content points in the wrong
boxes and could not, therefore, be credited with the mark. The two boxes, with their clear headings, are
intended to guide candidates to separate the two different aspects required in the summary. The best
responses took account of this and did not confuse or repeat the content between them. The slash mark (/)
was sometimes used between notes, but whether to link or to separate adjacent ideas was sometimes

unclear. A single, clear point per bullet should be aimed for, to avoid confusion. Where candidates continue
the question on a separate sheet, they need to clearly identify to which box these extra points relate.
In Question 1(b), where candidates were to write up their note form content points in formal, continuous
prose, there were some commendable results among those who made a sustained attempt to use their own
words and original structures. Others needed to include more originality of expression in order to achieve
high marks. Many candidates attempted to rework the relevant details from the passage, with the
substitution of their own words here and there where possible. Those who lifted random patches of text
sometimes had difficulty in linking them and the result made only fractured sense. The overall standard of
written English, including spelling and punctuation was generally fair, and in some cases impressive. There
were also many instances of sound sentence structure. Candidates can improve on use of tenses: this
question benefited from introducing the present tense to describe the reasons for the continuing popularity of
theatre today included the use of the past tense throughout, rather than using the past tense throughout.
Candidates need to work on noun-verb agreement, as in Christians also uses these plays.. and Drama
provide individuals with . and sentence separation, i.e. using full stops instead of commas.

Section 1 Reading for Ideas
Question 1(a) was the first part of the summary question, carrying 30% of the total marks for the paper.
Candidates were asked to identify the information in the passage which described the stages in the
development, and rise in popularity, of theatre, and the reasons for its continuing popularity. The summary
had to be based on the whole of the text, and candidates were to write their answers in note form, choosing
to use either the words of the text or their own words. One content point under each heading of the rubric
was given by way of illustration.
Excluding these provided content points, which were not rewarded with marks, there were 21 content points,
of which candidates could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points, carrying one mark each.
Most responses listed the points either in note form or in short sentences, usually under bullet marks, which
allowed them adequate space to record all their responses. Others copied whole sections of the passage,
reducing their ability to isolate the points while increasing the potential for including irrelevant text and
running out of space.
Paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 referred to the stages in the development, and rise in popularity, of theatre and there
were 11 points which the candidates could make. In Paragraph 1, there were 6 content points, all linked to
the beginnings of theatre in ancient Greece by the introductory ten words, which provided a Greek context.
All candidates recognised that the move from storytelling by a chorus to dramatic impersonation by an actor
was a major step in its development and understood that, with added actors, plots somehow became more
complex. The popularity of comedy was unfailingly noted, as were the importance of performances during
Spring festivals and the playwriting competitions held. That these last two facts exemplified another step in
theatres increasing popularity - the link between religion and drama - was not always mentioned. Paragraph
2 moved the focus to Rome and offered just 1 point among distracting material: that sub-plots developed
there. Paragraph 3 showed the extension of drama to France and England through 3 points about travelling
actors, the Christian churchs use of plays and the building of permanent theatres; a fourth point referred to
worldwide development.
Candidates generally showed an understanding of theatrical development, though a number lost marks by
omitting mention of the geographical development across Europe and the world.
The second section of the rubric required the reasons for the continuing popularity of theatre, and there were
eight available content points. In Paragraph 4, candidates could make 5 points: the relaxation offered by
theatre; the fascination experienced by suspending disbelief; the audiences enjoyment of actors skills; the
potential for valuable empathy with the characters stories; and the benefit of catharsis. The third and fourth
of these points required a clear reference to the audience, or an equivalent agent, though passive forms
such as The skills of actors are enjoyed were acceptable. Paragraph 5 contained the last 3 points and most
supplied the ideas that theatre trips offer the opportunity for families to get together, to be part of a tradition
and to experience a spectacle as well as a play, through new technology.
There was a small number of candidates who were awarded maximum points and a large number scored
half marks and above. Candidates are advised to avoid repeating the given point in each box. While points
could be made by producing a list of notes or short sentences in bullet point form, as indicated above, rather

than in continuous prose, all points nevertheless need to be fully made, remembering that they should be
clear enough to be fully understood by another person. Where marks were lost it was often because points
were incompletely made, e.g. referring to permanent buildings being created, but with no mention of their
purpose as theatres. Similarly, stating that the cleansing experience is good for mental health omitted the
crucial idea of that emotional cleansing experience, which is catharsis.
In Question 1(b) candidates were asked to use their notes to write a summary, in their own words, of the
stages in the development, and rise in popularity, of theatre, and the reasons for its continuing popularity.
They were to write no more than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in
the answer booklet.
The majority completed the exercise and most were able to do so comfortably within the given space. The
best responses came from candidates who used their own words in a sustained manner and in a style which
was always accurate, containing original complex structures. Others selected from, edited and restructured
the text well, without being innovative or original in their use of English. The weakest responses were those
which included copied chunks from the text and it proved difficult to link these while controlling sentence
structure fluently. A large majority of candidates attempted the question and adhered to the rubric. A rare
exception was when the note form slash of Question 1(a) was carried over to Question 1(b)
(Myths/legends were sung/chanted by chorus/chanting), interrupting the attempt at continuous writing.
Although there is a new syllabus, the method of assessment for this task remains unchanged. The best
candidates who were competent and confident enough, grappled with the original text, re-shaping and recasting it in original complex sentences, to gain many, or full, marks for style. Commendably, very short
answers were extremely rare; candidates need to recognise that such brevity can never justify a high mark
because they cannot demonstrate sustained use of own words or completely accurate English. There were
noticeably few reported instances of generalised summaries which lacked the precision required to make
content points. Where this occurred, it was often in responses which had answered Question 1(a) in
continuous prose; perhaps in an attempt to produce something different, for Question 1(b), such responses
tended to include irrelevance or made oblique references rather than specific points. Candidates are
advised to focus on correct tense use, subject/verb agreements, sentence separation and prepositions.
Spelling was generally accurate, although there was some confusion of were and where.
In Questions 2, 3 and 4 candidates were tested on their ability to respond to the ideas of the whole text or a
section of it. Question 2 asked candidates to decide which one of three statements, based on the passage,
was true. The majority ticked the third box, correctly, recognising the importance of religion in ancient
Greece and ignoring the other two statements offered, as distortions of the text. Candidates are advised not
to tick more than one box.
Question 3 asked for two opinions from paragraph 4. Candidates could select any two of three observations
which were subjective rather than objectively verifiable: that live performances are always better than films;
that theatre acting is much more challenging than acting in front of a camera; and the notion that audiences
admire actors skills as much as did the ancient Greeks. The first two options were the most common
responses. The third option, which required the comparison with ancient Greece, needed to include
reference to the comparison i.e. the very thing which cannot be objectively proved. Candidates were not
required to give their own views or to comment on the opinions.
Question 4 asked for two examples of common experiences which families might enjoy during the national
holidays mentioned in the text. Where candidates recognised the personal nature of the response required,
and offered examples from their own lives or knowledge, they were successful. Picnics, hikes, eating out
together and visiting home villages to see relations were common and acceptable answers. Those who
suggested holidays abroad had failed to read the time limitation set by national holidays. Weaker answers
were often too general: getting to know your family or spending time together, rather than offering
something specific for such an occasion. Candidates should not include examples mentioned in the
passage.
Section 2 Reading for Meaning
Question 5(a) asked for the unusual feature of the weather and a large majority of candidates understood
that, in the context, unseasonal was the clue. The frost was then identified correctly. Other responses
included reference to the more usual features of autumn, the rain and damp and could not be credited with
the mark.

Question 5(b) required two reasons why the baby caught cold. Most candidates scored at least one of the
two marks and about half gained both. Others needed to give complete reasons, i.e. the baby suffered cold,
wet hands because she chewed her gloves and a damp chest because she dribbled on it. Occasional
references to the mother not knowing how to keep her child warm were insufficient; the answers lay in the
result of that inability.
Question 6(a) asked for the single word in the paragraph which reinforced the idea that the writer hated
going to the doctor, the answer being endured. This was a discriminating question and the best responses
understood its implication of having to suffer something undesirable.
Other responses included
subsequently, bothering, unnecessarily and even hate. Candidates are advised that when the rubric
specifies a one word answer, they should follow this instruction.
In Question 6(b), many candidates succeeded in gaining the two available marks for writing that she did not
want to bother the doctor and did not want to sit in the freezing cold waiting room. Other responses
focused on what the writer had previously found were necessary, inspections and vaccinations, rather than
focusing on what she now expected to hate.
Question 6(c) was answered correctly by using the third person rather than the first person of the text, and
explaining that the writer decided she must take the baby to the doctors because it was not her health which
was in question, but her daughters. It was not enough to say that the baby was ill without making clear that
the focus was the baby rather than the illness. The brief, but equally correct, response was that she felt it
was her duty.
Question 7 again required two reasons to gain two marks. Candidates had to distil their answers from the
text, avoiding the wording of Lydias direct speech to use the third person. The inference that weather like
this was too cold or wet to take the baby out had to be stated; some responses referred merely to such
weather. The second reason, that the baby was flushed, or had a temperature was identified correctly by
the majority.
Question 8(a) required discerning scrutiny of the text by candidates, which stronger ones were able to do. A
minority denied the question, by inaccurately quoting that the writers life had not changed for ever, instead
of explaining how it had. To answer accurately, it was necessary to recognise that the events of the passage
were taking place at an earlier time, when her life had not yet changed for ever; when she had never
thought of taking the childs temperature. Once this was understood, candidates identified the change as
the need to take Octavias temperature, or use a thermometer, regularly or constantly. This proved to be a
discriminating question and it was encouraging to see that stronger responses had decoded the image of a
thermometer being as necessary as a spoon or a saucepan, though the image itself was also an acceptable
answer.
In Question 8(b) candidates had to answer in their own words, after first identifying the key words which
suggested what the writer expected would happen. The passage led the reader to the two words which, the
two marks suggested, it was necessary to recast: I had half expected a lecture on my indolence. Suitably
correct synonyms for a lecture included scolded ( the most common), a long talk on, rebuked and told
off. The stronger responses provided laziness as the correct synonym for indolence. Others, having
identified the key words, repeated them in the answer or went back to annoyed and suggested that the
secretary would yell, shout or get mad. Such responses were not credited.
Question 9(a) was one which required candidates not only to recognise what the babys actions were, but
also to infer how those actions suggested her innocence; her lack of awareness that something was wrong
with her. Many candidates succeeded in identifying that Octavia smiled and wriggled with delight but fewer
went on to include the inferential suggestion of innocence in her doing so while being examined by the
doctor, or when a stethoscope was put on her chest. A number misread the sentence structure and
suggested the smiling and wriggling were the result of her vest being pulled up, rather than occurring as he
put the stethoscope on her ribs.
Question 9(b) required a full explanation of why the writer says that the doctor did not mean what he said,
and the two marks available suggested that two ideas were required here. Candidates needed to say that
the writer could see in his face or body language that he had not finished or that she knew something more
was to be said; that he had paused before he added something else. There was no indication that he had
not finished examining her. The second idea related to what the doctor added: that he was going to make
a hospital appointment for her. This, as was sometimes mentioned, implied that there was something to
worry about. A good number gained at least one mark, while others were not quite specific enough in

defining it as a hospital appointment; another appointment with that same doctor would not seem so
serious.
Question 10(a) was an inferential one, necessitating that candidates looked for some link in the text which
would explain exactly what the writer was frightened of.
A fair number carefully read the whole paragraph to find that link in the reference to her relief that the doctor
could not be expecting her to die before next Thursday. In other words, that is what she feared; that her
daughter was going to die, or that she was at least very seriously ill. Others said she was afraid of the truth
or of asking him what was wrong. Candidates should have explained what that truth was, or why she did not
want to know what was wrong. In that way, her fear would have been explained exactly.
Question 10(b) related to the doctors voice coming at her, asking for the effect created by the phrase
coming at. A number of candidates, clearly well prepared for questions on the writers craft, suggested that
this was an example of personification; that, however, does not explain the effect of the words. Again a
discriminating question, many interpreted the image in a physical sense and said the doctor was moving
towards, attacking or threatening the writer. A minority recognised the rather less aggressive idea that the
doctors words would be something unpleasant, or something she was trying to avoid hearing. The other
possible response focused on the state of mind of the writer and most of those who gained the mark
understood that she felt helpless, vulnerable or frightened.
Question 11(a) was the second one in which candidates had to answer in their own words. Many
candidates identified the key words to be substituted (undefined anguish) but did not answer in their own
words. Candidates are advised to read questions carefully and to ensure that they follow the instructions
given. Stronger responses deduced the meaning of the key words from the context of tears, that the writers
state had changed to one of sadness or misery. Undefined was a challenging word, requiring
recognition that to define something is to explain it; thus, her anguish could not be explained.
Question 11(b) asked candidates to explain the writers description of her former life as having been a
summer afternoon and several popular, correct interpretations of the image were seen. That her life had
been happy, relaxing, pleasant, enjoyable or unworried were the most frequent. Some, however,
offered very general responses such as: All the days before were amazing; others concentrated on the
weather e.g. It had warm weather and no colds. The attempt to decode the image was apparent, in many
cases.
understanding, in context, but not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words or phrases from a choice of
eight. Marks ranged from 0 to 5 here, though only a very small minority scored full marks. Most candidates
who attempted resisted scored the mark for the synonyms fought off, withstood or held back, although a
popular wrong answer was refused. Candidates scored a mark for writing later or after for subsequently,
but next and (perhaps because of the similar sound) suddenly were incorrect answers. in question was
attempted with successful responses including at stake and various forms of what it was about. (Precise
grammatical form is not the most important thing in these answers, as Examiners are looking only for a clear
understanding.) Answers such as at risk, in danger and on the line appeared quite often but were not
rewarded, as they gave a too serious suggestion. illumination was rarely attempted but produced
enlightenment and realisation as good responses. (idea and thought were too weak.) Shocked and
astonished were correctly and frequently offered for astounded, with flabbergasted a delightful alternative,
but surprised did not score unless it was qualified with very. There were few responses to absently and
those there were tended to give, incorrectly, the idea of not knowing or unaware, rather than without
thinking. mustered was a popular choice and many succeeded, usually with gathered, or occasionally with
summoned or called up. Called or called out did not score, nor did the popular choice, gained. For
paralysed, many offered motionless or without moving but a few recognised the difference between such
voluntary stillness and the enforced nature of immobilized or unable to move, thus gaining the mark.
Some responses offered two or more synonyms for each word; candidates are adivsed that only the first
word or phrase offered as an answer will be credited and should therefore decide on their response with
care.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/22
May/June 2012
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 Shopping
1
Markets, bazaars, corner shops, high street stores or out-of-town retail centres wherever
you live, shopping plays some part in your life, and the hours available for this common activity
will vary. But do extended shopping hours have a positive or a negative effect on society?
Extending the opening hours of shops has many advantages. People do not have to rush to
the supermarket after a hard day at the office, checking their watches to see how much time
5
they have to buy the evening meal for the family. If a shop is open for a restricted number
of hours per week, say forty, then one set of employees is sufficient to run it, but extended
opening hours mean that more people are needed to work in the store, thus providing an
income for them. This can be particularly beneficial for students, who are able to work for
a limited period to earn some money without compromising their studies. Families can also 10
benefit: parents, usually mothers, can work a few hours part-time in the local supermarket
when their spouses are not at work. Not only does this provide additional income for the
family; it can also avoid the costly and sometimes complicated childcare arrangements which
will be necessary if both parents work the same hours. Extended opening hours mean more
income for the shop owner, who will not miss out on a potential sale because the shop is shut. 15
Keeping shops open longer spreads the load for the shopping centre, as not all the potential
shoppers are arriving at the same time, or fighting for a limited number of parking spaces.
People have more time to browse when it suits them, and so shopping can become a form of
relaxation, giving rise to the term retail therapy. In modern times there has been a rise in the
number of covered shopping malls, which are usually open for longer than the conventional 20
high street stores. These malls offer under one roof a wide range of merchandise from
clothes, to food, to electronic equipment and so there is increased availability of goods in
these virtually round-the-clock outlets. Because these malls are normally modern and bright,
they offer an attractive day out for families, and make shopping a valuable family activity.
But extended shopping hours are sometimes under fire from critics who argue that, far from 25
promoting family life, the shop till you drop mentality actually decreases the opportunities
for family activities. Indeed, the very expression shop till you drop suggests silly, robot-like
behaviour. Children miss out on valuable recreational excursions with their parents, who take
them on endless shopping trips instead of, for example, to an art gallery. If mum is working
in the supermarket in the evening, chances for family bonding, such as simply eating dinner 30
together, or watching television, have been removed. Children are not taken to run around
parks and playgrounds because they are shopping instead. There is nothing more depressing
than seeing the long faces of parents pushing baby buggies and trailing youngsters round
yet another computer shop. The resulting lack of exercise perhaps contributes to increasing
childhood obesity in some parts of the world.
35
Extending shopping hours also has a detrimental effect on employees, whose own family life
is interrupted or compromised because one or other of the family members, possibly including
teenage students, is working at any given time. Employers suffer too; they cannot always be
in the shop, and will need to appoint an employee as deputy in their absence, which might
cause problems. If they decide that this is impossible they may choose to close the shop, but 40
they will lose business to the shops which have stayed open. Moreover, as people have a
fixed amount of money to spend shopping, the idea that they spend more because shops are
open longer is a myth in any case, and so employers do not ultimately benefit.
Finally, if people know that the shops are open constantly, they will waste the time that they
might have spent doing more useful things.
45
UCLES 2012
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/12
Passage 2 The Hospital

1
The night before my babys operation I lay awake anxiously; in the morning I packed her
pitifully small requirements and we went to the hospital. She cried when they took her away.
The world had contracted to the small size of her face and her clenching, waving hands; the
poignancy was intolerable. I went away, and walked around outside the hospital for hours.
When I went back at the appointed time, the senior nurse told me that the operation had been
5
successful and that Octavia was well. I could not believe that a mere recital of facts could
thus change my fate; I stood there dumbly, wondering whether she had got the wrong name,
the wrong data, the wrong message. When I got round to speaking, I asked if I could see
her, and they said to come back in the morning, as she was still unconscious. Such was my
nervousness that I did not ask again to see her. I went home and wept copiously.
10
It was only then that I began to be preoccupied with certain details about which I had not
previously dared to think. Would there be a nurse with Octavia at all times? Would they feed
her properly? Earlier these things had seemed trivial, but now their importance swelled in
my mind. Because the threat of fatality had been removed, life seemed to have gone back to
normal. It was the strangeness more than the pain, I thought, that would afflict her, for she 15
liked nobody but me, and strangers she disliked with noisy vehemence.
When I went round in the morning, the senior nurse told me that Octavia was comfortable.
Summoning some courage, I asked to see her, but was told that was impossible. She will
settle in more happily if she doesnt see you, she said. I didnt like the sound of that word
settle; it suggested complete inactivity. Im afraid that for such small infants we dont allow 20
any visiting at all, she continued. Octavia had never been settled in her short life, and I
pictured her lying there in a state of lethargy. Furthermore, it was now imperative to see her.
Already, we had endured the longest separation of our lives, and I began to see it stretching
away, indefinitely prolonged. Why would they not let me see the child? Had the operation not
been a success?
25
The senior nurse showed me the surgeons report. Although it was nothing but a mass of
technicalities to me, I felt better; for all the senior nurse knew, I might have had enough
medical knowledge to understand the report and she would not have taken that silly risk. By
this time I could tell that she considered my behaviour to be tedious, and I left.
But I had been outside the hospital for only a few moments when I thought of my babys 30
possible distress, and I went back inside. Two junior nurses greeted me nervously, repeating
the earlier message, but I told them I had no intention of not seeing my baby. Their voices
hardened. They had that whole building behind them and I had nothing behind me except
my intention. Just then, the senior nurse returned. Well, well, youre back again, she said.
She took my arm and began to push me towards the door. At first I was unable to resist her 35
physical propulsion, but then she took hold of my elbow and started to exert greater pressure,
so I started to scream. I screamed very loudly, shutting my eyes to do it, and listened in
amazement to the deafening noise. Once I had started, I could not stop. I stood there,
motionless, screaming, whilst they shook me and yelled that I was upsetting everyone.
Through the noise I could hear things happening and I felt I had to keep doing this until they let 40
me see her. Inside my head it was red and black and very hot. After a while I heard someone
shouting above the din: For goodness sake, tell her she can see her baby. I instantly stopped
and opened my eyes. I looked at the breathless circle surrounding me: the surgeon himself
looking white with anger; the senior nurse crying; the junior nurses looking stunned. It was as
though I had opened my eyes on a whole new narrative in which I myself had taken no part. 45
But I had no interest in their story; I wished to know only my own. Of course you can see the
baby, said the surgeon, kindly. I will take you to see her myself.
UCLES 2012
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/12

* 3 4 4 5 3 8 5 2 7 1 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2012

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

For Examiners Use
2
1

Identify and write down information from the passage which describes the advantages
and disadvantages of extended shopping hours.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of extended shopping hours
People dont have to rush to the shops
Disadvantages of extended shopping hours
Decreases opportunity for family activities
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
3
(b) Summary
Now use your notes to write a summary, in which you explain the advantages and
disadvantages of extended shopping hours, as outlined in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
Extending hours for shopping is arguably a good thing because ....................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
[5]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
[Turn over
4
2
It takes a long time to buy a family meal in a supermarket.
Students can juggle part-time work with their studies.
Fathers never take part-time jobs.
[1]

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From your own knowledge or experience, give two examples of valuable recreational
excursions for families. Do not refer to specific examples in the passage in your answer.
One example is .......................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What was going to happen to the baby in the morning?

..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain fully why the babys requirements are described as pitifully small.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) After the writer was told that Octavia was well, what two aspects of her behaviour
showed her nervousness?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) What two things worried the writer about the way in which Octavia might have been
treated in hospital?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) Why do you think that earlier these things had seemed trivial?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Explain in your own words why life seemed to have gone back to normal.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
7
(a) The writer was worried about Octavias inactivity in hospital. Pick out and write down
the single word used in the paragraph which continues the idea of inactivity.
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) For what two reasons was it now imperative for the writer to see her baby?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 4
8
Explain fully the silly risk the senior nurse had taken.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 5
9
(a) Why do you think the nurses greeted the writer nervously?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) The nurses had that whole building behind them whereas the writer had nothing except
her intention. Without copying from the passage, explain in your own words what
this means.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) How did the senior nurse show that she was annoyed with the writer?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 6
For
Examiners
Use
10 The surgeon was white with anger. Why do you think he was angry?
.................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]

1.
2.
3.
4.
poignancy (line 4)
appointed (line 5)
copiously (line 10)
preoccupied (line 11)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
5.
6.
7.
8.
vehemence (line 16)

summoning (line 18)
tedious (line 29)
hardened (line 33)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/M/J/12
Page 2

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

STYLE. (See page 5 for the Style marking method.)
Question 1
(a) Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by a tick the point
already given.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
People dont have to rush to the shops

Creates (more) jobs // more people (are needed) to work (in shops) // more employees
(are needed)
Students can work (part-time) without compromising their studies / after school / outside
school hours
Parents / mothers / fathers can work (part-time) when spouse isnt at work
(Families) save on childcare // dont need (expensive / complicated) childcare
[Needs an attempt at point 4]
Shop owner earns more // more business for shop
Spreads the load for the shopping centre // no fighting for car park spaces
(People have) more time to browse / shop // (people can) browse / shop when it suits
[Key = time]
(Provides) relaxation / therapy
Shopping malls / round-the-clock outlets offer wide range / increased availability of
goods (at almost any time)
[Key = variety]
(Malls / Shopping offers / becomes) a family activity // day out / trip for families
Decreases opportunity for family activities
Children miss out on educational / recreational activities [Do not accept examples only]
Chances for family bonding are removed
[Do not accept examples only]
Children not taken to parks / playgrounds
[Do not go to parks (alone) = 0]
Lack of exercise contributes to childhood obesity
[Needs an attempt at point 15]
Employees family life is interrupted / compromised / affected
Employers have to appoint deputy in their absence
[cant always be in the shop (alone) = 0]
Employers / Shops will lose business (to open shops) if they close
People have a fixed amount to spend // Shoppers / Customers have a fixed amount of
money
People / Shoppers will waste time that they might have spent doing (more) useful things
[Accept They as agent where it is clear from context it refers to people/shoppers.
Accept passive form.]
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
If script is entirely verbatim lift give 0.

point separately if clearly made.
[15]
Page 3

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
[5]
OF ENGLISH. The table which follows on page 5 provides descriptors of the mark levels
script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use either T (text) or
O (own words). Where the candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has
substituted an odd word here and there (single word substitution), indicate these single
words with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of OW.
use cross for omission instead of carat. Indicate only serious errors. If the same error is
made more than once, e.g. omission of definite article, indicate it each time it is made. Below
follows a list of serious errors:
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
Page 4

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
pronouns, present participles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken into
Irrelevance: Put a cross in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of irrelevance.
If a script is entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and UE,
then add together and halve) and give 2 max for style. Note that such scripts are extremely
rare.
to assess OW.
ANNOTATED.
Short answers
0 20 = 0 marks for style. No assessment of OW and UE is necessary.
with a cross. Do not use ticks as sometimes these can be included in the scoris total at the
Page 5

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
USE OF ENGLISH
Mark
5


re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

transcript,
word expression.
below.

of the text.

minor errors. There is a marked ability
the reader.
isolated.
helpful.
sustained for long.
correct.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 6

Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Students can juggle part-time work with their studies.
[1]
More than one box ticked = 0

Accept other notations, e.g. X, *, shading of correct box, or T for True.
Opinion 1:
(far from promoting family life,) the shop till you drop mentality actually decreases the
opportunities for family activities
[inclusion of critics (who) argue = 0]
Opinion 2:
(Indeed, the very expression) shop till you drop suggests silly /robot-like behaviour
Opinion 3:
recreational excursions are valuable
Opinion 4:
There is nothing more depressing than (seeing) the long faces of parents pushing baby
buggies / trailing youngsters round (yet another computer) shop // shops
Accept any two of four for one mark each.

Two correct answers in one limb = 1 mark max.
Accept in any order. Accept own words versions.
[2 x 1]

Accept any reasonable examples, such as theatre trips, trips to exhibitions etc.
Accept plausible, if unknown to you, examples, e.g. family trip to Kampong Ayer.
Accept single word answers, e.g. museum, picnic etc.
art gallery / park (alone) / playground / watching television / meals together (at home) /
any shop = 0 (text)
any activity clearly in the home = 0
going on a trip (alone) = 0 This merely defines the word excursion.
[2 x 1]
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Passage 2
(a) she was going (into hospital) to have an operation
she was going into hospital (alone) = 0
[1]
(b) Look for ideas of (i) small size of baby / her clothes (ii) limited requirements when going into
hospital (iii) mothers feelings for baby // babys condition
[2]
(i) her clothes / things / stuff were small // she was small / just / only a baby / young
(ii) she wouldnt need much (in hospital)
her requirements were small = 0 (N)
(iii) the mother felt sorrow / anguish // the baby was vulnerable / pathetic / weak
pity / pitiable / pitiful etc = 0 (N) anxiety / worry = 0
She was going into hospital = 0(N) in either limb
Accept any two of three for one mark each
(c) (i) she couldnt speak / she stood (there) dumbly / was speechless
[1]
I stood there dumbly = 0. Person must be changed from 1st to 3rd.

She got round to speaking = 0(N)
Any reference to could not believe that a mere recital of facts or wondering whether
she had got the wrong name etc. = 0(N)
(ii) she did not ask again to see her baby / Octavia
She did not ask to see her (alone) = 0
She did not ask again to see her = 0 Object must be supplied.
I did not ask again to see her = 0. Person must be changed from first to third.
[1]
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(a) (i) (she worried that) Octavia / the baby / she would not have a nurse with her at all times //
that Octavia / the baby / she would be left alone // (wondered) if/whether there would be
a nurse with Octavia (or not) at all times
[1]
(ii) (she worried that) Octavia / the baby / she would not be fed properly // that the nurses /
staff would not feed Octavia / the baby properly // (wondered) if/whether the baby would
be fed properly (or not)
[1]
Lift of Would there be nurse ? or Would they feed her properly? = 0.
Any prefix of would there, even without a question mark = 0
(b) she / Octavia might not have got better // she might have died // she had much greater / lifethreatening problems // she was concerned about her survival // there had been a threat of
fatality
[1]
Any reference to having an operation (alone) = 0(N)
She had other serious / important things to worry about = 0(N)
(c) This is an OWN WORDS QUESTION. Key words are THREAT and FATALITY.
FATALITY: death / not surviving / dying / loss
[1]
THREAT: idea / possibility / likelihood / chance / danger / risk /fear
[1]
Accept fatality idea in reverse, e.g. there was no danger to Octavias / her life. = 2
The possibility that Octavia would die had been taken away. = 2
Octavia wasnt going to die. // She had survived. = 2
The chance that Octavia would become worse had been taken away. = 1
Octavia would become more ill. = 0
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(a) lethargy
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a phrase or
sentence provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted. Ignore mis-spelling.
(b) (i) She had never been separated from Octavia / her for so long (before) // she and Octavia
/ they had endured the longest separation of their lives
[1]
Needs idea of both parties
Lift of we had endured the longest separation of our lives = 0. Candidates must distil the
answer.
Reference to seeing separation stretching away, indefinitely prolonged = 0(N)
Reference to lying in a state of lethargy = 0(W)
(ii) (she thought) the operation had not been a success // she wanted proof that the
operation had been a success // she didnt know whether (or not) the operation had been
a success // she thought the nurses / doctors were hiding something from her
[1]
Lift of had the operation not been a success? = 0(N). Candidates must distil the answer.
Two correct answers in one limb = one mark max.
(i) showing the writer / her the surgeons / doctors report(s)
[1]
(ii) when she / the writer might have had medical knowledge / might have been able to
understand it // it might not have been a mass of technicalities to her / the writer // the nurse
didnt know if the writer had medical knowledge / would understand it / the report
[1]
The senior nurse showed me the surgeons report = 0(N)
The report was a mass of technicalities = 0(N)
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(a) Accept any sensible inference concerned with either writers possible actions or nurses
status e.g. They were afraid / thought / knew she might make a fuss // they were afraid /
knew / thought she was going to ask to see her baby (again) // the senior nurse was not
there (to deal with it) / they were (only) junior / inexperienced nurses
[1]
They were nervous / fearful / afraid / angry / worried she would get upset (alone) = 0 (N)
They didnt know what to say / what was going to happen = 0 (N)
They were afraid of the senior nurse / the surgeon / the writer = 0(N)
(b) This is not a conventional own words question, but look for re-casting of WHOLE BUILDING
BEHIND THEM and INTENTION for 1 mark each. Do not insist on synonym for whole, but
idea must be included.
WHOLE BUILDING BEHIND THEM : weight of authority / hospital rules / managers / other
nurses / doctors / staff // they were part of a big organisation // had the support of the (entire)
hospital
[1]
Literal meaning (alone), e.g. hospital = 0
They had support (alone) = 0
INTENTION: desire / wishes / determination / purpose / aim / want / will / thing(s) in mind
/drive
[1]
reason = 0
(c) she pushed her // she propelled her towards the door // she started to push her
She took hold of her elbow (alone) = 0 She took my arm and began to push me = 0
(Needs 3rd person)
She pushed (alone) = 0(N) She pulled = 0(W) She pushed her out = 0(W)
Reference to well youre back = 0(N)
[1]
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He thought the mother / writer should have been allowed to see her baby / should not have been
turned away by the senior nurse / nurses // should not have had to scream / make a fuss in order to
see her baby // the nurses hadnt allowed her / the writer to see her baby // the nurses had allowed /
caused the commotion / fuss
[1]
Focus must be on the behaviour of the nurses and not the writer but accept incidental references to
the writer being upset, e.g.
The nurses hadnt allowed her to see her baby and so she was screaming = 1
Because the writer had been screaming and the nurses hadnt allowed her to see her baby = 0
The nurses hadnt allowed her to see her baby and the writer had been screaming = 0
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

but neutral, e.g. boring and irritating for 'tedious'.
within this limit.
Tick only correct answers. No need to cross wrong answers but if all answers are incorrect put
one cross only in the bottom corner.
Page 12
Word

1 mark
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
0 mark
1. poignancy (line 4) sadness / emotion / pain / hurt / feeling / pathos

/ heartbreak / distress / sorrow / agony / misery
/ grief
cruelty / upset / worry /

anxiety
2. appointed (line 5)
(pre-)arranged / official / assigned / designated

/ chosen / planned / scheduled / elected /
selected / given / provided / discussed
previously / prescribed / required / (pre-)
determined / fixed / set / allocated / booked /
agreed / specified / right / stated
promised / exact
necessary / needed
actual
3. copiously
(line 10)
extensively / lots / a great deal / uncontrollably

profusely / many tears / abundantly / in floods
constantly / continuously
repeatedly / excessively /
too much
4. preoccupied
(line 11)
distracted / taken up / obsessed / hung up on /

wrapped up in // concerned (with) // taken over
/ up // thinking solely / only / engrossed /
absorbed
surrounded / filled /
overwhelmed / overcome
engulfed / busy with
thinking about
5. vehemence
(line 16)
anger / rage / fury / passion / intensity /

forcefulness / strength (of feeling)
dislike / resentment
6. summoning
(line 18)
gathering / mustering // calling up / on / upon

getting together / conjuring / dredging (up) /
rousing / raising
calling / building / bringing

gaining / demanding /
showing / collecting
7. tedious
(line 29)
boring / dull / wearisome / a drag / tiresome
nuisance / irritating /
annoying / immature / slow
repetitive / atrocious /
monotonous
8. hardened
(line 33)
(became) stern / harsh / resolute / resolved /

firm / strict / severe / unbending / unyielding /
determined / steely / uncompromising /
authoritative // toughened
loud / angry / powerful /

deep / serious / strong //
raised / stiffened
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Appendix
Markets, bazaars, corner shops, high street stores or out-of-town retail centres wherever you live,
shopping plays some part in your life, and the hours available for this common activity will vary. But
do extended shopping hours have a positive or a negative effect on society?
Extending the opening hours of shops has many advantages. People do not have to rush to the
supermarket after a hard day at the office, checking their watches to see how much time they have
to buy the evening meal for the family. If a shop is open for a restricted number of hours per week,
say forty, then one set of employees is sufficient to run it, but extended opening hours mean that
more people are needed to work in the store, thus providing an income for them. This can be
particularly beneficial for students, who are able to work for a limited period to earn some money
without compromising their studies. Families can also benefit; parents, usually mothers, can
work a few hours part-time in the local supermarket when their spouses are not at work. Not
only does this provide additional income for the family; it can also avoid the costly and sometimes
complicated childcare arrangements which will be necessary if both parents work the same hours.
Extended opening hours mean more income for the shop owner, who will not miss out on a
potential sale because the shop is shut.
Keeping shops open longer spreads the load for the shopping centre, as not all the potential
shoppers are arriving at the same time, or fighting for a limited number of parking spaces.
People have more time to browse when it suits them, and so shopping can become a form of
relaxation, giving rise to the term retail therapy. In modern times there has been a rise in the
number of covered shopping malls, which are usually open for longer than the conventional
high street stores. These malls offer under one roof a wide range of merchandise from
clothes, to food, to electronic equipment and so there is increased availability of goods in
these virtually round-the-clock outlets. Because these malls are normally modern and bright, they
offer an attractive day out for families, and make shopping a valuable family activity.
But extended shopping hours are sometimes under fire from critics who argue that, far from promoting
family life, the shop till you drop mentality actually decreases the opportunities for family
activities. Indeed, the very expression shop till you drop suggests silly, robot-like behaviour.
Children miss out on valuable recreational excursions with their parents, who take them on
endless shopping trips instead of, for example, to an art gallery. If mum is working in the supermarket
in the evening, the chances for family bonding, such as simply eating dinner together, or
watching television, has been removed. Children are not taken to run around parks and
playgrounds because they are shopping instead. There is nothing more depressing than seeing the
long faces of parents pushing buggies and trailing youngsters round yet another computer shop. The
resulting lack of exercise perhaps contributes to increasing childhood obesity in some parts of
the world.
Extended shopping hours also has a detrimental effect on employees, whose own family life is
interrupted or compromised because one or other of the family members, possibly including
teenage students, is working at any given time. Employers suffer too; they cannot always be in
the shop, and will need to appoint an employee as deputy in their absence, which might cause
problems. If they decide that such a task is impossible they may choose to close the shop, but
they will lose business to the shops which have stayed open. Moreover, as people have a fixed
amount of money to spend shopping, the idea that they spend more because shops are open
longer is a myth in any case, and so employers do not ultimately benefit.
Finally, if people know that the shops are open constantly, they will waste the time that they might
have spent doing other, more useful things.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Comprehension
Key messages
Candidates need to develop greater skills in answering those questions which require them to answer in
their own words, first learning how to identify key words in such questions. Although marks are given in such
questions for correct synonyms for key words in the text, these synonyms should be couched in sentence
form, so that writing: threat - danger, fatality death was not a satisfactory way to answer Question 6(c).
Candidates are advised that a question cannot be answered by lifting another question from the passage.
They should focus on looking beyond the literal in inferential comprehension, while at the same time drawing
their inferences from a sensible context linked to the text.
Some candidates wrote the content points in Question 1(a) in pencil, before writing over the pencil in pen.
This often led to writing which was difficult to read and is a practice which is probably best discontinued.
Some candidates included the Insert, i.e. the material containing the two passages on which the questions
were set, with their question paper booklets. This is also a practice which should be discontinued.
In Question 1(a), candidates are advised that content points cannot be scored if they are spread over two
bullets with no obvious link, or if they are put in the wrong boxes.
General Comments
Candidates were to answer questions based on two passages of around 700 words each, the first being nonfiction and the second being fiction, with answers written in a common answer booklet. Passage 1 seemed
to be more accessible than Passage 1, as Passage 2 required understanding of some quite difficult implied
meanings.
themselves to be familiar with the types of questions likely to be asked. In general they coped well with the
layout of the answer booklets, which in turn seemed to provide adequate space for what they wanted to
write.
Both passages, the first entitled Shopping and the second entitled The Hospital, seemed to engage the
interest of the candidates and to stretch and discriminate amongst them, and this was reflected in a wide
range of scores. The first passage explored the candidates ability to read for ideas and the second tested
their reading for meaning. 20 marks were available for the summary question, with 15 of these marks being
awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of Shopping and
5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in their own words. Further
questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas, in this case to distinguish true statements from false
ones, to distinguish fact from opinion, and to respond to the text by drawing on their own knowledge and
experience.
The second passage, The Hospital tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
The format of the summary question, both Question 1(a) and Question 1(b), largely prevented candidates
from writing to excess, copying verbatim at length or producing both fair and rough copies. There was very
little irrelevance noted or evidence of candidates diverging from the rubric.
In Question 1(b), In Question 1(b), where candidates were to write up their note form content points in
formal, continuous prose, there were some commendable results among those who made a sustained

attempt to use their own words and original structures. Others needed to include more originality of
expression in order to achieve high marks. Both spelling and punctuation were good. The overall standard
of written English was impressive. Candidates can improve on the incorrect use of prepositions; the
problem of noun-verb agreement, as in shopping become a form of relaxation; the omission of definite or
indefinite articles, even by the best candidates, as in parents can work in supermarket or it is waste of time,
or intrusive use of the article where none was required; agreement between the article and noun; the use of
the singular where a plural was required, as in deputy might cause problem, family member work which
creates problem.
Comments on specific questions: Section 1
Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of extended shopping hours. The
summary had to be based on all but the first, brief and introductory paragraph of the text, and candidates
were to write their answers in note form, where they were free to use either the words of the text or their own
words. One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration, although these
given points were not rewarded with a mark. Where marks were denied it was usually because key words
were missing. Many responses were able to reach the maximum 15 marks but the exercise was fully
discriminating as the whole range of marks could be found.
Excluding the provided content points, which were not rewarded with marks, there were 21 content points, of
which candidates could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points, carrying one mark each.
Most candidates expressed the points either in note form or in short sentences; few responses presented
long, verbatim copies of the text for each content point, understanding that there is little evidence to suggest
that such a strategy yields more marks. Candidates were not instructed to use bullet points, although the
sample points given to assist them used bullets; however, most candidates used bullet points, seeming to
realise that it would help them to focus more clearly on identifying content points if they were presented
under bullets.
Paragraphs 2 and 3 referred to the advantages of extended shopping hours, and there were 10 points
(excluding the first, which was given) which the candidates could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 5
content points, (excluding the provided first point) outlining advantages of extended shopping hours. It
creates more jobs, students can work without compromising their studies, and parents can work when their
spouse is not working. It was not enough to refer to students or parents working, as they could work anyway
even without extended hours. The points were that students could combine work with study, and parents
could take turns at being out at work. This last point led into the next one, namely that childcare
arrangement could be avoided if one or other of the parents was at home because they worked at different
times; because of its link with the idea of one parent working when the other was at home, the mark could
not be scored without at least an attempt at that point. Finally, the paragraph made the point that shop
owners made more money if their shop was open for longer, and most candidates made this point.
In Paragraph 3, another 5 points were available: the load is spread for the shopping centres, or people do
not fight for parking spaces, people have more time to browse and shopping is relaxing or therapeutic.
Malls, or round-the-clock shopping outlets, offer a wide range of goods, and malls are also a family day out.
There was much success here, except with the point about shopping malls offering a wide range of goods;
often the agent was missing and the mark could not be awarded.
Candidates found the second section of the rubric challenging. It asked for the reasons for the
disadvantages of extended shopping hours, and there were 9 available content points, (excluding the first,
which was given.) In Paragraph 4, candidates could make 4 points (excluding the provided first point):
children miss out on recreational or educational excursions, family bonding is removed or decreased,
children are not taken to parks or playgrounds, and this results in increased childhood obesity. As with the
dependence of the point about avoiding childcare arrangements on an attempt at the point about one parent
working while the other is not working, so too there was a dependency of the point about children lacking
exercise and becoming obese on the failure of their parents to take them to parks.
In Paragraph 5, there were a further 5 disadvantages of extended shopping hours. Employees family life is
interrupted, employers have to appoint a deputy because they cannot be in the shop all the time, and if they
close the shop they will lose business. Many responses confused the agents employees and employers
or missed out the agent altogether. The final 2 points were that people have a fixed amount of money to
spend, and that people waste time shopping when they could have been doing more useful things. There
was some confusion over agent or missing agents in these points.

There was a small number of candidates who were awarded maximum points and a large number scoring 9
marks and above. Candidates are advised to avoid reproducing the given content points. Although points
than in continuous prose, these points nevertheless need to be fully made with, as indicated above,
appropriate agents.
advantages and disadvantages of extended shopping hours. They were asked to write no more than 160
words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer booklet.
It appears that the task set in Question 1(a) of reading to seek out the most relevant information does prove
helpful to candidates when they set about writing their summaries in Question 1(b). Instances of
irrelevances (such as the checking of watches or the employees required for restricted hours) were few.
Examples of responses which strayed from the details of the original text into comments of their own on the
topic occasionally occurred.
was always accurate, containing original complex structures. The general use of own words was noticeable,
with, many candidates being innovative or original in their use of English; many others selected from, edited
and restructured the text well, while others moved blocks of text around rather than re-wording detail, or
copied from the text. There were occasional examples where attempts at use of own words proved unwise
in that the over-ambitious vocabulary did not entirely match the meaning of the original, as in sumptuous
childcare arrangements and dashing shopping malls.
Encouragingly, nearly all candidates attempted the question and adhered to the rubric. Candidates are
advised that very short answers cannot justify a high mark, since they cannot demonstrate a sustained use
of own words or completely accurate use of English; for that reason, short answers are penalised under
Style, as well as being self-penalising.
Although there is a new syllabus, the method of assessment for this task remains unchanged. Furthermore,
Examiners were not checking the number of content points in Question 1(a) against the number produced in
Question 1(b). But if many fewer points were made in Question 1(b) than in Question 1(a), this would be
reflected in the language mark. Writing only, for example, 6 content points would be unlikely to be described
as sustained use of own words, whereas, conversely, writing 15 content points might be sustained use of
own words, though not necessarily. The best responses came from candidates who were competent and
confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original complex sentence,
were able to gain many, or full, marks for style.
Questions 2, Question 3 and Question 4 were the questions testing the new assessment objective in the
revised syllabus, Assessment Objective 4, Reading for Ideas, where candidates are being tested on their
ability to respond to the ideas of the whole text or a section of it. This section in general was well done.
Question 2 asked candidates to tick the box against the one correct statement based on information given in
Paragraph 2; most candidates scored the available mark here.
Question 3 asked for two opinions from paragraph 4, and there were four to choose from: the shop till you
drop mentality actually decreases the opportunities for family activities, the shop till you drop mentality
suggests silly or robot-like behaviour, recreational excursions are valuable, and there is nothing more
depressing than seeing the long faces of parents pushing children round shops.. Candidates had to focus
on the trigger words which heralded the idea of subjectivity rather than objectivity, and these words were
actually, silly, robot like, valuable and depressing. Candidates were free to use their own words
equivalent, and to present their answers in either order. Candidates were not required to give their own
views or to comment on the opinions.
In Question 4 candidates were to give two examples of recreational excursions, from their own knowledge
or experience, and there were very many acceptable and imaginative responses here, ranging from trips to
museums, trips to historical sites (often with an example provided) visiting grandparents, and going out to
restaurants. Others gave examples from the text: trip to an art gallery, to a playground, or to a park or
overlooked the fact that excursions involve going out of the home, and offered answers such as watching
television together or having dinner together. Such responses were not credited with the mark.

Comments on specific questions:
Section 2
Most candidates seemed to find this text more challenging than the non-narrative Passage 1. There were
some general comprehension problems here, centring around the gender of the writer and/or the baby, and
the idea that the baby was to be born in the morning, a possible confusion between poignant and
pregnant. The fact that Octavia was the babys name was not always understood.
Question 5(a) asked what was going to happen to the baby in the morning, and was designed to be a
relatively accessible opening question on the second passage; it turned out to be thus, as the vast majority
wrote, correctly, that she was going to have an operation.
In Question 5(b), two marks were available for any two of three correct responses. Focusing on small gave
the answer that the baby, or her clothes or belongings, or even things, were small, focusing on
requirements gave the answer that she did not need much, while focusing on pitifully gave the answer
either that the mother felt sympathy for her baby or that the baby was vulnerable. Most candidates scored
the first of these three points. There was a fair degree of success with the second option. Few responses
referred to the idea based round pitifully.
Question 5(c) asked for the two ways in which the writers behaviour showed her nervousness, the answers
being that she was speechless, or could not speak and that she did not ask to see the baby again. Additions
such as she could not believe that a mere recital of facts and she went home and wept copiously were
regarded as neutral extensions and did not negate the mark, which meant that candidates scored well.
However, the object had to be supplied in the second limb, so that she did not ask again to see her rather
than she did not ask again to see the baby were denied the mark, as were answers which did not make the
transition from first person to third person, that is I in the text to she in the answer.
Question 6(a) asked for the two things which worried the writer about the way the baby may have been
treated in hospital. The answers lay in distilling the two questions Would there be a nurse with Octavia at all
times? and Would they feed her properly? As questions cannot be answered by other questions,
candidates were required to convert these questions into statements such as a nurse would not be Octavia
at all times and Octavia would not be fed properly. More practice with this type of conversion is needed as
many candidates found this challenging
Question 6(b), was the first of three inferential questions on the paper, asking why earlier concerns seemed
now trivial. Marks were given here to candidates who appreciated the serious concerns of the writer before
the operation, namely that she was worried that baby might die. A popular answer was that she had been
worried about the operation; this was considered to be too imprecise an answer and therefore did not score
the available mark. Many responses gave a definition of trivial, writing that the things seemed unimportant,
or she had not been worried before; such answers failed to address the question.
Question 6(c) was the first of the questions where candidates had to answer in their own words, after first
inferring that life had gone back to normal because the threat of fatality had been removed. Acceptable
synonyms for threat were risk, danger or possibility; the mark could also be awarded for simple words or
constructions like could or might have. Acceptable synonyms for fatality were death, loss and not
surviving. Conversely, the mark could be awarded for the fatality idea in reverse, so that there was no
danger to her life was sufficient to score both available marks. Many responses offered a too general
answer about Octavia being better now.
Question 7(a) asked candidates to find a single word in the paragraph which continued the idea of
inactivity, the answer being lethargy. Settle was a popular incorrect answer here, incorrect because it is
possible to be settled without being inactive, and because the question wording continues suggest a
synonym later in the paragraph and not earlier. In this type of quotation question, candidates should work on
linking the key word in the question, in this case inactivity, with all the key vocabulary in the area of the
question, trying to make an appropriate match.
Question 7(b was a literal comprehension question in which candidates tended to score at least one of the
available marks. The question asked for the two reasons why it was imperative for the writer to see her
baby, the first being that they had endured the longest separation of their lives, and the second being that
the writer thought the operation had not been a success. Candidates were free, but not obliged, to use their
own words, although most relied on the text. Where the marks were not awarded, it tended to be because

the question form (Had the operation not been a success?) had been used, or because reference to both the
mother and the baby had not been used, so that she had endured the longest separation was not enough,
unless from the baby was added, or the pronoun they was used. It was also necessary to re-cast the text
in third person, by changing it from first person, and so verbatim lifting did not work here.
In Question 8, many candidates scored the first available mark, but the second part of the answer was a
discriminating one. Showing the writer the surgeons report was the first part of the nurses silly mistake;
very many responses made this point, and where they did not it tended to be because they wrote that she
showed the report without the qualification that it was the surgeons, or a medical one. In order to score the
second mark, candidates had to infer that it was silly to show this report to the writer because she might have
understood it, or because she did not know whether or not she would understand it, or because she might
have had medical knowledge. Candidates found making this inference challenging and wrote that the writer
did understand the report, or that she had medical knowledge; this was the opposite of the correct answer
and therefore did not score the mark.
Question 9(a) was another inferential question which many candidates found challenging. The sensible
inference here had to focus either on the behaviour, actual or anticipated, of the writer, or on the status of the
nurses. Acceptable answers focusing on the writers behaviour were that they thought the writer would ask
to see her baby, or that she would make a fuss; a popular wrong answer was that the writer told them she
had no intention of not seeing her baby; this was unacceptable because the sequence of events in the text
denied the sense of this answer. Acceptable answers focusing on the status of the nurse were that they
were only junior nurses, or that they were inexperienced, or that the senior nurse was not there to deal with
it. There were a lot of generalised references to fear which could not be awarded the mark. There were
those who suggested that the nurses were new not the same as junior, necessarily - and others who
referred to the state of mind rather than the possible actions of the writer.
Question 9(b) was the second of the questions on the Paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words, although this was not a conventional own words question requiring the re-casting of two key
words from the text. For the first available mark, candidates had to re-cast the general idea of whole
building behind them; this could be done in a variety of ways, e.g. they had the support of the staff, or the
doctors, or the other nurses, or even the hospital, or the doctors were, or the weight of authority was, on
their side. For the second available mark, candidates had to re-cast intention, with a synonym such as
desire, wish, determination or purpose. Candidates are advised to ensure that in own words questions
they do not copy key words directly from the text.
Question 10, where candidates had to infer the reason why the surgeon was white with anger turned out to
be, as intended, a discriminating question which only the best candidates answered correctly. The key was
that the surgeons anger was directed at the nurses and not at the writer, and any answer which suggested
that the writer was the focus of his anger was not awarded the mark. Acceptable answers were that he was
angry because the nurses had not allowed the writer to see her baby, or that she should have been allowed
to see her baby, or that he was angry because the nurses, or the senior nurse, had allowed the commotion
to occur. The support for this as the correct inference lay in understanding that when he told the writer Of
course you can see the baby he was suggesting that she had been badly treated. Responses which
referred to the noise made by the writer were not awarded the mark.
understanding in context, not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words from a choice of eight. Most
candidates who attempted appointed scored the mark for synonyms such as arranged, given or decided;
in fact there were more than twenty acceptable synonyms here. A reasonable degree of success was
gained by candidates who correctly offered gathering for summoning and became stern, or became
harsh, or became tough for hardened, although there were many popular wrong answers too, such as
became loud or became angry or became serious. Words less frequently chosen were poignancy,
where candidates scored a mark for writing pain or sadness, and copiously, where the mark could be
scored for simple synonyms such as a lot or extensively, although popular wrong answers tended to be
constantly or continuously. Another word less frequently chosen was preoccupied, where correct
synonyms were distracted, obsessed and taken up. Preoccupied was a fairly popular choice but seldom
correct, with busy a frequent wrong answer Very few candidates attempted vehemence, meaning anger
or rage, or tedious, meaning boring or tiresome. Because understanding only is being tested in the
vocabulary question, grammatical form was not insisted upon. Candidates can improve their performance by
ensuring that they select five words only and explain the meanings of those words. Only one synonym
should be offered as where more than one is given, only the first will be considered.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/21
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
2
Passage 1
Animals in Captivity
1
Throughout history, human beings have always had a close relationship with animals and
other creatures with which we share the planet. One aspect of this relationship which
provokes discussion is the issue of keeping animals in captivity.
There are certainly advantages to be gained by animals which are kept in captivity. Many
zoos and safari parks employ veterinary surgeons to ensure that necessary medical attention
is always available for the animals. In addition, nutrition experts are employed, so the animals
have a ready supply of food appropriate to their needs. All of this means that life expectancy,
for some creatures at least, is longer in captivity than in the wild; for example, wild squirrels
live for an average of three years, whereas their captive counterparts live to be twelve years
old. Nowadays, wildlife habitats are being encroached upon or destroyed at incredible rates;
zoos and safari parks offer safe environments for animals which might otherwise have
nowhere to live. Some rare species exist only in zoos because they have become extinct in
the wild. Animals in captivity enable us to see common links between ourselves and some
other species. Recently in one safari park, for example, the chimpanzee keepers discovered,
through hidden cameras, striking similarities between chimps responses to the death of a
loved one and those of humans. When chimp Pansy was dying, her daughter Rosie and her
companions stayed by her, apparently comforting her. Such astonishing research could only
have been done with captive animals, and could influence future approaches to working with
apes.
10
15
People benefit from animals being kept in captivity; they learn about the world of nature. It is
20
delightful to see the wonder on a young childs face as he gazes at an elephant or tiger for
the first time. Only the rich can afford to travel to see animals in their natural habitat, whereas
in zoos, for example, the majority of people can aff ord to see them in close proximity. Thus,
zoos encourage people to care for our planet and to see that they have a shared responsibility
for its wellbeing. A day out to a zoo or safari park is a form of relaxation and entertainment,
25
particularly when these places incorporate restaurants and children s play parks. Such a
trip is an excellent family day out, and helps to br ing family members closer by providing an
opportunity for them to enjoy each others company.
But zoos and saf ari parks have their critics too, and most people sit on the fence in this
debate. Although more enlightened zoos attempt to emulate natural environments rather
than using cages, the animals are still kept in relatively small spaces. They are deprived of
their natural habitat, whether it is jungle, open land or seas. In addition, their natural instincts
are curbed; it is all very well that a lion is given a few kilos of meat, but that is at odds with our
image of it stalking its prey on the African plains. Often animals in captivity experience what
is to them an unnatural climate; it is downright stupid to have polar bears and tigers living at
identical temperatures. Although some animals are born in captivity, zoos and safari parks
sometimes obtain animals from the wild population, which reduces the number of breeding
animals in the wild and endangers their species . Animals in captivity often fail to breed. An
example of this is the panda; attempts to get them to breed in captivity have proved to be
notoriously difficult. Baby pandas are undeniably cute, and when occasionally one is born in
captivity, it is a cause for global celebration.
Not all animals live longer in z oos than they would in the wild: it is unusual for an elephant
in captivity to live beyond the age of twenty, whereas its counter part in the wild has a life
expectancy of around forty years. There is evidence to suggest that elephants and other
large creatures become stressed when kept in captivity. Although zoos and safari parks
enable ordinary people to investigate wild animals for themselves, there are other ways in
which this can happen, such as through books, films or the internet. Critics of zoos and safari
parks argue that keeping animals in captivity is no more than cruelty and exploitation.
UCLES 2012
1123/21/INSERT/O/N/12
30
35
40
45
3
Passage 2
Akira
Ling had been with Akiras family for a long time.
Content removed due to copyright restrictions.
I could see profound gratitude in Akiras face. Tomorrow afternoon. Three oclock, I said.
UCLES 2012
1123/21/INSERT/O/N/12

* 2 3 9 1 1 6 9 4 9 1 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

For Examiners Use
This document consists of 7 printed pages, 1 blank page and 1 Insert.
2
1
(a) Notes [15 Marks]

Identify and write down the information from the passage which describes the
advantages and disadvantages of keeping animals in captivity.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of keeping animals in captivity
Veterinary surgeons give medical attention / medicines
Disadvantages of keeping animals in captivity
Animals are kept in small spaces
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
For
Examiners
Use
3
Now use your notes to write a summary of the advantages and disadvantages of
keeping animals in captivity, as outlined in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
Animals kept either in zoos or safari parks benefit because .............................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
[Turn over
4
2

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From your own knowledge or experience, give two advantages of keeping animals in
captivity, OR two disadvantages, OR one advantage and one disadvantage. Do not refer to
specific examples from the passage in your answer.
One advantage / disadvantage is .............................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
One advantage / disadvantage is .............................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Based on your reading of the whole passage, which of the following statements is correct?
Tick the box you have chosen.
Society in general is against keeping animals in captivity.
Society in general is undecided about keeping animals in captivity.
Society in general is in favour of keeping animals in captivity.
[1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What was the relationship between Akira and Ling?

..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What one aspect of the behaviour of other servants in the neighbourhood might have
made them popular with children?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) What is it about Akiras attitude to Ling which puzzled the writer? Answer in your own
words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) Before he grew older, how did Akira behave in the presence of Ling?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain in your own words what Akira recited in a curious monotone about Ling to the
writer.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 3
7
(a) Explain in no more than twelve words what, according to Akira, his familys darkest
secret was.
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Akira referred to his familys darkest secret. Pick out and write down the single word
used elsewhere in the paragraph which is linked to this idea of secrecy.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 4
8
(a) In what two ways did Akira show his nervousness when he went near Lings room?
(i) .....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(ii) .....................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ [2]
(b) What exactly was the result of Akiras goading and bullying?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 5
9
Explain fully the reason for Akiras triumphant flourish of his hand.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [2]
From paragraph 6
10 (a) For what two reasons did the writer not ridicule Akiras attempt to preserve a fantasy?
(i) .....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(ii) .....................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ [2]
(b) What effect does the word hissed have which would not be achieved by the word said?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 7
For
Examiners
Use
11 (a) If Akiras difficulty had not arisen, how would he have behaved?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What were the wider repercussions of the boys theft?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
1.
2.
3.
4.
listlessly (line 2)
embarrassed (line 8)
curious (line 12)
glanced (line 14)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
5.
6.
7.
8.
obsession (line 21)

resolve (line 28)
exaggerated (line 39)
evaporated (line 41)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2012
1123/21/O/N/12
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

STYLE (See page 5 for the Style marking method).
Passage 1
1
(a) Notes
[15]
Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form. Points 1 and 13 are already
given
1.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Veterinary surgeons give medical attention / medicines

Nutrition experts ensure / give (ready supply of) food
Life expectancy is longer (than in the wild)
Offers safe environments / safety / protection
Prevents extinction of (some) rare species / some (rare) species exist only in zoos
[Rare or extinct species exist only in zoos = 0]
(Enable us / people to) see / learn about the links between humans and animals /
ourselves and other species
(Could) influence future work with apes / animals // allows research into apes / animals
(People / children) learn about (the world of) nature
Ordinary / majority of people / not just rich people (can afford to) see animals // cheaper
to see animals in zoos than in their natural habitat / in the wild
Encourages people to care / raises awareness about caring / see they have
responsibility for the planet
[Caring for animals (alone) = 0]
(Provide) relaxation / entertainment
Brings families closer / together // family day out
[day out = 0]
Animals are kept in small spaces
Deprived of their natural habitat
Natural instincts are curbed
(Live in an) unnatural climate / weather/ temperature // deprived of natural climate, etc.
Reduces (number of) breeding (animals) in the wild
[being taken from the wild endangers the species = 0]
(Animals often) fail to breed (in captivity) // attempts to get them (notoriously) difficult
Dont (all) live as long // elephants / large animals dont live as long
Elephants / large animals (become) stressed
Cruelty / exploitation (of keeping animals in captivity)
Page 3
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

OF ENGLISH. The table which follows provides descriptors of the mark levels assigned
Under OWN WORDS, key pointers are: sustained, noticeable, recognisable but
limited, wholesale copying and complete transcript. The difference between
wholesale copying and complete transcript is that, whereas in wholesale copying there
is nothing / little that is original, the copying has been selective and directed at the
question, but with a complete transcript the candidate has started copying and
continued writing with little sense of a link to the question. Complete transcripts are
rare.
Under USE OF ENGLISH, take into consideration the accuracy of the writing, and the
ability to use original complex sentence structures.
Add the OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two to achieve
the summary mark. Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Mis-spellings of a simple, basic words, e.g. were/ where // to/ too/ their/ there.
Breakdown of sense.
Irrelevance
If script is entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and UE,
rare.
Wrong or invented material
Put a cross in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of wrong or invented material.
Short answers
Page 4
Mark Scheme
2035 = 1 mark max for style

3650 = 2 marks max for style
020 = 0 marks for style.
No assessment of OW and UE is necessary.
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
Mark
5
USE OF ENGLISH

re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.
The expression may not always
be secure, but the attempt to
Wholesale copying of large

areas of the text, but not a
complete transcript.
word expression.
below.

of the text.

to the reader.
isolated.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
and complexity, they will generally
be lifted from the text.
attempted.
frequent. [8+ errors as a guide]
correct.
errors, sometimes impeding
reading.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

2
Opinion 1
It is (downright) stupid to have polar bears and tigers living at identical temperatures
[1]
Opinion 2
Baby pandas (are undeniably) cute
[1]
EXCESS denies, i.e. run on into reference to panda being born in captivity
Accept in any order. Accept own words versions.
3
Advantages
Accept any reasonable examples, even if you do not judge it to be an advantage, such as
protecting animals from predators, enabling school trips to zoos
[1]
Disadvantages
Accept any reasonable examples, even if you do not judge it to be a disadvantage, such as
animals being lonely, expense etc.
[1]

4
Society in general is undecided about keeping animals in captivity.
[1]
Passage 2
5
(a) (Ling / he was) Akiras familys servant // Ling was his servant // Ling worked for Akiras
family
[1]
A servant (alone) = 0. Some distilling is required.

Lift of Ling had been with Akiras family for a long time = 0(N)
Any reference to blood relationship, e.g. uncle = 0(W)
(b) (they) smiled / smiling (at children) // smile
They / he rarely smiled at children = 0
Any reference to being old / scowling / shouting = 0(W)
[1]
Page 7
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(c) This is an OWN WORDS question.

Key words are CONSTERNATION and VICINITY.
CONSTERNATION: fear / agitation / upset / dismay / disquiet / dread / uneasiness /
discomfort / anxiety / paranoia
[1]
anger / concern / worry = 0

VICINITY: near (him) / close to (him) / approached / passed by / came (up) to him // was
around / in his presence
[1]
Area / territory = 0
When he appeared / saw him = 0
Came / came in / came to his room = 0
Accept pronouns but if correct synonyms are attached to the wrong names, award 1 mark
max.
6
(a) he froze / was petrified / stood still / rigid // he was rooted to the spot / didnt move
[1]
was afraid = 0(N)

was cold / chilled = 0(W)
Any reference to need to justify his fear = 0(W)
(b) This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are APPALLING and REVELATIONS
APPALLING: horrifying / horrific / horrible / dreadful / shocking / disturbing / disgusting /
creepy / terrible // terrifying // very frightening // very scary
[1]
bad / worrying / amazing / surprising / intolerable = 0

REVELATIONS: disclosures / secrets // things he found out / discovered
Surprising / hidden / unknown facts / news / things / information
[1]
sights / showing / things he knew = 0

7
(a) (i) Ling / The(ir) servant
[1]
The family / they / he = 0

(ii) and turned severed / amputated / cut off hands into spiders
[1]
NB Count words, and mark first 12 words only (do not count the repetition of stem of
question).
(b) conspiratorially
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept use of the correct word in a phrase or
[1]
Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

8
(a) (i) he pushed / forced / made himself
[1]
Lift of he pushed himself towards that awful room = 1.

Excess denies, including I would stand and watch as
(ii) he perspired / sweated // his face / he was shining / shone with perspiration
[1]
Lift of I can still see him....perspiration = 0. Candidates must distil the answer.
Simply changing the pronouns will not work.
Reference to grinning / glancing back = 0 (N) if offered as extension to correct answer.
However, if offered as a discrete answer = 0 (W).
NB If a candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award 1 mark max. However, if
candidate has given two correct answers in one limb and has no response in the other
limb, award 2 marks. Such answers will be rare.
(b) The writer also went towards Lings / the room / along the corridor
The writer followed / accompanied Akira / him (sic) to / towards Lings / the room / along the
corridor
[1]
Insist on correct agent, i.e. the writer as subject, but accept him as object, as it is implied in
the question
Lift of Would I ever .....bullying? = 0. Answer must be distilled.
Writer walked up to the door = 0 (N)
Writer followed him into Lings room = 0(W)
9
Look for the ideas of (a) being proved correct / relief at not looking ridiculous and (b) he found the
potion
(a) (he was pleased / relieved that) he wouldnt look silly / ridiculous (because the room had no
sinister / bad / evil features) // he had been proved correct
[1]
(b) he had found / seen / was pointing at the (magic) potion / a sinister / suspicious feature /
something bad / evil about the room
Lift of he indicated a small bottle on a table beside Lings bed = 0
But lift of he indicated........spiders! = 1
[1]
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

10 (a) (i) a residue / trace / bit of fear // left-over fear // he still felt fear / afraid // he hadnt forgotten
his fear
[1]
Lift of A residue of fear ..........anything = 0.
But if it is re-shaped with correct pronouns, award the mark, i.e. A residue of fear
prevented him from saying anything.
(ii) he was worried / thought that they / he would be discovered / found / seen (in the room
by an adult)
[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of I was anxious about..........an adult = 0, unless pronouns are
re-shaped.
Lift of I was anxious about a much more likely eventuality = 0
NB If a candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award 1 mark max. However, if
candidate has given two correct answers in one limb and has no response in the other
limb, award 2 marks. Such answers will be rare.
(b) Look for idea of fear, secrecy or necessity, e.g. It shows that Akira was scared / terrified /
anxious / frantic / tense // It shows fear / agitation / nervousness OR Akira didnt want anyone
to hear him // he / they had to be quiet OR They needed / had to get out // it was urgent /
necessary / essential (to go)
[1]
Low tone / voice // whispering = 0 The hiss was quiet / like a snake = 0
Idea of speed (alone) = 0
Do not insist on agent but if used must be used correctly.
11 (a) he would have talked / boasted / chatted about their achievement / going into Lings room /
removing the potion / bottle / something from Lings room // he wouldnt have been reluctant
/ unwilling to talk about their achievement etc
[1]
Lift of why else ......achievement? = 0(N)
(b) (they / Akira / someone would have to) put the potion / bottle back (in Lings room) // they
would have to go into Lings room again / a second time / back into Lings room // put the
room / everything / things back as they had found it / them
[1]
Any reference to bravado = 0(N) Reference to Ling discovering the theft = 0(N)
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
1 mark
for each
correct
meaning
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 listlessly (line 2)
lethargically / without energy / languidly /

unenthusiastically
aimlessly
2 embarrassed
(line 8)
ashamed / awkward / mortified / selfconscious / discomfited / humiliated /
disgraced
3 curious (line 12)
odd / strange / unusual / queer / weird /

bizarre
inquisitive /wanting to
know
4 glanced (line 14)
looked quickly / in passing / fleetingly/

cursorily // glimpsed / cast an eye /
peeked / a slight look / a quick view
peeped / looked
through (quickly) /
looked (in) for a short
time
5 obsession (line
21)
constant / persistent thought / desire /

interest // always thinking about / fixation
/ hang-up / bee in his bonnet / infatuation
/ passion / addiction / (deep) fascination /
craving / cant get enough of something
wanting to do
something a lot / habit
/ uncontrollable desire
6 resolve (line 28)
determination / courage / bravery /

tenacity / willpower / guts / firmness /
nerve / steadfastness / doggedness /
fortitude
motivation / confidence
/ strength
7 exaggerated (line
39)
elaborate / overdone / extravagant /

excessive / inflated / overblown / overstated / over the top / over-reacted /
theatrical / dramatic / more than required
hyped up / extreme /
extra / great / too much
/ more than normal /
emphasised
8 evaporated (line
41)
disappeared / vanished / dissolved //

trickled /faded / melted away / dwindled
away / to nothing // was gone / lost //
dried up
reduced / dispersed /
left / went / ended /
finished
Page 11
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Additional information
comma or the word or indicates a second attempt.
For two answers joined by and, allow one correct answer if the other answer is not wholly wrong
but neutral, e.g. lethargically and aimlessly for listlessly.
within this limit.
Page 12
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Appendix
There are certainly advantages to be gained by animals which are kept in captivity. Many zoos and
safari parks employ veterinary surgeons to ensure that necessary medical attention is always
available for the animals. In addition, nutrition experts are employed, so the animals have a ready
supply of food appropriate to their needs. All of this means that life expectancy, for some
creatures at least, is longer in captivity than in the wild; for example, wild squirrels live for an
average of three years, whereas their captive counterparts live to be twelve years old. Nowadays,
wildlife habitats are being encroached upon or destroyed at incredible rates; zoos and safari parks
offer safe environments for animals which might otherwise have nowhere to live. Some rare
species exist only in zoos because they have become extinct in the wild. Animals in captivity
enable us to common links between ourselves and some other species. Recently in one safari
park, for example, the chimpanzee keepers discovered, through hidden cameras, striking similarities
between chimps responses to the death of a loved one and that of humans. When chimp Pansy was
dying, her daughter Rosie and her companions stayed by her, apparently comforting her. Such
astonishing research could only have been done with captive animals, and could influence future
approaches to working with apes.
People benefit from animals being kept in captivity; they learn about the world of nature. It is
delightful to see the wonder on a young childs face as he gazes at an elephant or tiger for the first
time. Only the rich can afford to travel to see animals in their natural habitat, whereas in zoos, for
example, ordinary people can afford to see them in close proximity. Thus, zoos encourage people
to care for our planet and to see that they have a shared responsibility for its wellbeing. A day out to
a zoo or safari park is a form of relaxation and entertainment, particularly when these places
incorporate restaurants and childrens play parks. Such a trip is an excellent family day out, and helps
to bring family members closer by providing an opportunity for them to enjoy each others company.
But zoos and safari parks have their critics too, and most people sit on the fence in this debate.
Although more enlightened zoos attempt to emulate natural environments rather than using cages,
the animals are still kept in relatively small spaces. They are deprived of their natural habitat,
whether it is jungle, open land or seas. In addition, their natural instincts are curbed; it is all very
well that a lion is given a few kilos of meat, but that is at odds with our image of it stalking its prey on
the African plains. Often animals in captivity experience what is to them an unnatural climate; it is
downright stupid to have polar bears and tigers living at identical temperatures. Although some
animals are born in captivity, zoos and safari parks sometimes obtain animals from the wild
population, which reduces the number of breeding animals in the wild and endangers their
species. Animals in captivity often fail to breed. An example of this is the panda; attempts to get them
to breed in captivity have proved to be notoriously difficult. Baby pandas are undeniably cute, and
when occasionally one is born in captivity, it is a cause for global celebration.
Not all animals live longer in zoos than they would in the wild: it is unusual for an elephant in
captivity to live beyond the age of twenty, whereas its counterpart in the wild has a life expectancy of
around forty years. There is evidence to suggest that elephants and other large creatures become
stressed when kept in captivity. Although zoos and safari parks enable ordinary people to investigate
wild animals for themselves, there are other ways in which this can happen, like books, films or the
internet. Critics of zoos and safari parks argue that keeping animals in captivity is no more than
cruelty and exploitation.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Comprehension
Key messages
In those questions which require candidates to answer in their own words, many showed an ability to
identify the key words. There remains a need for them to develop greater skills in substituting these
key words with their own.
They should learn how to provide answers which require some processing or distillation of the text;
that is, answers which are extracted or derived from the ideas in the text. To deal with a passage
written as a first person narrative, candidates should practise answering questions in the third person
and understand that a question cannot be answered by lifting another question from the passage.
They should focus on looking beyond the literal in inferential questions, while always drawing their
For the summary, Question 1, candidates should practise differentiation between note style and
continuous writing, as suggested by the instructions; this will enable them to focus on and fulfil the
requirement of each rubric in the most efficient way.
Some of those questions which test the candidates ability to respond to the ideas of the text require
that they learn to differentiate between subjective observations and those which are objectively
verifiable.
Questions sometimes include emboldened words, as a guide for candidates. They should learn to
recognise the importance of such emphasis to a successful answer.
General comments
Most candidates attempted all the questions and completed the paper without any issue with time. In
Questions 1(a) and 1(b) the majority responded neatly and carefully, within the guiding parameters of the
answer booklet and are to be commended for their careful presentation. A minority continued answers
outside these parameters, or used separate sheets in addition to the booklets; this last can result in parts of
a response not being seen by the Examiner.
The candidates answered questions on two passages, the first being non-fiction and the second being
fiction. The variety of subject matter provided the opportunity for questions which stretched and
discriminated amongst candidates, allowing the best responses to demonstrate an ability to deal with the
familiar as well as the unfamiliar. This was reflected in a wide range of marks.
The first passage, Animals in Captivity, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas; the second, Akira,
tested their reading for meaning. Twenty marks were available for the summary question, with 15 of these
marks being awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of
Animals in Captivity and 5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in their
own words. Further questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas; in this case to distinguish fact from
opinion and a true statement from false ones. There was also an opportunity to respond to the text by
drawing on their own knowledge and experience.
The second passage, Akira, tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
understanding of vocabulary, use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft. The remaining 25
marks for the paper could be gained here.

The answer booklets writing-frame format for the summary question, both Question 1(a) and Question
was noted, nor much evidence of candidates diverging from the rubric.
In Question 1(a) a bullet point format was used in the main, following the style of the first (given) point in
each answer box and the result was a clear list of selected ideas. Only very few lost marks because they put
content points in the wrong boxes; most candidates carefully followed the guidance provided in the headings,
and separated clearly the advantages and disadvantages of keeping animals in captivity.
In Question 1(b), originality of expression was not always in evidence when writing up note form content
points in formal, continuous prose. However, among those who made a sustained attempt to use their own
words and original structures, there were some commendable results. Many candidates attempted at least
to rework the relevant details from the passage, with the substitution of single words of their own. Lifting
random patches of text sometimes caused difficulty and resulted in fractured sense. The overall standard of
written English, including spelling and punctuation was generally good, and in some cases impressive.
Common errors in this question included singular/plural agreement of both nouns and verbs, as in These
animals helps families or Nutritional expert are employed and misuse of the definite article:
encourage the people to care for planet A fairly common clumsy construction involved the use of like,
e.g. There are many disadvantages like they are kept..., while there were many instances of sound, if
simple, sentence structure, there were also noticeable sentence separation errors, where the full stop was
ignored.

Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of keeping animals in captivity. The
summary had to be based on all but the first, brief and introductory paragraph of the text, and candidates
were to write their answers in note form, choosing to use either the words of the text or their own words.
One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration.
of which candidates could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points. Most candidates listed
the points either in note form or in short sentences, usually under bullet marks, which allowed them adequate
space to record all their responses. A small number copied whole sections of the passage, reducing their
ability to isolate the points while increasing the potential for including irrelevant text and running out of space.
There is no evidence to suggest that such a strategy yielded more marks. Where marks were denied it was
usually because a key word was missing from the point. Animals get stressed, for example, omitted the
crucial adjective Large animals
Paragraphs 2 and 3 referred to the advantages to be gained by animals which are kept in captivity, and by
humans who visit or are involved with them in other ways. There were 11 points which the candidates could
make. In Paragraph 2, there were 6 content points, concerned with benefits to the animals and the potential
for research into animals in general. Most candidates recognised the importance of nutritionists in zoos and
safari parks, and the majority mentioned that life expectancy is often longer there than in the wild. Provision
of a safe environment was noted, though an important result of this (the prevention of the extinction of rare
species) was not always stated. The point concerning common links between humans and animals was
widely made and many candidates also noted the potential for research into this and animals in general.
Paragraph 3 contained 5 points concerned with the benefits experienced by those who visit zoos and safari
parks. A good measure of success was achieved in recognising that people learn more about the natural
world; that they are encouraged to play their part in caring for it; that families enjoy coming together for a day
out and in a venue which provides relaxation and entertainment. Less successfully expressed was the point
about cost: that the relative cheapness of such a visit was to be contrasted with the expense of visiting the
animals natural habitats; that contrast could not be made merely by saying Its cheap to go there.
Paragraphs 4 and 5 provided 8 possible points to fulfil the second part of the rubric: the disadvantages of
keeping animals in captivity. From Paragraph 4, candidates could select 5 points, all concerned with the
negative effects on the animals: their being deprived of natural habitats; the curbing of natural instincts; an
unnatural climate; fewer breeding animals in the wild; and the failure of captive animals to breed. The first
three of these points were regularly selected from among a number of distractors in the text. The distinction

between breeding opportunities in the wild and in captivity was not always made clearly enough in the final
two points.
The last 3 points of disadvantage appeared in Paragraph 5 and candidates were quite successful in eliciting
these, showing some ability to ignore most of the distracting material. A comparative idea was necessary in
explaining the first point in the paragraph: that some animals do not live as long in captivity as in the wild; to
say that their lives in captivity are short was inaccurate. Similarly, the size of those animals which become
stressed in captivity had to be included - elephants or large animals were acceptable. The final three
words of the text provided two alternatives for the last possible point: cruelty and exploitation were regularly
offered.
A number of candidates were awarded maximum marks and a large number scored half marks and above.
Very few candidates wasted the space available by reproducing the given points in each box and only a
small minority wrote in continuous prose rather than offering more succinct points. While notes or brief
sentences are ideal in this task, all points nevertheless need to be fully made, and clear enough to be fully
understood by another person. Where marks were lost it was often because points were incompletely made,
e.g. referring to a ready supply of food being available to animals, but with no mention of the nutritionists
who supply it. Similarly, stating that people can afford to go to zoos omitted the crucial idea that ordinary
people, rather than just the rich, can afford to do so.
advantages and disadvantages of keeping animals in captivity. They were to write no more than 160 words
(the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer booklet.
The task set in Question 1(a) of reading to seek out the relevant information helped candidates to focus on
what was important when they came to write their summaries in Question 1(b). It was, therefore, rare to find
them wasting words on irrelevance. Even more rare were instances of candidates straying from the text to
offer their own views or experiences.
Encouragingly, almost every candidate attempted and completed the exercise comfortably within the given
space, generally adhering to the rubric. The attempt to use own words was clearly recognisable in many
scripts, a number of candidates using them in a sustained manner and in a style which was often accurate,
containing original complex structures. Many others selected from, edited and restructured the text well,
without being innovative or original in their use of English. Those who copied chunks, wholesale, from the
text and attempted to link these found it difficult to control sentence structure fluently. There were occasional
examples of the attempt to use own words proving unwise; the over-ambitious use of vocabulary did not
always match the meaning of the original, as in Animals have lost their hometown, wild habitats are
destroyed at desperating rates and they are ripped off of their homes.
Though content points do not score in Question 1(b), offering only very few in this part of the question would
be reflected in the language mark. Including only perhaps 5 or 6 points here would be unlikely to be
described as sustained use of own words. Commendably, very short answers were extremely rare;
hopefully candidates recognise that such brevity can never justify a high mark because they cannot
demonstrate sustained use of own words or completely accurate English. A few candidates who were
competent and confident enough, reshaped and recast the original text, using original complex sentences
and other variety, to gain many, or full, marks for style.
section of it. Question 2 asked for the two opinions which appeared in paragraph 4: that baby pandas are
undeniably cute and that it is downright stupid to have polar bears and tigers living at identical
temperatures. Candidates had to focus on the trigger words which suggested the idea of subjectivity rather
than objectivity; these were undeniably and stupid. While candidates were free to use their own words to
express these opinions, those who selected them correctly usually quoted from the passage; a wise
decision. Sometimes, however, excess lifting blurred the opinion with objective facts; e.g. the addition of
global celebrations at the birth of a baby panda, or the generalisation that animals experience an unnatural
climate. Some candidates gave their opinions rather than those of the text, while many transcribed simple
statements of fact such as their natural instincts are curbed, or they often fail to breed. Few candidates
offered both opinions correctly.
Question 3 asked candidates to give, from their own knowledge or experience, further examples of an
advantage and a disadvantage of keeping animals in captivity. Alternatively, they could give two advantages
or two disadvantages. The more thoughtful candidates suggested a range of valid ideas. These included,
on one hand, the prohibitive cost of running zoos and the loneliness of the animals and, on the other, the

financial advantages in attracting tourists and the protecting of wild animals from poachers. A few
candidates confused the zoo or safari park captivity of the text with the idea of domesticated animals as
pets. A noticeable number ignored the clear instruction: Do not refer to specific examples from the text.
They failed to score by offering precisely such examples, e.g. learning about nature.
In Question 4 candidates were asked to tick the box against the one correct statement from three given,
based on information from the whole passage. Most candidates got this right, indicating the middle box and
showing understanding that society in general is undecided about keeping animals in captivity.
The content of the narrative passage focused on the friendship and adventure of two young boys trying to
discover the secret behind one of their servants. Question 5(a) asked what the relationship was between
the title character, Akira, and the elderly Ling. A clear majority settled into Section 2 well by saying,
correctly, that Ling was a servant of Akiras family, or that it was a master/servant relationship. A few
overlooked this and picked on the attitude of Akira towards Ling, which was the subject of another question,
or missed the point entirely, suggesting that they were friends or neighbours.
Question 5(b) asked for the one aspect of other servants which made them popular with children. This
required candidates to recognise the inference implicit in the description of Ling as being unlike other
servants, because he rarely smiled at children and to deduce that they did smile. Any excess of text which
referred to their not scowling or shouting detracted from the one aspect and spoiled the answer.
Question 5(c) was the first of the questions in which candidates were asked to Answer in your own
words. Once again, the emboldened instruction was not always adhered to. Here was the question,
sometimes answered at Question 5(a), which asked about Akiras attitude to Ling and why it puzzled the
writer. The passage clearly led the reader to the two words which, the available marks suggested, had to be
recast: I was puzzled by the consternation shown by Akira whenever the servant came within his vicinity.
Though many identified the key words consternation and vicinity they frequently appeared in
responses, with no attempt to recast them. Fear, tension, anxiety and similar synonyms for consternation
were seen but substituting for vicinity proved a challenging discriminator. Whenever he appeared was
frequently offered but this does not necessarily carry the sense of closeness inherent in the key word.
In Question 6(a) candidates were asked to explain how Akira behaved in Lings presence, before he grew
older. This necessitated an understanding of the inference conveyed by the words the sight of Ling no
longer caused my friend to freeze. Weaker candidates, and even some stronger ones, merely repeated the
idea of fear from the previous question. It is unlikely that adjacent questions would require identical
answers, and candidates would be wise to re-read precisely the terms of both questions if they find that they
have offered two such responses.
Question 6(b) was another which demanded answers in the candidates own words, and which once
again challenged all but the very best candidates. Asked what it was that Akira recited to the writer in a
curious monotone, it was not difficult to pinpoint the key words in Paragraph 2 which required substitution;
the question was a direct quotation from the text, which continued the most appalling revelations
concerning the old man. Many candidates ignored the direction that answers to Question 6 would be found
in the second paragraph and moved into the next one to offer details of the revelations. To some extent, in
doing so, they anticipated the following question. Appalling carries a force greater than simply frightening,
scary or even terrible (which is often used quite casually to mean unpleasant). Thus, a modifier such as
very was necessary if these words were given. There were those who suitably suggested shocking,
terrifying or similar synonyms, but they did not always find a suitable alternative for revelations. This word
carries the suggestion of secrets, things not previously known, so while things about him did not score,
surprising things or things he had found out / discovered about him did. Succinct, fully correct answers
such as shocking disclosures were very rarely seen.
Question 7(a) carried a limit on the number of words which could be used to describe Akiras familys
darkest secret. When a few candidates ignored this and tried to lift the text, they exceeded the 12 allowed
words by 2; most, however complied with the limit. Introductory words such as The familys darkest secret
was that were unnecessary and Examiners did not include them in the word count. Still, a little skill was
needed to distil the fanciful idea that Ling could turn severed hands into spiders. The majority recognised
that Ling was the agent in the secret but many missed the crucial fact that the hands were supposedly
severed or cut off.

Question 7(b) asked candidates to find the single word used elsewhere in Paragraph 3 which was linked
to the idea of secrecy mentioned in the previous question, conspiratorially being the answer. Entrusted
was a popular choice, perhaps because of its relative proximity to secret in the text. Discovered and
potion also appeared. Many apparently failed to look at the whole paragraph to find the word which
occurred in the first line assuming, perhaps, that it would appear as a continuation of the idea of secrecy,
rather than as a link to it.
Question 8(a) required candidates to give the two ways in which Akira showed his nervousness when he
went near Lings room. The writer recognised as nervousness the fact that Akira pushed himself along the
corridor towards Lings room, as well as in his face which was shining with perspiration. A good number of
candidates thought about the situation and provided the correct explanations, though inclusion of the first
person introduction; I would stand and watch as sometimes spoiled the correct answer. Many others
lifted randomly and suggested that his grinning broadly or that he glanced back were signs of nervousness.
If candidates used the text structure whenever he glanced back and continued to say that his face was
shining with perspiration they showed a clear understanding; if they offered the two equal clauses, beginning
He glanced back at me and he was perspiring, there was no clear indication as to which of these things
showed Akiras nervousness, and so this was not considered to be a correct response.
Question 8(b) asked for the result of Akiras goading and bullying. This was that the writer eventually
followed him towards that awful room. The information had to be inferred from the writers question: Would
I ever have been able to follow him if it had not been for all his goading and bullying? Candidates had to
realise that he did follow Akira towards the room, because of that goading and bullying; the better candidates
recognised this fact. Some candidates confused the two boys and seemed to think that it was Akira who was
being bullied, resulting in his grinning broadly or glancing back. The link between Akiras unwilling push
towards Lings room and the writer being able to follow him meant that answers which said he followed or
accompanied him into the room were inaccurate. Another discriminating question, this reinforced the view
that inferential questions are still some of the most demanding for candidates.
Question 9 required an explanation of Akiras triumphant flourish of the hand. The fact that he was
delighted to have overcome his fears and actually gone into Lings room was included by many, but few
recognised that this was not the reason either for his triumph or his flourish. There were two parts to the
answer, here: one focused on the flourish of the hand, a physical pointing or indicating, or the idea that he
had seen or found something. The second, which resulted from his finding the potion, was the triumphant
feeling that he had been proved right and would not, now, look ridiculous, as he had feared he would. The
idea of seeing or pointing at the potion or a sinister feature was made quite often; his sense of relief at
being proved correct or at not looking ridiculous was less frequently seen.
Question 10(a) sought the two reasons why the writer did not ridicule Akiras attempt to preserve a fantasy.
The text said that he might have mocked this attempt implying that he did not do so. The first reason
preceded and was linked to the question words by Otherwise; the second came after them, introduced by
Moreover Generally, candidates understood the purpose of these link words and identified the reasons.
Many candidates recognised his fear, but often failed to include the fact that, by now, it was merely a
residue of fear; just a little fear still within him. Even more picked up on his anxiety over a more likely
eventuality, but a large number stopped short of explaining what that eventuality was: that they might be
discovered in the room. More thoughtful reading of the text was needed.
Question 10(b) related to Akiras hissed command and asked for the effect created by this word, which
would have been lost by using the word said. More than half the candidates attempted an explanation of
that effect, correctly identifying a sense of fear, secrecy or urgency in the metaphorical use of hissed.
Many, though, suggested that his words were said in a low tone, were whispered or said in a hurry. Such
answers required the addition of why this was so: because he did not want anyone to hear him, or because
of the necessity to get out. Only very few answers suggested the literal explanation that Akira merely made
a noise without words, or offered the simile of a snake.
Question 11 was the final inferential question, in two parts. Question 11(a) was answered correctly by most
candidates, who appreciated that Akiras reluctance to talk about their achievement was the result of some
difficulty. Thus, they were able to explain that, if his difficulty had not arisen, he would have talked about it.
A few failed to specify that his behaviour would have included speaking, boasting or bragging; this was the
point, rather than his merely acting excited or proud.
Candidates fared less well in Question 11(b). Asked to give the wider repercussions of the boys theft,
candidates had to understand, first, that the writer appreciated Akiras concern over these repercussions.
Then they had to recognise that his words of encouragement implied just what the unanticipated

repercussions were: the need to return the bottle to Lings room before he got back. This was the most
challenging question on the paper and as such produced very few succinct, correct responses. The answer
could, however, have been inferred from Paragraph 7, while the frequent suggestions that they would lose
their hands, end up with spiders instead of fingers or, simply, be punished could not.
understanding, in context, but not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words from a choice of eight. This
proved to be a difficult test. Many candidates attempted embarrassed well, and scored with the synonyms
ashamed or humiliated, although an occasional wrong answer was shy. Glanced was also chosen
frequently and answers usually added, correctly, quick or brief as a qualifier for looked; alone, looked
was inaccurate and a short look was somewhat ambiguous. Evaporated was another popular choice and a
variety of acceptable alternatives appeared, the most frequent being vanished, was gone / lost,
disappeared and dissolved. This last was acceptable but other, more scientifically literal attempts, such as
changed from a liquid to a gas were not. Obsession, when attempted, was most often replaced with
addiction, passion or cannot stop thinking about, all of which gave the right idea, but the weaker wanting
to do it a lot or habit were not forceful enough. The apparently simple curious, though attempted quite
often, was rarely recast with its contextual meaning of odd, strange, unusual etc. Synonyms such as
wanting to know or finding out were typical and showed the need to take context into careful consideration
in this question. The same problem revealed itself in some attempts at resolve, with candidates offering
worked something out or solution, but a few correctly gave courage. Strength was a common unsuitable
alternative, perhaps resulting from the fact that the boys physically linked arms. Exaggerated produced
some acceptable synonyms in more than needed, overdone and excessive, but the precise image in the
text was lost with attempts such as extra, great and extreme; these mean little more than much.
Listlessly was the least frequently chosen word and was rarely, if ever, adequately substituted; aimlessly
was offered, usually, but did not carry the sense of lethargy or lack of energy or enthusiasm which the word
implies.
The practice of trying to explain a word by putting it into a sentence has all but disappeared and the 5 lines
provided for answers usually discouraged candidates from attempting to recast all eight words. There were
still those who offered two or more synonyms for each word; they must realise that only the first word or
phrase offered as an answer will be credited and should therefore decide on their response with care.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
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INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
2
Passage 1
Air Travel
1 The ancient Greeks had myths about it, Leonardo Da Vinci sketched how it might be possible,
but not even our most recent ancestors could have imagined the prevalence and downright
ordinariness of air travel in our own time.
2 Air travel has many advantages. It gives people the chance to experience at first hand new
cultures, climates and cuisine. These experiences surely contribute to a greater spirit of
tolerance among the peoples of the world. Because air travel is cheaper than ever before,
it is within the b udget of ordinary people and not limited to the very wealthy. Family holidays
overseas become easier, and bring family members together to enjoy each others company
and cement relationships. Moreover, in the past, if sons or daughters emigrated from, say,
England to Australia, their parents might never see them again; but air travel has shrunk
distances and that longed-for contact with loved ones living abroad becomes possible.
3 The growth in air travel brings jobs with it: airports spring up, and emplo yment is created
there for baggage handlers , restaurant workers and cleaners . This sometimes means that
local communities in economically depressed areas near these new airports have a chance
to develop. Small businesses benefit from air travel because they can send staff to other
parts of the country to work; thus a small firm of, say, architects can take on building work
1000 kilometres from their home base. It is an amazing phenomenon of modern society that
people sometimes commute by plane from one city to another, or indeed from one country
to another from Malaysia to Singapore , for example to work, returning home f or the
weekend, a concept which would have been alien to their parents generation. In addition, air
travel reduces congestion on other forms of transport, such as rail and road; trains are less
crowded and road traffic flows more freely. Of course the sheer speed of air travel makes
the speed of these other forms of transport seem like snails pace.
4 However, air travel also has its critics. People who live near airports are plagued by the noise
made by aircraft taking off and landing. New runways are built on lush countryside, where
the residents object to the destr uction of the picturesque rural views from their homes. New
airport terminals are built, further encroaching onto the countryside. Air travel has become an
environmental issue, as critics argue that it damages the ozone layer, permanently scarring
our planet with what is descr ibed as our carbon footprint. The increased availability and low
price of plane tickets encourage many people to purchase holiday homes abroad, thus further
contributing to this carbon footprint. Air travel facilitates smuggling, particularly of drugs, and
there have been many high profile cases of people r uthlessly engaging in this life-destroying
activity. Although statistics tell us that we are more likely to be killed driving on our busy
roads, when a plane goes down there are rarely, if ever, any survivors.
5 Although a flight may be shor t, it may take an hour or more to drive to the nearest air port,
thus increasing travel time. In addition, secur ity checks are time-consuming, as hundreds of
passengers, particularly in busy holiday seasons, snake their way in a seemingly interminable
queue to be searched by overworked and sometimes impatient staff. Such security checks are
stressful and an invasion of privacy, as belts, jewellery and even shoes have to be removed
and x-rayed. You dont need to ha ve your personal belongings, and sometimes your person,
inspected before boarding a train! Occasionally, flights are delayed by several hours; when
this happens, what could be worse than the feeling of being virtually imprisoned in the airport,
with nothing to do, nowhere to go, and perhaps with young children demanding attention?
6 A further development in air travel today is the appearance of budget airlines. E-tickets are
issued, which saves on administrative costs. Passengers book their flights on-line , using the
Internet, and so do not need to use a travel agent, who would charge them a fee. No meals or
refreshments are offered on budget airlines; rather, the airlines augment their narrow profits
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by selling food and dr ink on board to a captive audience. Passengers are encouraged not
to put luggage in the hold of the plane, but to carry only cabin baggage, which reduces the
number of airport staff required.
Passage 2
Christophers father earns his living through illegal imports, and his mother disapproves.
It was raining hard that afternoon, making it gloomy throughout the house .
But in the end I never broached the subject.
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

For Examiners Use
2
1

Identify and write down the information from the passage which describes the
advantages and disadvantages of air travel.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of air travel
It gives people new experiences of cultures / climates / cuisine
Disadvantages of air travel
Noise of take-off and landing disturbs local residents
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Now use your notes to write a summary of the advantages and disadvantages of air
travel, as described in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
Nowadays, the availability of air travel brings many advantages because .......................
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No. of words
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2

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
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From your reading of paragraph 6, decide whether each of the following statements is true or
false and tick the appropriate box.
T
It is cheaper to book on-line yourself than to go to a travel agent.

It is compulsory to buy a meal on a budget airline flight.
Airport staff are needed to help with cabin baggage.
[3]
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5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
4
(a) What was lacking in the house that afternoon because it was raining hard?
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(b) Why was it pretentious to call the room where Christopher did his homework the
library?
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(c) Give two pieces of evidence which show how important Christophers education was to
Mei Li.
(i) .....................................................................................................................................
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(ii) .....................................................................................................................................
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From paragraph 2
5
(a) Explain in your own words why it was surprising that Christophers father came into
the library that afternoon.
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(b) Apart from the fact that Christophers father came into the library, what other aspect of
his behaviour seems surprising?
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(c) Explain fully why Mei Li reprimanded Christopher.
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From paragraph 3
6
(a) Christopher was fearful when he was left alone in the library. Pick out and write down
the single word used later in the paragraph which continues this idea of fearful.
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(b) Why do you think Christopher returned to the table every few seconds?
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(c) In what way was Christophers deception feeble?
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(d) Each of Christophers parents was angry. In what ways did their anger differ? Answer in
your own words.
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From paragraph 4
7
Give two reasons why Christopher was not upset by his parents disagreements.
(i) ............................................................................................................................................
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From paragraph 5
8
(a) What effect is achieved by the word theatrical to describe Akiras laughter that would
not be achieved by the word hearty?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Akira compares slatted sun-blinds to families. According to his comparison, what
happens if children do not play their part in family life?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/O/N/12
For
Examiners
Use
7
(c) Explain fully how what Akira had said contradicted Christophers memory of his parents
argument.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]

9
Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of not
more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word or phrase has in the
passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
paramount (line 7)
frustratingly (line 17)
inevitable (line 18)
muffled (line 21)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
5.
6.
7.
8.
sanctuary (line 28)

heralded (line 30)
earnestness (line 38)
broached (line 47)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2012
1123/22/O/N/12
For
Examiners
Use
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

STYLE (See page 7 for the Style marking method).
Passage 1
1
(a) Notes
[15]
Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form. Points 1 and 12 are already
given.
Mark
1 mark for
each
correct
point up
to a max.
of 15
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
[1
Gives people new experiences (of

cultures / climates / cuisine)]
(Air travel / it / experiences / they /

these encourage(s)) tolerance of other
people / races
tolerance (alone)
Is within the budget of ordinary people /

everybody
cheap / cheaper
(alone)
Makes family holidays overseas easy /

easier // brings families together on
overseas holidays
(Makes it possible / easy to) visit friends

/ family overseas / abroad // contact
with family / loved ones overseas /
abroad (is possible / easy)
(Brings) jobs in airports
(Communities in) depressed / poor

areas near airports are built up /
developed
Small businesses can send employees

to other parts of the country / other
countries / places (to work)
given example of
architects
People / individuals can commute / go

to work in other cities / countries /
places
given example of
architects
10 Reduces congestion / less pressure on

other transport / rail / roads
11 Speed
[12 Noise (of take-off and landing) disturbs
local residents]
communication
(brings) jobs for

baggage handlers
+ one other
example
Of course the
sheer speed
snails pace
It makes the speed
of snails pace
Page 3
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
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22
13 Runways are built on / spoil / encroach

on countryside
14 Airport buildings / terminals are built on
/ spoil / encroach on the countryside
spoiling rural
views (alone)
15 Damages the ozone layer / planet //

causes / increases carbon footprints
becomes an
environmental
issue
16 (Encourages) people to purchase

holiday homes abroad causing /
contributing to / increasing carbon
footprint / damages ozone layer
17 Facilitates (drug) smuggling
18 No / few survivors in an accident // the
possibility of disasters
19 Journeys to airports take a long time /
increase travel time
20 Security checks are time-consuming /
take time
21 Security checks are stressful / invasion
of privacy
22 Delays are stressful // delays imprison
(you) in the airport
any reasonable
example, including
one hour
possibility of
crashes /
accidents (alone)
it increases travel
time
it takes time
(alone)
what could be
worse
demanding
attention?
flights are delayed
(alone)
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Summary writing and style

OF ENGLISH. The table which follows provides descriptors of the mark levels assigned
rare.
Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH together and divide by two to
achieve the summary mark. Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number.
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
Irrelevance
rare.
Wrong or invented material
Put a cross in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of wrong or invented material.
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Short answers
020 = 0 marks for style. No assessment of OW and UE is necessary.
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
OWN WORDS

language.
Mark
5
USE OF ENGLISH

re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

word expression.
below.

of the text.

minor errors. There is a marked ability
the reader.
isolated.
helpful.
[8+ errors as a guide, but balance
against sentence structure is also
necessary]
sustained for long.
correct.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 7
2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
Allow
1 mark
Opinion 1: (Such) security

checks are stressful / an
invasion of privacy
run on into as belts,

jewellery x-rayed
1 mark
Opinion 2: What could be

worse than the feeling of
being imprisoned in the airport
/ being delayed at the airport /
having a delayed flight
run on into with nothing

attention
Dont Allow
inclusion of occasionally
happens
Accept own words versions.
From your reading of paragraph 6, decide whether each of the following statements is true
or false and tick the appropriate box.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
Statement 1 is true
1 mark
Statement 2 is false
1 mark
Statement 3 is false
Allow
Any clear indication of
choice even if it not a tick,
e.g. cross, star, asterisk
Dont Allow
If both true and false are
indicated against any
statement
Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 2
4
From paragraph 1
(a) What was lacking in the house that afternoon because it was raining hard?
Mark
1 mark
Expected Answer
Allow
light / brightness / sunshine /

sunlight
Dont Allow
visibility / sun / warmth /
a light / lights / gloom /
gloomy / it was gloomy /
making it gloomy
Lifting will not work
0 answers are 0(N). i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer
(b) Why was it pretentious to call the room where Christopher did his homework the
library?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
it was (really) an anteroom

(lined with books) / small room
// it was too small (to be a
library) / small
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of (This took place
in) an anteroom lined
with books
It wasnt a library / he did
his homework here
All 0 answers are 0(N). i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) Give two pieces of evidence which show that Mei Li must have regarded Christophers
education as a matter of the utmost importance.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i) she stood (sternly) over /

next to him as he worked (for
up to two hours) // she
supervised his education
1 mark
(ii) she didnt sit down // never

sat down // it never occurred
to her to sit down (opposite
him)
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of why
else.......worked?
She watched him
worked
Lift of why did
it....opposite mine?
If candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award 1 mark max. However, if candidate has
given two correct answers in one limb and has no response in the other limb, award 2 marks. Such
answers will be rare.
In (i) answer must be distilled and pronouns changed
From paragraph 2
(a) Explain in your own words why it was surprising that Christophers father came into
the library that afternoon.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
INTERRUPT: stop / get in the

way of / interfere with / disturb
/ distract / disrupt
1 mark
VITAL: crucial / very important

/ life-threatening / matter of life
and death // necessary /
imperative / urgent / essential
/ emergency / an extreme
case
Allow
Dont Allow
bother / trouble / enter
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are INTERRUPT and VITAL.
Do not insist on correct grammatical form.
Mark what you see, i.e. ignore wrong answers unless it contradicts a correct one, e.g. stop and
start for interrupt.
Do not insist on synonyms for study but look for sensible context.
Accept interruption directed at Christopher or Mei Li or both.
(b) Apart from the fact that Christophers father came into the library, what other aspect of
his behaviour seems surprising?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(he was apparently) oblivious

of their / his presence // didnt
seem to see / notice them /
him / realise they were / he
was there
Allow
he ignored him / them /
didnt speak to / look at /
acknowledge him / them
Dont Allow
He didnt see them / he
closed the door firmly
(c) Explain fully why Mei Li reprimanded Christopher.

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
(i) he was trying to overhear /

hear his parents (arguing) //
he was listening (in) to /
concentrating on /
eavesdropping on what his
parents were saying
so that he would stop trying

to overhear etc.
(ii) he was distracted from /

wasnt doing / concentrating
on his work / homework /
arithmetic / sums / studies //
he was taking too long /a long
time over his work/ homework
/ sums / studies
so that he would do his work

etc. / she wanted him to do
his work
1 mark
Dont Allow
He / overheard / heard /
caught the argument
Lift of whenever I tried to
hear a little more = 0.
his pencil hovered too long

over his sums
Lift of my pencil hovered

over my sums = 0.
Page 11
6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
From paragraph 3
(a) Christopher was fearful when he was left alone in the library. Pick out and write down
the single word used later in the paragraph which continues this idea of fearful.
Mark
1 mark
Expected Answer
apprehensively
Allow
The use of the correct word
in a phrase or sentence
provided that it is underlined
or otherwise highlighted.
Dont Allow
More than one word
(b) Why do you think Christopher returned to the table every few seconds?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
in case Mei Li came back /

caught him // he was afraid
Mei Li would come back /
would find him out of his seat /
listening to his parents
argument / not working / not
doing his arithmetic
Allow
Dont Allow
He would be reprimanded
= 0(N)
He was afraid (of Mei
Li)(alone)
in case Mei Li knew what
he was doing
Mei Li had come back
He wanted to hear his
parents argument = 0(W)
O(N) answer does not negate correct answer. 0(W) answer negates a correct answer.
Page 12
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) In what way was Christophers deception feeble?

Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(it was obvious / clear / could

be seen that he wasnt
measuring the room / was
listening to his parents
argument // it wouldnt deceive
/ fool Mei Li // you wouldnt
measure a room with a ruler //
measuring the room wasnt his
homework / what he was
supposed to be doing // it was
unreasonable / unrealistic /
unbelievable that he was
measuring the room
Allow
Dont Allow
It was weak /
unconvincing (alone) / it
wouldnt fool anyone
(alone)
he was pretending to
measure the room
(d) Each of Christophers parents was angry. In what ways did their anger differ? Answer
in your own words.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
RIGHTEOUS: moral / justified /

virtuous // (his mother) knew /
thought / felt / was convinced
she was correct / right (sic)
1 mark
DESPONDENT: sad / forlorn /

hopeless / wretched /
miserable / downcast /
despairing / disheartened /
gloomy / depressed / glum /
downhearted / down in the
dumps /
Allow
Dont Allow
angry / scolding / rightful
/ reasonable / truthful
Fearful / afraid / stressed

/ anxious / defensive /
distraught / confused /
stressed / upset /
ashamed / guilty / sorry /
downtrodden / hounded
Page 13
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are RIGHTEOUS and DESPONDENT
Mark what you see, i.e. ignore wrong answers unless it contradicts a correct one, e.g. sad and
happy for despondent.
Do not insist on correct parents matched to each adjective, but if parents are given incorrectly
deduct only one mark if synonyms are correct. For example:
His mothers anger was sad but his fathers anger showed he felt he was correct = 1 max.
One parents anger was sad and the other showed they felt they (sic) were correct = 2
One parents anger was sad but the other showed he felt he was correct = 1 (wrong match)
From paragraph 4
Give two reasons why Christopher was not upset by his parents disagreements.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i) they did not affect him/ his

life
1 mark
(ii) he was (well) used to such /

these periods // periods of
silence / their silence // he was
used to their disagreements /
these situations // he was used
to it
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of if their
disagreements...might
have been upset, even if
pronouns are changed.
It had happened often /

many times before
Under both (i) and (ii) lifting will not work. Answer must be distilled.
Lift of Wasnt I used to

such periods?
It had happened before.
(alone)
Page 14
8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
From paragraph 5
(a) What effect is achieved by the word theatrical to describe Akiras laughter that would
not be achieved by the word hearty?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
it wasnt a real laugh / he

wasnt (really) laughing/
amused // he was pretending to
laugh / be amused // he was
kidding / fooling around // he
was acting (the part of being
amused) // he was showing off /
trying to impress Christopher /
laughing for effect // it was
exaggerated / insincere / false /
phoney / fake / forced /
dramatic
Allow
Dont Allow
Reference to kicking his
feet in the air
It was loud / extreme /
not serious
It was funny / a joke /
comic
(b) Akira compares slatted sun-blinds to families. According to his comparison, what
happens if children do not play their part in family life?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
the family falls apart / will fall

apart / breaks down / collapses
/ scatters
children and parents

separate
Fall (alone) / break

(alone)
family life is spoiled
family bonds become
weaker
they fall apart
parents separate /
divorce
Page 15
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) Explain fully how what Akira had said contradicted Christophers memory of his
parents argument.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i) he said that childrens (bad)

behaviour caused parents
arguments // that if parents
argued it was the childrens
fault
1 mark
(ii) (but he / Christopher knew)

his parents argument had not
been about him / had not been
caused by him // had been
about business / his fathers
job
Allow
Dont Allow
Look for both a general point about what Akira said, and a particular point about what Christopher
had heard.
Page 16
9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (of
not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the
passage.
Mark
1 mark
for each
correct
meaning
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
utmost / most / greatest /

supreme(st) / uppermost /
topmost / chief / foremost /
highest / first / main /
principal / leading / cardinal
/ second to none / nonpareil
Great / extreme / huge /

very / major / immense /
very big / vital / crucial
2 frustratingly (line 17)
annoyingly / maddeningly /
irritatingly / infuriatingly /
disappointingly /
exasperatingly
stressfully / disturbingly /
angrily
3 inevitable (line 18)
unavoidable / bound to
happen / guaranteed / sure /
sure to happen / inexorable
/ must happen / ineluctable /
unstoppable /
unpreventable / certain
Likely / possible /
probable / obvious /
impending / eventual /
must
4 muffled (line 21)
hard to hear / quietened /

barely audible / deadened /
stifled / unclear / not clear /
faint / softened / muted /
indistinct
Hushed / murmured / dim

/ softer / diminished /
lower / inaudible /
reducing in volume /
fading low-pitched / quiet
5 sanctuary (line 28)
safety / safe place / haven /

refuge / shelter / protection /
security / harbour / asylum
peace / peacefulness /
quietness / tranquillity /
escape / isolation
6 heralded (line 30)
preceded / foreshadowed /
prefaced / ushered in /
presaged / announced /
introduced / was the
forerunner / signalled
caused / continued /
stopped /resulted in /
brought / created / led to /
began
7 earnestness (line 38)
sincerity / seriousness /
solemnity / gravity / gravitas
desire / curiosity /
concern
8 broached (line 47)
introduced / raised / opened

/ brought up / started /
mentioned
touched / asked / brought

(about/forward) /
discussed / proposed /
suggested / approached /
addressed
1 paramount (line 7)
NB: needs idea of
superlative
Page 17
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
comma or the word or indicates a second attempt.
but neutral, e.g. utmost and great for paramount.
within this limit.
Page 18
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
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22
Appendix
Air travel has many advantages. It gives people the chance to experience at first hand new
cultures, climates and cuisine. These experiences surely contribute to a greater spirit of
tolerance among the peoples of the world. Because air travel is cheaper than ever before, it is within
the budget of ordinary people and not limited to the wealthy. Family holidays overseas
become easier, and bring family members together to enjoy each others company and cement
relationships. Moreover, in the past, if sons or daughters emigrated from, say, England to Australia,
their parents might never see them again; but air travel has shrunk distances and that longed-for
contact with loved ones living abroad becomes possible.
The growth in air travel brings jobs with it: airports spring up, and employment is created there for
baggage handlers, restaurant workers and cleaners. This sometimes means that local
communities in economically depressed areas near these new airports have a chance to
develop. Small businesses benefit from air travel because they can send staff to other parts of
the country to work; thus a small firm of, say, architects can take on building work 1000 kilometres
from their home base. It is an amazing phenomenon of modern society that people sometimes
commute by plane from one city to another, or indeed from one country to another from
Malaysia to Singapore, for example to work, returning home for the weekend, a concept which
would have been alien to their parents generation. In addition, air travel reduces congestion on
other forms of transport, such as rail and road; trains are less congested and road traffic flows
more freely. Of course the sheer speed of air travel makes the speed of these other forms of
transport seem like snails pace.
However, air travel also has its critics. People who live near airports are plagued by the noise made
by aircraft taking off and landing. New runways are built on lush countryside, where the
residents object to the destruction of the picturesque rural views from their homes. New airport
terminals are built, further encroaching onto the countryside. Air travel has become an
environmental issue, as critics argue that it damages the ozone layer, permanently scarring our
planet with what is described as our carbon footprint. The increased availability and low price of
plane tickets encourage many people to purchase holiday homes abroad, thus further
contributing to this carbon footprint. Air travel facilitates smuggling, particularly of drugs, and
there have been many high profile cases of people ruthlessly engaging in this life-destroying activity.
Although statistics tell us that we are more likely to be killed driving on our busy roads, when a plane
goes down there are rarely, if ever, any survivors.
Although a flight may be short, it may take an hour or more to drive to the nearest airport, thus
increasing travel time. In addition, security checks are time-consuming, as hundreds of
passengers, particularly in busy holiday seasons, snake their way in a seemingly interminable queue
to be searched by overworked and sometimes impatient staff. Such security checks are stressful
and an invasion of privacy, as belts, jewellery and even shoes have to be removed and x-rayed. You
dont need to have your personal belongings, and sometimes your person, inspected before boarding
a train! Occasionally, flights are delayed by several hours; when this happens, what could be
worse than the feeling of being virtually imprisoned in the airport, with nothing to do, nowhere
to go, and perhaps with young children demanding attention?

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Comprehension
Key messages
In those questions which require candidates to answer in their own words, many showed an ability to
identify the key words. There remains a need for them to develop greater skills in substituting these
key words with their own.
They should learn how to provide answers which require some processing of the text, and how to
manipulate or get behind the ideas of the text rather than simply lifting from it. To deal with a
passage written as a first person narrative, candidates should practise answering questions in the
third person and understand that a question cannot be answered by lifting another question from the
passage. They should focus on looking beyond the literal in inferential questions, while always
drawing their inferences from a sensible context linked to the text.
For the summary, Question 1, candidates should practise differentiation between note style and
continuous writing, as suggested by the instructions; this will enable them to focus on and fulfil the
requirement of each rubric in the most efficient way.
Some of those questions which test the candidates ability to respond to the ideas of the text require
that they learn to differentiate between subjective observations and those which are objectively
verifiable.
Questions sometimes include emboldened words, as a guide for candidates. They should learn to
recognise the importance of such emphasis to a successful answer.
General comments
Most candidates attempted all the questions and completed the paper without any issue with time. In
Questions 1(a) and 1(b) the majority responded neatly and carefully, within the guiding parameters of the
answer booklet and are to be commended for their careful presentation. A minority continued answers
outside these parameters, or used separate sheets in addition to the booklets; this last can result in parts of
a response not being seen by the Examiner.
The candidates answered questions on two passages, the first being non-fiction and the second being
fiction. The variety of subject matter provided the opportunity for questions which stretched and
discriminated amongst candidates, allowing the best responses to demonstrate an ability to deal with the
familiar as well as the unfamiliar. This was reflected in a wide range of marks.
The first passage, Air Travel, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas; the second, about
Christopher, tested their reading for meaning. Twenty marks were available for the summary question, with
15 of these marks being awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from
the text of Air Travel and 5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in their
own words. Further questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas; in this case to distinguish fact from
opinion and to differentiate between true and false statements.
The second passage tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their understanding of
vocabulary, their ability to answer in their own words, and their appreciation of the writers craft. The
remaining 25 marks for the paper could be gained here.
was noted, nor much evidence of candidates diverging from the rubric.

In Question 1(a) a bullet point format was used in the main, following the style of the first (given) point in
each answer box and the result was a clear list of selected ideas. Only very few candidates lost marks
because they put content points in the wrong boxes; most candidates carefully followed the guidance
provided in the headings, and separated clearly the advantages and disadvantages of air travel.
Disadvantages and advantages scored about equally in most cases. When points were not made, it was
less because they were not attempted and more because of the omission of crucial words / ideas which were
being insisted upon in order to make the point fully.
In Question 1(b), originality of expression was not always in evidence when writing up note form content
points in formal, continuous prose. However, among those who made a sustained attempt to use their own
words and original structures, there were some commendable results. Many candidates attempted at least
to rework the relevant details from the passage, with the substitution of single words of their own. Lifting
random patches of text sometimes caused difficulty and resulted in fractured sense. The overall standard of
written English, including spelling and punctuation was generally good, and in some cases impressive.

Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of air travel, as described in the
passage. The summary had to be based on the second to the fifth paragraphs of the text inclusive, and
candidates were to write their answers in note form, choosing to use either the words of the text or their own
words. One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration.
of which candidates could identify any combination up to a maximum of 15 points. Most candidates listed
the points either in note form or in short sentences, usually under bullet marks, which allowed them adequate
space to record all their responses. A small number copied whole sections of the passage, reducing their
ability to isolate the points while increasing the potential for including irrelevant text and running out of space.
There is no evidence to suggest that such a strategy yielded more marks. Where marks were denied it was
often because a key word was missing from the point. Makes family holidays easy, for example, omitted
the crucial idea contained in makes family holidays overseas easier.
Paragraphs 2 and 3 referred to the advantages of air travel, and there were 10 points which the candidates
could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 4 content points, concerned with benefits to passengers: air travel
encourages people to be tolerant of others, it is within the budget of ordinary people, family holidays
overseas become easier, and it is possible to make or maintain contact with loved ones living abroad. There
was much success with the making of these points.
Paragraph 3 contained 6 points concerned with the employment benefits air travel brings, and the favourable
comparison of air travel with other forms of transport. Jobs are created in airports, communities in
depressed areas near airports are able to develop, small businesses can send employees to other countries
or other parts of the country to work, and individuals can commute from one city to another or from one
country to another to work, In addition, air travel reduces pressure on other forms of transport and is
beneficial because of its speed. There was a reasonable degree of success with these points, although the
omission of the qualification that it was airports in depressed areas that benefitted, or that these areas were
near airports, often denied the point, as did the omission of the fact that jobs were created in airports, and
not just the lift of airports spring up and employment is created.
Paragraphs 4 and 5 provided 10 possible points to fulfil the second part of the rubric: the disadvantages of
air travel. From Paragraph 4, candidates could select 6 points, the first 3 being that runways are built on the
countryside, as are terminal buildings, and air travel damages the ozone layer. There was much success
with the latter point, but many candidates were unsuccessful with the first 2 points because they referred only
to the effect the building of runways and terminals had on picturesque views and not on the destruction of
the green belt. Candidates were then able to select a further 3 content points from paragraph 4: air travel
facilitates smuggling, a point which the majority of candidates made, there are few if any survivors in a plane
crash, and people are encouraged to buy holiday homes abroad, which causes further damage to the ozone
layer. There was little success with this last point as the few candidates who even attempted it often failed to
make the link between the holiday homes and the effect on the environment; it is not the purchasing of
homes per se which is the problem but the damaging effects of the owners travelling there by plane.

The last 4 points of disadvantage appeared in Paragraph 5 and candidates were quite successful in eliciting
the first 3 of these: the journey to the airport adds to travel time, and security checks are both timeconsuming and stressful. The final point, that flights are often delayed and passengers feel imprisoned in
the airport was less frequently made. Many candidates merely lifted the passage in lines 4142, and no
credit can be given to candidates who answer a question with another question. Another problem in this
area was the reference to flights being delayed without the effect of this delay.
A number of candidates were awarded maximum marks and a large number scored half marks and above.
Very few candidates wasted the space available by reproducing the given points in each box and only a
small minority wrote in continuous prose rather than offering more succinct points. While notes or brief
sentences are ideal in this task, all points nevertheless need to be fully made, and be clear enough to be
fully understood by another person. As stated above, where marks were lost it was often because points
were incompletely made, e.g. referring to flights are delayed but with no mention of the effect on
passengers.
advantages and disadvantages of air travel. They were to write no more than 160 words (the first ten of
which were given), within the space available in the answer booklet.
It appears that the task set in Question 1(a) of reading to seek out the relevant information helped
candidates to focus on what was important when they came to write their summaries in Question 1(b). Still,
some candidates wasted words on irrelevance, such as drug smuggling being a life-destroying activity.
Some others strayed into paragraph 6 because they had not read the rubric properly, which fixed the
parameters at paragraphs 2 to 5 inclusive. There were also some rare instances of candidates straying from
the text to offer their own views or experiences.
Encouragingly, almost every candidate attempted and completed the exercise comfortably within the given
space, generally adhering to the rubric. The attempt to use own words was clearly recognisable in many
scripts, a number of candidates using them in a sustained manner and in a style which was often accurate,
containing original complex structures. Many others selected from, edited and restructured the text well,
without being innovative or original in their use of English. Those who copied chunks, wholesale, from the
text and attempted to link these often found it difficult to control sentence structure fluently. There were
occasional examples of the attempt to use own words proving unwise; the over-ambitious use of vocabulary
did not always match the meaning of the original.
Though content points do not score in Question 1(b), offering only very few in this part of the question would
be reflected in the language mark. Including only perhaps 5 or 6 points here would be unlikely to be
described as sustained use of own words. Commendably, very short answers were extremely rare;
hopefully candidates recognise that such brevity can never justify a high mark because they cannot
demonstrate sustained use of own words or completely accurate English. A few candidates who were
competent and confident enough reshaped and recast the original text, using original complex sentences
and other variety, to gain many, or full, marks for style.
Common errors concerned agents, tenses, and agreement. Additionally, language errors often occurred
because of breakdown of sense when imperfectly understood phrases from the passage were
inappropriately stitched together. There was also considerable confusion between facilities and facilitates,
and the expression more easier appeared quite frequently. Some candidates used connecting words such
as moreover and nevertheless in a somewhat random fashion, and phrases such as on the contrary were
sometimes used inappropriately. Another issue was wrong use of articles, as in the air travel, and the use
of plurals for uncountable nouns, as in air travels.
In Questions 2 and 3 candidates were tested on their ability to respond to the ideas of the whole text or a
section of it. Question 2 asked for the two opinions which appeared in paragraph 5: that security checks are
an invasion of privacy and that there is nothing worse than the feeling of being imprisoned in an airport.
Candidates could use their own words or lift from the passage, which meant that the lift of what could be
worse than the feeling of being imprisoned in an airport? was rewarded here, although not as a content point
in Question 1(a). Candidates had to focus on the trigger words which suggested the idea of subjectivity
rather than objectivity; these were stressful and worse. Sometimes, however, excess lifting blurred the
opinion with objective facts; e.g. the addition of time-consuming for security checks, or sometimes flights
are delayed, and when this happens at the idea of feeling imprisoned in the airport. Some candidates gave
their opinions rather than those of the text, such as it would be a good idea to employ more staff in airports,
while many transcribed simple statements of fact such as runways are built on lush countryside, it damages

the ozone layer or referred to the increased travel time in getting to the airport and not having security
checks on trains. Few candidates offered both opinions correctly.
Question 3 asked candidates to decide whether each of three statements from paragraph 6 was true or
false; the first was true and the others were false. This was generally successfully attempted and, where
only two were correct, the wrong answer tended to be to say that the third statement was true.
The content of the narrative passage focused on the protagonist, Christopher, overhearing an argument
between his parents and trying to eavesdrop when he was supposed to be studying. Question 4(a) asked
what was lacking in the room because it was raining, the answer being light or sunlight, which had to be
inferred from the statement that the room was gloomy. Fewer candidates than normal settled into Section
2 well by giving a correct answer to the opening question, with gloomy being a popular incorrect one. Some
took gloom to refer to mood and suggested a lack of happiness or joy.
Question 4(b) asked for the reason why it was pretentious to call the room where Christopher worked a
library. Candidates had to know or work out the meaning of pretentious, as showing delusion of grandeur
which does not in fact exist, in order to make the link to the smallness of the room. If the focus of the answer
was the books in the room then no credit could be given.
Question 4(c) was a literal comprehension question which asked candidates to give two pieces of evidence
which showed that Christophers education was important to Mei Li. It was noticeable that some candidates
were under the impression that a request for evidence is actually inviting them to produce a quotation from
the passage, and respond accordingly, using quotation marks. This evidence lay in lines 79, but lifting from
the text did not answer the question because the language of the text was couched in a question.
Discerning candidates, realising that questions cannot be answered by other questions, re-cast the text to
present the evidence as being that Mei Li stood over Christopher as he worked, or that she supervised his
education, and that she never sat down. Another issue involved in answering this correctly lay in the fact
that the passage was written in the first person and that this had to be changed to third person if the answer
was to be correct. Thus she stood over me as I worked did not answer the question.
Question 5(a) was the first of the questions in which candidates were asked to explain in your own words.
The emboldened instruction was not always adhered to. The question asked why it was surprising that
Christophers father came into the library. The passage clearly led the reader to the two words which, the
available marks suggested, had to be recast: my parents knew that they should not interrupt us unless it
was vital. Though some candidates identified the key words interrupt and vital these words sometimes
appeared in responses, with no attempt to recast them. Stop, disturb, distract and similar synonyms for
interrupt were seen but substitutions for vital proved a challenging discriminator, with acceptable synonyms
being crucial, essential, and urgent. Important was a common wrong answer, which could not be
rewarded because it was too weak to convey the sense of urgency inherent in vital, although very
important was an acceptable response.
In Question 5(b) candidates were asked to explain what other aspect of Christophers fathers behaviour
was surprising. There was some blurring with answers to this question and the preceding question but
careful reading of the two questions Question 5(b) and Question 5(c) shows that there are distinct
answers here which can be supported by the text. The answer to Question 5(c) was that Christophers
father seemed not to see Christopher and Mie Li, or that he was oblivious of their presence. This near-lifting
was sufficient to make the point, although candidates had to make the change from first to third person in
order to write an answer which was sensible. If they also referred to the father striding through the library or
closing the door firmly behind him, this might or might not have been regarded as a neutral extension to the
correct answer; if the focus was still on the father being oblivious, this was sufficient to score, but if the focus
was blurred or distorted the candidate was not successful.
Question 5(c) was another literal comprehension question in two parts which asked candidates to explain
why Mei Li reprimanded Christopher. Many candidates appeared to have a good understanding of the
situation and it was not uncommon for both marks to be gained. Although the answers lay in lines 1518,
they could not be made by lifting from the text. The first reason for the reprimand was that Christopher was
eavesdropping, or listening to, or trying to hear, his parents argument; whenever I tried to hear a little more
was not sufficient. The second reason for the reprimand was that Christopher was not working, or doing his
homework; the lift of my pencil hovered too long over my sums was not a sufficient answer, but the change
of first to third person was considered an adequate response. Some candidates misunderstood Mei Lis

intention here and wrote that she was trying to stop him hearing the argument; this was a distortion of the
answer as he could already hear his parents, but Mei Li was trying to prevent him from listening.
Question 6(a) asked candidates to find the single word used later in Paragraph 3 which continued the idea
of fearful, apprehensively being the answer. Hurry was a popular wrong choice, perhaps because of its
relative proximity to fearful in the text. However, flee, feeble, muffled, and even angry, deception,
sanctuary, and despondent also appeared.
Question 6(b) was an inferential question asking candidates why Christopher might have returned to the
table every few seconds, the answer being that he was worried Mei Li might come back, or he did not want
Mei Li to find him out of his chair. This was generally well done; where candidates failed to make the point it
tended to be because mention of Mei Li had been omitted, or an incorrect link had been made to
Christophers parents.
Question 6(c) was a demanding question which asked candidates to explain why Christophers deceit was
feeble. The answer lay in inferring that it was silly or ridiculous to measure a room with a ruler, or one
would not use a ruler to measure a room, or that it was obvious one could not measure a room with a ruler,
or that Mei Li would not be taken in by the excuse. Merely to offer a synonym for feeble such as
unconvincing did not answer the question, which asked for an explanation as to why the deceit was feeble
or unconvincing. Some candidates merely offered a synonym for deception, such as he was pretending to
measure the room; this did not get behind the meaning of the question either.
Question 6(d) was the second of the questions in the Paper which required candidates to answer in their
own words, and, as with Question 6(c), this challenged all but the very best candidates. Asked in what way
the anger of his father differed from the anger of his mother, candidates were to focus on the key words
righteous and despondent. Some were able to do that but got further in that synonyms were not offered.
Acceptable synonyms for righteous were justified or virtuous or, alternatively, candidates could use the
key word expressed differently, as in she knew that she was right or she was convinced that she was right.
Acceptable synonyms for despondent were sad or miserable; surprisingly few candidates were able to
offer a correct answer here. Some were concerned with the volume and intensity of the anger displayed, or
explained the reasons for the parents differing reactions. The closest, but incorrect, answers to the
despondent tone were defensive or guilty.
Question 7 was a literal comprehension question asking candidates to explain why Christopher was not
upset by his parents disagreements, the answer being that they did not affect his life, and that he was used
to them. Although this was a relatively straightforward question where the answer could be found at lines
3334, some distillation of the text was needed, and straight lifting did not work. First of all the first person
had to be changed to third person, and secondly the question form of the second limb had to be changed to
a statement. Popular wrong answers were that Christopher did not concern himself with the arguments,
which was no more than a re-casting of the question rather than an answer to it, and a description of the
disagreements, such as they did communicate or they did not communicate at all.
Question 8(a) required candidates to explain the effect that theatrical gave that would not have been
achieved by hearty, and in that respect this was a question testing candidates ability to appreciate the way
writers make use of language, or writers craft. Acceptable answers were that it suggested the laughter was
fake, false, pretend, exaggerated or insincere. Popular wrong answers referred to joke, sarcasm or
kicking his feet in the air.
Question 8(b) asked for an explanation of how Akiras comparison of families to sun-blinds showed what
happened if children did not play their part in family; in this respect candidates were being asked to de-code
a image. Acceptable answers had to link the broken blinds to broken families, so credit was given to
answers which referred to broken or scattered families, or to families where the members had separated.
Correct answers had to incorporate entire families and not just parents and not just children; therefore the
idea that parents would divorce or split up was insufficient. Many struggled to offer anything more than the
slats ending up on the floor. There was rarely a clear recognition that an image had to be decoded.
Question 8(c) required candidates to make a general point and a particular point; this was a discerning and
separating question. The general point was that Akira had said that all parents arguments were about, or
triggered by, their children, while the particular point was that Christopher knew that his parents argument
had not been about him, their child, or that he knew that their argument had been about business, or money
and therefore, by implication, not about him. More candidates were successful with the particular point than
with the general one, very often failing to give the correct particular information because they gave the
particular point again by writing that Akira had said that when Christophers parents argued it was about their

child, and not referring to all parents arguing. Some candidates spoiled their answer here by writing that
Christopher felt his parents had been arguing about him, whereas the text makes it quite clear that he never
thought that.
understanding, in context, but not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words from a choice of eight. This
proved to be a difficult test, with a very small minority of candidates offering five correct synonyms. Many
candidates attempted frustratingly well, and gave the correct synonym annoyingly or disappointingly,
although many offered, incorrectly, answers linked to stress or anger. Inevitably was also chosen
frequently, with acceptable synonyms being unavoidable, unpreventable or unstoppable. Candidates
were less successful with muffled, where correct synonyms were unclear, faint or indistinct. Paramount
was a popular choice, but most candidates failed to pinpoint the superlative nature of this word, writing,
incorrectly, very important or extremely important rather than most important. The other four choices
were less frequently made, and few attempts were successful; synonyms for sanctuary were safety or
haven; synonyms for broached were introduced or brought up; synonyms for earnestness were
seriousness or sincerity; synonyms for heralded were introduced or preceded. Popular wrong answers
for broached were talked about or discussed and popular wrong answers for heralded were resulted in
or created.
The practice of trying to explain a word by putting it into a sentence has all but disappeared and the 5 lines
provided for answers usually discouraged candidates from attempting to recast all eight words. There were
still those who offered two or more synonyms for each word; they must realise that only the first word or
phrase offered as an answer will be credited and should therefore decide on their response with care.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/21
May/June 2013
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 The Internet

1
One of the most exciting innovations of recent times has been, without doubt, the internet; it
has brought about change on a grand scale.
The internet has revolutionised the speed with which information can be accessed: students,
for example, can use computers instead of books to research a topic in school, with almost
5
instantaneous results. The internet is also beneficial because it gives a wide variety of
information; people who surf the net never cease to be amazed at the apparently limitless
range of facts available. Moreover, in contrast to expensive reference books, the internet
provides most of its information at no cost to the recipient. The information is easily stored, as
computers take up much less space in a house or a library than rows and rows of bookcases.
10
No-one wants their house cluttered with books.
It is not just school and college students who reap the benefits of the internet. Online courses
can be completed at home, which removes the expense and time it would take to travel to an
educational establishment. In addition, location is not a factor when embarking on an online
course; it is feasible to have a class of students from all over the world participating in the
15
same course.
Messages, called emails, sent via the internet, can be sent without interrupting the recipient in
the way that a ringing telephone does: one would be reluctant to phone a family member late
at night, but there is no problem in sending an email at that time, knowing that ones relative
will not necessarily open the email until the next morning. Friends and family members who
are parted by long distances can keep in touch via Skype, an internet service which allows 20
people to see each other on the computer screen so that contact is visible as well as audible.
The internet helps to create new friendships as well as support existing ones, as people,
often young people, can make new friends on social networking sites such as Facebook.
The internet also frees up time for busy families who are now able to do their weekly shopping
online. Among the other things they might now do in their new-found leisure time is read 25
books online; novels and other texts can be downloaded as e-books, as they are called, which
are much cheaper than conventional books.
However, online shopping has a detrimental effect on conventional shops by taking away
customers, often leaving unsightly gaps and boarded-up stores in the main streets of towns.
The internet removes the social dimension of shopping; people who shop online no longer 30
congregate in shopping centres or meet friends for coffee there. Browsing for books on the
internet rather than in a bookstore denies the pleasure of handling books, and reduces the
opportunity of discovering a wonderful book by sheer accident.
It is possible to become a slave to email, both at home and at work, where there is a nagging
pressure to check that one has not been contacted for a decision. Furthermore, teachers 35
complain that the art of letter writing has been lost because of emails. People can become
addicted to the internet, spending lots of time surfing the net when they could be engaged in
more fulfilling pursuits, like playing sport or studying. The internet has been criticised because
sometimes the material available is inappropriate, particularly for children, although parents
should monitor their childrens access to the internet in any case. Not all websites are reliable: 40
some sites have been shown to contain information which is misleading, or even inaccurate.
However, perhaps this criticism could be levelled at some books too; caution may be the key.
Living in the age of the computer has the drawback that sometimes what would have been
simple transactions in the past are now disproportionately complicated. Take, for example,
queuing to pay for purchases with the exact payment in your hands, and then being greeted 45
with the depressing news that the computer at the checkout has crashed.
The internet is a marvellous and fascinating phenomenon. Whether we allow it to work against
us rather than in our favour is very much in our own hands. At the end of the day, human
beings are more intelligent and resourceful than machines.
UCLES 2013
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/13
Passage 2
A teenage boy called Miles tells the story of a night when he found something extraordinary.
1
My family lived in a tiny, metal-roofed house facing the Pacific Ocean. Behind the house was
a detached garage, over which I had my bedroom. One of the good things about this was its
low, slanted ceilings, which kept the adults away. That night I stepped unnoticed down the
dark outside stairway from my room. It was 2.15am, an hour before low tide, with a full moon.
I could hear the sea hissing faintly, and was aware of the fishy reek of living, dead and dying
seaweed, clams and crabs.
It was my first summer collecting marine specimens for money. I sold starfish, crabs, and
other tidal creatures to public aquariums. Almost everything had a market, I was discovering
I offloaded at a local restaurant the clams I had collected, and for more unusual types of
sealife, I dealt with a private aquarium dealer. Full moon was when I often had my best haul, 10
which complicated things because I wasnt allowed on the mudflats after dusk.
I walked along the edge of the water, the light of my flashlight bouncing ahead of me, picking
my way to avoid crushing clam shells. I saw a massive moon snail, its undersized shell riding
high on its body like the cab of a bulldozer, below which its mound of oozing flesh hunted for
any clam unlucky enough to be in its path. I thought about grabbing it, but it was too big. So 15
I went out toward the oyster farm belonging to Judge Stegner. That was my rather weak alibi
if I was caught out there, that I was tending the judges oysters. He paid me twenty dollars a
month to help maintain them, though not at night, of course. Still, it could be useful if someone
asked what I was doing there at that hour. I knew how everyone felt about Judge Stegner. My
father tucked his shirt in whenever he came around. And when the judge spoke in his deep, 20
easy rumble, nobody interrupted.
There were dozens of shore crabs near the low mesh fence around the judges oyster beds.
Crabs amused me in small numbers, but when they crowded together like this they unhinged
me, especially when they were in water where they moved twice as fast as on land. I heard
their pincers clasping the fence, pushing their bodies higher. The oysters were under siege, 25
but I couldnt bring myself to interfere. I rounded the oyster beds to the far side, relieved to find
them relatively crab free.
And thats where it happened. I heard it long before I saw it. It was the sound of something
exhaling. Was a whale stranded again, I wondered. We had a young minke whale stuck out
there once, and it made similar noises until the tide rose high enough for rescuers to help 30
free it. I waited, but there were no more sounds. Still, I went toward what I thought Id heard,
avoiding stepping into the mud unless I had to. I knew the flats well enough to know the
danger. The general rule was you didnt venture out onto the mud with an incoming tide, or
you were in mortal danger. I sank up to my knees twice, but I kept stepping toward the one
35
sound Id heard, a growing part of me hoping Id find nothing at all.
Then my flashlight crossed it. My first thought? A massive octopus. But when I saw the long
tubular shape of its upper body, I knew it was something else. I came closer, within twenty
metres, close enough to see its body quiver. I couldnt tell if it was making any sounds at that
point because it was impossible to hear anything over the roaring of the blood in my ears. It
was hard to be sure exactly where it all began or ended. The creatures body was triangular, 40
with narrow fins that lay flat on the mud like wings. I was afraid to prise my eyes off its jumble
of tentacles for more than half a second. I didnt know whether I was within its reach, and its
tentacles were as thick as my ankles and lined with suckers. If they had even twitched, I would
have run. Then I gradually realised the dark shiny disc in the rubbery mass was an eye, thirty
centimetres across. I knew that this creature could only be one thing. It was a giant squid, one 45
of the largest and rarest of all sea creatures. And it was still alive.
UCLES 2013
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/13

* 2 1 9 4 9 5 3 2 4 3 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2013

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
2
1

Identify and write down the points in the passage which tell us the advantages and
disadvantages of the internet.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of the internet
Speed at which information can be accessed
Disadvantages of the internet
Online shopping takes customers away from shops
UCLES 2013
1123/21/M/J/13
For
Examiners
Use
3
Now use your notes to write a summary in which you state the advantages and
disadvantages of the internet, as outlined in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
It is clear that the internet has many advantages because ..............................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
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1123/21/M/J/13
[Turn over
4
2

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
The writer doesnt understand how the internet works.
The writer disapproves of technology.
The writer thinks that the internet can be a force for good in the world.
[1]
From your own knowledge or experience, give two examples of ways in which the internet
can be used. Do not refer to specific examples in the passage in your answer.
One example is .......................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
............................................................................................................................................. [1]
UCLES 2013
1123/21/M/J/13
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
Read Passage 2 in the insert and then answer all the questions below in the order set.
From paragraph 1
5
What two features of Miless bedroom meant he could live untroubled by adults?
(i)
..........................................................................................................................................
(ii)
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 2
6
From which three sources did Miles get money in exchange for the sea creatures he
collected?
(i)
..........................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..........................................................................................................................................
(iii)
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 3
7
(a) Give two ways in which the snail resembled a bulldozer.

(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) What was Miless alibi and why was it rather weak?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) What do you think was the attitude of other people towards Judge Stegner?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2013
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[Turn over
6
From paragraph 4
8
(a) Explain in your own words the two contrasting attitudes that the writer had towards
crabs.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) Pick out and write down two consecutive words which suggest that the oyster beds
were being attacked by the crabs.
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 5
9
(a) What had happened to the young minke whale?

...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain in your own words why Miles knew he had to avoid stepping into the mud.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 6
10 (a) It was impossible to hear anything over the roaring of the blood in my ears. What is the
writer telling us here about how Miles was feeling?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Give two reasons why Miles was unable to be sure of the exact size of the giant squid.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(c) I didnt know whether I was within its reach. What does its refer to here? Answer in
one word.
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(d) What finally convinced Miles that the creature was a giant squid?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(e) What effect does the writer achieve by the final short sentence?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
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For
Examiners
Use
7
11 Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase (not
1. detached
(line 2)
5. clasping
2. faintly
(line 5)
6. relatively (line 27)
3. reek
(line 5)
7. exhaling
(line 29)
4. haul
(line 10)
8. prise
(line 41)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
(line 25)
Answer
) ...................................
....................................................................................
[1]
) ...................................
....................................................................................
[1]
) ...................................
....................................................................................
[1]
) ...................................
....................................................................................
[1]
) ...................................
....................................................................................
[1]
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For
Examiners
Use
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Passage 1
Question 1:
1
(a) MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 FOR CONTENT POINTS.

Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by a tick the point
already given.
1
Speed at which information can be accessed
Gives a wide variety of information / (apparently) limitless range of facts available
Gives (mostly) free information (information is cheap(er) / not as expensive as books //

internet has no cost = 0)
Information is easily stored // computers dont take up much space / as much space as
books
Online courses save travel time / money for travel // online courses can be done at home
// no need to go to an educational establishment
People from all over the world can participate in same course (location is not a factor
alone = 0)
Emails / messages dont interrupt / disturb the recipient
Emails / messages can be sent at any time (emails can be sent at night = 0)
Skype allows visual (as well as audible) contact with others / people // an internet service
allows visual contact
10 Friendships made / supported via social networking (sites) (via Facebook / sites like
Facebook = 0)
11 Online shopping saves time (for busy families / people) (frees up busy families = 0)
12 e-books are cheaper than real books
13 Online shopping takes customers away from shops / shopping centres
14 Online shopping removes social dimension / side of shopping // online shopping reduces
the opportunity to meet friends while shopping (lift of lines 3031 people who shop
coffee there = 0)
15 Browsing / shopping for / buying books (on the internet) denies the pleasure of handling
books (reading books = 0)
16 Browsing for books (on the internet) reduces the opportunity of discovering a wonderful /
special / amazing / good book by accident (a new book = 0)
17 Possible to become a slave to email / messages // pressure to check emails / messages
ALLOW answers which capture the idea of excessive reliance, e.g. too reliant (slave to
social sites = 0)
Page 3
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
18 Destroys (art of) letter writing

19 Addictive // prevents people doing more fulfilling / better things // people waste time / surf
/ use internet instead of doing more fulfilling / better things (specific examples, e.g.
playing sport = 0)
20 (some / sometimes) inappropriate material (any suggestion of all material, e.g. the
material = 0)
21 (some / sometimes) wrong / misleading information // not all websites are reliable (any
suggestion of all information, e.g. the information= 0)
22 Simple transactions become complicated
ALLOW line 44 simple transactions in the past become complicated
[15]
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(b) Candidates have now fleshed out their notes into a piece of formal, continuous prose.
The mark for Style incorporates TWO categories of writing, namely OWN WORDS and
USE OF ENGLISH. The table which follows on page 6 provides descriptors of the
mark levels assigned to these TWO categories.
In assessing the overall mark for Style, first of all assign the script to a mark level under
the category of OWN WORDS. Then arrive at the mark level for USE OF ENGLISH.
wholesale copying and complete transcript is that, whereas in wholesale copying
there is nothing / little that is original, the copying has been selective and directed at
the question, but with a complete transcript the candidate has started copying and
rare.
Write marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH separately in comments box
beneath the question. Access this comments box by clicking on the speech bubble
on Scoris Task Bar. Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH
together and divide by two. Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number e.g.
OW 3, UE 2, giving 3 to be entered in Scoris marks column.
Use margin (either left or right) to indicate OWN WORDS assessment, and the body
of the script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use
either T (text), O (own words) or MR (manipulated or re-worked text).Where the
candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has substituted an odd
word here and there (single word substitution) indicate these single words with O
above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of OW.
assessment, use either cross or carat as appropriate for errors (over the errors). You
may use carats for omission, but you are free to use crosses. Indicate only serious
errors. If the same error is made more than once, e.g. omission of definite article,
indicate it each time it is made. A list of serious errors is on page 5.
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Mis-spellings of simple, basic words e.g. were / where // to/ too/ their/ there.
Breakdown of sense.
Serious omissions, or serious intrusions e.g. of definite article. Ignore what are clearly
slips.
For sentence structure merit, use ticks where appropriate, in the body of the script. Tick
only instances where the sentence structure is both complex and original, i.e. belonging to
the two top boxes in the Use of English column on the MS. Ticks, therefore, tend to be
over relative pronouns, present particles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will
be taken into consideration under assessment of OW.
Irrelevance: Put IR in the margin to indicate a stretch / section of irrelevance.
If a script is entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and
UE, then add together and halve) and give 2 max for style. Note that such scripts are
extremely rare.
wrong or invented material. This might count as oblique or limited own words when you
come to assess OW.
Short answers
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
Own Words

language.
Mark
5
Use of English

re-phrase the text.

attempts to re-phrase the text
detail. Attempt may be limited by
mangled relevance.

transcript.
word expression.
below.

of the text.

ability to use original complex syntax
to the reader.
isolated.
generally helpful.
attempted.
correct.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 7
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Question 2:
2
Paper
21
2 marks [from paragraph 4]
Opinion 1:
People (who surf the net) never cease to be amazed at the (apparently limitless)
range of facts available.
[1]
Opinion 2:
No-one wants their house cluttered with books.
[1]
Opinion 3:
line 5 the internet is beneficial Excess denies
[1]
Allow any 2 of 3 for 1 mark each

Question 3:
3
The writer thinks that the internet can be a force for good in the world.
Question 4:
4
1 mark [from paragraph 9]

[1]
2 marks [from knowledge or experience]
Do not accept examples from the passage, but be generous with candidates interpretation.
[2 1]
Allow: blogging // downloading music // watching movies or television // listening to the radio //
studying for exams // booking flights / train tickets / holidays / travel arrangements / playing
games
Do not accept shopping.
(NB travel arrangements should not be classed as shopping).
Do not accept vague generalisations, e.g. downloading material.
Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Passage 2
Question 5:
5
2 marks [from paragraph 1]
(i) low (slanted) ceilings
[1]
Accept lift of lines 23 One of the adults away. Excess denies.

(ii) It was over a detached garage / behind the house / detached from the house / away from
the house
[1]
Lift of lines 12 behind the housebedroom = 0 (even if agent is changed) Answer must
be distilled
Far from the house = 0
(iii) (dark) outside stairway (from his room)
[1]
Lift of that night my room. = 0 (even if agent is changed) Answer must be distilled.
Any 2 of 3 for 1 mark each
Question 6:
6
1 mark [from paragraph 2)
(i) public aquariums
Accept lift of I sold starfish public aquariums. Excess denies.
(ii) (a local) restaurant(s)
Accept lift of I offloaded.local restaurant. Excess denies.
(iii) a (private aquarium) dealer Accept lift of for the more unusual types aquarium dealer.
Excess denies.
[1]
Accept points where made.
Candidates must have all three points correctly made for 1 mark.
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Question 7:
7
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
5 marks (2 + 2 + 1) [from paragraph 3)
(a) Accept any two of the following:

(i) (Its) massive / very large
Accept lift of line 13 massive moon snail. Excess denies.
(ii) The shell is like a (bulldozer) cab.
Accept lift of lines 1314 its undersized shellbulldozer.
(iii) Look for answers which capture the idea of the comparative size of the two parts of
the snails body.
e.g. a small section on top of a large(r) one // a small shell compared to / on top of a
large body
Its undersized shellbody = 0
(iv) Its very powerful / not to be deflected // it destroyed anything in its path
[2]
(Clams alone = 0)
[Any 2 of 4 for 1 mark each]
(b) (i) he was tending / looking after / maintaining the judges oysters
[1]
Lift of I was tending the judges oysters = 0.

If person is used, it must be third person. But tending the judges oysters = 1
Lift of line 17 if I was caughtoysters = 0
But if expressed in 3rd person, i.e. if he was caughtoysters = 1
The judges oyster farm alone = 0
(ii) Look for answers which capture the idea of not supposed / expected to tend the
oysters / do that at night
e.g. he wouldnt normally look after the oysters / do that at night // he would normally
look after the oysters / do that during the day
[1]
Lifting will not work, including lift of lines 1718 (he paid me.of course)
(c) they respected him/ were in awe of him
Fear / apprehension = 0 (N)
Dislike / hatred = 0 (W)
My father tucked his shirt in / the judge spoke in a deep, easy rumble = 0(N)
[1]
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Question 8:
8
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
3 marks (2 + 1) [from paragraph 4)
(a) This is an own words question. Key words are AMUSED/ SMALL NUMBERS and
CROWDED / UNHINGED.
AMUSED/ SMALL NUMBERS: (he found them) funny / entertaining / comical // made him
laugh / smile (he found them) pleasant / interesting / fascinating // he liked them = 0
when there werent many of them / were a few of them
[1]
Both elements are needed for the mark here. There are no half marks. For example,
They entertained him when there were a few of them = 1
They amused him when there were a few of them = 0
They entertained him (alone) = 0
CROWDED / UNHINGED: when there were a lot of / many / several / dozens of them / in
a large group
Surrounded him / more of them / bunch = 0 in a group alone = 0
(they) disturbed / upset / made him uneasy / fearful / afraid / uncomfortable
Bothered / repelled disgusted / horrified // made him unhappy = 0
[1]
Both elements are needed for the mark here. There are no half marks. For example,
They frightened him when there were a lot of them = 1
They frightened him when there were a few of them = 1
They frightened him = 0
(b) under siege
[1]
Give 0 if one or more than two words are offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a
sentence or expression, provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
Question 9:
9
3 marks (1 + 2) [from paragraph 5)
(a) (once) It got stuck / stranded / trapped (when the tide went out / on land / in the mud
//rescuers (helped to) free it / it was freed (when the tide was high enough)
[1]
Lift of Was a whale stranded again, I wondered = 0. It was stuck in the ocean = 0 It got
stranded again = 0
Lift of it got stuck out there = 0.
(b) This is an own words question. Key words are MORTAL and DANGER.
DANGER: threat / risk / possibility / chance / hazard
[1]
MORTAL: death / dying / life ending / drowning

Life-threatening // his life would be at risk // he could / might have died = 2
He would have died = 1
[1]
Page 11
Mark Scheme
Question 10:
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
6 marks (1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1) [from paragraph 6)
10 (a) (his heart was beating fast and) he was excited/ afraid /scared/ terrified / anxious
[1]
Nervous / overwhelmed = 0 (N) His heart was beating fast = 0. Question asks for a feeling.
(b) (i) it was hard to be sure /you couldnt tell where it began and ended
[1]
Lift of lines 3940 (It was hard.ended ) = 1. Excess denies.

(ii) he couldnt take his eyes off/ stop looking at the tentacles // he was too busy looking
at the tentacles to think of anything else / how big it was // because of the jumble of
tentacles
[1]
Lift of lines 4142 (I was afraidsecond) = 0. But change to third person = 1.
(iii) it was dark
[1]
Lift of my flashlight crossed it = 0. Answer must be distilled.

Accept any two of three for 1 mark
(c) squid(s) / creature(s) / animal(s)
[1]
Give 0 if more than one word is offered. Accept the use of the correct word in a sentence
or expression, provided that it is underlined or otherwise highlighted.
Tentacles / octopus = 0
(d) its /the huge eye // the size of its eye // an eye 30 centimetres across
[1]
Reference to dark/ shiny = 0(N) the / an eye = 0

Triangular body / fins / tentacles = 0 (W)
Lift of line 44 the dark shiny disc must extend to 30 centimetres across = 1
Lift of line 44 I gradually realized30 centimetres across = 0 But change to 3rd person = 1
(e) the danger (he was in) // the fear (he felt) is stressed / emphasised //( it creates) suspense
/ a cliffhanger // the reader wonders what will happen next
[1]
Fear (alone) / surprise / climax = 0
Emphasis / stress (alone) = 0 (N)
Extends / worsens / heightens the fear = 0
Page 12
Mark Scheme
Question 11:
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
5 marks [From the whole passage]

but neutral, e.g. separate and uninvolved for detached
within this limit.
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 mark
for each
correct
meaning
1 detached (L2)
Separate / not joined / stand

alone / not part of / not
connected / apart
indifferent / uninvolved / not

attached / disconnected /
discrete / not together
2 faintly(L5)
not loud(ly) / softly / quietly /

distantly / in the distance /
difficult to hear / barely audible
/ indistinctly / not clearly
difficult to see / not much noise /

barely / slightly / fading / weakly
/ calmly / lightly
3 reek (L5)
stink / stench/ malodour / pong //

unpleasant / bad/ foul / smell
Scent / perfume/ smell / odour
4 haul(L10)
collection / finds / catch / harvest
Discovery / heave/ pull / gain /

pickings / takings
5 clasping(L25)
holding / gripping /grasping /

seizing fastening onto / getting
hold of / grabbing / hanging on to
/ clinging to / clutching / clamping
on to
embracing / cuddling / pinching /

closing
6 relatively(L27)
quite / fairly / more or less /

comparatively / moderately / to an
extent / mostly / pretty much
almost / nearly/ akin to /

generally / completely /
compared to / closely /
partially / rather
7exhaling (L29)
breathing (out)
sighing
8 prise (L41)
remove / take/ pull / drag / force /

wrench / move
Push / reward / avert / divert
Cambridge General Certificate of Education Ordinary Level

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Reading
Key Messages
For Question 1, the summary, candidates are advised to focus on the main ideas of the subject as
presented in the text rather than introducing material from their own knowledge. To answer the two parts of
this question appropriately, candidates are encouraged to practise differentiation between the note style
suggested for Question 1(a) and the continuous writing suggested by the instructions for Question 1(b);
this will enable them to focus on and fulfil the requirement of each rubric in the most efficient way.
While the overall standard of written English was generally good, and in some cases impressive, there is a
general need for more practice in sentence structure, particularly the accurate separation of sentences by full
stops. Use of the definite article, its omission as well as its unnecessary intrusion, could also be improved
upon.
Candidates need to develop greater skills in answering those questions which require a response in their
own words. While many showed an ability to identify the key words in such questions, there remains a need
for candidates to substitute these key words with their own.
Certain answers require some distillation of the text; that is, answers which are derived or extracted from the
ideas in the text. In order to do this, candidates need to read carefully the whole of the paragraph to which
the question directs them, ensuring that all relevant material has been considered, before answering. Great
care is also needed in reading the questions and in considering precisely what is demanded by them.
Most candidates attempted all the questions and completed the paper without any issue with time, showing
themselves to have been well prepared for the types of questions which might be asked. The majority
responded neatly and carefully, within the guiding parameters of the answer booklet. The practice especially in Questions 1(a) and 1(b) - of writing draft answers in pencil, before going over them in pen, is
one which can cause problems with legibility and is best avoided.
General Comments
Questions were to be answered on two passages, the first being non-narrative and the second, narrative.
Both appeared to engage the candidates interest and the variety of subject matter provided the opportunity
for questions which stretched and discriminated amongst candidates, allowing the best responses to
demonstrate an ability to deal with the familiar as well as the unfamiliar. This was reflected in a wide range
of scores.
The first passage, The Internet, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas; the second, the story of
Miles and his extraordinary discovery, tested their reading for meaning. 20 marks were available for the
summary question, with 15 of these marks being awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to
select content points from the text of The Internet, and 5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express
these points fluently in their own words. Further questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas; in this
case to distinguish fact from opinion and a true statement from false ones. The last question in Section 1
gave the opportunity to respond to the text by drawing on their personal knowledge and experience.
vocabulary, use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft.
The answer booklets writing-frame format for the summary question, both Question 1(a) and
Question 1(b), largely prevented candidates from writing to excess or copying verbatim at length. The best
responses avoided irrelevance and adhered to the rubric.

In Question 1(a) those candidates who followed the bullet point style of the first (given) point in each answer
box produced a clear list of selected ideas. The two boxes, with their clear headings, are intended to guide
candidates to separate the two different aspects required in the summary, and very few put content points in
the wrong boxes. Candidates are advised to aim for a single clear point per bullet to avoid confusion, with no
point relying on a previous one unless a clear contextual link is made. Those few candidates who continued
the question on a separate sheet sensibly made clear to which box these extra points related.
In Question 1(b), candidates were to write up their note form content points in formal, continuous prose;
there were some commendable results among those who made a sustained attempt to use their own words
and original structures. Others needed to include greater originality of expression in order to gain high
marks. Many candidates attempted to rework the relevant details from the passage, with the substitution of
their own words here and there where possible. Those who lifted randomly selected patches of text
sometimes encountered difficulty in linking them and the result made only fractured sense.
Comments on Specific Questions

Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of the Internet, as described in the
passage. The summary had to be based on all but the first and final paragraphs, and candidates were to
write their answers in note form, choosing to use either the words of the text or their own words. One
content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration; there was no advantage in
repeating them as these given points were not rewarded with a mark.
Excluding those provided, there were a further 20 content points, of which candidates could identify any
combination up to a maximum of 15 points, carrying one mark each. Most candidates listed the points either
in note form or in short sentences, usually under bullet marks, which allowed them adequate space to record
all their responses. Others copied whole sections of the passage, reducing their ability to isolate the points
while increasing the potential for including irrelevant text and running out of space.
Paragraphs 2, 3, 4 and 5 referred to various benefits provided by the Internet and there were 11 points which
the candidates could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 3 content points, all linked to the information
available from the Internet and how using it compares with the use of books. Almost without exception
candidates recognised the wide variety of such information, the fact that it is generally free to the recipient
and that it is easier to store than books. Paragraph 3 suggested 2 advantages of online courses, the
essential element being online. The first could be expressed either as the fact that they allow studying from
home, or in terms of the saving in travel cost or time to get to an educational establishment. The majority
offered one or other form of this point, realising that the essential element was the online nature of the
courses; a few volunteered both forms, though only one mark was available. The second advantage
concerned the potential for candidates throughout the world to follow a course together. The best responses
recognised this as a benefit and talked about the possibility of global or international education. In
Paragraph 4 there were 4 content points which dealt with the various forms of communication available via
the Internet and their specific merits. That emails can be sent without any interruption to the recipient was
almost unfailingly noted; that such messages can be sent at any time, day or night, was less frequently
picked up. While mention was usually made of Skype, its unique benefit - that of allowing visible as well as
audible contact, over long distances - was not always considered. The final communication advantage was
the making or maintaining of friendships through social networking sites. Reference to the example of
Facebook alone, instead of to the generic term, was not sufficient to score. Paragraph 5 concerned online
shopping and candidates could find 2 points there: that online shopping saves time and that e-books are
cheaper than real books. The more successful responses recognised the importance of the time-saving
element in the first and, in the second, the necessity to complete the comparison between conventional and
e-books rather than writing: E-books are cheaper.
The second section of the rubric required the disadvantages of the Internet and a further 9 points were
available in Paragraphs 6, 7 and 8. Paragraph 6 continued the online shopping theme of the previous
paragraph, suggesting 3 disadvantages of this facility: that it removes the social aspect of shopping, or
reduces the opportunity to meet friends while shopping; that browsing or shopping for books in this way
denies one the pleasure of handling real books; and that browsing for books also reduces the chance of
finding a special book by accident. In each of these three points it was essential to define precisely which
aspect of Internet use causes the disadvantage. The best answers differentiated between It, i.e. the
Internet of the rubric, and online shopping for the first point; browsing or shopping for books in the

second; and browsing for books in the third. Responses which suggested that the Internet as a whole
causes these disadvantages could not score. There were another 5 points in Paragraph 7: the first 2
suggested that people become slaves to their email and have lost the art of letter writing because of it; the
next raised the concern of Internet addiction; the last 2 focused on the presence of both inappropriate and
inaccurate material. The last available point was to be found in Paragraph 8: where candidates avoided the
example of computerised shop tills crashing and concentrated on the main point i.e. simple transactions
have been made more complicated, the mark was awarded. The better responses achieved this.
A small number of candidates were awarded maximum points and a large number scored half marks and
above. While points can be made by producing a list of notes or short sentences in bullet point form, as
indicated above, rather than in continuous prose, all points nevertheless need to be fully made; they should
be clear enough to be fully understood by another person. Where marks were lost it was often because
points were incompletely made, e.g. referring to courses being done from home, without the defining online
adjective, or suggesting that emails can be sent, with no mention of the lack of interruption to the recipient.
Use of the correct agent or context for each point should be clearly indicated. Thus, for example, it is
specifically online shopping which removes the social dimension of shopping and that had to be stated;
browsing or shopping for books online had to be identified precisely as denying the pleasure of handling
books. The general pronoun it would otherwise refer inaccurately to the agent of the rubric: here, the
Internet in general.
In Question 1(b) candidates were asked to use their notes to write a summary, in their own words, stating
the advantages and disadvantages of the Internet, as outlined in the passage. They were to write no more
than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer booklet.
The vast majority of candidates completed the exercise, and most did so comfortably within the given space.
All candidates engaged readily with the subject matter of the text and this encouraged the use of own words,
which a good number of them used in a sustained or noticeable manner. The best candidates competently
and confidently re-cast and re-shaped the text, using complex sentences with a variety of structures, gaining
many, or full marks for style. Others selected appropriate areas of text, restructuring and editing it without
innovation or originality in their use of English. Weaker responses were those which directly copied blocks of
text; in the attempt to link these, it proved difficult to control sentence structure fluently.
Commendably, very short answers were extremely rare; candidates are advised that such brevity can never
justify a high mark because sustained use of own words or completely accurate English cannot be
demonstrated. Most candidates adhered to the rubric by attempting to use their notes to summarise the
contents of the passage; very few included additional material from outside the given parameters. Because
the Internet as a topic was one with which all candidates were familiar, a small number of responses strayed
from the content of both their own notes and of the text itself; personal views on the subject were included, or
material which was only obliquely relevant. Candidates are advised to focus carefully on the task of
summarising material in accordance with the rubric: as outlined in the passage. A high mark for use of own
words which are irrelevant to that passage will not be possible.
A number of the advantages and disadvantages of the Internet referred to in the text were compared with
other, non-technological methods of doing things; as such, relative adjectives were common. Whether
writing in note form or in continuous prose, candidates need to ensure that their version of a comparison is
complete. To say that The Internet is faster and cheaper, or that Computers take up less space make
neither complete points, for Question 1a, nor complete sense, in Question 1b. Candidates also need to
work on the use of the definite article, as in The Internet helps people and It removes the social
dimension of shopping, and on sentence separation, i.e. using full stops rather than commas. Emphasis on
the use of appropriate verb forms will improve style and help to avoid any awkwardness of construction, as in
Computers make the house to have more space and Online shopping makes the shoppers not to go to real
shops. Learning the spelling and uses of basic, similar-sounding words will avoid confusion between words
such as their and there (as in when their is Internet access people can do there shopping online; between
to and too (as in people spend to much time surfing); and between lose and loose (as in shops loose
business.
section of it. Question 2 asked for 2 opinions from Paragraph 2. Candidates could select any two of three
observations which were subjective rather than objectively verifiable: that people never cease to be amazed
at the range of facts available (on the Internet); that No-one wants their house cluttered with books; and
that the Internet is beneficial. The most perceptive candidates, who looked for observations from the writer
which could not be proved true, usually selected the first and second options to score both marks. A number
of others selected one or other of these two but did not recognise a second opinion; the third was rarely

offered. Many candidates selected indisputable facts rather than opinions e.g. candidates can use
computers instead of books or information is easily stored. Practice is needed in recognising the
difference between fact and opinion. It was necessary to understand that opinions were to be selected from
paragraph 2; candidates own opinions could not score. When a few candidates misread opinions from
paragraph 2 as opinions from Passage 2, responses were equally invalid and showed, again, that careful
reading of the rubric is always essential.
Question 3 asked which one of three statements, based on the passage, was true. The majority ticked the
third box, correctly, recognising that the writer thinks the Internet can be a force for good in the world and
ignoring the other two statements offered, as they were distortions of the text. Very few ticked more than
one box and could not score.
Question 4 asked for two examples of ways in which the Internet can be used. Almost all candidates
accepted the personal nature of the response required and offered, as instructed, examples from their own
very wide knowledge or experience. There were many fascinating, successful uses suggested. Just
occasionally the context of the use was inappropriate: To apply for a job was a sensible suggestion; to
provide jobs for Internet repair men was not. Other responses confused use of the Internet with use of
computer software such as spreadsheets and could not score. Only a small minority did not read the rubric
carefully enough and offered generalised references to research or to keeping in touch with people, both of
which came from the text.
Candidates found this text more challenging than the first. Questions on the writers craft require that
candidates learn how to recognise and decode figurative language; inferential questions demand that they
focus on what lies beneath a literal interpretation.
Question 5 required two features of Miless bedroom which meant that he could live untroubled by adults
and candidates could choose from three possibilities offered by the text: that it was detached from the house,
or over a detached garage; its low ceilings; and that there was an outside stairway to exit the room. The
low, slanted ceilings were explicitly referred to as something which kept the adults away and many
candidates recognised this, though a large number tried to make two reasons from one: (i) the low ceilings;
(ii) the slanted ceilings. The slant of a ceiling does not, necessarily, cause the taller adults a problem; a
low ceiling does. Thus, only the first of these could score for one mark. The other two reasons had to be
deduced from the fact that his room was over a detached garage and inferred from the fact that he was
unnoticed when he used the outside staircase. A fair number of candidates successfully noted the
detached position; fewer offered the third alternative.
Question 6 directed the reader to a fairly short paragraph 2 which explicitly gave the three sources from
which Miles got money by selling sea creatures; all three were needed for one mark. While the majority of
responses were successful through direct lifting, others appeared to be the result of a misread question and
listed the types of creatures he sold, rather than to whom he sold them.
Question 7(a) was a discriminating question which required, for two marks, two ways in which the snail
resembled a bulldozer. There were four possible ways from which to choose, one being straightforward
mention of the snails massive size, and this was a popular first answer. The next way was couched in
terms of a simile which could be directly lifted from the text: its undersized shell riding high on its body like
the cab of a bulldozer. While this was commonly attempted, many candidates stopped short of completing
the comparison, ending their quotation at body and omitting the necessary link to bulldozer. Another way
of expressing this was by capturing the idea of the comparative sizes of the two parts of the snails body e.g.
that it had a small section on top of a large / larger one. The last possibility was to decode the metaphorical
comparison between the huge snail hunting for crabs in its path, and the personified bulldozer destroying
anything in its way; both images of great power. The few attempts to suggest this did not usually score
because they mentioned only the destruction of clams; this was too specific to the moon snail and not
something that a bulldozer is likely to destroy. A small proportion of candidates succeeded in offering two
complete comparisons; a few more gained one of the two marks.
Question 7(b) was in two parts and necessitated candidates understanding the meaning of alibi; there
were those who did not, despite the textual indication that it was something Miles would need if he were to
be caught at the judges oyster farm. It was not the farm itself which would be the alibi, but that he was
tending the oysters; something which he hoped might be a valid excuse as he was paid to help in this way.
Once the alibi was given, candidates then had to say why it was a rather weak one. The best responses
scored both marks, while many others gave only The judges farm as an imprecise alibi, frequently offering

no explanation of its weakness. Still others failed to score because their expression was confused.
Responses such as His alibi was the judges oyster farm and it was weak because he was tending the
oysters muddled the two parts of the answer. Where two pieces of information are required, candidates are
advised to treat each in a distinctly separate way. Misreading the question as What is an alibi? rather than
What was Miless alibi? resulted in a definition, occasionally followed by a correct reason for the weakness
of this particular one which scored one of the two marks.
Question 7(c) was an inferential one, candidates having to deduce what peoples attitude towards the judge
was from their actions in his presence. Most responses offered ideal words or phrases such as respectful
or in awe of him, suggesting that candidates had learnt how to approach such inferential questions.
In Question 8(a) candidates had to answer in their own words, after first identifying the key words which
described the writers two contrasting attitudes to crabs. There were two marks for this question and the two
attitudes were clearly to be recast separately under (i) and (ii) in the answer booklet. There was apparently
no difficulty in identifying the key phrases: crabs amused me in small numbers, but.crowded together like
this they unhinged me. More often than not, however, candidates found paraphrasing extremely
challenging; the text words, or some of them, were used as the responses, with very little attempt to offer
synonyms. Amused was often correctly recast as were funny or entertained, while in small numbers was
left as it stood and the attitude was thus incompletely expressed. The best responses to the second attitude
cleverly substituted in large numbers for crowded, and offered such words as unnerved, scared or
disturbed for unhinged. In a group did not adequately convey the large number of crabs, while hated
and made him unhappy were weak alternatives for unhinged. Sometimes, as here, an own words
question may demand that a complete phrase, rather than individual key words, be expressed in an original
way.
Question 8(b) looked for the two consecutive words which suggested an attack on the oyster beds by the
crabs. The majority of candidates understood the metaphorical use of under siege and quoted the words
correctly. A common alternative which did not score was pincers clasping. Clearly the word consecutive
was usually understood, though there were a number of responses which offered, for example, clasping and
siege neither two nor consecutive words.
Question 9(a) required candidates to distil their answers from the text, avoiding the wording of Miless
internal question and replacing it with an explanation of the event which he was remembering. This was
succinctly done by most candidates, either by explaining that the minke whale had been stuck or stranded, or
that it had been rescued or freed on a previous occasion. When either the word again or the word out was
added to It was stuck, the situation was obviously not understood.
Question 9(b) was the second one in which candidates had to answer in their own words to explain why
Miles knew he had to avoid stepping into the mud. The key words to be identified were separated from
those quoted in the question by some distracting detail: that he was experienced enough with the conditions
to know the danger, and that there was a general rule not to step there if the tide was coming in. The crucial
words to explain exactly why this was so came next, suggesting that, if you did not follow your experience
and the general rule, you were in mortal danger. It was a demanding question, requiring careful scrutiny of
the text to pinpoint those key words, especially as the word danger appeared twice in the paragraph. Its
first use implied a lack of safety; its second carried the rather different meaning of chance, risk or
possibility. It was this latter use, coupled in a phrase with mortal, which might have suggested that here
were the two words which, if adequately recast, would warrant the two marks available. The strongest
responses clearly recognised the key words and some impressive idiom was seen to substitute for them,
even without a direct synonym for mortal, such as death or, here, drowning: e.g. You would be in a lifethreatening situation or You were risking your life. Other creditable efforts included the more obvious
synonyms, such as the fear of death, or The chance you might drown. The conditional idea that You could
have died was also perfectly acceptable, suggesting as it does the sense of a possibility. Candidates know
that a question which asks for own words must be dealt with in two stages: locate the key words or phrases
and then recast them. Many weaker answers did not follow this technique: some quoted verbatim that he
knew the danger and what the rule was, without expanding on this; others suggested that the mud would
trap him, that he would be in big trouble, or that he must not take dirty mud into the house.
In Question 10(a) candidates had to show that they understood how Miles was feeling, given the roaring of
blood in his ears. This was generally well answered, with a range of sensations from fear and anxiety to
excitement and tension. Only a few responses were unable to gain the mark; these focused on the physical
reason for the roaring that his heart was beating fast rather than the implicit emotional reason. A few
responses incorrectly interpreted the figurative roaring as meaning that Miles was in pain, or deaf.

Question 10(b) was another inferential question, necessitating that candidates looked for any links in the
text which would provide two reasons why Miles was uncertain of the squids exact size. In fact, there were
three possible reasons from which to select two. The creature was described in various ways, only two of
which meant that he could not be sure of its size: first, it was difficult to tell where its body began and ended;
second, he could not take his eyes away from its tentacles. This tentacles reason could equally have been
given by reference to their being jumbled up. Some stronger responses offered one or other of these
reasons, and a few went for the third reason, distilled from the fact that Miles carried a flashlight: it was dark.
It was a demanding question and, because the irrelevant triangular shape and flat, wing-like fins were
regularly offered, one mark was awarded more frequently than two for responses here.
Question 10(c) asked for the single word in the paragraph to which the pronoun its referred, when Miles
wondered whether he was within its reach. About half of the candidates carefully traced the text back,
through another its, to find the original noun creature (or creatures); some showed an even more
confident understanding by replacing it with squid. Those who read the question less carefully spoiled their
answers by including more than one word and could not score.
Question 10(d) looked for what, in particular, convinced the writer that this was a giant squid. All responses
came from the right area of the text, focusing on the disc in the rubbery mass which was the creatures eye.
The strongest candidates recognised that there had to be something special about this eye, rather than that
of any other sea creature, which convinced Miles; they read on to see that it was the huge size of that eye.
It had an eye, thirty centimetres across was a popular lift; others paraphrased to offer Its huge eye or its
eye was so big. Many weaker responses spoke only of the shiny disc in the rubbery mass or that it had an
eye; such answers did not adequately define the special nature of the feature.
Question 10(e) While simile and metaphor were to be considered in earlier questions, the ability to respond
further to the writers craft was tested here, by asking what the writer achieved by the final short sentence of
the extract. There were a number of candidates, clearly well prepared to consider how and what effects can
be created by an author, who gave a correct and succinct answer: suspense or a cliffhanger. Others wrote
about readers wondering what will happen next. The danger that he was in was another possible correct
answer given by a very small minority. Those who offered fear, alone, needed to be aware that Miless fear
had already been shown; the effect of this short sentence was to heighten or emphasise that fear. Other
frequent, incorrect answers suggested that the short sentence showed how unusual it was to find a giant
squid or that Miles could sell it for a high price. Neither of these saw this final sentence as a stylistic device.
Question 11 was the customary vocabulary question. Candidates were required to show their
eight. Many candidates achieved at least 3 marks and a fair number scored 4 or 5. Few found themselves
unable to paraphrase only one or two words and the practice of using the given words in a sentence, rather
than defining them, was seen even more rarely.
Detached was a popular choice, almost invariably recast correctly as separate or not connected, though
disconnected, when offered, could not score. Faintly was also seen in many scripts, usually defined, for a
mark, as softly, difficult to hear or, from the stronger candidates, barely audible; slightly and silent were
among the inaccurate attempts. Fewer candidates attempted reek, and while a number of those which
attempted it knew that there had to be a suggestion of unpleasantness, others gave the single words smell,
odour or scent which were insufficient. The best candidates correctly added such adjectives as bad, foul
or nasty to the idea of smell while others knew the words stench and stink. Haul appeared frequently
and was a successful choice with finds, catch, collection and harvest all giving the right meaning.
Equally popular was clasping, with its numerous possible synonyms such as holding, gripping, grasping
and clutching; possibly the only imprecise answer seen was pinching presumably suggested by the
pincers which were clasping. Perhaps the most difficult word which could be selected was relatively; fewer
attempted this than any other word. The best synonyms, showing the greatest understanding, were mostly,
quite, more or less, and fairly; comparatively was seen infrequently. almost and compared to were
common attempts which did not score. Exhaling, chosen by the majority of candidates, was recast precisely,
in most cases, as breathing out, though breathing alone was accepted; distortions such as gasping or
breathing heavily were not. The last word, prise, was seen less frequently than most of the others and the
best substitutes were drag, wrench, and force; take, remove and move were all acceptable alternatives
and those who were confident enough to attempt it usually scored.
Some responses offered two or more synonyms for a word; candidates are advised that only the first word
offered as an answer will be credited (unless, of course, it is the first word in a phrase of definition).
Responses should therefore be decided on with care.

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2013
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
Passage 1 Pandas
1
Pandas have always aroused interest and love. In Ancient China, they were thought of as rare
and noble creatures. The mother of one Chinese emperor was buried with a panda skull in
her tomb, and the grandson of another emperor is rumoured to have given Japan two pandas
as a token of goodwill. In the 1970s, loans of pandas to American and Japanese zoos marked
the first signs of friendship between those countries and the Peoples Republic of China,
giving rise to the term panda diplomacy. However, nowadays the panda is also known to be
an endangered species.
Pandas have been the target of poachers since ancient times for many reasons, including their
warm fur. Sometimes their habitat is destroyed by those who want to clear land for agriculture.
This deforestation, as it is called, is sometimes legal, sometimes not, but the effect is the 10
same for the panda. A population explosion in China in the mid-twentieth century increased
the need for land, often panda habitat, for housing. Around the same time, there was a famine
in China which led to increased hunting of wildlife, including pandas, for food. When people
are living under such conditions, it is hardly surprising that conservation issues are not high
on their agenda. Chinas rapid economic expansion in relatively recent times means that 15
some of the pandas habitat has also been removed to make way for industrial development.
Even when their habitat is not completely destroyed, it is increasingly fragmented by roads,
railways and other infrastructure that is part of this economic expansion.
Although pandas have been known to eat fish, bananas and eggs, their staple diet is bamboo,
around a kilo each day, and there are problems finding this large amount. As their habitat is 20
encroached upon, pandas are forced to move higher and higher into the mountains, where
there are fewer types of bamboo available to them.
Pandas are further endangered by the fact that, when a cub is born in the wild, it lives with
its mother for up to three years, and so each female produces only a few cubs in her lifetime.
Furthermore, they are not keen to breed in captivity, despite many efforts by zoologists to 25
encourage them to do so; for example, Bao Bao has lived in Berlin Zoo for 25 years without
reproducing. Although nature reserves do exist to protect pandas, the staff are often
inexperienced and lack knowledge about how to manage such reserves. Conservation
attempts are sometimes hindered by economics; the cost of keeping a panda is up to five
times more than that of keeping the next most expensive endangered animal, the elephant.
30
Nevertheless, we might be encouraged by what is being done to protect this universally loved
animal. Conservation reserves have been opened to prevent their numbers declining. Two
decades ago there were thirteen of these reserves, and by 2006 the number had risen to forty.
At the same time, laws have been passed to limit ownership of guns to prevent poaching, and
to remove people living on territory which has been reserved for these adorable creatures.
35
Conservation organisations, for example the World Wildlife Fund, have worked tirelessly to
protect the panda. The WWF has campaigned for an increase in the area of panda habitat
under legal protection. Sometimes pandas become isolated by the encroachment of towns
on their territory, and the WWF has campaigned for the creation of green corridors to link
isolated pandas. In various parts of China, patrols have been established against poaching 40
and illegal deforestation, manned by experienced and trained personnel.
Some zoos borrow pandas to raise public awareness of the pandas plight by educating
visitors who flock to see them; an example of this is Edinburgh Zoo which, in January 2011,
secured the loan of two pandas. Some of these zoos insist that they will pay the loan fee only
if China spends at least half of it on work on panda conservation. The WWF has used the 45
panda as its logo since the organisations foundation in 1961, thus further raising the profile of
the panda and the need to conserve it.
UCLES 2013
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/13
Passage 2
A teenage boy called Miles tells the story of a night when he went out on the mudflats by the sea with
his friend Phelps.
1
My friend Phelps waded into the sea up to his calves. He was wearing waist-high rubber
waders, so I didnt worry about him getting wet, but the mud usually softened the further out
you went, and I told him that. Thanks, Dad, he said, without looking back. I didnt say anything
when he went in above his knees. He rolled up his sleeves, reached down and came up with
a bright orange starfish. Nice, I praised. Let me take a look. I reached out, hoping to get him
to come back.
Ill just get one more, he said. He bunched his sleeves higher and went on. Suddenly it looked
as if hed skipped a step on a staircase. Water rose past his thighs. He tried to turn and
retreat, but the more he struggled the lower he sank. His waist was almost under water. Im
stuck, he said.
10
I took off my boots and stepped into the water to my knees, then dived and dug around his
feet. The mud felt as loose and light as flour. Then I pulled up his left leg and thats when I felt
the mud grab hold of my right foot and panic rip through the length of me. Id been temporarily
stuck often enough to know that, if I shifted my weight onto my left foot to extricate my right
foot, I might never breathe again. Then Phelps grabbed my hair and neck and, exerting all of 15
his force, pulled me free as if I were a kitten. This selfless act had made the situation worse. I
was now free but the water was up to Phelpss breastbone.
When other people had got stuck, it was when they were crossing soft exposed mud, with
the typical rescue involving laying down wooden planks that the person could crawl free on.
However, Phelps was more than knee deep in mud.
20
When I told him my ideas, he pleaded with me not to leave him. The tide was coming in.
Another hour and it would be over his head. He screamed for help. But nobody lives by the
mudflats. I pulled on my boots and ran back along the beach. Earlier that night Id seen a
piece of plastic piping washed up on the shore. It was still there. I grabbed it, then sprinted
back and tossed it to Phelps. Practise fitting it to your mouth so that you can breathe through 25
it, I said. Ill be back in a flash, though I didnt really know how long it would take me to find
anyone to help. Then I ran, though I felt ashamed for leaving him.
The closest house was a mile away, and the man who answered the door looked so old I
considered running on to the next house. But after he calmed me enough to fill him in, he
found a coil of rope and an inflated raft, and then we ran back toward the mud. Once we burst 30
onto the beach, it was impossible to tell from the tranquil water or the reassuring daybreak in
the east that anything horrific was happening. I could see no sign of Phelps. Nothing. I was in
full side-aching panic.
It took me a few moments to remember that Phelps and I had roamed further south on the
beach, and another sickening moment to spot the narrow plastic pipe sticking up well beyond 35
the shrinking shore. On a second frantic look, there was also the top of Phelpss head breaking
the surface. I gasped, as if Id been underwater too, then, somewhat illogically, yelled that we
were coming, which of course he couldnt hear.
When we got close enough, I climbed on the old mans raft with the end of a rope tied in a
loop. When I got to Phelps, I could see his mouth slightly below the surface, his fist clenched 40
around the pipe and his eyes bulging insanely. I dropped the rope over Phelpss shoulders.
He grabbed it with his free hand. Make sure its around his chest, the old man yelled, then
turned and strode up the beach with the rope knotted around his hips. At first, Phelps didnt
move, then there was a pop and gradually I saw the plastic pipe moving. Next Phelps himself
emerged, coughing in the shallows. His lips were bruised purple. Hell be fine, the old man 45
said.
UCLES 2013
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/13

* 7 4 0 4 4 4 0 6 5 1 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2013

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

2
1

Identify and write down the points in the passage which tell us why the panda is an
endangered species, and the points which tell us what is being done to protect the
panda.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Why the panda is an endangered species
Target of poachers
What is being done to protect the panda
Conservation reserves have been set up
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
For
Examiners
Use
3
Now use your notes to write a summary, in which you state why, according to the
passage, the panda is an endangered species, and what is being done to protect the
panda.
For
Examiners
Use
The panda is under threat and an endangered species because ....................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
[Turn over
4
2
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is True,
False or Cannot Tell from the passage, and tick the box you have chosen.
T
CT
The panda was an important creature in Ancient China.

A Chinese emperor gave two pandas to Japan as a sign of friendship.
The first pandas to be seen in America were loans from China.
[3]
From paragraph 1, which statement best describes what panda diplomacy is? Tick the box
you have chosen.
American and Japanese people love pandas.
Foreign diplomats travelling to the Peoples Republic of China knew how important
pandas were there.
The Peoples Republic of China lent pandas to the Japanese and Americans to
establish good relations.
[1]
From paragraph 5, select and write down one opinion.

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
Read Passage 2 in the insert and then answer all the questions below in the order set.
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What did Miles warn Phelps about when he first went into the sea?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Why do you think Phelps said, Thanks Dad to Miles?
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Why do you think the narrator didnt say anything when Phelps went into the water
above his knees?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 2
6
It looked as if hed skipped a step on a staircase. What actually happened here?

............................................................................................................................................ [1]
From paragraph 3
7
(a) What effect does the writer create by saying that he felt the mud grab hold of his foot?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain in your own words the problem facing Miles.
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) What is the writer saying about Miles when he describes him as a kitten?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(d) How did Miles know the situation was worse?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 4
8
(a) Pick out and write down the single word which tells us that other people had got stuck.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) From the information in the paragraph, why would Phelpss rescue be particularly
difficult?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 5
9
What were the two ideas that Miles had to save his friends life?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 6
10 (a) The writer says it was impossible to tell that anything horrific was happening. Explain in
your own words what made him feel this way.
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Why did Miles panic when he reached the beach?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 7
11 (a) What two things did Miles see just above the surface of the water?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
............................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Why do you think the writer describes the shore as shrinking?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 8
For
Examiners
Use
12 Miles and the old man rescued Phelps.

(i)
What did Miles do to rescue Phelps?

..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(ii)
What did the old man do to rescue Phelps?

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

phrase (not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the
passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
temporarily (line 13)

fill him in (line 29)
inflated (line 30)
burst (line 30)
5.
6.
7.
8.
sickening (line 35)

slightly (line 40)
clenched (line 40)
insanely (line 41)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
Answer
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/M/J/13
Page 2
1
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) Why the panda is an endangered species and what is being done to protect it.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
for
each
correct
point
up to a
max. of
15
1. target of poachers
Allow
2. Habitat destroyed for agriculture

/ by deforestation
Farming
3. Habitat destroyed for housing

(after population explosion)
For points 2, 3 & 5 allow

habitat used / taken /
cleared / removed
Dont Allow
For points 2, 3 & 5

Land alone = 0
4. (pandas / wildlife) Killed / hunted

(for food) in time of famine
5. Habitat destroyed to make way
for industrial development
territory / their land /

panda land
6. Habitat fragmented/ broken up by

roads / railways / infrastructure
divided
Damaged, destroyed,
used etc
7. Need /eat a lot of / a kilo a day of

bamboo // difficult to get enough
bamboo / large amounts of bamboo
staple diet for bamboo
Food alone = 0
8. Fewer types of / less bamboo

available as habitat disappears / is
encroached upon
lift of lines 2022 As

their habitat is
encroachedavailable
to them
They are forced to

move higher and higher
alone = 0
A few cubs alone = 0
9. (Females / pandas / they)

produce only a few cubs / few cubs
/ not many cubs (in lifetime)
10. not keen to breed in captivity
dont breed etc.
Cant breed = 0
11. Inexperience / lack of

knowledge among staff in (nature)
reserves
12. Conservation is expensive /
conservation is hindered by
economics
keeping / raising pandas Elephant example alone

=0
/ them
13. Conservation reserves set up
There were 13 reserves

and now there are 40
14. Number of reserves is

increasing
Limit ownership of guns

to prevent poaching
15. Gun laws / gun control to

prevent poaching / hunting
Page 3
Mark Scheme
16. People living on reserves

removed
Syllabus
1123
Territory reserved for

them
Paper
22
People living in panda

habitat = 0
Territory alone = 0
17. (WWF / Conservation

organisation[s]) work / campaign to
increase panda habitat / territory
under legal protection
18. (WWF / conservation
organisation[s]) work / campaign for
(creation of) corridors to link
isolated pandas
(Experienced and
trained) personnel
alone = 0
19. Patrols established against

poaching / hunting / illegal
deforestation
20. (Some) zoos borrow pandas to
raise awareness about pandas
plight / educate visitors about
pandas plight
If point 20 is not
attempted, do not allow
point 21 without
reference to loan fee
21. (Some) zoos pay a (loan) fee

only if it / some of it / half of it is
spent on panda conservation
22. Panda used as a logo
Accept own words or lifting.
Accept sentences or note form.
Points 1 and 13 are already given.
If more than one content point appears under a single bullet point, award each content point
separately if clearly made.
withhold the mark unless a clear link is made between the two points. The following example
would gain 2 marks:
WWF works to protect pandas
It / and works to create corridors to link isolated pandas
However, the following example would gain only the first mark:
WWF works to protect pandas
Creates corridors to link isolated pandas
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Use your notes to write a summary of why the panda is an endangered species and
what is being done to protect it, as described in the passage.
USE OF ENGLISH. The table which follows on page 6 provides descriptors of the
mark levels assigned to these TWO categories.
wholesale copying and complete transcript is that: in wholesale copying there is
nothing / little that is original, but the copying has been selective and directed at the
question; with a complete transcript the candidate has started copying and continued
writing with little sense of a link to the question. Complete transcripts are rare.
Write marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH separately in comments box
beneath the question. Access this comments box by clicking on the speech bubble
on Scoris Task Bar. Add the marks for OWN WORDS and USE OF ENGLISH
together and divide by two. Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number e.g.
OW 3, UE 2, giving 3 to be entered in Scoris marks column.
either T (text), O (own words), MR (manipulated or re-worked text) and / or IR
(irrelevant).Where the candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has
substituted an odd word here and there (single word substitution) indicate these
single words with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of
OW.
indicate it each time it is made. There follows a list of serious errors on page 5.
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
For sentence structure merit use ticks where appropriate, in the body of the script. Tick only
instances where the sentence structure is both complex and original i.e. belonging to the two
pronouns, present particles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken into
rare.
wrong or invented material.
ANNOTATED.
Short answers
with a cross. Do not use ticks as sometimes these can be included in the scoris total at the
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
Own Words
language.
Mark
Use of English

the reader.



isolated.
helpful.

mangled relevance.


transcript,
below.

[8+ errors as a guide, but balance
against sentence structure is also
necessary]
sustained for long.
correct.

the text.

Complete transcript

throughout.
Fractured syntax
Page 7
2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
From paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is True, False or
Cannot Tell from the passage.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
Statement 1 is True
1 mark

1 mark
Statement 3 is Cannot Tell

from passage
Dont Allow
If more than one box
statement
Tick correct answers. No need to cross incorrect answers, unless all are incorrect, in which case
put a single cross in the bottom right hand corner of the answer.
Page 8
3
Mark Scheme
1 mark
The Peoples Republic of

China lent pandas to the
Japanese and Americans to
establish good relations
Allow
Dont Allow


ticked
From paragraph 5, select and write down one opinion.
Mark
Allow
Dont Allow
Own words versions
1 mark
pandas are universally
loved
OR pandas are adorable
Paper
22
From paragraph 1, which statement best describes what panda diplomacy is? Tick the
box you have chosen
Mark
Syllabus
1123
(this) universally loved

animal / creature
(these) adorable creatures /
animals
We might be encouraged
loved animal
Territory whichadorable
creatures
(a) What did Miles warn Phelps about when he first went into the sea?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
the mud usually

softened / got softer / got
soft the further (out) you
went (and you might sink
in) / (he told him) not to
go too far (out) because
of the soft mud
Lift of lines 2-3 (the

mudyou went) Excess
denies
There was soft mud alone

=0
There was soft mud

ahead / in front of him
quicksand
Earth / soil / sand
Accept positive or comparative, and ignore tenses.
0 answers are 0(N). i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer.
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(b) Why do you think Phelps said, Thanks Dad to Miles?

Mark
1 mark
Expected Answer
Miles was speaking to him
as if he were a child / baby
/as a father would to a
child / son / daughter (sic)
// Miles was patronising
him / talking down to him //
he was being sarcastic /
cheeky / mocking
Allow
Miles / He was worrying
like a father
Miles / He was behaving
like a father
Phelps / He didnt want to
be treated like a child /
baby
Phelps / He didnt want a
friend behaving like his
father
Dont Allow
Any suggestion that
Miles was Phelpss
father = 0(W)
He was being over
protective / worrying
(too much)
He was warning /
giving him advice
He was rude / angry
He was like a father
An 0(W) answer negates an otherwise correct answer.
Focus is dad not thanks. Award either the suggestion of a father / son relationship between
the friends OR the tone of Phelps response.
(c) Why do you think the narrator didnt say anything when Phelps went into the water
above his knees?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Phelps / he had ignored /

mocked / been sarcastic
about his (previous) advice
Opinion / comment for

advice
He was wearing waders
// hed found it useless to

give Phelps / him advice
He had already warned him

hed been upset by
Phelpss / his reaction to
his (previous) advice
// Miles / he knew he
wouldnt listen
Phelps had already told

him he was like his dad
Phelps wasnt in danger at
that time
Phelps was getting angry
// Miles / he didnt want to

make him angry / nag him
Accept past, future or conditional idea.
He didnt want him to

think he was worrying
too much
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It looked as if hed skipped a step in a staircase. What actually happened here?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
Phelps plunged // had a

sudden / accidental /
unexpected drop / fall /
sinking / sucking down /
descent / (into the mud)
Allow
Dont Allow
He had jumped /
bounded / leapt /or any
suggestion that his
action was intentional =
0(W)
The water suddenly got
deeper = 0(W)
Slipped / tripped = 0 (N)
7
(a) What effect does the writer create by saying that he felt the mud grab hold of his
foot?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
That the mud is alive // a

creature / person /
monster
The mud is a hand
dangerous alone = 0 (N)
The mud is malicious / out to

get him
He is personifying the
mud alone = 0 (N)
It was as if the mud
grabbed him = 0 (N)
All 0 answers are 0(N). i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer.
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(b) Explain in your own words the problem facing Miles.

Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
SHIFTED:
(if he) moved / struggled /
repositioned (himself / his
foot) // rearranged /
redistributed / transferred
his foot/ weight
Allow
Dont Allow
Award 1 mark MAX (i.e.

one ) for synonyms of
EITHER shifted
OR extricate
EXTRICATE:
(Tried / attempted) to get
out / escape / recover /
save himself / get his foot
out
1 mark
He would sink
NEVER BREATHE AGAIN:

he would drown/ die / be
killed / perish / expire
Colloquialisms e.g. he was

done for
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are SHIFTED or EXTRICATE and NEVER
BREATHE AGAIN.
Indicate use of key words by cross, or rep for repetition, or highlight. Do not insist on correct
grammatical form.
Mark what you see, i.e. ignore wrong answers unless it contradicts a correct one, e.g.
moved and kept still for shifted.
Look for correct synonym. Any given context must be sensible for 2 marks e.g. if he escaped
he would die = 1 for never breathe again, but mark denied for extricate.
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(c) What is the writer saying about Miles when he describes him as a kitten?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
he is weak / helpless/
light / powerless // not
strong / powerful // he is
weaker etc than Phelps
He is as weak etc as a
kitten.
loveable / cute etc. =0

small / thin / weightless
He is light in water.
he is like a cat holding a
kitten
(d) How did Miles know the situation was worse?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Phelps / his friend had

sunk deeper (into the
water / mud) // the water
was up to Phelpss / his
friends breastbone /
chest // was near
Phelps / his friends face
// Phelps / his friend was
still sinking
Lift of line 17 The water

was up to Phelpss
breastbone =1. Excess
denies, including
insertion of I was now
free but..
But change of pronoun =
1, i.e. He was now free
but the water was up to
Phelpss breastbone.
He alone = 0.
Insist on correct agent.
The mud was up to his

breastbone = 0(W)
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(a) Pick out and write down the single word which tells us that other people had got
stuck.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
typical
The use of a correct word

in a phrase or sentence
provided that it is
underlined or otherwise
highlighted
More than one word
(b) From the information in the paragraph, why would Phelps rescue be particularly
difficult?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
rescue team / rescuers

cant use planks to save
him // he couldnt crawl
(free / out)
The mud was not exposed /

the mud was under water
Lift of lines 19 -20 (typical

rescuecrawl free on) = 0.
Answer must be distilled
Lines 19-20 A typical

rescuecrawl free on +
but they couldnt do that
He was more than knee

deep in mud alone = 0
There were no wooden
planks alone = 0
What were the two ideas that Miles had to save his friend?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i) (to grab/ find /give

him) a (piece of plastic)
pipe / piping to breathe
through / to use as a
snorkel
Pipe to breathe through

easily = 0
(ii) to find anyone /

someone to help // to run
/ go for help
Lift of lines 26-27 (I didnt

really knowto help)
= 0. Answer must be
distilled.
1 mark
Allow
Dont Allow
To give him a (piece of)

pipe alone = 0
To call for help

Under both (i) and (ii) lifting will not work. Answer must be distilled.
If candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award 1 mark max. However, if candidate has
given two correct answers in one limb and has no response in the other limb, award 2 marks.
Such answers will be rare.
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10 (a) The writer says it was impossible to tell that anything horrific was happening. Explain
in your own words what made him feel this way.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
TRANQUIL:
Allow
silent
peaceful / calm / quiet /still /

serene // not wild / turbulent
1 mark
Dont Allow
REASSURING
DAYBREAK:
(it was) hopeful /
comforting /
that the sun was rising / it
was dawn / sunrise
// daylight is not
threatening
// you can see more clearly
in daylight
soothing / promising /
pacifying / encouraging /
calming
Award 1 mark MAX (i.e.
one ) for synonyms of
both
reassuring
AND daybreak
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are TRANQUIL and REASSURING
DAYBREAK.
Do not insist on synonym for water but context must be sensible.
Indicate use of key words by cross, or rep for repetition, or highlight.
Mark what you see i.e. ignore wrong answers unless they contradict a correct one e.g.
peaceful and noisy for tranquil.
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(b) Why did Miles panic when he reached the beach?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
He couldnt see / find

(any signs of) Phelps //
Phelps had disappeared
// he thought Phelps had
drowned
He could see no sign of

Phelps
Lift of lines 32-33 (I

could see no sign of
Phelps)
Phelps had drowned
=0(W)
He feared the worst
11 (a) What two things did Miles see just above the surface of the water?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
(i) (the narrow plastic)

pipe
Lift of lines 35- 36 (the

narrow plastic pipe
the shrinking shore)
Excess denies.
(ii) (the top of) Phelpss

head
Lift, in whole or in part

of, lines 3637(On a
second breaking the
surface)
Both elements are

needed for 1 mark.
Accept lift of lines 3537

(the narrow plastic pipe
surface) = 1
Dont Allow
(b) Why do you think the writer describes the shore as shrinking?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
the tide was coming in /

had risen / was rising
It was covered / being

covered with water
Mere definition of
shrinking =0, e.g.
because you couldnt
see as much of it
The water level was

rising / had risen
Tide alone = 0
The water / sea was /
waves were coming in
There was more water
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12 (i) What did Miles do to rescue Phelps?

Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(Miles/ he) dropped (the

loop of) the rope over /
round him / Phelps / his
shoulders / his chest
Allow
Dont Allow
He climbed on the old
mans raft / he jumped
into the water = 0(N)
Threw / tied the rope = 0
rope to / on shoulders
etc
He pulled him out / he
grabbed him = 0(W)
0(W) answers negate an otherwise correct answers. All other incorrect answers = 0(N).
(ii) What did the old man do to rescue Phelps?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
(the old man / he turned

and) strode up the
beach with the rope
around his hips / pulled
on the rope by walking /
striding up the beach
(with it)
Lift of line 43 (turned and

strodearound his
hips). Excess denies.
Pulled Phelps out of the

water alone = 0
Waist for hips
He tied the rope round

his hips alone
He strode up the beach
alone
He supplied the raft = 0
(N)
Do not award a correct answer for either (i) or (ii) if it is accompanied by one of the actions of
the wrong person, e.g. Miles tied the rope around his hips and threw the rope over Phelps =
0 in (i).
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phrase (of not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in
the passage.
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 mark
For each
correct
meaning
1 temporarily
(L13)
for a short time / briefly /

momentarily / for a little while /
for a short period / for a limited
period
Always / never / sometimes /

occasionally / not permanently /
partially / for the time being / for
some time
2 fill him in
(L29)
tell (him everything) / explain

(details) / inform / give information
/ give details / brief / let him know
communicate
3 inflated (L30)
blown up / filled with air / filled

with gas / pumped up
Big / expanded
4 burst(L30)
rushed / hurried / came suddenly

/ spurted / dashed / hurtled / flew /
pelted / ran quickly / hurled
themselves / threw themselves
Exploded / reached / got to /

arrived at / ran
5 sickening
(L35)
horrifying / nauseating /
horrendous / shocking / horrific
/ disturbing / horrid / horrible /
ghastly / dreadful / awful /
terrible / panicking / heartstopping / stomach-churning
Makes you vomit /ill/ /worrying /

frightening / anxious
/terrifying/painful / annoying
6 slightly (L40)
(a) little / (a) bit / (a) touch /

just / barely / (a) tad / narrowly
/ (a) short distance / (a)
fraction
Partially / nearly / almost /

somewhat/ somehow
7clenched
(L40)
fixed/ holding tightly/ closed

tight(ly) / clutching / grasping /
gripping / clasping / locked
/squeezed / clinging / (holding)
fast / firm / tightened / tight
Pulling / wrapped / grabbed /

hanging
8 insanely
(L41)
madly / crazily / frantically /

deranged / like a lunatic /
maniacally / demented /
frenzied / wildly
foolishly / stupidly /abnormally /

unnaturally / hysterically /
unusually / intensely / mental /
barmy / weirdly / desperately
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For two answers joined by 'and', allow one correct answer if the other answer is not
wholly wrong but neutral, e.g. clutching and pulling for clenched.
For a short phrase answer, mark the first seven words only (RUBRIC). Credit a
correct element within this limit.
If answers are numbered and the question-word has been given as well, credit a
correct answer even if the numbering does not agree.
Tick only correct answers. There is no need to cross wrong answers but if all answers
are incorrect put one cross only in the bottom corner.
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Appendix
Pandas have always aroused interest and love. In ancient China, they were thought of as rare and
noble creatures. The mother of one Chinese Emperor was buried with a panda skull in her tomb, and
the grandson of another Emperor is rumoured to have given Japan two pandas as a token of goodwill.
In the 1970s, loans of pandas to American and Japanese zoos marked the first signs of friendship
between those countries and the Peoples Republic of China, giving rise to the term panda
diplomacy. However, nowadays the panda is also known to be an endangered species.
Pandas have been the target of poachers since ancient times for many reasons, including their
warm fur. Sometimes their habitat is destroyed by those who want to clear land for agriculture.
This deforestation, as it is called, is sometimes legal, sometimes not, but the effect is the same for
the panda. A population explosion in China in the mid-twentieth century increased the need for land,
often panda habitat, for housing. Around the same time, there was a famine in China which led
to increased hunting of wildlife, including pandas, for food. When people are living under such
conditions, it is hardly surprising that conservation issues are not high on their agenda. Chinas rapid
economic expansion in relatively recent times means that some of the pandas habitat has also
been removed to make way for industrial development. Even when their habitat is not completely
destroyed, it is increasingly fragmented by roads, railways and other infrastructure that is part of
this economic expansion.
Although pandas have been known to eat fish, bananas and eggs, their staple diet is bamboo,
around a kilo each day, and there are problems finding this large amount. As their habitat is
encroached upon, pandas are forced to move higher and higher into the mountains, where
there are fewer types of bamboo available to them.
Pandas are further endangered by the fact that, when a cub is born in the wild, it lives with its mother
for up to three years, and so each female produces only a few cubs in her lifetime. Furthermore,
they are not keen to breed in captivity, despite many efforts by zoologists to encourage them to do
so; for example, Bao Bao of Berlin Zoo has lived there for 25 years without reproducing. Although
nature reserves do exist to protect pandas, the staff are often inexperienced and lack
knowledge about how to manage such reserves. Conservation attempts are sometimes hindered by
economics; the cost of keeping a panda is up to five times more than that of keeping the next most
expensive endangered animal, the elephant.
Nevertheless, we might be encouraged by what is being done to protect this universally loved animal.
Conservation reserves have been opened to prevent their numbers declining. Two decades ago
there were thirteen of these reserves, and by 2006 the number had risen to forty. At the same
time, laws have been passed to limit ownership of guns to prevent poaching, and to remove
people living on territory which has been reserved for these adorable creatures.
Conservation organisations, for example the World Wildlife Fund, have worked tirelessly to
protect the panda. The WWF has campaigned for an increase in the area of panda habitat under
legal protection. Sometimes pandas become isolated by the encroachment of towns on their territory,
and the WWF has campaigned for the creation of green corridors to link isolated pandas. In
various parts of China, patrols have been established against poaching and illegal
deforestation, manned by experienced and trained personnel.
Some zoos borrow pandas to raise public awareness of the pandas plight by educating visitors
who flock to see them; an example of this is Edinburgh Zoo which, in January 2011, secured the loan
of two pandas. Some of these zoos insist they will pay the loan fee only if China spends at least
half of it on panda conservation. The WWF has used the panda as its logo since the
organisations foundation in 1961, thus further raising the profile ofthe panda and the need to
conserve it.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Reading
Key messages
Candidates in general performed better than in the past with questions in which they were required to answer
in their own words. Moreover, there were fewer instances of candidates couching their synonyms of key
words in note form, as in shift -- move, never breathe again death in Question 7(b).
Some candidates wrote the content points in Question 1(a) in pencil, before writing over the pencil in pen,
although the incidence of this was not so high as in previous years. This often led to writing which was
difficult to read. Another occasional difficulty with layout was that some candidates, in order to show work
they did not wish to be assessed, indicated this with a cross on either side of it, rather than putting a line
through it. These are practices which candidates are advised against using.
In Question 1(a), candidates are advised that content points cannot be scored if they are spread over two
bullets with no obvious link, or if they are put in the wrong boxes, although there were fewer instances of this
than in the past. Candidates should also focus in this question on making the whole point; it is possible not
to gain marks because details have been omitted.
In a few cases in Question 1(a), the use of ellipsis, as in , instead of writing out the points in full led to
the loss of such points and it is important that teachers draw their candidates attention to the fact that this is
not an acceptable form of communication, even in note form, in an examination.
In Question 1(b), candidates can improve accuracy with noun-verb agreements, the omission of definite or
indefinite articles, or intrusive use of the article where none is required. They should learn the appropriate
use of the apostrophe and ensure they do not use it to denote plurals. There is room for improvement in the
use of connectives such as however and furthermore to ensure that these are used appropriately.
General Comments
Candidates were to answer questions based on two passages of around 700 words each, the first being nonfiction and the second being fiction, with answers written in a common answer booklet. Candidates seemed
to find Passage 1 more accessible than Passage 2, as Passage 2 required understanding of implied
meanings and some aspects of imagery and writers craft.
There were very few incomplete scripts and even the weakest candidates engaged with the tasks and the
texts. Most candidates appeared to have been well prepared, showing themselves to be familiar with the
types of questions likely to be asked. In general they coped well with the layout of the answer booklets.
Both passages, the first entitled Pandas and the second contextualised with an introduction rather than a
title, seemed to engage the interest of the candidates and to stretch and discriminate amongst them, and this
was reflected in a very wide range of scores. The first passage explored the candidates ability to read for
ideas and the second tested their reading for meaning. 20 marks were available for the summary question,
with 15 of these marks being awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points
from the text of Pandas and 5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in
their own words. Further questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas, in this case to distinguish true
statements from false ones and those which could not be identified as either true or false from the passage,
to answer a multiple choice question based on vocabulary comprehension, and to distinguish fact from
opinion.
vocabulary, their use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft.

words and original structures. Others needed to include more originality of expression in order to achieve
high marks. It was not uncommon for candidates to begin by re-casting and then lapse into lifting text.
Both spelling and punctuation were good. The overall standard of written English was in some cases
impressive, although more errors were reported this session. As indicated in Key Messages, candidates
can improve on the accuracy of noun-verb agreements, (as in female pandas produces few cubs), the
omission of definite or indefinite articles, even by the best candidates, e.g. panda loves bamboo or intrusive
use of the article where none was required, e.g. the pandas love bamboo. A particular feature of responses
to this paper was the intrusive use of the apostrophe to denote plurals, e.g. pandas eat bamboo and zoos
borrow pandas: careful reading of the text would have shown correct usage. There was some confusion
over conserve, reserve and preserve, with pandas at times being reserved, or conservations being set up.
There was also much confusion over fewer and less in connection with cubs and the varieties of bamboo,
and also a problem with bamboo as singular (which could have been avoided with careful reference to the
text). There was also a tendency to add furthermore, hence etc. liberally with no clear idea of their usage;
in some cases there was little sense in what had been written because of this.

Section 1
Candidates were asked to identify the reasons why the panda is an endangered species and what is being
done to protect it. The summary had to be based on all but the introductory paragraph of the text, and
candidates were to write their answers in note form, where they were free to use either the words of the text
or their own words. One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration,
although these given points were not rewarded with a mark. Where marks were denied it was usually
because key words were missing. Some responses were able to reach the maximum 15 marks; the exercise
was fully discriminating as the whole range of marks could be found.
long, verbatim copies of the text for each content point. There is little evidence to suggest that such a
strategy yields more marks. Candidates were not instructed to use bullet points, although the sample points
given to assist them used bullets; however, most candidates used bullet points, seeming to realise that it
would help them to focus more clearly on identifying content points if they were presented under bullets.
Paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 referred to the ways in which the panda is an endangered species, and there were 11
points (excluding the first, which was given) which the candidates could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 5
content points, (excluding the provided first point) outlining ways in which the panda is an endangered
species. Its habitat is destroyed for agriculture or deforestation, for housing, and to make way for industrial
development. Some skilful candidates were able to synthesise 2 or even all 3 of these points under a single
bullet, although outlining them in separate bullet points scored all available marks in any case. Paragraph 2
also explained that pandas were killed for food, or hunted, in times of famine, and that panda habitat is
fragmented or broken up by roads or railways or infrastructure. Many failed to make this last point because
they suggested that habitat was destroyed rather than fragmented or broken up. There were 2 content
points to be found in Paragraph 3, both concerned with the pandas diet. One point was either that they ate
a lot of bamboo, or a kilo per day, or that it was difficult to find such a large amount of bamboo. A mere
reference to food or fish, bananas or eggs was insufficient. The other point in the paragraph was that
pandas have fewer types of bamboo available to them as their habitat is destroyed; thus the first point was
concerned with amount and the second point was concerned with variety, and there was some confusion
and conflating of ideas here. In Paragraph 4, there were 4 content points, the first 2 of which were very often
made by candidates. Female pandas produce few cubs, pandas are not keen to breed in captivity, staff in
nature reserves often lack either knowledge or experience, and conservation is expensive.

In the second section, which candidates found more challenging than the first section because of the
stronger possibility of making incomplete points, the rubric asked what is being done to conserve the panda,
and there were 9 available content points, (excluding the first, which was given.) In Paragraph 5, candidates
could make 3 points (excluding the provided first point): the number of nature reserves is increasing or has
increased, gun laws have been passed to prevent poaching, and people who live on reservations, or land
reserved for pandas, are removed. Many candidates who attempted the point about the increase in reserves
failed to make it because they wrote something like there are more of them without supplying the agent,
nature reserves. In view of the amount of help, or scaffolding, that candidates receive in this question, each
point has to be stand-alone, i.e. separately made. If that means repeating agents (as in reserves in this
area, or habitats in the earlier area) then it must be done. Many omitted the reference to guns in the point
about laws to prevent poaching, or omitted the reference to laws; many confused habitat of the first section
of the question with reservations, and referred to habitat rather than reserves in the point about removing
people from reserved panda territory. Similarly, many candidates made incomplete points in Paragraph 6,
where it was possible to find 3 content points, 2 of which were that there are campaigns to increase panda
habitat under legal protection and campaigns to create green corridors to link isolated pandas. Although
there was no insistence on reference to conservation organisations or WWF, where these points were
incompletely made it tended to be because the reference to legal protection was omitted in the first, or that
the reference to campaigns was omitted in either or both of the points. Very many candidates made the
more accessible point in this paragraph, which was that patrols have been set up against either poaching or
deforestation.
Paragraph 7 outlined a further 3 ways in which the panda is protected. Zoos borrow pandas to increase
awareness of the pandas plight, and some zoos insist they will pay the loan fee only if China spends some
of it on panda conservation. Often the reference to the plight of the panda was omitted, and sometimes the
word fee was missing, which altered the meaning and therefore was not sufficient to be rewarded. The final
point, that the panda is used as a logo, was frequently made by candidates.
There was a small number of candidates who were awarded maximum points and a large number scoring 9
marks and above. Candidates are advised to avoid reproducing the given content points. Although points
than in continuous prose, these points nevertheless need to be fully made with, as indicated above,
appropriate agents and extensions which affect the meaning or fullness of the point.
reasons why the panda is an endangered species and what is being done to protect it. They were asked to
write no more than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer
booklet.
It appears that the task set in Question 1(a) of reading to seek out the most relevant information proves
helpful to candidates when they set about writing their summaries in Question 1(b). There were few
instances of irrelevances. Examples of responses which strayed from the details of the original text into
comments of their own on the topic occasionally occurred.
was always accurate, containing original complex structures. The general use of own words was noticeable,
with many candidates being innovative or original in their use of English; many others selected from, edited
and restructured the text well, while others moved blocks of text around rather than re-wording detail, or
copied from the text. There were occasional examples where attempts at use of own words proved unwise
in that the over-ambitious vocabulary did not entirely match the meaning of the original.
Although Examiners were not checking the number of content points in Question 1(a) against the number
produced in Question 1(b), if many fewer points were made in Question 1(b) than in Question 1(a), this
would be reflected in the language mark. Writing only, for example, 6 content points would be unlikely to be
described as sustained use of own words, whereas, conversely, writing 15 content points might be
sustained use of own words, though not necessarily. The best responses came from candidates who were
competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original
complex sentences, and therefore able to gain many, or full, marks for style.

ability to respond to the ideas of the whole text or a section of it. This section in general was well done.
Question 2 asked candidates to tick the correct box against each of three statements based on information
given in Paragraph 1; they were to decide whether each of the statements was true, false or not known in the
text. The first statement the panda was an important creature in Ancient China -- was true; the second
statement a Chinese emperor gave two pandas to Japan as a sigh of friendship -- was false; the third
statement the first pandas to be seen in America were loans from China was not known in the passage.
A significant number of candidates ticked all three correct boxes. Where a box was incorrectly ticked it
tended to be Box 2.
In Question 3, candidates were asked to tick the correct box from a choice of three, and most candidates
answered this successfully by ticking the third box: The Peoples Republic of China lent pandas to the
Japanese and Americans to establish good relations.
In Question 4 candidates were to select and write down one opinion from Paragraph 5, and there were 2
opinions to choose from. The key to answering this type of question is to focus on words or phrases which
are subjective rather than objective, and these were universally loved and adorable. Correct answers had
to be put into a context which made sense, while at the same time not including so much information that the
opinion ceased to be an opinion and became a statement. Answers therefore were pandas are adorable
creatures, or pandas are adorable, and pandas are universally loved. Re-casting in own words was also
permissible, as in everyone loves pandas. The addition of we might be encouraged by what is being done
to protect to this universally loved animal was incorrect, as it turned the opinion into a statement. This was
a very popular incorrect answer. Likewise, the addition of remove people living on territory which has been
reserved for to these adorable creatures turned the opinion into a statement and was therefore incorrect. A
few candidates assumed their own opinion was required, rather than an opinion from the text.

Section 2
Most candidates seemed to find this text more challenging than the non-narrative Passage 1. Nevertheless,
in general they coped better with many of the comprehension questions and vocabulary than in some
previous years
Question 5(a) asked what Miles warned Phelps about when he first went into the sea and was designed to
be a fairly straightforward opening question. The vast majority of candidates wrote, correctly, that he told
him that the mud softened the further out you went. Those who failed to gain the mark generally did so
because they omitted the distance element.
In Question 5(b), correct answers had to focus on Dad in the question and not Thanks. The answer was
either that Miles was treating Phelps like a child, or as if he was his father, or that Phelps was being
sarcastic. Answers which merely said he was like a Dad without linking it to treatment or warning were not
sufficient to score, and neither was an answer which focused merely on gratitude, as in he thanked him or
he was grateful to him. Some weak candidates assumed that Miles was in fact Phelps father.
Question 5(c) asked why the narrator did not say anything when Phelps went into the water above his
knees. As this was an inferential question, there were several acceptable inferences, such as he knew he
would not listen or he was afraid he would get another sarcastic remark. Answers which were not sufficient
to score were those which said Phelps was not in danger at that point, or that he had already warned him. A
popular wrong answer was that he was wearing waders, while others felt Miles silence indicated he shared
Phelps confidence that he could cope, or that he had already warned him. About a third of the candidates
made an appropriate inference.
Question 6 asked what had happened to Phelps when it looked as if hed stepped on a staircase. This was
a question on simile and as such proved to be challenging for all but all but the very best candidates.
Correct answers lay in being able to decode the image and see that Phelps was going or plunging or sinking
vertically, and that this was happening suddenly or unexpectedly. Weaker answers were he fell, with no
reference to sudden or he tripped, which seemed like a horizontal movement and not a vertical one.

Question 7(a) asked candidates to decode another image, this time personification, and write that it was as
if the mud was a person, or human, or a monster, or had appropriate contextualised features, such as being
malicious or spiteful. Identification of the figure of speech being used, i.e. personification, was not sufficient
in itself because this merely labelled the expression rather than give its effect, which was what the question
was asking for. Many candidates offered a noun as the effect as in panic or fear. As with Question 6, this
was answered correctly by only very able candidates and in this respect tuned out to be a very discriminating
question.
Question 7(b) was the first of the questions on the Paper which required candidates to answer in their own
words, the key words being either shifted or extricated and never breathe again. For the first available
mark, acceptable synonyms for shift were move or struggle and for extricate acceptable synonyms were
take out and escape; although the context showed that it was Miles foot that was removed, candidates
were rewarded for the idea simply that Miles escaped or got free. For the second available mark, acceptable
synonyms for never breathe again were die, drown, perish or be killed. Candidates were generally quite
successful in this question, with most giving at least one correct answer; although there were instances of
the key words being copied, this was not as prevalent as it has been at other times.
Another simile had to be de-coded in Question 7(c), the correct answer being that Miles was weak or
helpless. A popular wrong answer was to say that he was small or that he was weightless, and another
popular wrong answer was to repeat the text without attempting to get behind the image, by writing that Miles
was grabbed by the hair or neck, which was merely the way in which Miles was picked up and said nothing
about Miles himself.
Most candidates answered Question 7(d) correctly by writing either that the water was up to Phelps
breastbone, or that Phelps had sunk deeper into mud, although some answered, incorrectly, that the water
was beyond his breastbone, or specified some other, inaccurate, part of the body.
In Question 8(a), candidates were asked to pick out and write down the single word which showed that other
people had got stuck, the correct answer being typical. Candidates generally found this challenging. There
were several common wrong answers, the most popular being rescue and sometimes crawl. They was
also, incorrectly, sometimes offered. Some candidates spoiled their answer by infringing the rubric and
offering two words, typical rescue being the most commonly occurring incorrect response in this category.
Question 8(b) was another discriminating question. Candidates were asked why Phelps rescue would be
particularly difficult. The most common answer was by far that he was more than knee deep in mud.
However, close examination of the paragraph shows the necessity of making the connection between the
fact that Phelps was more than knee deep in mud with the fact that in typical rescues people were not knee
deep in mud, because they were crossing exposed mud and therefore could crawl free, or be rescued by
wooden planks. Therefore, what made Phelps rescue particularly difficult was that he could not crawl free,
or be rescued by wooden planks, or that the mud was not exposed. Candidates who came close to this
answer spoiled it by writing that there were no wooden planks, which was a distortion of the correct answer
and so was not rewarded.
Question 9(a) asked candidates to give the two ideas which Miles had to save Phelps. This question was
well answered, with a majority of candidates making the two points that Miles gave Phelps, or went to get, a
piece of piping for him to breathe through, and that he went to get someone to help. Where the first point
was not correctly made, it tended to be because the pipe was mentioned without its purpose, i.e. for
breathing, and where the second point was not correctly made it tended to be because the idea of
screaming or calling for help was made. Close reading of the text showed that it was Phelps, not Miles,
who was screaming.
Question 10(a) was the second of the questions on the paper where candidates were asked to answer in
their own words. They were asked why it was impossible to tell that anything horrific was happening, and
were to focus on tranquil water and reassuring daybreak, the link being established by the words
impossible to tell in the text. Acceptable synonyms for tranquil were peaceful, calm and still, and there
was a reasonable degree of success with this. However, reassuring daybreak proved to be too challenging
for all but the best candidates, as they were required to give synonyms firstly for both reassuring, with
acceptable answers being comforting hopeful or soothing and secondly for daybreak, with acceptable
answers being sunrise, or dawn. A large number of candidates attempted only one of these words and, as
there were no half marks, a correct synonym for daybreak scored no mark if the word reassuring was
repeated or not attempted. Some candidates thought that daybreak meant sunset and not sunrise. Many
candidates offered an answer which was then the answer for Question 10(b), that he could see no sign of
20

Phelps, which was to show misunderstanding of the idea of nothing horrific happening, interpreting the
question as asking how Miles knew that something horrific was in fact happening.
Most candidates offered the correct answer to Question 10(b), the answer being that Miles panicked
because he could not see Phelps, or he thought that Phelps had drowned. Likewise, most candidates
offered the correct answer to Question 11(a), the answer being that Miles saw the plastic pipe and Phelps
head, or the top of Phelps head. Both elements had to be correctly given for the mark. Question 11(b)
proved to be more challenging in that, in order to explain why the shore was shrinking, candidates had to
focus on the meaning of shrinking and link it to the idea of the tide coming in, although less exact
explanations were accepted, such as the shore was covered with water or the water level had risen. Many
candidates merely defined shrinking rather than offer a reason for the shrinking by writing that the shore
was lessening in size, or that the water was decreasing; others thought that the shore was shrinking because
Miles was a long way away from Phelps.
Question 12 asked what Miles did to save Phelps and what the old man did to save him. Precise reading
and explanation were required here, and many marks were lost through imprecision. Miles dropped the rope
over Phelps, or over Phelps shoulders; putting or throwing the rope were incorrect, as were dropping the
rope over Phelps waist or hips, or putting the rope on to Phelps. Reference to the raft was regarded as a
neutral extension which neither gained nor denied the mark. The old man did two things; he tied the rope
around his hips and he walked or strode up the beach or away from the sea. Reference to him telling Miles
to make sure the rope was round Phelps chest was not an action, and as such was regarded as a neutral
extension which neither gained nor denied the mark.
understanding in context, not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words or phrases from a choice of eight.
Candidates scored much better here than in previous examinations, and there were no particular favourite
choices, as all words or phrases seem to be equally attempted. Most candidates who attempted inflated
scored the mark for synonyms such as blown up or filled with air. A reasonable degree of success was
gained by candidates who correctly offered madly for insanely, a little, or just for slightly, and for a short
period of time or momentarily for temporarily, although there were many popular wrong answers too,
where the shortage of the period of time was not sufficiently stressed, as in for a while or for the time
being. For clenched, candidates scored a mark for writing clutched, gripped, or held tightly although a
popular wrong answer was grabbed. Correct synonyms for sickening were horrifying, dreadful and
terrible; words which connoted fear were not sufficient to score, as in worrying or frightening; correct
synonyms for fill him in were told or informed or explained. Correct synonyms for burst had to include
the idea of speed as in hurried or went quickly and there was much success here, although weaker,
incorrect, answers were also offered, such as went or arrived. Many marks were lost for lack of qualifiers,
as short time for temporarily; tight hold for clenched; ran quickly for burst. Because understanding only
is being tested in the vocabulary question, grammatical form was not insisted upon. Candidates can improve
their performance by ensuring that they select five words only and explain the meanings of those words.
Only one synonym for each word or phrase should be offered as, where more than one is given, only the first
will be considered.

1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
2
Passage 1
Reading and Viewing
1
Reading has been around for a long time; by comparison, the cinema is a relatively recent
invention. Sometimes, books both fiction and non-fiction are made into films. If the books
are particularly famous ones, these films are released in a blaze of publicity. Perhaps less
frequently, a film is so popular that a book of the film is written from the screenplay.
Films of novels help us to imagine characters; for example, anyone who has seen one of
the Harry Potter films has a fixed idea now of what the hero and his friends and teachers
look like. Settings of books also come to life in films, whether it is castles, or cities, or lush
countryside. Cinematic special effects in adventure or science fiction films where we seem
actually to be seeing car chases, sea battles or spacecraft landing can be more realistic
than even the wildest of imaginations. Films of non-fiction texts can be as informative as
the books but they are often more interesting than the books, perhaps bringing to life the
achievements of famous doctors or statesmen in a way their biographies fail to do.
In schools, seeing a film version of a literary text, for example a Shakespeare play or a
Charles Dickens novel, can help students appreciate the text they are studying. An interest
in a particular genre, such as science fiction or adventure, might be stimulated, further
increasing reading and, consequently, language skills. Teachers can help less motivated
students by showing the film first, so that knowing the story before being given the book will
make the task of reading it easier than it would otherwise have been.
If the language of a book is difficult, the film version can make the language more accessible,
and if an international best seller is made into a film, subtitles may be added to the film so
that it can be understood by people who speak a different first language. The experience of
viewing the film of a novel in a full cinema is a communal experience, very different from the
solitary activity of reading the novel. Many people follow up the film experience by buying the
book, and thus it can be seen that films increase overall reading. Reading can be seen as
being cool by young people who read the book, see the film and buy the merchandise that
accompanies it.
On the other hand, it could be argued that, far from stimulating the imagination, watching
films of books actually curbs the imagination. Furthermore, watching films of books often
makes people too lazy to read them. How will language skills be improved in schools,
complain some teachers, if students take the short cut to the film and bypass the book? The
benefits of reading enhanced vocabulary, better spelling, finding ideas for writing texts of
their own are all lost. This may be a very extreme view but one that is heard in staffrooms
in many parts of the world.
Opportunities for watching films of books are restricted to when they are available in
cinemas, and the season for each film might be no more than a couple of weeks. Compare
this to curling up with a good book any time you like! There are also place restrictions when
it comes to watching films, as this can happen only in a cinema or, in the case of DVDs, in
certain rooms in your own home. On the other hand, books can be enjoyed anywhere on
the bus, in a park, in a caf. Films can be purchased in DVD form but that is often more
expensive than buying the novel. A book can be re-visited again and again and become
almost like an old friend; although a DVD can be watched more than once, its owner is less
likely to become attached to it in the same way as one can become attached to a favourite
book. Some novels have layers of meaning or perhaps an element of ambiguity; for example,
the ending might be implied rather than stated, and the charm of the novel lies in the readers
personal interpretation. It is almost impossible to capture such ambiguity in a film; the viewer
is presented with the directors point of view as being the final judgement.
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10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
3
Passage 2
Miss Garnet and Harriet Josephs were teachers who shared an apartment for more than 30 years until
Harriets death.
1
When Miss Garnets friend Harriet died, Miss Garnet decided to spend six months abroad.
I believe it is cheaper at this time of year.

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* 3 0 4 2 9 4 8 6 6 1 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

2
1

disadvantages of film versions of books.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of film versions of books
We can imagine characters
Disadvantages of film versions of books
Curbs the imagination
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For
Examiners
Use
3
disadvantages of film versions of books, as outlined in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
With film versions of books it is easy for viewers .............................................................
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No. of words
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[Turn over
4
2
Going to the cinema is a communal experience (paragraph 4). From your own knowledge or
experience, give one example of a communal experience in which you have taken part. Do
not use the example of the cinema.
An example is ..........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
The writer thinks that teachers are unfair in their criticism of film versions of books.
The writer thinks that teachers are correct in their criticism of film versions of books.
The writer is undecided about teachers criticism of film versions of books.
[1]
From your reading of paragraph 6, decide whether each of the following statements is True
or False, and tick the box you have chosen.
T
You can watch films only in a cinema.

All novels are ambiguous.
When a book is made into a film, the director decides how the story is
interpreted.
[3]
UCLES 2013
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For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
Read Passage 2 in the insert and then answer all the questions which follow below.
From paragraph 1
5
(a) Miss Garnets decision to travel was a bold one. What was it about her decision that
was particularly bold?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Explain fully the experience which left its mark on Miss Garnets teaching as well as on
her memory.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Apart from the blow Miss Garnet received, what were the two reasons why she found it
difficult to form good relationships with her students?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
............................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) Give two reasons why Harriets death was a shock to Miss Garnet.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) When heroes die in ancient stories, what, according to the writer, makes their
comrades glad? Answer in your own words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
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[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
7
(a) There were lots of things about Harriet that Miss Garnet had found irritating. From the
evidence of the paragraph, what do you think Harriet might have found irritating about
Miss Garnet when they were sharing an apartment?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Why was Stella anonymous when she followed Harriet from the station?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 4
8
(a) What evidence is there that Stella remained particularly attached to Harriet?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) What risk was Miss Garnet taking when she left milk for Stella outside the main entrance
to the block? Answer in your own words.
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Pick out and write down the three consecutive words which show Miss Garnets
reluctance to face up to the fact that she was wrong about Stellas whereabouts.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(d) What did Miss Garnet see as her incompetence?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 5
9
Explain in your own words why, according to the writer, Miss Garnet found herself in the
letting agents office.
.................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................ [2]
From paragraph 6
10 Miss Garnet noticed that the letting agent had too short a haircut and a fluorescent mobile
phone. What do you think the writer wishes to convey here about Miss Garnet?
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
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For
Examiners
Use
7
From paragraph 7
11 The writer refers to the habits of a lifetime. What habit of Miss Garnet do you think the writer
is referring to here?
.................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
12 From the whole passage

1.
2.
3.
4.
tinged (line 3)
inevitably (line 22)
somewhat (line 24)
scavenging (line 29)
5.
6.
7.
8.
ultimately (line 31)

exotic (line 35)
futile (line 35)
indifference (line 41)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
Answer
( ) .....................................
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[1]
( ) .....................................
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[1]
( ) .....................................
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[1]
( ) .....................................
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[1]
( ) .....................................
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[1]
UCLES 2013
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For
Examiners
Use

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/21
Writing
Key Messages
In Question 1(a), candidates are advised that content points will not score if they are spread over two bullets
with no obvious link, or if they are put in the wrong boxes, although there were fewer instances of this than in
previous sessions. Again, while concise notes are recommended, the essential detail of the point being
made must be included.
In Question 1(b) candidates need practice in the use of connectives such as nevertheless and furthermore
to ensure that these are used appropriately. Work is also needed to avoid the over-use of other, simple
conjunctions such as and or but, and in using alternative ways of constructing sentences to provide variety.
Another useful focus would be the use of the apostrophe to indicate possession, and the fact that it should
not be used to denote plurals.
Candidates should read all question wording thoroughly; merely glancing at it sometimes results in a crucial
instruction being missed, as in Question 2, where quite a considerable number gave the example of
cinema, despite the emboldened direction that they should not do so.
It is advisable in all questions, including the final vocabulary question, to avoid offering a number of
alternative responses. Candidates should consider carefully before deciding on their answer, as in some
questions only the first response will be marked.
In those questions which required them to explain in their own words, candidates showed the ability to
recognise the key words. While many succeeded in finding suitable synonyms, not all of these answers
were couched in explanatory sentences; rather, they resembled the single-word definition of the final
vocabulary question.
General Comments
Candidates generally offered neatly presented scripts, using the guiding parameters of the answer booklet to
accomplish this. Most attempted every question and none appeared to find lack of time a problem, having
been well prepared by their teachers for the types of questions which might be asked. Candidates are
advised to avoid annotating their scripts with unnecessarily confusing arrows, ticks or crosses.
Questions were to be answered on two passages, the first being non-fiction and the second, fiction. The first
passage clearly engaged the candidates interest, being based on something they are likely to have
encountered; the second seemed to be less accessible, requiring as it did an understanding of implied
meanings and certain aspects of imagery and the writers craft. The variety of subject matter provided the
opportunity for questions which stretched and discriminated amongst candidates, allowing the best
responses to demonstrate an ability to deal with the familiar as well as the unfamiliar. This was reflected in a
wide range of scores.
The first passage, Reading and Viewing, explored the candidates ability to read for ideas; the second,
entitled Miss Garnet, tested their reading for meaning. 20 marks were available for the summary question,
with 15 of these marks being awarded for the assessment of the candidates ability to select content points
from the text of Reading and Viewing and 5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points
fluently in their own words. Further questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas; in this case to
respond to the text by drawing on their personal knowledge and experience, to distinguish a true statement
from distracting false ones, and to demonstrate understanding of the writers meaning by recognising which
of a further three statements reflected accurately what the writer had said and which did not.

The second passage, Miss Garnet, tested the candidates literal and inferential comprehension, their
understanding of vocabulary, use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft. The remaining 25
marks for the Paper could be gained here.
1(b), largely prevented candidates from writing to excess or copying verbatim at length, although there were
those who attempted to reproduce as much of the original as possible and, in doing so, had no space to
include points to be found in the later part of the text. The best responses avoided irrelevance and adhered
to the rubric.
In Question 1(a) those candidates who followed the bullet point style of the first (given) point in each answer
box produced a clear list of selected ideas. The two boxes, with their distinct headings, are intended to
guide candidates to separate the two different aspects required in the summary, and very few put content
points in the wrong boxes. A single, clear point per bullet should be aimed for, to avoid confusion, with no
point relying on a previous one unless an appropriate contextual link is made. Candidates are advised
always to refer to the heading in each box. Beginning a bullet point with no subject, or with pronouns It or
They will always refer to the noun in the question heading; here, Advantages of Film Versions of Books
and Disadvantages of Film Versions of Books. Thus, if the subject of the point was something else, for
example special effects, DVDs or subtitles, there was a need for explicit mention of these things, which
was not always met.
In Question 1(b), candidates were to write up their note form content points in formal, continuous prose;
there were some commendable results among those who made a genuine attempt to use their own words
and original structures, while others needed to include greater originality of expression in order to gain high
marks. The choice of own words, however, should always be accurate in the context. Certain subjectspecific words are difficult to substitute, such as the DVDs mentioned above, and may be retained rather
than changing the meaning of the text as, for example, by saying that films (rather than DVDs) cost more
than books. Many candidates attempted to rework the relevant details from the passage, with the
substitution of their own words here and there where possible. Those who lifted randomly selected patches
of text sometimes encountered difficulty in linking them and the result made only fractured sense. Very
occasionally candidates diverged from the content of the passage to write their own opinions on the topic.
This is not the task; it results in irrelevance and is a practice best avoided.
While spelling was quite sound, there was noticeable confusion of singular and plural in pronoun use and in
noun-verb agreement, perhaps due to the use of the plural film versions and to the singular concept of
watching them e.g. Watching films curb the imagination and Films help candidates understand the
language and also it gives a great experience of the novel. Improvement could be made in terms of
sentence separation which was insufficient in many scripts, the comma frequently substituting for the full
stop.
Comments on Specific Questions

Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of film versions of books, as described
in paragraphs two to six of the passage and they could produce these points using either the words of the
text or their own words. One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way of illustration,
although these given points were not rewarded with a mark.
Excluding those given, there were a further 18 points of which candidates could identify any combination, to
a maximum of 15 points. The full range of marks was seen, a small number of candidates being awarded
the maximum and many scoring half marks and above. Most chose to list points either in note form or short
sentences, usually under bullet points, as suggested by the examples provided. Those candidates who did
so were able to focus more clearly on the specific content points than those few who copied large sections of
the text. This strategy scored some early points but lack of space and inclusion of irrelevance denied the
later ones. Where marks were lost it was often because points were incompletely made, e.g. referring to
films helping candidates to read, without the defining addition of less motivated, or suggesting that films
are restricted, with no mention of this being by time and place.
Paragraphs 2, 3, and 4 referred to various benefits of film versions of books and there were 11 points which
the candidates could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 3 content points, all linked to the visual potential of

cinematography, compared with books. Almost without exception candidates recognised how settings come
to life and how special effects can be even more realistic than the imagination. Fewer expressed the third
point successfully, omitting crucial reference to it being films of non-fiction texts which may be more
interesting than the books.
Paragraph 3 suggested three advantages of using film versions in Schools. The first was that appreciation of
texts being studied can be enhanced by seeing the film version and, further, that such versions may
stimulate interest in a particular genre, leading to increased reading or language skills. While the increased
reading benefit was noted, it was not usually linked to this newly stimulated interest, and the point was not,
therefore, fully made. Most candidates mentioned that teachers may show the film first to make reading the
text easier; many did not include that this was particularly in the case of weaker responses.
A further 5 points were available in Paragraph 4, the first two concerning the ways in which film versions
make the books language more readily accessible. If these two points were made clearly and distinctly
under the same bullet, both were credited. A number of candidates did not differentiate between film
versions generally making language easier to understand than the words of the book and the separate
advantage of subtitles allowing the film to be understood by those who speak a different first language.
Subtitles make the language more accessible was a common response which scored neither mark. While
most noted that film watching provides a communal experience, the last two advantages were offered less
frequently: that people often buy the book after seeing the film was an incomplete attempt, requiring the fact
that this increases reading; that reading may be seen as cool, because of the films high profile, was rarely
given.
The second section of the rubric asked for the disadvantages of film versions of books and a further 7 points
were available in Paragraphs 5 and 6. Paragraph 5 contained 2 of these effects: making people too lazy to
read and the benefits of reading being lost. The latter could be expressed either in terms of the sort of
benefits lost better spelling, enhanced vocabulary, language skills generally, etc. or as the fact that such
language skills would be harder, or impossible to improve. Candidates were usually successful in making
these points, often by careful lifting from the passage, and almost all avoided repeating the rhetorical
question posed there without distilling it into a statement.
Paragraph 6 outlined the last 5 disadvantages. The first two concerned the restrictions on film versions of
books i.e. when they are available in cinemas and where you can watch them. It was possible to score these
points either by reference to these restrictions or to the fact that, by contrast, books may be read anywhere
and at any time. A further 2 points suggested the disadvantages of DVDs or home films: they are more
expensive than the books and you are less likely to become attached to them in the same way that you might
love a book. Attempts at these points were sometimes denied because candidates did not distinguish
between films in general and DVDs; the disadvantages of cost and lack of attachment thus became less
meaningful. The last point concerned the near impossibility of capturing, in a film, the ambiguity or layers of
meaning to be found in a book. The point could also be made by reference to the viewers own interpretation
being inhibited in the face of the film directors point of view being imposed on them. Many candidates made
this final point, although a number said, simply, that ambiguity cannot be found in films; omitting the
comparison with books left it incomplete.
In Question 1(b) candidates were asked to use their notes to write a summary, in their own words, stating
the advantages and disadvantages of film versions of books, as outlined in the passage. They were to write
no more than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer booklet.
The vast majority of candidates completed the exercise within the given space and very short answers were
extremely rare; notice seems to have been taken of past advice that such brevity can never justify a high
mark because sustained use of own words or completely accurate English cannot be demonstrated. The
best responses used original wording in a noticeable manner, some sustaining this throughout.
Occasionally, over-ambitious attempts at own words proved unwise in that they did not always reflect the
meaning of the original, as in the attempt to substitute part of lines 7 and 9-10: Settings of texts can be more
practical than even the broadest of visions; or, again, Watching films curbs visualities. There were those
who managed to combine careful rewording with accurate English and recast the text using a variety of
structures, including complex sentences, gaining many or, on occasion, full marks for style. Others selected
areas of text appropriate to the task, restructuring and editing without innovation or originality in their use of
English. Weaker responses were those which directly copied blocks of text; in the attempt to link these, it
proved difficult to control sentence structure fluently.
section of it. Question 2 asked candidates to give, from their own knowledge or experience, an example of
a communal activity in which they had taken part. There were many interesting and thoughtful responses,

ranging from attending church services or football matches to school visits and community service activities.
The passage stated that watching a film in a full cinema is a communal experience and that example was
not to be used. A significant number ignored this instruction and could not therefore gain the mark. It is
advisable to choose an example which has nothing at all to do with that which is forbidden; a few candidates
scored with reference to watching a film, at home, with the family. The words communal and community
were sometimes confused, but the root idea being the same meant that answers were successful anyway.
The addition of with friends sometimes rescued what might otherwise have been a non-scoring, individual
activity such as listening to music or shopping.
Question 3 required candidates to decide, from their reading of Paragraph 5, which of three statements was
true. The majority correctly ticked the third box, having understood the implication of the paragraphs final
sentence.
Question 4 asked candidates to decide, from their reading of Paragraph 6, to indicate whether each of three
given statements was true or false. To do this necessitated careful consideration of each one in the light of
precisely what the author had written. The first two were misleading, false generalisations; the third was
an accurate summary of what had been written. Most candidates scored at least two and very many all
three of the marks.
This text proved more challenging than the first, candidates having to deal with less familiar vocabulary and
narrative style and, in general, fewer marks were scored in this section than in Section 1.
Question 5(a) asked what was particularly bold about Miss Garnets decision to travel and there was a
variety of reasons inferred in Paragraph 1, any of which could be selected: the fact that she was going to
spend a long time, or six months away; that she had not been abroad much in the past; that those
trips abroad had made her apprehensive; and, finally, that she would be travelling alone. All of these
could also have been combined to suggest that the whole idea would be a big change in her lifestyle. Some
candidates chose to copy the words of the passage: Her expeditions abroad had been few and for the most
part tinged with apprehension, and this was an acceptable lift. Many others chose the distracting reference
to the loss of her friend, Harriet, without recognising the inferred connection between that event and her
travelling alone, without her companion.
Question 5(b) directed candidates to look for the experience, mentioned in that first paragraph, which had
left its mark on Miss Garnets teaching and on her memory. The details were clearly given in the passage,
immediately before the quoted words, and there were many correct answers about her taking a school trip
to France and hearing her candidates mock her French accent. The majority mentioned the mockery
but fewer included the fact of her taking the trip to France as part of explaining fully, as required. That word,
fully, and the possible two marks, indicated that something more than a single aspect of the experience was
to be found. Again, careful lifting of lines 4-6 was acceptable as long as the rhetorical question What young
teacher would not have been flustered when was omitted. This lift was used quite well, candidates
realising that the writers rhetorical technique had to be distilled.
Question 5(c) asked for two reasons why Miss Garnet found difficulty in forming good relationships with her
candidates and the answer booklet provided distinctly separate lines at (i) and (ii) for the two reasons to be
given. Her shyness was recognised by the majority; the other reason, her reputation for strictness, was
frequently spoiled by the attempted lift of parts of lines 9-10 and the random inclusion of the word not,
suggesting quite the opposite of the correct answer. A lack of understanding was shown quite often when
candidates offered her strictness at (i) and her severity at (ii); clearly, the similarity between these
characteristics was not appreciated. Quite often the candidates mockery was repeated from the previous
question. Candidates should realise that it is most unlikely that exactly the same answer would be required
in two questions.
In Question 6(a) candidates were asked to identify, from the second paragraph, two reasons why Harriets
death was a shock to Miss Garnet. Again, one reason was to be given, distinctly, at each of (i) and (ii).
Many candidates did well to attempt to distil another rhetorical question and provide the statement that it
was Miss Garnet who was always worried about her health, not Harriet. Unfortunately, the imprecise
use of the pronoun she frequently spoiled this attempt. To say She made frequent trips to the doctor,
when both women were named in the question, was ambiguous; which one made these trips? Precise
reference by name was necessary. As with the previous question, some candidates offered the same
reason in two ways: (i) Miss Garnet was always worried about her health. (ii) Harriet didnt go to the

doctors. Obviously, only the first answer could score. The second reason, the suddenness of Harriets
death, was usually overlooked. The majority of candidates lifted the first line of the paragraph, to the effect
that the women had lived together for thirty years, but failed to add that after such a long time the sudden
death was a shock.
Question 6(b) was the first in which candidates were instructed to answer in their own words. Referring to
the death of heroes, in ancient stories, they were asked what it is which makes the dead mens comrades
glad. The final sentence of the paragraph - Then they travel on, glad that - clearly pointed to the key
words: confront and mystery. For the first available mark, acceptable synonyms for the metaphorical
confront were challenge, take on, brave, stand up to and the one which was offered by many
candidates: face. For mystery, the second key word, uncertainty, secrets, they couldnt
understand, strangeness and unknown were all acceptable and, although this was less successfully
attempted than confront, there were a few excellent synonyms which included enigma and puzzle. The
question was a challenging one and many lifted widely and irrelevantly from the previous sentence. Better
responses gave synonyms in a full sentence of explanation and deserved both marks.
Question 7(a) was an inferential one, candidates having to deduce, from information given in Paragraph 3,
what Harriet might have found irritating about Miss Garnet. This was answered well by many, Harriets softhearted attitude to the stray cat being recognised as an indication that Miss Garnets prohibition against
cats would not have pleased Harriet. A number of candidates, however, were misled by the first sentence
and, confusing the two women, offered Harriets loud laugh, which irritated Miss Garnet. This was an
example of how carefully questions should be read, rather than skimmed.
Question 7(b), testing vocabulary in context, asked why Stella, the cat, was referred to as anonymous
when she followed Harriet home. The better candidates understood the meaning of the word and answered
succinctly that Harriet and/or Miss Garnet had not yet given the cat a name, or they did not know her at
the time. Suggesting that Stella was not known, alone, did not score; presumably she had been known to
someone, before she strayed, but the anonymity had to be linked to the two women. There were many
candidates who clearly did not understand the word and typical answers made reference to Stella being
black, or to her waiting outside all night.
Question 8(a) looked for evidence that Stella remained particularly attached to Harriet, the answer being
that as soon as, or when, Harriet died, Stella went away. This literal comprehension question was usually
answered accurately, although some candidates simply lifted from the passage the words which followed
those of the question. These were irrelevant and referred merely to how long she had been attached to her
mistress.
Question 8(b) was the second which required answers in the candidates own words, and asked them to
explain what risk Miss Garnet was taking when she left milk outside the apartment block for the runaway cat.
The passage stated that worry made Miss Garnet risk the neighbours potential ridicule; candidates were
thus clearly directed to the key words potential and ridicule. Synonyms such as mocking, laughing
at, making fun of, scorn and derision were all acceptable as substitutes for ridicule and the first
three of these were frequently offered. Potential, with synonyms like possible, there was a chance,
they might or could was successfully attempted only by the better candidates; many wrongly thought it
meant anger, criticism or irritation. Answers which included the idea of might or could occasionally did
not score because the context in which they were used was quite wrong e.g. She risked that a fox might
drink it. The context had to be the possibility of the neighbours actions. It is important to recognise that
there may be more to the required explanation than single words, as in the rather limited response: potential
possible; ridicule laugh.
Question 8(c) asked that candidates pick out three consecutive words which showed that Miss Garnet did
not want to face up to the fact that she was wrong about Stellas whereabouts. Forced to accept were the
required words, and those who understood the meaning of consecutive often scored, although a few
suggested she was forced, which was not quite accurate. Candidates should know what the word
consecutive means; it is often used in examination questions, yet there were many who selected three (and
even, sometimes, more) random, individual words which had no connection with the question.
Question 8(d) asked what Miss Garnet saw as her incompetence. This inferential question was answered
correctly by only the very best candidates and was probably the most discriminating on the Paper. The
majority said that her incompetence was trying to deal with the loss of Stella so soon after losing Harriet.
They reworked the sentence in which incompetence occurred, substituting was for the crucial word in, not
realising how this changed the meaning. The passage had told us how she had tried to tempt Stella back
and how she had been forced to admit failure. The inference was that her incompetence lay in that failure
14

to get the cat back; her incompetence was that she had been unable to deal with Stellas loss by
finding her.
Question 9 was another which had to be answered in the candidates own words. They were asked why
Miss Garnet found herself in the letting agents office and had to recognise that the words to be considered
were numbness and caution; there was no necessity to re-cast emotional or usual and some
candidates used them, sensibly, to frame their responses. The key words could be identified from the trigger
which followed them: and so she found herself in the office Another discriminating challenge, only a
few explained that Miss Garnets emotions or feelings had been deadened by losing her friend; that
she felt empty, drained or detached from reality. Some explained it satisfactorily by saying that she
felt nothing, or hardly anything. More success occurred in the attempts to re-cast the word caution, which
could be approached in two ways: the numbness had made Miss Garnet lose her usual carefulness,
tentativeness or wariness; alternatively, it had made her more bold, daring, audacious, or made her
careless, less wary, less careful. A large number of candidates seemed to make little effort to locate the
key words, an essential strategy in any own words question. There were many attempts to answer in
straightforward terms of why Miss Garnet went to the letting agents office (i.e. to look for a tenant for her
flat), rather than why she found herself there.
Answers to Question 10 were to focus on something about Miss Garnet, about what the writer was trying to
imply in the fact that she noticed the mans too short haircut and fluorescent mobile phone. There were
some excellent, astute answers such as her being conservative or old-fashioned; many others
recognised that she was judgemental, critical or disapproving, without picking up from the implication of
the fluorescent phone and the too short haircut that such disapproval was directed at young, trendy or
modern people. Weaker responses stated, merely, that Miss Garnet was observant or somehow deduced
that she fancied the agent or that he reminded her of Harriet.
Question 11, having mentioned the writers reference to the habits of a lifetime, asked what particular habit
of Miss Garnet was being referred to in the final paragraph. The question turned out to be a good
discriminator with probably half of the candidates recognising that she was always careful with money.
The word frugal appeared in the best scripts; others correctly suggested the idea of her being stingy,
mean, miserly, or of her not spending too much, or looking for bargains. Less thoughtful answers
irrelevantly focused on Harriets cutting out of advertisements, and bore no relation to the question. After the
generalisation about habits of a lifetime, candidates were asked to give the single habit of Miss Garnet
implied here; the addition of other habits denied a correct answer. Once again, the advice is to read the
question very carefully.
Question 12 was the customary vocabulary question.
Candidates were required to show their
eight. Fewer candidates than usual scored the full 5 marks, many gaining only 1 or 2.
Inevitably and ultimately were popular choices and the most frequently correct. The former was usually
defined as unavoidably, with bound to happen, surely and certainly also being seen quite often;
individuals came up with inescapable and was always going to happen, showing clear understanding.
Common misconceptions were obviously, clearly and evidently. For ultimately, the usual answers were
eventually, finally and in the end; lastly was an occasional wrong attempt. Somewhat was quite often
chosen, with the synonyms sort of and kind of being most frequent; equally acceptable were rather,
quite, slightly and a bit. Somehow and almost were inaccurate alternatives. Scavenging was often
seen as either the act of eating food or as searching or looking for something. Separately, these
alternatives did not score; a combination of the two was ideal, as in searching for food, with credit being
given to words such as leftovers, and scraps, to indicate food. The essence of scavenging is the action of
picking over or rooting in, foraging or ferreting and all of these definitions were acceptable alone. Exotic,
when selected, was sometimes correctly defined as faraway or foreign; other possible synonyms, which
were very rarely seen, included unusual, different, alien, out of the ordinary and unfamiliar. Some
candidates undoubtedly had the right idea about the meaning of exotic, but their phrases of definition were
too generalised, e.g. places not found in your location or from another place. Words such as beautiful,
wonderful and exciting were, again, too generalised to be credited; tropical was a popular wrong attempt,
being too specific, geographically. Futile was another word chosen quite frequently and many scored,
usually with the adjective useless. Other suitable synonyms were pointless, purposeless, worthless
and obsolete; candidates also came up with interesting and equally acceptable alternatives: to no avail,
bootless and in vain. Definitions such as stop, impossible and hopeless were all seen but did not
score. Few candidates opted to define the other two words, tinged and indifference. For tinged, with its
contextual sense of a trace, a hint, touch of, or a little, some suggested painted or gave quite the
opposite meaning with full of or covered with. The final word, indifference, was occasionally correctly

substituted with lack of care, lack of interest or lack of concern; while not caring was synonymous,
carefree, which was sometimes offered, means something quite different. Other tempting but incorrect
answers were disinterested, not paying attention, not noticing and carelessness.
Because understanding only is being tested in the vocabulary question, correct grammatical form was not
insisted on, as long as meaning was clear.
Candidates are advised that where two alternative answers are offered only the first of two distinct responses
will be credited.
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Syllabus
1123
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21
Passage 1
1
(a) MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 FOR CONTENT POINTS.

Points to be rewarded and their marks are indicated below. Indicate by a tick the point
already given.
1
We can imagine the characters
Settings come to life // we can imagine the settings
Special effects can be more realistic than the imagination
Films of non-fiction texts can be as informative as the books / more interesting than
the books
(Help) students appreciate the (literary) text( they are studying)
Might stimulate interest in a particular genre, further increasing reading/language skills
Encourages / helps less motivated / less able students to read // reading is easier for
less motivated / less able students
(It motivates students to read = 0. Teachers help students by showing the film first = 0)
Makes language (more) accessible/less difficult than the book // language of the film is
easier to understand
Subtitles make book accessible to / help those who speak another language
(people all over the world = 0)
10 (Gives a more) communal experience (than the book) / provides a communal experience
(Reading is a solitary activity = 0)
11 People buy the book after seeing the film, which increases reading // (Watching films)
encourages people to read the book (version)
(Films make people buy books = 0)
12 Makes reading seem cool // reading the book (of the film) is seen as cool
13 Curbs the imagination
14 Makes people too lazy to read // makes people bypass the book (and take shortcut
to the film)
15 Benefits of reading / language skills / enhanced vocabulary / better spelling / getting
ideas for writing are lost // language skills are not improved / are harder to improve
16 Cant see a film any time you like // films are restricted to when they are available (in
cinemas) // you can read a book any time you like
17 Cant watch a film / DVD anywhere you like // there are place restrictions // you can read
a book anywhere you like
Do not accept specific examples, e.g. bus / park / rooms in your house etc.
18 DVDs / home films are more expensive (than the text)
(They/films = 0)
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Syllabus
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21
19 Dont become attached to DVDs (in the same way as you do to books)
20 Layers of meaning of books / ambiguity of books cant be captured in a film // film gives
(only) the directors interpretation / point of view (of the book) // film does not allow /
inhibits viewers (personal) interpretation
[15]
(b) Candidates have now fleshed out their notes into a piece of formal, continuous prose.
script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use either T (text),
O (own words) or MR (manipulated or re-worked text).Where the candidate has more or less
written a wholesale copy, but has substituted an odd word here and there (single word
substitution) indicate these single words with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only
for assessment of OW.
use carats for omission, but you are free to use crosses. Indicate only serious errors. If the
same error is made more than once, e.g. omission of definite article, indicate it each time it is
made. A list of serious errors follows on page 4:
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
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21
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Mis-spellings of simple, basic words, e.g. were / where // to / too / their / there.
Breakdown of sense.
pronouns, present particles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken into
rare.
to assess OW.
Short answers
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Syllabus
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21

Mark
5
Own Words

language.
Mark
5
Use of English


re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

transcript.
expression.
below.

the text.
Complete transcript

minor errors. There is a marked ability to
use original complex syntax outside text
structures.
the reader.
The language is almost always accurate.
Serious errors will be isolated.
helpful.
complexity, they will generally be lifted
from the text.
Meaning is not in doubt but serious errors
are becoming more frequent. [8+ errors
as a guide]
long.
Simple punctuation will usually be correct.


throughout.
Fractured syntax
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21
Question 2: 1 mark [from paragraph 4]

2
Be generous here. Accept family or other meals/religious services or celebrations / school

events // holiday / visiting a historical site etc.
Experience must be communal, e.g. going to a concert = 1, but listening to music = 0
[1]

3
Statement 3: The writer is undecided about teachers criticism of film versions of books.
[1]
Question 4: 3 marks [from paragraph 6]

4
[1]
[1]
Statement 3 is True
[1]
Passage 2
Question 5: 5 marks (1 + 2 + 2) [from paragraph 1]
5
(a) she was spending six months / a long time abroad

Lift of When Miss Garnets friend....abroad, = 1. Excess denies.
OR she decided to travel alone // she would be alone // she would be without Harriet
OR she was breaking habits / it was a sudden change in her lifestyle
OR she hadnt been abroad much before / she was apprehensive about travelling abroad [1]
Lift of her expeditions abroad....apprehension = 1 Excess denies.
But She hadnt travelled much before // she was apprehensive about travelling = 0
Allow she was travelling for six months = 1
She was going (to live) abroad = 0 She was going (to live) abroad for six months = 1
She hadnt travelled much before = 0
Accept she was spending six months in Venice, although Venice isnt mentioned in the
paragraph.
(b) A. She took / volunteered to take a school party / trip abroad / to France
Lift of As a young teacher....France = 1. Excess denies.
[1]
B. The pupils / students had mocked her French accent

[1]
They mocked her French accent = 0. Insist on agent if it is not given or wrong in A
Lifting of What young teacher....accent? will not work, but allow lift of Behind her
back.....accent. Excess denies.
Reference to flustered = 0
(c) (i) she was shy / bashful / withdrawn
Lift of essentially a shy person = 1 Excess denies.
(ii) she had a reputation for strictness / severity / meanness etc. // she was strict
Lift of had she not......severity = 0. Answer must be distilled.
[1]
[1]
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Syllabus
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Question 6: 4 marks (2 + 2) [from paragraph 2]

6
(a) (i) it was sudden / unexpected / out of the blue

[1]
Lift, in whole or in part, of Julia Garnet........shock to Miss Garnet = 0. Answer must
be distilled.
Julia Garnet and Harriet Josephs had lived together for more than thirty years = 0
(ii) Miss Garnet was often sick / ill // Miss Garnet made frequent trips to the doctor / worried
about this or that / various / many ailments / was the one who worried about her health /
had bad health // Miss Garnet / she had not expected Harriet to die (before her)
OR Harriet had never been/wasnt the one who made frequent trips to the doctor //
Harriet was healthy / healthier / was the healthy one
[1]
Lift of Was it not Miss Garnet...ailment? = 0. Answer must be distilled.
Miss Garnet went to the doctor / was sick = 0.
(b) This is an own words question. Key words are CONFRONT and MYSTERY. Do not insist on
synonyms for death as that is implied in the question wording.
CONFRONT: face / challenge / take on / brave / stand up to
[1]
bear / withstand / cope with / deal with / encounter / meet / overcome / endure / see = 0
MYSTERY: enigma / puzzle / they couldnt understand / strangeness / unknown
Problem/confusion = 0
Reference to coming together / sharing a meal etc. = 0
[1]
Question 7: 2 marks (1 + 1) [from paragraph 3]

7
(a) she forbade / wouldnt allow cats (in the apartment) / she wouldnt allow Harriet to have a
cat / her prohibition against cats / she didnt like cats // she was bossy / laid down the law [1]
Lift of Miss Garnets prohibition against cats = 1. Excess denies.
loud laugh / she kept going to the doctors / she didnt like travelling = 0
(b) Harriet / Miss Garnet / the women / they hadnt given her a name (yet) / didnt know her
(name) // she didnt have a name
[1]
Any reference to the owner = 0
Question 8: 5 marks (1 +2 +1 + 1) [from paragraph 4]

8
(a) she disappeared / ran away / went away / left when / after Harriet / she died
Accept lift of Two days after........ Stella disappeared. Excess denies.
She ran away two days after Harriet died = 0
Reference to an elderly and affectionate creature = 0
(b) This is an own words question. Key words are POTENTIAL and RIDICULE
POTENTIAL: possible / they might / there was a chance / could / might
would/likely/expected = 0
[1]
[1]
RIDICULE: mocking / laughter / scorn / make fun of / teasing / derision / laughing at

[1]
criticise / insult / talk badly about = 0
Do not insist on grammatical form. Mark what you see, i.e. allow a wrong answer unless it
contradicts a correct one.
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21
(c) forced to accept

[1]
Give 0 if one or more than three words are offered. Accept the use of the correct words in a
sentence or expression, provided that they are underlined or otherwise highlighted.
(d) she was not able to get Stella / the cat back / find Stella / the cat
[1]
Any reference to the fox, e.g. giving the fox milk (instead of Stella) // thinking Stella was
drinking the milk when it was the fox = 0
Trying to deal with it / Stellas disappearance / Stellas loss / Stellas whereabouts // not being
able / failure to deal with it etc. = 0
She was trying to find Stella = 0
Question 9: 2 marks [from paragraph 5]
9
This is an own words question. Key words are EMOTIONAL NUMBNESS and CAUTION
EMOTIONAL NUMBNESS: she felt (almost) nothing // she could not / hardly feel anything / she
had no feelings // she felt empty / drained / detached (from reality) / a lack of awareness
[1]
Note: answer requires the idea of feeling
CAUTION: care / carefulness / tentativeness / wariness // made her bold / daring / audacious /
less wary / less careful / careless
[1]
Do not insist on synonym for removed but context should be established. Do not insist on
grammatical form. Mark what you see, i.e. allow a wrong answer unless it contradicts a correct
one.

10 she was old-fashioned/ traditional / reactionary / conservative // judgemental / critical /
disapproving of young / trendy / modern people
[1]
She doesnt like short hair / fluorescent phones = 0 She was observant = 0
11 being frugal // being careful / prudent with money // looking for bargains // not being extravagant //
not spending too much // saving money / penny pinching / stingy / mean / parsimonious / miserly /
tight (fisted) / scrimping
[1]
Note: inclusion of any other habit = 0
Page 9
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Syllabus
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21
QUESTION 12: 5 marks [From the whole passage]

12 1. Mark only the first FIVE words attempted.
2. For each word attempted, mark the first answer only when more than one answer is offered. A
3. For two answers joined by 'and', allow one correct answer if the other answer is not wholly
wrong but neutral, e.g. 'foraging and eating for 'scavenging'.
4. For a short phrase answer, mark the first seven words only (RUBRIC). Credit a correct
5. Ignore mis-spelling if the word is phonetically recognisable.
6. Ignore errors of tense and grammatical form but only if the meaning is correct.
7. If answers are numbered and the question-word has been given as well, credit a correct
(See words and equivalents below)
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 tinged (L3)
coloured, infused // a bit (of) / a trace (of) / a

hint (of) / a touch (of) a little
Painted / full of
2 inevitably (L22)
unavoidably / certainly / definitely / surely //

without a doubt / question //
unquestionably / bound to happen / always
going to happen
Expected / going to
happen
3 somewhat (L24)
rather / quite / a bit / slightly / fairly /

relatively / comparatively / sort of / in a way /
kind of
Somehow / almost /
seemingly
4 scavenging(L29)
looking / searching / hunting for food //

foraging / ferreting / rooting (about) / picking
over / going through / rummaging
Eating / hunting
5 ultimately (L31)
eventually/ finally / in the end / in the long

run / at last
lastlys
6 exotic (L35)
unusual / faraway / outlandish / strange /

different / foreign / alien / unfamiliar / out of
the ordinary / far flung
odd / funny / bizarre /

unique / beautiful / fancy /
wonderful
7 futile (L35)
pointless / purposeless / useless / obsolete /

worthless
empty / hopeless
8 indifference
(L41)
not caring / lack of care / uninterested / lack

of interest / lack of concern
disinterested / without a
care / not paying
attention / not noticing /
carelessness

1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
2
Passage 1
Electronic Book Readers
1 A new phenomenon is springing up nowadays in railway stations, in airport queues and on
buses. It is the sight of people engrossed, not in a newspaper or paperback novel, but rather
an electronic book reader (e-reader). Are downloaded e-books a passing fad or are they here
to stay?
2 One attraction of e-books is that some of them are free. Others can be downloaded at a
much cheaper price than the bookshop price, and for avid readers this is an obvious
advantage because the money saved can be spent on other things, perhaps new clothes
or days out. There is no need to make time-consuming trips to bookshops, which is a real
hassle, especially for parents with children to bundle into the car or bus. Instead, books can
be paid for and downloaded from the comfort of your own living room. E-readers dont take up
much space, which makes a huge difference to people whose living space might be limited,
for example, families with several young children vying for space for toys, games and all the
paraphernalia of family life. Moreover, e-readers are extremely portable; instead of having to
choose which book to take with you to read on the train, or having to narrow your choice to
three or four books to fit into your holiday suitcase, you can have the delightful experience of
carrying hundreds on your e-reader.
3 E-readers are a blessing to short-sighted or visually-impaired readers because, as with all
computer screens, the size of the print can be increased; no more squinting at the pages of
a book or, worse, having the frustrating experience of not being able to read the book at all.
Lights can also be attached to e-readers, and this is generally conducive to keeping eyes
healthy. Users of e-readers can personalise their reading in the same way that people often
personalise their mobile phones, as e-readers can be purchased with covers in a variety
of materials and colours. While those who are generally wary of technology complain that
e-readers are mere gimmicks, teachers and parents, who often regret that children dont read
enough, hope that the novelty value of e-readers will lead to increased reading and improved
examination results. Gone is the need for bookmarks and the frustration of losing the place in
your book, as e-readers remember where you stopped reading and take you automatically to
that point when you open up to start reading again.
4 However, e-readers have their critics too. There are those who say that e-readers will bring
about the closure of libraries, which will be a great loss to society as a whole. Although
downloaded books are cheap or even free, the initial cost of e-readers is high, as they are
essentially computer-based, and computers are expensive. This is all very well for those who
can afford it, but it is socially divisive because not everyone can. If e-readers do bring about
the closure of libraries, some people those who can afford neither books nor the technology
to read e-books will have little opportunity to read at all.
5 And what about the sheer, aesthetic pleasure of owning books? Many people delight in
holding, and just possessing, their favourite books. Snuggling up on the sofa with an e-reader
pales into insignificance when compared with doing so with a real book. When people are
moved to tears or to fury by characters or plots in a book, they instinctively tell their friends
about it, and often books change hands and are temporarily swapped. This delight is denied
to readers of e-books. Furthermore, students are not able to annotate e-books and use them
for cross-reference in their studies in ways which are possible with books.
6 When buying e-books from home, readers have to know what they are looking for, whereas
browsing in a bookshop allows readers to stumble on books they might otherwise never have
come across. It would be a great pity if bookshops had to close because they were unable
to compete with e-readers, either because the customers didnt come any more, or because
they were reluctant to pay the higher prices inevitably charged for books as opposed to
e-books. Moreover, jobs would be axed if bookshops closed. Will society have to pay too high
a price for this latest technology? Perhaps it is too early to tell.
UCLES 2013
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/13
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
3
Passage 2
Miss Garnet has just arrived in Venice, a city of canals where transport is provided by boats
and water-taxis.
1 Miss Garnet thought it was surprisingly cold when she landed at Venice airport.
Despite her thirty-five years of school teaching, Miss Garnet was unused to
receiving attention from young people.
UCLES 2013
1123/22/INSERT/O/N/13

* 6 9 7 2 2 9 5 2 9 5 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

2
1

disadvantages of e-readers.
points.
MAIN POINTS
Advantages of e-readers
Free books can be downloaded
Disadvantages of e-readers
E-readers will bring about the closure of libraries
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
For
Examiners
Use
3
disadvantages of e-readers, as described in the passage.
For
Examiners
Use
These days, people are reading more and more e-books because .................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
[Turn over
4
2
From paragraph 2, write down two opinions.

One opinion is .........................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
Some people are generally wary of technology (paragraph 3).

From your own knowledge or experience, explain why either you or someone you know was
wary of a piece of technology, and explain briefly why that fear turned out to be justified, or
why that fear turned out to be unjustified. Do not use the example of e-readers.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................. [2]
What is the writers attitude to e-books? Tick the box you have chosen.
The writer thinks e-books are beneficial to society.
The writer thinks e-books are detrimental to society.
The writer is undecided whether e-books are beneficial or detrimental to society.
[1]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
For
Examiners
Use
5
For
Examiners
Use
From paragraph 1
5
(a) What kind of weather was Miss Garnet expecting when she arrived in Venice?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Miss Garnet had embarked upon an exotic adventure. Pick out and write down the
single word used later in the paragraph which continues the idea of exotic.
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) What two pieces of evidence are there that Miss Garnet was cautious about spending
money?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(d) What was the job of the man with the clipboard?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
From paragraph 2
6
(a) The American man spoke with the authority of wealth. What two other pieces of
evidence are there that the American couple were wealthy?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) What was the most important factor which contributed to Miss Garnets acting in an
uncharacteristic way?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) In what way did Miss Garnett assert herself?
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(d) Explain in your own words how Miss Garnet now felt about attempting this trip to
Venice.
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
7
(a) For what two reasons did Miss Garnet decide not to throw away the hat that had
belonged to Harriet?
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) What was the offer Miss Garnet received, and what was the main reason she thought
she should accept it?
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 4
8
(a) In what way do you think the slime was dangerous?

...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Why did Miss Garnet feel that it was silly to be upset when the American couple left?
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
(c) Explain in your own words what two things Miss Garnet realised just in time about the
three boys who grabbed her suitcase.
(i)
..................................................................................................................................
(ii)
.............................................................................................................................. [2]
(d) What effect is created by the word commandeered that would not be created by the
word took?
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
For
Examiners
Use
7
9
1.
2.
3.
4.
foresight (line 3)
alternately (line 7)
authority (line 14)
scrutinise (line 21)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
5.
6.
7.
8.
urbane (line 29)

own (line 29)
stingy (line 43)
churlish (line 45)
Answer
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) ...................................... ..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2013
1123/22/O/N/13
For
Examiners
Use
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 1
1
(a) The advantages and disadvantages of e-readers, as described in the passage.
[15]
Accept own words or lifting. Accept sentences or note form.

Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
for
each
correct
point
up to a
max. of
15
1. Some books are free

2. (Some) books / others are
cheaper than real / bookshop
books / real / bookshop books are
more expensive than e-books
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of others can be

downloadedprice
All books etc.

Others / e-books are
cheaper (alone)
Real books are more
expensive (alone)
Others / e-books are
cheap
3. No need to go (on timeconsuming trip) to bookshop / trips

to bookshops are time-consuming /
hassle / books can be
downloaded/bought from comfort of
your home
4. Dont take up (much) space
its less hassle (alone)
Take up less space
5. Portable
6. Carries hundreds of / many
books
7. Help / used by short-sighted /
visually impaired people because
the print size can be increased
Carries more books

Lift of a
blessingincreased
8. Lights can be attached for

healthy eyes
9. Can be personalised / reading
can be personalised
10. Novelty leads / might lead to
increased reading / more readers
(and improved examination results)
Readers can choose

covers in variety of
materials and colours
Lift of e-readers can be

purchasedcolours
Page 3
Mark Scheme
11. Dont need bookmarks /

e-readers / e-books open where
reader left off
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Lift of e-readers
rememberreading
Or
take youreading
again
You dont lose your
place
12. Will bring about the closure of

libraries
13. The (initial) cost (of e-readers)
is high
14. Socially divisive
Not everyone can afford

to buy one / them
15. Some people will have little / no

opportunity to read if libraries close
Lift of those who can

afford read at all
(alone)
16. Miss (aesthetic) pleasure of

holding / possessing (real ) books
Reference to snuggling
up etc.
(and what about...?=0)
17. People dont swap /share /

exchange e-books / books / are
deprived of swapping / sharing /
exchanging e-books / books
e-books cannot be
swapped etc.
e-books cannot change
hands
Real books change

hands
e-readers / they cannot
be swapped
Books will no longer be

lent / borrowed
cannot be swapped
(alone)
Cant be used for
referencing (alone)
18. (Students) cant annotate

e-books / (students) cant cross
reference e-books
19. Have to know what youre
looking for when you buy e-books /
books from home / you miss out on
browsing in a bookshop / you dont
stumble on / find new / other books
as in a bookshop / using e-readers
Lift of browsing in a
bookshopcome
across
20. Bookshops have to close

because they cant compete
(because the customers dont come
/ e-books are cheaper)
Lift of it would be a
great pitye-readers
21. Jobs in bookshops are / will /

would be axed
Jobs would axed if

bookshops closed
You cant stumble on

bookscome across
(alone)
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Summary writing and style

Use your notes to write a summary of the advantages and disadvantages of e-readers
as described in the passage.
script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use either T (text),
O (own words), MR (manipulated or re-worked text) and / or IR (irrelevant).Where the
candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has substituted an odd word here
and there (single word substitution) indicate these single words with O above them.
Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of OW.
use carats for omission, but you are free to use crosses. Indicate only serious errors. If the
same error is made more than once, e.g. omission of definite article, indicate it each time it is
made. Below follows a list of serious errors:
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Mis-spellings of a simple, basic words, e.g. were/where/to/too/their/there.
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Breakdown of sense.
the two top boxes in the Use of English column on the MS. Ticks, therefore, tend to be
over relative pronouns, present particles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will
be taken into consideration under assessment of OW.
If script is entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and
extremely rare.
THE PRACTICE SCRIPTS WILL PROVIDE EXAMPLES OF HOW SCRIPTS SHOULD
BE ANNOTATED.
Short answers
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
Own Words

language.
Mark
5
Use of English


mangled relevance.

transcript.
below.

structures.
isolated.
syntax.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
attempted.
frequent. [8+ errors as a guide, but
balance against sentence structure
is also necessary]
correct.
Page 7
Mark Scheme
1

the text.
Complete transcript
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

reading.
errors throughout.
Fractured syntax
From paragraph 2 write down two opinions.

Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
Opinion 1:
Going to a
bookshop is a
hassle.
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of there is no
needhassle
Excess denies
Which is a real hassle

(alone)
Time-consuming
trips to bookshops
are a real hassle
1 mark
Opinion 2:
Carrying a hundred
e-books on your ereader is delightful
Accept own words versions.
You can have the

You can have the
delightful experience of delightful experience
carrying hundreds of
(alone)
books (on your
e-reader)
Page 8
3
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
From your own knowledge or experience, explain (i) why either you or someone you know
was wary of a piece of technology, and explain briefly (ii) why that fear turned out to be
justified or unjustified.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
(i) Look for ideas like

Mum afraid her
mobile would give
her cancer, or Dad
thinking the
washing machine
would shrink the
clothes.
Reference to the internet,

social networking sites,
facebook, online banking,
online shopping, e-bay etc.
as a piece of technology.
Generalised statement
about technology. Question
asks for specific example
e.g. computers taking over
the world.
1 mark
(ii) Look for ideas like

the clothes turned
out fine (nonjustification) or the
clothes turned pink
(justification).
Under (i) look for personal connection and technological device. Insist on explanation of the fear.
This may be explicitly stated under (i) or implicitly stated under (ii) in the justification/nonjustification of the fear.
Under (ii) do not insist on the word justification/non-justification but look for a sensible link which
may be introduced by words such as and, as, because, however, but, nevertheless, though or
although.
4
What is the writers attitude to e-books? Tick the box you have chosen.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
The writer is undecided

whether e-books are
beneficial or detrimental to
society.

e.g. cross, star, asterisk.
If more than one box is

ticked.
Page 9
5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) What kind of weather was Miss Garnet expecting when she arrived in Venice?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
Warm / warmer / sunny /

sunnier / hot / fine
Allow
Dont Allow
summer
not cold
Lift of Miss Garnet
thought it was surprisingly
cold
(b) Miss Garnet had embarked upon an exotic adventure. Pick out and write down the
single word used later in the paragraph which continues the idea of exotic.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
alien
The use of the correct

word in a phrase or
sentence provided that it
is underlined or otherwise
highlighted.
More than one word
(c) What two pieces of evidence are there that Miss Garnet was cautious about spending
money?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
(i) (She had ) a

well-worn / old / her
mothers suitcase
Lift of her well-worn

suitcase (with stout
leather strap)
Excess denies including
having collected
stout leather strap

(alone)
She didnt have / buy a

new suitcase
1 mark
(ii) (she had) taken / was

staying in an
apartment in one of
the cheaper areas / a
cheap area (of
Venice)
Lift of She had, through

an agency.....Venice.
If candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award 1 mark max. However, if
candidate has given two correct answers in one limb and has no response in the other limb,
award 2 marks. Such answers will be rare.
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(d) What was the job of the man with the clipboard?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
He saw that (water) taxi

drivers had passengers /
customers
He directed passengers
to taxis
He organised the taxi

men
He organised the
passengers
OR he organised the
passengers so that they
had a (water) taxi
He told tourists where the

taxis were
OR he brought together
the (water) taxi drivers
and the passengers /
customers
OR he hailed (water)
taxis for passengers /
people who needed them
Answer must refer both to passengers and to water-taxi (men).
6
(a) The American man spoke with the authority of wealth. What two other pieces of
evidence are there that the American couple were wealthy?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
(i) (they were)

elegantly / well /
richly dressed
Lift of (an) elegantly

dressed couple. Excess
denies.
Affluently dressed
1 mark
(ii) (they were) staying
in / going to an
exclusive / luxury /
expensive / (one of)
the most exclusive
hotels (in Venice)
Dont Allow
Wealthily dressed
They were staying at the
Palace Hotel (alone)
The Palace was one of
expensive hotels
Lift of Miss Garnet
knew....many expensive
hotels
Page 11
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) What was the most important factor which contributed to Miss Garnets acting in an
uncharacteristic way?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
her dislike of snobbery
Allow
Dont Allow
Any reference to plane
flight or cold rising from
the water
the couples snobbery
(c) In what way did Miss Garnett assert herself?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
she said that she was first She said she was first to
call the taxi
(in the queue) / had got
there first/she raised her
voice
Dont Allow
Lift of Excuse me...first.
She said she was first to
see the taxi
She spoke in a high
(pitched) voice
If two distinct answers are given, mark the first only. For example, she scraped her leg and
raised her voice = 0 But she raised her voice and scraped her leg = 1
(d) Explain in your own words how Miss Garnet now felt about attempting this trip to
Venice.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
APPREHENSION:
Fear / nervousness/
anxiety / worry / doubt /
uneasiness / disquiet /
agitation / wariness /
fright
1 mark
FOOLHARDINESS:
Stupidity / rashness /
silliness / idiocy /
senselessness
Allow
Dont Allow
Scared / afraid /
frightened
Anger / regret /
embarrassment /
uncertainty / shock /
dread / irritation / terror /
horror / discomfort
Temerity / foolishness /
thoughtlessness
Page 12
7
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) For what two reasons did Miss Garnet decide not to throw away the hat that had
belonged to Harriet?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
(i) she didnt want to

throw anything / she
never threw anything
away
Lift of she had always

found herself...to the bin.
Excess denies.
She didnt want to throw

it / the hat away, as this
merely repeats the
question.
1 mark
(ii) It reminded her (of

aspects / an aspect /
characteristics / a
characteristic / a
quality / a side) of
Harriet / her / it
reminded her of
Harriets / her (over)
dramatic personality /
it represented / was a
symbol of Harriet /
her / she kept it in
memory of Harriet /
her
Addition of which she had

disregardedalive
It had belonged to Harriet,

as this merely repeat the
question.
She didnt want to forget

Harriet
Lift of Did the hat not

represent...alive? Answer
must be distilled.
Harriet was dead.
Lift of she realised a side
to Harrietalive
Harriet was / had been
her friend
Page 13
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) What was the offer Miss Garnet received, and what was the main reason she thought
she should accept it?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
A (offer of) a lift with the

couple / Americans (to
travel) in their taxi / boat
the man / they said he /

they would be honoured
etc. = 1
Lift of we would be
honoured if you would
share our taxi
1 mark
B the couple / Americans

had pushed in front of her
/ had jumped/ skipped the
queue / had been rude to
her / wronged her
Lift of And there

remainedof her
Excess denies.
The woman offered etc.

She was tired / scared /
her knee hurt / she didnt
want to be ungracious
She had arrived first.
The man / woman had
pushed in front of her
In B, do not insist on correct agent if it has already been given in A.
8
(a) In what way do you think the slime was dangerous?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
it was slippy / slippery /

people / she / Miss
Garnet might slip / fall (on
it)
Allow
Dont Allow
It was green
Poisonous / toxic
(b) Why did Miss Garnet feel it was silly to be upset when the American couple left?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
They were not (close)

(she was feeling
friends
emotional / forlorn and
yet) she hardly knew them
/ didnt know them / they
were strangers / she had
just met them / they were
newly-met
Dont Allow
The departure of the
newly-met Americans
She was emotional / felt
forlorn, as this merely
repeats the idea of the
question wording.
They were not related.
Page 14
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) Explain in your own words what two things Miss Garnet realised just in time about
the three boys who grabbed her suitcase.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
SINISTER:
they meant no harm /
were not planning / going
to / did not want to do
something bad / were not
going to / did not want to /
mean to steal her
suitcase
Their intentions / they

were not evil / wicked /
wrong / nasty / rotten /
hurtful / criminal / bad /
They were not thieves /
robbers
mischievous
Their intentions / they

were good / helpful / kind
1 mark
AUGMENT:
Increase / supplement /
get / earn / make more /
add to
Earn / make / get / want

(money)
want more
(d) What effect is created by the word commandeered that would not be created by the
word took?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
The boy was bossy /

assertive / authoritative /
pushed the others out of
the way / muscled in /
took charge / had
authority / was the leader
/ took control / was
leading
Allow
Dont Allow
The boy took command
Took it without Miss
Garnets permission
He was leading the way
He took it by force / as if
he owned it
Boys (plural)
Page 15
9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
passage.
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 mark
for each correct
meaning
1 foresight(L3)
Thinking / looking /
seeing ahead / to the
future / precaution /
anticipation / (forward)
planning / earlier
thought / vision
Wisdom / premonition /
presentiment / intention /
prophecy / prudence / care /
foreknowledge / forecast /
idea / guess
2 alternately (L7)
one after the other / one

at a time / in turn / back
and forth / from one to
the other / switching
Change of direction / one

by one / in order /
individually / continuously
3 authority (L14)
power / clout / might /

sway / presence /
prerogative / right /
command / superiority /
mastery / weight /
influence / control /
force / supremacy
Strength / status / sanction /

confidence / in charge
4 scrutinise(L21)
Examine / look closely

at / peer at / study / take
in / inspect / take stock
of / survey / look fixedly
at / assess / read (a
person) / size up
look at / scan / analyse /

notice / observe / take note
of / gaze / see / question
5 urbane(L29)
Sophisticated / cultured /
suave
Courteous / smooth /
civilised / polished /
debonair / smooth-talking /
gentlemanly / wellmannered / mannerly /
refined
Elegant / educated / posh /

upper class / considerate /
well groomed / wealthy /
rich / affluent / from the
city / town
6 own(L29)
Admit/confess
/acknowledge / concede
/grant/allow/avow/ profess /
be honest
possess / claim / accept /

confirm / come to terms
with
7 stingy(L43)
mean / parsimonious /
miserly ungenerous /
tight(-fisted) / penny
pinching / scrimping
Disinterested / money
conscious
Page 16
Mark Scheme
8 churlish(L45)
Rude / bad-mannered /
crude /
Coarse / boorish /
impolite / discourteous /
ill-mannered /
unmannerly / ungracious
/ uncivil / insulting / surly
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Dishonest / unfair / foolish /

petty / disrespectful / mean
/ offhand / sullen / bad
but neutral, e.g. power and strength for 'authority'.
within this limit.
Page 17
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Appendix
One attraction of e-books is that some of them are free. Others can be downloaded at a much
cheaper price than the bookshop price, and for avid readers this is an obvious advantage because
the money saved can be spent on other things, perhaps new clothes or days out. There is no need to
make time-consuming trips to bookshops, which is a real hassle, especially for parents with
children to bundle into the car or bus. Instead, books can be paid for and downloaded from the
comfort of your own living room. E-readers dont take up much space, which makes a huge
difference to people whose living space might be limited, for example families with several young
children vying for space for toys, games and all the paraphernalia of family life. Moreover, e-readers
are extremely portable; instead of having to choose which book to take with you to read on the train,
or having to narrow your choice to three or four books to fit into your holiday suitcase, you can have
the delightful experience of carrying hundreds on your e-reader.
E-readers are a blessing to short-sighted or visually-impaired readers because, as with all
computer screens, the size of the print can be increased; no more squinting at the pages of a
book or, worse, having the frustrating experience of not being able to read the book at all. Lights can
also be attached to e-readers, and this is generally conducive to keeping eyes healthy. Users of
e- readers can personalise their reading in the same way that people often personalise their mobile
phones, as e-readers can be purchased with covers in a variety of materials and colours. While those
who are generally wary of technology complain that e-readers are mere gimmicks, teachers and
parents, who often regret that children dont read enough, hope that the novelty value of e-readers
will lead to increased reading and improved examination results. Gone is the need for bookmarks
and the frustration of losing the place in your book, as e-readers remember where you stopped
reading and take you automatically to that point when you open up to start reading again.
However, e-readers have their critics too. There are those who say that e-readers will bring about
the closure of libraries, which will be a great loss to society as a whole. Although downloaded books
are cheap or even free, the initial cost of e-readers is high, as they are essentially computer-based,
and computers are expensive. This is all very well for those who can afford it, but it is socially
divisive because not everyone can. If e-readers do bring about the closure of libraries, some
peoplethose who can afford neither books nor the technology to read e-books - will have little
opportunity to read at all.
And what about the sheer, aesthetic pleasure of owning books? Many people delight in holding,
and just possessing, their favourite books. Snuggling up on the sofa with an e-reader pales into
insignificance when compared with doing so with a real book. When people are moved to tears or to
fury by characters or plots in a book, they instinctively tell their friends about it, and often books
change hands and are temporarily swapped. This delight is denied to readers of e-books.
Furthermore, students are not able to annotate e-books and use them for cross-reference in their
studies in ways which are possible with books.
When buying e-books from home, readers have to know what they are looking for, but
browsing in a bookshop makes readers stumble on books they might otherwise never have
come across. It would be a great pity if bookshops had to close because they were unable to
compete with e-readers, either because the customers didnt come any more, or because they were
reluctant to pay the higher prices inevitably charged for books as opposed to e-books. Moreover, jobs
would be axed if bookshops closed. Will society have to pay too high a price for this latest
technology? Perhaps it is too early to tell.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 1123/22
Writing
Key messages
In Question 1(a), although some candidates reproduced lengthy extracts, this did not seem to be as
common as previous years. There was generally secure understanding of the passage, with candidates
selecting accurately for the appropriate boxes.
In Question 1(a), candidates are advised that it is necessary to complete a point within one bullet; where a
point is split across two or more bullets, with no sensible contextual link between them, a mark cannot be
awarded.
In Question 1(a), candidates need to be encouraged to write within the frame.
In a few cases in Question 1(a), the use of ellipsis, as in (), instead of writing out the points in full led to
the loss of such points and it is important that teachers draw their candidates attention to the fact that this is
not an acceptable form of communication, even in note-form, in an examination.
In Question 1(b), candidates could improve in the area of noun-verb agreement, the omission of definite or
indefinite articles, or intrusive use of the article where none is required. Candidates can improve the quality
of their responses by working on the use of connectives such as however and furthermore to ensure that
these are used appropriately.
In questions which ask for an opinion from the passage, candidates should be advised that a simple lift will
not always work. Candidates need to learn how to distinguish between a fact and an opinion.
Candidates in general seemed to cope better than in the past with questions in which they were required to
answer in their own words in that they seemed able to select the key words to be re-cast; however, limited
vocabulary often prevented them from offering accurate synonyms.
There seemed to be more questions not attempted than in previous sessions, particularly Question 3 and
Question 8d.
General Comments
Candidates were to answer questions based on two passages of around 700 words each, the first being nonfiction and the second being fiction. As has happened with previous examinations, Passage 1 seemed to be
more accessible than Passage 2, as Passage 2 required understanding of some fairly sophisticated
vocabulary, nuances of language, and some aspects of writers craft.
There were very few incomplete scripts and even the weakest candidates seemed to engage with the tasks
and the texts. Most candidates appeared to have been well prepared by their teachers, showing themselves
to be familiar with the types of questions likely to be asked. In general, they coped well with the layout of the
answer booklets.
Both passages, the first entitled Electronic Book Readers and the second contextualised with an
introduction rather than a title, seemed to engage the interest of the candidates and to stretch and
discriminate amongst them, and this was reflected in a very wide range of scores.
The first passage explored the candidates ability to read for ideas and the second tested their reading for
meaning. 20 marks were available for the summary question, with 15 of these marks being awarded for the
assessment of the candidates ability to select content points from the text of Electronic Book Readers and
5 marks for the assessment of their ability to express these points fluently in their own words. Further

questions tested candidates ability to read for ideas, in this case to distinguish fact from opinion, to relate the
information in the passage to their own knowledge or experience, and to identify the writers attitude to the
topic under discussion.
vocabulary, their use of own words and their appreciation of the writers craft.
words and original structures, and there were several assured and stylish writers gaining full marks. These
candidates used carefully crafted and punctuated complex sentences. Others needed to include more
originality of expression in order to achieve high marks. Some are very skilled at moving around the text, but
offered no original vocabulary. Often candidates who relied on lifting did not distil their answer. This seemed
to be a matter of technique rather than understanding sometimes and Centres are advised that candidates
need to consider the content when they lift and ensure it addresses the question.
Both spelling and punctuation were good. The overall standard of written English was in some cases
impressive, although more errors were reported this session. As indicated in Key Messages, candidates
can improve on the problem of noun-verb agreement, the omission of definite or indefinite articles, even by
the best candidates, or intrusive use of the article where none is required, e.g. a loss to the society. There
was also a tendency to add phrases or connectives such as furthermore, hence etc. liberally with no clear
idea of their usage; in some cases there was little sense in what had been written because of this, e.g. they
are portable but on the contrary they dont take up much space.
In parts of the world where French is spoken, there was some confusion over the English libraries and the
French librairies; thus libraries and bookshops overlapped in some content points. The use of the intrusive
article was also an issue, as in dislike of the snobbery instead of simply dislike of snobbery.

Section 1
Candidates were asked to identify the advantages and disadvantages of electronic book readers, or ereaders as they were subsequently called, as described in the passage in paragraphs two to six inclusive.
They could produce these content points in sentences or in note form, and they were free to use either the
words of the text or their own words. One content point under each heading of the rubric was given by way
of illustration, although these given points were not rewarded with a mark. Where marks were denied, it was
usually because key ideas, or possibly agents, were missing. Some responses were able to reach the
maximum 15 marks indeed some candidates identified in excess of 15 content points although only 15
marks could be awarded; the exercise was fully discriminating as the whole range of marks could be found.
long, verbatim copies of the text for each content point, understanding that there is little evidence to suggest
that such a strategy yields more marks. Candidates were not instructed to use bullet points, although the
sample points given to assist them used bullets; however, most candidates used bullet points, seeming to
realise that it would help them to focus more clearly on identifying content points if they were presented
under bullets. If more than one content point was made under a single bullet, both marks (or all marks in the
unlikely event of there being in excess of two points under a single bullet) were awarded.
Paragraphs 2 and 3 described the advantages of e-readers, and there were 10 points (excluding the first,
which was given) which the candidates could make. In Paragraph 2, there were 5 content points, (excluding
the provided first point) outlining these advantages. Some e-books are cheaper than bookshop prices, there
is no need to visit bookshops, e-readers do not take up much space and are portable. Moreover, it is
possible to carry very many, or hundreds, of books on an e-reader. Where points were incorrectly made in
this section, it tended to be because of the confusion between e-books and e-readers, the electronic device

on which e-books are read; thus it was incorrect to write that e-readers can be downloaded at a cheaper
price than bookshop prices, or to imply that was being said by the omission of the agent. The rubric
suggested that the understood agent was e-readers and so when the content point was about e-books, the
correct agent had to be spelled out by the candidate. Leniency was exercised here in that if candidates
described e-books simply as books, this was overlooked provided the context was indeed e-books and not
real books. Very few candidates made the point about being able to carry hundreds of e-books on an ereader, because they lifted the section of the text without the reference to e-books, writing merely that you
can carry hundreds on an e-reader.
Paragraph 3 explained that e-readers help visually impaired people because the size of the print can be
increased, and lights can be attached to keep eyes healthy. Furthermore, reading can be personalised with
an e-reader, the novelty of e-readers might lead to increased reading or improved examination results, and
there is no need to use a bookmark as e-readers take you to the point where you stopped reading. Points
incompletely made were a cause of lost marks in this paragraph: the link between visually impaired readers
and increased print size had to established, and the link between attached lights and healthy eyes had to be
established. There were many cases of only half of each of these points being made, and there are no half
marks awarded in this examination. Some said the size of the screen, and not the print, could be enlarged.
It was not sufficient to say that e-readers will lead to increased reading unless this increase was linked to the
novelty factor.
The second section of the rubric asked for the disadvantages of e-readers, and there were 9 available
content points, (excluding the first, which was given.) to be found over Paragraphs, 4, 5 and 6. In Paragraph
4, candidates could make 3 points (excluding the provided first point): the cost of e-readers is high,
consequently they are socially divisive, or not everyone can afford one, and many people will have little
opportunity to read at all if libraries close. This latter point was frequently incompletely made, with the point
being made that people will be deprived of reading, but without the addition of the reference to libraries
closing. In Paragraph 5, it was possible to find 3 content points: e-readers deny the pleasure of simply
owning or holding real books, e-books cannot be swapped, and they cannot be annotated. As with some of
the previous content points, there was some confusion here over agents; it was incorrect to suggest that the
devices called e-readers cannot be swapped or annotated, as it is the e-books to which these limitations
belong. To either state the agent as being e-readers, or to imply that e-readers was the agent by omitting
an agent altogether, was a common source of lost marks in this area.
Paragraph 6 outlined a further 3 disadvantages of e-readers: you have to know what youre looking for when
you buy e-books, or you miss out on the possibility of finding a new book by browsing in a bookshop,
bookshops have to close because they can not compete with e-readers, and jobs will be lost if bookshops
close. There were many incomplete points here where reference was made to the closure of bookshops
without reference to the reason for it, namely the impossibility of competition with e-readers.
advantages and disadvantages of electronic book readers as described in the passage. They were asked to
write no more than 160 words (the first ten of which were given), within the space available in the answer
booklet. Most candidates completed the exercise and most were able to do so comfortably within the given
space. There were a number of candidates who used their own words in a sustained manner and in a style
which was always accurate, containing original complex structures. As indicated above, the general use of
own words was often noticeable, with many candidates being innovative or original in their use of English;
many others selected from, edited and restructured the text well, while others moved blocks of text around
rather than re-wording detail, or copied from the text. There were occasional examples where attempts at
use of own words proved unwise in that the over-ambitious vocabulary did not entirely match the meaning of
the original.
Although Examiners were not checking the number of content points in Question 1(a) against the number
produced in Question 1(b), if many fewer points were made in Question 1(b) than in Question 1(a), this
would be reflected in the language mark. Writing only, for example, 6 content points would be unlikely to be
described as sustained use of own words, whereas, conversely, writing 15 content points might be
sustained use of own words, though not necessarily. The best responses came from candidates who were
competent and confident enough to grapple with the original text, re-shaping and re-casting it in original
complex sentences, and therefore able to gain many, or full, marks for style.

ability to respond to the ideas of the whole text or a section of it. In general, candidates found these
questions challenging.
Question 2 asked candidates to select and write down two opinions from Paragraph 2; these were that
going to a bookshop is a hassle, and that carrying hundreds of books on an e-reader is delightful.
The key to answering this question lay in successfully identifying the subjective words, which were hassle
and delightful: what is a hassle or a delight for one person many not be a hassle of a delight for another,
and thus to state categorically that it is so is an opinion. Many seemed to pick a quote at random and a
small number referred to the wrong paragraph.
In Question 3, candidates were asked to explain why they, or someone they know, was wary of a piece of
technology and whether or not the fear was justified. Some, but not many, candidates were entirely
successful here and, for candidates who responded correctly, there was a refreshing range of answers which
showed real engagement with the text. Some examples were a candidate who was wary his mobile phone
would cause him to spend hours in the evening making phone calls and thus neglecting his studies, and the
fear was justified because he failed an examination, or an uncle who was worried that online banking would
not be secure and the fear was justified because someone hacked into his financial data and stole from him.
In order to answer the question correctly, candidates had to identify a piece of technology, relate it to a
particular person, and explain a fear; then they had to explain why the fear was either justified or unjustified.
Many candidates missed the point and wrote in general terms about technology or life in the technological
age; others gave a fear and a reason for it without linking the fear to a specific person; others gave and
explained a fear but failed to explain why it was justified or otherwise. A few candidates stated that the fear
came as a result of using the computer/mobile etc. so their answer was out of sequence, for example: My
friend had an X-box and he would play all day. As a result his grades dropped and this made him wary of it.
In that respect this turned out to a discerning question. A lot of weaker candidates used the example of ebooks, despite the rubric prohibition against this. Examiners were lenient in the selection of what constitutes
a piece of technology, bearing in mind local and international differences: thus what was accepted ranged
from computers to air-conditioning units.
In Question 4, candidates were to choose from a selection of three statements which one of them described
the writers attitude to e-books. They were asked to tick the correct box from a choice of three, and most
candidates answered this successfully by ticking the third box: the writer is undecided whether e-books are
beneficial or detrimental to society, an answer which could be understood from the final two sentences of the
passage.

Section 2
Most candidates seemed to find this text more challenging than the non-narrative Passage 1 and in general
fewer marks were scored in this section than in Section 1.
Question 5(a) asked what kind of weather Miss Garnet was expecting when she arrived in Venice. This was
a more searching opening question to Section 2 than in many previous examination papers; the answer lay
in the correct interpretation of surprisingly cold, as being she expected warm, sunny or hot weather, or
even less cold weather. Comparatives were also accepted, as in warmer or sunnier. Very many
candidates, however, were lured by the reference to surprisingly cold to write that the weather was cold,
quite the opposite response to the correct one. Perhaps some candidates were put off by the reference to
the warm boots.
In Question 5(b), candidates were asked to pick out and write down the single word which continued the
idea of exotic the correct answer being alien. Candidates almost invariably found this challenging. There
were several common wrong answers, the most popular being insubstantial, but sometimes adventure,
pearl-grey and shimmering.
Question 5(c) asked for two pieces of evidence which showed that Miss Garnet was cautious about
spending money and there was much success with this literal comprehension question The first piece of
evidence was that Miss Garnet had an old, or a well-worn, suitcase, or that she had her mothers
suitcase: the second piece of evidence was that she was staying in a cheap area. The lift of well-worn

suitcase that had been her mothers was acceptable, but if this was prefaced by collected it was considered
that the focus of evidence had been lost; the lift of taken an apartment in one of the cheaper areas (of
Venice) was considered acceptable as it encapsulated the focus of evidence. Several responses
incorrectly focused on the purchase of boots for either of the two parts; some candidates made reference to
the thick soles, which did not seem to make much sense as a response to the question.
In Question 5(d), candidates were asked to identify the job of the man with the clipboard. The key lay in
inferring from his actions when he shouted and gestured alternately to water-taxi drivers and prospective
passengers that he was arranging taxis for passengers or passengers for taxis. Any sensible answer
which linked the drivers to the passengers was acceptable. Some candidates did no more than describe his
actions without making the necessary inference, while very many wrote that he was a taxi driver, and
sometimes even a taxi. There was occasional distortion of the information: he carried passengers luggage
onto the taxi or he helped the passengers to board. A small number picked out the words newspaper and
agency and stated that he sold newspapers, that he was an agent or that he was there to greet passengers.
Question 6(a) asked for two pieces of evidence that the American couple were wealthy, the first being that
they were elegantly dressed and the second being that they were staying in one of the best or most
exclusive hotels; although the passage stated that the hotel was one of the most exclusive hotels, the
response that in fact it was the most, and not just one of the most, exclusive hotels was acceptable, as was
the assertion that it was an exclusive hotel, with no use of the comparative. This literal comprehension
question was generally well answered, although some candidates were not rewarded for their attempt at the
status of the hotel because they wrote simply that the couple were staying at the Palace Hotel, without
spelling out its exclusivity. Others wrote that the Palace Hotel was exclusive, without completing the answer
by writing that the couple were staying there. Others split the answer over the two limbs, writing (i) they were
staying in the Palace Hotel and (ii) The Palace Hotel was one of the most expensive in Venice. Such
responses were not rewarded as one correct response being split over two limbs is regarded as the two
answers it is and so gains no credit in either limb.
In Question 6(b) candidates were asked for the most important factor which contributed to Miss Garnets
uncharacteristic behaviour. The key to a correct response lay in focusing on especially in the text, which led
to the correct response, namely her dislike of snobbery. If candidates referred to the flight or the cold,
even with a correct response, they were not rewarded because the question asked them for a single factor,
i.e. the most important factor. Some candidates made the correct connection with snobbery, but were not
rewarded because they wrote, wrongly, that it was the couples snobbery which annoyed Miss Garnet rather
than a general dislike of snobbery. The answer to Question 6(c) was given by a few candidates in response
to this question (or was sometimes crossed out), which meant they failed to answer the next question
correctly.
Question 6(c) asked candidates to explain the way in which Miss Garnet asserted herself, the answer being
that she raised her voice or that she said that she had been three first. There were very many incorrect
responses here, the most common being that she grazed her leg against a bollard or that she lost her
footing. Perhaps such responses showed that candidates did not in fact know the meaning of asserted.
Question 6(d) asked how Miss Garnet now felt about attempting the trip to Venice, and was the first of the
questions on the Paper which required candidates to answer in their own words, the key words being
apprehension and foolhardiness.
For the first available mark, acceptable synonyms for
apprehension were fear, worry or nervousness, (although there were many others) and for
foolhardiness acceptable synonyms were stupidity, rashness and silliness. With apprehension
few candidates achieved a mark though most appreciated her feelings were negative. Mad, disappointed,
angry and embarrassed were popular wrong answers, as was the generalised point that she regretted
taking the trip to Venice. With foolhardiness, there was also little success, as with most questions asking for
an own words answer; many candidates wrote foolish or she had been a fool for foolhardiness but this
was considered to be too near to the word being tested to be rewarded.
Question 7(a) asked candidates for the two reasons why Miss Garnet decided not to throw away the hat that
had belonged to Harriet, the first of these being that she was reluctant to throw anything away, and the
second reason being that the hat reminded her of Harriet. There was much success with this literal
comprehension question. Incorrect responses tended to be ones which simply repeated the question, as in
she was reluctant to throw the hat away, or the lift of she realised a side to Harriet which showed lack of
comprehension of what the question was asking. Some candidates wrote, incorrectly, that she had placed
the hat on her head, or that the hat was overdramatic. A very small number were confused and implied
Harriet was alive, or in Venice.

Question 7(b) asked candidates to explain the offer Miss Garnet had received, and the reason why she had
accepted it. Correct responses were that an offer was made to share the American couples taxi, and
the fact that the American couple had pushed in front of her was the reason why she accepted the
offer. This question was not tackled particularly well. Many candidates did not make the first point fully
because they did not stipulate the agents as being the couple; the man as agent was acceptable, because it
was he who did the talking, but the idea that he was alone in the taxi destroyed an otherwise correct
response. The second point was rarely made correctly, with suggestions that Miss Garnet accepted the offer
because she was tired or because her leg hurt being popular wrong answers: even if a correct answer was
given it was negated by these wrong references to tiredness or a sore leg, because the passage refers to
the overriding fact in connection to why she accepted the offer. Careless lifting of they had pushed her
instead of they had pushed in front of her, was another wrong answer.
In Question 8(a), candidates were asked to explain why the slime was dangerous. Credit was given for the
inference that it was slippery, or that people, or Miss Garnet, might fall. Any suggestion that the danger
was caused by the fact that the slime was green denied an otherwise correct answer. Several responses
recycled the question as in it was covered in dangerous slime or simply stated that the stone steps were
covered in slime. Some thought the slime was a villain or creature or focused on bacteria or toxicity.
Question 8(b) was another discriminating question. Candidates were asked why Miss Garnet felt it was silly
to be upset when the couple left, the answer being that she hardly knew them. Responses included they
had paid the fair or they were nice. The many candidates who wrote that the departure left her feeling
forlorn clearly had not understood the question, or perhaps did not understand the meaning of forlorn.
Some just focused on upset and commented on her hurt knee, or that she was alone, or that they had
pushed in front.
Question 8(c) was the second of the questions on the Paper where candidates were asked to answer in
their own words. They were asked what Miss Garnet realised about the three boys who grabbed her
suitcase, and were to home in on sinister and augment; there was no need to re-cast intentions or
pocket-money. Acceptable synonyms for sinister were not bad, not evil and, simply, good;
alternatively, the point could be made in a more particular way, as in she realised they were not going to rob
her or even they were trying to help her, although the word help appeared nearby in the passage. There
was a fair degree of success with this. However augment proved to be too challenging for very many
candidates, who wrote merely that they wanted to get or earn some money, without reference to actually
increasing their money.
Question 8(d) was a question on writers craft and asked candidates to explain what effect was created by
the use of the word commandeered that would not be achieved by the word took. This question was not
well done, with many candidates confusing commandeered with command and suggesting that orders
were given, while others implied violence or force. Some suggested that the boy was stealing the suitcase.
The correct response needed to incorporate something of the boys personality, in that he was bossy
or assertive, or that he was the leader.
understanding in context, not necessarily in direct synonyms, of five words from a choice of eight.
Candidates scored worse here than in previous examinations, and there were no particular favourite choices,
as all words or phrases seems to be equally attempted. A reasonable degree of success was gained by
candidates who correctly offered power or might for authority, B, or reluctant to spend money for
stingy, and rude or bad-mannered for churlish, Correct synonyms for foresight were thinking ahead,
planning and anticipation; correct synonyms for scrutinise were examine or look closely, while
correct synonyms for alternately were one after the other or in turn. By far the most challenging words
for candidates to re-cast seemed to be own and urbane. Correct synonyms for own were admit or
confess; wrong answers here showed the importance of reading the word to be re-cast in its context, as
very many candidates who attempted this word thought that it meant possess, while another popular wrong
answer was accept. The most common response to urbane was belonging to the town or city, thus
showing confusion with urban; correct synonyms were sophisticated, civilised or mannerly. There
were, as usual, a few candidates who included the word in a sentence, with no explanation of its meaning.
Because understanding only is being tested in the vocabulary question, grammatical form was not insisted
upon. Candidates can improve their performance by ensuring that they select five words only and explain
the meanings of those words. Only one synonym for each word or phrase should be offered as, where more
than one is given, only the first will be considered.
Cambridge International Examinations

Cambridge Ordinary Level
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/21
May/June 2014
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
*6866861739-I*

Passage 1 Chess
1
Chess is one of the oldest games in the world, in which two opponents, each with sixteen
pieces, play on a board of sixty-four squares. Such a complex game could not have been
created by a single person, but has clearly been the product of a long process of evolution. It
has been around for centuries, and a look at its development opens a fascinating window on
numerous cultures, transporting our minds to distant lands and eras.
The earliest form of chess originated in India before the sixth century, where its Sanskrit
name chaturanga meant four divisions and referred to the different sections of the army:
soldiers on foot, on horseback, on elephants and in chariots. From India the game spread to
Persia: the story is told of an Indian ambassador who took it as a present to the Persian king,
and a manuscript dating from that period describes the excitement generated by this gift. 10
The popularity of chess in Persia meant that it became an integral part of the education of
young noblemen. The game evolved because the development of strict rules, and the need to
adhere to them, added to its appeal. When the Arab countries conquered Persia, chess was
taken up by the people of the Muslim world, who were attracted by the logical processes the
game entailed. Furthermore, when Buddhist pilgrims travelled from India along the Silk Road, 15
they introduced chess to the Far East, where variations were developed, resulting in many
other games which are still known today.
When chess spread to Europe, it was seen as a prestigious pastime associated with the
nobility: the social value attached to it can be seen in the exquisitely beautiful chessboards
of medieval Europe. It also became a subject for art, and necklaces and other jewellery were 20
often decorated with chess pieces. High-ranking soldiers, or knights, were required to have
other, non-military skills in order to be worthy of their title, and one of these skills was the
ability to play chess. Chess became more popular with the invention of the chequered board,
made of alternate black and white squares, which made it easier to distinguish between the
squares than it had been when the board was all one colour. Such was the popularity of this 25
wonderful game that writings about theories and tactics for winning began to appear in the
fifteenth century.
In modern times, chess tournaments contribute to the continuing popularity of the game; the
first of these took place in London in 1851, and they have become the standard form of
competition among serious players. In the Chess Olympiad, which occurs every two years, 30
the game is played by teams representing various countries globally; it resembles the Olympic
Games in that its international flavour attracts both players and spectators, keen to see their
own country perform well. The foundation of the World Chess Federation popularised chess
because, by acting as the governing body of international chess competition, it defines the
rules of the game and the ratings of players. Modern media keep spectators in touch with 35
championships; for example, the final of the 2012 World Chess Championship was broadcast
with live commentary on the internet. An innovation in chess has been the invention of chess
computers, technology which actually takes on the role of the opponent and enables players
to practise and improve their game.
Chess is more interesting than other board games because the different pieces have different 40
powers. There are several types of chess pieces ranging from the majestic king to the humble
pawn, representing a servant or foot soldier, and part of the attraction of the game is that these
various pieces move in different ways. Moreover, chess is probably unique in that victory for
one particular player depends on the fate of only one of the pieces, the king; merely taking
piece after piece is not sufficient. Chess is no ordinary game, because it demands skill and 45
concentration: there is no element of luck as in, say, some card games. Furthermore, chess
players are given a sense of continuity with the past, of belonging to a great chess-playing
family which extends through centuries and embraces many nations.
UCLES 2014
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/14
Passage 2 Alice
1
One of the rituals of Alices life was going shopping with her grandmother, Elspeth. She was
allowed to hold the shopping bag which, despite its short handles, knocked Alice on the leg
when she carried it. Only certain things went in it. Her grandmother explained that vegetables
and soap shouldnt be in the same bag but tins and soap together were allowed. Peaches
5
shouldnt go in the string bag, as they got bruised. Once, when Alice was carrying a box
of eggs, she opened the lid to inspect them and they slid from her hands, breaking on the
pavement in a shock of shattered shell and a viscous watery blur. Dont worry, dont worry, said
her grandmother, over and over again. On this particular day, Alice was holding the string bag,
which she put over her head and pulled down over her body with the plaited handles, folding
her arms under the webbing. When she wore it like that, did it not make her a perfect Net Man? 10
Elspeth met a friend and they talked for ages outside the antiques shop. Alice started to jiggle
about as she held Elspeths hand. Alice didnt like this friend much. Without stopping her
conversation or even looking down, Elspeth twitched Alices arm, which Alice knew meant
she was expected to behave. Alice bent back the sole of her sandal under her foot. She
tried not to look bored. Eventually, she extricated her fingers from Elspeths, walked over to 15
the window of the antiques shop and pressed her face to it. At first she was looking only at
how tiny beads of moisture left a ghostly imprint of her nose and lips on the glass. Then she
peered into the shop: it was very dark and strange things hung from the ceiling, but then she
saw a glass cabinet, heaped with beads, earrings and rings, and Alices apprehension gave
20
way to exhilaration.
Shall we go in and look? asked Elspeth. Soon Alice was standing next to a table with a
surface so polished that she thought that, if she touched it, ripples would circle out from
under her fingers to lap at its edges. She looked around the dark red walls of this temple of
wonders: feathered fans, gold-edged paintings, lampshades dangling strings of purple beads.
Alice walked over to a carousel of clothes, dived down underneath it, and then resurfaced, 25
surrounded by antique dresses and scarves. She ran her hand reverently down the clothes,
and turned round and round, until dizziness started to smudge her vision.
You must be Alice. It was the shop owner, looming over the top of the carousel. He reached
in and Alice felt him grip her underneath her arms before the floor fell away and she was
rising towards a low red lantern covered with the writhing green bodies of dragons, which 30
was hanging from the ceiling. Then the floor was coming up to meet her again, and she was
set down in front of the man. Tell me, he said, what do you like best in here? Alice didnt
hesitate, but pointed solemnly to the red dragon lantern.
He smiled and holding up a pearl necklace said, When you came in, I was testing these
to see if theyre real or fake. He put the pearls into Alices palm. The best way to do this is 35
to put them into contact with human skin, he explained. If they are real, they start to glow.
Enchanted, Alice watched the pearls for any signs of opalescent glowing. Suddenly the man
whipped them out of her hand. Maybe that method is too time-consuming, he said. The other
way is to rub them against your teeth. Real pearls feel like sand. Open your mouth. The shop
owner rubbed the largest pearl against her two front teeth. Alice waited, spellbound. There 40
was a grainy feeling, a kind of friction. Theyre real! she exclaimed.
The shop owner placed Alice on a dilapidated chair in front of a mirror, fastening the pearls
round her neck. Elspeth appeared behind them in the mirror. Alice, she said, we must go.
Give the man back his necklace. She turned Alice round and began unfastening the clasp.
No, no, said the shop owner, Id like her to have them.
Dont be ridiculous, said her grandmother, propelling Alice towards the door. Are you running
a business or what?
UCLES 2014
1123/21/INSERT/M/J/14
45

* 6 8 6 6 8 6 1 7 3 9 *
1123/21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2014

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

2
Read Passage 1 in the insert and answer all the questions below.
1

Identify and write down the points in the passage which describe the origins and rise in
worldwide popularity of chess throughout history, and the reasons for its continuing popularity
today.
MAIN POINTS
The origins and rise in popularity of chess throughout history
It originated in India before the sixth century
The reasons for the continuing popularity of chess today
Chess tournaments (increase popularity)
UCLES 2014
1123/21/M/J/14
3
1

Now use your notes to write a summary in which you describe the origins and rise in
worldwide popularity of chess throughout history, and the reasons for its continuing popularity
today, as outlined in the passage.
This time, you will be awarded up to 5 marks for using your own words wherever possible
and for accurate use of language.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must be no longer than
160 words, including the 10 words given below. Begin your summary as follows:
Chess originated in India before the sixth century and then .....................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
No. of words
UCLES 2014
1123/21/M/J/14
[Turn over
4
2
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is true or
false, and for each statement tick the box you have chosen.
True
False
There are thirty-two pieces on a chessboard at the start of a game.

Chess was created by two people.
Chess was not known until a hundred years ago.
[3]
3
From your reading of paragraph 3, select and write down two opinions.
One opinion is ...................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
Another opinion is .............................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................... [2]
5
From paragraph 1
4
(a) What were Alice and her grandmother doing on that particular day?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Give two of the ways in which the writer indicates that Alice was only a little girl.
(i) .............................................................................................................................................
(ii) ........................................................................................................................................ [2]
(c) How can we tell that Elspeth is a caring grandmother?
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From paragraph 2
5
(a) Before she extricated her fingers from Elspeths, in what two ways was Alice misbehaving?
(i) .............................................................................................................................................
(ii) ........................................................................................................................................ [2]
(b) Tiny beads of moisture left a ghostly imprint of her nose and lips on the glass. Without
using the words of the passage, explain exactly what is happening here.
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [2]
(c) Explain in your own words how Alices feelings changed as she looked at the glass cabinet.
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [2]
UCLES 2014
1123/21/M/J/14
[Turn over
6
From paragraph 3
6
(a) Inside the antiques shop, Alice saw a table with a polished surface. What did the surface of
the table remind her of?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Alice thought of the antiques shop as a temple of wonders. Pick out and write down the
single word used later in the paragraph which continues this idea of temple.
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From paragraph 4
7
(a) What effect is created by the word looming that would not be created by, for example, the
word appearing?
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) The floor fell away and she was rising towards a low red lantern covered with the writhing
green bodies of dragons, which was hanging from the ceiling. Then the floor was coming up
to meet her again. Explain fully what was happening here.
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [2]
From paragraph 5
8
(a) Explain precisely the two methods, according to the shop owner, for deciding whether pearls
are real pearls or fake.
(i) .............................................................................................................................................
(ii) ........................................................................................................................................ [2]
(b) Alice was enchanted. Pick out and write down the single word used later in the paragraph
which continues the idea of enchanted.
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
UCLES 2014
1123/21/M/J/14
7
From paragraph 8
9
Dont be ridiculous... . Are you running a business or what? Explain fully what Elspeth means by
this.
..........................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................... [2]

1.
2.
3.
4.
rituals (line 1)
peered (line 18)
writhing (line 30)
solemnly (line 33)
5.
6.
7.
8.
whipped (line 38)

friction (line 41)
dilapidated (line 42)
propelling (line 46)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
Answer
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2014
1123/21/M/J/14
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Passage 1
1
(a) Identify and write down the points in the passage which describe the origins and rise
in popularity of chess throughout history, and the reasons for its continuing
popularity today.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
for each
correct
point up
to a max.
of 15
Originated in India before the sixth

century
It spread to Persia
Indian Ambassador
took it as a gift to
King of Persia
Became (integral) part of education of

(young) noblemen in Persia
P3 without
reference to Persia
if Persia context is
established in P2
(Development of) strict rules // need to

adhere to rules
When Arab countries conquered Persia

it was taken up by Muslims / went to
Muslim world // when Arab countries
conquered Persia Muslims were
attracted by its logical processes
Buddhist pilgrims / Buddhists took it

(from India) to Far East (along Silk
Road)
In Europe, it became pastime associated

with nobility
(Became) subject for European art //

necklaces / jewellery decorated with
chess pieces
Knights / high-ranking soldiers had to be

able to play chess
10 Invention of chequered / black and white

board made it easier to distinguish
between the squares
11 Writings about theories / tactics
12 Chess tournaments (increase popularity)
Allow
Dont Allow
Arab / Arab
countries for
Muslim world and
vice versa
Chess was seen

as noble /
prestigious
Allow P8 without
reference to
Europe if Europe
context has already
been established
Reference to
exquisitely
beautiful
chessboards
Knights / highranking soldiers
played chess
Inventionboard
made it easier to
play
Page 3
Mark Scheme
13 Chess Olympiad is international
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Some
tournaments /
some
championships /
chess Olympics
are international.
Chess Olympiad,
etc. linked to keen
to see a country do
well
14 World Chess Federation defines

rules / ratings of players
15 Modern media keep spectators / people /
us in touch with matches /
championships
matches /
championships
broadcast on
internet (alone) =
0 (examples only)
16 Chess computers / technology enable(s)

players to practise / improve // Chess
computers / technology act(s) as
opponents
playing online
(alone) = 0
17 Different / various pieces have different

powers / move in different ways
18 Victory depends on (fate of) one
piece / the king
Uniqueness of how
victory is achieved
19 Demands skill / concentration // no

element of luck
20 (Gives sense of) continuity with the
past
Lift in full of lines

4748 belonging
tomany nations
Belonging to a
great chessplaying family
(alone) = 0
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(b) Now use your notes to write a summary in which you describe the origins and rise in
popularity of chess throughout history, and the reasons for its continuing popularity
today, as outlined in the passage.
USE OF ENGLISH. The table on page 6 provides descriptors of the mark levels
wholesale copying and complete transcript is that, whereas in wholesale copying
there is nothing / little that is original, the copying has been selective and directed at
the question, but with a complete transcript the candidate has started copying and
rare.
Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number, e.g. OW 3, UE 2, giving a mark
of 3.
either T (text), O (own words), MR (manipulated or re-worked text) and / or IR
(irrelevant). Where the candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has
substituted an odd word here and there (single word substitution) indicate these
single words with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of
OW.
indicate it each time it is made. Below follows a list of serious errors:
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Breakdown of sense.
Serious omissions, or serious intrusions, e.g. of definite article. Ignore what are clearly
slips.
the two top boxes in the Use of English column. Ticks, therefore, tend to be over relative
pronouns, present participles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken
into consideration under assessment of OW.
If script is entirely irrelevant, mark for style as normal (i.e. arrive at mark under OW and
extremely rare.
Short answers
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21

Mark
5
Own Words

language.
Mark
5
Use of English

re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

word expression.
below.

of the text.

to the reader.
isolated.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
attempted.
frequent. [8+ errors as a guide]
correct.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 7
2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is
true or false, and for each statement tick the box you have chosen.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Statement 1 is True
1 mark

choice even if it is not a
tick, e.g. cross, star,
asterisk

statement
1 mark
From your reading of parapgraph 3, select and write down two opinions.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Chess boards of medieval

Europe are / were
(exquisitely) beautiful
(Exquisitely) beautiful
chessboards of medieval
Europe
Chess was seen as a

prestigious pastime
1 mark
Chess / it is a wonderful
game
(Such was the popularity

of) this wonderful game.
Excess denies
Social value attached

to it
Accept own words attempts within the parameters of the text answer.
Passage 2
4
(a) What were Alice and her grandmother doing on that particular day?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(Going) shopping / to
the shops
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of one of the
rituals...with her
grandmother
Food shopping or any
other specific
shopping
Reference to Alice
holding the bag = 0(N)
Page 8
4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(b) Give two of the ways in which the writer indicates that Alice was only a little girl.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
The (shopping) bag

knocked her (on the)
leg
1 mark
She didnt know which

things / purchases went
together / went with other
things / purchases //
things / purchases that
went together had to be
explained to her // she
didnt know that peaches
got bruised / shouldnt be
put in a string bag
1 mark
She pretended to be Net

Man / she play-acted /
pretended to be someone
else // she used the string
bag as a (Net Man)
costume // she could fit in /
she wore the (string) bag
Allow
Dont Allow
Inclusion of she
was allowed to
hold the shopping
bag = 0(N)
She didnt know that

vegetables and soap
shouldnt be in the same
bag // She didnt know that
tins and soap could be in
the same bag
Lift, in whole or in
part, of Alice was
holding...Net Man? =
0(N)
Award any two of three to 2 max.
All 0 answers are 0(N), i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer.
4
(c) How can we tell that Elspeth is a caring grandmother?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
She told Alice not to worry

over and over / repeatedly
(when the eggs broke) //
Lift of lines 78 Dont

worryagain
She didnt care that

the eggs were broken
= 0(N)
She said Dont worry,

dont worry over and
over / repeatedly //
She took her

shopping =0(N)
She reassured / comforted

Alice over and over /
repeatedly (when the eggs
broke)
All 0 answers are 0(N), i.e. they do not negate an otherwise correct answer.
Page 9
5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(a) Before she extricated her fingers from Elspeths, in what two ways was Alice
misbehaving?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i)
1 mark
(ii) She bent back the

sole of her sandal /
shoe (under her foot)
Allow
She jiggled / fidgeted /

hopped (as she held
Elspeths hand)
Dont Allow
Run-on into Alice
didnt like this
friend much =
0(W)
She was playing with her

sandal / shoe
Run-on into she tried

not to look bored =
0(W)
She was bending her
sandal /shoe = 0(N)
Reference to
extricating her fingers
= 0(N)
A 0(W) answer negates an otherwise correct answer.
5
(b) Tiny beads of moisture left a ghostly imprint of her nose and lips on the glass.
Without using the words of the passage, explain exactly what is happening here.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
MOISTURE: breath /
breathing / condensation /
steam / vapour / mist
Wetness / dampness
(alone) = 0(N)
1 mark
IMPRINT: shape / outline /

image / copy / mark / trace
Picture / reflection /
pattern = 0(N)
This is not a conventional own words question, but look for explanation of MOISTURE and
IMPRINT used in a sensible context. Do not insist on synonym for ghostly but again
context must be sensible.
A 0(N) answer does not negate an otherwise correct answer
A 0(W) answer negates an otherwise correct answer
Page 10
5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(c) Explain in your own words how Alices feelings changed as she looked at the glass
cabinet.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
APPREHENSION:
fear / anxiety /
nervousness / worry /
doubt / uneasiness /
disquiet / agitation /
wariness / fright /
misgivings / qualms
scared / frightened / afraid
Anger /
embarrassment /
regret / shock /
irritation / terror /
boredom / caution /
upset 0(N)
1 mark
EXHILARATION:
happiness / joy /
delight / elation /
euphoria / excitement
amazement
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are APPREHENSION and EXHILARATION.
Accept correct synonyms in either order.
She was afraid and excited = 2
She was excited and afraid = 2
She was excited and then afraid = 2
6
(a) Inside the antiques shop, Alice touched a table with a polished surface. What did the
surface of the table remind her of?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
Water / a lake / pond /
Allow
pool
Dont Allow
Lift of she thought
that.....edges
Image must be decoded
/ sea / ocean = 0(N)
A 0(N) answer does not negate an otherwise correct answer.
Page 11
6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(b) Alice thought of the antiques shop as a temple of wonders. Pick out and write down
the single word used later in the paragraph which continues this idea of temple.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
reverently
The use of a correct

word in a phrase or
sentence provided that
it is underlined or
otherwise highlighted
More than one

word
(a) What effect is created by the word looming that would not be created by, for example,
the word appearing?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
The man / shop owner

was / seemed to be tall /
big // the man / shop
owner frightened Alice //
Alice felt threatened

seemed ominous
Mysterious = 0(N)
Size (alone) = 0
Alice is small(er) =
0(N)
Look for idea either of the mans size or Alices fear / or idea of threat.
7
(b) The floor fell away and she was rising towards a low red lantern covered with the
writhing green bodies of dragons, which was hanging from the ceiling. Then the floor
was coming up to meet her again. Explain fully what was happening here.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark

was lifting Alice / her up
from the carousel / clothes
(up) towards the ceiling //
Alice / she was being lifted
up from the carousel /
clothes / (up) towards the
ceiling
Lifted her out = 0(N)
1 mark
and put back down again
Put her on a chair /

she sat down = 0(W)
Page 12
8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
(a) Explain precisely the two methods, according to the shop owner, for deciding whether
pearls are real pearls or fake.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
(i) (Put them) in contact

with your / human skin
(to see if) they glow /
shine
Lift of lines 3536 The

best way to do this is to
...start to glow
1 mark
(ii) Rub them against

(your) teeth (to see if)
they feel like sand //
feel gritty / grainy /
rough
Lift of lines 3839 The

other way...feel like
sand. Excess denies
Dont Allow
They will not feel

smooth
8
(b) Alice was enchanted. Pick out and write down the single word used later in the
paragraph which continues the idea of enchanted.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Spellbound
The use of a correct

word in a phrase or
sentence provided
that it is underlined or
otherwise highlighted
More than one word
Page 13
9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
Dont be ridiculous. Are you running a business or what? Explain fully what Elspeth
means by this.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
You cant / its silly / he was

silly / its impossible to give
expensive items / (real)
pearls away
1 mark
If you want to make money /

make a profit / run a business
(sic) / earn a living
Allow
Dont Allow
Shopkeepers
shouldnt give away
merchandise (alone)
=0
The idea of losing

money / failing
business, etc.
Mere definition of a
shopkeeper = 0, e.g.
Shopkeepers
should / could sell
them
Look for the expensive nature of the gift and lack of business acumen, e.g.
You cant run a business if you give expensive things away = 2
You cant run a business if you give things away = 1
You cant give expensive things away = 1
You can give expensive things away = 0
Page 14
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
phrase (of not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in
the passage.
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 mark
for each
correct
meaning
1 rituals (L1)
customs / traditions / things

that always happen /
routines // regular / common /
usual occurrences / patterns of
behaviour / actions
procedures / processes /
ceremonies / habits /
purposes / objectives
2 peered (L18)
looked closely / intently //

stared / gazed
examined / studied
scrutinised // looked
seriously / deeply
3 writhing (L30)
twisting / snaking / coiling /

wriggling / twining / spiralling /
curving / squirming / twirling /
turning
zigzagging
4 solemnly (L33)
seriously / earnestly / gravely /

soberly
unhappily / bored /
dejectedly / sadly /
unsmilingly / blankly /
directly
5 whipped (L38)
snatched / pulled quickly / took

quickly / seized / grasped /
grabbed / yanked /
commandeered
6 friction (L41)
scratching / scrape /
roughness / rasp / grating /
abrasiveness / rubbing
roughly, etc.
rubbing
7 dilapidated (L42)
tattered / damaged / ruined /

decrepit / shabby / worn /
battered / falling apart / tatty /
in disrepair
neglected / decayed / old /

crumbling
8 propelling (L46)
pushing / shoving / driving /

steering / shunting
throwing / pulling /
directing / moving / rushing /
dragging / twisting
Page 15
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
21
but neutral, e.g. stared and looked for peered.
within this limit.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
1123/22
May/June 2014
INSERT
1 hour 45 minutes
*3083215618-I*

Passage 1 Cinnamon
1
Cinnamon is one of the oldest known spices, native to parts of India and Sri Lanka originally
found only in the latter but native also to Bangladesh and Burma. After the bushes have
been growing for two years, the outer bark of the branches is scraped off to reveal the inner
bark; this in turn is pinned out and, when dry, it curls into tubular rolls called quills or sticks.
5
Cinnamon was used in Chinese medicine and is mentioned in a medical textbook dated
almost 3,000 years ago. About 1,000 years later, it was imported by the Egyptians, who used
it as an embalming agent in their elaborate system of burial. Cinnamon had an important
role to play in traditional Indian medicine, being seen as a cure for indigestion and colds. So
highly-prized was cinnamon among ancient societies that it was considered a gift fit even for
gods: cinnamon was offered to the Greek god Apollo, god of light and the sun, at his temple in 10
Miletus, thus establishing a link between cinnamon and religion. Early Hebrew religious texts
make several references to cinnamon: it was one of the ingredients of the oil used to anoint
Hebrew priests and to bless specific articles in the temple, thus being linked to holiness. It
was also one of the ingredients used to make the incense which perfumed the offerings in the
15
temple.
Cinnamon was regarded as a luxury, a symbol of affluence, fit also for kings: the Roman
Emperor Nero burned a years worth of the citys supply at his wifes funeral. So prestigious
was cinnamon that its sources were shrouded in mystery by merchants who wanted to protect
their monopoly on supplies, so it is obvious that legends would grow up around it. For example,
a Frenchman who travelled to Egypt in the thirteenth century reported that cinnamon could 20
be found at the source of the Nile and caught in nets by fishermen. Because of its delightful
flavour, cinnamon was used in cooking, and featured in many diverse cuisines throughout the
world, such as Indian, Turkish and Persian.
When cinnamon was brought to Europe by Venetian traders, it became just as valued as a
cooking ingredient, especially in the kitchens of the elite. Cinnamon was mixed with cloves 25
and warm water and placed in the sick room of plague victims, because it was considered
a cure for that deadly disease. The popularity of cinnamon was used by countries in Europe
to gain domination over one another by controlling cinnamon production. Prominent among
these were Portugal, Holland and Britain.
Cinnamon is no less popular or useful nowadays than it was in former times. Its use as a 30
flavouring in the cooking of savoury dishes has continued down through the centuries.
Additionally, it is used in the cooking of sweet dishes like apple pie. The Chinese were right
all that time ago to think that cinnamon had medicinal properties, because the aromatic oils
that come from the leaves and bark of the cinnamon bush have been shown to have antiviral
properties. It helps prevent disease by being effective in killing mosquito larvae. Moreover, 35
some people believe that it has an anti-inflammatory effect. They claim that cinnamon improves
digestion, particularly of fruit and dairy products, and that using cinnamon in cooking, or even
drinking cinnamon tea, is an ideal way to improve their diet.
Nowadays, pharmaceutical companies are considering the use of cinnamon in conventional

medicine. It is possible that cinnamon may have powers which reduce cholesterol levels, thus 40
addressing a modern day concern. Research which links consumption of cinnamon to lower
blood sugar levels means that it is a potential treatment for diabetes, although the studies
have been small and the findings need to be confirmed by bigger trials. This link to reduced
blood sugar levels may prove beneficial in the war against obesity, another modern problem,
especially in the West. An exciting breakthrough came in 2011 when scientists discovered that 45
cinnamon might delay the onset of memory loss in elderly people, and that simply smelling
the wonderful odour of this sweet spice can boost brain activity and thought processes.
UCLES 2014
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/14
Passage 2 Esme and Kitty

(Two sisters, accompanied by their mother, travel to a new country to live with their grandmother.)
1
The ship, with its maximum capacity of passengers, was almost ready to leave harbour,
vibrating and groaning. People crowded along the quay to bid farewell, waving flags and
banners in the air. Esme turned towards her mother, standing next to her at the rail with one
hand waving. Her wrist, protruding from her lace cuff, was thin, the gold watchstrap round it
loose. Kitty put her arm through Esmes, keeping her eyes on the quay, watching as the great
bales of cloth were loaded on to the ship. Her mother reached forward and patted Esmes
fingers twice. Esme laid her head against her sisters shoulder.
Two days into the voyage, the ship began to sway, very slightly at first, and then to roll from
side to side. Glasses slid along the tablecloths, soup slopped over the sides of bowls. People
hurried to their cabins, staggering and falling as the ship bucked beneath them. The line of 10
the horizon began to seesaw in the ships windows, and the sea hurled itself at the glass. The
crew were scurrying about the wet decks; everyone else had vanished. The realisation that
she, alone among the passengers, did not feel seasick, made Esme feel both shameful and
exuberant about her good health.
In the cabin Esme shared with her sister, Kitty lay crumpled on the bed. Esme bent over her 15
deathly white face and was suddenly seized by the thought that her sister was desperately
ill. Kitty opened her eyes, gazed at Esme without recognition, and then turned her face to the
wall. I cant stand the sight of the sea, she muttered. Esme brought her water, read to her and
hung a towel over the window. When Kitty slept, she ventured out. The lounges and the dining
rooms were deserted. She learned to lean forward into the angle made as the deck rose up in 20
front of her like a horse taking a fence. She watched the foaming path left behind the ship and
the grey, crested waves that they had passed over.
Eventually, Esmes first sight of the coast emerged from a shadowy, dank October dawn. The
cold seemed to chill the flesh right down to the bone. Before disembarking for the journey
to their grandmothers house, Esme and Kitty bumped into one another as they struggled 25
to put on the few clothes they had, one garment on top of the other. Their mother tutted in
disapproval. Were they really each wearing five dresses and two cardigans? Esme recalled
memories of the home theyd left behind, of poking the yellow dust of the garden with her bare
toe, of her mother bending over the garden table to pour tea into cups, her father beside her
30
in a hammock, the edges of their white clothes shimmering.
A few days after their arrival, their grandmother announced that she would take the girls
shopping in town. Grandma says she cant bear the shame of seeing us dressed like
beggars, said Kitty. Esme snorted. I dont think Im going to like this place, she retorted, if its
considered shameful not to own a coat. The preparations for the excursion took up most of
the morning. Their grandmother had letters to write, meals to plan, and then merely the threat 35
of a headache cast a shadow over the plans for the day. The sisters waited and waited.
Suddenly the door flew open, and their grandmother stood there, resplendent in a fine wool
coat, a capacious bag gripped in one hand. They were taken to a department store, where a
man in a top hat held the door open for them, and an assistant accompanied them across the
floor. Esme tipped her face back and saw a staircase sweeping up and up. Kitty felt for Esmes 40
hand and squeezed it. The range of goods in the store was astounding. They were girls who
had spent their lives in no more than a cotton dress, and here were vests, stockings, socks,
scarves, coats, gloves, all clearly intended to be worn at once. Esme picked up a sweater and
asked where it might be worn in the baffling order of things. The shop assistant looked at their
45
grandmother, who shook her head.
Theyre not used to living here, she sighed in exasperation.
UCLES 2014
1123/22/INSERT/M/J/14

* 3 0 8 3 2 1 5 6 1 8 *
1123/22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 2 Reading
May/June 2014

1 hour 45 minutes
Insert

2
1

Identify and write down the points in the passage which describe the uses and popularity of
cinnamon in former times, and its uses and continuing popularity in modern times.
MAIN POINTS
The uses and popularity of cinnamon in former times
Used in Chinese medicine
The uses and continuing popularity of cinnamon in modern times
Used in cooking savoury dishes
UCLES 2014
1123/22/M/J/14
3
Now use your notes to write a summary, in which you describe the uses and popularity of
This time, you will be awarded up to 5 marks for using your own words wherever possible
and for accurate use of language.
Your summary, which must be in continuous writing (not note form), must be no longer than
160 words, including the 10 words given below. Begin your summary as follows:
There is evidence that cinnamon was used in Chinese medicine .............................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
No of words
UCLES 2014
1123/22/M/J/14
[Turn over
4
2
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is true, false,
or not stated in the passage, and tick the boxes you have chosen.
True
False
Not
stated
(i) Cinnamon was first discovered in Sri Lanka.

(ii) Cinnamon bushes stop growing after three years.
(iii) Cinnamon is produced by scraping the bark off the inner
branches of the bush.
[3]

One opinion is ..................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
Another opinion is .............................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................... [2]
UCLES 2014
1123/22/M/J/14
5
From paragraph 1
4
(a) Why is the ship described as groaning?

.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Why was the girls mother waving?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(c) Give two ways in which the behaviour of the sisters shows their affection for each other.
(i)
...........................................................................................................................................
(ii)
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
From paragraph 2
5
(a) The ship began to sway and then to roll from side to side. What is causing this to happen?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Pick out and write down the single word from the paragraph which continues the idea of
moving from side to side.
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(c) The sea hurled itself at the glass. What effect is created here that would not be created by
the sea splashed against the glass?
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(d) Describe in your own words Esmes feelings when she realises she is the only passenger
who is not seasick.
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [2]
6
From paragraph 3
6
(a) As Kitty lay crumpled on the bed, what are the two indications that she might be
desperately ill?
(i)
...........................................................................................................................................
(ii)
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Why do you think Esme hung a towel over the window?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(c) What did Esme learn not to do when she walked round the ship in the storm?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From paragraph 4
7
(a) What did the girls mother disapprove of?

...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) Esme recalled memories of their previous home. What aspect of the country where the girls
used to live does the writer want to emphasise here?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
From paragraph 5
8
(a) When the girls grandmother decided she would take them shopping, what evidence suggests
they were like beggars?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(b) What emotion does Esme show in response to her grandmothers view that she and her sister
look like beggars?
.............................................................................................................................................. [1]
(c) Without copying from the passage, explain fully how we can tell that the girls grandmother
worried unnecessarily about her health.
...................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................. [2]
UCLES 2014
1123/22/M/J/14
7
From paragraph 6
9
Why do you think Kitty felt for Esmes hand and squeezed it?
..........................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................... [1]

10 Choose five of the following words. For each of them give one word or short phrase
(of not more than seven words) which has the same meaning that the word has in the passage.
1.
2.
3.
4.
ventured (line 19)

dank (line 23)
excursion (line 34)
flew (line 37)
5.
6.
7.
8.
capacious (line 38)

clearly (line 43)
baffling (line 44)
exasperation (line 46)
Five words chosen

(from list above)
Answer
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
( ) .....................................
..............................................................................................
[1]
[5]
UCLES 2014
1123/22/M/J/14
Page 2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 1
1
(a) Identify and write points in the passage which describe the uses and popularity of
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
for
each
correct
point
up to a
max.
of 15
1. Used in Chinese medicine
Allow
Dont Allow
2. Egyptians used it as an
embalming agent / for embalming
Used for Egyptian

burials (alone)
3. (Traditional) Indian medicine

(used it as cure for indigestion /
colds)
Cure for
indigestion/colds (alone)
4. Gifted / offered /given to a god /

gods / Apollo // linked to religion
Fit for gods (alone)
5. Ingredient of / in oil used to

anoint Hebrew priests / bless
articles in the Hebrew temple //
used in Hebrew religion //
Ingredient of incense (which
perfumed offerings) in the Hebrew
temple // linked to holiness in
Hebrew religion
6. Luxury // symbol of affluence // fit
(also) for kings / emperors
Used in diverse cuisines
7. Used in cooking throughout the
world / in many / variety of countries
India / Turkey / Persia

(alone)
8. Used in cooking (especially) by

the elite in Europe
Deadly disease (alone)
9. (Seen as) a cure for the plague //
mixed with cloves / water and
placed in sick rooms of plague
victims
10. (Used by) European countries
to gain domination over each other
(by controlling its production)
11. Used to cook savoury dishes
12. Used to cook sweet dishes
13. Oil (from leaves/ bark) has
Portugal / Holland /
Britain (alone)
Page 3
Mark
Mark Scheme
Expected Answer
Allow
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Dont Allow
antiviral properties
14. (Prevents disease by) killing
mosquito larvae
15. Anti-inflammatory (effect)
improves digestion / diet
Prevents malaria /
// diseases caused by
mosquitoes
Treats malaria
16. Pharmaceutical companies are

(considering) using cinnamon (in
conventional medicine)
17. (May) reduce cholesterol
18.
(Potential)
treatment
for
diabetes (because of link to low
blood sugar level)
19. (Link to reduced blood sugar
levels may prove) beneficial (in the
war) against obesity // it is a
treatment for / prevents obesity
20. Delays (the onset of) memory
loss (in elderly people) // boosts
brain activity / thought processes
Can reduce blood sugar

level (alone)
Prevents / cures
diabetes
Can reduce blood sugar
level (alone)
Cures obesity
If content point being made depends on information contained in another bullet point, withhold the
mark unless a clear link is made between the two points.
Page 4
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Use your notes to write a summary, in which you describe the uses and popularity of
OF ENGLISH. The table on page 6 provides descriptors of the mark levels assigned to
these TWO categories.
rare.
Raise any half marks to the nearest whole number e.g. OW 3, UE 2, giving a mark of 3.
Use margin (either left or right) to indicate OWN WORDS assessment, and the body of
the script to indicate USE OF ENGLISH assessment. Under OWN WORDS, use either
T (text), O (own words), MR (manipulated or re-worked text) and / or IR
(irrelevant).Where the candidate has more or less written a wholesale copy, but has
substituted an odd word here and there (single word substitution) indicate these single
words with O above them. Otherwise use the margin only for assessment of OW.
assessment, use a cross for errors (over the errors). Indicate omissions with a cross.
Indicate only serious errors. If the same error is made more than once, e.g. omission of
definite article, indicate it each time it is made. Below follows a list of serious errors:
SERIOUS ERRORS
Wrong verb forms.
Mis-spellings of simple, basic words, e.g. were/ where // to/ too/ their/ there.
Breakdown of sense.
Page 5
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
top boxes in the Use of English column. Ticks, therefore, tend to be over relative pronouns,
present participles and conjunctions. Do not tick vocabulary: this will be taken into
rare.
Short answers
0 20 = 0 marks for style. No assessment of OW and UE is necessary.
Page 6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22

Mark
5
Own Words
Mark

language.
Use of English


re-phrase the text.

mangled relevance.

complete transcript,
word expression.
below.

of the text.
Complete transcript

to the reader.
isolated.
generally helpful.
noticeable.
and complexity, they will generally
be lifted from the text.
attempted.
frequent. [8+ errors as a guide, but
balance against sentence structure
is also necessary]
correct.
reading.
throughout.
Fractured syntax.
Page 7
2
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
From your reading of paragraph 1, decide whether each of the following statements is
true, false, or not stated in the passage, and tick the boxes you have chosen.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
Statement (i) is true
1 mark
Statement (ii) is not stated

If two or three answers

are indicated against
any single statement
1 mark
Statement (iii) is false

Mark
Allow
1 mark
(so) it is obvious that legends

would grow up around
cinnamon / it
Own words attempts
1 mark
cinnamon has a delightful

flavour
Cinnamons / its delightful

flavour //
Lift of Because of its
delightful flavour
excess denies
Dont Allow
Allow the use of the correct opinion in a phrase or sentence provided that it is underlined or
otherwise highlighted.
Page 8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
Passage 2
4
(a) Why is the ship described as groaning?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
it was full of passengers /

people (and cargo)
It was loaded / heavy with

passengers // there were a
lot of passengers
full of cargo / bales

of cloth // it was
fully loaded = 0(N)
(it had / was at) maximum

capacity of passengers
it was being loaded

=0(N)
it was ready to sail
= 0(N)
synonyms for
groaning e.g. it
was making a lot of
noise
0(N) answer does not negate correct answer
(b) Why was the girls mother waving?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
she was saying / waving (sic)

goodbye
(to the people on the quay/
shore / to the people who had
come to see / wave them off /
to the people with the flags/
banners / her family)
The people on the quay

/shore were waving //
people / her family had
come to see them / her off
/ people were waving flags
and banners
Lift, in whole or in
part, of Esme
turned towards her
mother...with one
hand waving.
Answer must be
distilled.
Lift of lines 23 peoplein

the air
She was waving /

saying goodbye to
her daughters =
0(W)
Addition of to see
the crowd etc. =
0(W)
Page 9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) Give two ways in which the behaviour of the sisters shows their affection for each
other.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
(i) Kitty put her arm through

Esmes / her sisters (arm)
One put her arm through

the others arm
Run-on into
keeping her
eyes / watching
bales of cloth being
loaded....= 0(W)
(ii) Esme laid her head on her

sisters / Kittys shoulder
One laid her head on the

others shoulder(s)
She had her arm

around / hugged
Esme = 0(W)
1 mark
1 mark
Reference to the
mother patting
Esmes hand etc. =
0 (W) in either limb
0(W) answer negates a correct answer
(a) The ship began to sway...and then to roll from side to side. What is causing this to
happen?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
(The start of) a storm // the

waves / sea (becoming) rough
/stormy/ wild
Waves striking the ship
Any reference to
the ship (alone) = 0
(N)
The strength of the waves

Hurricane
Mere description of
movement = 0(N),
e.g. moving,
shaking
Sea / waves
(alone) = 0 (N)
Waves getting
bigger = 0 (N)
Page 10
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Pick out and write down the single word from the paragraph which continues the idea
of moving from side to side.
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
seesaw
The use of the correct

word in a phrase or
sentence provided that it is
underlined or otherwise
highlighted.
More than one

word
sway
roll
Accept see saw

bucked
Sway and roll are incorrect because question asks for continuing the idea of moving from
side to side.
(c) The sea hurled itself at the glass. What effect is created here that would not be
created by the sea splashed against the glass?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
The sea is attacking the ship

/ glass // is hurtful/ malicious /
wicked / trying to cause
damage
The sea was angry.
The sea is
personified/ sound
likes a person
(alone) = 0. Image
must be de-coded.
The sea was hitting /

striking the ship hard
OR
It conveys the force / violence
/ strength (of the sea /
waves)
The sea / waves

hitting / striking the
ship = 0(N)
Synonyms for
hurled, e.g. threw
Page 11
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(d) Explain in your own words Esmes feelings when she realises she is the only
passenger who is not seasick.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
SHAMEFUL:
Allow
Embarrassed / disgraced / disgraceful

mortified / humiliated / guilty
1 mark
Dont Allow
wicked
/ bad /
ashamed / sorry
(for herself) / pity
EXUBERANT:
excited / elated / ecstatic /
high-spirited / upbeat /
ebullient /joyful / thrilled /
bubbling / delighted / jubilant
// really /very happy // really
/very glad // exultant
lavish / rich /
emotional / proud /
triumphant / (very)
pleased / (very)
contented / (very)
satisfied
This is an OWN WORDS question. Key words are SHAMEFUL and EXUBERANT.
Mark what you see, i.e. ignore wrong answers unless it contradicts a correct one, e.g.
excited and bored for exuberant.
Do not insist on synonym for health or seasick but a sensible context must be established.
Page 12
6
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) As Kitty lay crumpled on the bed, what are the two indications that she might be
desperately ill?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(i) her face was very /

completely /deathly white
1 mark
(ii) she didnt recognise Esme

/ her sister
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of her deathly white

face = 1. Excess denies
Lift of she gazed at Esme
without recognition = 1.
Excess denies
Inclusion of she
opened her eyes,
unless it is clearly a
stem of the answer
and not the answer
itself, e.g. when
she opened her
eyes, she did not
recognise Esme
Run-on into and
then turned her
face to the wall =
0(W)
0(W) answer negates a correct answer.
If candidate gives two correct answers in one limb, award one mark max. However, if
candidate has given two correct answers in one limb and no response in the other limb,
award two marks. Such answers will be rare.
Page 13
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(b) Why do you think Esme hung a towel over the window?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
so that Kitty /her sister

couldnt see / wouldnt have
to look at the sea / water // to
hide the sea / water
Her sister/ Kitty couldnt

stand the sight of the sea /
water
Lift of I cant stand

the sight of the sea
= 0(N)
So that Kitty / her sister

wouldnt be ill looking at
the sea / water
So that she
couldnt see the
sea = 0(N)
So that Kitty / her
sister couldnt look
outside = 0 (N)
0(N) answer does not negate correct answer.
(c) What did Esme learn not to do when she walked round the ship in the storm?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
(Not to) lean back //(not to)

stand / walk upright / (up)
straight
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift of learned to
lean
......like
a
horse
taking
a
fence =0. Answer
must be distilled.
Page 14
7
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) What did the girls mother disapprove of?

Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
1 mark
the girls/ her daughters/ Esme

and Kitty/ the sisters /them
wearing all the (few) clothes
they had / five dresses (and
two cardigans)
(She
disapproved
them etc.
Dont Allow
of) Lift of Were they

really...cardigans =
0(N)
Wearing so / too many Wearing one
(layers of) clothes
garment on top of
the other / layers of
clothes = 0 (N)
Addition of
bumped into one
another / struggled
= 0 (N)
0(N) answers do not negate an otherwise correct answer.
(b) Esme recalled memories of their previous home. What aspect of the country where
the girls used to live does the writer want to emphasise here?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
The heat / hot weather
dry weather / dryness /

sunny weather / sunshine /
warm weather / warmth
hot / sunny etc. country
Reference to
yellow dust / tea in
the garden /
hammock / clothes
shimmering / white
clothes = 0(N)
Lovely / nice /
delightful / pleasant
/ bright weather =
0(N)
The climate (alone)
Lifting will not work
Correct aspect + incorrect aspect = 0, e.g. it was warm and lively
Page 15
8
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(a) When the girls grandmother decided she would take them shopping, what evidence
suggests they were like beggars?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
they had no coats
Allow
Dont Allow
Lift
of
its
considered
shameful not to
own a coat = 0.
Answer must be
distilled
They were poorly /
badly dressed //
wearing layers of
clothes = 0(N)
Wearing no coats =
0(N)
(b) What emotion does Esme show in response to her grandmothers view that she and
her sister look like beggars?
Mark
Expected Answer
Allow
Dont Allow
1 mark
derision / mockery / disdain /

dismissal / scorn
Disgust / disapproval
Shame =0 (W)
Rebellion = 0(N)
She snorted / retorted in

derision etc
anger / irritation / resentment /
annoyance
She snorted / retorted in

anger etc
She doesnt think

shell like it here =
0(N)
Dislike = 0(N)
She snorted / she
retorted (alone) =
0(N)
Look for an interpretation of either snorted or retorted.
Question asks for an emotion not an action.
0(W) answer negates a correct answer.
0(N) answer does not negate correct answer.
Page 16
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
(c) Without copying from the passage, explain fully how we can tell that the girls
grandmother worried unnecessarily about her health.
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
CAST A SHADOW:
1 mark
Allow
(she had to / would / did)

postpone / cancel / change
(the trip / plan) // made her
think / decide they shouldnt
go out /should stay at home //
spoiled the idea of going out //
made going out /shopping
seem like a bad idea
Allow Plans for shopping /

going out
THE THREAT:
Allow answers with a

suitable conditional
context, e.g. if she thought
she would / could / might
(have a headache)
the possibility / the chance
Dont Allow
This is not a conventional own words question, but there are nevertheless key expressions,
which are THE THREAT and CAST A SHADOW.
Do not insist on synonyms for merely / headache / plans but context must be sensible.
If does not necessarily suggest a suitable conditional context, e.g. she wouldnt go
shopping if she had a headache = 1; she wouldnt go shopping if she might be getting / get a
headache = 2
Mark what you see, i.e. ignore wrong answers unless it contradicts a correct one.
Page 17
9
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
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22
Why do you think Kitty felt for Esmes hand and squeezed it?
Mark
Expected Answer
1 mark
to comfort her / Esme / herself

/ both of them
OR
They were / she / Esme was
astounded / overwhelmed /
amazed / overawed /
frightened / intimidated /
made nervous by / couldnt
believe the size / grandeur of
the store/ staircase / the
range of goods/clothing in the
store
OR
they / she / Esme had never
been in such a big / grand
store / in a store with such a
range of goods/clothing //
seen such a big / grand
staircase
Allow
Dont Allow
So that she / Esme

wouldnt feel overwhelmed
etc by the size / grandeur
of the store
They were / She was

surprised by the size of
the store etc
Amount for range

Lift of the range of goods
in the store was
astounding. Excess
denies
Look for idea of comfort, amazement, fear or strangeness.
10
passage.
Mark
Words
Expected Answer
Dont Allow
1 mark
For each
correct
meaning
(max 5)
1. ventured (L19)
dared / risked/ braved // went in

trepidation / bravely / boldly /
courageously
Went / exited / left

/ stepped /
explored /
sneaked
2. dank (L23)
damp / moist /clammy / foggy / misty /

cold and wet
Wet (alone)
Cold (alone)
rainy
3. excursion (L34)
outing / trip / expedition / jaunt / going

out / sortie
Journey /
departure /
activity
4. flew (L37)
sprang / (opened) quickly / abruptly //

burst / shot / was flung
Was pushed /
(open) suddenly
Page 18
Mark Scheme
Syllabus
1123
Paper
22
5. capacious (L38)
large / roomy / spacious / voluminous /

vast /ample / holds a lot / huge /
enormous / big
extensive
6. clearly (L43)
obviously / evidently / plainly / patently /

unmistakeably / manifestly/ definitely /
undoubtedly / without doubt / palpably
/surely
Proved /
understood /
known / shown
7. baffling (L44)
puzzling / bewildering / confusing /

perplexing / inexplicable / mystifying
Unbelievable /
incredible /
surprising
8. exasperation (L46)
Irritation / vexation / annoyance /

impatience /at her wits end / crossness
/ despair
Anger / fury / rage
wrong but neutral, e.g. large and extensive for capacious.

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education Ordinary Level

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

(a) What woke the writer from his sleep?

Why is Arturs friend weeping?

From the whole passage

refuge (line 41)

(a) 'woken from

(b) get up and

he had reached/was curious about/wanted to see his destination/Spain/Vigo

Key ideas are (i). SHAPE and (ii). LIGHT

he had no return ticket

urge/impulse/without thought/intuition/spontaneity/without reason/hunch/

he was in a new/strange/foreign/unfamiliar country/place//he was alone/

(i) (he was in a) ruined castle

(ii) (there was/he was near) the skeleton of a sheep/animal

(iii) (The place/it was) an (obvious) refuge for bandits

(a) not much

Key ideas are DUST and DRIED-UP RIVER

(b) Zamora now

(a) what they

he / they had violins / musical instruments

(b) Artur is ill

Look for FEVER and COUGH

(ii) he was coughing (a lot)/his speech was broken by coughing

Mark only the first FIVE words attempted.

(See words and equivalents overleaf.)

eventually/in the end/finally/ultimately/

made to) feel better/good//happy/

made to feel cheerful/hopeful/amused

10 MARK TO A MAXIMUM OF 15 OUT OF 20 FOR POINTS. AWARD A MAXIMUM OF 10 MARKS

EACH POINT SCORES 1 MARK

At the start of his long journey he had to..........

climb (from the coast/to a hilltop/to a rocky tower)

the country ahead of him/still to come was desolate/wild/silent/alien (magnificent =0)

there were heavy/eerie/strange shadows (in the valley)

the coastline looked/was menacing//frightening/frightened him

he felt abandoned/sad/lonely/upset/isolated/alone when he saw the ship leave/when the

he was troubled by/there were (wild) dogs

11. his limbs/legs/arms were stiff/sore/uncomfortable

15. he was in an (obvious) refuge for bandits/robbers/thieves//(he thought) bandits/robbers/

17. his head thumped /ached//bright light hurt his eyes

SUMMARY QUESTION: STYLE ASSESSMENT

SUMMARY STYLE DESCRIPTORS

Candidates make a sustained attempt

There is a noticeable attempt to rephrase the text.

There are recognisable but limited

Wholesale copying of large areas of

Pretty well a complete transcript of

1123 English Language June 2007

Comments on specific questions

1123 English Language June 2007

1123 English Language June 2007

1123 English Language June 2007

1123 English Language June 2007

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

(a) Whom did Yusuf meet at the shopping mall?

(a) Why did the arrival of the guests happen suddenly?

Grandfather knew the truth. What is the truth that he knew?

From paragraph 11: